Business Assignments Help USA, Canada & Singapore

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Q1.

Australia Food Ltd is a company with several branches across Victoria and NSW. The Company
produces various food products including meats and milks. You work as a management accountant in
this company.
Your manager has asked one of your colleagues in the management accounting department to
prepare a comparative profit or loss report for the current and previous month. The manager wants
the report to cover only meat production in Victoria’s branches. Your colleague suggests that since
the company has different branches and products, financial statements should cover all of the
company’s activities. He also suggested that the report should be prepared for a financial year in
accordance with accounting standards.
Using your knowledge of financial and managerial accounting, general and specific purpose financial
reports and various users of accounting information, advise your colleague as to the approach they
should adopt to meet the manager’s requirements and ensure the information correctly reflects the
department’s operations.
Your answer needs to be in your own words and correctly referenced to receive full marks.

Develop your SWOTs.-Compare your product with your forecast environment. How will your product fit in the external competitive environment? Demand-system support-Strong-Weak relationships relative to competitors? What is its competitive position-advantages/disadvantage relative to competitors? (SEE THE TRIANGULATION APPROACH FROM THE LECTURES). For opportunities and threats does the potential size and likely growth or demand-shrinkage rely on end-user numbers? End-user acceptance of the product-Pros/Cons? (Note: these are broad estimates) Potential threats and opportunities emerging in the macroenvironment, mesoenvironment or microenvironment-Please use attached table to summarise.

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Examine conceptual issues and the sources of authority for the accounting requirements which
apply to reporting by Australian companies, including Company Law, International and Australian
Accounting Standards, and Stock Exchange requirements;
2. Understand and evaluate different theories of accounting such as positive accounting theory,
normative accounting theory, stakeholders’ theory, legitimacy theory, institutional theory, and
different initiatives of relevant global organisations such as GRI, IR;
3. Apply Australian Accounting Standards and Corporate Legislation to the financial reporting
processes;
4. Evaluate advanced level financial accounting problems and select appropriate accounting
strategies for the accounting entity;
5. Understand different provisions of accounting standards and the compliance requirements of the
professional and legal bodies in Australia;
6. Make judgments about appropriate use of accounting standards and accurately apply appropriate
treatments for different advanced level accounting issues;

Define the specific public health nutrition issue chosen, its underlying factors giving rise to this health problem? Apply principles of public health nutrition and a ’systems approach’ to analyse YOUR CHOSEN population-level food and nutrition issue.

With regard to your chosen Nutrition issue, analyse relevant portions of the food and nutrition system in Australia. In your ‘background’ discuss the relevant drivers: economic, political, environmental and/or social and evaluate their impact on the whole system and its components.

Identify populations and ‘at risk subgroups’ to consider when developing interventions for your nutrition issue. Why is your target group community at risk? What are the past, current and future consequences of health due to this issue to the community?

From a Public Health Nutrition perspective, critique current 1) policies, 2) strategies and 3) advocacy practices associated with your chosen nutrition issue and examine how priorities have been addressed and their outcomes.

What does your analysis recommend should be done? What is your strategy intervention to address this issue? This must be clear, itemised and detailed. From your new level of expertise, make recommendations to improve this nutrition issue based upon topics in readings and in class, not limited to:
1. Government policy, funding and new laws. However, be mindful that Australia allows individual self-determination and that the banning of: alcohol (a nutrition issue), sugar (a nutrition issue) or cigarettes (a significant risk factor in CVD, but, not a nutrition issue and therefore not relevant to any of our assignments) is impossible;
2. Where to position the intervention: Upstream, Downstream and Midstream – support your choices with clear examples linked directly to your Nutrition issue. Include proper definitions as several in class have misunderstood the terminology, refer to the readings and quote references;
Other than a reduction in the public health nutrition issue (which may include these or these or additional markers – Incidence? Complications? Years lost (lifespan) or years of disability) what other indicators should be monitored to indicate successful strategies and interventions? (Government policies? Media coverage?) Why and what do you expect from reports by other researchers?

Communicate professionally and effectively. What will be the result if this issue is not addressed?

Q5
Question 1 3 Marks
(a) On 24 March 2020 an ANZ share was trading at $14.60 in ASX. The premium of Calls option with a
strike price (exercise price) of $16.00 with an expiry date on the month of your next birthday was
$1.00 per share. Draw the line curve of return (Profit/Loss) from the investment in this option against
share price varying from $0 to $30. (Draw the price per share on X-axis from $0 to $30 and Profit/Loss
in Y-axis. Must use Excel or similar software for the plot.) 2 marks
(b) If you had $2,000 to invest, how much profit would you make if the price jumped to $26.00 per share
of ANZ bank. Note that you have to pay a total brokerage fee of $19, options are traded in bundles of
100 shares in ASX, and you cannot overspend. (You may not be able to spend some amount of
money if it is too little for a bundle of shares.)
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Q6
This section will be a short paragraph that summarises the intent of the project. It should include: • The purpose and/or the desired outcome of the project • Timeframes for completion • Budget required (estimated) For example: “This project aims to increase the capacity of University of the Sunshine Coast (USC) staff and students to access health and wellbeing services by instituting a Health Promoting University Policy. The project is intended to be completed within 2 years, within a budget of $15 000.”
Q7
This assignment requires students to develop a crowdfunding proposal that incorporates key elements of a business plan.
The proposal may vary in length but students must be aware that this is in essence, a Web Pitch in which your product or service is the star of the show.
Here, you are asked to develop an online crowdfunding proposal that (1) reflects what an online user would see when reviewing your business and (2) serve as a serious business proposal. In writing your pitch, aim to incorporate the edited work you have completed for assignments 1 and 2.
a. A detailed written description of your product/ service (with diagrams/photos). [6 marks) b. A video description of your product/ service. [6 marks] c. What makes your product different? [3 marks) d. What’s your story? (Note: A good crowdfunding pitch tells a story). [3 marks) e. What rewards are you offering investors’, [2 marks)
Q8

Amber Turing was hoping for Frothly to be acquired by a potential competitor which fell through,
but visited their website to find contact information for their executive team. What is the
website domain that she visited?
2. Amber found the executive contact information and sent him an email. What is the CEO’s name?
Provide the first and last name.
3. After the initial contact with the CEO, Amber contacted another employee at this competitor.
What is that employee’s email address?
4. What is the name of the file attachment that Amber sent to a contact at the competitor?
5. What is Amber’s personal email address?
6. What version of TOR did Amber install to obfuscate her web browsing? Answer guidance:
Numeric with one or more delimiter.
7. What is the public IPv4 address of the server running www.brewertalk.com?
8. Provide the IP address of the system used to run a web vulnerability scan against
www.brewertalk.com.
9. The IP address from Question 8 is also being used by a likely different piece of software to attack
a URI path. What is the URI path?
10. What SQL function is being abused on the URI path from Question 9?
11. What is Frank Ester’s password salt value on www.brewertalk.com?
12. What is user btun’s password on brewertalk.com?
13. What was the value of the cookie that Kevin Lagerfield’s browser transmitted to the malicious

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1. URL as part of a XSS attack?
  14. The brewertalk.com web site employed Cross Site Request Forgery (CSRF) techniques. What was
  the value of the anti-CSRF token that was stolen from Kevin Lagerfield’s computer and used to
  help create an unauthorized admin user on brewertalk.com?
  15. What brewertalk.com username was maliciously created by a spear phishing attack?
  16. According to Frothly’s records, what is the likely MAC address of Mallory’s corporate MacBook?
  HINT: Her corporate MacBook has the hostname MACLORY-AIR13.
  17. What episode of Game of Thrones is Mallory excited to watch?
  18. What is Mallory Krauesen’s phone number?
  19. Enterprise Security contains a threat list notable event for MACLORY-AIR13 and suspect IP
  address 5.39.93.112. What is the name of the threat list (i.e. Threat Group) that is triggering the
  notable event?
  20. Considering the threat list you found in Question 19, and related data, what protocol often used
  for file transfer is actually responsible for the generated traffic?

Q9
Again, using the four functions as your guide, do you think the managerial challenges Jeff Bourk faced when getting the airport up and running are different from what he faces now in actually overseeing the airport’s operation? Explain
Q10
You are required to conduct a literature search and discussion in this assignment.
You are to choose a peer reviewed journal article (from any country) on the:
-Use of Budgeting as a management technique for managing resources.
The article should be published between 2010 – 2020. Choose your article only after you have accessed several relevant articles, and then choose the best articles that will answer the assignment question below.
Required: Critically evaluate the relevance and challenges of budgeting systems by answering the 5 questions below:
Questions:
1. Briefly discuss the budgeting process. (5 marks)
2. Based on your selected journal article, discuss citing examples whether the budgeting process satisfies the purpose of planning, controlling and evaluating performance. (5 marks)
3. The two widely used practices in preparing budgets are ‘top down’ budgeting and ‘bottom up’ budgeting. Identify and explain the practice adopted by the organisation discussed in your selected journal article and further explain the behavioural implications of adopted practice. (5 marks)
4. Based on your literature findings (above), critically evaluate the comment that ‘traditional budgeting practices are constraint on creativity, and the time and energy spent on budget formulation is better spent elsewhere’.
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Q11
Computer BIOS (Basic Input Output System) has been traditionally
responsible for the booting process. However, it has largely been replaced by
the Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI).
Find and summarise ONE resource that describes UEFI. The resource, and
your summary, must focus on UEFI, however, you may mention how it differs
from BIOS.
Title, Link and Reference:
here.>
Summary:
and why it is relevant to the task here>

Q12
Using the information provided about Noyers Ltd and appropriate research regarding the
industry and other economic factors:
a. Assess the key business risks of Noyers Ltd from the information available to you (at
least six (6) need to be identified);
b. Explain the implications of each risk identified on the financial statements;
c. Identify the related financial statement accounts at risk.
d. Identify the related management assertion (refer to ASA 315) most at risk for each
financial statement account identified as being at risk.
e. Justify your identification of the management assertion at risk.
Use the spreadsheet template tab Task 1 in order to complete this task.
Task 2
Materiality assessment requires an auditor to make judgements about the size of
misstatements that would be considered ‘material’ to the users of the financial statements.
The auditor will design procedures in order to identify and correct errors or irregularities that
would have a material effect on the financial report and affect the decision making of the
users of the financial report. Materiality is used in determining audit procedures, sample
selections, and evaluating differences from client records to audit results. It is the maximum
amount of misstatement, individually or in aggregate, that can be accepted in the financial
report.
In selecting the base figure to be used to calculate materiality, an auditor should consider the
key drivers of the business. They should ask, ‘What are the end users (i.e. shareholders, banks
etc.) of the accounts going to be looking at?’ For example, will shareholders be interested in
profit figures that can be used to pay dividends and increase share price?
S & A Partners’ audit methodology dictates that one planning materiality (PM) amount is to
be used for the financial report as a whole (that is, rather than separate PMs for the income
statement and the balance sheet). The basis selected is the one determined to be the key
driver of the business.
Q13
You are tasked with creating a text-based program for storing data on Hotel Room Bookings – however, as this
is a comparative languages course, you will be creating the same application in the following three programming
languages:
• Java,
• Python, and
• Lisp
As you implement the application in each language you should keep notes on:
– The features of the languages used,
– Which features you found useful, and
– Any issues or complications which arose due to the complexity or lack of any language features.
A brief discussion document based on these programming features for each individual language accompanying
each implementation is required. Finally, a comparative overview of the languages highlighting how they were
suitable or not suitable for the creating this type of application is also required.
It is recommended that the first version of the application you write is in the programming language which is
most familiar to you. This will help you to have a working ‘template’ for storing room bookings which you can
then translate into the other programming languages.
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Q14
1 Outline three examples of barriers to the implementation of a WHS Management System. For each
barrier, identify a strategy that can be used to overcome the barrier.
2 List three reasons why it is important to consult with staff when implementing or reviewing WHS
procedures and policies in the workplace.

Q15
Q9: Provide an understanding of the complexities of case
management in the following areas:
a. Family structure
b. Dynamics
c. Communication
d. Decision making
MR FER
Q10: Identify at least two relevant Mental Health / AOD related information in each
of the following areas:
? Organisation and regulatory standards
? Policy and procedures
? Legislation and statutory mandates
MR FER
Q11: Please provide the requirements for making a referral process to another service
where needs have been identified.
MR FER
Q12. Explain the principles and practices for the following:
a. Planning complex service inputs
b. Working across multiple services
MR FER
Q13: How can we as Case Managers in the mental health or AOD sector,
a. Understand the impact of service duplication
b. Recognise the issues faced by clients, their families and carers accessing multiple
services?
MR FER
Q14. What are the requirements of evidence – based practices? MR FER
Q15. Describe how a Case Manager recognises at least two indicators of imminence of
self-harm or harm to other.

Q16
Choose any three concepts. Write a short essay defining and explaining the importance of each of the chosen concept. Each concept essay should not exceed 500 words (or 1500 words in total for the three concepts). Email your essay directly to me (ranald.taylor@murdoch.edu.au). 1. Consumer equilibrium 2. Income and substitution effects 3. Marginal rate of substitution 4. Backward bending labour supply curve 5. Producer equilibrium 6. Returns to scale 7. Short-run and long-run costs 8. Total factor productivity growth

Q17
Choose any three concepts. Write a short essay defining and explaining the importance of each of the chosen concept. Each concept essay should not exceed 500 words (or 1500 words in total for the three concepts). Email your essay directly to me (ranald.taylor@murdoch.edu.au). 1. Consumer equilibrium 2. Income and substitution effects 3. Marginal rate of substitution 4. Backward bending labour supply curve 5. Producer equilibrium 6. Returns to scale 7. Short-run and long-run costs 8. Total factor productivity growth
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Q18
Over time most businesses will have goals to grow and expand. One growth option is to target a new market segment (known as market development). You need to determine whether the Pizza restaurant in the case below will need to modify its marketing mix as they pursue another target market.
Gino Pizza restaurant offers a unique range of high-quality pizzas. The restaurant is well known for its innovative and unique pizza tastes. They originally segmented their market based on demographics and attitudes. As a result, they decided that their target market would be “pizza purists”, “variety seekers” and “experience seekers” who are willing to pay a premium price for unique tastes. The business was built around a general positioning of: “Set new standards for pizza restaurants”. Their marketing mix/strategy is as follows:

Marketing Mix Element	General Approach
Product	Unique range of high-quality pizzas. Use unusual ingredients (with choices such as oysters, kangaroo, avocado). Great wine list.
Price	Premium pricing. Membership discounts.
Place	Located in a beautiful historic building. No home delivery but offers takeaway option.
Promotion	Food magazines, word of mouth, digital marketing, targeted television commercials.
People	Knowledgeable, cheerful, approachable, multi-skilled and friendly staff.
Process	Reservation is a must. Impeccable and multilingual service. High ratio of serving personnel to patrons. The pizza is immediately prepared and served hot.
Physical Evidence	Intellectual atmosphere, surrounded by books and old portraits of intellectuals.

The store has now decided to grow the business by offering “something for everyone” targeting ‘value seekers’ and ‘convenience seekers’ and have a ‘value’ based positioning focus. Please answer the following question using the textbox provided below:
Considering the restaurant’s new target market, explain how you would structure the new marketing mix, across the 7Ps, for the restaurant to successfully pursue its new target market. Feel free to make assumptions and try to be creative!
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Q19
Portfolio guidelines
The main part of the portfolio which students should prepare for this course consists of a qualitative
case study.
To produce the qualitative case study, students should first clarify (in a form of an abstract) the
dimensions of their PhD research, that is – to state the problem they wish to explore, the purpose of
their research, and the methodology they intend to apply. Next, students should select a person, a single
institution or company, or a particular policy to be their case, i.e. unit of analysis; this case should
correspond to the student’s PhD research purpose and question(s). Then, students need to conduct one
observation of the selected unit of analysis (i.e. the case). In addition, students need to conduct an
interview with a key informant relevant to the selected case. In other words, the observation report and
the interview transcript (along with other gathered documents relevant to the case) should serve as
bases for the writing of the qualitative case study.
Eventually, students should submit by email four documents:
1. Abstract of your PhD research (300-400 words).
Your abstract should include background of the problem, purpose statement, research question(s),
clarification of the methods and techniques you intend to use, as well as a brief mention of the
expected findings of your research. To find out more about writing abstracts, please see the
document entitled ‘How to write an abstract’ which is available from the student platform Moodle.
Also, please consider the examples of purpose statement given in the textbook (see Merriam, pp.
62-63). Do not forget to add an appropriate title to your research. To learn more about titles, please
see the document entitled ‘How to write a great title’ which is available from the student platform
Moodle.
2. Written transcript of an interview (1000-2000 words).
You need to plan and conduct one interview with a key informant from whom you can gather
relevant data that will help you to write the case study. Make sure you use open-ended questions in
order to gather sufficient information about the person’s direct experience and views about the
problem so that you can write the case study in a form of a convincing narrative. The content of the
recorded interview should be transcribed according to the model given in the textbook (see
Merriam, pp. 111-113).
3. Observation report (field note) (1000-2000 words).
You need to plan and carry out one observation of the selected unit of analysis (i.e. the case). This
could be a systematic, planned observation during a field visit to a site and situation relevant to your
chosen case. You need to produce a field report, i.e. an observation note/report according to the
model given in the textbook (see Merriam, pp. 132-135). Your observation comments should be
added in the note either within the text (in brackets) or on the right hand margins.
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4. Case study (2000-4000 words).
The case study should be written as a report in a narrative form, and it should include rich, ‘thick’
descriptive parts. Besides an effective introduction, you should provide some background of the
problem; indicate your intentions and methodology; provide description of the findings; and offer
conclusions. Also, do not forget to add in Appendix the inventory of all the documents used while
preparing the case study. You may wish to follow the outline of a case study report which is given as
an example in the textbook (see Merriam, p. 263). Do not forget that qualitative research is about
people’s interpretation of the phenomenon that you investigate, so presenting their personal story
in the narrative report is essential to making a convincing case.
Studying the chapters from the main textbook (especially chapters 3, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 10 in Merriam, 2009)
may appear essential to writing a successful portfolio. Indeed, further useful information can be found in
the other textbooks which are available from the student platform Moodle.

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Q20
Therefore, you should not include a lengthy literature review on your topic and research question. Instead you should mainly focus on the following:
– Explaining your data collection methods and justifying why these are appropriate to your research question.
– Explaining your sampling strategy and showing how it was guided by your research question as well as practical concerns (and your recruitment/access strategy if relevant).
– Explaining your analysis strategy, choices you made along the way, why these are appropriate to your research question and the data you collected.
– Explaining any changes you made to your research question or sample, data collection or analysis strategies after starting the study and justifying them.
– Presenting the results of your analysis including your interpretation.
– Showing your interpretative claims are supported by (grounded in) your data.
Nevertheless, it is always necessary to properly contextualize a study. Thus, you should also address the following:
– What is your research question?
– Why is it important to you and/or why should it be important to others? (Does it address a theoretical gap, respond to a practical concern or investigate an interesting phenomenon?)
– What does some existing literature say about this research question and how does your study fit with this literature? (for example, does it confirm, extend or contradict current knowledge?) To do this you will have to cite some existing theory and/or a few studies, but do not conduct a lengthy literature review.
– Why you have taken the approach you have taken, your views on qualitative research and your view of your role as the researcher and how you affect the research process.
– Strengths and limitations of your study and possible next steps.
You can use any you wish but you must use more than one method, and use each method to collect data several times. The minimum for each method is as follows:
1.4 interviews
2.3 observations
3.2 focus groups
4.5 documents/texts for archival analysis
More important than satisfying a numerical minimum, however, is showing that you obtained sufficiently rich data to allow for interesting and credible analysis and interpretations, showing that you know how to use the methods appropriately and showing that you were deliberate and thoughtful about your choice of method, sampling, etc.
You must obtain consent from any participants (except when you observe in a public space or use publicly available data). You should use pseudonyms to maintain the anonymity of all sources.
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As mentioned, I do request that you connect your study to some existing research or theory, particularly in the introduction and in the discussion sections. You might be able to use some of the readings in our module (e.g. exemplary articles) or in one of your other modules.
Your essay should be typed, double spaced, fully referenced1, and in 12-point font. The 3,000 word limit excludes the bibliography and any tables or figures.
Deadline:
Monday, December 14, 2015, 4:00 PM
(1) Submit one electronic copy on moodle, and (2) hand in one hard (printed) copy to the Faculty Office of Social Science (FOSS) along with your portfolio (see below) before the deadline.
1 Any academic citation style used in social science journals is acceptable as long as it is used consistently throughout the document.
Portfolio
(Submit this to the Faculty Office of Social Science (FOSS) with the hard copy of your essay before the deadline mentioned above.)
Your portfolio gathers in one place evidence of what you have learned and accomplished during this module and demonstrates what you are now capable of as a qualitative researcher.
From the exercises you conducted outside of class, your portfolio should include:
1. Research question, purpose and/or propositions for your observation
2. Field notes from your observation (during and/or after)
3. Memo for your observation (optional)
4. Research question, purpose and/or propositions for your interviews (if different from research question/purpose for observation)
5. Notes from your interviews
6. Transcript of your interview
7. Memo for your interview (optional)
8. Signed consent form for your interview
9. Coded interview transcript
From the qualitative study you conducted for your individual coursework, your portfolio should include copies of the materials (artefacts) of your data collection and analysis, such as, for example, transcripts, archival texts, fieldnotes, consent forms, memos, examples of coding, etc.
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Q21
Conduct a semi-structured qualitative interview on a topic that is directly relevant to a sociological issue.
a. Make a transcript, which should be presented in an appendix.
b. Include in the appendix the interview topic guide
c.Your report, which should be no more than 2,000 words (excluding the appendix), should:
a. construct a research question and provide a brief sociological account of existing empirical research in your selected subject area
b. put your data in context, for example, explain the aim of an interview,
c. provide a theoretically informed account of the methodology applied to generate the qualitative data i.e., discuss qualitative interview methodology
d. discuss which technique,or combination of techniques you are using to analyse your data You should demonstrate that you have read some theoretically informed discussion of your chosen technique of data analysis
e. discuss the procedure applied to systematically code your data patterns of association)
f.discuss the validity and reliability of your findings
……. QUESTION TITLE :- semi-structured qualitative interview

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Q22
Prepare a 1 page double-spaced paper in APA format. The paper should have �1� margins all around, 12 point font, Times New Roman, pages numbered in upper right corner, running head and proper citations within the body of paper in APA format. The paper should include a cover page and reference page in APA format which is not include in the page count. This is a DBA in Business Administration course. The title of the course is Qualitative and Case Study Research for Business Analysis. Please write this paper as if it is your own assignment. The paper has to be scholarly written. This assignment will be submitted to turnitin. Please do not use information from another paper. Please use peer-reviewed references no older than 5 years old. Please us at least 2 of the references below. The assignment is due by April 08, 2015 by 6PM EST. I will upload the research study that we are to use for this project. You must focus on the background, problem statement, purpose statement, research question and conceptual/theoretical framework against the doctoral Study Rubric which I will upload. I am requesting you writer 337512 because you are completing my week 6 application which this should be included with this project. I know that I uploaded but apparently the professor felt that it was not correct. The professor is allowing me to correct the assignment. Thank you in advance. Catalog Description The D.B.A. capstone project requires that students know how to collect, organize, and interpret data. In this course, students broaden their research and general analysis skills as they further explore methodology and project types to incorporate into their doctoral study. Students engage in coursework focusing on qualitative and case study research methods, through which they learn to focus their analysis on efforts to improve the quality of an organization and its performance. Students examine techniques for thinking in an action-oriented manner, as if they were consultants, so that they can apply their own doctoral study in the real world. Finally, students engage in an iterative process of writing a proposal, incorporating feedback from peers and the course instructor. Ultimately, the proposal is offered by students as a document for review for consideration by potential mentors for their doctoral study. Designing a Qualitative Study and Approach The foundation of every successful doctoral study is a well-formulated business problem statement. You have likely already identified a business topic about which you are passionate, but is it a business problem that you can actually investigate? For example, does the business problem statement have a limited enough scope, and does enough research exist to support your inquiry? Critically thinking about factors such as these is necessary for constructing a pragmatic research question and a focused and promising doctoral research study. This week, you will focus on developing your business problem statement for your own study, concentrating on its scope and on the potential resources and research methods that you can apply to it. Be sure to follow the criteria in the Walden doc study rubric. Work with your colleagues and Instructor to determine your statement’s feasibility and appropriateness as it relates to your doctoral study. You will use their feedback to hone and refine your business problem statement. In addition, you will continue your evaluation of your selected doctoral study, focusing on the data collection methods and their fit with the identified problem and approach. Consider the relationship between the problem, the methods, and data collection techniques and how this relationship helps to focus a study. Learning Outcomes
By the end of this week, you will be able to: �Evaluate data collection methods for qualitative research in a business-related doctoral study
�Examine how to focus an appropriate qualitative study
�Create a first draft of your business problem statement
�Assess ethical challenges in conducting qualitative research Resources Week 3: Designing a Qualitative Study and Approach This page contains the Learning Resources for this week. Be sure to scroll down the page to see all of the assigned resources for this week. To view this week’s video resources, please use the streaming media players below. Media �Laureate Education (Producer). (2012). Interview techniques part II [Video file]. Retrieved from http://class.waldenu.edu Note: The approximate length of this media piece is 14 minutes. This video program focuses on strategies needed to ensure the success of qualitative interviews. It discusses relevant subtopics, such as types of interview questions, the importance of neutrality, cross-cultural interview considerations, potential ethical issues, and tips for effectively recording data gathered during the interview process………………………………………. For a custom paper on the above topic, place your order now! What We Offer: • On-time delivery guarantee • PhD-level writers • Automatic plagiarism check • 100% money-back guarantee • 100% Privacy and Confidentiality • High Quality custom-written papers
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Q23
Research Report :
The assignment is to produce a research report (max. 3000 words) based on an analysis of qualitative data you will each collect by undertaking an interview. Your task is to conduct an interview, record it, transcribe a sample of your recordings, undertake some initial analysis of the content of the conversation and reflect on the process of collecting data this way. It is expected you will support this using insights gained by your wider reading on the subject of qualitative interviewing.

The aims of the assignment are:
• to familiarise yourself with the use of a qualitative method (in this case interviewing) for both data production and data analysis
• to develop your research interviewing and transcription skills
• to promote reflection on the process of doing qualitative research.
The assignment task is to use a semi-structured or an unstructured interview process to discover your interviewee’s views and perspectives on the subject of the experiences of postgraduate students who study abroad.
This will involve using interview approaches to probe the subject and gather and analyse your interviewee’s own responses to this topic (in his or her own words).

The expectation is that you will interview a fellow postgraduate student, possibly someone from your own course. You will have to use your initiative to find a person who will be willing to be interviewed. It is preferable to make contact with someone you don’t know very well; a useful approach to do this may be to seek someone who is a friend of a friend.
You decide if you want to use a unstructured or semi-structured interview approach. You must explain your choices in the method discussion of your report. If you use a semi-structured approach prepare a schedule of interview topics you think it may be useful to discuss (please include these as an appendix to your report and comment on the practical and theoretical relevance of these in your analysis).

If you use unstructured interviewing approaches describe in your report how you started the discussion and used follow-up questions. You should lead your interviewee into the topic gently without putting words into his or her mouth; so you should not introduce too much rigid structure or artificiality into the conversation. The atmosphere should be relaxed allowing your interviewee to talk in detail about events important to him or her. Your role is to keep the interview flowing and on-course and respond to their conversation appropriately with follow-up questions and comments. Ideally you want to capture rich, descriptive details of their experiences and perspectives.

• The interview must be recorded – this must be kept safe and made available to the tutor if requested. You should be able to use your phone, mp3 player, computer or a recorder to complete this task. (Loan audio/video equipment if required is under the supervision of Media Loans, Ground Floor, MHT building; equipment is limited so book early!)
• Your report should include an account of the methods used and your methodological approach. Academic references should be used to indicate how your approach was informed by background reading on qualitative interviewing. You should also discuss how and why any themes were chosen to help structure the interview and how the resulting data was analysed.

2) Transcription (approx. 500 words of actual conversation from the interview):
• The assignment must include a transcript of part of the interview; which should demonstrate the use of transcription techniques.
• Students need to familiarise themselves with the ‘script’ of the resulting interview. They should listen to the tape several times to work out which parts of the conversation are most relevant, interesting and able to demonstrate your transcription skills. This extract from the interview should be around 500 words and must include (as a minimum) the exact words as spoken during part of the interview.

• The interview should be conducted in English (even if the interview participants English is not perfect). Your transcript should be of the interview as spoken, and this may include mistakes and unusual sentences. You may however sometimes have to include some explanatory comments in order to make the sense clear to the reader.
• In the extremely unlikely event you are unable to interview in English you would need to make a full transcription in the first language and then a full translation. Your reasons for doing this must be justified and discussed in the method section and it should be noted that this is NOT RECOMMENDED
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– as it takes much longer to do and is much harder to capture the meaning of the conversations.
3) Reflection on research findings and process (approx.. 1000 words):
• Students need to write a short reflection on the interview they conducted.
• This should include a summary of the findings – including a summary of key themes emerging from the interviews and the lessons learnt.
• You might want to discuss the differences between your original expectations of themes for conversation and those discussed in the interview itself.

• You should reflect on the success or otherwise of the interview in addressing the overall original objective of the research.
• You may want to relate this discussion to the known strengths and weaknesses of the technique you chose (giving academic references). Remember this should always relate to a reflection on the process of your interview and its outcomes not a general discussion.
The structure of the report should be as follows:
• Method Description and Discussion (approx. 1000 words) – 40% of marks
• Transcript. Presentation of an extract from the interview, a sample transcript with annotations (approx. 500 words)
– 30% of marks
• Reflection on the interview findings and approach (approx. 1000 words) – 20% of marks
• References (using Harvard conventions) – demonstrating appropriate wider reading and skills in referencing – 10% of marks
Suggested Further Reading
Bryman A & Bell E (2007) Business Research Methods 2nd Edition Oxford University Press
Denzin N & Lincoln Y (2005) The SAGE handbook of Qualitative Research London: Sage
Eriksson, P & Kovalainen, A (2008) Qualitative Methods in Business Research London, Sage

Gummesson E (1991) Qualitative Methods in Management Research London: Sage.
Marschan,-Piekarit, R & Welch, C, (2005) Handbook of Qualitative Research Methods for International Business London: Edward Elgar.
Mason, J. (2002) Qualitative Researching. London: Sage
Saunders, M et al (2006) Research Methods for Business Students London: Financial Times/Prentice Hall
Silverman, D. (2001) Interpreting Qualitative Data: Methods for Analysing talk, text and interaction. London: Sage
Silverman, D (2000) Doing Qualitative Research: A Practical Handbook London: Sage

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Q24
Research Paper-
The final paper must be in APA format, including a title page, abstract, body and references. The total paper must be a minimum of 10 pages, meaning that the body of the paper must be at least 7 pages in length.
Prior to writing the paper, students must conduct one interview each with their contact person and conduct their observations at the agency. During the interviews and observations, students must explore the concepts of case management as identified and observed within the agency in accordance with material covered in this course in the textbooks. Woodside, M. and McClam, T. (2018). Generalist Case Management: A Method of Human Service Delivery (5th Edition). Belmont, CA: Cengage.
[ISBN-978-1-305-94721-4]
In the paper, students will analyze the agencys use of the case management concepts covered in the course through their observations and input from the interviews. Data from observations and interviews must be incorporated in the analysis of each topical area. Students must attribute information obtained from the interviews to their contact people using APA-formatted personal communication citations. The analysis also must be supported by evidence obtained from the reference material listed on the reference page and the texts in the course. A minimum of three peer-reviewed journal articles must be cited in the paper.
Students must use the following topical outline and include the following headings to organize the paper:
Agency name and description: several paragraphs detailing the agencys function and its clientele. This section should introduce the contact person for the project, including job title and credentials.
Principles and goals of case management: an analysis of the agencys application of the concepts supported by interview and observation as well as peer-reviewed sources.
Three components of case management: an analysis of the agencys application of the concepts supported by interview and observation as well as peer-reviewed sources.
Model(s) of case management: an analysis of the agencys application of the concepts supported by interview and observation as well as peer-reviewed sources.
Role(s) of the case manager: an analysis of the agencys application of the concepts supported by interview and observation as well as peer-reviewed sources.
Three phases of case management: an analysis of the agencys application of the concepts supported by interview and observation as well as peer-reviewed sources.
Summary: several paragraphs detailing the students experience with the project, including a summary analysis and objective evaluation of the agencys performance in carrying out the case management concepts covered in the course.
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Q26
Topic: Discussions of the logistics of a case study The case study can be an existing company or a self-developed innovative e-commerce business-model. The content should include: – Description of the case study incl. the specific business idea (the unique selling proposition, the main markets and customers, the products and services).. – Description of the logistics network, operations and framework include. figures – Identification of the main 3 drivers in logistics which the case study is facing include the positive resp. negative effects on the case study and the explanation for the choice by using an appropriate methodology or argumentation. – Derivation of recommendations how the case study should face the drivers and (negative) solve or (positive) make use of the effects named before.
Q27
“Media do have influence, but they are among many influences on human awareness, attitudes and behaviour and their effects are contingent and contextual” (Macnamara 2012, p. 153). Discuss how Public Relations practice is informed by the application of media theories.
“Theories are…alive and relevant. Discovering them is unlocking the door to chambers of hidden treasures…” (Macnamara 2012, p. 14). Using at least two of the theories or theoretical concepts described in Topic 8, discuss the relevance of theory to the contemporary Public Relations manager.
Length: 1800 words
Resources:
The following resources will be made available on the course website to assist in the completion of this assessment:

An example of a well-structured and argued essay on another topic;
Links to guides on essay writing; and
Links to information on searching academic databases.

Format:
The paper is to be presented as a formal academic essay. No headings should be used, however there should be a clear structure that leads from one point to the next and supports an overall position or argument throughout.
Referencing Style:
The Harvard Referencing Style is to be used in blog posts for academic references. See Referencing Guides on the UniSA Library website.
Students will be assessed on:
• a demonstrated understanding of relevant theories,
• strong evidence of scholarly research to support the discussion (including referencing skills),
• a logical presentation of arguments that lead to a stated position on the topic, and
• professional standard of writing style including expression, grammar, punctuation and spelling

Q29
This Task is an individual research task which will involve an in-depth examination of ONE Old Testament OR New Testament story. Your NRSV Bible will be beneficial for this Task as it provides important information regarding context. Structure of the Research: ? Choose ONE Bible Story from the list below: ? Noah (Gen 6-9) (Myth) ? Jonah (Prophecy) ? The Red Sea (Narrative) ? Paul’s Conversion (Acts. (Narrative) ? Ps 137 (Wisdom) ? Complete detailed research on this story using the scaffold attached. This research will be checked progressively in class. Simply typing up the scaffold information does not mean that you are answering the question below! The scaffold is designed to structure your research and order your thoughts so that you are able to complete the written response. ? Complete a correctly referenced bibliography as a part of your research. ? Your research will be used to answer the following question in PEEL format: How do the Scriptures communicate the mystery and truth of God
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Q30
1. (3 Marks) Identify the main research question addressed by the authors. This should be expressed in
a paragraph of about 7 sentences.
2. (3 Marks) What are the main approaches other researchers have previously used to address the problem?
3. (3 Marks) What approach is being proposed by the authors of this paper? Why are the previous
approaches different from what is being proposed in this paper? Specifically identify the problem faced
by previous approaches.
4. (3 Marks) Summarize/state the description (demographic) of the participants used in this study, how
they were selected and payments received. Comment on any item that may have caught your attention
with regard to generalizing the results obtained in this study.
5. (3 Marks) The authors have used a factorial design in their study. Justify their choice. How else could
they have constructed the study and what will be the potential benefit or otherwise of the approach you
have suggested?
6. (4 Marks) In the study carried out in this paper, what are the dependent variables? Explain in your
own words why the choice of these dependent variables are appropriate for the research question.
7. (12 Marks) Factorial design entails a decision on the factors to be considered (i.e. independent variables). In this study what are the factors? What are the various conceptual questions the choice of these
factors allow the researchers to answer? Explain each of your conceptual questions and how it relates to
the main research question. Draw a diagram/table showing the factorial design along with the factors.
8. (15 Marks) Explain in detail how the data collected by the researchers would be combined to determine
the main effects. In determining the main effects how would you state the hypothesis tests (both null and
alternate)? What test would be conducted? What are the first order interactions? Using the material
provided in the paper, what are their implications?

Q31
Portfolio guidelines
The main part of the portfolio which students should prepare for this course consists of a qualitative
case study.
To produce the qualitative case study, students should first clarify (in a form of an abstract) the
dimensions of their PhD research, that is – to state the problem they wish to explore, the purpose of
their research, and the methodology they intend to apply. Next, students should select a person, a single
institution or company, or a particular policy to be their case, i.e. unit of analysis; this case should
correspond to the student’s PhD research purpose and question(s). Then, students need to conduct one
observation of the selected unit of analysis (i.e. the case). In addition, students need to conduct an
interview with a key informant relevant to the selected case. In other words, the observation report and
the interview transcript (along with other gathered documents relevant to the case) should serve as
bases for the writing of the qualitative case study.
Eventually, students should submit by email four documents:
1. Abstract of your PhD research (300-400 words).
Your abstract should include background of the problem, purpose statement, research question(s),
clarification of the methods and techniques you intend to use, as well as a brief mention of the
expected findings of your research. To find out more about writing abstracts, please see the
document entitled ‘How to write an abstract’ which is available from the student platform Moodle.
Also, please consider the examples of purpose statement given in the textbook (see Merriam, pp.
62-63). Do not forget to add an appropriate title to your research. To learn more about titles, please
see the document entitled ‘How to write a great title’ which is available from the student platform
Moodle.
2. Written transcript of an interview (1000-2000 words).
You need to plan and conduct one interview with a key informant from whom you can gather
relevant data that will help you to write the case study. Make sure you use open-ended questions in
order to gather sufficient information about the person’s direct experience and views about the
problem so that you can write the case study in a form of a convincing narrative. The content of the
recorded interview should be transcribed according to the model given in the textbook (see
Merriam, pp. 111-113).
3. Observation report (field note) (1000-2000 words).
You need to plan and carry out one observation of the selected unit of analysis (i.e. the case). This
could be a systematic, planned observation during a field visit to a site and situation relevant to your
chosen case. You need to produce a field report, i.e. an observation note/report according to the
model given in the textbook (see Merriam, pp. 132-135). Your observation comments should be
added in the note either within the text (in brackets) or on the right hand margins.
4. Case study (2000-4000 words).
The case study should be written as a report in a narrative form, and it should include rich, ‘thick’
descriptive parts. Besides an effective introduction, you should provide some background of the
problem; indicate your intentions and methodology; provide description of the findings; and offer
conclusions. Also, do not forget to add in Appendix the inventory of all the documents used while
preparing the case study. You may wish to follow the outline of a case study report which is given as
an example in the textbook (see Merriam, p. 263). Do not forget that qualitative research is about
people’s interpretation of the phenomenon that you investigate, so presenting their personal story
in the narrative report is essential to making a convincing case.
Studying the chapters from the main textbook (especially chapters 3, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 10 in Merriam, 2009)
may appear essential to writing a successful portfolio. Indeed, further useful information can be found in
the other textbooks which are available from the student platform Moodle.
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Q32
Scenario 1. North Korea Nuclear & Ballistic Missile Program: You are a Defence Intelligence
Organisation (DIO) or Headquarters Joint Operations Centre (JOC), J2 (Intelligence
Directorate), Bungendore intelligence analyst and you have been directed to research,
analyse and deliver a comprehensive yet concise ‘Intelligence Estimate’ & one-page ‘Issue
Paper’ on the historical, current and projected situation in North Korea concerning its
Nuclear Weapons and Ballistic Missile programs. Your assigned mission is to provide an
intelligence assessment on this problem using an intelligence preparation of the operational
environment approach to support the development of potential future Australian national
courses of action (CoAs). You will need to assess North Korea’s Nuclear and Ballistic Missile
program capabilities and assess its intent to employ them: how, when and where — most
likely and most dangerous courses of action (COAs).
Scenario 2. PRC Maritime Territorial Ambitions in the South China Sea: You are a Defence
Intelligence Organisation (DIO) or Headquarters Joint Operations Centre (JOC), J2
(Intelligence Directorate), Bungendore intelligence analyst and you have been directed to
build a comprehensive yet concise ‘Intelligence Estimate’ & one-page ‘Issue Paper’ on the
historical, current and projected situation in the South China Sea involving expansive
People’s Republic of China (PRC) maritime territorial claims. Your assigned mission is to
provide an intelligence assessment on this problem using an intelligence preparation of the
operational environment approach to support the development of potential future
Australian national courses of action (CoAs). You will need to assess the PRC’s expansive
maritime territorial claims and supporting activities in the South China Sea, as well as
China’s future intentions, to include most likely and most dangerous potential courses of
action (COAs).
Q33
During the instructional design and technology specialization courses, you will be developing instructional materials supporting a learning intervention solution that will be developed and delivered using the Lectora instructional authoring system. Consequently, you will need to develop a working knowledge of the Lectora instructional authoring system. Therefore, for this assignment, you will design and develop a standalone learning module on how to use Lectora’s Title Wizard feature. Your Lectora deliverable will be published to the Single File Executable format (*.exe) and must include a minimum of the following: ? Welcome screen ? Learning objectives screen ? 6-8 screens describing and depicting the steps required to create a basic Lectora title using the Title Wizard function Follow the instructions in Lectora for the “Publish for Offline Use” option to publish your Lectora file to the Single File Executable format. Submit your assignment in this .exe format. The maximum Lectora published file size submitted to your individual submitted files area cannot exceed 20MB unless the file is submitted in compressed form (.zip). Compressed files (.zip) not to exceed 200MB.
One of the most popular questions that I often come across is “Where can I get someone to help me solve my tough college assignments?” or “Which is the best and affordable website for homework help where tutors give discounts throughout the year?” Well the answer is simple – https://www.homeworknest.com/. I have tried it and can testify without hesitation. Last time I was facing it rough on coming up with my PHD thesis ideas and research and Homework Nest Tutors came in hand. You see, College life is not a walk in the park especially for those who double it with a day job to keep their bills on check. You can find the best ElantSolutions at Homework Nest. You can also find the best VarsityTutors at Homework Nest. I will also add that you can find the best TransTutors at Homework Nest. All Homework and assignments are handled in minutes. In conclusion, the Best Known Website for Helping with College Homework for students is Homework Nest. If your homework deadline fast approaching and you do not have time? I used Homework Nest (https://www.homeworknest.com/) to Ace My Homework and Got As in my Final Exams. Hey, all the tutors are verified!
Q34
his paper has no formatting guidelines. You can write it in essay style, or you can answer the questions using numbers or bullet points. Overall assignment should be at least 3-4 paragraphs, minimum. Just be sure to make your answers clear and distinct, and fully answer the prompt.
Directions:
Pick one of the minority groups that have been discussed in Unit 2 of our text, specific cultural groups. This will entail Hispanic and Latinx populations, American Indian and Native American populations, African American populations, Asian American populations, European and Mediterranean American populations, and Nonethnic cultures. In your written assignment, answer the following questions:

Find an organization that provides resources and services to this cultural group. Briefly describe the organization, what services and resources they provide, and any other information that you see pertinent. In terms of health, what programs and services do they offer that target health. Try and find an organization that is in Clark County. 1- 2 paragraphs, minimum.Cite your source.
Describe cultural factors to be considered when providing health services to this population. Name at least 3. When a health provider (eg. a nurse, doctor, dentist, counselor, etc.) is working with someone from the cultural group you picked, what are some tips you would give them? Consider whether the group you chose has strong roots in complementary and/or alternative medicine, or if they are based in traditional Western practices. As an example, pages 166- 167 in our textbook offers tips to working with Hispanic populations and creating public health programs. 1 paragraph, minimum
List 3 strategies to reduce or eliminate health disparities within your population. Strategies can be found in Chapter 13 of your text. The strategies are not geared toward one specific cultural group but use your critical thinking skills to apply it to the cultural group you chose. 1 paragraph, minimum

Q36
NUR3003: Monash University- Clinical Motor Skills of Taking TPR & BP- Education For Clinical Practice-
Task:
To teach the BLS session, you will need to design and develop an evidence-based teaching plan for apeer teaching session you will be conducting in the clinical laboratories for 1st year students in weekeleven (11). The session involves teaching BLS.
Apart from Part 2 where a table format and dot points may be used, the ‘usual’ academic writingstandards apply to this assignment as follows:
• The header must include (a) student university student ID number and (b) the unit code.
• The footer must contain (a) assignment number, (b) page number and (c) date of submission.
• The lesson plan template provided can be cut and pasted into your assignment document.
• Use A4 format only; use 11 or 12 font Arial or Times New Roman.
• Use 2.5cm margins on each side of the page with double line spacing between lines.
• Sub-headings can be used to guide the reader.
• Submit in word format; do not submit as PDF or Pages document.

Q37
Assessment Task 2: Written Assignment – Searching for evidence
Description: Students are required to: identify, demonstrate and explain the rationale for conducting a structured search for evidence based on a health scenario. Student are also required to discuss how relevant the search is to the clinical question.
Instructions:
From the scenario/answerable question provided (LEO HLSC122, Assessment submission & resources) choose any one (1) as a basis for your inquiry.
Writing in an essay format (introduction, body, conclusion, reference list). The table/s are included in the word count, do not use an appendix. Minimum four (4) references (two to support your search strategy, two examples from your final search). Small/short headings may be used. Do not repeat the questions or scenario.
1. Based on the answerable question, identify key words, search terms and alternative words that you will then use to complete a structured search for evidence.
2. Identify the best two (2) databases that you would use to search for evidence related to the clinical question.
3. Explain why these two (2) databases are the best databases for conducting your structured search.
4. Use one (1) database described above to demonstrate your comprehensive and structured search for evidence using the table from Richardson-Tench et al. (2016, p. 47). Use the following headings in the table: ‘actions’, ‘search mode’, ‘results’, and ‘limiters’.
5. The table should demonstrate the use of a variety of search strategies (example Boolean operators, truncation, wildcard, limiters).
6. Your final search should demonstrate a significantly smaller number of results than your initial search.
7. Discuss how relevant your final search results were related to the PICO/PICo question/elements.
8. Include the best two (2) examples from your final search results as a full reference in the reference list.
Due date: Friday 01/09/2017, 1200 hours (midday)
Weighting: 30%
Length and/or format: 800 words
Purpose: This assignment requires your understanding of step one and two of the evidence-based practice (EBP) process. By undertaking this assessment task you will demonstrate your ability to use an answerable question to search for the best available evidence related to a clinical scenario.
Learning outcomes assessed: 2, 4, 5, 6
How to submit: Submission is via the Turnitin drop box available in LEO HLSC122 2017 Semester 2 (Assessment submission & resources tile).
Return of assignment: Feedback (written, rubric and/or voice comments) will be available in the Turnitin drop box in LEO not more than three weeks after the final submission date.
Assessment criteria: The marking guide (rubric) for this assessment task is in the unit outline and Turnitin.
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Q38
Assessment Task 2: Written Assignment – Searching for evidence
Description: Students are required to select any one (1) of the scenario/answerable question/evidence (provided in the LEO HLSC122, 2017 Semester 1 (Assessment Resources tile) to search for evidence.
Students are required to: identify and explain the rationale for selecting particular databases; search for evidence and refine your search using a variety of strategies; demonstrate a systematic search using a table with a final result significantly less than the initial search results. Finally the student is required to validate the accuracy of the search results.
Instructions: From the scenario/answerable question provided (LEO) HLSC122, 2017 Semester 1 (Assessment Resources tile) to search for evidence, choose any one (1) as a basis for your inquiry.
1. Based on the answerable question, identify key words, search terms or phrases that you will use to complete a systematic search for evidence.
2. Identify the best two (2) databases that you would use to search for evidence based on the answerable question.
3. Explain why you chose these two (2) databases to conduct your search.
4. Using one (1) database described above, demonstrate your initial and refined search for evidence using the table from Richardson-Tench et al. (2016, p. 47). Use these headings in the table: 'actions', 'search mode', 'results', and 'limiters'.
5. The table should demonstrate the use of a variety of search strategies (example Boolean operators, truncation, wildcard, limiters).
6. Your final search should demonstrate a significantly smaller number of results than your initial search.
7. Explain the accuracy (relevance) your search results related to the PICO/PICo question.
8. Include two (2) examples from your final search results as a full reference in the reference list.
Due date: Friday 7 April 2017, 2200 hours
Weighting: 30%
Length and/or format: 800 words
HLSC122 Inquiry in Health Care – U. Outline 201730 FINAL 8.2.17
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Q39
This 1800 word assignment is to be written and presented in three parts: Part 1-appraisal paper 1; Part 2-appraisal paper 2; and Part 3-justification of strongest evidence related to scenario. Students are directed to the ACU Study Guide: Skills for Success to identify skills required for academic writing. Headings are permitted for this task. Students should use APA style to cite all references within the body of their essay and in the reference list. There is a chapter … View More
Q40

(3 Marks) Identify the main research question addressed by the authors. This should be expressed in
a paragraph of about 7 sentences.
2. (3 Marks) What are the main approaches other researchers have previously used to address the problem?
3. (3 Marks) What approach is being proposed by the authors of this paper? Why are the previous
approaches different from what is being proposed in this paper? Specifically identify the problem faced
by previous approaches.
4. (3 Marks) Summarize/state the description (demographic) of the participants used in this study, how
they were selected and payments received. Comment on any item that may have caught your attention
with regard to generalizing the results obtained in this study.
5. (3 Marks) The authors have used a factorial design in their study. Justify their choice. How else could
they have constructed the study and what will be the potential benefit or otherwise of the approach you
have suggested?
6. (4 Marks) In the study carried out in this paper, what are the dependent variables? Explain in your
own words why the choice of these dependent variables are appropriate for the research question.
7. (12 Marks) Factorial design entails a decision on the factors to be considered (i.e. independent variables). In this study what are the factors? What are the various conceptual questions the choice of these
factors allow the researchers to answer? Explain each of your conceptual questions and how it relates to
the main research question. Draw a diagram/table showing the factorial design along with the factors.
8. (15 Marks) Explain in detail how the data collected by the researchers would be combined to determine
the main effects. In determining the main effects how would you state the hypothesis tests (both null and
alternate)? What test would be conducted? What are the first order interactions? Using the material
provided in the paper, what are their implications?
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Q41
Scenario 1. North Korea Nuclear & Ballistic Missile Program: You are a Defence Intelligence
Organisation (DIO) or Headquarters Joint Operations Centre (JOC), J2 (Intelligence
Directorate), Bungendore intelligence analyst and you have been directed to research,
analyse and deliver a comprehensive yet concise ‘Intelligence Estimate’ & one-page ‘Issue
Paper’ on the historical, current and projected situation in North Korea concerning its
Nuclear Weapons and Ballistic Missile programs. Your assigned mission is to provide an
intelligence assessment on this problem using an intelligence preparation of the operational
environment approach to support the development of potential future Australian national
courses of action (CoAs). You will need to assess North Korea’s Nuclear and Ballistic Missile
program capabilities and assess its intent to employ them: how, when and where — most
likely and most dangerous courses of action (COAs).
Scenario 2. PRC Maritime Territorial Ambitions in the South China Sea: You are a Defence
Intelligence Organisation (DIO) or Headquarters Joint Operations Centre (JOC), J2
(Intelligence Directorate), Bungendore intelligence analyst and you have been directed to
build a comprehensive yet concise ‘Intelligence Estimate’ & one-page ‘Issue Paper’ on the
historical, current and projected situation in the South China Sea involving expansive
People’s Republic of China (PRC) maritime territorial claims. Your assigned mission is to
provide an intelligence assessment on this problem using an intelligence preparation of the
operational environment approach to support the development of potential future
Australian national courses of action (CoAs). You will need to assess the PRC’s expansive
maritime territorial claims and supporting activities in the South China Sea, as well as
China’s future intentions, to include most likely and most dangerous potential courses of
action (COAs).
One of the most popular questions that I often come across is “Where can I get someone to help me solve my tough college assignments?” or “Which is the best and affordable website for homework help where tutors give discounts throughout the year?” Well the answer is simple – https://www.homeworknest.com/. I have tried it and can testify without hesitation. Last time I was facing it rough on coming up with my PHD thesis ideas and research and Homework Nest Tutors came in hand. You see, College life is not a walk in the park especially for those who double it with a day job to keep their bills on check. You can find the best ElantSolutions at Homework Nest. You can also find the best VarsityTutors at Homework Nest. I will also add that you can find the best TransTutors at Homework Nest. All Homework and assignments are handled in minutes. In conclusion, the Best Known Website for Helping with College Homework for students is Homework Nest. If your homework deadline fast approaching and you do not have time? I used Homework Nest (https://www.homeworknest.com/) to Ace My Homework and Got As in my Final Exams. Hey, all the tutors are verified!
Q42
This paper has no formatting guidelines. You can write it in essay style, or you can answer the questions using numbers or bullet points. Overall assignment should be at least 3-4 paragraphs, minimum. Just be sure to make your answers clear and distinct, and fully answer the prompt.
Directions:
Pick one of the minority groups that have been discussed in Unit 2 of our text, specific cultural groups. This will entail Hispanic and Latinx populations, American Indian and Native American populations, African American populations, Asian American populations, European and Mediterranean American populations, and Nonethnic cultures. In your written assignment, answer the following questions:

Find an organization that provides resources and services to this cultural group. Briefly describe the organization, what services and resources they provide, and any other information that you see pertinent. In terms of health, what programs and services do they offer that target health. Try and find an organization that is in Clark County. 1- 2 paragraphs, minimum.Cite your source.
Describe cultural factors to be considered when providing health services to this population. Name at least 3. When a health provider (eg. a nurse, doctor, dentist, counselor, etc.) is working with someone from the cultural group you picked, what are some tips you would give them? Consider whether the group you chose has strong roots in complementary and/or alternative medicine, or if they are based in traditional Western practices. As an example, pages 166- 167 in our textbook offers tips to working with Hispanic populations and creating public health programs. 1 paragraph, minimum
List 3 strategies to reduce or eliminate health disparities within your population. Strategies can be found in Chapter 13 of your text. The strategies are not geared toward one specific cultural group but use your critical thinking skills to apply it to the cultural group you chose. 1 paragraph, minimum

An example of a well-structured and argued essay on another topic;
Links to guides on essay writing; and
Links to information on searching academic databases.

Q44
During the instructional design and technology specialization courses, you will be developing instructional materials supporting a learning intervention solution that will be developed and delivered using the Lectora instructional authoring system. Consequently, you will need to develop a working knowledge of the Lectora instructional authoring system. Therefore, for this assignment, you will design and develop a standalone learning module on how to use Lectora’s Title Wizard feature. Your Lectora deliverable will be published to the Single File Executable format (*.exe) and must include a minimum of the following: ? Welcome screen ? Learning objectives screen ? 6-8 screens describing and depicting the steps required to create a basic Lectora title using the Title Wizard function Follow the instructions in Lectora for the “Publish for Offline Use” option to publish your Lectora file to the Single File Executable format. Submit your assignment in this .exe format. The maximum Lectora published file size submitted to your individual submitted files area cannot exceed 20MB unless the file is submitted in compressed form (.zip). Compressed files (.zip) not to exceed 200MB.
One of the most popular questions that I often come across is “Where can I get someone to help me solve my tough college assignments?” or “Which is the best and affordable website for homework help where tutors give discounts throughout the year?” Well the answer is simple – https://www.homeworknest.com/. I have tried it and can testify without hesitation. Last time I was facing it rough on coming up with my PHD thesis ideas and research and Homework Nest Tutors came in hand. You see, College life is not a walk in the park especially for those who double it with a day job to keep their bills on check. You can find the best ElantSolutions at Homework Nest. You can also find the best VarsityTutors at Homework Nest. I will also add that you can find the best TransTutors at Homework Nest. All Homework and assignments are handled in minutes. In conclusion, the Best Known Website for Helping with College Homework for students is Homework Nest. If your homework deadline fast approaching and you do not have time? I used Homework Nest (https://www.homeworknest.com/) to Ace My Homework and Got As in my Final Exams. Hey, all the tutors are verified!
Q45
Form and requirements
Topic – The role of forensic accountants in preparing insurance claims after natural disaster.
Students are asked to research publicly-available sources to gather relevant information and analyze the topic. The research report should summarize the key information, identify relevant themes, leading practices or pitfalls for practitioners and managers. Superficial reports, or those that merely recapitulate of news accounts or press releases will not be sufficient to receive full marks. To receive full credit, you must synthesize three or more high-quality information sources to provide a succinct summary of the subject and bring your own analysis of the case using the themes and learning from the course. Include a reference page of all sources.
While we expect that most of the Research Reports will be written in memorandum form, we will accept of other forms of reports. For example, students have the option to submit an oral presentation as a Powerpoint with voiceover (similar to the short lecture segments in this course) or YouTube video. The form and format is up to the student. Whatever form is chosen, the Research Report should be clear, concise, and businesslike. To illustrate, imagine that an executive level supervisor has asked you to research this topic and send her a memorandum to summarize the issue and tell her what she needs to know in her executive role in the enterprise. Imagine that she is a busy person. She is interested in understanding the most relevant elements and she wants you to pick out the most important information. She does not want to read a lot of extraneous information and she wants valuable information she can use. In this exercise it is more important to summarize and synthesize the most important information in a concise manner than to create a long, detailed report with every possible fact. Regardless of form, the reports should be “client-ready”. That is, well-written in error-free, articulate English. It is my professional experience that typos and writing flaws significantly impact the perception of the quality of your work. Grades in this exercise will reflect that. Research reports should be direct and to-the-point. Written, narrative reports should not exceed 3,000 words.
Q46
This Task is an individual research task which will involve an in-depth examination of ONE Old Testament OR New Testament story. Your NRSV Bible will be beneficial for this Task as it provides important information regarding context. Structure of the Research: ? Choose ONE Bible Story from the list below: ? Noah (Gen 6-9) (Myth) ? Jonah (Prophecy) ? The Red Sea (Narrative) ? Paul’s Conversion (Acts. (Narrative) ? Ps 137 (Wisdom) ? Complete detailed research on this story using the scaffold attached. This research will be checked progressively in class. Simply typing up the scaffold information does not mean that you are answering the question below! The scaffold is designed to structure your research and order your thoughts so that you are able to complete the written response. ? Complete a correctly referenced bibliography as a part of your research. ? Your research will be used to answer the following question in PEEL format: How do the Scriptures communicate the mystery and truth of God
Q47
Topic: Discussions of the logistics of a case study The case study can be an existing company or a self-developed innovative e-commerce business-model. The content should include: – Description of the case study incl. the specific business idea (the unique selling proposition, the main markets and customers, the products and services).. – Description of the logistics network, operations and framework include. figures – Identification of the main 3 drivers in logistics which the case study is facing include the positive resp. negative effects on the case study and the explanation for the choice by using an appropriate methodology or argumentation. – Derivation of recommendations how the case study should face the drivers and (negative) solve or (positive) make use of the effects named before.
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Q48
Portfolio guidelines
The main part of the portfolio which students should prepare for this course consists of a qualitative
case study.
To produce the qualitative case study, students should first clarify (in a form of an abstract) the
dimensions of their PhD research, that is – to state the problem they wish to explore, the purpose of
their research, and the methodology they intend to apply. Next, students should select a person, a single
institution or company, or a particular policy to be their case, i.e. unit of analysis; this case should
correspond to the student’s PhD research purpose and question(s). Then, students need to conduct one
observation of the selected unit of analysis (i.e. the case). In addition, students need to conduct an
interview with a key informant relevant to the selected case. In other words, the observation report and
the interview transcript (along with other gathered documents relevant to the case) should serve as
bases for the writing of the qualitative case study.
Eventually, students should submit by email four documents:
1. Abstract of your PhD research (300-400 words).
Your abstract should include background of the problem, purpose statement, research question(s),
clarification of the methods and techniques you intend to use, as well as a brief mention of the
expected findings of your research. To find out more about writing abstracts, please see the
document entitled ‘How to write an abstract’ which is available from the student platform Moodle.
Also, please consider the examples of purpose statement given in the textbook (see Merriam, pp.
62-63). Do not forget to add an appropriate title to your research. To learn more about titles, please
see the document entitled ‘How to write a great title’ which is available from the student platform
Moodle.
2. Written transcript of an interview (1000-2000 words).
You need to plan and conduct one interview with a key informant from whom you can gather
relevant data that will help you to write the case study. Make sure you use open-ended questions in
order to gather sufficient information about the person’s direct experience and views about the
problem so that you can write the case study in a form of a convincing narrative. The content of the
recorded interview should be transcribed according to the model given in the textbook (see
Merriam, pp. 111-113).
3. Observation report (field note) (1000-2000 words).
You need to plan and carry out one observation of the selected unit of analysis (i.e. the case). This
could be a systematic, planned observation during a field visit to a site and situation relevant to your
chosen case. You need to produce a field report, i.e. an observation note/report according to the
model given in the textbook (see Merriam, pp. 132-135). Your observation comments should be
added in the note either within the text (in brackets) or on the right hand margins.
4. Case study (2000-4000 words).
The case study should be written as a report in a narrative form, and it should include rich, ‘thick’
descriptive parts. Besides an effective introduction, you should provide some background of the
problem; indicate your intentions and methodology; provide description of the findings; and offer
conclusions. Also, do not forget to add in Appendix the inventory of all the documents used while
preparing the case study. You may wish to follow the outline of a case study report which is given as
an example in the textbook (see Merriam, p. 263). Do not forget that qualitative research is about
people’s interpretation of the phenomenon that you investigate, so presenting their personal story
in the narrative report is essential to making a convincing case.
Studying the chapters from the main textbook (especially chapters 3, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 10 in Merriam, 2009)
may appear essential to writing a successful portfolio. Indeed, further useful information can be found in
the other textbooks which are available from the student platform Moodle.
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Q49
ACU requires assignments to follow APA style version 6 or 7 guidelines in semester one, 2020, as follows: • Size font 12 Black, bold for headings, double spacing throughout • Font Style is plain: Times New Roman, Calibri or Arial • Align to the text to the left and leave the right side uneven (no justifying) • Microsoft Word format or PDF only • Use 1in or 2.5cm margins on all sides (top, bottom, left and right) • APA references in-text and a reference list, no footnoting, appendices or images • Page numbers to bottom right hand side footer – simple number only • Keep quoting to a limit of 1 or 2 for essay only • Do not use HLSC122 lecture or journal club notes, lecturer comments or LEO resources as references Your writing, in each paragraph – apart from introduction and conclusion- should be supported by at least one high-quality varied academic reference (check textbooks in unit outline reference list). This assignment requires that you use at least four academic references, apart from research study being critiqued This reference is supporting your knowledge and understanding of critical appraisal related to the research study.
Attachments:

Q50
Please analyse one of the following formulas from the CHM pharmacology aspect based on your review of relevant key literature, and write up a report addressing the individual ingredients of chosen formula, and in particular the CHM pharmacological mechanisms which underpin the formula’s overall functions and clinical applications.
· Gui Zhi Tang
2. Please include at least 5 references which should be cited using the APA style of referencing
3. Adhere to 2000 word account with a 5% leeway. Word count does not include reference list. Word count should be listed at the end of the paper.

Q52
To prepare for this assignment, students should review and learn the material and lecture notes previously delivered in BTEC8002 about SDS-PAGE, qPCR, mammalian cell transfection, reverse transcription, production of a library and Illumina NGS. Completion of this assignment will: • Support students in learning the content delivered before the mid-semester break • Illustrate application of these methods and techniques The short question and answer section will assist you in reading the paper insightfully and will also assess your ability to apply your theoretical knowledge (from the lectures) to comprehend the research conducted in the manuscript. The last task is then to write a critique of the manuscript. Remember, a critique should always be constructive (improving the ability to present data or to write, suggest better suited/superior approaches, improve language and grammar, citations etc.). Critique of a manuscript can be positive or negative as long as the critique is demonstrated to be justifiable. Unless the paper is utter nonsense and poor research, for providing constructive critique it is advisable to first state what was done well, then critique the lower quality sections.
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Q53
This assessment is based on an oral presentation of your research project. You will be required to
present your research project, including the main results and what they mean in the wider context,
as well as defend your project in relation to any questions asked by the audience. Your supervisor
will be invited to attend your presentation and you are encouraged to invite other industry
professionals working in your research area. Students are expected to attend all the presentations
in their group over the afternoon. This is an opportunity to ensure that you have a clear
understanding of why you have been conducting your research, interpreting and presenting the
results and what they mean. Questions that you are asked may help you to interpret your results
differently or help with putting them into an industry perspective.
The presentation will run for 15 minutes including 5 minutes for questions. Please, also submit
your power point through Turnitin using the submission point on Blackboard.
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Q54
Clinical Scenario
Ankle sprains are one of the most common sport-related injuries treated by rehabilitation professionals. These injuries often result in lost participation and can lead
to subsequent injury episodes. Therefore, it is important to determine appropriate
means of preventing these injuries. There has recently been an increase in the
popularity of balance training programs for the prevention of knee anterior cruciate
ligament (ACL) injury, with some thought that starting these programs in younger
athletes may be most beneficial. However, there is the potential that these types
of training programs may also be beneficial for decreasing the risk of other lower
extremity injuries, including ankle sprains in the adolescent athlete.

Q55
Clinical Scenario
Ankle sprains are one of the most common sport-related injuries treated by rehabilitation professionals. These injuries often result in lost participation and can lead
to subsequent injury episodes. Therefore, it is important to determine appropriate
means of preventing these injuries. There has recently been an increase in the
popularity of balance training programs for the prevention of knee anterior cruciate
ligament (ACL) injury, with some thought that starting these programs in younger
athletes may be most beneficial. However, there is the potential that these types
of training programs may also be beneficial for decreasing the risk of other lower
extremity injuries, including ankle sprains in the adolescent athlete.

Collect information on the impact of a disease and summarise this as an introduction to
policy report.
2. Examine the strategies that have been used in the past to control this disease.
3. Evaluate the strategies of at least two approaches used that have been found to have
some merit and report on the impact of those two approaches.
4. Assess the prognosis for the disease’s control if we continue with current strategies and
optionally recommend a policy change that might result in further control.

Q57
Students are required to consider and reflect on their learning this semester relating to the assessment and communication of activities of living. Using the following: • The Roper-Logan-Tierney Model for Nursing (Holland & Jenkins,2019); • ‘Cues’ and ‘Judgements’ from The Situated Clinical Decision-Making Framework (Gillespie & Patterson 2009); and • Borton’s (1970) Model of Reflection (Smith, James, Adamson & Gentleman, 2016), prepare a 1500-word reflective paper that outlines your personal role in providing essentials of care for future practice as a Registered Nurse. When preparing your reflection consider and include the following: • Introduction – A brief overview of what you plan to discuss (short paragraph). • Define essentials of care. • What? – Describe your experience this semester in relation to the assessment and communication of activities of living on a dependence/independence continuum and factors influencing activities of living. • So What? – What cues (data/information/things you noticed) did you identify from your experiences this semester that shaped your judgements (understanding) about your personal role in assessing and communicating essentials of care for future practice? • Now What? – What could you and/or need to do now to enable you to effectively assess and communicate essentials of care for future practice? • Conclusion – A brief summary of what you discussed (short paragraph, no new information). We encourage you to use your journaling notes from seminars to assist you with this assessment.

Q58

You write a structured review that includes an introduction paragraph, then a minimum of 3 paragraphs with each one of these paragraphs giving suggestions to a different team member, and finally a conclusion paragraph. Importantly you write about a totally different outbreak (you must leave your team and visit a new team). Like the Peer Review 1 you have done previously, it must be written in the impersonal. A peer review is an important piece of work. It is worth 10% of your final mark. How much time should you allocate to writing a peer review? To work this out, consider that you should spend a minimum of 8 hours per week on each 12 credit point course. So for 10% of the assessment for a 13 week course that’s about 10.5 hours to prepare the peer review! I love numbers, you can now see that each % assessment is worth about an hours work. So if something is worth 10%, you may need to spend 10 hours to turn in a good report of your findings!

Coursework Task (30 Marks) 1. Respond to the TWO drug inquiries below by assessing the evidences from appropriate references. Complete a Drug Information Request Form for EACH of the inquiry. a) Ms Lily Cheam (contact number: 87654321), a nurse at a day care centre, called to ask you on the doses to be given for a 55 years old healthy man. She needs to counsel him on how to take the Senna tablets and lactulose syrup that he bought from NTUC supermarket for his current constipation. She wants to know the doses, when to take, any regards to meal, etc. b) Dr Tan Koh Vit (drtan@gmail.com) emailed you to ask which proton pump inhibitors he should give for a male 50 years old patient that is already taking clopidogrel for coronary artery disease. The patient has a newly diagnosed gastroesophageal reflux disease. Dr Tan is considering esomeprazole, lansoprazole, or omeprazole, and ask you to provide detailed supporting information. Additionally, Dr Tan is asking you to recommend an additional medication for the patient’s body ache due to recent flu. Suggested Structure of Coursework You need to include the following features in your coursework. You may also wish to make use of these features to structure your coursework submission. (Refer to the assessment rubrics given in APPENDIX B for the allocation of marks.)
Q60
2. Mineral supplements are commonly sold in combination with other minerals or vitamins (i.e. calcium-magnesium tablets, multi-mineral capsules or calcium-vitamin C softgels.) Give TWO actual examples of mineral-mineral and/or mineral-vitamin supplement products found in the local pharmacies. Please select actual products that are currently sold online or in stores.* *Please note that you do not have to physically make a trip to the pharmacy. You can look for suitable products online as most major retailers have an online store. I.E.: Example 1: “Naturemade” brand Multi-Minerals (Calcium-Magnesium-Phosphorus) tablets Example 2: “Kordel” brand Vitamin C-Zinc softgels Ensure that your answer contain clear photos of both supplements and that you have listed out their ingredients, respectively. Analyze the active ingredients in each product and describe their possible interactions with each other. Explain if these interactions affect mineral absorption in a positive, negative or neutral manner. In addition, explain clearly if you would recommend each of these products to your friends and family.

In this Assessment, you will engage in policy analysis. Choose a health policy (either current or past),
either at the state or federal level, to analyse in this Assignment (eg, mental health policy, women’s health policy,
preventative health policy, men’s health policy, Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander health policy).
The Assignment should be approximately 2,000 words (+/- 10%) and presented in essay form.
Address the following questions in your Assessment but please do not answer the questions
as a series of short answers:
Firstly, provide a short introduction to your essay. Then proceed to analyse your chosen policy, and in doing so,
consider the following issues:
The Problem and Context
•Describe the current and historical policy context of the problem.
•What is the problem which the policy seeks to address?
What problems are highlighted???
•What problems have been overlooked?
Frame of Reference/Dominant Discourse
•What is the common frame of reference or dominant discourse evidence within this policy???
•Are certain words and phrases commonly used???
•Are there any underlying assumptions behind these?
Targets, Stakeholders and their Representation
•Who is the target of the policy (the subject of the discourse)???
•Who are the other stakeholders identified in the policy? Describe key institutional structures,
agencies and workforce capacity building.
•How are the subjects of the policy being represented???
•How are different social groups portrayed in this policy and what implications does this have?
•Are there any moral judgements expressed in this representation?
Policy process
•Who were the stakeholders involved in the development of the policy? Who was overlooked?
•Whose interests were represented in the development of the policy? Which voices were not heard???
•What were the potential competing interests and power differentials of those involved
in the development of the policy???
•What was the motivation for stakeholders in creating this policy???
•Were there any particular windows of opportunity that enabled the development of this policy?
Policy Solutions
•What solutions are put forward to address the problems?
What alternative solutions might have been overlooked?
•Are there any social/power/ethical implications of this policy?
Effectiveness
•Consider the implementation of the policy. How effectively do you think the current policy has been implemented???
•What are the accountability processes for the policy???
•Consider evaluation measures (indicators) and any evaluation which has been undertaken.
•How effective has the policy proven to be?

Create a 5 slide PowerPoint presentation with speaker notes for a staff training meeting on the pathophysiology and pharmacologic agents for a select disease process.

Hypothyroidism

Describe the physiology and pathophysiology of the disease, clinical manifestations, and evaluation (e.g., labs, imaging).

Q67
What are the benefits of hydras reproducing asexually by budding? How have they impacted humans, and how have we, as humans, impacted them?

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Identify a risk factor (or factors) for a non-communicable disease (or diseases) and critically appraise and summarise the evidence for the relationship between the two, using your understanding and interpretation of the concept of causation. The public health importance of the disease in a specific, named, developed country should be identified, using relevant reports and studies. The implications for public health action in that country should be discussed. Learning Outcomes Addressed • Apply epidemiological and bio statistical methods and concepts within the context of public health planning, investigation and surveillance. • Review, critically appraise, and summarise published epidemiological papers and reports.

Q69

You are a new enrolled nurse working in a clinic located in a remote area. The clinic building is an older structure and lacks the use of clinical and client information, such as posters. It has been identified that many of the staff are efficient in their roles but have some out-of-date ideas in their nursing practice. The clinic manager has asked you to research the most current information about a specific topic, such as: Infection control Plan the research activity 1. In order to complete this assessment, you need to identify TWO (2) areas related to the topic, where research can help support and improve your own practice as an EN. E.g topic: Infection control and prevention (or as agreed with your educator) 2. Identify the reason(s) for undertaking your research from the list below. • You may select several reasons. • Provide a brief rationale for each. E.g reasons: Comparison / hypothesis testing / trend identification / own knowledge extension / strengthen quality of own practice. 3. Write a clear statement highlighting your research question or hypothesis, e.g. “Is there a difference between hand washing protocols and actual practice”. It may include: • Nursing interventions applicable to the topic • Client perceptions of the provision of this topic • Models of nursing care that utilise the topic • Political issues confronting nursing practice and health care provision in relation to the topic An example of a question (the student can NOT use this example), would be: Does hand washing among healthcare workers reduce hospital acquired infections? An example of a hypothesis (the student can NOT use this example), would be: Hospital acquired infections are more likely to be passed on by hand washing with water than when hands are washed with soap.

Na: 147
Cl 110
K 4.0
Blood Gases:
pH 7.33
PCO2 48
HCO3 27
Po2 96
Urine:
Urine Specific Gravity 1.040

Address the following:

Identify each of the abnormal laboratory findings in the above results. Specify how they differ from a normal range and identify what condition each abnormality indicates.
What specific electrolyte disturbance does the patient have?
What clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to see with this electrolyte abnormality presented above?
If the patient had an increase in her potassium level, what clinical manifestations would the nurse monitor for?
What blood gas abnormality is seen in this patient? Discuss the rationale for your answer.
What are the three major mechanisms of pH regulation?

Develop a substantive response in which you describe the different variables found in every hypothesis-driven experiment in your own words:

Hypothesis
Independent Variable
Dependent variable
Control Variable

Looking at the attached video for the following question.

Discuss the sources of error in the experiment presented in the video. How you would change the parts of the experiment to gain viable results? What type of data would be produced and how would it be quantified?
Be sure and include the following parts in your experiment.

Initial Observation
Hypothesis
Independent variable
Dependent variable
Control group/Constants
Data collected
Possible Results
Possible Conclusion

Providespecific examples and references to the video in your response.

Write a 1,400- to 1,750-word integrative paper that explores how the process of recovery for an addict is changed when the co-addict in their life focuses on a codependent recovery. Include the following:

How does substance abuse affect the addict's physical, emotional, and psychological wellbeing?
What recovery behaviors might the addict exhibit that aligns with the five dysfunctional patterns of codependency?
How are the addict's family relationships affected by codependency?
How is the process of recovery different when the co-addict takes a codependency approach to recovery?

Include at least two peer-reviewed research articles.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.

Q73

A microbe is any living organism that spends its life at a size too tiny to be seen with the naked eye. Microbes include and characterize, , some fungi and even some very tiny animals that are too small to be seen without the aid of a microscope. and the recently discovered prions are also considered microbes. The term microbe is short for microorganism, which means small organism. To help people understand the different types of microbes, they are grouped or classified in various ways. Microbes are extremely diverse and represent all the great kingdoms of life, including the animals, plants, fungi, protists and bacteria View the tree below

Q74

DiscussÂ psychological factors that influence whether individuals start to smoke, drink alcohol, or use drugs.
Describe the effects of tobacco, alcohol, or drug abuse in the workplace.
Explain how employee assistance programs can help employees in controlling this habit.
Explain the relationship between mental health and tobacco, alcohol, or drug abuse.

Q75

Module 5 Written Assignment Chapter 10 Stimulants, Chapter 11 Tobacco
1. Describe how the following CNS Stimulants work: amphetamines, cocaine, caffeine and nicotine; include physical effects, symptoms of use, overdose and withdrawal. Discuss how they impact neurotransmission and what neuro-chemicals are affected.
2. Discuss why stimulant use is so popular in todayâ€™s society. Be sure to support your conclusions with research.
3. Tobacco is considered the leading cause of preventable death among adults today. Have current strategies to reduce smoking worked? Research the impact of the following strategies: taxes on tobacco products, restricted smoking areas, and reduction of advertisement. Site your references.
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Q76

List and explain 3 different methods that can be used to prevent the spread of food borne infections
For each of the following diseases, list the pathogen, type of microorganism responsible (bacteria, virus or protist), mode of transportation, strategies for prevention
Briefly describe at least 2 individual choices that influence the control and spread of HPV
What 2 factors contribute to its spread
……. ….

18. Organ rejection is a common problem with organ transplants. In light of what you have learned about the functioning of the immune system, explain, in sentence form, the potential reasons for organ rejection. Be sure to include the terms “phagocyte,” “T-Cell,” and “B-cell” in your answer.

……. ….
19. Severed combined immunodeficiency (SCID) or “bubble-boy syndrome” is an inherited disorder that affects approximately one out of every 100,000 newborns. Left untreated, infants with SCID usually die within a year of their birth from infections that are not lethal to the rest of the population. The disease affects both the B-cells and T-cells of their immune system. Describe why we are not able to live without functional B- and T-cells. Be sure to include an explanation of the function of these cells in your answer.

20. HIV changes the shape of its glycoproteins very quickly. Explain why this would make it difficult for scientists to develop an effective vaccine against this virus.

21. In sentence form, explain the following statement: “We are in a constant arms race against pathogenic micro-organisms.” In your explanation, include a description of both antibiotics and antivirals. Use two examples to support your explanation.

……. ….
23. Using a Venn diagram, compare and contract antibiotics and antiseptics. Provide two points for each heading.

24. In May 2000, an outbreak of a waterborne intestinal disease caused by the E. coli bacterium hit a small community in Bruce County, Ontario. Use an Internet search engine to find a reliable article or website describing this preventable tragedy.

a) In point form, assess the reliability of the article using each of the following five criteria.
……. ….

Website
Author/s
Date of Publication
Objective Reasoning
External Links

b) Briefly describe the cause of the outbreak and why it was considered preventable.

25. The last large-scale outbreak of polio in Canada occurred in 1959. Briefly explain why we still vaccinate against the poliovirus.

26. In point form, compare and contrast cholera and polio. Provide two similarities and two differences between them.

Q78

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Answer questions 1-3 with the following information: A study wasrecently carried out in Demark comparing two drug-eluting stentsfor coronary artery disease (Lancet, 375: 1090-1099, 2010). Stentsare used to open the blood flow through partially or fully occludedcoronary arteries that supply blood to the heart muscle. (When thevessels occlude, and the muscle they supply dies, this is amyocardial infarction or heart attack.) Research over the yearshave found that stents themselves can also occlude, although therate of occlusion is lower when stents are coated with drugs thatinhibit the revascularization of arteries. This recent Danish studycompared a new (experimental) agent, sirolimus, with an existing(control) agent known to reduce occlusion, zotarolimus. The primaryend-point of the study was a composite measure of cardiac death,myocardial infarction, and blood vessel revascularization. Patientswere followed for 18 months.

Q79

Question 1
Triglycerides are
1. formed by combining a total of four molecules
2. the major components of cell membrane
3. informational molecules
4. held by hydrogen bonds between OH and COOH groups
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 4 only
D. All of the above
Answer:
Question 2
Which of the following descriptions regarding Gram staining is correct?
A. A purple dye is used to stain the lipopolysaccharides (LPS)
B. An electron microscope is a necessary tool for Gram staining
C. Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells can be differentiated
D. Gram-negative cells also gain a color
Answer:
Question 3
Typically, the most abundant macromolecule and element that can be found in
a cell belong to

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Choose a topic from the list provided on UTSOnline
• Conduct a literature search using the appropriate databases (e.g. PubMed) and keywords to
find current, relevant, peer-reviewed scientific articles on your topic.
• Critically read these scientific articles. Use the points below to help guide what kind of
content should be in the article. Other high-quality content relevant to your article will be
rewarded.
1. The significance and impact of the microorganism(s) in human or animal health, industry or to
the environment e.g. value and/or cost to society, value to industry or value to the environment
(e.g. nutrient cycling). Use this to focus your article on an angle that relates to a broad
audience.
2. If your microorganism(s) is:
a. a pathogen – information on its disease process, transmission and control methods
b. an industrially relevant microorganism(s) – commercial products that are made, the
industrial processes used to produce these product(s) and the physical parameters that
are required to allow the microorganism(s) to thrive (e.g. temperature)
c. an environmentally-relevant microorganism(s) – environmental process(es) the
microorganism(s) is involved in and the physical parameters that are required to allow
the microorganism(s) to thrive (e.g. temperature)
3. Other information might include:
a. a full taxonomic classification of the microorganism(s)
b. the microorganism(s) natural host(s) and/or environments
c. the methods of identification or detection of the microorganism(s)

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10-15 slides PowerPoint assignment. please you must put speakers note on each slides so i can read.

Instruction

In this week’s Discussion, you discussed specific metrics companies should use when evaluating their employee turnover and retention rates. However, there may be some additional qualitative data points you didn’t consider. These data points are often collected through ways such as exit interviews, employee satisfaction surveys and 1-year retention metrics. When evaluating this case study, look for ways to include these data points. Instruction Global Protech’s executive team is concerned about the company’s high turnover and they want to take steps to improve their retention rates. Maia, the HR director at Global Protech, has asked you to provide the executive team with a presentation on the specific turnover and retention metrics for the company and a recommendation on how the company can improve its retention rates. To complete this Assignment, you are tasked with using Global Protech’s HR intranet site, the Learning Resources for this week, and other resources you have found in the Library or online to address the following in a minimum 10-slide PowerPoint presentation, including detailed speaker notes. Using the Global Protech Turnover Calculations (Excel document), identify the variations in turnover by the three-position types listed. Considering the positions with the highest turnover rates, identify the reasons why employees are leaving. Hint: Be sure to use Global Protech’s HR intranet to find additional information to help identify why employees are leaving. Using the turnover metrics above, develop a retention incentive/benefit recommendation for the executive team. Calculate the specific cost per employee of your recommended retention incentive/benefit, and then show the return on investment of the program. https://mym.cdn.laureate-media.com/2dett4d/Walden/MHRM/PROG/Global_ProTech/index.html USE POINT POWER MUST USE SPEAKER NOTES INCLUDE…….BELOW ARE MORE RESOURCE ATTACHED IS FORMULA. https://www.huffpost.com/entry/how-much-does-employee-turnover-really-cost_b_587fbaf9e4b0474ad4874fb7 https://www.forbes.com/sites/billconerly/2018/08/12/companies-need-to-know-the-dollar-cost-of-employee-turnover/#3b6bf83ed590 https://smallbusiness.chron.com/negative-impacts-high-turnover-rate-20269.html https://sts.shrm.org/STS/default.aspx?wa=wsignin1.0&wtrealm=https%3a%2f%2fwww.shrm.org%2f_trust%2f&wctx=https%3a%2f%2fwww.shrm.org%2f_layouts%2f15%2fauthenticate.aspx%3fsource%3d%252fresourcesandtools%252ftools-and-samples%252ftoolkits%252fpages%252fmanagingforemployeeretention.aspx https://search-proquest-com.ezp.waldenulibrary.org/docvie

Question 1: Mathematics

Math 111 – S2020 – Covering Week 14 – Weekly Assignment

Directions: Complete the following problems justifying all answers by showing all work. Answers must be found by using Calculus, not by looking at a graph unless directed to do so. All work must be in your handwriting and all work must be labeled as to which problem it is answering. Your final answer must be circled.

Remember, you must show each step you take towards the solution of the problem. Your best bet would be to follow the steps for solving problems and indicating which step you are following.

( 5 points) Explain the relationship between and its antiderivative. Give examples.

(5 points) Using the knowledge that , explain why the indefinite integral must have the “added at the end. Explain why the definite integral does not need ” added at the end.

Two students are studying on campus. Zach is in the Math Help Room in Pfahler and John is at the library. Zach texts John that he’s hungry. John realizes he also wants food and suggests they both take a break to get dinner at Wismer. Zach agrees and they leave their study spots at the same time. Note the diagram below… We are assuming that Pfahler, the library, and Wismer are in a straight line:

Given Zach travels with the velocity and John travels with velocity where t is time in seconds and length is measured in feet….

(6 points) Give the position function of each student given that John is 600 feet closer to Wismer than Zach. In other words, and

( 6 points) If Wismer is 1000 ft away from Pfahler how many minutes does it take Zach to get to Wismer? How long does it take John to get there?

( 8 points) Graph the function , paste the graph here and shade the area bounded by and the x-axis. Determine the area bound by by and the x-axis.

Below the blue diagonal line represents the function

( 6 points)

Compute the area of each yellow triangle using the formula and sum them.
Evaluate the definite integral to find the area bound by and the x-axis.
Are the value from A and B the same? Why or why not.

For the curve described by this expression answer the following questions:

( 9 points) Find the equation(s) of all lines tangent to the curve at . Give line in slope-intercept form. If there is more than one line, please indicate to which point the line corresponds.

( 5 points) Find the equation(s) of all lines normal to the function at . Give line in slope-intercept form. If there is more than one line, please indicate to which point the line corresponds.

( 9 points) Does this curve have a horizontal tangent(s)? If so, give the x-value(s) at which it/they occur. Be sure to justify your work.

( 6 points) Does this curve have a vertical tangent(s)? If so, give the x-value(s) at which it/they occur. Be sure to justify your work.

For on the interval using 5 partitions:

( 10 points) Sketch the curve and determine which Riemann sum would underestimate the area between f(x) and the x-axis on this interval. Which will overestimate? Justify your answer with a drawing or actual values. You should be able to answer the question with just a drawing.

( 5 points) What can you do to increase the accuracy of the area calculation when using Riemann sums?

Question 2: Finance

One question in section A and Two questions from section B.

Please note the word count limits noted at the beginning of each section.

Your answers need to be in the form of Word and/or Excel files.

Case Study – Background

Stockpile PLC is an independent UK cinema chain with 8 cinemas across the country, the majority of which are on the south coast of England. The market is fairly competitive with large national chains owning the majority of the UK market.

Three of the eight cinemas in the group (Isle of Wight, Bournemouth and Portsmouth) have a retail store within them in addition to the food and beverage offerings. These stores sell movie memorabilia and prices range from 99p to over £2,000.

You are employed as one of the Senior Finance Managers within Stockpile PLC’s Head Office in Portsmouth and given the recent requirements in the UK to close cinemas temporarily, you have been asked to carry out a number of research tasks from home.

The Financial Controller would like you to respond to ONE question in section A and TWO questions in section B.

Section A can be submitted as an Excel spreadsheet, or equivalent. This section has no word count.

Section B needs to be presented in a report format limiting yourself to 1,500 words in total for this section. How you chose to allocate these words is up to you, however every question is of equal weighting. This report needs to be addressed to your line manager, Owen Klopp, the Financial Controller.

As a number of questions (3-6) require research, you are expected to cite your reference sources and provide a bibliography. This will not count towards the overall word count.

There is no need to introduce or conclude your work outside of the questions asked.

Section A Worth 25% of total marks

[Answer ONE of the following TWO questions. Both questions are weighted equally. There is no word count limit for Section A]

Question 1 – Accounts preparation

The trial balance for the Southampton branch for the year ended 29th February 2020 is as follows:

Share capital: £1 Ordinary shares Share premium
General Reserve
Retained earnings as at 1/3/2019 Inventory as at 1/3/2019

Sales Revenue Purchases Administrative expenses Distribution expenses

Plant and machinery: cost
Plant and machinery: accumulated depreciation
Vehicles: cost

Vehicles: accumulated depreciation Returns outwards
8 % Debenture
Debenture Interest paid

Dividends paid
Returns inwards
Bad Debt expense
Salesmen’s salaries Administrative wages and salaries Directors’ remuneration

Trade receivables
Provision for doubtful debts (1/3/2019) Cash at bank
Trade payables

£000 £000

1,400 200 80 304

328
4,820

2,640 100 140 1,440

440 580

280 120 120

5 280 140 80 320 316 180 1,280

56 623

632 £8,452 £8,452

/Question 1 continued……

Question 1 continued

The following additional information is supplied:

(i) Depreciation of plant and machinery at 10% straight-line to be charged to cost of sales

(ii)

Depreciation of vehicles at 20% straight-line to be charged to distribution costs

(iii) Provide for auditors remuneration
(iv) Income tax expense
(v) Accrue for debenture interest unpaid
(vi) Closing inventory was valued at

£4,000 £106,000

£112,000

(vii) Based on past experience, the provision for doubtful debts is to be increased to 5% of trade receivables and allocated to administrative expenses.
(viii) Transfer to General Reserve £50,000
(ix) On 1st September 2019 Stockpile plc had issued 400,000 Ordinary shares at full market price of £1.50 per share.
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Required:

(a) Prepare an Income Statement, Statement of Financial Position and Statement of Changes in Equity as at 29th February 2020 for the Southampton branch, that comply with the Companies Act 2006 and IAS1.
(21 Marks)
(b) Calculate the basic earnings per share for the year ended 29th February 2020.
(4 Marks) [Total 25 Marks]

Question 2 – Consolidated group accounts

One of your junior staff is studying towards their ACCA exams and due to the recent provision to work from home they are now studying entirely online. Unfortunately, their education provider’s website has crashed and they are unable to get the answer to the following revision question:

Requirement:

Prepare the consolidated statement of financial position for the Zazu group as at 31st December 2019, so enabling your colleague to check their answer.

[Total 25 marks]

Consolidation question :

On 1st October 2012 Zazu PLC purchased 2,100,000 of the 3,000,000 £1 ordinary shares in Petersfield Ltd, paying £8,900,000 in cash; at the date of acquisition the Retained Earnings of Petersfield Ltd were £3,800,000 and there was no General Reserve.

The summarized Statement of Financial Position of the two companies for the year ended 31st December 2019 are as follows:

Non-current Assets

Property, plant and equipment
210,000 £1 shares in Petersfield Ltd at cost

Current Assets

Inventories
Trade Receivables Bank

Current Liabilities

Trade Payables

Net Current assets

Equity

Share Capital £1 ordinary Share Premium
Retained Earnings General Reserve

Zazu PLC £’000

21,000 8,900 29,900

10,000 3,000 2,000

15,000

8,000

7,000 36,900

10,000 1,000 25,900

36,900

Petersfield Ltd

£’000

8,500 8,500

6,000 1,500 500 8,000

3,500

4,500 13,000

3,000

8,000

2,000 13,000

The fair value of the land owned by Petersfield Ltd was £2,800,000 above book value. No adjustment has been made for this revaluation.
Petersfield Ltd sold goods to Zazu PLC during the year at an invoice price of £5,000,000. The goods had originally cost Petersfield Ltd £3,800,000. A quarter of these goods remained in stock at the year-end.

At 31st December 2019 Zazu PLC owed £900,000 to Petersfield Ltd for goods purchased for resale. This amount is shown as a trade payable in the Statement of Financial Position of Zazu PLC and as a trade receivable in the accounts of Petersfield Ltd.

An impairment test at 31st December 2019 on the consolidated goodwill indicated that it should be written down to £2,000,000. No other assets were impaired.

No dividends were paid by either of the companies in the relevant years, nor were there any changes in share capital.

Required:

Prepare the consolidated statement of financial position for the Zazu group as at 31st December 2019.

[End of Section A]

[Total 25 Marks]

Section B Worth 75% of total marks

[Answer TWO of the following FOUR questions. All questions are weighted equally in section B and the word count for section B is 1,500 words]

The following scenario relates to ALL section B questions:

Question 3 – Taxation

One of Stockpile PLC’s rivals have been in the press recently in relation to a tax avoidance scheme.

Requirement:

As a result of your competitor’s actions, Owen would like you to investigate and report back on the impact that the adoption of a tax avoidance scheme will have on a company. Owen specifically wants to know:

a) What is their motivation for adopting a tax avoidance scheme?
b) What happens to a company once they are found guilty of tax avoidance?

Your work should discuss both positive and negative effects on a business and you can bring in real life examples to substantiate your points.

Question 4 – Statement of Cash Flows

Your team has just received the draft Statement of Cash Flows for each cinema in the group up to the end of February 2020. You have been allocated the Isle of Wight cinema to review and their statement is over the page.

Requirement:

Within your report to Owen Klopp, please discuss your thoughts on the Statement of Cash Flow below, highlighting any key entries you notice, both positive and negative, for the company.

You will need to expand your answers to highlight the implications of these entries and what further information you would need to develop your understanding.

/Question 4 continued……

Question 4 continued

Statement of Cash Flows Year ended 29th February 2020
Isle of Wight branch

Cash flows from operating activities

Profit before tax
Adjustments for:
Depreciation
Interest expense
Operating profit before working capital changes (Increase) / decrease in trade and other receivables (Increase) / decrease in inventory

Increase / (decrease) in trade and other payables Cash generated from operations
Interest paid
Interest received

Income taxes paid
Net cash from operating activities

Cash flows from investing activities

Purchase of plant and machinery Purchase of a leasehold property Sale of plant and machinery
Net cash from investing activities

Cash flows from financing activities

Proceeds from the sale of ordinary share capital Bank loan repaid
Dividends paid
Net cash used in financing activities

Net increase in cash and cash equivalents
Cash and cash equivalents at the beginning of the period
Cash and cash equivalents at the end of the period

£’000

1,023

232 60 1,315 187 (420) 260 1,342 (10) 135 (280)

1,187

(301) (800) 201

(900)

456 (120) (750)

(414)

(127) 92

(35)

£’000

Section B continued……

Question 5 – Internal Controls

One of your team needs to review the internal controls of the Brighton cinema as this branch only joined the group in January 2020. The Brighton cinema is the third largest branch in the group with a £2million annual turnover. It employs 60 staff, both full and part-time, including 1 Manager (Ben Skrtel) and 1 Deputy Manager (Trent Oxlade).

The Brighton cinema is in the process of setting up a memorabilia store onsite which is due to open later this year. The current offering includes popcorn, ice cream and both alcoholic and soft beverages. Everything is scanned through a till system other than the ice cream sales, as there have been issues since 2018 with the till terminals at this stand. The sales are 95% on card payments.

Cinema ticket sales are taken both online via the company website and in person using the terminals in the lobby. Between Friday night and Sunday evening the entrance is manned by a member of staff who checks the tickets of those entering the cinema.

The payroll and accounting records are completed by Ben on a weekly basis. Staff are registered onto the payroll system after working for the company for 3 months. Ben finds the whole payroll system particularly laborious, and knows at certain points of the year he needs extra staff for a few weeks.

Once registered, staff get a name badge, uniform and their own user name for the till. Until this point, uniform is borrowed, random name badges are supplied and a temporary log on is issued for the till system.

Requirement

As you cannot visit the cinema at the present time and observe how it operates, Owen has asked that you outline how the following areas could be at risk if they are not protected and suggest, with examples, what control activities could be put in place to help with any of the above?

Who can write an admission essay for my new college

Question 6 – Accounting regulations

Part of your role is to mentor junior staff. A number of them have asked for some guidance on the advantages and disadvantages of using accounting standards in financial reporting.

Research and present your thoughts on this, offering examples wherever possible. Your work should be presented in clear, and fully explained manner as this will ultimately be sent out to junior staff with very little knowledge in this area.

[End of Section B]

Question 3: Mathematics

What critical value t* would you use for a confidence interval for the population mean in each of the following situations? Match the critical value with the correct interval.

	A 95% confidence interval based on n = 10 randomly selected observations
	A 99% confidence interval from an SRS of 20 observations
	A 90% confidence interval based on a random sample of 77 individuals
	A 95% confidence interval from an SRS of 30 observations
	A 95% confidence interval with

A.	2.262
B.	2.861
C.	1.671
D.	2.045
E.	2.571
F.	2.205
G.	1.665

A local newspaper in a large city wants to assess support for the construction of a highway by-pass around the central business district to reduce downtown traffic. They survey a random sample of 1152 city residents and find that 543 of them support the bypass. Use StatCrunch to construct and interpret a 95% confidence interval to estimate the proportion of residents who support construction of the bypass.

Include the State, Calculate, and Conlude.

About 130,000 high school students took the AP Statistics exam in 2010. The free-response section of the exam consisted of five open-ended problems and an investigative task. Each free-response question is scored on a 0 to 4 scale (with 4 being the best). For one of the problems, a random sample of 30 student papers yielded the scores that are graphed in the dot plot of part (a) in the previous problem. The mean score for this sample is X = 1.267 and the sample standard deviation is S = 1.23. Construct and interpret a 99% confidence interval to estimate the mean score on this question.

Show the three step process

At the Chrysler manufacturing plant, there is a part that is supposed to weigh precisely 19 pounds. The engineers take a sample of parts and want to know if they meet the weight specifications. State the null and alternative hypothesis.

Suppose the present success rate in treating a certain type of lung cancer is 0.75. A research group hopes to demonstrate that the success rate of a new treatment of this cancer is better. State the null and alternative hypotheses.

For his second semester project in Statistics, Zenon decided to investigate whether students at his school prefer name-brand potato chips to generic potato chips. He randomly selected 50 students and had each student try both types of chips, in random order. Overall, 32 of the 50 ( p-hat = 0.64) students preferred the name-brand chips. Zenon performed a significance test using the hypotheses

Where p = the true proportion of students at his school who prefer name-brand chips. The resulting P-value was 0.0239. What conclusion would you make at each of the following significance levels?

According to the National Campaign to Prevent Teen and Unplanned Pregnancy, 20% of teens aged 13 to 19 say that they have electronically sent or posted sexually suggestive images of themselves.8 The counselor at a large high school worries that the actual figure might be higher at her school. To find out, she administers an anonymous survey to a random sample of 250 of the school’s 2800 students. All 250 respond, and 60 admit to sending or posting sexual images. Carry out a significance test at the α = 0.05 significance level. What conclusion should the counselor draw?

Check the conditions to do a one sample test for proportions.

State your hypotheses.

Determine the test statistic (z) and the p-value of the test

State your conclusions in context.

A classic rock radio station claims to play an average of 50 minutes of music every hour. However, it seems that every time you turn to this station, there is a commercial playing. To investigate their claim, you randomly select 12 different hours during the next week and record what the radio station plays in each of the 12 hours. Assume the population of music played each hour follows an approximately Normal Distribution. Here are the numbers of minutes of music in each of these hours along with the sample mean and sample standard deviation.

Do the data provide convincing evidence that the average number of minutes of music played every hour is less than 50 minutes? Let x = 0.05. Assume the conditions to do a one sample t-test for means are met.

State your hypotheses

Determine the t test statistic and the p-value of the test.

State your conclusions.

For question number 9, choose the possible error that could be made, based on YOUR conclusion, and what this would mean in context to the problem

	a.	Type I Error
	b.	Type II Error
	c.	We said that the radio station does not play 50 minutes of music each hour, when in fact, they do.
	d.	We said that the radio station does play 50 minutes of music each hour, when in fact, they do not.

A college student organization wants to start a nightclub for students under the age of 21. To assess support for this proposal, they will select an SRS of students and ask each respondent if he or she would patronize this type of establishment. What sample size is required to obtain a 92% confidence interval with an approximate margin of error of 4%?

	The critical value at 90% confidence is
	Since no other information is given, P should be set equal to
	The value of 1-P should be set equal to
	The organization must select an SRS of at least

A.	1.645
B.	0.50
C.	0.50
D.	423
E.	1.96
F.	1.976
G.	.25
H.	.75
I.	466
J.	1692

Question 4: Chemistry

Name: _____________________ Date: ___________ Section: __________

Charles’ Law

Procedure Summary

Type a summary of the experimental procedure below, in your own words.

Name: _____________________ Date: ___________ Section: __________

CHARLES’ LAW

Pre-Lab Questions

The following data was plotted on the graph below. Based on this graph, predict a value for Absolute Zero and type it in the space provided.

Temperature of Air (^oC) (x-axis)	Volume of Air (mL) (y-axis)
100	140
20	110
4	105

Based upon this graph, Absolute Zero = _________^oC

Based upon the graph in question 1, how does a decrease in temperature affect the volume of the gas (the pressure and amount of gas is held constant)?

Answer:

Charles’ Law allows the prediction of gas volumes at different temperatures. What would the volume of a gas be at 38.3^oC if it started at a volume of 45.7mL and a temperature of -58.5 ^oC?

Remember that temperatures must be in Kelvin when performing Gas Law calculations.

Answer:

Using the raw data from question 3 as an example, explain why temperature must always be converted to Kelvin when using gas law equations.

Answer:

Charles’ Law applies when gases are behaving as Ideal Gases. Can you assume that the gas will behave ideally during this experiment? Explain.

Answer:

CHARLES’ LAW

Experimental Data

1. Experimental Procedure – Part 1 (Tap Water)

15) A student measured the temperature of the tap water bath, and found it to be 25.0 °C.

18) The student poured the tap water from the Erlenmeyer flask into a graduated cylinder and found the volume of the water to be 25 mL.

2. Experimental Procedure – Part 2 (Ice-Water)

15) A student measured the temperature of the ice-water bath, and found it to be 13.0 °C.

18) The student poured the ice-water from the Erlenmeyer flask into a graduated cylinder and found the volume of the water to be 33 mL.

3. Experimental Procedure – Part 3 (Boiling Water)

23 g) The student poured the combined contents of the Erlenmeyer flask and small glass tube into a graduated cylinder and found the total volume of the water to be 141 mL.

26) The student read the Barometric Pressure of the room, and found it to be 738.6 torr. Consulting the CRC Handbook, the student determined that the temperature of boiling water at that pressure is 99.203 °C.

Instructions

Use the data provided to complete the data table on the next page.

In the Charles’ Law folder of the Lab Community, open the Excel file labeled “Charles Law Graphing”. Plot a graph of the Volume of Air versus Temperature by inputting the data from your data page into the table on the Excel spreadsheet (do not enter units). You must enter three sets of data (t₁ vs. v₁, t₂ vs. v₂ and t₃ vs.v₃). Save your graph to submit with your lab report.

NOTE: Be sure to use the Volume of Air and NOT the Volume of Water when plotting the graph.

From the extrapolated line on the graph, obtain a value for Absolute Zero in °C (the point where your line crosses the x-axis). Record your experimental value for Absolute Zero on the data page.

Name: _____________________ Date: ___________ Section: __________

CHARLES’ LAW

Experimental Data and Results

Refer to the Experimental Data provided, and enter it into the table.

Data Table

	Temperature (°C)	Volume of Water (mL)	Volume of Air (mL) (Total Volume of flask – Volume of water)
Part 1 (t₁, v₁)
Part 2 (t₂, v₂)
Part 3 (t₃, v₃)	Temperature of Boiling water:		Total Volume of Flask:

Barometric Pressure: _____________ torr

Prediction of Absolute Zero as determined from the graph:

Absolute Zero: _____________^oC

Question 5: Other

Recommendation Report

Associated Textbook Chapter: Chapter 18

Assignment: Write a Recommendation Report that includes a title page, abstract, executive summary, introduction, methods, results, conclusions, recommendations, and reference list. You can use the same topic as your Proposal assignment, or you may select a new topic. There is no minimum word count or number of sources, but this should be a research-based document. You may write either a Recommendation Report or Feasibility Report, depending upon your topic and the type of research you collect.

Recommendation Reports are used to make suggestions about the best course of action. Essentially a problem is studied, possible solutions are offered, and then the best course of action is recommended.
Feasibility Reports are written when management is unsure whether something can be done. This report helps to determine whether the company or organization should move forward with a project.

Whether you choose the Recommendation Report or the Feasibility Report, the basic pattern of layout is the same. You will include the following:

Front Matter that orients the reader to the subject. Provides summary for the reader, helps the reader to navigate the report, and helps readers decide whether to read the document. For this assignment, you should have a title page, abstract, and executive summary.
Body that provides the most comprehensive account of the project, from its inception of the problem or opportunity that motivated it to the methods and the most important findings. For this assignment, you should have an introduction, methods, results, conclusions, and recommendations.
Back Matter that presents the supplementary information, such as more detailed explanations than are provided in the body that enables readers to consult the secondary sources used. For this assignment, you are required to include a list of references and any appendixes that are appropriate.
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Readers:
Your audience for the Recommendation Report is the person(s) responsible for asking you to carry out the research study. They are the decision makers; they are the ones who can approve or deny the project. Your report will be written in response to their specific needs.

Context of Use:
The Recommendation Report represents the final assignment you will complete this semester. It is intended to be comprehensive in nature, so that your reader can easily understand the decision that has to be made based on the research you conducted. While the timeline for this project has been shortened to reflect the nature of our course, in the workplace, one can work for many weeks or even months on a Recommendation Report.

Assessment:
Your report will be graded based upon the following three areas: Content; Organization, Design, and Audience Awareness; and Revision and Editing.

Content (50 points)

Introduction clearly defines the research question(s) and presents contextual information in a way the reader can understand.
Methodology clearly identifies the research conducted and justifies the validity of the research methods.
Results section demonstrates that writer carried out research necessary in order to gather information necessary for addressing the research questions.
Discussion of results demonstrates careful reflection and assessment of the research conducted as it pertains to the stated research questions.
Writer presents conclusions that successfully wraps up the study, presenting a feasible choice or recommends a particular course of action.

Organization, Design, and Audience Awareness (30 points)

Report contains excellent front and back matter that provides a title page, list of graphics (if appropriate) Works Cited, and necessary Appendices (if appropriate).
Report is well-organized with headings that help move a reader through the document.
Major divisions are clear visually.
All graphics are correctly cited if they are borrowed.

Revision & Editing (20 points)

No misspellings or typos are present.
Writer uses complete sentences.
Work is writer’s original text.
Grammar and punctuation are correct

Question 6: History

World History 1, Write a 250-page discussion post on Medieval Weaponry from the 5th-12th Century. APA

Question 7: Law

Labor and Employment Law

Spring 2020

At Home Final Examination

IR 4320

Write a well-reasoned essay in response to each of the items below.

This is an open-book exam. You may consult any written materials that you wish, but it is not necessary to consult any materials not on the syllabus. You may not discuss the examination or any of the issues raised by the examination with anyone, whether orally or in writing, until after you have received your grade.

The College Wide Policy on Academic Integrity applies to all work you do for this class, including this examination.

The Novel Corona Virus (“COVID-19”) is a recently discovered health hazard. It poses a particularly severe danger to those persons, such as grocery store workers, who are required to report to work during the worst stages of the pandemic. Explain the procedures that the Occupational Safety and Health Administration and the Secretary of Labor could use in response to this health hazard in order to assure safe and healthful working conditions for American workers both in the coming weeks and in the coming years.

II.

The population of Central City is 20% African-American and 55% female. In order to be accepted into the Central City Police Academy an applicant must be at least 5’8” tall, must have at least two years of college, and must score at least 80% on a written examination. Over the last twenty years, the average Police Academy class has been 5% African-American and 15% female.

The EEOC brought an action against Central City in federal court alleging that the city’s requirements for Police Academy applicants violate Title VII of the Civil Rights Act. The City moved to dismiss the complaint, and the District Court agreed with the City. The EEOC then appealed that decision to the Circuit Court of Appeals.

Write an argument on behalf of the EEOC to convince the Court of Appeals that Central City has violated Title VII of the Civil Rights Act; and

Write an argument on behalf of Central City to convince the Court of Appeals that Central City has not violated Title VII of the Civil Rights Act.

III.

Alice works as a mail room employee for the accounting firm of Quinn and Ingram. Alice’s job requires her to climb dozens of flights of stairs in the course of a day as she brings mail to and from various offices in the firm’s three-story building. Alice has developed arthritis in her knees and is now able to climb only four or five flights of stairs in the course of a workday. Alice asked her employer to install an elevator in the building so that she will be able to do her job going forward. The elevator would cost $70,000 to install on all three floors. When Quinn and Ingram refused her request Alice, after receiving a right to sue letter from the EEOC, commenced an action in the US District Court for the Eastern District of New York pursuant to the Americans with Disabilities Act.

Write an essay setting forth the arguments that Quinn and Ingram can make as to why Alice’s claim has no merit.

Question 8: Computer Science

Instruction

The Lo Shu Magic Square is a grid with 3 rows and 3 columns shown below. The Lo Shu Magic Square has the following properties: • The grid contains the numbers 1 – 9 exactly. Each number 1 – 9 must not be used more than once. So, if you were to add up the numbers used, the sum would always come out to 45. • The sum of each row, each column and each diagonal all add up to the same number, i.e. 15 in this example. This is shown below: Write a program that simulates a magic square using 3 one dimensional parallel arrays of integer type. Each one the arrays corresponds to a row of the magic square. The program asks the user to enter the values of the magic square row by row and informs the user if the grid is a magic square or not. See the sample outputs for more clarification. Project Specifications Input for this project: • Values of the grid (row by row) Output for this project: • Whether or not the grid is magic square • Programmer’s full name • Project number • Project due date

Question 9: General

The lecture notes (below) discussed Dr. Albert Ellis Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy. Make sure to review this material. Also, if you have not already done so make sure to listen to the brief audio recording of Ellis describing his theory.

Here is the link: Albert Ellis – Theory and Practice of REBT Therapy

Now, after having reflected on this model answer the following question:

1)Do you agree with Dr. Ellis that one’s thoughts have a direct bearing on their feelings and behaviors? Why or why not? Make sure that you provide enough detail to support your answer.

Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy-Albert Ellis

Combining cognitive therapy and behavioral techniques.

Albert Ellis developed Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy. He believed that people were often irrational (illogical) in how they thought about the events of their lives. He developed the ABC model. It helps you understand what he meant. It is described below.

A B C

Adversity Beliefs About A Consequences Of Our Beliefs

(events) (Our thoughts) (how we feel and behave)

Common Example: We get cut off in traffic. We immediately become angry and scream at the other driver. (This never happens in real life—right?)

Here, A is getting cut off in traffic. B is our beliefs about or interpretation of getting cut off (e.g., “That no good $%@–how dare he cut me off”). C is the anger and screaming.

So, in this model, A does not cause C. B causes C—how one thought about the event. Think about it—how could a car cutting someone off cause someone to become enraged? That’s just a random life event. It has to be how one thought about the event. Someone else might not even be bothered by such an event—their thoughts might be something along the lines as: “He cut me off—no biggie—I aint’ going let that bring me down.” Here is a link to a brief audio recording in which Ellis discusses this idea: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=kxrjAbhTmNQ

Now, the main thing to understand is the idea that we are often irrational in how we interpret the events of our lives. Look again at the statement above. First, calling a person that you do not know a terrible name is illogical. They might be the nicest human being in the world! Second, stating “How dare he” suggests that one is somehow better than others (I guess that could be true) and that nothing like this should ever happen to oneself. See the issue?

Finally, did you watch the exposure therapy video? At the beginning of the video they showed how they were working on changing the patient’s thoughts (a Cognitive intervention). The patient’s exposure therapy was a Behavioral intervention.

Question 10: Other

Instruction

I like playing basketball, I plan on and want to go pro. I have a daughter that I center my life around, I would say that I am outgoing, passionate, care for others and very competitive. I am the ifest in my family to make it to college and plan on being the first to graduate. I hope I can become the best dad to my daughter. in the next 6 months I will continue working out trying to be the best i can be at basketball and spend as much time as i can with my daughter. This answers some of the questions that are asked in the layout of the paper.

Final paper instructions UNIV/IDS 333:

Part I

Introduction:

The people that are happiest in their life choices know who they are at their core. They have a sense of self. They know who they are and why. Maslow’s pyramid gives us a foundation for self, as do many other theorists. Self-concept leads to, or unfortunately from, self-confidence and a sense of purpose and understanding our place in this world. Personally, I believe this is more important than ever due to technology and the social and economic pressures of life. It is too easy to lose or temporarily misplace our sense of who we are. Identity is a complicated construct. Research self, and the importance of understanding our identity. I am giving you quite a bit of latitude here, this need not be heavy journal articles, but rather articles that speak to you for any number of reasons. Include the sources in a bibliography. Once the research is complete think about all the self-assessments from the class. Then….

Define your own self-image. Using all the assessment from this class and other information you have gathered about yourself through your own life experience answer the following questions in depth. You are in fact being asked to synthesize this class and your life experiences to date into a solid reflection paper that may help you select a pathway forward from this point in time and in your personal journey.

What is your idea of your own self-image? (Be sure to include personality, emotionality, and values in this answer) Minimum three paragraphs

Who are you at your core? (The central or most important part of something. What are the core elements that you have developed and want to keep developing? The essence of you. Include values and beliefs in this answer) Minimum two to three paragraphs

What are your hopes? {Hope is defined as the following: a feeling of expectation and desire for a certain thing to happen.}

synonyms:

aspiration, desire, wish, expectation, ambition, aim, goal, plan, design;

archaic a feeling of trust.}

What are your dreams? {A series of thoughts, images, and sensations or to contemplate the possibility of doing something or that something might be the case.}

Synonyms: to think, conceive, contemplate, consider. Hopes and dreams are different. Minimum two paragraphs

What have you done so far in your life? Use the accomplishment sheets and the resume prep here, but also look at what you would want to change? Why? Length should reflect experience to date

What do you want to do in your life? Articulate your goals not just in one area of your life, but in multiple areas of your life. Financial, Spiritual, Professional, Personal, and any others that are important and relevant to you. Paragraph for each area, feel free to add your own areas

While this may seem like B. S. it really is not. These are not necessarily easy questions to answer. If you take this seriously it requires you to take a hard look at yourself. You began this class with a poem and a logo about yourself, you were asked to explore everything from motivational theory to human resource law. Take all this to the next step. Integrate the knowledge gained here and from other sources and write a reflection paper answering all these questions.

Part II

Action Plan:

What steps will you take in the next six months to help you stay on a positive path or get back to a better path? You may use bullets

Who will you have help you with this process? (You do not have to name names you can indicate the individuals roles in your life)

What time will you carve out for yourself? When will you structure time for quiet contemplation and reflection? (I cannot stress the importance of this enough) once again you may use bullets

Where will you be one year from now? This is referred to as manifesting positive events in your life, it is also called the power of thought, some even use the term quantum thought, regardless if what we call it, envision and write down your world a year from now.

What are the big steps in your five year plan? Complete the attached form and upload with your reflection paper as one document.

Part III

Go do something nice for yourself.

Question 11: Religious Studies

Instruction

What is eternal life and does it exist? How have various religions interpreted the relationship between life and death from a philosophical perspective? What do you believe? Do your beliefs relate to any of the philosophical themes raised in class? What is the nature of free will, and how is free will perceived in various religious traditions? Choose at least two different religious traditions to compare and contrast the understandings of free will. Nietzsche famously stated that “God is dead.” What did he mean by this and do you think it is true? Is morality static or circumstantial? If it is static, how does it remain so? If it is circumstantial, why do you think morality is allowed to change? Which would you prefer? Explain. Choose only one and write about it

Question 12: Finance

FINA 8002: Finance For IT (Investment) BIS Year 4 Final Assignment Semester 2 2020

Section 1: 55 marks in total.

BIG PLC is currently evaluating a large capital investment project named “Project Remote”. The company typically evaluates such projects using Capital Budgeting and the Net Present Value investment appraisal method. Your boss – the company’s chief financial officer – has asked you to perform a detailed capital budgeting investment appraisal analysis on Project Remote to help determine if the project is viable. BIG PLC has carefully built its capital reserves over the years but its reserves are limited nonetheless and Project Remote would use up a significant portion of the firm’s cash resources.

Project Remote would, if accepted, be a significant departure in terms of the type of work that BIG PLC normally does. Head management are very bullish about the opportunity the project presents. The chief executive officer has recently commented: “we’ve got good people, we learn quickly, if you can succeed in one line of work you will find that skills are transferable, let’s do it!”

BIG PLC is experiencing a period of rapid growth and this shows no sign of slowing down. The company is currently approaching full capacity. The HR manager feels that additional flexible labour is available and that BIG PLC will shortly ramp up on recruiting additional staff – albeit on temporary contracts.

In order to be able to capture and priorities new projects the current project managers have been asked to test the waters with regard to “pushing out or extending” current customer deadlines. BIG PLC has a great reputation for on-time project delivery and the company CEO wants to leverage some of the goodwill built up with existing customers to facilitate the acquisition of new investment opportunities such as Project Remote.

BIG PLC has recently noted a spike in staff turnover rates. Whereas the company is growing quickly management have been keen to re-invest surplus profits for projects such as Project Remote. Even though the company has posted record profit announcements for the last two years staff pay and bonus schemes have remained static. Many staff have complained of longer working hours and a more stressful work environment due to mounting workloads and tight looming deadlines. Management have moved to address this issue by stating that they will shortly review current remuneration packages and bonus schemes.

The assistant accountant has provided you with the latest cash flows and cost estimates relating to Project Remote and these can be seen in the table and bullet points below:

	Year 1	Year 2	Year 3
Sales & Revenues from the project:	€1,800,000	€2,900,000	€2,400,000
Cost of Sales & Service relating to the project:	€350,000	€390,000	€280,000

BIG PLC uses both debt and equity financing. As of recently the company funds itself 40% of the time with equity financing and 60% of the time with debt. The assistant accountant has calculated the most recent cost of equity as 10% and the current cost of debt as 5%. The company typically renegotiates its loans every 3 years. The company is due to next renegotiate its loans in one year’s time. The Financial controller is confident she can reduce BIG PLC’s cost of capital by increasing their level of gearing (borrowing). She has recently stated – “debt is so cheap right now and is likely to become even cheaper, equity financing is twice as expensive as debt currently – I can save us a lot of money – we won’t be issuing any more shares any time soon – I’m getting our weighted average cost of capital down as low as I can by using cheap debt financing, our projects will be worth more, that’s good for us, good for our management bonus schemes and good for our shareholders, it’s all positives, a real no-brainer”
The company estimates that the project will require an immediate investment (Year Zero) of €2,400,000 in order to begin. This initial investment has been categorized as a capital investment in fixed assets. These fixed assets are to be depreciated using the straight-line method of depreciation at a rate of €700,000 per annum. The asset qualifies in full for capital allowances (i.e. tax allowable depreciation charges). You may apply a balancing allowance or balancing charge in year 3 as appropriate. You may assume that the asset will not be sold at the end of Year 3 (i.e. no scrap value will be received).
The project will not cause any increase in General Fixed Overheads at Company HQ (Headquarters). HQ would like to allocate €200,000 of their general costs per annum to the project as part of BIG PLC’s internal performance management scheme.
Thus far, BIG PLC has incurred legal and consultancy fees of €200,000. This is for legal and consultancy work already done regarding the project and these fees are non-refundable in the event of the project not proceeding. Half of this €200,000 amount is yet to be paid and these costs are due to for payment at the beginning of year 1. Future legal fees, should the project continue, are estimated at €80,000 per annum.
Additional labour will be required if this project goes ahead. These additional labour costs have been estimated at €24,000 for year one but will fall by 10% in year 2 and by 10% again in year 3.
Merchandising items worth €9,000 were ordered for the project. These have been paid for already and cannot now be returned for a refund should the project be cancelled.
If the project does proceed BIG PLC will need to recall some office space that they are currently renting out to a third party for an annual rate of €35,000 per annum.
The project, if it is accepted, will incur expenses of €30,000 in year one, these expenses are expected to rise by 5% in Year 2 and then rise again by a further 5% in Year 3.
Management estimate that they would need to dedicate 25% of their time to this project as it is a “significant departure” from the firm’s typical business. Management salaries amount to €500,000 per annum and will not be affected by the project.
The company pays tax one year in arrears at a rate of 5% on Accounting Profits.

Required:

Provide a concise quantitative (25 marks) and qualitative (25 marks) analysis of BIG PLCs prospective investment in Project Remote.

Finally give a consensus recommendation, based on your findings as to whether you think the company should pursue the project or not (5 marks).

(55 marks in total for Section 1)

Question 13: Business Finance

M-M theory (1958) what could possibly be the most important theory for the structure of capital, through which it explains the effect of the capital structure for the value of companies that the firm’s value and cost of capital are autonomous of the capital structure decision and as such debt is irrelevant in determining a company’s cost of capital.
Assess and make a critical review of Modigliani and Miller’s Theory and the dominating literature that is pro and against this theory, aiming to identify the theory’s importance and contribute to the field modern finances.

Question 14: Finance

Antarctic, Inc. was founded by Joseph and Jessie Lee. They equally own the company and each has 50,000 shares of stock. The company manufactures and installs cooling systems. The company has experienced spectacular growth because of rapid technological development.

Last year, Antarctic, Inc. had an EPS of $4.90 and paid a dividend to Joseph and Jessie of $80,000 each. The company also had a return on equity of 18 percent. The Lees believe that 14 percent is an appropriate required return for the company.

Joseph and Jessie are interested to know the value of their holdings in the company. They hired Janet Wang, a financial consultant, to conduct an analysis for them. Below is the information collected by Janet about their main competitors:

Antarctic, Inc.’s negative earnings per share were the result of an accounting write-off last year. Without the write-off, earnings per share for the company would have been $.54.

QUESTIONS

Assume the company continues with its current growth rate, calculate the company’s current stock price.

Janet has examined the financial statements of Antarctic, Inc. and those of its competitors. Although Antarctic, Inc. currently has a technological advantage, Janet understands that other companies are investigating methods to improve efficiency of the cooling systems. Janet believes that the company’s technological advantage will only last for the next five years. After that period, the company’s growth will likely slow down to industry average. She also believes that the required return used by the company is too high and the industry average required return is more appropriate. Using this assumption, what is the estimated stock price of the company?

Question 15: Engineering

A buck-boost chopper circuit operating at 8 kHz supplies 100 W power at 25 V to the single-phase bridge inverter. The input voltage to the DC to DC converter is constant at 15 V.

a) find the value of L required for continuous current if the duty cycle is 0.5.
b) if the switching frequency is reduced to 1 kHz while keeping the turn-on time and the value of inductance same as the values in part (a), find the new duty cycle.

Question 16: Mathematics

Suppose that two competing television channels, channel 1 and channel 2, each have 50% of the viewer market at some initial point in time. Assume that over each one-year period channel 1 captures 10% of channel 2’s share, and channel 2 captures 20% of channel 1’s share.

Let X_{n} be the channel that a customer watch at year n. At the initial time n= 0, P(X_{0}= 1) = P(X_{0}=1) = 0.5.

Given that at the initial time, the customer watch Channel 1, find the probability that he/she will watch Channel 1 in year 3
Given that at the initial time, the customer watch Channel 1, find the probability that he/she will watch Channel 1 in year 10, 20, 30
What can you tell about the probability P(X_n = 1|X_0 = 1) and P(X_n = 1| X_0 = 1) when n goes to infinite.
Find P(X_1 = 1), P(X_2=1), P(X_3) =1
Discuss about the behavior of P(X_n =1) when n goes to infinite

Question 17: Computer Science

Assignment 3 Question

Further Background

Refer to background information provided in Assessments 1 and 2 regarding My Housing project.

Complete the Following

Please refer to the marking guide when preparing your response to see what criteria and standards will be used to assess your work and your progress.

Agile Methodologies

Compare and contrast Unified Process (UP) and Scrum. Then recommend either Unified Process or Scrum you will use for the proposed system and briefly describe why.

Plan and Monitor Project

Planning and monitoring project activities are important part of system development. Review all possible system functions that you identifed in assignment 1 and 2, and complete the following tasks. You are not required to explain these tasks, just draw a table for each task with some relevant parameters. Please note, as this is not a complete project, if information is not given you should assume reasonably.

Estimate the development cost and the time required to complete My Housing project.
Develop a work breakdown structure (WBS) for the My Housing project’s first iteration.
Prepare a detailed work schedule for the first iteration.

RATIONALE

This assessment task will assess the following learning outcome/s:

be able to evaluate development requirements and prepare a feasibility proposal based on multi-disciplinary (financial, human resource, technological) analyses.
be able to formulate and justify system requirement models based on evaluation of given situations.
be able to assemble the components of a requirements model using the tools and techniques of object oriented or structured systems modelling.

MARKING CRITERIA AND STANdards

CRITERIA	STANDARDS
CRITERIA	High Distinction	Distinction	Credit	Pass	Fail
Compare and contrast Unified Process (UP) and Scrum. Then recommend either Unified Process or Scrum you will use for the proposed system and briefly describe why. 6 marks	Response clearly states the differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with strong justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (5.10-6.00)	Response clearly states the differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with some justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (4.50-5.09)	Response lists the major differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with little justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (3.90-4.49)	Response lists some differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with limited justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (3.00-3.89)	Response just describes both methodologies no comparison and no justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (0.00-2.99)
Estimate the development cost and the time required to complete My Housing project. Develop a work breakdown structure (WBS) for the My Housing project’s first iteration. Prepare a detailed work schedule for the first iteration. 6 marks	Table provides accurate estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project. Table provides accurate work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities. Table provides accurate work schedule using all possible use cases. (5.10-6.00)	Table provides mostly accurate estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project. Table provides mostly accurate work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities. Table provides mostly accurate work schedule using all possible use cases. (4.50-5.09)	Table provides some estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project. Table provides some work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities. Table provides some work schedule using all possible use cases. (3.90-4.49)	Table provides some estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project. Minor errors. Table provides some work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities. Minor errors. Table provides some work schedule using all possible use cases. Minor errors. (3.00-3.89)	Table used to estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project is wrong. Table used to develop work breakdown structure (WBS) is wrong. Table used to estimate work schedule is wrong. (0.00-2.99)
Presentation and clarity (accuracy, spelling, grammar, punctuation, figures) 2 Marks	Fluent writing style appropriate to the assignment with accurate grammar and spelling, and high-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.70-2.00)	Mostly fluent writing style appropriate to assignment with accurate grammar and spelling, and good-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.50-1.69)	Mostly fluent writing style appropriate to the assignment with mostly accurate grammar and spelling. Minor omissions only. Some-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.30-1.49)	Writing style not always fluent or well organized and grammar and spelling contain errors. Poor-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.00-1.29)	Writing style not fluent or well-organized, and many grammatical and spelling mistakes. Very bad quality figures, copied from others work, no captions. (0.00-0.99)
Referencing and Citation 1 Marks	Referencing is mainly accurate and according to the APA standard. All references are cited in the text. (0.85-1.00)	Referencing is mainly accurate and according to the APA standard. Most of the references are cited in the text. (0.75-0.84)	Some attempt at referencing and according to the APA standard. Few references are cited in the text. (0.65-0.74)	Attempt at referencing but not exactly according to APA standard and only few references are cited in the text. (0.50-0.64)	Referencing is absent/ unsystematic. (0.00-0.49)

PRESENTATION

Your answer should be approx. 4 pages, Times New Roman Size 12 (title page and references are not part of page count). You should use your own words and avoid lengthy quotations.

REQUIREMENTS

If any references are required, ensure to use APA referencing to acknowledge the sources that you have used in preparing your assessment. Please refer to the CSU referencing guide http://student.csu.edu.au/study/referencing-at-csu. In addition a very useful tool for you to use that demonstrates how to correctly use in text referencing and the correct way to cite the reference in your reference list can be found at https://apps.csu.edu.au/reftool/apa-6

Question 18: Business

Identify and discuss interventions/approaches that can be adopted by the healthcare industry to enhance the quality of life

Question 19: General Question

MN 551 Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam (Latest)

Question 20: General Question

ATI Pharmacology Exam Latest 2020

Question 21: General Question

South University NSG 6420 Week 10 Final Exam Latest 2020

Question 22: History

Answer the following essay in about 600-700 words. (40 points). Make sure your organize your essay into paragraphs with a well-stated opening and closing paragraph.

There are forces that are pulling the world together in the 21st century and forces that are pulling it apart. What forces are pulling the world together in the 21st century? How do these forces compare with those pulling it apart? Discuss these two questions and apply two lessons learned from the period of history studied this term.

Question 23: Statistics

A scientist is conducting a study on the effect of eating chocolate and overall mood. They believe that gender is a significant factor. The participants are divided by gender. Then, within each group, participants are randomly assigned to consume either chocolate or a placebo and then rate their mood for the day. This experiment will run for two weeks.

Which type of experimental design does this situation describe?

To compare the teaching methodologies of two of its eighth-grade math teachers, a school decides to compare student test scores from the two classes throughout the year.

Which type of statistical study is the school conducting?

Peter randomly draws a card from a deck of 24. The odds in favor of his drawing a spade from the cards are 1:3.

What is the probability ratio for Peter to draw a spade?

Select the correct statement regarding experiments.

A researcher can carefully control the explanatory variables and observe human responses.

A trainer is studying the effects of vitamin D on his athletes. He has realized that there are many potential confounding factors, such as gender and age. To limit the effect of these confounding variables, he decided to first group two athletes together based on these variables (for example, two 21-year-old males). Then he randomly assigned one person to receive the vitamin D and the other to receive a sugar pill.

What type of experimental design does this situation demonstrate?

Amanda is the owner of a small chain of dental offices. She sent out the yearly satisfaction survey to 600 randomly selected patients and received 544 surveys back. When looking through the results, she noticed that the downtown dental office staff had 84% of clients reporting satisfaction with services, while the uptown dental office staff had 76% of clients reporting satisfaction with services.

Which of the following sets shows Amanda’s null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis?

Which of these statements best defines a stratified random sample?

What is the probability of drawing a red card or a queen from a standard deck of 52 cards?

Ryan is playing a multiplication game with a pile of 26 cards, each with a number on them. Each turn, he flips over two of the cards, and has to multiply the numbers.

How many possible outcomes are there on Ryan’s first turn flipping two cards?

10.

The average number of road accidents that occur on a particular stretch of road during a month is 7.

What is the probability of observing exactly three accidents on this stretch of road next month?

Question 24: Music

According to the film, Alex Lora: Rock and Roll Made in Mexico, how was the view of the Mexican government towards Rock n’ Roll during the ’60s?

Question 1 options:

The Rock and Roll was banned in Mexico, and they were persecuted.

The government persecuted the groups that played “Refried” songs.

“Rhythm and blues” was the only genre that was permitted.

It became very popular and everyone liked it.

Question 2 (2 points)

According to the film, Comparers, how did the women learn the mariachi tradition of music?

Question 2 options:

They taught themselves.

They learned in school.

They learned by imitating successful musicians.

All of the above.

Question 3 (2 points)

According to the film Comparers, what main obstacle did the mariacheras have to overcome during their journey to become professional mariachis?

Question 3 options:

None of the above

Machismo

It was difficult for them to learn the music

Some of them did not want to become professional mariachis but society pushed them into it.

Question 4 (2 points)

According to the film, El Corrido Mexicano, the song, ” Somos Más Americanos, by popular band Los Tigres del Norte, addresses what important issue, among others?

Question 4 options:

immigration

drug dealing

social diseases

religion

Question 5 (2 points)

According to the film, Sing and Don’t Cry: The Mariachis, why is the Venezuelan mariachi ensemble’s participation in the event significant to the larger genre of mariachi music?

Question 5 options:

It demonstrates the economic reliability of Venezuela from an international perspective.

It shows the international appeal of the mariachi musical tradition.

It represents the similarities between mariachi and folk music from Venezuela.

It points to the lax immigration laws of Mexico.

Section V: Listening

Section I: Identifying Terms and Concepts Fundamental to Music and Dance—Matching (14 points)

Question 6 (6 points)

Match the element of music to its description.

Question 6 options:

Bottom of Form

1.Dynamics

Form

Texture

Pitch

Timbre

4.Rhythm

Volume and articulation of sounds

Underlying organizational structure of the sounds

Frequency of the tone

Duration of sounds and silences and organization of such

Phonic structure or relationships between the sounds

Tone or aural color

Question 7 (4 points)

Match the element of dance to its description.

Question 7 options:

Refers to the dancer him/herself

3.Use of floor patterns, direction, level, and shape

4.Amount of force expended in a given movement

2.Speed of movements and manipulation of rhythmic patterns

Body

Time

Space

Effort

Question 8 (4 points)

Match the classification with the way in which its instruments produce sound.

Question 8 options:

Membranophones

. Idiophones

. Chordophones

1.Aerophones

Vibrations of air columns

Vibrations of stretched skins, organic or synthetic

Vibrations of strings

Vibrations of instrument body

Section III: Text/Lecture–Multiple Choice (16 points)

Choose the correct answer in response to the question/prompt.

Question 9 (1 point)

Which of the following is an example of participatory performance?

Question 9 options:

A piano solo

An opera

An open drum circle

A staged rock concert

Question 10 (1 point)

The reference to a despedida in the final chapter should call to mind this custom:

Question 10 options:

a sung reference to ancestral tradition.

the sung farewell in a corrido.

a statement of protest in popular song.

the practice of participatory singing.

Question 11 (1 point)

What is the Spanish term for “mixture” used in reference to racial blending and, later, syncretism of cultural features?

Question 11 options:

Diaspora

Essentialization

Stereotype

Mestizaje

Question 12 (1 point)

José Pablo Moncayo’s Huapango:

Question 12 options:

rejects the spirit of nationalism that shaped the opening decades of the 20th century.

is only played by symphonic orchestras and never played outside of Mexico.

was intended for performance by rural musicians.

has become a beloved symbol of Mexican identity.

Question 13 (1 point)

What is the six-beat pattern with varying accentuation, sometimes felt in two and other times in three, common in various Latin musics called?

Question 13 options:

Triple meter

Compound meter

Huapango

Sesquiáltera

Question 14 (1 point)

Which of the following is another name for the dance music called, waila?

Question 14 options:

Tecnobanda

Quebredita

Chicken scratch

Tex-Mex

Question 15 (1 point)

Why do practitioners of Danza Azteca take issue with Danza de los Concheros?

Question 15 options:

The attire donned by the dancers utilizes materials taken from endangered animals.

Aztec ceremonies do not provide space for both groups, so competition between them has become intense.

The representation of women is misogynistic and further oppresses women in modern society.

Use of the concha represents European influence on indigenous practices.

Question 16 (1 point)

One of the earliest and most famous stars of rocanrol was:

Question 16 options:

Gloría Rios

Amparo Ochoa

Judith Reyes

Julieta Venegas

Question 17 (1 point)

Which of the following was the singer-actor who became the idealized representative of the handsome, heroic rancher?

Question 17 options:

Emilio Zapata

Jorge Negrete

Agustín Lara

José

Question 18 (1 point)

The guitar and other stringed instruments didn’t exist prior to European contact and belong to this category.

Question 18 options:

Idiophone

Membranophone

Aerophone

Chordophone

Question 19 (1 point)

Which of the following is a guitar-like instrument with six double courses associated with conjuntos norteños?

Question 19 options:

Bajo sexto

Mandolin

Guitarrón

Vihuela

Question 20 (1 point)

Villancicos were one of the most important genres of music to develop in vice-regal Mexico and offered a vehicle for:

Question 20 options:

inserting popular music styles into the formal liturgy.

giving space to women composers.

sharing new instruments imported from Germany, like the accordion.

teaching the congregation high Latin.

Question 21 (1 point)

Which of the following is a Spanish genre of musical theater characterized by a mixture of sung and spoken dialogue?

Question 21 options:

Kunqu

Zarzuela

Opera

Noh

Question 22 (1 point)

What is the foot-stomping heard in Mexican son that creates rhythmic accents called?

Question 22 options:

Zapateado

Ceili

Baile

Flamenco

Question 23 (1 point)

Independence Day in Mexico is:

Question 23 options:

May 5th.

April 15th.

September 16th.

December 25th.

Question 24 (1 point)

The mega-genre of Mexican dance song, called son, is defined by which three dimensions?

Question 24 options:

Music, verse, and instrumentation

Verse, instrumentation, and choreography

Music, verse, and choreography

Music, instrumentation, and choreography

Section IV: Text/Lecture–True-False (15 points)

Select T (true) or F (false) for the following statements.

Question 25 (1 point)

All societies have music, but music is not a universal language.

Question 25 options:

True

False

Question 26 (1 point)

Another term for “traditional” music is “folk” music.

Question 26 options:

True

False

Question 27 (1 point)

The beginning of the nationalist movement in Mexican classical music began with the establishment of the Orquesta Sinfónica Nacional in 1928 and ended with the death of composer Silvestre Revueltas in 1940.

Question 27 options:

True

False

Question 28 (1 point)

Classical music is distinct in that it requires very specialized training to understand and perform and is typically based upon a theoretical system, like notation.

Question 28 options:

True

False

Question 29 (1 point)

Banda is a broad style of Mexican dance music popularized by the wind bands of Sinaloa.

Question 29 options:

True

False

Question 30 (1 point)

Popular music refers to music mostly from the 1980s-1990s, especially music that includes electric guitar, bass, and keyboards.

Question 30 options:

True

False

Question 31 (1 point)

Canto nuevo (a.k.a. nueva canción and nueva trova) was a song movement easily identified by the women who invariably fronted the bands to represent the gender equality for which it was striving.

Question 31 options:

True

False

Question 32 (1 point)

A song structured in verse form with different text, but the same melody is known as strophic.

Question 32 options:

True

False

Question 33 (1 point)

Flor silvestre (1943) is a film that provides a social critique of the Mexican Revolution in its music and narrative.

Question 33 options:

True

False

Question 34 (1 point)

The huéhuetl (single-headed drum with carved wooden base) is categorized as an idiophone.

Question 34 options:

True

False

Question 35 (1 point)

Francisco “Pancho” Villa (1878-1923) was a major leader during the Mexican Revolution.

Question 35 options:

True

False

Question 36 (1 point)

The romance is a poetically conceived ballad song and ancestor to the modern corrido.

Question 36 options:

True

False

Question 37 (1 point)

The Porfiriato was a period of social degradation and oppression of freedom, but with a lot of economic and infrastructure improvements in Mexico.

Question 37 options:

True

False

Question 38 (1 point)

Son istmeño is well known for its characteristic instrument, the pinkillu.

Question 38 options:

True

False

Question 39 (1 point)

Porfirio Diaz is most well-known for his rallying cry for Mexican independence, “death to the gachupines.”

Question 39 options:

True

False

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Question 25: Business

Assignment Overview

The Case Assignments for this course are tightly coordinated with the SLP and the TD. In the SLP, you will be working with a virtual team comprising several of your classmates. In the Case, you will be considering the more conceptual topics that will guide you in structuring your team and its work. Your task is to apply what you learn from preparing the Cases to the way you build your team. The exception is Module 4, where the Case involves an assessment of your team and the SLP an action plan for improvement and learning. The goal is that by the end of the course you will have had a chance to learn and practice what current management “gurus” are telling us about how to work in virtual teams, and will be in a position to analyze how effective these practices are.

Case Assignment

Arguably the trickiest part of building and maintaining an effective virtual team is the task of balancing “togetherness” and “apartness.” Some insight was given to this question in the background reading. Now read an additional piece, which expands on this theme:

Mapping out the creative process and work design approach. Retrieved from http://media.wiley.com/product_data/excerpt/46/07879711/0787971146.pdf

After considering the material in this reading as well as the background readings and any other research material you choose to use, reflect on how a virtual team best addresses the balance between togetherness and apartness. Specifically, you will want to think about how the work in virtual teams is designed as well as how leadership is handled. For example:

What are the options for work design and leadership of virtual teams?
How do task requirements and team characteristics affect the choices of work design and leadership (such as rotating, etc.)? Be specific and give examples if appropriate.
Make an assessment of the effectiveness of the structures/practices covered by the readings in this module for virtual teaming. (In other words, do they work, or are the authors of the readings hopelessly out of touch with reality?)

Assignment Expectations

Your paper (which should be from 4 to 5 pages), will be evaluated using the following five (5) criteria:

Assignment-Driven Criteria (Precision and Breadth): Does the paper fully address all assignment expectations? Are the concepts behind the assignment addressed accurately and precisely using sound logic? Does the paper meet minimum length requirements?
Critical Thinking (Critical Thinking and Depth): Does the paper demonstrate graduate-level analysis, in which information derived from multiple sources, expert opinions, and assumptions has been critically evaluated and synthesized in the formulation of a logical set of conclusions? Does the paper address the topic with sufficient depth of discussion and analysis?
Business Writing (Clarity and Organization): Is the paper well written (clear, developed logically, and well organized)? Are the grammar, spelling, and vocabulary appropriate for graduate-level work? Are section headings included in all papers? Are paraphrasing and synthesis of concepts the primary means of responding to the assignment, or is justification/support instead conveyed through excessive use of direct quotations?
Effective Use of Information (Information Literacy and References): Does the paper demonstrate that the student has read, understood and can apply the background materials for the module? If required, has the student demonstrated effective research, as evidenced by student’s use of relevant and quality (library?) sources? Do additional sources used in paper provide strong support for conclusions drawn, and do they help in shaping the overall paper?
Citing Sources: Does the student demonstrate understanding of APA Style of referencing, by inclusion of proper end references and in-text citations (for paraphrased text and direct quotations) as appropriate? Have all sources (e.g., references used from the Background page, the assignment readings, and outside research) been included, and are these properly cited? Have all end references been included within the body of the paper as in-text citations?

Turn in your 4- to 5-page essay by the end of the module.

Question 26: Business

Amazon.com Business Combinations and Financial Results Analysis

worth 120 points

Search the Internet for acquisitions and equity investments made by Amazon.com during the last five (5) years. Review the 10-K of Amazon.com located at http://www.sec.gov/cgi-bin/browse-edgar?company=&match=&CIK=AMZN&filenum=&State=&Country=&SIC=&owner=exclude&Find=Find+Companies&action=getcompany.

Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:

Examine how at least three (3) growth strategy alternatives utilized by Amazon.com in the global and domestic retail markets influenced profitability and indicate if the strategies were successful.
Assess the financial value of the acquisitions and investments made by Amazon.com, and the influence of the acquisitions and investments on profitability during the accounting period.
Analyze the effect of the equity investments and impairments resulting from the acquisitions and investments by Amazon.com on the financial statements and indicate whether the strategy was a creatable one. Provide support for your rationale.
Create an argument that growth in the European market can have a significant impact on current earnings and profit for Amazon.com. Provide support for your rationale.
Use at least two (2) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar websites do not qualify as academic resources. You have access to Strayer University’s Online Library at https://research.strayer.edu or iCampus University Library Research page at https://icampus.strayer.edu/library/research.

Question 27: Business

For this assignment, use the same company you researched in Assignment 1 (Wegmans Food Markets)

Write a two to three (2-3) page paper in which you:

Compare the difference between job satisfaction and organizational commitment. Determine which is more strongly related to performance for your selected company.
Apply motivational theory and performance management principles to evaluate the company as a potential employer.
Use at least three (3) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and similar websites do not qualify as academic resources.

Question 28: Economics

The demand for 3D televisions (TVs) would fall if 3D TVs are normal goods and:

Question 2

10 out of 10 points

What would explain the price of petrol being much higher in 2012 than it was in 2011, yet roughly the same amount of petrol was bought in both years?

Question 3

0 out of 10 points

Businesses feel that slowly rising general prices are good for business because:

Question 4

10 out of 10 points

If the price of wood suddenly increases, which of the following would be a likely explanation?

Question 5

10 out of 10 points

If the demand for a good increases when there is high unemployment, we can conclude that the commodity is:

Question 6

10 out of 10 points

If the price of petrol doubles while consumer income is constant:

Question 7

10 out of 10 points

If the price of luxury cars falls, the most likely outcome, ceteris paribus, will be that the:

Question 8

10 out of 10 points

An advance in technology increases supply:

Question 9

10 out of 10 points

Health Clubs typically experience an increase in one-year memberships in January, but many new customers cancel their memberships before the end of the year. Which of the following is the best explanation for this behavior?

Question 10

0 out of 10 points

The substitution effect of a price change refers to the:

Question 1

10 out of 10 points

An advance in technology increases supply:

Question 2

10 out of 10 points

The substitution effect of a price change refers to the:

Question 3

10 out of 10 points

Question 4

10 out of 10 points

If wages of workers in the car manufacturing industry rise, and the wage rises are not due to increases in worker productivity, then the market:

Question 5

10 out of 10 points

What would explain the price of petrol being much higher in 2012 than it was in 2011, yet roughly the same amount of petrol was bought in both years?

Question 6

10 out of 10 points

The demand for 3D televisions (TVs) would fall if 3D TVs are normal goods and:

Question 7

10 out of 10 points

Assume that the prices of airline tickets (assuming airline tickets are normal goods) have fallen in recent months. Over this same period, assume that the price of jet fuel has risen and consumer incomes have fallen. Which of the following best explains the falling prices of airline tickets?

Question 8

10 out of 10 points

If the price of petrol doubles while consumer income is constant:

Question 9

10 out of 10 points

Businesses feel that slowly rising general prices are good for business because:

Question 10

10 out of 10 points

If the demand for a good increases when there is high unemployment, we can conclude that the commodity is:

Question 3

0 out of 10 points

An increase in the demand for bananas will not be caused by:

Question 10

10 out of 10 points

Soon after the price of beef increases, the price of chicken increases also because:

Question 29: Psychology

Researchers (Dexter et al., 1998) wanted to know what impact, if any, the consumption of violent movies has on attitudes toward women. Participants at a large, Midwestern university viewed either (a) a slasher film daily for 1 week, (b) Three slasher films in 1 week, or (c) a George Pierrot adventure travelogue. Slasher films feature the slicing and dicing of young women’s bodies (e.g., The Texas Chain Saw Massacre, 1974). In the week following the film viewing, all participants were escorted to the campus law school where they were asked to observe law students try a rape case in a mock trial; participants’ task was to evaluate the performance of all parties to the trial. A Likert-style questionnaire (1=not at all; 9=extremely) completed by participants included evaluations of the respective attorneys, the defendant, and the accuser. Examples were:

How sympathetic is she/he?
How attractive is she/he?
How intelligent is she/he?
How likeable is she/he?

Reference:

Dexter, H. R., Penrod, S., Linz, D., & Saunders, D. (1998). Attributing responsibility to female victims after exposure to sexually violent films: The effects of victim-observer similarity, situational relevance, and mass media induced emotional arousal. Journal of Applied Social Psychology, 27(24), 2149-2171.

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

d) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

A pair of psychologists are interested in the effects of mood in helping (based on Isen & Levin, 1972). They give participants free tickets to a happy movie. They then have a confederate drop papers in front of the people who just got out of the movie, and people who are only walking by and have not just seen a happy movie for free. The researchers watch to see if the participants help pick up the dropped papers.

Reference:

Isen, A. M., & Levin, P. F. (1972). Effect of feeling good on helping: Cookies and kindness. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 21(3), 384–388.

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

d) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Researchers are interested in personal experiences of Indian adolescent girls with regard to gender discrimination and how they feel about the discrimination (Sarkar, 2003). All of the participants used in this study are female. Participants are interviewed with a set of semi-structured, open ended questions in an individual setting and in focus groups.

Reference:

Sarkar, S. (2010). Cross-cultural examination of psychological well-being in India and Sri Lanka. Paper accepted and to be presented as a part of the Symposium “Exploring psychological well-being in culturally diverse populations: Methodological innovations”, chaired by B. K. Nastasi at the American Psychological Association’s 112th annual convention (August 2010, San Diego).

a) What is the qualitative research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

d) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Researchers (Reifman, Larrick, & Fein, 1991) were interested in the factors causing aggression. They looked at an entire baseball season’s worth of news reports. For each game, they recorded the temperature of the locale and the number of batters who were hit by pitched balls.

Reference:

Reifman, A. S., Larrick, R. P., & Fein, S. (1991). Temper and temperature on the diamond: The heat-aggression relationship in major league baseball. Personality and Social Psychology Bulletin, 17(5), 580–585.

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

e) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Researchers are interested in influences on self-esteem. Half of the participants used in this study are male and half are female. Participants are given a set of anagram problems to solve in a 5-minute period. Half are randomly assigned to receive very easy anagrams and half are given difficult ones. After completing as many of the anagrams as they can, participants are given a questionnaire labeled “Thoughts and Feelings Questionnaire” that is really a measure of self-esteem.

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

f) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Question 30: Psychology

Researchers (Dexter et al., 1998) wanted to know what impact, if any, the consumption of violent movies has on attitudes toward women. Participants at a large, Midwestern university viewed either (a) a slasher film daily for 1 week, (b) Three slasher films in 1 week, or (c) a George Pierrot adventure travelogue. Slasher films feature the slicing and dicing of young women’s bodies (e.g., The Texas Chain Saw Massacre, 1974). In the week following the film viewing, all participants were escorted to the campus law school where they were asked to observe law students try a rape case in a mock trial; participants’ task was to evaluate the performance of all parties to the trial. A Likert-style questionnaire (1=not at all; 9=extremely) completed by participants included evaluations of the respective attorneys, the defendant, and the accuser. Examples were:

How sympathetic is she/he?
How attractive is she/he?
How intelligent is she/he?
How likeable is she/he?

Reference:

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

d) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

A pair of psychologists are interested in the effects of mood in helping (based on Isen & Levin, 1972). They give participants free tickets to a happy movie. They then have a confederate drop papers in front of the people who just got out of the movie, and people who are only walking by and have not just seen a happy movie for free. The researchers watch to see if the participants help pick up the dropped papers.

Reference:

Isen, A. M., & Levin, P. F. (1972). Effect of feeling good on helping: Cookies and kindness. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 21(3), 384–388.

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

d) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Researchers are interested in personal experiences of Indian adolescent girls with regard to gender discrimination and how they feel about the discrimination (Sarkar, 2003). All of the participants used in this study are female. Participants are interviewed with a set of semi-structured, open ended questions in an individual setting and in focus groups.

Reference:

a) What is the qualitative research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

d) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Researchers (Reifman, Larrick, & Fein, 1991) were interested in the factors causing aggression. They looked at an entire baseball season’s worth of news reports. For each game, they recorded the temperature of the locale and the number of batters who were hit by pitched balls.

Reference:

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

e) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Researchers are interested in influences on self-esteem. Half of the participants used in this study are male and half are female. Participants are given a set of anagram problems to solve in a 5-minute period. Half are randomly assigned to receive very easy anagrams and half are given difficult ones. After completing as many of the anagrams as they can, participants are given a questionnaire labeled “Thoughts and Feelings Questionnaire” that is really a measure of self-esteem.

a) What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

Observational
Correlational
Experimental
Phenomenological
Case Study

If a quantitative study,

b) What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

c) What is the hypothesis for this study?

If a qualitative study,

f) What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

Question 31: Psychology

SS360 Abnormal Psychology Final Exam

Which of the following is NOT one of the typical minor side effects of antipsychotic medications?

Grogginess

Blurred vision

Headaches

Dryness of the mouth

The main deficit of amnestic disorder is an inability to

transfer information into long-term memory.

remember significant events from the distant past.

perform basic mathematical calculations.

remember one’s own name.

One of the major differences between dementia caused by Alzheimer’s disease and dementia caused by depression is that the Alzheimer’s type of dementia:

is generally reversible

is not reversible

involves a slow increase in symptoms

leads to a rapid decline in abilities

Tardive dyskinesia, a condition that can occur in patients who take antipsychotic medications:

can result from short term use

can result from low doses

occurs in less than 2% of patients

may often be irreversible

Which of the following is the persecutory type of psychotic delusion?

A familiar person is actually a double.

You are a famous or important person.

People are out to get you.

A body part has changed in some impossible way.

Most models of developmental psychology suggest that normal childhood development progresses as a series of steps, with each new achievement building on prior development. Given this model, select any childhood developmental disorder and describe how it can influence current and future deficits for the individuals
Which of the following is(are) the primary issue(s) in mental health law today?

The rights of mentally ill individuals

The rights of society to be protected

both of these

neither of these

Several years ago, Mary was arrested for participating in a crime. Since then she has been confined in a psychiatric hospital. Mary is periodically evaluated to see if she is still mentally ill. When it is determined that she is no longer mentally ill, Mary will be released. From your knowledge of mental health and the law, you would correctly state that the original verdict in Mary’s case was:

NGRI

GBMI

both of these

neither of these

In which of the following disorders are hallucinations and delusions NOT part of the symptom pattern?

schizotypal personality disorder

schizoaffective disorder

schizophreniform disorder

brief psychotic disorder

One of the subtypes of schizophrenia is termed residual. Which of the following individuals would be diagnosed with this condition?

Mr. S. is actively hallucinating and has delusions of persecution.

Miss L. has had an episode of schizophrenia but has no active symptoms at this time.

Mrs. R. has never had an episode of schizophrenia but acts in a very bizarre manner.

Mt. F. is at risk for developing schizophrenia because of his family history.

Which of the following occurs when drugs are administered to schizophrenic patients?

drugs that increase dopamine (agonists) cause an increase in schizophrenic behavior

drugs that decrease dopamine (antagonists) decrease schizophrenic behavior

both of these statements are correct

neither of these statements are correct

Which best describes the way attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) develops as children grow into adulthood?

children tend to outgrow ADHD

ADHD tends to evolve into more severe forms of pathology

symptoms remain relatively stable throughout the lifespan for most individuals

manifestations of ADHD tend to change over time, but problems often persist

Jena is a 14-year-old autistic girl who seems compelled to run around touching each door every time she comes home. If she is prevented from touching each door, Jean has a tantrum. This is an example of:

restricted behavior pattern

social impairment

ritualistic behavior

maintenance of sameness

Callie has been diagnosed with schizoaffective disorder. This means that in addition to schizophrenic symptoms, she also has symptoms of:

an anxiety disorder

a mood disorder

a split personality

obsessive-compulsive disorder

The inattention symptom of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder is characterized by:

careless mistakes

fidgeting

not waiting one’s turn to answer questions

all of these

If Jane’s dementia is caused by a process that has damaged her brain’s dopamine pathways, it can be assumed that this condition is related to:

head trauma

Parkinson’s disease

Huntington’s disease

Alzheimer’s disease

Which of the following is most likely to occur in the paranoid type of schizophrenia?

Disorganized speech

Poor prognosis when compared to the other subtypes of schizophrenia

Limited cognitive skills and flat affect

Hallucinations and thematic or systematized delusions

According to the authors of your textbook, the periodic changes in the laws regarding civil commitment are a sign of a:

society that has no idea of what to do with this issue

hospital system that is ineffective in treating uncooperative patients

healthy system responding to the limits of previous decisions

prior mistake that has now been successfully corrected

Which of the following was used for a definitive diagnosis of Alzheimer’s type dementia in the past?

psychological testing

mental status exam

autopsy

reported observations of the patient by family members

Describe the “positive” and “negative” symptoms of schizophrenia. Explain what is meant by these terms and how they are related to prognosis and outcome.
The risk of violence among mentally ill patients increases if specific symptoms such as __________ are present.

hallucinations

delusions

both a and b

neither a nor b

Which of the following is accurate in regard to the long-term outlook for schizophrenia patients?

About 50% of persons diagnosed with the disorder eventually recover.

Recovery is possible only if the person stays on medication

Recovery is possible only if the patient receives psychotherapy.

Complete recovery from schizophrenia is rare.

Mr. Smith (age 72) is brought to the hospital emergency room. Mr. Smith’s son explains that his father woke up this morning and was “not himself.” Mr. Smith appears confused, agitated, and a bit frightened. He does not know his own name and cannot recognize his son. Mr. Smith’s son reports that his father had been completely fine with no symptoms prior to that morning. Mr. Smith appears to be suffering from :

dementia

Alzheimer’s

delirium

amnesic disorder

In regard to dementia, the cognitive reserve hypothesis suggests that:

skills acquired through formal education help compensate for the early symptoms of dementia

the more synapses one develops throughout life, the more neuronal death required before the person becomes impaired

individuals with Alzheimer’s type dementia never had reserve neurons

Alzheimer’s type dementia is caused by a lack of formal education

If an individual is diagnosed as psychotic, it usually means that the person has

hallucinations.

delusions.

both of these

neither of these

One major difference that is useful in the diagnosis of dementia or delirium is that:

dementia symptoms develop slowly over time; delirium symptoms develop quickly

dementia symptoms are usually associated with underlying medical conditions; delirium is usually the result of other factors

the initial symptoms of dementia are generally more severe than the symptoms of delirium

the symptoms of dementia involve memory but the symptoms of delirium are more likely to involve expressive language

Which of the following statements accurately describes the outcome of the policy known as deinstitutionalization?

Previously hospitalized patients received adequate care in most communities.

Funding for community mental health centers was sufficient to provide care for previously hospitalized patients.

Deinstitutionalization is considered a failure because patient care deteriorated.

None of the above

Results of research showing that auditory hallucinations are localized in the expressive speech area of the brain suggest:

these hallucinations are produced by the auditory nerve in the ear as well as the speech area of the brain

people who are hallucinating think the voices of other people are actually their own

a person who is hallucinating is actually listening to is/her own thoughts

these hallucinations are related to the disorganized speech that occurs in schizophrenia

Which of the following statements is true?

A cold, dominant, and rejecting mother causes schizophrenia.

A communication style that produces conflicting messages causes schizophrenia.

High expressed emotion in a family is a good predictor of relapse among patients with chronic schizophrenia.

None of these

The hypothesis that attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) may be influenced by toxins, food additives, or diet:

is based on well controlled studies

is not well understood or studied, but generally effective as a treatment

appears true for a small subset of individuals diagnosed with ADHD

has no scientific evidence

Alvin is a ten-year-old boy diagnosed with a mathematics disorder. His treatment plan will most likely involve:

teaching him different strategies to compensate for areas where he has difficulty

stimulant medication

developing an educational plan that exempts him from mathematics requirements

placing him in a school for learning disordered children

The familial communication style called expressed emotion (EE) sometimes used to predict relapse in schizophrenia patients includes all of the following EXCEPT:

over-involvement

criticism

emotional distance

Hostility

Although not classified as developmental disorders, many, if not most, psychological disorders can be considered developmental because they:

appear early in life and change over a the lifespan

have a genetic component

lack biological causes and are influenced by learning

are unique to children

Most autistic individuals develop symptoms of the disorder:

at birth

by age one

by age three

by teen years

At various times individuals have been arrested for stalking celebrities who they believed were in love with them. This condition is called _____ delusion.

jealous

erotomanic

somatic

persecutory

The famous case of the Genain sisters, identical quadruplets all diagnosed with schizophrenia, points out that siblings raised in the same household may experience their environment very differently, a concept called:

variable home structure

unshared environment

environmental phenomenon

unique perceptive interpretation

Monte is a 3-year-old boy recently diagnosed with autism. He appears completely unresponsive to his parents and shows no indication of any language development. Monte seems uninterested in communication of any kind and has significant rituals such as lining up his toys and realigning them every few minutes. He becomes hysterical if anyone interrupts his ritualistic activity. On an IQ assessment designed for very young children, Monte’s score was extremely low. His prognosis is poor primarily because of:

Question 32: Psychology

Psych 328 Midterm

Which of the following is not thought to contribute to the onset of puberty?

the presence of sexually mature partners in the environment

whether the individual is healthy enough to begin reproduction

the development of primary sex characteristics

whether there are nutritional resources available to support a pregnancy

Which of the following statements suggests that rising levels of the protein leptin is an important signal that tells the body it is ready for puberty?

Production of pubic hair relates to increased sex drive.

Excessive thinness can delay onset of puberty.

Poorer adolescents tend to go through puberty earlier than non-poor adolescents.

Excessive exercise promotes early physical development.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #13
Which of the following is not part of the feedback loop in the endocrine system?

gonads

hypothalamus

pituitary gland

thyroid hormones

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #14
Ten-year-old Luna’s budding feelings of sexual attraction are most likely explained:

by maturation of the adrenal glands through the process called adrenarche.

by maturation of the gonads through a process called menarche.

as rising levels of leptin instruct her hypothalamus to set the hormonal changes of puberty in motion.

as increases in sex hormones activate her HPG axis.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #15
The hormonally induced increase in the rate of growth in height and weight is referred to as:

the adolescent growth spurt.

epiphyses.

secular trend.

delayed phase preference.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #16
The simultaneous release of growth hormones, thyroid hormones, and _________ stimulates rapid acceleration in height and weight during puberty.

pituitary glands

estrogens

androgens

thyroid glands

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #17
.

At the time of peak height velocity, adolescents grow at about the same rate as:

newborns.

infants.

toddlers.

elementary schoolchildren.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #18
The adolescent growth spurt:

generally begins two years earlier for girls than for boys.

generally begins two years earlier for boys than for girls.

is slower in the early adolescent years, then speeds up around age 15 for boys and girls.

proceeds along a smooth and rapid course over the teen years.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #19
.

Which of the following is not characteristic of changes in skeletal structure during puberty?

One marker that indicates the termination in growth in height is epiphysis.

Bones become more porous and more likely to break.

Height gains are attributable more to increases in torso length than leg length.

The growth sequence generally begins with the extremities, and then proceeds to the arms and legs, then to the torso and shoulders.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #20
.

Who is at the greatest risk of developing body dissatisfaction?

Callie, an early-maturing, affluent White girl who compares herself to her friends

Miranda, a late-maturing Black girl

John, an early-maturing Black male who compares himself to his friends

Mike, a late-maturing White male who feels he is not muscular enough

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #21
One reason for the difference in the body shapes of the sexes is:

the timing of the growth spurt.

that females tend to be more “left-brained” and males more “right-brained.”

differences in the size of the hypothalamus.

the difference in the amount and distribution of body fat.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #22
Although both sexes experience changes in muscle tissue and body fat, the ratio of muscle to body fat is:

greater in boys than girls.

greater in girls than boys.

about the same in both genders.

greater in early-maturing girls than in late-maturing boys.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #23
Which of the following girls would probably be least susceptible to feelings of body dissatisfaction due to the rapid increase in body fat in early adolescence?

Suzy, an early mature

Lilly, someone who began dating early

Diane, someone from a relatively affluent family

Beth, a Black adolescent girl

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #24
The rapid increase in body fat that adolescent girls experience:

leads to a majority of adolescent girls dieting unnecessarily.

leads to an increase in healthy eating patterns among adolescent girls.

increases vulnerability to feelings of body dissatisfaction for Black adolescent girls.

is seen by the Centers for Disease Control as a major risk factor for obesity among adolescent girls.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #25
According to the textbook, the sex difference in athletic performance during early adolescence results from all of the following except:

self-confidence.

body fat.

hormones.

diet and exercise.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #26
All of the following are reasons that males have greater gains in strength than females during early adolescence, except:

increased production of androgens among females.

strong societal pressures on girls to decrease their physical activity in adolescence.

inadequate nutrition among adolescent girls.

sex differences in body fat.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #27
Which of the following sex characteristics is the first to develop in boys?

production of sperm

appearance of facial hair

growth of testes and scrotum

growth of penis

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #28
Which of the following is probably true for Ashley, an early-maturing girl who was short and stocky as a child?

After puberty, she will be shorter and heavier than her late-maturing peers.

After puberty, she will be shorter and thinner than her late-maturing peers.

After puberty, she will be taller and heavier than her late-maturing peers.

After puberty, she will be taller and thinner than her late-maturing peers.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #29
The first ejaculation of seminal fluid that occurs is:

biologically predetermined.

genetically inherited.

often determined culturally.

a major embarrassment for most boys.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #30
The first sign of puberty in girls is generally:

growth of breasts.

underarm hair.

menarche.

acne.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #31
Molly’s breasts are beginning to develop, she is beginning to grow pubic hair, her skin is becoming more oily, and her body is growing rapidly. These changes are brought about by the secretion of _____ by the _____.

estrogen only; testes

androgens only; ovaries

estrogen and androgens; ovaries

estrogen and androgens; testes

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #32
Which of the following female sex characteristics is usually the last to develop?

menarche

regular ovulation

development of the nipples of the breasts

growth of pubic hair

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #33
Which of the following statements about puberty in girls is false?

Regular ovulation and the ability to carry a baby to term usually follow menarche by several years.

The development of the areola and nipple are far better indicators of sexual maturation than is breast size.

Menarche occurs very early in the process of sexual development.

The changes in the nipple and areola occur regardless of the size to which the breast finally develops.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #34
Which of the following statements about the timing and tempo of sexual maturation is true?

In the United States, and in all other countries, menarche typically occurs around age 12.

The duration of puberty varies widely, from 1.5 to 6 years in girls and 2 to 5 years in boys.

Adolescents who begin puberty early are also those who complete it early.

Adolescents who begin puberty earlier usually grow to be taller adults.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #35
Sarah is a junior high student anticipating and preparing for puberty. She wants to know when puberty will start and how long it will take until she looks and is considered an adult. What would you tell her?

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is highly variable and is influenced by both genetic and environmental factors.

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is highly predictive. She will begin the puberty process around 12.5 years of age and it will take four years until it is completed.

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is highly controllable.

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is predetermined by your DNA.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #36
Based on research addressing ethnic differences in the timing and rate of pubertal maturation, which American girl would be expected to be the earliest to mature?

Brandy, a middle-income Black adolescent

Miranda, a middle-income Mexican adolescent

Emily, a middle-income White adolescent

Kimberly, a middle-income Asian adolescent

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #37
Which of the following can delay the onset of puberty?

stress

nutritional deficiencies

excessive exercise

All of the above

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #38
Differences in the timing and rate of puberty among individuals growing up in the same general environment are largely caused by:

hormonal factors.

genetic factors.

environmental factors.

None of the above

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #39
Which of the following factors have not been found to influence the onset of maturation?

father absence

good nutrition

family conflict

peer pressure

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #40
According to the textbook, Julie, a seventeen-year-old living in a college dormitory, has noticed that her menstrual periods have begun to synchronize with _____, which is compelling evidence that social relationships can affect biological functioning.

the time her female roommate menstruates

her most stressful days of the month

days she feels most sexually aroused

her biological sister living in a different city

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #41
Over the past century, the onset of puberty has been coming at an earlier age. This has been referred to as the:

cross-sectional trend.

endocrine trend.

menarche trend.

secular trend.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #42
Puberty began for Nancy when she was 9 years old. Her mother began puberty at 11 years. For her grandmother, the onset was at 13 years of age. These changes in the age of onset of puberty over time are referred to as:

cross-sectional trend.

secular trend.

longitudinal trend.

physiologic trend.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #43
Professor Kendall has been researching adolescent maturation around the world. Which of the following is she likely to determine has the smallest role in determining group differences in pubertal maturation?

nutrition.

sanitation.

infectious diseases.

genetics.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #44
The biological changes that take place during puberty can cause changes in adolescents’ behavior in all of the following ways, except:

directly.

by affecting the adolescent’s self-image.

by affecting the reactions of others to the adolescent.

All of these are ways in which biological changes occurring in puberty can cause changes in adolescents’ behavior.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #45
Dr. Davis is interested in how puberty affects adjustment. He studies a group of 100 junior high school students over the course of three years. He is conducting what kind of study?

longitudinal

cross-sectional

cross-sequential

secular

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #46
A research design in which subjects of different ages are assessed simultaneously is called a:

longitudinal study.

cross-sectional study.

cross-sequential study.

correlational study.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #47
Which of the following statements about hormonal changes of puberty is true?

Hormonal changes affect the brain in ways that increase adolescents’ desire for sensation-seeking activities.

Hormonal changes of puberty make adolescent more risk averse.

Hormonal changes of puberty make adolescents more introverted.

Hormonal changes affect the brain in ways that decrease adolescents’ desire for rewarding activities.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #48
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Which of the following statements about adolescent mood swings is false?

The effect of hormones on adolescent mood swings is strongest early in puberty.

Adolescents’ moods fluctuate during the course of the day more than the moods of adults.

Adolescent mood swings parallel their changes in activities.

Hormones play a greater role in the development of depression than do stressful life events.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #49
Which of the following plays the greatest role in the development of depression?

rapid increases in hormones

early maturation

stressful life events

the delayed phase preference

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #50
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Studies show that adolescent mood swings are most closely related to changes in:

hormone levels.

family relationships.

nutrition.

activities.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #51
52.

Which of the following statements about the impact of hormones on behavior is false?

Adolescents’ moods fluctuate more during than day than the moods of adults.

The direct relation between adolescent moodiness and hormonal changes of puberty is extremely strong.

The relation between hormonal changes and adolescent mood is strongest during early puberty.

Rapid increase in hormones may be associated with increased irritability, impulsivity, aggression, and depression.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #52
53.

Given a choice, Mike would prefer to stay up until 1:00 a.m. and sleep until 10:00 a.m. This pattern is called the:

secular trend.

delayed phase preference.

longitudinal design.

adolescent growth spurt.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #53
54.

Which of the following does not contribute to changes in sleep patterns during adolescence?

later secretion of melatonin

mood fluctuations throughout the day

television, computers, and artificial light sources

early school starting times

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #54
55.

The delayed phase preference suggests that:

adolescents should not be taught sex education until high school.

school should be held year-round.

school should begin later in the morning.

school should begin earlier in the morning.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #55
56.

Researchers have found that, with regard to adolescent sleep patterns:

adolescents today are getting more sleep than adolescents 30 years ago.

the reason that high schools begin classes earlier than middle schools or junior high schools is that adolescents are more alert during the morning hours than later in the day.

getting inadequate sleep is associated with poorer mental health and lower grades for adolescents.

although most adolescents do not get sufficient sleep during the week, they are able to make up for the deficit by sleeping later on weekends.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #56
57.

Which of the following statements about puberty’s impact on family relationships is true?

Puberty appears to increase distance between parents and children.

Other species do not experience distance during the pubertal transition.

Distancing effect of puberty on adolescent-parent relationships is consistently observed in minority families.

Puberty does not interfere with family relations.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #57
58.

According to the textbook, when compared to their less mature peers, adolescents who are physically mature are:

less likely to have problems with their parents.

more likely to be involved in cross-sex activities such as going out on dates.

more likely to have platonic relationships with opposite sex peers.

less likely to be depressed.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #58
59.

Which of the following girls will experience the greatest menstrual discomfort?

Sarita, who is prepared for the physical changes

Alison, who is a late mature

Loryn, who has a negative attitude toward menarche

Janet, who is unpopular among her classmates

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #59
60.

Studies have shown that prepubertal girls who expect menstruation to be uncomfortable report:
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milder menstrual symptoms than their peers.

more severe menstrual symptoms than their peers.

about the same level of menstrual symptoms as their peers.

experiencing menarche sooner than their peers.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #60
61.

Which of the following conditions is most likely to produce the most favorable and easiest adjustment to menarche?

when the girl’s mother prepares her by describing the unpleasant aspects of menarche

when the girl reaches menarche early

when menarche occurs before the girl has been told about the physical changes which will occur

when the girl knows the facts about the physical changes her body will undergo

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #61
62.

When adolescents in the United States begin to experience specific pubertal events, which of the following is most likely to occur?

A girl’s mother will be the first person the girl tells that she has begun to menstruate.

A girl’s best friend will be the first person the girl tells that she has begun to menstruate.

A girl is likely not to tell anyone that she is menstruating for the first several months after she begins.

A boy will tell his friends about his first ejaculation soon after it occurs.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #62
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63.

Suzanne and Greg are the first members of their class to begin the pubertal transition. Based on what you know about early-maturing adolescents, Suzanne and Greg are more likely to:

become involved in illegal activities.

do better in school.

be ostracized by their classmates.

get along with their parents.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #63
64.

Which of the following characteristics is not associated with being an early-maturing boy?

fewer problem behaviors

greater popularity

a more positive self-concept

greater confidence in one’s self

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #64
65.

Mike, an early maturer, is more likely to __________ than Bob, a late maturer.

experience pseudomaturity

suffer greater consequences if bullied by peers

experiment with drugs and alcohol

All of the above

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #65
66.

Early-maturing boys are:

likely to have low self-esteem.

often expected to be more mature than they are.

better prepared to deal with changes of adolescence.

more childish than their later-maturing peers.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #66
67.

Avram is considered a late-maturing boy. A year after pubertal onset, we would expect Avram to show all of the following advantages over his early-maturing peers, except:

greater athletic ability.

more intellectual curiosity.

greater exploratory behavior.

higher levels of social initiative.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #67
68.

During puberty, individuals who mature early are likely to experience which of the following?

more intellectual curiosity

less frequent temper tantrums

less depression

more frequent and more intense temper tantrums

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #68
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69.

Which of the following characteristics is not typically associated with being an early-maturing girl?

feelings of awkwardness and self-consciousness

being less popular, especially with boys

being more likely to become involved in juvenile delinquency

being less likely to pursue advanced education and a demanding career

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #69
70.

In America, early-maturing girls are more likely than their late-maturing peers to:

be unpopular.

have a more negative self-image.

succeed in school.

perceive themselves as attractive.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #70
71.

Which of the following was not offered by the textbook as an explanation for the sex differences in the impact of early and late maturation?

the cultural desirability of thin body types

the developmental readiness hypothesis

the maturational deviance hypothesis

genetic makeup

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #71
72.

Nadia is an early-maturing girl. Compared to her late-maturing peers, which of the following statements is most likely to be true for Nadia?
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Nadia is less likely to suffer from social anxiety.

Nadia is less likely to be popular with girls.

Nadia is more likely to be popular with the boys.

Nadia is less likely to be the victim of rumors and gossip.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #72
73.

The impact of early maturation on problem behaviors or depression is worse when:

adolescents have many stressful life events.

have harsh or inconsistent parents.

live in disadvantaged neighborhoods.

All of the above.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #73
74.

Generalizing from the textbook, the children who are most likely to think of themselves as being “off schedule” with respect to their physical development are girls who mature _____ and boys who mature _____.

late; early

early; late

late; late

early; early

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #74
75.

Follow-up studies of Swedish women who had been early maturers found that as adults they were:

unable to develop coping skills.

less likely to continue their education beyond high school.

more likely to continue their education beyond high school.

indistinguishable from those who had been late maturers.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #75
76.

The _____ is the minimal amount of energy one uses when resting.

basal metabolism rate

delayed phase preference

secular trend

feedback loop

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #76
77.

Which of the following statements about the secular trend is true?

There is currently no evidence that boys have followed the secular trend.

Evidence for the secular trend in boys can be found in reports from European children’s choirs.

Experts agree that the secular trend (for boys and girls) has indeed continued in recent years.

Scientists believe that the secular trend is caused by chemicals in the food supply.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #77
78.

Which of the following is true about obesity?

To be considered obese, a person’s body mass index must fall at or above the 95th percentile for their age and gender.

Forty percent of American adolescents are obese.

The rate of obesity has quadrupled worldwide since 2005.

Obesity is solely caused by a low basal metabolic rate.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #78
79.

Which group is most at risk for obesity?

late-maturing Black girls

early-maturing Black girls

early-maturing White boys

early-maturing White girls

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #79
80.

According to the textbook, in general, the amount of time individuals spend in moderate-to-vigorous physical activity:

increases from childhood to adolescence.

decreases from childhood to adolescence.

remains the same from childhood to adolescence.

is directly related to socioeconomic status.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #80
81.

Rosy believes that “fat is beautiful” and has a steady diet of fried chicken, French fries, and cheeseburgers. Tanya believes that “thin is in” and uses vomiting and laxatives as a way to keep her weight down. Both girls exhibit what psychologists call:

disordered eating.

bulimia.

anorexia nervosa.

normal adolescent eating patterns.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #81
82.

Which of the following is not associated with disordered eating in the United States?

poor interpersonal relationships

depression

alcohol and tobacco use

All of the following are associated with disordered eating.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #82
83.

Theresa has been known to go on eating binges and then purge immediately afterward. Theresa is probably suffering from:

anorexia nervosa.

bulimia.

binge eating disorder

obesity.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #83
84.

Karen has been known to exercise excessively, count calories, and diet obsessively. She is currently depriving herself of food even though she is 20 pounds underweight. Karen is probably suffering from:

anorexia nervosa.

bulimia.

binge eating disorder.

deprivation syndrome.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #84
85.

The potentially fatal disorder in which young women actually starve themselves is called:

bulimia.

anorexia nervosa.

obesity nervosa.

purging.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #85
86.

Which of the following statements about obesity is not true?

Adolescent obesity epidemic will cost the United States more than $250 billion.

Adolescent obesity has been especially dramatic among Black females.

Adolescent obesity is limited to the United States.

Obesity is the most serious health problem of American adolescents.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #86
87.

Who of the following is likely to gain excess weight during adolescence?

Mary, who gets inadequate sleep on school nights but sleeps in on the weekends

Kevin, who gets insufficient physical inactivity, but lives near recreational facilities

Tony whose friends are relatively overweight

All of these adolescents are likely to gain excessive weight during puberty.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #87
88.

Non-White adolescents are relatively more likely than White adolescents to experience all of the following, except:

to be murdered.

to be physically inactive.

suffer from chronic illness.

anorexia nervosa.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #88
89.

Who most closely resembles the profile of someone who has binge eating disorder?

Steve, a wrestler who nearly starves himself so he can stay in his weight bracket

Carla, a gymnast who binges on junk food but makes herself vomit after each meal

Howard, a football player who believes he is overweight and exercises twice a day, seven days a week

Sherri, a volleyball player who binges on junk food but does not engage in any other weight loss behaviors

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #89
90.

Of the following, the biggest threat to adolescents’ health is:

infectious disease.

chronic illness.

cardiovascular disease.

risky behaviors.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #90
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91.

Which of the following is not associated with the “new morbidity and mortality” of adolescence?

accidents

suicide

homicide

cancer

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #91
92.

Which of the following statements about health in adolescence is not true?

Adolescents have low rates of disabling or chronic illness.

Adolescents have high rates of accidents, homicide, and suicide.

The majority of health problems during adolescence are preventable.

The new approach to adolescent health care is a return to traditional medicine.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #92
93.

The most virulent threats to adolescent health come from all of the following, except:

unhealthy behaviors, such as drug use.

chronic disabilities, such as cancer.

violence inflicted by themselves or by others.

risky activities, such as unprotected sexual intercourse.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #93
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94.

Current efforts aimed at encouraging healthy behaviors among adolescents involve all of the following, except:

changing the contexts in which adolescents live.

increasing adolescents’ knowledge and understanding of health enhancing behaviors.

encouraging adolescents to sign contracts promising to abstain from unhealthy behaviors.

encouraging health care professionals to do more screening for risky health practices.

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #94
95.

Which adolescent is at highest risk for suicide?

Black males

Hispanic females

White females

American Indian/Alaskan Native males

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #95
96.

According to the textbook, the prevalence of adolescent smoking is a direct function of:

the number of retail outlets selling tobacco in their immediate neighborhood.

the amount of people smoking in the neighborhood.

whether biologic

Question 33: Education

Assignment 2, Motivation & Performance Management Motivation and Performance Management

Compare the difference between job satisfaction and organizational commitment. Determine which is more strongly related to performance for your selected company.

Job Dissatisfaction

Organizational Commitment

Apply motivational theory and performance management principles to evaluate the company as a potential employer.

Question 34: Health Care

NSG 6001 FINAL EXAM 2020 / NSG6001 FINAL EXAM 2020 (LATEST): SOUTH UNIVERSITY

Question 35: Health Care

NURS 6670 MIDTERM EXAM |LATEST-2020: WALDEN UNIVERSITY

Question 36: Health Care

NURS 6521N week 10 advanced pharmacology quiz

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is assigned to a patient who is at 32 weeks’ gestation and is receiving terbutaline (Brethine) IV for 24 hours to control preterm labor. Which of the following nursing actions will the nurse take to decrease the risk of hypotension and promote circulation to the fetus?

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

A 51-year-old female patient has been receiving doxorubicin (Adriamycin) for metastatic breast cancer. Her medical record indicates she has cardiomyopathy and a cumulative dose of 300 mg/m² of doxorubicin. Which of the following measures would help limit the severity of the cardiomyopathy in this patient?

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

A 38-year-old pregnant patient admits to the nurse that she is an alcoholic and has been consuming alcohol during her pregnancy. The nurse knows that using alcohol during pregnancy may result in a child who presents with

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

On the advice of her sister, a 52-year-old woman has visited her nurse practitioner to discuss the potential benefits of hormone replacement therapy in controlling the symptoms of menopause. Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate?

Question 5

1 out of 1 points

The nurse practitioner has recommended that a breast-feeding woman take her prescribed medications just before her infant takes his longest nap of the day. The woman does not understand and asks the nurse to explain. The nurse will tell the woman that the recommendation was made to

Question 6

1 out of 1 points

A 59-year-old man with a recent history of erectile dysfunction has been assessed and prescribed sildenafil (Viagra). When providing patient education to this man, the nurse should tell him which of the following?

Question 7

1 out of 1 points

A patient is pregnant and is at 7 weeks’ gestation. She has type 1 diabetes and has been taking insulin since she was 13 years old. She asks the nurse if the insulin will be harmful to her baby. The best response to the patient by the nurse would be

Question 8

0 out of 1 points

A nurse is working in a women’s hospital where she is caring for a new mother who is experiencing postpartum urinary retention. Bethanechol (Urecholine) has been ordered. The nurse will observe for which of the following?

Question 9

1 out of 1 points

A 20-year-old woman has been prescribed estrogen. As with all women taking estrogen, the nurse will carefully monitor the patient for which of the following?

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

A male patient with a medical background tells the nurse that he is not satisfied with the oral synthetic testosterone that has been prescribed for him and he would like to try a natural form of oral testosterone. Which of the following would be an appropriate response by the nurse?

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is performing patient education for a woman who has just been prescribed a bisphosphonate. Which of the following diagnostic and history findings would have prompted the woman’s care provider to prescribe a bisphosphonate?

Question 12

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is working with a 16-year-old pregnant teen and assessing for behavior that may put the baby at risk. The most important assessment the nurse can make is

Question 13

1 out of 1 points

A woman who is in the second trimester of her first pregnancy has been experiencing frequent headaches and has sought advice from her nurse practitioner about safe treatment options. What analgesic can the nurse most safely recommend?

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Question 14

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is providing patient education to a 50-year-old woman who is taking methotrexate (MTX) for breast cancer. The nurse will instruct the patient to avoid which of the following drugs?

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

A postmenopausal patient is prescribed bisphosphonates to treat osteoporosis. The nurse will instruct the patient to take the drug

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

A 71-year-old man has just been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). Which of the following complaints by this patient most likely indicated a need for this drug?

Question 17

1 out of 1 points

A female patient is taking oral cyclophosphamide therapy for breast cancer. Because of possible adverse effects of the drug, the nurse will instruct the patient to do which of the following?

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

A male patient is experiencing climacteric symptoms secondary to androgen deficiency. His physician has prescribed testosterone. The nursing assessment reveals that the patient has had a myocardial infarction. The combination of testosterone therapy and a history of myocardial infarction would place that patient at a significantly higher risk of

Question 19

1 out of 1 points

A 73-year-old woman has osteoporosis and is prescribed alendronate. She takes calcium and vitamin D supplements, drinks lots of water, and has just quit smoking. The nurse should advise the patient to also

Question 20

1 out of 1 points

A female patient has been prescribed estrogen therapy. Which of the following will the nurse advise the patient is a common adverse effect of estrogen therapy?

Question 21

1 out of 1 points

A 68-year-old man is being treated for benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and began treatment with finasteride (Proscar) 3 months ago. When planning the care of this patient, what desired outcome should the nurse prioritize?

Question 22

1 out of 1 points

Alprostadil (Caverject), a drug used to treat erectile dysfunction, has been prescribed to a 42-year-old patient. When providing education to the patient and his wife, the nurse should inform the wife about which of the following adverse effects?

Question 23

0 out of 1 points

A patient is being discharged from the hospital and will be taking oxybutynin (Ditropan) for overactive bladder. The nurse will instruct the patient that she will be taking a medication

Question 24

1 out of 1 points

A 29-year-old pregnant patient is extremely upset about having to take medication for a pre-existing medical condition. She is consumed with fear that her baby will be born with a physical deformity or a congenital anomaly but knows that she has to take the medication. She talks constantly about this and is unable to sleep most nights. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient is?

Question 25

0 out of 1 points

A nurse is instructing a 19-year-old female patient on the use of fluconazole for candida vaginitis. A teaching priority will be to

Question 26

1 out of 1 points

A 36-year-old woman with a history of dysmenorrhea has begun treatment with progesterone, which she will be receiving by the intramuscular route. The nurse participating in the woman’s care should prioritize which of the following potential nursing diagnoses?

Question 27

1 out of 1 points

The nurse recognizes that the potential for teratogenic drug effects is not static throughout the prenatal and postnatal periods. The potential for teratogenic effects is highest during

Question 28

1 out of 1 points

A man is prescribed ciprofloxacin to treat a sexually transmitted infection. The nurse will instruct the patient to

Question 29

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is explaining to a pregnant 21-year-old college student why she cannot continue to take ibuprofen (Advil) for her headaches. The nurse draws a picture depicting drug molecules crossing the placental membrane and entering into the fetal circulation. The nurse tells the patient that the main reason this happens is because

Question 30

1 out of 1 points

A 36-year-old patient comes to the clinic and tells the nurse that she suspects that she is pregnant. During the initial assessment, the nurse learns that the patient is currently taking medications for diabetes, hypertension, and a seizure disorder. The nurse would be most concerned about which of the following medications?

Question 31

1 out of 1 points

A pregnant patient who has diabetes has been admitted to the hospital to begin labor. Since the patient has diabetes, the physician has decided to use oxytocin (Pitocin) to initiate labor contractions. When talking to the patient about the adverse effects of the drug, the nurse should understand that the most common adverse effects of the drug include

Question 32

1 out of 1 points

A 54-year-old woman with a history of osteoporosis has been prescribed ciprofloxacin for recurrent cystitis. Because of the patient’s history, the nurse would be sure to discuss with the woman the use of

Question 33

1 out of 1 points

A woman is receiving prolonged drug therapy during her complicated pregnancy, and it may pose a risk to both the mother and the fetus. The primary care physician has made dosage adjustments to minimize adverse effects and prevent toxicity. The nurse should make sure

Question 34

1 out of 1 points

A 56-year-old woman will soon begin treatment of her overactive bladder with tolterodine (Detrol). What patient teaching should the nurse provide to this woman?

Question 35

0 out of 1 points

A male patient is trying to decide if he should use finasteride (Proscar) to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). When providing information about the drug, the nurse will include which of the following as a risk associated with finasteride therapy?

Question 36

1 out of 1 points

A pregnant patient asks the nurse what over-the-counter medication she can take for recurring headaches. The nurse should recommend

Question 37

1 out of 1 points

The nurse has established peripheral IV access and begun an infusion of magnesium sulfate on a 29-year-old antepartum patient who is 35 weeks pregnant. Which of the following assessment findings most likely prompted the patient’s physician to order magnesium sulfate for this patient?

Question 38

1 out of 1 points

Alendronate (Fosamax) is prescribed for a 67-year-old postmenopausal woman. In order to help prevent gastrointestinal distress, the nurse will advise the patient to

Question 39

1 out of 1 points

A man has a demonstrated history of androgen deficiency and the consequences of this health problem include an inability to maintain an erection. Which of the following medications would best address this patient’s erectile dysfunction (ED)?

Question 40

1 out of 1 points

After 6 months of unsuccessfully trying to conceive, a 31-year-old woman and her husband have sought a referral to a fertility specialist in order to explore their options. A nurse at the clinic should recognize that the woman may benefit from

Question 37: Other

Microsoft Word Resume

INSTRUCTIONS

For the Word piece of your Final project, use Word to create a resume for yourself.

Include your name and contact information, as well as information about your education, work history, and skills. You can, at your option, include a Goal at the beginning. (Be sure to include your proficiency in Microsoft Office!) Your resume should be professional, visually appealing, at least one full page and no more than two pages long.

Plan your layout:

· Look at resume designs and choose a few that you like.
· Given the design and layout tools in Word (columns, tabs, tables, etc.) decide how you will

construct your design.

Create a new blank document:

· Do NOT use a resume templates or other pre-formatted document.
· Create a NEW BLANK DOCUMENT in MS Word and save the file as
· Display your rulers and turn on the show/hide button. You can toggle show/hide on and off to

view your document as you work.

Use all of the following Word features:

· Header/Footer (e.g., name, page numbering)
· Custom Tab Stops
· Styles: Use Heading 1 at the start of each section (education, work history & skills); Modify the

formatting of the Heading 1 style to complement your design.

· Custom Font (use no more than two fonts), Font Size, Font Color, and Font Styles
· Custom Line and Paragraph Spacing

Additionally, use at least three of these features:

· Custom Margins
· WordArt
· Paragraph Shading
· Font Effects (e.g., superscript, subscript, small caps, all caps)
· Insert and format an image
· A Word table (can be a traditional table or used for alignment)
· Columns

Submission:

· Print your document
· Staple these instructions on top of your printed resume.

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Submit your resume in My Lab IT as a .docx file and also as a .pdf file.

Scoring Rubric

Score	Item	12	8	4	0
	Content	Content is well chosen and well written	Contains a mix of relevant and irrelevant content	Most of the content is poorly chosen or poorly written	Very little relevant content is included in the resume
	Overall Look	Resume content is well- organized and aesthetically pleasing	Resume content looks somewhat cluttered and unprofessional	Resume content looks very cluttered and unprofessional	Little to no effort was made on the appearance of resume content
	Header/Footer	Appropriate content is included in the header or footer; the style matches the rest of the document.	Appropriate content is included in the header or footer, but the style does not match the rest of the document	Poorly chosen or awkwardly positioned content is included in the header or footer	Content is not included in the header or footer
	Tab Stops	Custom tab stops are used to make the content of paragraphs more readable	Custom tab stops are included, but do not make the content more readable	Custom tab stops make the content less readable	Custom tab stops are not applied
	Styles	Styles are applied to words or paragraphs to make the content more readable and visually appealing	Styles are applied, but do not make the content more readable or visually appealing	Styles make the content less readable	Styles are not applied
	Font Choices	Font choices make the content more readable and visually appealing	Font choices do not make the content more readable or visually appealing	Font choices make the content less readable	Custom fonts and font styles are not included
	Paragraph and Line Spacing	Custom spacing makes the content more readable and visually appealing	Custom spacing is applied, but does not make the content more readable	Custom spacing makes the content less readable	Custom spacing is not included
	Other Features	Used at least three other features to add visual appeal and professionalism	Used two other features to add visual appeal and professionalism	Used one other feature to add visual appeal and professionalism	Did not use any other features

Question 38: Biology

Please indicate which of the following is a Phenotype or Genotype

Freckles dusted across the cheeks and nose

The movement of sodium by the sodium/potassium pump

Homozygous recessive allele inherited from each parent

True breeding parents in a monohybrid cross

Blood clots formed due to a defect in the ant thrombin gene

Why is it necessary for the male and female gametes of sexually reproducing animals to contain a haploid number of chromosomes?

Explain Where in the cell cycle do genetic mutations often occur, and what specific process is occurring during that phase that could lead to mistakes?

Please complete the statement “Wild type” refers to the phenotype that is

________________________

In humans brown eye color (B) is dominant to blue eye color (b). A brown- eyed man marries a blue-eyed woman and they have three children, two of whom are brown-eyed and one of whom is blue-eyed. What is the genotype of the first brown-eyed child?

Use the letters “G and g” to show the genotypes of the two parents that are participating in a cross that would produce a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio among the offspring?

Two brothers are born of the same parents. One of the boys has all of the features of albinism, while the other brother has normal pigmentation. Neither parent exhibits symptoms of albinism. Please use the appropriate terms to describe the genotypes of the parents?

List all possible gametes from an individual with the genotype, AABb?

Which of the following statements are FALSE?
An individual who shows a recessive phenotype must have a parent that shows the

recessive phenotype

If an individual shows a dominant phenotype, at least one parent must show a

dominant phenotype

Heterozygous individuals always show the dominant phenotype
All offspring from crosses of true breeding-parents show the same phenotype

Which of the following crosses represents a cross between 2 true-breeding individuals?
BB X Bb
Bb x bb
BB X bb
Bb x Bb

Assuming both parents in the following pedigree are true-breeding, why do all of the individuals in the F1 generation have white phenotypes?

Because the F1 genotypes are homozygous
Because the white phenotype is dominant over black
Because both parents passed on white alleles

In watermelons, solid green color (G) is dominant to stripes (g), and round shape (R) is dominant to an oblong shape (r). If you cross a watermelon that is homozygous dominant for color and heterozygous for shape with a watermelon that is heterozygous for both traits, what percentage of the offspring will be solid green and oblong?

An open (unfilled or unshaded) circle in a pedigree represents a _______ the trait in question.
male with
male without
female with
female without

14 The figure to the left is a common way to depict all possible outcomes of a cross between two individuals.

What is the name of this graphic device?

Does this depict a monohybrid cross or dihybrid cross?

The following pedigree represents the inheritance of full lips in a family

What is the genotype of the individual indicated by the solid arrow? (Use “L” and “l” to represent alleles.

Are full lips due to a dominant allele or a recessive allele?

Suzy and Bobby are married and have one child. Both parents are healthy, but their son has the recessive disorder, cystic fibrosis. Which of the following pedigrees (A, B, C, D) CORRECTLY depicts their family?

When conducting a test cross what phenotype is being expressed by the individual that is being tested?

Suppose one person in 100 is a carrier of a fatal recessive mutation, such that babies homozygous recessive for the mutation die soon after birth. In a population where there 1,000,000 births per year, how many babies per year will be born with the lethal homozygous condition?

A mutation that is due to a dominant allele causes guinea pigs to lose their body hair. A breeder is trying to establish a colony of mutant “hairless” guinea pigs to sell to pet stores. He has a male mutant guinea pig that he wants to use for the breeding. However, due to an error in record keeping, he is uncertain of the mutant male’s genotype. He decides to mate a true-breeding normal guinea pig with the mutant male and notices that 100% of the offspring (F1 generation) have the hairless mutant phenotype.

The cross that was conducted is often used by breeders to determine the genotype of an individual that shows the dominant trait. What is the name of this specific cross?

The hairless mutation is dominant and it occurs because there was a deletion of the 3 bases that are bolded in the coding sequence of the gene – 5’ CATTGGTA 3’. The deletion or removal of the bases is a mistake or error that occurs during which phase of the cell cycle?

The mutation in the above coding sequence causes the protein that is responsible for hair follicle stimulation in guinea pigs to be non-functional. This protein is made and secreted by skin or epidermal cells. What organelle would produce this protein

Question 39: Biology

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Introduction to Biological Anthropology

Final Exam Review Guide

The first exam will cover material from Larsen Chapters 6 – 8, 10 -12 in your textbook, information from Palomar tutorials, and videos. Be aware that this is a study guide; meaning to guide you in studying for the exam. That being said, it does not cover all of the information that may be on the exam. This exam will not simply ask you to recite definitions, but rather require you to make connections between concepts and demonstrate your knowledge of these concepts in context. In other words, can you apply what you know?

Ch. 6 and 7-Primate Characteristics/Taxonomy/Social Behavior

Define: nocturnal binocular vision

dental formula terrestrial estrus
sexual swelling

arboreal brachiation altruism stereoscopic vision sexual dimorphism

diurnal natal coat quadrupedal

allomothering
ischial callosities
vertical cling and leaping (VCL)

Why study primates?
What are the characteristics of primates?

o Skeletal structure (including characteristics of the joints, spine, hands, feet) o Vision
o What senses do primate rely on?
o Diet (types of teeth)

o Role of canines in sexual selection and sexual dimorphism

What are the different types of primate locomotion? What are the characteristics of

each?

Know the characteristics of each taxonomic groups and what types of primates

belong to each.

o Strepsirhine vs Haplorhine
o Platyrrhine vs Catarrhine
o Colobine vs Cercopithecine
o Cercopithecoids vs Hominoids

▪ For hominoids know: Hylobatidae and Hominidae

How are primates adapted to living in the trees?
Why do primates have long growth and development?
What are the primate residence patterns?
What are the reproductive strategies of male and female primates?
What is the importance of grooming?
How are apes and humans similar to each other? What characteristics to we share

with the other apes?

Do primates demonstrate culture? Examples?
What is the basic primate social unit?
How do primates communicate?
What types of foods do primates eat?

o What is a folivore, frugivore, insectivore, omnivore?

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Which sex has the highest burden when it comes to parental investment? Why?
Primates are characterized by adaptations for life in trees and for eating a broad diet.

What are examples of primate adaptations for life in the trees and examples of primate

adaptations for eating a wide variety of foods?

Discuss the primate parental investment in terms of natural selection. What are the

most important aspects of primate parenting and what is their value to socialization?

Compare and contrast male and female primates in terms of reproductive strategies and

competition.
o What is infanticide? Who are the perpetrators? Benefits?

Describe the range of primate residence patterns. Relate social grouping to food and reproduction
What are cooperative behaviors in primates?

o What are the benefits?

o Examples?
o Grooming
o Kin Selection o Mutualism

What are the costs and benefits of living in a group?
How do primates acquire food?
How do primates communicate?

Chapter 10: Roots of Humanity

- What is a hominin?
- Why did hominins emerge?
- Patchy Forest Hypothesis
- Provisioning Hypothesis
- What is bipedalism?
- What are the anatomical characteristics of a human biped?

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o Position of the foramen magnum o Shape of spine
o Shape of pelvis
o Characteristics of the foot

What are the costs and benefits of bipedalism?
What are the anatomical differences between apes and humans in regard to the

o Cranium and face

o Dentition

What is honing and non-honing chewing?
What are the anatomical features of Australopithecines?
What are the anatomical features of the robust Australopithecines (Sometimes

assigned to the genus Paranthropus?
o What is a sagittal crest? Why do they have it? How do these traits differ from

other Australopithecines?

o What is their diet?

For the following hominins, know the date, location, anatomical features, and other cultural features

o Ardipithecus ramidus
o Australopithecus afarensis o Australopithecus garhi
o Australopithecus africanus

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Chapters 11- 12: Genus Homo

Homo hablis
o What are its characteristics? How are similar/different from

Australopithecines?

Oldowan Tool Industry

o Which hominin is associated with this tool industry?
o What are the characteristics of these tools?
o What do they tell us about hominin culture and intelligence?

Homo naledi
Homo erectus

o What is a sagittal keel?
o When was this hominin present? When did they leave Africa? o What is the Acheulean tool industry?
o What type of shelter did they live in?
o What is persistence hunting?
o What are the costs and benefits of a larger brain?
o What are the benefits of fire and cooking food?

What are archaic Homo sapiens?
Homo neanderthalensis? (What environment are they adapted for?)

o Are they closely related to humans?
o Mousterian Tool Industry/Culture (How are these tools different from Oldowan

and Acheulean? What types of tools are these? o Burial

o Subsistence strategies (What food did they eat? How did they get it?) o Evidence supporting speech

▪ Anatomical evidence

▪ FOXP2 gene
o What are the anatomical characteristics? How are these characteristics

adaptive to their environment?
▪ Crural index
▪ Bergmann’s Rule and Allen’s Rule

Homo sapiens (Modern Humans)
o Complete Replacement Model (“Out of Africa”), Regional Continuity Model

(Multiregional Evolution), Assimilation Model
o What are anatomical traits of modern humans?

▪ How do these compare to Neandertals?
o What are the tool techniques of the Upper Paleolithic?

▪ What are blade flakes?
▪ What is punch flaking?
▪ What is pressure flaking?

o What tools are made out of bone?
o What are some tools of the upper Paleolithic?
o Why are these tool making techniques significant?
o What evidence has been discovered that modern humans made art?

▪ What is parietal art?

▪ What is portable art?
o Genetic evidence for archaic and modern humans?

▪ Why is this siginificant? • Homo floresiensis

o Why is it nicknamed the Hobbit?

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Hominin Charts
• (This is not an assignment, but a tool to help you prepare for the exam)

Australopithecines (gracile)	Date(s)	Location(s)	Key Features
Ardipithecus ramidus
Australopithecus afarensis
Australopithecus garhi
Australopithecus africanus

Australopithecines (robust)	Date(s)	Location(s)	Key Features
Paranthropus aethiopicus
Paranthropus boisei
Paranthropus robustus

Homo	Date(s)	Location(s)	Key Features
Homo habilis
Homo erectus

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019


Homo floresiensis
Homo neanderthalensis
Homo sapiens

Question 40: Finance

Investors often pay a higher price for growth stocks and accept more price volatility as they expect at these stocks will increase in value in the future”. Discuss with regards to investment in different types of funds. [Support your answer with examples based in Mauritius and international markets]

[20 marks] Word limit: 2500

Question 41: Finance

The Stock Exchange of Mauritius (SEM) has come a long way from its modest early
development in 1989 and has been able to embark on a number of initiatives over its 30 year
existence. Today, it is one of the leading exchanges in Africa. Discuss the main challenges
and opportunities for investors and other stakeholders in the Mauritian Stock Market.
[30 marks]
Word limit: 300

Question 1: Health Care

NURSING 4: PSYCHIA-COMPREHENSIVE

Substance abuse

Nurse Rob has observed a co-worker arriving to work drunk at least three times in the past month. Which action by Nurse Rob would best ensure client safety and obtain necessary assistance for the co-worker?
Ignore the coworker’s behavior, and frequently assess the clients assigned to the co-worker.
B. Make general statements about safety issues at the next staff meeting.
C. Report the coworker’s behavior to the appropriate supervisor.
D. Warn the co-worker that this practice is unsafe.
Elsa is being treated in a chemical dependency unit. She tells the nurse that she only uses drugs when under stress and therefore does not have a substance problem. Which defense mechanism is the client using?
Compensation
B. Denial
C. Suppression
D. Undoing
Nurse Tara is teaching a community group about substance abuse. She explains that a genetic component has been implicated in which of the following commonly abused substances?
Alcohol
B. Barbiturates
C. Heroin
D. Marijuana
Nurse Julie recommends that the family of a client with substance-related disorder attend a support group, such as Al-Anon and Alateen. The purpose of these groups is to help family members understand the problem and to:
Change the problem behaviors of the abuser.
B. Learn how to assist the abuser in getting help.
C. Maintain focus on changing their own behaviors.
D. Prevent substance problems in vulnerable family members.
Ryan who is a chronic alcohol abuser is being assessed by Nurse Gina. Which problems are related to thiamin deficiency?
Cardiovascular symptoms, such as decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
B. CNS symptoms, such as ataxia and peripheral neuropathy
C. Gastrointestinal symptoms, such as nausea and vomiting
D. Respiratory symptoms, such as cough and sore throat
Nurse Wilma is teaching a client about disulfiram (Antabuse), which the client is taking to deter his use of alcohol. She explains that using alcohol when taking this medication can result in:
Abdominal cramps and diarrhea.
B. Drowsiness and decreased respiration.
C. Flushing, vomiting, and dizziness.
D. Increased pulse and blood pressure.
The nurse administers bromocriptine (Parlodel) to Bryan who is undergoing detoxification for amphetamine abuse. The rationale for this medication is to:
Aid in GABA inhibition.
B. Prevent norepinephrine excess.
C. Restore depleted dopamine levels.
D. Treat psychotic symptoms.
Which medication is commonly used in treatment programs for heroinabusers to produce a non-euphoric state and to replace heroin use?
Diazepam
B. Carbamazepine
C. Clonidine
D. Methadone
Nurse Christine is teaching an adolescent health class about the dangers of inhalant abuse; the nurse warns about the possibility of:
Contracting an infectious disease, such as hepatitis or AIDS
B. Recurrent flashback events
C. Psychological dependence after initial use
D. Sudden death from cardiac or respiratory depression
The newly hired nurse at Nurseslabs Medical Center is assessing a client who abuses barbiturates and benzodiazepine. The nurse would observe for evidence of which withdrawal symptoms?
Anxiety, tremors, and tachycardia
B. Respiratory depression, stupor, and bradycardia
C. Muscle aches, cramps, and lacrimation
D. Paranoia, depression, and agitation
The community nurse practicing primary prevention of alcohol abuse would target which groups for educational efforts?
Adolescents in their late teens and young adults in their early twenties
B. Elderly men who live in retirement communities
C. Women working in careers outside the home
D. Women working in the home
Johnette is reviewing her lessons in Pharmacology. She is aware that the general classification of drugs belonging to the opioid category is analgesic and:
Depressant.
B. Hallucinogenic.
C. Stimulant.
D. Tranquilizing.
When a client abuses a CNS depressant, withdrawal symptoms will be caused by which of the following?
Acetylcholine excess
B. Dopamine depletion
C. Serotonin inhibition
D. Norepinephrine rebound
Kendall, the sister of a client with a substance-related disorder, tells the nurse she calls out sick for her sister Kylie occasionally when the latter has too much to drink and cannot work. This behavior can be described as:
Caretaking.
B. Codependent.
C. Helpful.
D. Supportive.
During an initial assessment of a client admitted to a substance abuse unit for detoxification and treatment, the nurse asks questions to determine patterns of use of substances. Which of the following questions are most appropriate at this time? Select all that apply.
How long have you used substances?
B. How often do you use substances?
C. How do you get substances into your body?
D. Do you feel bad or guilty about your use of substances?
E. How much of each substance do you use?
F. Have you ever felt you should cut down substance use?
G. What substances do you use?

Flumazenil (Romazicon) has been ordered for a male client who has overdosed on oxazepam (Serax). Before administering the medication, nurse Gina should be prepared for which common adverse effect?
Seizures
B. Shivering
C. Anxiety
D. Chest pain
Nurse Tamara is caring for a client diagnosed with bulimia. The most appropriate initial goal for a client diagnosed with bulimia is to:
Avoid shopping for large amounts of food
B. Control eating impulses
C. Identify anxiety-causing situations
D. Eat only three meals per day
A female client who’s at high risk for suicide needs close supervision. To best ensure the client’s safety, Nurse Mary should:
Check the client frequently at irregular intervals throughout the night
B. Assure the client that the nurse will hold in confidence anything the client says
C. Repeatedly discuss previous suicide attempts with the client
D. Disregard decreased communication by the client because this is common with suicidal clients
Which of the following drugs should Nurse Mary prepare to administer to a client with a toxic acetaminophen (Tylenol) level?
Deferoxamine mesylate (Desferal)
B. Succimer (Chemet)
C. Flumazenil (Romazicon)
D. Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

A male client is admitted to the substance abuse unit for alcohol detoxification. Which of the following medications is Nurse Alice most likely to administer to reduce the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?
Naloxone (Narcan)
B. Haloperidol (Haldol)
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
During postprandial monitoring, a female client with bulimia nervosa tells the nurse, “You can sit with me, but you’re just wasting your time. After you had sat with me yesterday, I was still able to purge. Today, my goal is to do it twice.” What is the nurse’s best response?
“I trust you not to purge.”
B. “How are you purging and when do you do it?”
C. “Don’t worry. I won’t allow you to purge today.”
D. “I know it’s important for you to feel in control, but I’ll monitor you for 90 minutes after you eat.”
A male client admitted to the psychiatric unit for treatment of substance abuse says to the nurse, “It felt so wonderful to get high.” Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
“If you continue to talk like that, I’m going to stop speaking to you.”
B. “You told me you got fired from your last job for missing too many days after taking drugs all night.”
C. “Tell me more about how it felt to get high.”
D. “Don’t you know it’s illegal to use drugs?”
For a female client with anorexia nervosa, Nurse Jimmy is aware that which goal takes the highest priority?
The client will establish adequate daily nutritional intake
B. The client will make a contract with the nurse that sets a target weight
C. The client will identify self-perceptions about body size as unrealistic
D. The client will verbalize the possible physiological consequences of self-starvation
When interviewing the parents of an injured child, which of the following is the strongest indicator that child abuse may be a problem?
The injury isn’t consistent with the history or the child’s age
B. The mother and father tell different stories regarding what happened
C. The family is poor
D. The parents are argumentative and demanding with emergency department personnel
For a female client with anorexia nervosa, nurse Rose plans to include the parents in therapy sessions along with the client. What fact should the nurse remember to be typical of parents of clients with anorexia nervosa?
They tend to overprotect their children
B. They usually have a history of substance abuse
C. They maintain emotional distance from their children
D. They alternate between loving and rejecting their children
In the emergency department, a client with facial lacerations states that her husband beat her with a shoe. After the health care team repairs her lacerations, she waits to be seen by the crisis intake nurse, who will evaluate the continued threat of violence. Suddenly the client’s husband arrives, shouting that he wants to “finish the job.” What is the first priority of the health care worker who witnesses this scene?
Remaining with the client and staying calm
B. Calling a security guard and another staff member for assistance
C. Telling the client’s husband that he must leave at once
D. Determining why the husband feels so angry
Nurse Mary is caring for a client with bulimia. Strict management of dietary intake is necessary. Which intervention is also important?
Fill out the client’s menu and make sure she eats at least half of what is on her tray.
B. Let the client eat her meals in private. Then engage her in social activities for at least 2 hours after each meal
C. Let the client choose her own food. If she eats everything she orders, then stay with her for 1 hour after each meal
D. Let the client eat food brought in by the family if she chooses, but she should keep a strict calorie count.
Nurse Mary is assigned to care for a suicidal client. Initially, which is the nurse’s highest care priority?
Assessing the client’s home environment and relationships outside the hospital
B. Exploring the nurse’s own feelings about suicide
C. Discussing the future with the client
D. Referring the client to a clergyperson to discuss the moral implications of suicide

A 24-year old client with anorexia nervosa tells the nurse, “When I look in the mirror, I hate what I see. I look so fat and ugly.” Which strategy should the nurse use to deal with the client’s distorted perceptions and feelings?
Avoid discussing the client’s perceptions and feelings
B. Focus discussions on food and weight
C. Avoid discussing unrealistic cultural standards regarding weight
D. Provide objective data and feedback regarding the client’s weight and attractiveness
Nurse Alice is caring for a client being treated for alcoholism. Before initiating therapy with disulfiram (Antabuse), the nurse teaches the client that he must read labels carefully on which of the following products?
Carbonated beverages
B. Aftershave lotion
C. Toothpaste
D. Cheese
Nurse Harry is developing a plan of care for a client with anorexia nervosa. Which action should the nurse include in the plan?
Restrict visits with the family until the client begins to eat
B. Provide privacy during meals
C. Set up a strict eating plan for the client
D. Encourage the client to exercise, which will reduce her anxiety
Nurse Taylor is aware that the victims of domestic violence should be assessed for what important information?
Reasons they stay in the abusive relationship (for example, lack of financial autonomy and isolation)
B. Readiness to leave the perpetrator and knowledge of resources
C. Use of drugs or alcohol
D. History of previous victimization
A male client is hospitalized with fractures of the right femur and right humerus sustained in a motorcycle accident. Police suspect the client was intoxicated at the time of the accident. Laboratory tests reveal a blood alcohol level of 0.2% (200 mg/dl). The client later admits to drinking heavily for years. During hospitalization, the client periodically complains of tingling and numbness in the hands and feet. Nurse Gian realizes that these symptoms probably result from:
Acetate accumulation
B. Thiamine deficiency
C. Triglyceride buildup.
D. A below-normal serum potassium level
A parent brings a preschooler to the emergency department for treatment of a dislocated shoulder, which allegedly happened when the child fell down the stairs. Which action should make the nurse suspect that the child was abused?
The child cries uncontrollably throughout the examination
B. The child pulls away from contact with the physician.
C. The child doesn’t cry when the shoulder is examined
D. The child doesn’t make eye contact with the nurse.
When planning care for a client who has ingested phencyclidine (PCP), nurse Wayne is aware that the following is the highest priority?
Client’s physical needs
B. Client’s safety needs
C. Client’s psychosocial needs
D. Client’s medical needs
The nurse is aware that the outcome criteria would be appropriate for a child diagnosed with oppositional defiant disorder?
Accept responsibility for own behaviors
B. Be able to verbalize own needs and assert rights.
C. Set firm and consistent limits with the client
D. Allow the child to establish his own limits and boundaries
A male client is found sitting on the floor of the bathroom in the day treatment clinic with moderate lacerations on both wrists. Surrounded by broken glass, he sits staring blankly at his bleeding wrists while staff members call for an ambulance. How should Nurse Anuktakanuk approach her initially?
Enter the room quietly and move beside him to assess his injuries
B. Call for staff back-up before entering the room and restraining him
C. Move as much glass away from him as possible and sit next to him quietly
D. Approach him slowly while speaking in a calm voice, calling him name, and telling him that the nurse is here to help him

A female client with anorexia nervosa describes herself as “a whale.” However, the nurse’s assessment reveals that the client is 5′ 8″ (1.7 m) tall and weighs only 90 lb (40.8 kg). Considering the client’s unrealistic body image, which intervention should nurse Angel be included in the plan of care?
Asking the client to compare her figure with magazine photographs of women her age
B. Assigning the client to group therapy in which participants provide realistic feedback about her weight
C. Confronting the client about her actual appearance during one-on-one sessions, scheduled during each shift
D. Telling the client of the nurse’s concern for her health and desire to help her make decisions to keep her healthy
Eighteen hours after undergoing an emergency appendectomy, a client with a reported history of social drinking displays these vital signs: temperature, 101.6° F (38.7° C); heart rate, 126 beats/minute; respiratory rate, 24 breaths/minute; and blood pressure, 140/96 mm Hg. The client exhibits gross hand tremors and is screaming for someone to kill the bugs in the bed. Nurse Melinda should suspect:
A postoperative infection
B. Alcohol withdrawal
C. Acute sepsis.
D. Pneumonia.
Clonidine (Catapres) can be used to treat conditions other than hypertension. Nurse Sally is aware that the following conditions might the drug be administered?
Phencyclidine (PCP) intoxication
B. Alcohol withdrawal
C. Opiate withdrawal
D. Cocaine withdrawal
A male client with a history of cocaine addiction is admitted to the coronary care unit for evaluation of substernal chest pain. The electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a 1-mm ST-segment elevation the anteroseptal leads and T-wave inversion in leads V3 to V5. Considering the client’s history of drug abuse, nurse Greg expects the physician to prescribe:
Lidocaine (Xylocaine).
B. Procainamide (Pronestyl).
C. Nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid IV).
D. Epinephrine.
A 14-year-old client was brought to the clinic by her mother. Her mother expresses concern about her daughter’s weight loss and constant dieting. Nurse Kris conducts a health history interview. Which of the following comments indicates that the client may be suffering from anorexia nervosa?
“I like the way I look. I just need to keep my weight down because I’m a cheerleader.”
B. “I don’t like the food my mother cooks. I eat plenty of fast food when I’m out with my friends.”
C. “I just can’t seem to get down to the weight I want to be. I’m so fat compared to other girls.”
D. “I do diet around my periods; otherwise, I just get so bloated.”
Nurse Fey is aware that the drug of choice for treating Tourette syndrome?
Fluoxetine (Prozac)
B. Fluvoxamine (Luvox)
C. Haloperidol (Haldol)
D. Paroxetine (Paxil)
A male client tells the nurse he was involved in a car accident while he was intoxicated. What would be the most therapeutic response from nurse Julia?
“Why didn’t you get someone else to drive you?”
B. “Tell me how you feel about the accident.”
C. “You should know better than to drink and drive.”
D. “I recommend that you attend an Alcoholics Anonymous meeting.”
A male adult client voluntarily admits himself to the substance abuse unit. He confesses that he drinks one (1) qt or more of vodka each day and uses cocaine occasionally. Later that afternoon, he begins to show signs of alcohol withdrawal. What are some early signs of this condition?
Vomiting, diarrhea, and bradycardia
B. Dehydration, temperature above 101° F (38.3° C), and pruritus
C. Hypertension, diaphoresis, and seizures
D. Diaphoresis, tremors, and nervousness
When monitoring a female client recently admitted for treatment of cocaine addiction, nurse Aaron notes sudden increases in the arterial blood pressure and heart rate. To correct these problems, the nurse expects the physician to prescribe:
Norepinephrine (Levophed) and Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
B. Nifedipine (Procardia) and Lidocaine.
C. Nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid IV) and Esmolol (Brevibloc)
D. Nifedipine and Esmolol
A 25 –year old client experiencing alcohol withdrawal is upset about going through detoxification. Which of the following goals is a priority?
The client will commit to a drug-free lifestyle
B. The client will work with the nurse to remain safe
C. The client will drink plenty of fluids daily
D. The client will make a personal inventory of strength
A male client is admitted to a psychiatric facility by court order for evaluation for antisocial personality disorder. This client has a long history of initiating fights and abusing animals and recently was arrested for setting a neighbor’s dog on fire. When evaluating this client for the potential for violence, nurse Perry should assess for which behavioral clues?
A rigid posture, restlessness, and glaring
B. Depression and physical withdrawal
C. Silence and noncompliance
D. Hypervigilance and talk of past violent acts
A male client is brought to the psychiatric clinic by family members, who tell the admitting nurse that the client repeatedly drives while intoxicated despite their pleas to stop. During an interview with the nurse Linda, which statement by the client most strongly supports a diagnosis of psychoactive substance abuse?
“I’m not addicted to alcohol. In fact, I can drink more than I used to without being affected.”
B. “I only spend half of my paycheck at the bar.”
C. “I just drink to relax after work.”
D. “I know I’ve been arrested three times for drinking and driving, but the police are just trying to hassle me.”
A female client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Initial nursing assessment reveals that the client’s wrists are scratched from a recent suicide attempt. Based on this finding, the nurse Lenny should formulate a nursing diagnosis of:
Ineffective individual coping related to feelings of guilt.
B. Situational low self-esteem related to feelings of loss of control
C. Risk for violence: Self-directed related to impulsive mutilating acts
D. Risk for violence: Directed toward others related to verbal threats

A male client recently admitted to the hospital with sharp, substernal chest pain suddenly complains of palpitations. Nurse Ryan notes a rise in the client’s arterial blood pressure and a heart rate of 144 beats/minute. On further questioning, the client admits to having used cocaine recently after previously denying use of the drug. The nurse concludes that the client is at high risk for which complication of cocaine use?
Coronary artery spasm
B. Brady arrhythmias
C. Neurobehavioral deficits
D. Panic disorder
A male client is being admitted to the substance abuse unit for alcohol detoxification. As part of the intake interview, the nurse asks him when he had his last alcoholic drink. He says that he had his last drink six (6) hours before admission. Based on this response, nurse Lorena should expect early withdrawal symptoms to:
Begin after seven (7) days
B. Not occur at all because the time period for their occurrence has passed
C. Begin anytime within the next one (1) to two (2) days
D. Begin within two (2) to seven (7) days
Nurse Helen is assigned to care for a client with anorexia nervosa. Initially, which nursing intervention is most appropriate for this client?
Providing one-on-one supervision during meals and for one (1) hour afterward
B. Letting the client eat with other clients to create a normal mealtime atmosphere
C. Trying to persuade the client to eat and thus restore nutritional balance
D. Giving the client as much time to eat as desired
A female client begins to experience alcoholic hallucinosis. Nurse Joy is aware that the best nursing intervention at this time?
Keeping the client restrained in bed
B. Checking the client’s blood pressure every 15 minutes and offering juices
C. Providing a quiet environment and administering medication as needed and prescribed
D. Restraining the client and measuring blood pressure every 30 minutes
Nurse Bella is aware that assessment finding is most consistent with early alcohol withdrawal?
Heart rate of 120 to 140 beats/minute
B. Heart rate of 50 to 60 beats/minute
C. Blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg
D. Blood pressure of 140/80 mmHg
Nurse Amy is aware that the client is at highest risk for suicide?
One who appears depressed frequently thinks of dying and gives away all personal possessions
B. One who plans a violent death and has the means readily available
C. One who tells others that he or she might do something if life doesn’t get better soon
D. One who talks about wanting to die
Nurse Penny is aware that the following medical conditions is commonly found in clients with bulimia nervosa?
Allergies
B. Cancer
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Hepatitis A
Kellan, a high school student is referred to the school nurse for suspected substance abuse. Following the nurse’s assessment and interventions, what would be the most desirable outcome?
The student discusses conflicts over drug use
B. The student accepts a referral to a substance abuse counselor
C. The student agrees to inform his parents of the problem
D. The student reports increased comfort with making choice
A male client who reportedly consumes one (1) qt of vodka daily is admitted for alcohol detoxification. To try to prevent alcohol withdrawal symptoms, Dr. Smith is most likely to prescribe which drug?
Clozapine (Clozaril)
B. Thiothixene (Navane)
C. Lorazepam (Ativan)
D. Lithium carbonate (Eskalith)
A male client is being treated for alcoholism. After a family meeting, the client’s spouse asks the nurse about ways to help the family deal with the effects of alcoholism. Nurse Lily should suggest that the family join which organization?
Al-Anon
B. Make Today Count
C. Emotions Anonymous
D. Alcoholics Anonymous
A female client is admitted to the psychiatric clinic for treatment of anorexia nervosa. To promote the client’s physical health, nurse Tair should plan to:
Severely restrict the client’s physical activities
B. Weigh the client daily, after the evening meal
C. Monitor vital signs, serum electrolyte levels, and acid-base balance
D. Instruct the client to keep an accurate record of food and fluid intake
Kevin is remanded by the courts for psychiatric treatment. His police record, which dates to his early teenage years, includes delinquency, running away, auto theft, and vandalism. He dropped out of school at age 16 and has been living on his own since then. His history suggests maladaptive coping, which is associated with:
Antisocial personality disorder
B. Borderline personality disorder
C. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
D. Narcissistic personality disorder
Macoy and Helen seek emergency crisis intervention because he slapped her repeatedly the night before. The husband indicates that his childhood was marred by an abusive relationship with his father. When intervening with this couple, nurse Gerry knows they are at risk for repeated violence because the husband:
Has only moderate impulse control
B. Denies feelings of jealousy or possessiveness
C. Has learned violence as an acceptable behavior
D. Feels secure in his relationship with his wife
A client whose husband just left her has a recurrence of anorexia nervosa. Nurse Vic caring for her realizes that this exacerbation of anorexia nervosa results from the client’s effort to:
Manipulate her husband
B. Gain control of one part of her life
C. Commit suicide
D. Live up to her mother’s expectations

A male client has approached the nurse asking for advice on how to deal with his alcohol addiction. Nurse Sally should tell the client that the only effective treatment for alcoholism is:
Psychotherapy
B. Total abstinence
C. Alcoholics Anonymous (AA)
D. Aversion therap

Paranoid schizo, schizo

A psychotic client reports to the evening nurse that the day nurse put something suspicious in his water with his medication. The nurse replies, “You’re worried about your medication?” The nurse’s communication is:
an example of presenting reality.
B. reinforcing the client’s delusions.
C. focusing on emotional content.
D. a nontherapeutic technique called mind reading.
A client is admitted to the inpatient unit of the mental health center with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. He’s shouting that the government of France is trying to assassinate him. Which of the following responses is most appropriate?
“I think you’re wrong. France is a friendly country and an ally of the United States. Their government wouldn’t try to kill you.”
B. “I find it hard to believe that a foreign government or anyone else is trying to hurt you. You must feel frightened by this.”
C. “You’re wrong. Nobody is trying to kill you.”
D. “A foreign government is trying to kill you? Please tell me more about it.”
A client receiving haloperidol (Haldol) complains of a stiff jaw and difficulty swallowing. The nurse’s first action is to:
reassure the client and administer as needed lorazepam (Ativan) I.M.
B. administer as needed dose of benztropine (Cogentin) I.M. as ordered.
C. administer as needed dose of benztropine (Cogentin) by mouth as ordered.
D. administer as needed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) by mouth.
The nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia who experiences auditory hallucinations. The client appears to be listening to someone who isn’t visible. He gestures, shouts angrily, and stops shouting in mid-sentence. Which nursing intervention is the most appropriate?
Approach the client and touch him to get his attention.
B. Encourage the client to go to his room where he’ll experience fewer distractions.
C. Acknowledge that the client is hearing voices but make it clear that the nurse doesn’t hear these voices.
D. Ask the client to describe what the voices are saying.
A client with paranoid schizophrenia has been experiencing auditory hallucinations for many years. One approach that has proven to be effective for hallucinating clients is to:
take an as-needed dose of psychotropic medication whenever they hear voices.
B. practice saying “Go away” or “Stop” when they hear voices.
C. sing loudly to drown out the voices and provide a distraction.
D. go to their room until the voices go away.
A client with catatonic schizophrenia is mute, can’t perform activities of daily living, and stares out the window for hours. What is the nurse’s first priority?
Assist the client with feeding.
B. Assist the client with showering.
C. Reassure the client about safety.
D. Encourage socialization with peers.
A client tells the nurse that the television newscaster is sending a secret message to her. The nurse suspects the client is experiencing:
a delusion.
B. flight of ideas.
C. ideas of reference.
D. a hallucination.
The nurse knows that the physician has ordered the liquid form of the drug chlorpromazine (Thorazine) rather than the tablet form because the liquid:
has a more predictable onset of action.
B. produces fewer anticholinergic effects.
C. produces fewer drug interactions.
D. has a longer duration of action.
A client who has been hospitalized with disorganized type schizophreniafor 8 years can’t complete activities of daily living (ADLs) without staff direction and assistance. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Self-care deficient: Dressing/grooming related to inability to function without assistance. What is an appropriate goal for this client?
“Client will be able to complete ADLs independently within 1 month.”
B. “Client will be able to complete ADLs with only verbal encouragement within 1 month.”
C. “Client will be able to complete ADLs with assistance in organizing grooming items and clothing within 1 month.”
D. “Client will be able to complete ADLs with complete assistance within 1 month.”
The nurse is planning care for a client admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. Which nursing diagnosis should receive the highest priority?
Risk for violence toward self or others
B. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements
C. Ineffective family coping
D. Impaired verbal communication
The nurse is preparing for the discharge of a client who has been hospitalized for paranoid schizophrenia. The client’s husband expresses concern over whether his wife will continue to take her daily prescribed medication. The nurse should inform him that:
his concern is valid but his wife is an adult and has the right to make her own decisions.
B. he can easily mix the medication in his wife’s food if she stops taking it.
C. his wife can be given a long-acting medication that is administered every 1 to 4 weeks.
D. his wife knows she must take her medication as prescribed to avoid future hospitalizations.

Benztropine (Cogentin) is used to treat the extrapyramidal effects induced by antipsychotics. This drug exerts its effect by:
decreasing the anxiety causing muscle rigidity.
B. blocking the cholinergic activity in the central nervous system (CNS).
C. increasing the level of acetylcholine in the CNS.
D. increasing norepinephrine in the CNS.
A dopamine receptor agonist such as bromocriptine (Parlodel) relieves muscle rigidity caused by antipsychotic medication by:
Blocking dopamine receptors in the central nervous system (CNS).
B. Blocking acetylcholine in the CNS.
C. Activating norepinephrine in the CNS.
D. Activating dopamine receptors in the CNS.
Most antipsychotic medications exert which of following effects on the central nervous system (CNS)?
Stimulate the CNS by blocking postsynaptic dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin receptors.
B. Sedate the CNS by stimulating serotonin at the synaptic cleft.
C. Depress the CNS by blocking the postsynaptic transmission of dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine.
D. Depress the CNS by stimulating the release of acetylcholine.
A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit of a local hospital with chronic undifferentiated schizophrenia. During the next several days, the client is seen laughing, yelling, and talking to herself. This behavior is characteristic of:
delusion.
B. looseness of association.
C. illusion.
D. hallucination.
Which of the following medications would the nurse expect the physician to order to reverse a dystonic reaction?
prochlorperazine (Compazine)
B. diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
C. haloperidol (Haldol)
D. midazolam (Versed)
A schizophrenic client states, “I hear the voice of King Tut.” Which response by the nurse would be most therapeutic?
“I don’t hear the voice, but I know you hear what sounds like a voice.”
B. “You shouldn’t focus on that voice.”
C. “Don’t worry about the voice as long as it doesn’t belong to anyone real.”
D. “King Tut has been dead for years.”
A client has been receiving chlorpromazine (Thorazine), an antipsychotic, to treat his psychosis. Which findings should alert the nurse that the client is experiencing pseudoparkinsonism?
Restlessness, difficulty sitting still, and pacing
B. Involuntary rolling of the eyes
C. Tremors, shuffling gait, and masklike face
D. Extremity and neck spasms, facial grimacing, and jerky movements
For several years, a client with chronic schizophrenia has received 10 mg of fluphenazine hydrochloride (Prolixin) by mouth four times per day. Now the client has a temperature of 102° F (38.9° C), a heart rate of 120 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 20 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 210/140 mm Hg. Because the client also is confused and incontinent, the nurse suspects malignant neuroleptic syndrome. What steps should the nurse take?
Give the next dose of fluphenazine, call the physician, and monitor vital signs.
B. Withhold the next dose of fluphenazine, call the physician, and monitor vital signs.
C. Give the next dose of fluphenazine and restrict the client to the room to decrease stimulation.
D. Withhold the next dose of fluphenazine, administer an antipyretic agent, and increase the client’s fluid intake.
A schizophrenic client with delusions tells the nurse, “There is a man wearing a red coat who’s out to get me.” The client exhibits increasing anxiety when focusing on the delusions. Which of the following would be the best response?
“This subject seems to be troubling you. Let’s walk to the activity room.”
B. “Describe the man who’s out to get you. What does he look like?”
C. “There is no reason to be afraid of that man. This hospital is very secure.”
D. “There is no need to be concerned with a man who isn’t even real.”
Important teaching for women in their childbearing years who are receiving antipsychotic medications includes which of the following?
Occurrence of increased libido due to medication adverse effects
B. Increased incidence of dysmenorrhea while taking the drug
C. Continuing previous use of contraception during periods of amenorrhea
D. Instruction that amenorrhea is irreversible

A client is admitted to a psychiatric facility with a diagnosis of chronic schizophrenia. The history indicates that the client has been taking neuroleptic medication for many years. Assessment reveals unusual movements of the tongue, neck, and arms. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
Tardive dyskinesia
B. Dystonia
C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
D. Akathisia
What medication would probably be ordered for the acutely aggressive schizophrenic client?
chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
B. haloperidol (Haldol)
C. lithium carbonate (Lithonate)
D. amitriptyline (Elavil)
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of schizotypal personality disorder. Which signs would this client exhibit during social situations?
Aggressive behavior
B. Paranoid thoughts
C. Emotional affect
D. Independence needs
During the initial interview, a client with schizophrenia suddenly turns to the empty chair beside him and whispers, “Now just leave. I told you to stay home. There isn’t enough work here for both of us!” What is the nurse’s best initial response?
“When people are under stress, they may see things or hear things that others don’t. Is that what just happened?”
B. “I’m having a difficult time hearing you. Please look at me when you talk.”
C. “There is no one else in the room. What are you doing?”
D. “Who are you talking to? Are you hallucinating?”
The definition of nihilistic delusions is:
a false belief about the functioning of the body.
B. belief that the body is deformed or defective in a specific way.
C. false ideas about the self, others, or the world
D. the inability to carry out motor activities.
A client who’s taking antipsychotic medication develops a very high temperature, severe muscle rigidity, tachycardia, and rapid deterioration in mental status. The nurse suspects what complication of antipsychotic therapy?
Agranulocytosis
B. Extrapyramidal effects
C. Anticholinergic effects
D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Impaired social interaction related to disorganized thinking for a client with schizotypal personality disorder. Based on this nursing diagnosis, which nursing intervention takes highest priority?
Helping the client to participate in social interactions
B. Establishing a one-on-one relationship with the client
C. Exploring the effects of the client’s behavior on social interactions
D. Developing a schedule for the client’s participation in social interactions
A client with schizophrenia hears a voice telling him he is evil and must die. The nurse understands that the client is experiencing:
a delusion.
B. flight of ideas.
C. ideas of reference.
D. a hallucination.
A client with delusional thinking shows a lack of interest in eating at meal times. She states that she is unworthy of eating and that her children will die if she eats. Which nursing action would be most appropriate for this client?
Telling the client that she may become sick and die unless she eats
B. Paying special attention to the client’s rituals and emotions associated with meals
C. Restricting the client’s access to food except at specified meal and snack times
D. Encouraging the client to express her feelings at meal times
Which of the following groups of characteristics would the nurse expect to see in the client with schizophrenia?
Loose associations, grandiose delusions, and auditory hallucinations
B. Periods of hyperactivity and irritability alternating with depression
C. Delusions of jealousy and persecution, paranoia, and mistrust
D. Sadness, apathy, feelings of worthlessness, anorexia, and weight loss
The nurse must administer a medication to reverse or prevent Parkinson-type symptoms in a client receiving an antipsychotic. The medication the client will likely receive is:
Benztropine (Cogentin).
B. diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
C. propranolol (Inderal).
D. haloperidol (Haldol).
A client is receiving haloperidol (Haldol) to reduce psychotic symptoms. As he watches television with other clients, the nurse notes that he has trouble sitting still. He seems restless, constantly moving his hands and feet and changing position. When the nurse asks what is wrong, he says he feels jittery. How should the nurse manage this situation?
Ask the client to sit still or leave the room because he is distracting the other clients.
B. Ask the client if he is nervous or anxious about something.
C. Give an as needed dose of a prescribed anticholinergic agent to control akathisia.
D. Administer an as needed dose of haloperidol to decrease agitation.
A man is brought to the hospital by his wife, who states that for the past week her husband has refused all meals and accused her of trying to poison him. During the initial interview, the client’s speech, only partly comprehensible, reveals that his thoughts are controlled by delusions that he is possessed by the devil. The physician diagnoses paranoid schizophrenia. Schizophrenia is best described as a disorder characterized by:
disturbed relationships related to an inability to communicate and think clearly.
B. severe mood swings and periods of low to high activity.
C. multiple personalities, one of which is more destructive than the others.
D. auditory and tactile hallucinations.
A client has a history of chronic undifferentiated schizophrenia. Because she has a history of noncompliance with antipsychotic therapy, she’ll receive fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin Decanoate) injections every 4 weeks. Before discharge, what should the nurse include in her teaching plan?
Asking the physician for droperidol (Inapsine) to control any extrapyramidal symptoms that occur
B. Sitting up for a few minutes before standing to minimize orthostatic hypotension
C. Notifying the physician if her thoughts don’t normalize within 1 week
D. Expecting symptoms of tardive dyskinesia to occur and to be transient
A client with chronic schizophrenia who takes

Question 2: Heath Care

A client with major depression is having a disturbed sleep pattern. Which of the following nursing interventions will help the client to get maximum sleep during the night?

A) Acknowledge the client’s feeling of despair.
B) Encourage active exercise before bedtime.
C) Encourage the client to go to bed early.
D) Keep the client busy during the day.

A client with bipolar disorder is having a disturbed thought process. Which of the following nursing interventions can help the client to be oriented and accurately perceive circumstances surrounding admission?

A) Provide ample information.
B) Support the client when in delusion.
C) Reduce distracting stimuli.
D) Offer a large-muscle activity

Which of the following nursing interventions should a nurse perform when caring for a female client with mood disorder who is prescribed lithium?

A) Instruct to resume regular activities such as driving.
B) Administer lithium before meals.
C) Withhold if serum level is less than 1.5 mEq.
D) Instruct to avoid breastfeeding.

During the assessment of a client with mood disorder, the nurse observes that the client experiences hallucinations and delusions. Which of the following forms of depressive disorders does the client experience?

A) Reactive depression
B) Mania
C) Psychotic depression
D) Seasonal affective disorder (SAD)

Which of the following is an example of subacute symptoms that may be observed in the older adult who may be depressed?

A) Weight gain
B) Lack of energy
C) Memory loss
D) Increased sleep

What clinical manifestation should the nurse periodically monitor for while a client is being administered valproic acid?

A) Hepatotoxicity
B) Hypertensive crisis
C) Orthostatic hypotension
D) Hyperalertness

Which of the following mood disorders has alternating sad and elated mood, resembling bipolar disorder, but less extreme mood shifts?

A) Euthymia
B) Dysthymia
C) Cyclothymia
D) Psychotic depression

Administering an MAOI with food containing tyramine may develop a potentially fatal condition known as which of the following?

A) Psychosis
B) Serotonin syndrome
C) Hypertensive crisis
D) Hallucinations

Anticonvulsants enhance which neurotransmitter in clients diagnosed with bipolar disorder?

A) Serotonin
B) Dopamine
C) GABA
D) Acetylcholine

Which type of therapy is facilitated by a bond that developed between the therapist and the client?

A) Behavioral therapy
B) Supportive psychotherapy
C) Interpersonal psychotherapy
D) Cognitive therapy

The nurse is caring for a client who states he is not feeling very well. When asking the client for specific symptoms, the client is vague with details but does state feeling better when the sun is shining. With this information, the nurse would document which disorder as a possibility?

A) Major depression
B) Seasonal affective disorder
C) Bipolar disorder
D) Reactive depression

The nurse has been working with a client who has difficulty controlling mood. The client continues to experience anger outbursts, which make it difficult to maintain employment. When explaining this dysfunction to the client’s family members, which area of the brain does the nurse identify as being the site for mood generation?

A) The central nervous system
B) The autonomic nervous system
C) The limbic system
D) The peripheral nervous system

A nurse is counseling a client diagnosed with depression. When asked questions, the client responds with words of self-blame and self-pity. When the nurse uses the monoamine hypothesis, which chemical is thought to be elevated?

A) Serotonin
B) Norepinephrine
C) Epinephrine
D) Dopamine
The nurse is caring for the client newly placed on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor. When instructing the client on the action of the medication, which statement relating to the fluctuation of serotonin is correct?

A) Serotonin will be suppressed in the brain slowing the transmission of impulses.

B) Serotonin will remain within the brain enhancing chemical messages instead of being metabolized.

C) Serotonin production will be increased within the brain speeding transmission of impulses.

D) Serotonin activity will fluctuate according to the body’s hormone release.

The nurse is providing education via phone to a client who called stating that the newly prescribed imipramine (Tofranil) is not working as depression is still a problem. Which question is most important to ask first?

A) “Are you feeling worse since taking the medication?”
B) “How long have you been taking the medication?”
C) “What time of day are you taking the medication?”
D) “What dosage of medication are you taking?”

Page 6

A patient with major depression has been place on phenelzine (Nardil). The nurse is instructing on dietary practices. Which food selection would be omitted from the diet?
A) Fruit salad
B) Lobster
C) Pork medallions
D) Spinach and feta salad

A nurse is caring for a newly admitted client to the emergency department. The nurse obtains the following vital signs: temperature, 101.6° F; pulse rate, 92 beats/minute; respiratory rate, 28 breaths/minute; and blood pressure, 160/100 mm Hg. The client appears disheveled and disoriented. Upon physical assessment, the nurse notes restlessness and muscle spasms with rigidity. Which documented finding in the health history is evaluated as a potential causative factor?

A) Mixing antibiotics with psychotherapeutic medications
B) Changing from one psychotherapeutic to another
C) Initiating psychotherapeutic drug therapy
D) Combining dairy products with psychotherapeutics

The nurse is caring for a middle-aged client prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor. Which side effect of medication therapy leads to the most common cause of noncompliance?

A) Hypertension
B) Dizziness
C) Hallucinations
D) Sexual dysfunction

The nurse is employed in a pediatric mental health clinic. Which statement, made by the client, is an indication of a clinical effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors?

A) “I have gained 25 lb in the last year.”
B) “I feel that I am so sleepy all of the time.”
C) “No one cares about me. I just want to die.”
D) “I have a difficult time concentrating.”

The nurse is instructing a client in treatment options often provided to resolve clinical depression. Which option does the nurse instruct as producing a brief, generalized seizure?

A) Vagal nerve stimulation
B) Electroconvulsive therapy
C) Deep brain stimulation
D) Transcranial magnetic stimulation

Page 8

The nurse is caring for a client who has selected transcranial magnetic stimulation to treat depression. For which side effect would the nurse provide preprocedural instructions?

A) Headache
B) Blurred vision
C) Hearing loss
D) Vertigo

Which nursing consideration is most important when administering medications to a suicidal client?

A) Do not leave any syringe unattended.
B) Watch the client place all pills in the mouth.
C) View the inside of the mouth to make sure that all medications are swallowed.

D) Remove all medications and medication administration equipment from client area.

The nurse is admitting a client to a mental health clinic following a recent suicide attempt and hospitalization. In assessing the client’s status, which question is best?

A) “How are you currently feeling?”
B) “What made you decide to harm yourself?”
C) “Do you have a suicide plan or feel like ending your life?”
D) “What method did you choose for your suicide attempt?”

Which of the following nursing diagnosis is of highest priority when caring for a client who is depressed and considers suicide?

A) Hopelessness
B) Risk for Injury
C) Disturbed Sleep Pattern
D) Ineffective Coping

Which of the following observations is helpful in determining a client’s mood? Select all that apply.

A) Client appearance
B) Body language
C) Speech
D) Energy level
E) Work history

The nurse is providing instruction to a community class who experience occasional depression regarding why humans feel better when the sun is shining. Which gland and hormone would the nurse stress is responsible?

A) Thyroid gland and thyroxin
B) Pineal gland and melatonin
C) Pancreas and insulin
D) Pituitary gland and oxytocin

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with seasonal affective disorder. When caring for the client, at which time of the year does the nurse limit nursing interventions due to an uplifting of mood?

A) September/October
B) February/March
C) April/May
D) December/January

When caring for a geriatric client diagnosed with bipolar disorder, which manifestation of the disease is anticipated?

A) The disease remits as the client ages.
B) The disease increases as the client ages.
C) The depression increases as the client ages.
D) The manic phase increases as the client ages.

The nurse is caring for a client on long-standing lithium therapy for a bipolar disorder. Which component of drug therapy administration would require follow-up?

A) A lab result showing serum lithium level of 1 mEq
B) Client states, “I use salt on my potato salad.”
C) Client states, “I take my medication each morning.”
D) Client states, “I only take lithium after breastfeeding.”

The nurse is completing a medication history for a client diagnosed with bipolar. When assessing the medications, which medication classification is noted as an adjunct to lithium therapy?

A) Antidiabetics
B) Antihypertensives
C) Anticonvulsants
D) Antianginals

The nurse is completing a plan of care for a client on lithium therapy to manage bipolar symptoms. Which nursing interventions will be included? Select all that apply.

A) Monitor for symptoms of nausea, vomiting, muscle weakness, and lack of coordination.

B) Increase fluid intake to 3000 mL/day.
C) Limit sodium intake daily.
D) Monitor kidney and liver functioning.
E) Instruct client that it may take up to 6 weeks to reach therapeutic level.
F) Monitor intake and output

The nurse is assessing a client’s affect while discussing common issues such as the weather and family. The client appears sad with a slow speech pattern. The nurse considers that this may be a sign of depression but understands that the physician will want to rule out which medical condition first?

A) Mania
B) Hypothyroidism
C) A pituitary deficiency
D) A cerebral vascular accident

When providing a clinical reference guide to a client on MAOI drug therapy, which over-the-counter medications should be highlighted to avoid?

A) Cold and allergy medications
B) Antiulcer medications
C) Multivitamins
D) Laxatives

Which of the following nursing instructions is most helpful to a client experiencing mild seasonal affective disorder symptoms?

A) Use sunglasses when exposed to sunlight.
B) Install skylights.
C) Sleep in a darkened room.
D) Stay indoors during the winter time.

The nurse is caring for a client with a disturbance in thought process who is disoriented and aggressive. Which of the following nursing actions may produce further agitation?
A) Speaking in slow, brief sentences
B) Presenting the reality of the situation
C) Allowing the client freedom in a confined area
D) Being present without speaking

Question 3: Health Care

Exam 7 2018, questions and answers

Fundamentals in clinical techniques (Rasmussen College)

RN Fundamentals Online Practice

A nurse is caring for a client who requires a 24-hr urine collection. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

“I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine.”
“I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago.”
“I flushed what I urinated at 7:00 a.m. and have save all urine since.”
“I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly.”

A nurse is assessing a client who has been on bed rest for the past month. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the client has developed thrombophlebitis?

Bladder distention
Decreased blood pressure
Calf swelling
Diminished bowel sounds
Calf swelling

A nurse manager is overseeing the care on a unit. Which of the following situations should the nurse manager identify as a violation of HIPAA guidelines?

A nurse who is caring for a client reviews the client’s medical chart with the nursing student who is working with the nurse
A nurse asks a nurse from another unit to assist with her documentation
A nurse who is caring for a client returns a call to the client’s durable power of attorney for health care designee to discuss the client’s care
A nurse discusses a client’s status with the physical therapist that is caring for the client at the client’s bedside

A nurse is caring for a client who requires bed rest and has a prescription for antiembolic stockings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Apply the stockings so the creases are on the side of the leg
Apply the stockings while the client’s legs are in a dependent position
Remove the stockings at least once per shift
Remove the stockings while the client is sitting in a reclining chair

A nurse is administering IV fluid to an older adult client. The nurse should perform which priority assessment to monitor for adverse effects?

Auscultate lung sounds
Measure urine output
Monitor blood pressure readings
Monitor serum electrolyte levels
Auscultate lung sounds

A nurse is assessing a client’s readiness to learn about insulin administration. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to learn?

“I can concentrate best in the morning.”
“It is difficult to read the instructions because my glasses are at home.”
“I’m wondering why I need to learn this.”
“You will have to talk to my wife about this.”

A nurse is performing a Romberg’s test during the physical assessment of a client. Which of the following techniques should the nurse use?

Touch the face with a cotton ball
Apply the vibrating tuning fork to the client’s forehead
Have the client stand with her arms at her side and her feet together
Perform direct percussion over the area of the kidneys

A nurse is planning an education session for an older adult client who has just learned that she has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following strategies should the nurse plan to use with this client?

Allow extra time for the client to respond to questions
Expect the client to have difficulty understanding the information
Avoid references to the client’s past experiences
Keep the learning session in private and one-on-one

A nurse is teaching an older adult client who is at risk for osteoporosis about beginning a program of regular physical activity. Which of the following types of activity should the nurse recommend?

Walking briskly
Riding a bicycle
Performing isometric exercises
Engaging in high-impact aerobics

A nurse is assessing an adult client who has been immobile for the past 3 weeks. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings requires further intervention?

Erythema on pressure points
Lower-extremity pulse strength 2+
Fluid intake of 3,000 mL of fluid per day
A bowel movement every other day

A nurse is preparing to administer 0.5 mL of oral single-dose liquid medication to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Gently shake the container of medication prior to administration
Transfer the medication to a medicine cup
Place the client in a semi-Fowler’s position prior to medication administration
Verify the dosage by measuring the liquid before administration

A nurse is responding to a call light and finds a client lying on the bathroom floor. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Check the client for injuries
Move hazardous objects away from the client
Notify the provider
Ask the client to describe how she felt prior to the fall

A nurse is caring for a client who is expressing anger over his diagnosis of colorectal cancer. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Discuss the risk factors for colon cancer
Focus teaching on what the client will need to do in the future to manage his illness
Provide the client with written information about the phases of loss and grief
Reassure the client that this is an expected response to grief

A nurse in a clinic is caring for a middle adult client who states, “The doctor says that, since I am at an average risk for colon cancer, I should have a routine screening. What does that involve?” Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

“I’ll get a blood sample from you and send it for a screening test.”
“Beginning at age 600, you should have a colonoscopy.”
“You should have a fecal occult blood test every year.”
“The recommendation is to have a sigmoidoscopy every 10 years.”

A nurse manager is preparing to review medication documentation with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statement should the nurse manager plan to include in the teaching?

“Use the complete name of the medication magnesium sulfate.”
“Delete the space between the numerical dose and the unit of measure.”
“Write the letter U when noting the dosage of insulin.:
“Use the abbreviation SC when indicting an injection.”

A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

Place the client in a room with negative-pressure airflow
Wear gloves when assisting the client with oral care
Limit each visitor to 2 hr increments
Wear a surgical mask when providing client care
Use antimicrobial sanitizer for hand hygiene

A charge nurse is discussing the responsibility of nurses caring for clients who have a Clostridium difficile infection. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Assign the client to a room with a negative air-flow system
Use alcohol-based hand sanitizer when leaving the client’s room
Clean contaminated surface in the client’s room with a phenol solution
Have family members wear a gown and gloves when visiting

A nurse in a surgical suite notes documentation on a client’s medical record that he has a latex allergy. In preparation for the client’s medical record that he has a latex allergy. In preparation for the client’s procedure, which of the following precautions should the nurse take?

Ensure sterilization of non-disposable items with ethylene oxide
Wrap monitoring cords with stockinette and tape them in case

Cleanse latex ports on IV tubing with chlorhexidine before injecting medication
Wear hypoallergenic later gloves that contain powder

A nurse is caring for a client who is reporting difficulty falling asleep. Which of the following measures should the nurse recommend?

Drink a cup of hot cocoa before bedtime
Exercise 1 hr before going to bed
Use progressive relaxation techniques at bedtime
Reflect on the day’s activities before going to bed

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for 5 units of regular insulin and 10 units of NPH insulin to mix together and administer subcutaneously. Determine the correct order of steps for this procedure.

A nurse is reviewing practice guidelines with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include that is within the RN scope of practice?

Insert an implanted port
Close a laceration with sutures
Place an endotracheal tube
Initiate an enteral feeding through a gastrostomy tube

A nurse is caring for a client who requires an NG tube for stomach decompression. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when inserting the NG tube?

Position the client with the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees prior to insertion of the NG tube
Remove the NG tube if the client begins to gag or choke
Apply suction to the NG tube prior to insertion
Have the client take sips of water to promote insertion of the NG tube into the esophagus

A nurse is assessing an older adult client’s risk for falls. Which of the following assessments should the nurse use to identify the client’s safety needs? (Select all that apply.)

Lacrimal apparatus
Pupil clarity
Appearance of bulbar conjunctivae
Visual fields
Visual acuity

A nurse is evaluating a client’s use of a cane. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as an indication of correct use?

The top of the cane is parallel to the client’s waist
When walking, the client moves the cane 46cm (18 in) forward
The client holds the cane on the stronger side of her body.
The client moves her stronger limb forward with the cane

A nurse is admitting a client who has varicella. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?

Airborne
Droplet
Contact
Protective environment

A nurse is preparing to administer multiple medications to a client who has an enteral feeding tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Dissolve each medication in 5 mL of sterile water
Draw up medications together in the same syringe
Push the syringe plunger gently when feeling resistance
Flush the tube with 15 mL of sterile water

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for wound irrigation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Wear sterile gloves when removing the old dressing
Warm the irrigation solution to 40.5 degrees Celsius (105 degrees Fahrenheit)
Cleanse the wound from the center outward
Use a 20 mL syringe to irrigate the wound

A nurse is providing care to four clients. Which of the following situations requires the nurse to complete an incident report?

A nurse tied a client’s restraint straps to the moveable part of the bed frame
An assistive personnel placed a surgical mask on a client who has tuberculosis before transporting her to radiology
A nurse administers a medication to a client 30 minutes before the dose is due
A client who has an IV infusion pump receives an additional 250 mL of IV fluid

A nurse is caring for a client receiving fluid through a peripheral IV catheter. Which of the following findings at the IV site should the nurse identify as infiltration?

Purulent exudate
Warmth
Skin blanching
Bleeding

A nurse is preparing a change-of-shit report. Which of the following tools or documents should the nurse use to communicate continuity of care?

Critical pathway
Situation, background, assessment, and recommendation (SBAR)
Transfer report
Medication administration record (MAR)

A nurse is admitting a client who has an abdominal wound with a large amount of purulent drainage. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse indicate?

Protective environment
Airborne precautions
Droplet precaution
Contact precautions

A nurse is caring for a client who is having difficulty breathing. The client is lying in bed with a nasal cannula delivering oxygen. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take first?

Suction the client’s airway
Administer a bronchodilator
Increase the humidity in the client’s room
Assist the client to an upright position

A nurse is reviewing a client’s fluid and electrolyte status which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

BUN 15 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
Sodium 143 mEq/L
Potassium 5.4 mEq/L

A nurse is lifting a bedside cabinet to move it closer to a client who is sitting in a chair. To prevent self- injury, which of the following actions should the nurse take when lifting the object?

Bend at the waist
Keep his feet close together
Use his back muscles for lifting
Stand close to the cabinet when lifting

A nurse is reviewing a client’s medication prescription, which reads, “digoxin 0.25 by mouth every day.” Which of the following components of the prescription should the nurse question?

The medication
The route
The dose
The frequency

A nurse is caring for a client who has had his diet prescription changed to a mechanical soft diet. Which of the following food items should the nurse remove from the client’s breakfast tray?

Tomato juice
Banana slices
Pancakes
Fried egg

A nurse is caring for a client who has terminal liver cancer. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is experiencing spiritual distress?

“What could I have done to deserve this illness?”
“I blame medical science for not curing me.”
“Where is my daughter at a time like this?”
“Will I ever begin to feel in charge of my life again?”

A nurse is caring for a client who is refusing a blood transfusion for religious reasons. The client’s partner wants the client to have the blood transfusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Ask the client to consider a direct donation
Withhold the blood transfusion
Request a consultation with the ethics committee D.. Ask the client’s family to intervene

A nurse is reviewing protocol in preparation for suctioning secretions from a client who has a new tracheostomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Use a resuscitation bag with 80% oxygen prior to the procedure
Select a suction catheter that is half the size of the lumen
Place the end of the suction catheter in water-soluble lubricant
Adjust the wall suction apparatus to a pressure of 170 mmHg

A nurse is caring for a client who has limited mobility in his lower extremities. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent skin breakdown?

Place the client in high-Fowler’s position
Increase the client’s intake of carbohydrates
Massage reddened areas with unscented lotion
Have the client use a trapeze bar when changing position

A nurse is talking with the partner of an older adult male client who has dementia. The client’s partner expresses frustration about finding time to manage household responsibilities while caring for his partner. The nurse should identify that he is going through which of the following types of role- performance stress?

Role ambiguity
Sick role
Role overload
Role conflict

Role overload

A nurse in a long-term care facility is planning to perform hygiene care for a new resident. Which of the following assessment questions is the nurse’s priority before beginning this procedure?

“When do you usually bathe, in the morning or in the evening?”
“Do you prefer a bath or a shower?”
“At what temperature do you prefer your bath water?”
“Are you able to help with your hygiene care?”

A nurse is caring for a client who has herpes zoster and asks the nurse about the use of complementary and alternative therapies for pain control. The nurse should inform the client that his condition is a contraindication for which of the following therapies?

Biofeedback
Aloe
Feverfew
Acupuncture

A nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client who will require oxygen therapy at home. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands how to manage this therapy at home?

“I’ll make sure that, when my friend comes by, she smokes at least 6 feet away from my oxygen.
“I’ll use a woolen blanket if I get chilly while I’m using my oxygen.
“I’ll check the wires and cables on my TV to make sure they are in good working order.
“I’ll lay my oxygen tank down on the floor when the grandchildren visit so they don’t knock it over.

A nurse is preparing to administer an injection of an opioid medication to a client. The nurse draws out 1 mL of the medication from a 2 mL vial. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Ask another nurse to observe the medication wastage
Notify the pharmacy when wasting the medication
Lock the remaining medication in the controlled substances cabinet
Dispose of the vial with the remaining medication in a sharps container

A nurse is caring for a client who is terminally ill. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client’s family member is coping effectively with the situation?

“We are not worried. We still have hope that everything will be okay.”
“This is a difficult time, but we are helping each other through this.”
“After he comes home, we can plan our family reunion.”
“We do not need to talk about funeral arrangements at this time.”

A nurse is planning care to improve self-feeding for a client who has vision loss. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Tell the client which food should eat first.
Provide small-handle utensils for the client.
Thicken liquids on the client’s tray
Use a clock pattern to describe food on the client’s plate

A nurse is preparing to transfer a client who has right-sided weakness from the bed to a chair. In what order should the nurse take the following actions to assist the client?

A nurse is caring for a client who reports pain. When documenting the quality of the client’s pain on an initial pain assessment, the nurse should record which of the following client statements?

“I’m having mild pain.”
“The pain is like a dull ache in my stomach.”
“I notice that the pain gets worse after I eat.”
“The pain makes me feel nauseous.”

A nurse is caring for a client who asks about the purpose of advance directives. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

“They allow the court to overrule an adult client’s refusal of medical treatment.”
“They indicate the form of treatment the client is willing to accept in the event of serious illness.”
“They permit a client to withhold medical information from health care personnel.”
“They allow health care personnel in the emergency department to stabilize a client’s condition.”

A nurse is completing an admission assessment for a client who reports vomiting and diarrhea for the past 3 days. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?

Neck vein distention
Urine specific gravity 1.010
Rapid heart rate
Blood pressure 144/82 mmHg

A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and refuses to use an incentive spirometer following major abdominal surgery. Which of the following is the nurse’s priority action?

Request that a respiratory therapist discuss the technique for incentive spirometry
Determine the reasons why the client is refusing to use the incentive spirometer
Document the client’s refusal to participate in health restorative activities
Administer a pain medication to the client

A nurse is caring for a client who has an NG tube and is receiving intermittent feedings through an open system. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Rinse the feeding bag with water between feedings
Tell the client to keep the head of the bed elevated at least 30 degrees
Make sure the enteral formula is at room temperature
Wipe the top of the formula can with alcohol

A nurse is administering an otic medication to an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure that the medication reaches the inner ear?

Press gently on the tragus of the client’s ear
Pack a small piece of cotton deep into the ear canal
Move the client’s auricle down and back toward her head
Tilt the client’s head back for 5 minutes

A nurse is using an open irrigation technique to irrigate a client’s indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Place the client in a side-lying position
Instill 15 mL of irrigation fluid into the catheter with each flush
Subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client’s urine output
Perform the irrigation using a 20 mL syringe

A nurse is planning to insert a peripheral IV catheter for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Insert the catheter at a 45-degree angle
Place the client’s arm in a dependent position
Shave excess hair from the insertion site
Initiate IV therapy in the veins of the hand

A nurse is assisting a client who is postoperative with the use of an incentive spirometer. Into which of the following positions should the nurse place the client?

Side-lying
Supine
Semi-Fowler’s
Trendelenburg

Question 4: Health Care

1) A nurse is caring for a patient who has a terminal illness and is approaching death. The patient is short of breath and has noisy respirations from secretions in their airway. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a) Turn the patient every 2 hr
i) The nurse should turn the pt at least once every 2 hr to break up the secretions in the pt’s lungs and prevent noisy respirations
b) Administer an antiemetic every 6 hr
i) The nurse should admin antiemetics for pts experiencing nausea or vomiting. However, this is not the correct action to take when assisting a pt who’s experiencing respiratory difficulty at the end of life
c) Hold oral care
i) The nurse should provide frequent oral care in order to keep the pt’s mouth moist and provide comfort
d) Increase the room’s temperature
i) Keeping the air temperature cool by allowing air to circulate with the use of a fan or opening windows is more comfortable for a pt who is dying and will decrease air hunger

2) A nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent the spread of infection?

a) Carry a patient’s soiled linens out of the room in a mesh linen bag
i) The nurse should place soiled linens in a fluid-resistant bag to reduce the risk of infection transmission
b) Place a patient who has tuberculosis in a room with negative pressure airflow
i) A pt who has tb req’s airborn precautions, which include placing the pt in a room that has negative pressure airflow to reduce the risk of infection transmission
c) Provide disposable plates and utensils for a patient who is HIV positive
i) Ppl transmit HIV mainly by blood and sexual activity; therefore, a pt who is HIV+ does not req disposable plates and utensils. Standard precautions are sufficient
d) Dispose of a patient’s blood saturated dressing in a trash bag inside a second trash bag
i) The nurse should dispose of items that have a large amount of blood in a biohazard bag that is impervious to micro-organisms

3) A nurse is using an open irrigation technique to irrigate a client’s indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a) Place the client in a side lying position
i) The nurse should place the client in a supine or dorsal recumbent position for maximal access to the catheter
b) Instill 15 mL of irrigation fluid into the catheter with each flush
i) Open irrigation technique requires instilling 30-40 mL of irrigation fluid
c) Subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client’s urine output
i) The nurse should calculate the fluid used for irrigation and subtract it from the clients total urinary output
d) Perform the irrigation using a 20 mL syringe
i) The nurse should use a 30- 50 mL syringe to perform open irrigation

4) A home health nurse is performing a follow-up visit for a client who has a gastrostomy tube through which they receive intermittent feedings and medications. The client has recently developed diarrhea. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a possible cause of the diarrhea?

a) The client is receiving formula at room temperature
i) Cold formula can cause gastric cramping; therefore, room temperature formula is appropriate and is likely not because of the clients diarrhea
b) The feedings in fuse at a slow, continuous drip over 8 hr each night
i) Diarrhea is more likely to develop with rapid installation of enteral formula
c) The clients caregiver washes out the feeding bag with warm water once every 24 hr
i) Feeding bags should be washed out after each feeding and replaced with a new feeding back every 24 hr to prevent bacterial contamination. The nurse should reinforce this information with the clients caregiver to avoid future contamination
d) The clients caregiver flushes the tubing with water before and after administering medications
i) It is correct to flush the tubing with water before and after administering medications to prevent clogging of the tube

5) A nurse is initiating a protective environment for a client who has had an allogeneic stem cell transplant. Which of the following precautions should the nurse plan for this client?

a) Make sure the client’s room has at least six air exchanges per hour
i) A protective environment requires at least 12 air exchanges per hour
b) Make sure the client wears a mask when outside her room if there is construction in the area
i) And allogeneic stem cell transplant compromises the client’s immune system, greatly increasing the risk for infection. The client will need protection from breathing in any pathogens in the environment.
c) Place the client in a private room with negative pressure airflow
i) The nurse should place the client in a private room that provides positive pressure airflow
d) Wear an N95 respirator when it giving the client direct care
i) The nurse should wear an N 95 respirator mask when caring for clients who require airborne precautions, not a protective environment

6) A nurse is admitting a client who has an abdominal wound with a large amount of purulent drainage. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?

a) Protective environment
i) Client to have a compromised immune system require a protective environment
b) Airborne precautions
i) Airborne precautions or a requirement for clients who have infections that spread via droplet nuclei that are smaller than 5 microns in diameter, including tuberculosis and measles
c) Droplets precautions
i) Droplet precautions or a requirement for clients who have infections that spread via droplet nuclei that are larger than 5 microns in diameter, including rubella, meningococcal pneumonia, and a streptococcal pharyngitis
d) Contact precautions
i) Major wound infections required contact precautions, which means the nurse should admit the client to a private room. All caregivers should wear a gown and gloves during direct contact with this client

7) A nurse is teaching a client and his family how to care for the clients tracheostomy at home. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

a) Remove the outer cannula cautiously for routine cleaning
i) The outer cannula stabilizes the airway; therefore, the client should never remove it for cleaning
b) Use a tracheostomy covers when outdoors
i) Tracheostomy covers protect the client’s airway from cold air, dust and other airborne particles
c) Use sterile technique when performing tracheostomy care at home
i) In the home environment, medical a sepsis with clean technique is appropriate
d) Cleaned irritated skin with full strength hydrogen peroxide
i) Hydrogen peroxide can irritated skin; therefore, the nurse should instruct the client and family to use 0.9% sodium chloride irrigation to cleanse the site and prevent further irritation

8) A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and is exhibiting signs of hemorrhagic shock. The nurse notifies the surgeon, who tells the nurse to continue to measure the client’s vital signs every 15 min and to report back in 1 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

a) Document the provider’s statement in the medical record
i) The nurse should document the provider’s directions in the medical record for later reference; however, another action is the nurse’s priority
b) Complete an incident report
i) The nurse should prepare an incident report detailing the delay in treatment for later review and action for prevention of future occurrences; however, another action is the nurse’s priority
c) Consult the facility’s risk manager
i) The nurse should discuss the situation with the facility’s risk management dept to help determine the need for preventative actions; however, another actions is the nurse’s priority
d) Notify the nursing manager
i) The greatest risk to the client is not receiving timely intervention for a deterioration in physiological status; therefore, the next action the nurse should take is to activate the chain of command to ensure that the client receives the necessary care

9) A client who is postoperative is verbalizing pain as a 2 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the preoperative teaching she received about pain management?

a) “I think I should take my pain medication more often, since it is not controlling my pain”
i) As a 2 on a scale of 0 to 10, this client’s pain is mild. Additional analgesic medication is unnecessary at this time
b) “Breathing faster will help me keep my mind off the pain.”
i) Rapid breathing can lead to hyperventilation, while slow, focused, breathing helps induce relaxation, which can help with managing pain
c) “It might help me to listen to music while I’m lying in bed.”
i) Listening to music is an effective nonpharmacological intervention for the management of mild pain
d) “I don’t want to walk today because I have some pain.”
i) Postoperative clients need to ambulate even if they are having mild pain

10) A nurse is assessing a client’s readiness to learn about insulin self-administration. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to learn?

a) “I can concentrate best in the morning.”
i) The pt’s statement indicates a readiness to learn bc he’s verbalizing the best time for him to learn
b) “It is difficult to read the instructions because my glasses are at home.”
i) The pt’s statement indicates the pt is not ready to learn. The pt has to have the tools he needs to learn and comprehend the info
c) “I’m wondering why I need to learn this.”
i) The pts statement indicates a reluctance to learn information he thinks he might not need to know
d) “You will have to talk to my wife about this.”
i) With this statement, the pt is redirecting the nurse’s attempt to teach toward someone else, indicating that he is not ready to learn

11) A nurse is planning strategies to manage time effectively for client care. Which of the following strategies should the nurse implement?

a) Comine client care tasks when caring for multiple clients
i) The nurse should complete the tasks for one pt before beginning the tasks for another client to reduce fragmentation of care and avoid potential errors
b) Wait until the end of the shift to document client care
i) Documentation should be completed in a timely manner after care is performed to reduce errors and unsafe client care. Performing documentation at the end of the shift tis not effective time management
c) Use the planning step of the nursing process to prioritize client care delivery
i) Setting up a list of goals and tasks to perform for pts can help the nurse set care priorities and plan tasks accordingly. The priority to do list is an efficient tool for optimal time management
d) Allow for interruptions in tasks to discuss client care issue with colleagues
i) An important principle of time management is controlling interruptions to reduce errors and loss of care delivery time

12) A nurse is caring for a client who asks about the purpose of advance directives. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

a) “They allow the court to overrule and adult client’s refusal of medical treatment.”
i) A court can only overrule an adult pt’s refusal of medical treatment if the pt is legally incompetent
b) “They indicate the form of treatment a client is willing to accept in the event of a serious illness”
i) Advanced directives include a living will, which permits pts to direct the treatment they will receive in the even of a medical emergency or serious illness
c) “They permit a client to withhold medical information from health care personnel”
i) The Americans with Disabilities Act, not advance directives, protects the privacy of a pt who chooses not to disclose a medical disability
d) “They allow health care personnel in the emergency department to stabilize a client’s condition.”
i) The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act, not advance directives, directs emergency personnel to provide screening and stabilizing care before discharging or transferring pts to another facility

13) A nurse is preparing to administer an injection of an opioid medication to a client. The nurse draws out 1 mL of the medication from a 2 mL vial. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a) Ask another nurse to observe the medication wastage
i) A second nurse must witness the disposal of any portion of a dose of a controlled substance
b) Notify the pharmacy when wasting the medication
i) Pharmacies do not req notification of the disposal of a portion of a dose of a controlled substance
c) Lock the remaining medication in the controlled substances cabinet
i) The nurse should not lock the remaining controlled substance in the cabinet bc this is a violation of the Controlled Substances Act
d) Dispose of the vial with the remaining medication in the sharps container
i) The nurse should not dispose of the remaining controlled sub in the sharps bc this is a violation of the Controlled Substances Act

14) A nurse is caring for a pt who has a terminal illness and is at the end of life. The nurse should recognize that which of the following statements by the pt’s partner indicates effective coping?

a) “I am not worried bc I still have hope that he will be okay”
i) This statement reflects false hope and possible denial of the terminal nature of the pt’s illness. Denial involves the blocking of painful thoughts or feelings that induce anxiety
b) “I am relying on support from our family during this time”
i) This statement indicates effective coping bc the partner is relying on others in the family for support during a time of crisis
c) “We can plan our family reunion once he recovers and comes home”
i) This statement reflects false hope and possibly denial of the terminal nature of the pt’s illness. Denial involves the blocking of painful thoughts or feelings that induce anxiety
d) “We don’t see any reason to start discussing funeral arrangements right now”
i) This statement reflects potential false hope about and possible denial of the terminal nature of the pt’s illness. It also indicates the partner’s potential inability or unwillingness to address unpleasant or challenging issues related to the pt’s health

15) A nurse is planning to insert a peripheral IV catheter for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

a) Insert the catheter at 45* angle
i) Generally, the nurse should insert the catheter at a 10*-30* angle. However, for an older adult client, an angle or 10*-50* is preferable because weins are closer to the skin surface as aging diminishes subcutaneous tissue
b) Place the client’s arm in a dependent position
i) The nurse should the pt’s arm in a dependent position bc the veins will dilate due to gravity
c) Shave excess hair from the insertion site
i) The nurse should clip excess hair from the iv insertion site and avoid shaving the area bc shaving can cause breaks and cuts in the skin that could place the pt at risk for infection
d) Initiate iv therapy in the veins of the hand
i) The nurse should avoid using the fragile veins of an older adult’s hands bc the loss of subq tissue can allow those veins to roll away from the needle. Also, having an IV catheter in the pt’s hand can interfere w the pt’s performance of activities of daily living and can diminish an older adult’s sense of independence and mobility.

16) A nurse is caring for a pt who has dementia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take to minimize the risk for injury to the pt.

a) Use a bed exit alarm system
i) The nurse should identify that a pt who has dementia requires assistance when exiting their bed and might be unable to remember to ask for help. The pt’s condition places them at a risk for falling; therefore, a bed alarm system can alert staff members that the pt is trying to get out of bed and requires assistance
b) Raise four side rails while the pt is in bed
i) Raising four side rails when the pt is in bed is form of restrain and increases the risk for falls and injury
c) Apply one soft wrist restraint
i) Applying one soft restraint is a physical restraint requiring a prescription. Other forms of distraction or intervention to maintain pt safety should be attempted for pts who have dementia
d) Dim the lights in the pt’s room
i) Dimming the lights in the room for a pt who has dementia can reduce visibility and increase the risk for injury

17) A nurse is caring for a pt who is postoperative following a knee arthroplasty and requires the use of thigh length sequential compression sleeves. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a) Assist the pt into a prone position
i) The nurse should place the pt in a dorsal recumbent or semi Fowler’s position to facilitate application of sleeves
b) Place a sleeve over the top of each leg w the opening at the knee
i) The nurse should place the sleeve under each leg w the opening at the knee and then wrap the sleeve around the leg so that it is secure
c) Make sure two fingers can fit under the sleeves
i) The nurse should ensure that there is enough space for two fingers to fit under the sleeve bc any less space bt the sleeves and the legs can inhibit circulation when the sleeves inflate
d) Set the ankle pressure at 65 mm Hg
i) The nurse should set the ankle pressure bt 35-55 Hg to achieve a therapeutic effect while also preventing damage to the pt’s skin and circulatory impairment

18) A nurse is caring for a pt who has a sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

a) Numbness of the extremities
i) Numbness of the extremities is manifestation of hyperkalemia
b) Bradycardia
i) Tachycardia is a manifestation of hyponatremia along with hypovolemia
c) Positive Chvostek’s sign
i) A positive Chvostek’s sign is a manifestation of hypomagnesemia and hypocalcemia
d) Abdominal cramping
i) The pt has hyponatremia, which is a low sodium level. Manifestations include abdominal cramping, weakness, confusion, lethargy, headache, and nausea

19) A nurse is auscultating the anterior chest of a pt who was newly admitted to a medical-surgical unit. Listen to the audio clip of what the nurse auscultates through the stethoscope and identify the type of breath sounds (click on the audio button to listen to the clip).

a) Crackles
i) Unlike these breath sounds, crackles (also called rales) are discontinuous sounds heard primarily during inhalation and resulting from air bubbling through fluid or mucus in the airways
b) Rhonchi
i) Rhonchi are dry, low pitched, snore like noises produced in the throat or bronchial tube due to partial obstruction, such as by secretions
c) Friction rub
i) Friction rub is a scratching or squeaking sound that persists throughout the respiratory cycle
d) Normal breath sounds
i) These are normal Broncho vesicular breath sounds, characteristically of moderate intensity and sounding like blowing as air moves through the larger airways on inspiration and expiration

20) A nurse is talking with an older adult pt who is contemplating retirement. The pt states, “I keep thinking about how much I enjoy my job. I’m not sure I want to retire.” Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

a) “You would have so much more time to spend w your family”
i) This response is nontherapeutic bc the nurse is minimizing the pt’s feelings and making assumptions about the pt’s relationships
b) “You should consider getting a part time job or doing volunteer work.”
i) This response is nontherapeutic bc the nurse is minimizing the pt’s feelings and offering personal advice
c) “Let’s talk about how the change in your job status will affect you”
i) The response is therapeutic bc the nurse is encouraging the pt to verbalize feelings about the life transition of retirement
d) “Why wouldn’t you want to retire and relax?”
i) This response is nontherapeutic bc the nurse is asking a “why” question, which can provoke a defensive response from the pt

21) A nurse is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a pt who is postoperative and has fluid volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the nurse identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?

a) Increase in hematocrit
i) Fluid volume deficit causes an increase in hematocrit level due to depletion of extracellular fluid. With correction of the imbalance, the hematocrit level should decrease
b) Increase in respiratory rate
i) Fluid volume causes an increase in respiratory rate. With correction of the imbalance, the respiratory rate should return to the expected range
c) Decrease in heart rate
i) Fluid volume deficit causes an increase in respiratory rate. With correction of the imbalance, the respiratory rate should return to the expected range.
d) Decrease in capillary refill time
i) Fluid volume deficit slows capillary refill. With correction of the imbalance, capillary refill time should return to the expected range

22) A nurse is caring for a pt who is postoperative and refuses to use an incentive spirometer following major abdominal surgery. Which of the following actions is the nurse’s priority?

a) Request that a respiratory therapist discuss the technique for incentive spirometry with the pt.
i) The nurse can request that another team member discuss the use of the incentive spirometer w the pt to encourage the pt to use it; however, this is not the priority action for the nurse to take.
b) Determine the reasons why the pt is refusing to use the incentive spirometer
i) The 1^staction the nurse should take when using the nursing process is to assess the client; therefore the priority action for the nurse to take is to determine why the pt is refusing the treatment
c) Document the pt’s refusal to participate in health restorative activities
i) If other interventions to promote the pt’s use of the incentive spirometer are unsuccessful, the nurse must document the pt’s refusal; however, this is not the priority action for the nurse to take.
d) Administer a pain medication to the client
i) Pain or incisional complication might make the pt refuse spirometry; however, administering medication is not the priority action for the nurse to take.

23) A nurse is talking w the partner of a pt who has a dementia. The pt’s partner expresses frustration about finding time to manage household responsibilities while caring for their partner. The nurse should identify that the partner is experiencing which of the following types of role-performance stress?

a) Role ambiguity
i) Role ambiguity occurs when people are unclear about the expectations of their role in a given situation
b) Sick role
i) Sick role refers to the expectations placed on the individual who has the alteration in health, rather than the caregiver
c) Role overload
i) The partner’s expression of frustration is an example of role overload, which refers to having more responsibilities within a role than one person can manage
d) Role conflict
i) Role conflict develops when a person must assume multiple roles that have opposing expectations

24) A nurse is assessing four adult patients. Which of the following physical assessment techniques should the nurse use?

a) Use the face, legs, activity, and consolability (FLACC) pain rating scale for a pt who is experiencing pain
i) The nurse should use an age appropriate pain-rating scale, such as the visual analog or numerical scale, when assessing the pain level of an adult. The FLACC pain rating scale is used for pts ages from 2 mo’s to 7 yrs
b) Ensure the bladder of the blood pressure cuff surrounds 80% of the pt’s arm
i) The nurse should use a blood pressure cuff w a bladder that surrounds 80% of pt’s arm circumference to give an accurate reading
c) Obtain an apical heart rate by auscultating at the third intercostal space left of the sternum
i) The nurse should place the stethoscope at the point of maximal impulse, which is at the 5^thintercostal space at the midclavicular line left of the sternum
d) Palpate the pt’s abdomen before auscultating bowel sounds
i) When assessing an adult client’s abdomen, the nurse should auscultate bowel sounds before performing palpation in order not to change the character of the sounds

25) A nurse is admitting a pt who is having an exacerbation of heart failure. In planning this pt’s care, when should the nurse initiate discharge planning?

a) During the admission process
i) Discharge planning should begin as soon as the pt is undergoing the admission process. The nurse should begin to assess the pt’s needs and plan for care both during and after the pt’s time in the facility
b) As soon as the pt’s condition is stable
i) Although it is appropriate to defer pt teaching until the pt is stable and receptive to learning, the initation of discharge planning does not depend on the pt’s physiological stability.
c) During the initial team conference
i) Team conferences facilitate discharge planning, but they are not essential for initiating the planning process
d) After consulting with the pt’s family
i) The nurse should only consult with the pt’s family if the pt gives the nurse permission to share that information. In the case of a pt who has an exacerbation of heart failure, delating discharge planning until this time could result in overlooking essential care needs.

26) A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a pt who will be using a walker. Which of the following pt statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

a) “I can place an extension cord across my living room to plug in my television”
i) Extension cords should be securely fastened to the floor and should be run along the edge of the wall, if possible, to avoid the risk for tripping
b) “I will hire someone to trim the tree that hangs low over the stairs of my front porch”
i) Clearing stairs of any object that could cause the pt to trip or require them to bend over while walking will decrease the risk for falls.
c) “I will place my alarm clock on my bedroom dresser across the room”
i) Frequently used items like an alarm clock, glasses, or disposable tissues should be placed within reach, such as on the pt’s night stand. This helps to prevent the pt from needing to get up and potentially falling in the night.
d) “I will replace the old throw rug in my kitchen with a new one”
i) Using throw rugs increases the pt’s risk for falls bc they create a tripping and slipping hazard for the pt

27) A nurse is performing a skin assessment for a pt who expresses concern about skin cancer. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a potential indication of a skin malignancy?

a) A lesion with uniform pigmentation
i) Variations in pigmentation are a possible indication of a skin malignancy. A lesion with uniform pigmentation is not an expected indication of a skin malignancy.
b) New appearance of petechiae
i) Petechiae are capillaries that have burst under the skin and appear as small spots on the skin. Although they can be indications of other conditions, petechiae are not an expected indication of a skin malignancy.
c) A mole with an asymmetrical appearance
i) An uneven or asymmetrical shape is a potential indication of a skin malignancy. This is manifested when part of a lesion or mole looks different from the other part.
d) The presence of a papule
i) Papules are solid elevations that are palpable in the skin and are less than 1 cm (0.39 in) in size. The are not an expected indication of a skin malignancy

28) A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a pt about self-administering heparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

a) Insert the needle at a 15* angle
i) The nurse should instruct the pt to insert the needle at a 45* to 90* angle to administer the medication into the sub tissue
b) Aspirate for blood return prior to administration
i) The nurse should instruct the pt not to aspirate for blood return bc this can cause tissue damage and bruising
c) Administering the medication into the abdomen
i) The nurse should instruct the pt to administer the medication into the abdomen at least 5.08 cm (2 in) from the umbilicus. The pt should pinch or spread the skin at the injection site to administer the medication into the sub tissue.
d) Massage the site following the injection
i) The nurse should instruct the pt not to massage the site bc this can cause tissue damage and bruising

29) A nurse is reviewing evidence-based practice principles about administration of oxygen therapy with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?

a) Regulate the flow rate by aligning the rate with top of the ball inside the flow meter
i) The nurse should regulate the oxygen flow rate by aligning the rate on the flow meter w the middle of the silver ball inside the meter
b) Regulate oxygen via nasal cannula at a flow rate of no more than 6 L/min
i) Evidence-based practice supports a flow rate of 1 to 6 L/min via nasal cannula. Rates above 6 L/ min have a drying effect and force pts to swallow air excessively without increasing their fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO₂)
c) Make sure the reservoir bag of a partial rebreathing mask remains deflated
i) The reservoir bag should inflate by one-third to one-half with inspiration. If it remains deflated, it indicates that pts are breathing in too much of the carbon dioxide they exhale
d) Use petroleum jelly to lubricate the pt’s nares, face, and lips
i) Evidence-based practice supports the use of water soluble lubricant to protect the pt’s skin from the drying effect of oxygen

30) A nurse is preparing a change of shift report. Which of the following tools or documents should the nurse use to communicate continuity of care?

a) Critical pathway
i) A critical pathway is an extraprofessional approach to planning all phases of pt care
b) Situation, background, assessment, and recommendation (SBAR)
i) SBAR is a communication tool nurses use to relate a pt’s status during a change of shift report
c) Transfer report
i) The nurse should use a transfer report when the cpt is moving from one health care area or facility to another
d) Medication administration record (MAR)
i) The nurse should use the MAR to document medication administration

31) A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously to a pt. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

a) Administer the medication with the needle at a 45* angle
i) The nurse should insert the needle at 45* to 90* angle for a sub injection
b) Administer the medication into the pt’s nondominant arm
i) The nurse should administer enoxaparin into the abdomen, at least 5 cm (2 in) from the umbilicus
c) Pull the pt’s skin laterally or downward prior to administration
i) The z-track technique involves displacing the skin laterally or downward prior to administration of an IM injection
d) Massage the injection site after administration
i) The nurse should not massage the injection site following the injection of an anticoagulant due to the risk for bruising

32) A nurse is evaluating a pt’s use of cane. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as an indication of correct use?

a) The top of the cane is parallel to the pt’s waist
i) The top of the cane should be parallel to the client’s greater trochanter
b) When walking, the pt moves the can 46 cm (18 in) forward
i) To maintain balance, the pt should advance the cane about 15 to 30 cm (6 to 12 in) at a time
c) The pt holds the cane on the stronger side of her body
i) The pt should hold the cane on the stronger side of her body to increase support and maintain alignment
d) The pt moves her stronger limb forward with one cane
i) The pt should move her weaker leg forward with the cane. The divides the pt’s body weight between the cane and stronger leg

33) A nurse is assessing a pt who reports increased pain following physical therapy. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask when assessing the quality of the pt’s pain?

a) “Is your pain constant or intermittent?”
i) Asking the pt whether the pain is constant or intermittent determines the onset, duration, and pattern of the pain.
b) “What would you rate your pain on a scale of 0-10?”
i) Asking the pt to rate the pain using the pain scale determines the intensity of the pain
c) “Does the pain radiate?”
i) Asking the pt whether the pain radiates determines the pain’s location
d) “Is your pain sharp or dull?”
i) Asking the pt whether the pain is sharp, dull, crushing, throbbing, aching, burning, electric-like, or shooting helps determine the quality of the pain

34) A nurse is performing a home safety assessment for a pt who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which of the following observations should the nurse identify as proper safety protocol?

a) The pt uses a wool blanket on their bed
i) The pt should use a cotton blanket instead of wool blanket to avoid generating static electricity that could ignite the oxygen
b) The pt uses nonacetone nail polish remover
i) The pt should use nonflammable materials, such as nonacetone nail polish remover, while using supplemental oxygen
c) The pt stores an extra oxygen tank on its side under their bed
i) The pt should store extra oxygen tanks in upright position to maintain safety
d) The pt has a weekly inspection checklist for oxygen equipment
i) The pt or caregiver should inspect oxygen equipment daily

35) A nurse is preparing to apply a dressing for a pt who has a stage 2 pressure injury. Which of the following types of dressing should the nurse use?

a) Alginate
i) Alginate dressings are used to treat stage 3 and 4 pressure injuries to absorb drainage. Alginate forms a soft gel when it comes in contact with drainage
b) Guaze
i) Moistened gauze promotes healing in stage 4 or unstageable pressure injuries by causing debridement and allowing granulation of the wound bed
c) Transparent
i) Transparent dressings promote healing in stage 1 pressure injuries by preventing further friction and shearing
d) Hydrocolloid
i) Hydrocolloid dressings promote healing in stage 2 pressure injuries by creating a moist wound be

36) A nurse is caring for a pt who has a respiratory infection. Which of the following techniques should the nurse use when performing nasotracheal suctioning for the pt?

a) Insert the suction catheter while the pt is swallowing
i) The nurse should insert the suction catheter while the pt is inhaling to avoid inserting the catheter into the esophagus
b) Apply intermittent suction when withdrawing the catheter
i) The nurse should apply intermittent suction during the withdrawal of the catheter to prevent injury to the mucosa. However, suctioning continuously for more t

Question 5: Health Care

A&P – Chapter 7 MC Questions

1) Which of the following bones is NOT part of the axial skeleton? a) Hyoid
b) Ribs
c) Vertebrae d) Carpals e) Sternum

2)   Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?
a)   Tarsals
b)   Tibia
c)   Sphenoid
d)   Scapula
e)   Clavicle

3) Which of the following types of bone is the femur? a) Long bone
b) Short bone c) Flat bone

d) Irregular bone e) Sesamoid bone

4) Which following types of bone is the occipital bone? a) Long bone
b) Short bone c) Flat bone

d) Irregular bone e) Sesamoid bone

5) Which following types of bones comprise the ankles and wrists? a) Long bone
b) Sutural bone c) Irregular bone d) Sesamoid bone e) Short bone

6) An opening or hole in a bone through which blood vessels, nerves and ligaments pass is called

a
a) fissure. b) foramen. c) fossa. d) meatus. e) sulcus.7) In the diagram, which bone is the flat b
a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   E

8) How many named bones are found in the adult human skeleton? a) 200
b) 206 c) 212 d) 227 e) 250

9) In the diagram, which bone is the short bone?

a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   E

10) Which gender shows the coccyx pointed inferiorly? a) Females
b) Males
c) Both genders
d) The coccyx does not point inferiorly in either gender

11) In the diagram, where is the ethmoid bone?

a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   E

12) Which of the vertebrae listed below would be the largest and strongest vertebra in adult humans?
a) C5 b) L4 c) T4 d) C7 e) T12

13) In the diagram, where is the lacrimal bone?

a)   E
b)   F
c)   G
d)   H
e)   I

14) What bone marking found on the second cervical vertebra projects superiorly into the anterior portion of the vertebral foramen of the atlas?
a) Primary projection b) Ocular process c) Odontoid process d) Cervical projection e) Cervix

15) In the diagram, where is the zygomatic bone?
G
b)   H
c)   I
d)   J
e)   None of these answer choices are correct.

16) The primary function of the transverse and spinal processes of vertebrae is a) attachment site for muscles.
b) calcium storage.
c) to support the body of the vertebrae. d) to hold the hyoid in place.

e) to create a passageway for the spinal cord17) In the diagram, where is the temporal bone?
a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   G
e)   None of the selections are correct

18) The two primary curves of the adult vertebral column are the a) thoracic and sacral curves.
b) lumbar and sacral curves. c) cervical and lumbar curves. d) cervical and thoracic curves. e) cervical and sacral curves.

19) In the diagram, where is the vomer?
a)   D
b)   E
c)   F
d)   I
e)   J

20) What is the purpose of the nucleus pulposus region of intervertebral discs? a) To compress the vertebral bones
b) To help absorb vertical shock to the spinal column c) Calcium storage
d) Spinal fluid reservoir e) Muscle attachment

21) In the diagram, which bone is considered the keystone of the cranial floor?
a)   E
b)   B
c)   G
d)   H
e)   I

22) Ribs that have costal cartilage that attaches directly to the sternum are called a) floating ribs.
b) vertebrochondral ribs. c) false ribs.
d) true ribs.
e) separated ribs.

23) In the diagram, where is the ethmoid bone?
a)   J
b)   K
c)   G
d)   H
e)   I

24) Joe was found dead. His hyoid bone was broken. What was the most likely cause of death? a) Natural causes
b) Cardiac arrest c) Gunshot
d) Strangulation e) Choking

25) In the diagram, where is the mastoid process?
a)   J
b)   K
c)   G
d)   H
e)   I

26) The hyoid bone is suspended by ligaments and muscle that extend from the _______ of the temporal bone.
a) mastoid process b) styloid process c) occipital condyle d) zygomatic process e) superior nuchal line

27) In the diagram, where is the palatine bone?
a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   E

28) Which bone of the axial skeleton does NOT articulate with any other bone? a) Vertebrae
b) Ethmoid c) Sternum d) Hyoid e) Ilium

29) In the diagram, where is the nasal bone?

a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   E

30) This facial bone articulates with teeth. a) Lacrimal
b) Palatine c) Vomer d) Maxillae e) Nasal

31) Where is the mandibular notch in the diagram?
a)   A
b)   B
c)   E
d)   F
e)   None of these answer choices are correct.

32) Where is the coronoid process in the diagram?
a)   A
b)   B
c)   E
d)   F
e)   None of these answer choices are correct.

33) This fontanel usually closes within 18 to 24 months after birth.

a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   Both A and C

34) A prominent ridge or elongated projection on a bone is called a a) crest.
b) trochanter. c) sulcus. d) fossa.
e) tubercle.

35) This is largest fontanel in size at birth.

a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   Both A and D36) Where is the spinous process in the diagram?
a)   B
b)   C
c)   D
d)   E
e)   F

37) The tube-like passageway found in the temporal bone that allows sound waves to reach the eardrum is an example of which of the following bone surface markings?
a) fissure. b) foramen. c) fossa. d) meatus. e) sulcus.

38)   Which of the cervical vertebrae contain a unique process that is responsible for the ability to move your head from side to side signifying “no”?
a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   E

39) Which of the following is NOT a facial bone? a) Parietal
b) Nasal c) Maxillae d) Zygomatic e) Palatine

40)   Which of the cervical vertebrae are responsible for permitting the movement of the head seen when saying “yes”?
a)   A
b)   B
c)   C
d)   D
e)   E

41) Which of the following bones is NOT visible from the anterior view of the skull? a) Parietal
b) Frontal c) Mandible d) Occipital e) Maxilla

42) Where is the vertebral body?

a)   C
b)   D
c)   H
d)   I
e)   J

43) These cranial bones contain the organs of hearing and balance, and articulate with the mandible.
a) Frontal b) Temporal c) Parietal d) Occipital e) Nasal

44) Where is the clavicular notch?

a)   A
b)   C
c)   D
d)   B
e)   F

45) Which cranial bone is called the “keystone” of the cranial floor because it articulates with every other cranial bone?
a) Occipital b) Frontal c) Ethmoid d) Nasal e) Sphenoid

46) Where is the sternal angle?
a)   A
b)   C
c)   D
d)   E
e)   F

47) This cranial bone is anterior to the sphenoid and posterior to the nasal bones. It contains foramina for the olfactory cranial nerve.
a) Ethmoid b) Frontal c) Palatine d) Maxilla e) Temporal

Question 6: Biology

(10 pts) Gene Model Checker:

Take a screenshot of your passed gene model checker page for your report (including both the left and right sides of the screen).

Explain any excused failures

(10 pts) Dot Plot

Take a screen shot of your dot plot and paste it into your report.

Discuss any problems with your gene model that you have noticed from the dot plot

(10 pts) Protein Alignment

take a screenshot of the sequence alignment. You may need to scroll down, and break it up into several screen shots to obtain the entire alignment.

does the overall length of your predicted sequence match well to the D. melanogaster orthologue? Are there large gaps (——-) in the alignment? If there are gaps, do these gaps map to a boundary between exons or in the middle of the exon? What can this mean?

(10 pts) GEP UCSC Genome Browser verification

Take of screen shot of the genome browser for your custom gene model and paste it in your report. Take three screen shots: one for the whole gene model (Custom Gene Model), one screenshot for the beginning of the gene and another for the end the gene. Annotate (with an arrow) on the gene the START CODON and THE END CODON.

(10 pts) Conclusions

What do you conclude about your gene in terms of

Number of exons related to its orthologue in melanogaster

The identity and similarity related to its orthologue in melanogaster

Did the gene diverge from its orthologue in melanogaster?

How useful was the melanogaster gene model in figuring out the gene model for your isoform in the D. ananassae contig?

Question 7: Chemistry

How many grams of Cu(NO3)2 includes 96.0 g of oxygen (O) atoms?

Question 8: Physics

An electromagnet of flux equal to 8Wb increases uniformly to 25Wb in a period of 5s. Calculate the voltage induced in a coil having 10 turns and is stationary in the magnetic field.

Question 9: Psychology

Mental& Behavioral Health In Adolescents

What topic and research question did you pursue?
How is your research question relevant to your passions and interests in psychology and to your purpose?
Reflecting on the Library Research Knowledge Assessment, what skill areas were recommended for improvement and what skill areas did you do well on?
What strategies did you use to locate relevant articles?
Did you find Boolean commands (for example, AND, OR) confusing? What tips would you give others for learning these commands?
What insights did you gather about your research question?
What conclusions did you come to about the role of research in your future career vision?

Question 10: Statistics

Mid Semester Assignment

This assignment is to be your own work, though you may discuss the general concepts of the questions (e.g. which formulae are relevant etc.) with other students. Please read the following conditions and sign below to indicate you have followed them.

Conditions of Assessment

By signing below, you certify that:

The answers submitted are your own original work, and that all material drawn from other sources have been fully acknowledged where required.

No part of this assessment was written for you, provided to you by a third party, or was completed as a result of a third party assisting you

You have taken proper and reasonable care to prevent this work from being copied by another student.

You understand that plagiarism is the presentation of the work, idea or creation of another person as though it is your own, and is a serious academic offence. You have read and understood the policy on Academic Conduct and the University Charter of Student Rights.

Name Signature Student Number

This test counts for 20% of your final mark for STAT1520. 2. Total Marks = 100.
3. Where appropriate, working with reasons should be given.

Tick this box if you would like to scrap your test 1 mark and make this assignment worth 25% and test 2 worth 15%.

(20 marks) The daily demand D for vegetarian pies at a bakery ranges between 0 and 5 and has the probability distribution given below.

(a) What is the mean and variance of the demand for vegetarian pies each day? [5 marks]

(b) All baking is done at the start of the day so there is no chance to make more during the day, however the bakery has to throw away any unsold pies at the end of the day.

If the bakery sells vegetarian pies at $4 per pie and they cost $1 each to produce, what is the mean and variance in the profit from vegetarian pies each day, if they make 5 vegetarian pies? [5 marks]

(c) The bakery could make less than 5 pies at the start of the day to reduce wastage but that could possibly leave unfulfilled demand (assume in this question that the only veg- etarian option the bakery makes is these vegetarian pies and so if a customer wants a vegetarian pie and one is not available then they will walk away from the shop and not buy anything).

What is the optimal number of pies (between 1 and 5) to make at the start of the day

in order to maximize expected profit?

[10 marks]

(14 marks) An optometrist sells frames in 3 price levels: $75 per frame, $150 per frame and $250 per frame. Customers purchase 1, 2 or 3 pairs of frames (we will assume that when a customer purchases multiple pairs of frames that they purchase all types from the same level). If X = the number of pairs of frames that a customer buys and Y = the price level at which the customer buys the frames, then the joint distribution of random variables X and Y is given in the table below.

y 75 150 250 pX(x) x

1 2 3

pY (y)

(a) Calculate E(X) and interpret it in the context of this question

(b) Calculate E(Y ) and interpret it in the context of this question (c) Calculate E(XY ) and interpret it in the context of this question

(d) Calculate Cov(X, Y ) and interpret it in the context of this question (e) Are the random variables X and Y independent? Justify your answer.

[3 marks] [3 marks] [3 marks] [3 marks] [2 marks]

0.2

0.1 0.05

0.1 0 0.3 0.2

0 0.05

(20 marks) Let X be the weight of flour (in g) contained in a 1kg bag of flour made by a certain company and assume X ∼ U (980, 1030).

(a) Draw the graph of the pdf of X.

(b) What is the mean and variance of X?

[4 marks] [2 marks] [2 marks]

(d) If I take 20 bags of flour from the production line today, what is the probability that more than 10 of them will weigh less than 1kg? (Assume the weight of each of them follows the same distribution as above.) [4 marks]

(e) The owner of this factory feels that the probability of a bag of flour weighing less than 1kg is too high, and adjusts the flour dispensing machine to try and reduce this probability. She randomly selects 15 bags of flour from the next day’s production and 3 of them are found to weigh less than 1kg. Conduct a hypothesis test to decide if there is enough evidence that she has reduced the probability of a bag of flour containing less than 1kg.

[8 marks]

Note: Parts (d) and (e) require you to use the probability from part (c), if for some reason you could not get an answer for part (c) perhaps pretend the answer to part (c) was 0.5. That is not correct but you will get follow on marks.

(37 marks) Your client is planning to invest some money with your investment company. The client narrows their options down to 2 investment strategies X and Y , and from past experience the annual percentage returns are as follows: X ∼ N(3,12) and Y ∼ N(5,32).

(a) For each investment strategy, calculate the probability of a negative return. [4 marks]

(b) For each investment strategy, calculate the probability of return greater than 5.5%. [4 marks]

(c) Describe the advice you might give to your client about these two investments depending on whether they were risk averse or a risk taker. [2 marks]

(d) Find k such that P(X > k) = P(Y > k) Do not simply solve this by trial and error, you need to show working out as to how your proved this. [4 marks]

(e) Assume that within the same year Cor(X,Y) = 2 and that X and Y are bivariate 3

normal. Remember X and Y being bivariate normal just means that sums of X and Y will still follow a normal distribution. Then answer the following questions:

(i) If your client invests half of their money in each investment type, what are the mean and variance of their annual return? [6 marks]

(ii) If your client invest a fraction k of their money in investment type X and the rest in Y (ie 0 ≤ k ≤ 1), what are the mean and variance of their annual return in terms of k? [5 marks]

(iii) If your client invest a fraction k of their money in investment type X and the rest in Y (ie 0 ≤ k ≤ 1), what value of k makes the probability of their investment achieving a negative return equal to 1%. [6 marks]

Note: this is a very difficult question and will require working with a quadratic function. Just do your best.

(f) If the client was investing the money for 10 years in investment type Y , one way to think

about this would be that the return in the first year is Y1 ∼ N(5,3) and the return in

the 2nd year is Y2 ∼ N(5,3), …, and finally the return in the 10th year is Y10 ∼ N(5,3)

We could then define the average return as AY = Y1+Y2+…+Y10 , assuming the returns are 10

independent from year to year calculate the distribution of this average return for AY . Would you change your advice for the risk averse and risk taking clients that you had in

(c) regarding investment Y if their investment was for 10 years? [6 marks] Note: The geometric average would probably be a better indicator of average return

but that is beyond the scope of this course.

(9 marks) The number of teachers who call in sick on a any given day at a particular school follows a Poisson distribution with a mean of 1.

(a) What is the probability that exactly 1 teacher will call in sick on a given day?
[1 mark]

(b) What is the probability that more than 3 teachers will call in sick on a given day? [1 mark]

(c) If there are 5 schools in a local district and the number of staff calling in sick followed the same distribution as above and we assume that each school is independent of any other school, what distribution does the total number of teachers who call in sick across all schools follow? [2 marks]

(d) When teachers call in sick, the school either rearranges existing teacher’s timetables to cover or has to call in casual relief staff, or a combination of both. The following table shows the expenses incurred by a single school according to the number of teachers who call in sick.

Number sick teachers 0−1 2−3 4 5+ Cost to School $0 $400 $600 $1000

What is the expected daily cost due to sick teachers in a school? [5 marks]

Question 11: Psychology

Instruction

For the Final Project, you will select a person for whom you will complete a diagnostic battery. The person and his/her history should be connected to some legal issue, be it criminal, civil, or juvenile. The person can be a public figure or a fictional character from a book, a movie, or a TV show who is related to the legal process. As you progress through the reading and assignments in the remaining weeks, think about how you might want to develop your Final Project. The Learning Resources, the Discussions, and the Application Assignments all will assist you in completing each section of the Final Project. Your Final Project will contain the following sections: Introduction of the person or the character you are diagnosing Background of the person and presenting information, including the legal issue he or she has encountered Data collection methods (testing, interviews, observation, etc.) Diagnosis Related psychosocial and family issues Related career and vocational issues Proposed treatment and intervention options Continuing assessment and proposed follow-up Potential legal and ethical issues

Question 12: Business

Research the firm advertising the position (https://jobs.netflix.com/jobs/871897). What business and industry are they in? What is their product or service? Find the firm’s 10K information and review section 1. What are the key factors driving their business? What information is relevant regarding customers, competitors, sales, goals, staff, turnover, organizational structure, etc.? Is the firm doing well? Are there recent newsworthy issues regarding this firm or industry? What are trade publications, newspapers, industry publications, and social media saying about the firm/industry overall? Research the compensation package typical of this job for this industry

Question 13: Business

Comment on one of the following two questions: 1) Considering the emerging technologies (AI, Bitcoin, Block chain, High Frequency Trading, etc.) that impact financial decision making, how would you go about recommending any or all of these tools into your company/division/agency? 2) Note that these technologies are all still emerging and with the exception of high frequency trading, none of them is fully implemented on a widespread basis. What are the constraints? What are the major concerns? For example, what would prevent you from dumping your bank account and working entirely with Bitcoin? Would you be comfortable banking at an institution that replaced human tellers with Alexa?

Question 14: Statistics

Assignment #4

A researcher hypothesizes that juveniles will have a greater number of police contacts than will adults. Identify the type of hypothesis and whether a one –tailed or two-tailed test is warranted.
A statement of no difference is known as what type of hypothesis?
If a researcher fails to reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is false, the researcher committed what type of error?
A researcher hypothesizes a difference in disciplinary infractions between a sample of inmates who participated in an anger management program and the population of inmates who did not participate in the program. Write the research and null hypotheses in both text and notational form.

Assignment 3

1. Imagine that we survey a group of student workers at in Hannah Hall and find that the average hourly wage is $14.25 with a standard deviation of $1.80.
a.What is the z-scores for an employee who makes $15.00 per hour?
what is the z-scores for an employee who makes $13.50 per hour?
c. What is the z-scores for an employee who makes $17.50 per hour?

2. Imagine that we survey a group of fire fighters and find that the average annual family income is $67,525. We also find that the standard deviation for these communities is $6,330.
What is the z-scores for a community with a median income of $36,000?
What is the z-scores for a community with a median income of $60,000?

3. Use the table below to answer the questions below:

Column A Z score	Column B Area Between the mean and Z	Column C Area beyond the Z score
.12	.0478	.4522
1.40	.4192	.0808
1.41	.4207	.0793
1.42	.4222	.0778
1.43	.4236	.0762
1.44	.4251	.0749
1.45	.4265	.0735
1.46	.4279	.0721
1.47	.4292	.0708
1.48	.4306	.0694
1.49	.4319	.0681

What is the probability of obtaining a score between z = 1.40 and the mean?
What is the probability of obtaining a score beyond z = 1.48 and the mean?
What is the probability of obtaining a score between z = 1.40 and the mean?
What is the probability of obtaining a score beyond z = .12 and the mean?

The following students are enrolled in a course in a criminal justice class. They are listed along with their year in school and whether they are majoring in criminal justice. Use the information to answer the following questions below:

Student	Year	Criminal Justice Major
1	Sophmore	Yes
2	Senior	No
3	Junior	Yes
4	Freshman	No
5	Freshman	Yes
6	Sophmore	Yes
7	Sophmore	Yes
8	Junior	No
9	Sophmore	Yes
10	Sophmore	No

What is the probability of selecting at random from this class
a sophomore?
a student majoring in sociology?
a freshman or a sophomore?
not a freshman?

What is the probability of any given score falling within the following range?
±1σ from the mean

b.±2σ from the mean

c.±3σ from the mean

Suppose probation officer caseloads have a mean of 115 offenders and a standard deviations of 10. Assuming caseload sizes are normally distributed, determine
the probability that a particular probation officer has a caseload between 90 and 105.
the probability that a particular probation officer has a caseload larger than 135.
the probability that four probation officers have a caseload larger than 135.

Question 15: Sociology

Write an essay over the chapters 8-10. The book is Titled Clothing Poverty: Brooks, A. (2015). Clothing poverty: The hidden world of fast fashion and second-hand clothes.(so that you can locate the book online.)

Mini essays are your chance to analyze and reflect on the topic via your readings. Create a clear thesis statement and craft your essay around supporting and explaining this thesis.

For this essay, you should draw evidence primarily from the book Clothing Poverty.

Your essay should be approximately 600-900 words and should demonstrate that you have completed the book and have engaged in thoughtful consideration of the themes contained within. Essays do not need a title page. They should be single spaced, 12-point font, with a reference list and in-text citations. Students should use APA style for citations (Links to an external site.).

Please upload your essay as a Word doc/docx.

If you are unsure of how to cite something for your reference list, please check Purdue OWL here: https://owl.purdue.edu/owl/research_and_citation/apa_style/apa_formatting_and_style_guide/reference_list_basic_rules.html

Choose a theme from the book Clothing Poverty: The Hidden World of Fast Fashion and Second-hand Clothes.

Please read the three chapters and select a theme based on the readings.

Please use12 font, times new roman, and APA format. Use in text citations as well.

Question 16: History

Which of these two ancient mysteries—King Tut and the Pyramids of Giza—interests you the most? Why?

Share two reasons why you find your choice interesting.
What is it about these two mysteries that have captivated us for centuries?

Question 17: General Question

NSG 6430 Final Exam (2020): South University Graded A Score 100%

Question 18: History

Answer the following essay in about 600-700 words. (40 points). Make sure your organize your essay into paragraphs with a well-stated opening and closing paragraph.

There are forces that are pulling the world together in the 21st century and forces that are pulling it apart. What forces are pulling the world together in the 21st century? How do these forces compare with those pulling it apart? Discuss these two questions and apply two lessons learned from the period of history studied this term.

Question 19: Mathematics

MATH225N Week 8 Final Exam Question and Answers (2 Latest Versions, 2020) : Chamberlain College of Nursing (Already graded A)

Question 20: Nursing

As the school nurse working in a college health clinic, you see many opportunities to promote health. Maria is a 40-year-old Hispanic who is in her second year of nursing school. She complains of a 14-pound weight gain since starting school and is afraid of what this will do to both her appearance and health if the trend continues. After conducting her history, you learn that she is an excellent cook and she and her family love to eat foods that reflect their Hispanic heritage. She is married with two school-age children. She attends class a total of 15 hours per week, plus she must be present for 12 hours of labs and clinical. She maintains the household essentially by herself and does all the shopping, cooking, cleaning, and chauffeuring of the children. She states that she is lucky to get 6 hours of sleep per night, but that is okay with her. She lives 1 hour from campus and commutes each day. Using Healthy People 2020 (Links to an external site.) Links to an external site. and your text as a guide, answer the following questions.

What additional information would you like to gather from Maria?
What are Maria’s real and potential health risks?
Why is Maria’s culture important when obtaining the health assessment?
Pick one of Maria’s health risks. What would be one reasonable short-term goal for this risk?
What nursing interventions would you incorporate into Maria’s plan of care to assist her with meeting your chosen goal? Please provide rationale for your selections.

Question 21: Biology

Why Study Biology?
What is Life?
What About?
How do we ask and answer questions Scientifically?
Role of Experiments
Experimental Design
Experimental Problems
Higher Levels of Organization
Scientific Names
Categories of Biological Classification
Three Domains with Six Kingdoms
1 Eularyotic Domain with 4 Kingdoms
Fungi
Plants
Animals
Animal Cell Features
History of Microscopes & Cells
Cell Theory
Plasma Membrane: Fluid Mosaic Model
Components of Nucleus

Question 22: Accounting

1c. A basic difference between microeconomics and macroeconomics is:

2c. The distinction between positive and normative economics is that:

9d. If the price of computers increases from $1,000 to 1,500, what will happen to the computer market?

10b. In an effort to support family orange growing businesses, the government sets a maximum price of $6 for a gallon of orange juice. The current market price for orange juice is $7 for a gallon. The government’s action will have what effect on the orange juice market?

11d. Producer surplus is the

12e. An improvement in the technology used in the production of automobiles and a decrease in the input costs of production will most likely cause the price and quantity of automobiles to change in which of the following ways?

13c. A decrease in the price of silicon chips (used in computers) and a decrease in tariffs for a computer parts will affect the domestic computer price and quantity in which of the

14e. All of the following might reasonably be expected to shift the demand curve for beef to a new position except

15c. Changes in demand are caused by:

16a. In an effort to support family orange growing business, the government sets a minimum price of $6 for a gallon of orange juice. The current market price for orange juice is $5 for a gallon. The government‘s actions will have what effect on the orange juice market?

17d. A firm increases the price of its product and finds that its total revenue increases. Which of the following best describes why this happened?

18d. If a firm faces a relatively inelastic demand for its product and the price of the product drops, the firm can expect that

19b. Using the above graph, if the market for frankfurters is left unregulated, the market

20d. If the government were to establish an effective price ceiling as indicated in the graph, the market price and quantity sold would be:

21e. If the government were to establish an effective price ceiling as indicated in the graph, the result would be a

22e. If there were no government interference in this market, and the market equilibrium price and quantity were to prevail, the consumer surplus would be the area

23d. If there were no government interference in this market and the market equilibrium price and quantity were to prevail, the producer surplus would be the area

24d. If the price of lunch at a school cafeteria increases and the cafeteria’s revenue increases, the elasticity of demand for a school lunch must be

25c. Assuming that good A and good B currently sell at the same price. Good A is more elastic than good B. Both goods A and B experience a 10% increase in price, then:

26a. In the long run, a perfectly competitive firm will achieve all BUT which of the following:

27e. On the graph above, what is the area of total revenue at the profit-maximizing price?

28c. On the graph above, what is the area of total cost at the profit-maximizing quantity?

29c. The area of deadweight loss or welfare loss to society at the profit-maximizing price and quantity is:

The monopoly maximizes total revenue at quantity:

31c. Frictional unemployment is

33b. Investment spurs growth of potential output because it increases

34a. Technological improvement causes

36c. Suppose that the government increases spending by $100 billion. If everything else stays constant and the marginal propensity to consume is 0.8, the value of equilibrium output increases by

37a. If the economy is currently on the intermediate section of the SRAS curve, when aggregate demand increases,

38c. An expansionary fiscal policy would be the one that

39e. Aggregate demand reflects the willingness and capability of which of the following to purchase a quantity of goods and services at any price level?

40d. An increase in the price level will

41a. If $100 billion were added to an economy through government spending and the marginal propensity to save is 25, what would be the maximum increase in output in the economy?

43e. If firms entering an industry that is monopolistically competitive, we would expect

44c. To decrease the money supply, the FED can

45a. In the short run, combining an expansionary fiscal policy with a tight money policy is most likely to cause

47c. In the short run, how will an increase in aggregate demand most likely affect the overall price level and real GDP?

49b. When inflation rises quickly:

50d. Use this information to answer the next question. All numbers are in millions.

What is the unemployment rate for the nation?

Question 23: Accounting

1)   The financial system is primarily a means by which   1)
A)   funds are transferred from savers to borrowers.
B)   the government puts into operation its plans for the economy.
C)   business firms distribute their goods.
D)   money is put into circulation.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
2)   Which of the following is NOT a financial asset?   2)
A)   Wells Fargo Bank   B) a home mortgage loan
C) a certificate of deposit   D) a bond issued by Google
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 2
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
3)   If you buy a bond issued by Intel, the bond is a(n):   3)
A)   liability to both you and Intel.   B) asset to both you and Intel.
C) liability to you and an asset to Intel.   D) liability to Intel and an asset to you.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
4)   Which of the following forms the largest share of household holdings of financial assets?   4)
A)   corporate equities   B) life insurance
C) bank deposits   D) pension funds reserves
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 9
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
5)   Which of the following is NOT a key financial service provided by the financial system?
A)   profitability   B) risk sharing   C) information   D) liquidity
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12-‐13 Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

6)   Economists define risk as
A)   the difference between the return on common stock and the return on corporate bonds.
B)   the chance that the value of financial assets will change from what you expect.
C)   the difference between the interest rate borrowers pay and the interest rate lenders receive.
D)   the ease with which an asset can be exchanged for other assets or for goods and services.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 12
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
7)   Economists define liquidity as
A)   the ease with which an asset can be exchanged for money.
B)   the fraction the asset makes up of an investor’ʹs portfolio.
C)   the difference between the return on the asset and the return on a long-‐term U.S. Treasury bond.
D)   the difference between the total demand for an asset and the total supply of the asset.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
8)   Which of the following assets is the most liquid?
A)   computer   B) U.S. Treasury bond
C) washing machine   D) money market mutual fund
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
9)   By providing and communicating information, the financial system
A)   reduces the difference between the return on three-‐month U.S. Treasury bills and the return on thirty-‐year U.S. Treasury bonds.
B)   relieves individual savers from the necessity of searching out individual borrowers.
C)   guarantees investors a reasonable return on their money.
D)   eliminates the risk in investing in the stock market.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13-‐14 Topic:
financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
10)   Financial securities that represent partial ownership of a corporation are known as
A)   bonds.   B) dividends.   C) stocks.   D) coupons.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 3

Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
11)   Securitization is the process of   11)
A)   issuing stocks to finance capital spending.
B)   converting loans into securities.
C)   issuing bonds to finance purchases of equipment and structures.
D)   reducing risk by decreasing corporate debt loads.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
12)   If a bank grants you a mortgage, the mortgage is
A)   an asset to you as well as an asset to the bank. B)a liability to you as well as a liability to the bank.
C)   a liability to you, but an asset to the bank. D) an asset to you, but a liability to the bank.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4 Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

13)   Financial markets   13)
A)   act as go-‐between by holding a portfolio of assets and issuing claims based on that portfolio to savers.
B)   channel funds indirectly between borrowers and lenders.
C)   channel funds directly from lenders to borrowers.
D)   generally provide lenders with lower returns than do financial intermediaries.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 4 Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

14)   If you purchase a Treasury bond, the Treasury bond is   14)
A)   a liability to you, but an asset to the U.S. government.
B)   a liability to you as well as a liability to the U.S. government.
C)   an asset to you as well as an asset to the U.S. government.
D)   an asset to you, but a liability to the U.S. government.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

15)   Which president said, “ʺProsperity is just around the corner”ʺ?
A)   Franklin Delano Roosevelt near the start of the Great Depression
B)   George W. Bush near the start of the Great Recession
C)   Herbert Hoover near the start of the Great Depression
D)   Barack Obama near the start of the Great Recession
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 1
Topic: financial crisis of 2007-‐2009
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

16)   Funds flow from lenders to borrowers
A)   primarily through government agencies.
B)   indirectly through financial intermediaries.
C)   indirectly through financial markets.
D)   directly through financial intermediaries.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
17)   Which of the following is NOT a financial intermediary?
A)   Vanguard Total Stock Market Index Fund
B)   Bank of America
C)   NASDAQ
D)   Allstate Insurance Company
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
18)   Which of the following is NOT a financial intermediary?
A)   bank   B) stock exchange
C) mutual fund   D) insurance company
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
19)   The main role of financial intermediaries is to
A)   provide advice to consumers on how they should handle their finances.
B)   provide funds to the federal government to cover the budget deficit.
C)   help ensure that there is enough money in circulation.
D)   borrow funds from savers and lend them to borrowers.

20)   Financial intermediaries
A)   include the New York and American Stock exchanges.
B)   directly issue claims on individual borrowers to savers.
C)   include banks and other depository institutions.
D)   are owned and operated by the federal government.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

21)   A “ʺprimary market”ʺ is a market
A)   in which newly issued claims are sold by savers to borrowers.
B)   for debt by large or “ʺprimary”ʺ corporations.
C)   in which newly issued claims are sold to buyers by borrowers.
D)   for government securities.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 9
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
22)   A bank lending depositors’ʹ money to a local business and a pension fund investing contributions in shares of a company are similar financial activities in that
A)   both involve a reduction in the overall level of liquidity in the financial system.
B)   both involve in an increase in the overall level of risk in the financial system.
C)   both involve the use of financial markets.
D)   both involve funds being channeled from savers to borrowers through financial intermediaries.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4, 8 Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
23)   The leading federal regulatory body for financial markets in the United States is the A) Securities and Exchange Commission.   B) Federal Financial Market Bureau.
C) Investors Protection Agency.   D) Federal Bureau of Investigation.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 10

Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
24)   Economists define money as 24)
A)   cash in circulation.
B)   bonds issued by large corporations.
C)   anything that people are willing to accept in payment for goods and services or to pay off debts.
D)   deposits in commercial banks.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 3

Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

25)   The Federal Reserve System   25)
A)   is headed by the Secretary of the Treasury.
B)   is the central bank of the United States.
C)   is in charge of managing the New York Stock Exchange.

D) is responsible for conducting fiscal policy for the United States.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11
Topic: Federal Reserve
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

26)   Monetary policy refers to the government’s   26)
A)   plans for retiring the national debt.
B)   management of the money supply and interest rates to achieve macroeconomic objectives.

C)   decisions on how much money to collect in taxes.
D)   decisions on how much money to spend.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 11 Topic: Federal Reserve
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

27)   Diversification refers to the   27)
A)   difference between the liquidity of an asset and its risk.
B)   difficulty of converting investments in common stocks into investments in bonds.
C)   difficulty of selling common stocks in a weak market.
D)   splitting of wealth into many assets.

28)   The purpose of diversification is to
A)   increase the liquidity of a financial portfolio.
B)   reduce tax liability.
C)   reduce risk.
D)   reduce the brokerage fees involved in managing a financial portfolio.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
29)   The financial system provides risk sharing by allowing A) borrowers to obtain funds either directly or indirectly.
B)   savers to earn interest tax-‐free.
C)   savers to hold many assets.
D)   borrowers to convert liabilities into assets.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
30)   Liquidity
A)   was declining for many financial assets during the 1990s.
B)   is a characteristic of money, and of no other asset.
C)   is the ease with which an asset can be exchanged for money.
D)   is the best available measure of the riskiness of an asset.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
31)   Which of the following assets is the least liquid?
A)   treasury bond   B) stock
C) money market mutual fund   D) house
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
32)   Increased liquidity in recent decades has reduced interest rates on which of the following assets (holding constant all other things that affect interest rates)?
A)   bonds issued by state governments   B) business loans
C) U.S. government bonds   D) bonds issued by large corporations

33)   The financial system performs the role of communicating information by   33)
A)   incorporating all available information into the prices of financial assets.
B)   constantly increasing the liquidity of most assets.
C)   providing to investors for a nominal charge all government reports available about a particular company.
D)   constantly reducing the riskiness of most assets.

34)   The distinguishing feature of a well-‐functioning financial market is the
A)   continual reduction in the riskiness of most assets.
B)   increased ease of converting common stocks into bonds.
C)   continual increase in the liquidity of most assets.
D)   incorporation of available information into asset prices.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 14
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
35)   In the United States, monetary policy is carried out by
A)   the Federal Reserve System.
B)   Congress and the President acting together.
C)   the President.
D)   Congress.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 11
Topic: Federal Reserve
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

36)   In the United States, the lender of last resort is
A)   Fannie Mae.
B)   Securities and Exchange Commission.
C)   the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
D)   the Federal Reserve.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 11 Topic: Federal Reserve
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
37)   A decline in bank lending has the most significant effect on
A)   large businesses.   B) federal government.
C) small businesses.   D) state governments.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 6
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

38)   What made the recession of 2007-‐2009 different than any other recession since the Great Depression?
A)   it was accompanied by a financial crisis
B)   the Fed failed to reduce interest rates
C)   the impact was primarily limited to the financial sector
D)   the government did not implement a fiscal stimulus
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 1
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
39)   All of the following took place during the economic crisis that began in 2007 EXCEPT:
A)   there was a devastating decline in the production of goods and services throughout the economy
B)   large portions of the U.S. economy were cut off from the funds they needed to thrive
C)   the financial system was disrupted
D)   unlike households, most businesses still had easy access to funds
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 1
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
40)   Owners of small firms in countries with weak banking systems have to rely on funds from all of the following EXCEPT:
A)   the savings of relatives and friends
B)   their own savings
C)   global investors
D)   local lenders who charge high interest rates

41)   All of the following accurately describe microlending EXCEPT:
A)   it involves small loans
B)   lending is primarily undertaken by the government
C)   many economists think it has aided economic growth in many low-‐income countries
D)   the borrowers are people who are attempting to start or expand a small business

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6 Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

42)   Which of the following does NOT describe the relationship between banks and small business during the 2000s (prior to the financial crisis)?
A)   Many small businesses were receiving loans from regional and national banks.
B)   Fewer small businesses received loans as banks shifted their focus to mortgages.
C)   More banks became convinced that it would be profitable to loosen their loan guidelines to make more borrowers eligible to receive credit.
D)   Banks typically applied fixed guidelines for granting loans, leaving little room for personal judgment.

Diff: 2   Page Ref: 7 Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
43)   The process by which investment banks guarantee a certain price to a firm issuing stocks or bonds is known as:
A)   securitization   B) underwriting
C) proprietary trading   D) microlending
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 8
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
44)   Investment banks do NOT engage in which of the following?
A)   securitization   B) proprietary trading
C) underwriting   D) lending to households
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 8
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
45)   All of the following represent returns to savers EXCEPT:
A)   coupon payments on bonds   B) interest on deposits
C) dividends on stocks   D) fees on loans

46)   Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac both   50)
A)   help regulate the banking system.
B)   reduce access to funds for mortgages by purchasing existing mortgages.
C)   sell bonds to investors and use the funds to purchase mortgages.
D)   directly lend funds to people seeking mortgages.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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51)   All of the following are examples of risky mortgages that became more common in the 2000s EXCEPT
A)   alt-‐A mortgages.
B)   mortgages requiring down payments of at least 20%.
C)   adjustable-‐rate mortgages with low rates for a few years and then higher rates in later years.
D)   subprime mortgages.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
52) Which of the following best describes a “ʺbubble”ʺ?
A) when bond prices rise more quickly than stock prices B)an unsustainable increase in the price of a class of assets

C) when the price of an asset reaches a new high D) rapid increases in inflation

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

53)   All of the following were significant changes in the mortgage market in the 2000s EXCEPT
A)   lenders loosened lending standards.
B)   borrowers tended to increase the amount of their down payments.
C)   mortgage-‐backed securities became more popular with investors.
D)   investment banks became significant participants in the secondary mortgage market.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15-‐16 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
54)   Which type of borrowers were least likely to default in their mortgage at the beginning of the financial crisis?
A)   those with fixed-‐rate mortgages who made large down payments
B)   those with adjustable-‐rate mortgages
C)   subprime borrowers
D)   those with alt-‐A loans
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
55)   The Troubled Asset Relief Program (TARP) allowed   55)
A)   the Fed to make loans to banks as the lender of last resort.
B)   the Treasury to inject funds into commercial banks in return for stock in the banks.

C) the Fed to provide funds to commercial banks in return for stock.
D) the Treasury to insure bank deposits at major U.S. banks.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

56)   Which firm did the Treasury allow to fail during the financial crisis?   56)
A)   J.P. Morgan   B) American International Group (AIG)
C) Bear Stearns   D) Lehman Brothers
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

57)   Alt-‐A borrowers were those who
A)   borrowed using “ʺinterest-‐only”ʺ mortgages.
B)   did not provide documentation of their income when applying for a mortgage.
C)   chose adjustable-‐rate mortgages instead of fixed-‐rate mortgages.
D)   used mortgages to purchase apartments.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
58)   The financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 worsened after the failure of which firm?
A)   American International Group (AIG)   B) General Motors
C) Bear Stearns   D) Lehman Brothers
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
59)   At the beginning of the financial crisis, banks were hurt by all of the following EXCEPT
A)   declines in the value of mortgage-‐backed securities.
B)   holding too many Treasury bonds.
C)   defaults on mortgages by those with subprime mortgages.
D)   not being repaid on loans to real estate developers.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

60)   Borrowers who stated but did not document their incomes are referred to as:   60)
A)   alt A   B) securitized   C) adjustable   D) subprime
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 16
Topic: financial crisis of 2007-‐2009
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

61)   The Fed and Treasury took action to restore the flow of funds from savers to borrowers in order to   61)
encourage all of the following EXCEPT:
A)   increase the likelihood of purchases of houses
B)   allow firms to finance purchases of structures and equipment
C)   increase the return to savers
D)   enable households to purchase durable goods
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

Chapter 2

1)   An important reason why economies at an early stage of development tend to operate inefficiently   1) is
A)   they tend to have authoritarian governments that stifle innovation.
B)   they tend to be dominated by the agricultural sector, where productivity is usually low.
C)   the high transactions costs associated with barter.
D)   they tend to be plagued by superstitious beliefs that stifle innovation.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

2)   By “ʺspecialization”ʺ economists mean a situation where 2)
A)   goods are traded directly for goods and money is not used.
B)   individuals produce the goods or services for which they have relatively the best ability.
C)   individuals who produce goods do not also produce services and individuals who produce services do not also produce goods.
D)   individuals are assigned to occupations on the basis of tests that gauge their relative abilities.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 26
Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system

AACSB: Reflective Thinking

3)   The most important economic benefit from specialization is that it   3)
A)   eliminates the need for financial markets.
B)   makes it possible for an economy to begin using money.
C)   makes barter possible.
D)   leads to an increase in the standard of living in an economy.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 26
Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
4)   When an economy relies on specialization,   4)
A)   each individual in the economy produces the goods or services for which he or she has relatively the best ability.
B)   the economy will usually be heavily agricultural.
C)   each individual will be assigned by the government to produce that good or service the government believes the economy should specialize in. D) the economy will generally produce only one product.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 26 Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

5)   Fundamentally, to reap the benefits of specialization, an economy must   5)
A)   have an extensive system of higher education.
B)   develop ways for individuals to trade goods with one another.
C)   be heavily agricultural.
D)   be heavily industrial.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 26
Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
6)   Barter is   6)
A)   the basis for economic specialization.
B)   the main system of exchange in the United States today.
C)   another name for money.
D)   an exchange of goods and services directly for goods and services.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
7)   Under a system of barter   7)

A)   currency is accepted for purchases, but personal checks are not.
B)   goods may be traded for money, but money may not be traded for goods.
C)   each individual trades output directly with another.
D)   only agricultural goods may be traded.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

8)   Which of the following is an example of a barter transaction? 8)
A)   An individual pays her electric bill with a check.
B)   An individual provides three light bulbs to her neighbor in exchange for two gallons of milk.
C)   An individual pays her electric bill with currency.
D)   An individual deposits three twenty-‐dollar bills in her checking account.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
9)   In a barter system individuals   9)
A)   will almost invariably specialize.
B)   find it impossible to specialize.
C)   find it difficult to specialize, but may be able to do so.
D)   must be entirely self-‐sufficient.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

10)   A system of barter has substantial transactions costs because 10)
A)   the uncertainties of trade result in high legal fees being incurred to draw up binding contracts.
B)   taxes under such a system are generally a large fraction of the value of output.
C)   the uncertainties of trade result in high insurance premiums.
D)   traders must spend considerable time searching for trading partners.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

11) Under a barter system
A) each good has a single price.
C) no prices for goods exist.

B) prices for goods are very stable.
D) each good has many prices.Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

12) How many prices would there be in a barter economy with 100 goods? 12)
A) 100 B) 1,000 C) 10,000 D) 4,950

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

13)   The problem of a double coincidence of wants refers to13)
A)   poorly-‐managed companies producing what consumers want only by coincidence.
B)   the likelihood that needs will not be the same as wants.
C)   the insatiability of wants in a free market economy.
D)   the necessity in a barter system of each trading partner wanting what the other has to trade.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

14)   Andy can’t make a deal with Danny. Andy has a Alex Rodriguez baseball card and would like to trade it to Danny for Danny’ʹs Albert Pujols card, but Danny doesn’ʹt want a Alex Rodriquez card. Andy’ʹs problem illustrates the drawback to a barter system known as A) the specialization problem.
B)   the transactions problem.
C)   the many prices problem.
D)   the double coincidence of wants problem.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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15)   Which of the following is NOT a significant cost that a barter system imposes on an economy?
A)   Many prices must be maintained for each good.
B)   The costs arising from the problem of finding two people who each want what the other produces.
C)   Specialization of labor is hindered.
D)   Only agricultural goods may be traded.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
16)   Which of the following is the most efficient means of trade?
A)   government rationing
B)   barter
C)   money
D)   the combination of barter with some government rationing
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
17)   In Moscow in 1989, what were taxi drivers using as a medium of exchange?
A)   Marlboro cigarettes   B) Russian rubles
C) gold coins   D) caviar

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 26 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

18)   Money eliminates the need for
A)   people to have a double coincidence of wants.
B)   specialization.
C)   the market system.
D)   any government role in the economy.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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19)   Using a good as a medium of exchange confers the benefit that   19)
A)   the need for specialization is reduced.
B)   the need for a double coincidence of wants is greatly increased.
C)   the need to quote so many prices in trade is reduced.
D)   transactions costs are increased, but they now may be paid in money terms.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

20)   Commodity money can best be described as   20)
A)   standardized goods like gold that trade in a financial market
B)   a good used as money that also has value independent of its use as money C) the form of money used in a barter system
D) money used to purchase agricultural products
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

21) Which of the following is NOT a problem with barter? 21)
A) the commodity money having value for other uses besides money B) each good has multiple prices C) high transactions costs
D) lack of standardization of products exchanged
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

22)   The introduction of money to an economy results in:   22)
A)   a more efficient barter system   B) higher productivity
C) increased specialization   D) higher incomes
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 26 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
23)   Money can BEST be described as:   23)
A)   anything that is generally accepted as payment for goods and services or in the settlement of debts.
B)   any form of wealth possessed by consumers
C)   commodities that have intrinsic value
D)   paper that can be used to purchase goods and services
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 24 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

24) Money is a medium of exchange in that 26)

A)   it must maintain most of its value over time.
B)   other assets may be better or worse in facilitating exchange than money.
C)   currency may be exchanged for gold at any national bank.
D)   money is generally accepted for buying and selling goods and services.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

27)   Money as a medium of exchange refers only to
A)   checks at commercial banks.
B)   currency.
C)   anything that is generally accepted as payment for goods and services.
D)   gold coins.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking
28)   When economists refer to the role of money as a unit of account, they mean that
A)   money gives traders a way of measuring value in the economy.
B)   most accounting systems reflect that goods are purchased with currency.
C)   most accounting systems reflect that goods are purchased with checks.
D)   money makes it possible for specialization to take place.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

29)   When economists refer to the role of money as a store of value, they mean that
A)   the value of money falls only when the quantity of money in circulation falls.
B)   the value of money falls only when the quantity of money in circulation rises.
C)   money never loses its value, unlike other assets.
D)   money allows value to be stored easily.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking
30)   An asset is
A)   the same thing as a liability.   B) money, as opposed to stock or bonds.

C) anything that never declines in value. D) a thing of value that can be owned.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 28 Topic: functions of money

Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

31)   The attribute that distinguishes money from other assets is that only money   31)
A)   may be used as collateral for a bank loan.
B)   serves as a medium of exchange.
C)   is counted in determining the size of an individual’ʹs wealth.
D)   retains its value during times of inflation.
Diff: 1   Page Ref: 28
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

32)   Wealth is
A)   equal to income.
B)   a flow variable.
C)   the sum of the value of assets.
D)   the sum of the value of assets minus value of liabilities.
Diff: 2   Page Ref: 28
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking
33)   The difference between money and income is that whereas income is an individual’ʹs
A)   stock of all assets, money is an individual’s stock of currency and currency substitutes. B) stock of currency and currency substitutes, money is an individual’ʹs stock of all assets.
C)   flow of earnings over a period of time, money is an individual’ʹs stock of all assets.
D)   flow of earnings over a period of time, money is an individual’ʹs stock of currency and currency substitutes.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 28 Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

Question 24: Economics

Real wages in the United States in the long run:
A. show no discernible relationship to output per worker.
B. have increased at about the same rate as increases in output per worker.
C. have increased slower than increases in output per worker.
D. have increased faster than increases in output per worker.
The long-run trend of real wages:
A. cannot be determined from available data on nominal wages and the price level.
B. has been downward because the price level has risen faster than nominal wages.
C. has been upward.
D. has been downward because labor’s share of the domestic income has fallen.
If the nominal wages of carpenters rose by 5 percent in 2010 and the price level increased by 3 percent, then the real wages of carpenters:
A. decreased by 2 percent.
B. increased by 2 percent.
C. increased by 3 percent.
D. increased by 8 percent.
Over the long run, real earnings per worker can increase only at about the same rate as the economy’s rate of growth of:
A. total output.
B. stock of capital.
C. output per worker.
D. international trade.
Increases in the productivity of labor result partly from:
A. the law of diminishing returns.
B. improvements in technology.
C. reductions in wage rates.
D. increases in the quantity of labor.

The real wage will rise if the nominal wage:
A. falls more rapidly than the general price level.
B. increases at the same rate as labor productivity.
C. increases more rapidly than the general price level.
D. falls at the same rate as the general price level.
The productivity and real wages of workers in industrially advanced economies have risen historically partly because:
A. workers have acquired less education and training over time.
B. workers have been able to use larger quantities of capital equipment.
C. over time the capital equipment used by workers has deteriorated in quality.
D. the supply of labor has increased.
If the nominal wage rises by 4 percent, and the price level rises by 7 percent, the real wage will:
A. be unaffected.
B. rise by 3 percent.
C. fall by 3 percent.
D. rise by 11 percent.
If the nominal wage rises by 6 percent, and the price level falls by 2 percent, the real wage will:
A. be unaffected.
B. rise by 4 percent.
C. fall by 4 percent.
D. rise by 8 percent.
Marginal revenue product (MRP) of labor refers to the:
A. increase in total revenue resulting from the sale of an additional unit of output.
B. amount by which a firm’s total resource cost increases when it employs one more unit of labor.
C. increase in total revenue resulting from the hire of one more unit of labor.
D. price at which additional units of labor can be employed in a monopsonized labor market.
Marginal resource cost refers to the:
A. increase in total revenue resulting from the sale of the extra output of one more worker.
B. price at which additional units of a resource can be hired in an imperfectly competitive resource market.
C. increase in total cost resulting from the production of one more unit of output.
D. amount by which a firm’s total resource cost increases as the result of hiring one more unit of the resource.

If a firm is hiring a certain type of labor under purely competitive conditions:
A. its labor demand curve will be perfectly elastic at the market-determined wage rate.
B. the labor supply curve will lie above the marginal labor cost curve.
C. the labor supply and marginal labor (resource) cost curves will coincide and be upsloping.
D. the labor supply and marginal labor (resource) cost curves will coincide and be perfectly elastic.
The market supply curve for labor is upsloping because:
A. of diminishing returns.
B. of the opportunity cost of labor in housekeeping, leisure, or alternative employments.
C. of declining MRC.
D. each employer is a “wage taker.”
A firm operating in a purely competitive resource market faces a resource supply curve that is:
A. perfectly inelastic.
B. perfectly elastic.
C. highly inelastic.
D. highly elastic.
A firm that is hiring labor in a purely competitive labor market and selling its product in a purely competitive product market will maximize its profit by hiring labor until:
A. marginal revenue product is zero.
B. marginal revenue product exceeds marginal resource (labor) cost by the greatest amount.
C. marginal resource cost is zero.
D. marginal revenue product equals marginal resource (labor) cost.
A profit-maximizing firm will:
A. expand employment if marginal revenue product exceeds marginal resource cost.
B. reduce employment if marginal revenue product exceeds marginal resource cost.
C. expand employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
D. reduce employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
A profit-maximizing firm will:
A. expand employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
B. reduce employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
C. reduce employment if marginal revenue product is less than marginal resource cost.
D. expand employment if marginal revenue product is less than marginal resource cost.

A firm hiring labor in a perfectly competitive labor market faces a:
A. downsloping labor supply curve and upsloping labor demand curve.
B. upsloping labor supply curve and downsloping labor demand curve.
C. upsloping labor supply curve and horizontal labor demand curve.
D. horizontal labor supply curve and downsloping labor demand curve.

Refer to the above data. If there is neither a union nor a minimum wage, we can conclude that this firm:
A. “purchases” labor in purely competitive labor market.
B. is a monopsonist.
C. faces a perfectly inelastic labor supply curve.
D. has a perfectly elastic labor demand curve.

Refer to the above data. In maximizing its profit, this firm will employ:
A. 2 units of labor.
B. 3 units of labor.
C. 4 units of labor.
D. 5 units of labor.

Refer to the above data. At the profit maximizing level of employment, this firm’s total labor cost will be:
A. $16.
B. $30.
C. $24.
D. $32.

Refer to the above data. At the profit maximizing level of employment, this firm’s total revenue will be:
A. $16.
B. $32.
C. $24.
D. $30.

Refer to the above diagrams. The firm:
A. is a monopsonist in the hiring of labor.
B. must be selling its product in an imperfectly competitive market.
C. is a “wage taker.”
D. must pay a higher marginal resource cost for each successive worker.

Refer to the above diagrams. The firm:
A. has a principal-agent problem.
B. has a constant marginal resource cost of $5.
C. has a marginal resource cost that exceeds the wage rate for each worker.
D. will fail to maximize profits if it hires 5 workers.

Refer to the above diagrams. The profit-maximizing firm’s total wage cost:
A. is 0abc.
B. is 0Wbc.
C. is Wab.
D. cannot be determined.

Refer to the above diagrams. The profit-maximizing firm’s total revenue:
A. is 0abc.
B. is 0Wbc.
C. is Wab.
D. cannot be determined.

Refer to the above diagrams. At the profit-maximizing level of employment for this firm, the amount available to pay to nonlabor resources:
A. is 0abc.
B. is 0Wbc.
C. is Wab.
D. cannot be determined.

The individual firm in a purely competitive labor market faces:
A. a perfectly elastic labor supply curve and a downsloping labor demand curve.
B. a perfectly elastic labor demand curve and an upsloping labor supply curve.
C. labor demand and labor supply curves both of which are perfectly elastic.
D. a downsloping labor demand curve and an upsloping labor supply curve.

Refer to the above data. This firm’s product price is:
A. $2.
B. $3.
C. $4.
D. $16.

Refer to the above data. The marginal revenue product of the second worker is:
A. $16.
B. $32.
C. $8.
D. $4.

Refer to the above data. The marginal revenue product of the fourth worker is:
A. $8.
B. $52.
C. $2.
D. $4.

Refer to the above data. We can conclude from the information given that this firm is a:
A. pure monopolist.
B. discriminating monopolist.
C. monopolistic competitor.
D. pure competitor.

Refer to the above data. If the market wage rate is $8, this firm will employ:
A. 2 workers.
B. 3 workers.
C. 4 workers.
D. 5 workers.

Refer to the above data. If the market wage rate is $8 and the firm hires its profit-maximizing number of workers, the firm’s total wage bill (payment) will be:
A. $16.
B. $24.
C. $32.
D. $48.

Refer to the above data. If the market wage rate is $8 and the firm hires its profit-maximizing number of workers, the firm’s total revenue will exceed its total wage payment by:
A. $20.
B. $16.
C. $12.
D. $8.

Refer to the above data. If this firm can hire as few or many workers as it wants at $8, it is:
A. hiring labor in a monopsony labor market.
B. hiring labor in a purely competitive labor market.
C. selling its product in a monopolized product market.
D. selling its product in a purely competitive product market.

Refer to the above list. The outcome in a purely competitive labor market is shown by:
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.

Refer to the above list. The outcome in a monopsony labor market is shown by:
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.

The labor supply curve facing a purely competitive employer is __________ whereas the labor supply curve facing a monopsonist is _________.
A. upsloping; horizontal
B. downsloping; vertical
C. vertical; upsloping
D. horizontal; upsloping

The economic term for a firm that is the sole buyer in a market is:
A. monopsonist.
B. monopolist.
C. bilateral competitor.
D. bilateral monopolist.

In a monopsonistic labor market the employer will maximize profits by employing workers up to that point at which:
A. the difference between the wage rate and marginal resource (labor) cost is at a maximum.
B. marginal revenue product equals marginal resource (labor) cost.
C. the wage rate equals marginal revenue product.
D. the wage rate equals marginal resource (labor) cost.

A firm can hire six workers at a wage rate of $8 per hour but must pay $9 per hour to all of its employees to attract a seventh worker. The marginal wage cost of the seventh worker is:
A. $9.
B. $10.
C. $15.
D. $21.

Suppose the MRP of a firm’s twelfth worker is $22 and the worker’s marginal wage cost is $16. We can say with certainty that the firm:
A. is hiring labor in a competitive labor market at a wage rate of $16.
B. is hiring labor in a monopsonistic labor market.
C. will find it profitable to hire fewer workers.
D. will find it profitable to hire more workers.

In monopsony:
A. each firm employs a small portion of the total supply of labor.
B. the work force is highly mobile.
C. the wage rate paid by the employer varies directly with the number of workers employed.
D. the employer is a “wage taker.”

Which of the following is most likely to be an example of monopsony?
A. The market for fast-food workers in a large summer resort town.
B. The market for card dealers in Las Vegas.
C. The market for major league baseball umpires.
D. The market for retail sales clerks in a major city.

If a firm faces an upsloping labor supply curve (and there is no union or minimum wage), its:
A. MRC curve is also upsloping.
B. MRC curve is perfectly elastic.
C. MRP curve is perfectly inelastic.
D. MRP curve is also upsloping.

A monopsonist’s wage cost in hiring an additional worker is the:
A. worker’s wage rate.
B. worker’s wage rate plus the wage increases paid to all workers already employed.
C. worker’s wage rate adjusted for the lower price that must be charged for the extra output.
D. marginal wage cost less the wage rate.

A monopsonistic employer:
A. has a perfectly elastic labor supply curve.
B. is necessarily a monopolist in the product market.
C. confronts a marginal resource (labor) cost that is greater than the wage rate.
D. confronts a marginal resource (labor) cost that is less than the wage rate.

Other things equal, the monopsonistic employer will pay a:
A. lower wage rate and hire fewer workers than will a purely competitive employer.
B. higher wage rate but hire fewer workers than will a purely competitive employer.
C. lower wage rate but hire a larger number of workers than will a purely competitive employer.
D. higher wage rate and hire a larger number of workers than will a purely competitive employer.

A monopsonistic employer in an unorganized (nonunion) labor market will:
A. pay a wage rate less than labor’s MRP.
B. pay the same wage rate but hire fewer workers than if the market was purely competitive.
C. hire the number of workers indicated by the intersection of the MRC and the labor supply curves.
D. pay a wage rate in excess of labor’s MRP.

As compared to a purely competitive labor market, in a nonunionized monopsonistic labor market wages:
A. and employment will both be lower.
B. will be higher, but employment will be lower.
C. will be lower, but employment will be higher.
D. and employment will both be higher.

“Player drafts” of professional athletes:
A. increase the competitiveness of the labor market for professional athletes.
B. reduce the profitability of professional sports franchises.
C. promote monopsony in the hire of professional athletes.
D. increase salaries of professional athletes.

Which of the following is not correct?
A. Other things equal, a monopsonist will pay a lower wage rate than will a firm hiring labor competitively.
B. A monopsonistic employer will pay workers a wage rate equal to their MRP.
C. A purely competitive seller will pay workers a wage rate equal to their MRP.
D. An imperfectly competitive seller will employ additional workers as long as the MRP of additional workers exceeds their MRC.

A monopsonistic employer’s marginal resource (labor) cost curve:
A. is always more elastic than the labor supply curve.
B. coincides with the labor supply curve.
C. lies below the labor supply curve because the higher wage paid to an additional worker must also be paid to all other employed workers.
D. lies above the labor supply curve because the higher wage paid to an additional worker must also be paid to all other employed workers.

The critical feature of a monopsonistic labor market is that the employer:
A. has a perfectly elastic demand curve for labor.
B. can hire any number of workers it chooses at the going wage rate.
C. faces an upsloping labor supply curve.
D. faces a perfectly inelastic labor supply curve.

If a firm is a monopsonist in the hiring of both labor and capital, it will obtain the profit-maximizing quantities of labor and capital when:
A. MRPL/PL = MRPC/PC = 1.
B. MRPL/MRCL = MRPC/MRCC = 1.
C. the MRP of labor equals the MRP of capital.
D. the MRC of labor equals the MRC of capital.

If a firm is hiring variable resources D and F in imperfectly competitive input markets, it will maximize profits by employing D and F in such quantifies that:
A. MRPD/MRCD = MRPF/MRCF = 1.
B. MRPD/MRCD = MRPF/MRCF.
C. MRPD/PD = MRPF/PF = 1.
D. MRPD/PD = MRPF/PF.

Answer the question on the basis of the following supply information facing a single firm in a particular labor market:
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Refer to the above information. This labor supply curve demonstrates that:
A. the firm is selling its output under imperfectly competitive conditions.
B. the firm is selling its output under purely competitive conditions.
C. higher wage rates must be paid to successive workers to overcome their higher opportunity costs.
D. the firm is hiring labor under purely competitive conditions.

Refer to the above information. The marginal resource (labor) cost of the third worker is:
A. $15.
B. $25.
C. $35.
D. $45.

Empirical studies suggest that, other things equal, the smaller the number of hospitals in a city, the lower are nurses’ wages. This is evidence that:
A. the labor markets of nurses are purely competitive.
B. hospitals may possess some degree of monopsony power.
C. the minimum wage does not apply to nurses.
D. labor unions have been ineffective in increasing the wages of nurses.

If the above diagram were relevant to an individual firm, we could conclude that the firm is:
A. a pure competitor in the hire of labor.
B. a monopsonist in the hire of labor.
C. selling its product in an imperfectly competitive market.
D. selling its product in a purely competitive market.

Refer to the above diagram. The MRC curve lies above the labor supply curve because:
A. any number of workers can be hired at the going equilibrium wage rate.
B. the firm must lower product price to increase its sales.
C. the higher wage needed to attract additional workers must also be paid to the workers already employed.
D. there is an inverse relationship between wage rate and the amount of labor employed.

Refer to the above diagram. Assuming no union or relevant minimum wage, the firm represented will hire:
A. Q2 workers and pay a W4 wage rate.
B. Q2 workers and pay a W1 wage rate.
C. Q3 workers and pay a W2 wage rate.
D. Q4 workers and pay a W1 wage rate.

Refer to the above diagram. An industrial (inclusive) union could increase employment in this labor market:
A. by negotiating any wage rate between W1 and W4.
B. by negotiating a wage rate greater than W4.
C. only if it accepted a wage rate below W1.
D. only if it could shift the labor demand curve rightward.

Refer to the above diagram. An industrial union could maximize employment by negotiating a wage rate of:
A. W4.
B. W3.
C. W2.
D. W1.

Which of the following tactics is most associated with the demand-enhancement union model?
A. Reducing the price of inputs that are substitutes for union workers.
B. Lobbying for increases in public expenditures on the product it is producing.
C. Restricting the number of workers allowed to work in the industry.
D. Increasing the price of products that are complements for the one it is producing.

Inclusive unionism is practiced mostly by:
A. professional and semiprofessional employees.
B. small unions comprised of skilled workers, such as the bricklayers.
C. industrial unions.
D. craft unions.

Refer to the above diagram. If this labor market is purely competitive, the wage rate and level of employment respectively will be:
A. D and E.
B. C and E.
C. B and G.
D. B and F.

Refer to the above diagram. If this labor market is monopsonistic, the wage rate and level of employment respectively will be:
A. D and E.
B. C and F.
C. B and F.
D. A and F.
Refer to the above diagram. Assume that an inclusive union is formed to bargain with the monopsonistic employer of the previous question. To what level can this union increase the wage rate without causing the number of jobs to decline below that which the monopsonist would otherwise have provided?
A. D minus A
B. D
C. C
D. B

Refer to the above diagram. If an inclusive union seeks to maximize the number of jobs available for its members, what wage rate will it seek to impose on the monopsonist?
A. D minus A
B. F
C. C
D. B

A craft union attempts to increase wage rates by:
A. equating the MRP and the MRC curves.
B. shifting the labor supply curve to the left.
C. shifting the labor supply curve to the right.
D. shifting the MRP curve to the right.

Occupational licensing has much the same effect as:
A. inclusive unionism.
B. exclusive unionism.
C. bilateral monopoly.
D. monopsony.

Occupational licensing:
A. functions essentially the same as inclusive unionism.
B. attracts large numbers of workers and therefore depresses wages.
C. often restricts occupational entry and raises the incomes of license holders.
D. has been declared illegal in the majority of states.

If an exclusive union is successful in restricting the supply of labor, the:
A. wage rate will rise.
B. quantity of labor demanded will rise.
C. number of job opportunities in the firm or industry will increase.
D. demand for labor curve will shift leftward.

If an industrial union is formed to bargain with a monopsonistic employer, then in this labor market:
A. the resulting wage rate will necessarily be above the competitive level.
B. employment may either increase or decrease.
C. employment will increase.
D. employment will decrease.

The electricians’ union is a good example of:
A. exclusive unionism.
B. an industrial union.
C. how unions can simultaneously increase wage rates and employment by increasing the demand for labor.
D. inclusive unionism.

Labor unions may attempt to raise wage rates by:
A. increasing the supply of labor.
B. forcing employers, under the threat of a strike, to pay above-equilibrium wage rates.
C. decreasing the demand for labor.
D. increasing the price of complementary resources.

Construction workers frequently sponsor political lobbying in support of greater public spending on highways and public buildings. One reason for this is to:
A. restrict the supply of construction workers.
B. increase the elasticity of demand for construction workers.
C. increase the demand for construction workers.
D. increase the price of substitute inputs.

Craft unions:
A. attempt to organize workers at all skill levels in a firm or industry.
B. have been declared illegal by Federal legislation.
C. only organize workers who have a particular skill.
D. attempt to increase the supply of their particular type of labor.

Labor unions are restrained in their wage demands because:
A. legislation limits annual increases in nominal wages to 6 percent.
B. the labor demand curve is downsloping.
C. marginal wage cost curves lie above labor supply curves in most labor markets.
D. most unions deal with monopsonists who have superior bargaining power.

In a labor market characterized by bilateral monopoly the wage rate will:
A. be logically indeterminate.
B. be established at the level desired by the union.
C. be established at the level desired by the employer.
D. always be established at the competitive level.

If a single large employer bargains with an inclusive union, the resulting labor market model can best be described as:
A. a cartel.
B. countervailing power.
C. a bilateral monopoly.
D. an internal labor market.

Bilateral monopoly occurs where:
A. a monopsonistic employer bargains with an inclusive union.
B. a monopsonistic employer bargains with an exclusive union.
C. a craft union bargains with a purely competitive employer.
D. an industrial union bargains with a purely competitive employer.

Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If this were a purely competitive labor market, the equilibrium wage rate and level of employment would be:
A. $5 and 3 respectively.
B. $6 and 4 respectively.
C. $7 and 5 respectively.
D. $8 and 3 respectively.

Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If this were a monopsonistic labor market, the equilibrium wage rate and level of employment would be:
A. $5 and 3 respectively.
B. $6 and 4 respectively.
C. $7 and 5 respectively.
D. $8 and 3 respectively.

Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If an inclusive union was formed and was able to get the monopsonist to agree to a $7 wage rate, then the monopsonist would:
A. reduce employment from 5 to 3 workers.
B. reduce employment from 5 to 2 workers.
C. increase employment from 3 to 5 workers.
D. not alter its level of employment.

Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If an inclusive union was able to get the monopsonist to pay a $6 wage rate, then:
A. the supply curve would be perfectly elastic for the first four workers, but the MRC curve would be unaffected.
B. the supply curve would be perfectly elastic for all workers and the MRC curve would coincide with it.
C. the supply curve would be perfectly elastic for the first four workers and the MRC would be $6 for the first four workers.
D. eight workers would be hired.

Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. An inclusive union could increase the level of employment above that which the monopsonist would provide if it could get the monopsonist to agree to any wage rate:
A. below $7.
B. between $5 and $8.
C. above $5.
D. above $8.

Minimum-wage legislation is less likely to have adverse effects on employment when the:
A. affected labor market is monopsonistic.
B. economy has high unemployment.
C. derived demand for labor is shifting to the left.
D. affected labor market is perfectly competitive.

Critics of minimum-wage legislation argue that it:
A. keeps inefficient producers in business.
B. reduces employment.
C. undermines incentives to work.
D. is deflationary.

Many economists are critical of the minimum wage because they believe that it:
A. hurts the efforts of labor unions.
B. reduces the number of available job opportunities.
C. conflicts with policies designed to equalize the distribution of income.
D. causes labor shortages in affected markets.

Unions might support a higher minimum wage because:
A. their constitutions obligate them to do so.
B. they feel a higher minimum wage will lower labor’s tax payments for welfare programs.
C. a higher minimum wage makes less-skilled workers less substitutable for union workers.
D. the minimum wage is better targeted than are alternative income-maintenance programs.

If all workers are homogeneous, all jobs are equally attractive to workers, and labor markets are perfectly competitive:
A. compensating differences would cause wage differentials.
B. noncompeting groups of workers would result in wage differentials.
C. all workers would receive the same wage rate.
D. worker mobility would occur such that wage differentials would widen.

Wage differentials may result from all the following except:
A. differences in the nonmonetary aspects of various occupations.
B. differences in the education and skills of workers.
C. geographic and sociological immobilities of workers.
D. the tendency of qualified workers to move from lower pay jobs to higher pay jobs.

Suppose all workers are identical, but working for Ajax is more pleasant than working for Acme. In all other nonwage aspects the two firms offer the same job characteristics. We would expect:
A. wage rates at Ajax to be higher than at Acme.
B. wage rates at Ajax to be lower than at Acme.
C. wage rates at Ajax and Acme to be the same.
D. workers at Ajax would have to be monitored more closely than at Acme.

Noncompeting groups of workers are the result of:
A. differences in the age-earnings profiles of workers.
B. differences in the “job tastes” of workers.
C. differences in the innate and acquired abilities of workers.
D. geographic immobilities.

Compensating differences in wages:
A. compensate workers for differences in their human capital.
B. are wage differences that compensate for differences in the desirability of jobs.
C. describe the tendency for the wages of all occupations to adjust to the median level.
D. do not exist if jobs have different nonmonetary characteristics.

Compensating differences in wages pay workers for:
A. differences in worker training and skills.
B. differences in the nonmonetary characteristics of jobs.
C. geographic immobilities.
D. discrimination in hiring and firing.

The idea of compensating differences is used:
A. by inclusive unions as an argument in bargaining for wage rate increases.
B. to justify the application of minimum wages to low-wage labor markets.
C. to explain the divergence between wage rates and marginal resource cost.
D. to explain wage rate differences based on differing nonmonetary aspects of jobs.

The concept of investment in human capital indicates that:
A. union workers are better educated and more productive than nonunion workers.
B. expenditures on education can be explained in essentially the same way as expenditures on machinery and equipment.
C. worker productivity correlates negatively with annual earnings.
D. the level of education is unrelated to the level of one’s income.

Data on education and earnings reveal:
A. negative age-earnings profiles for male workers.
B. no relationship between the two.
C. a positive relationship between the two.
D. a negative relationship between the two.

According to age-earnings data,
A. lower educated workers have similar earnings at age 65 as higher educated workers.
B. investments in education result in higher earnings.
C. high earnings are due to motivation and innate ability, rather than education.
D. there is no clear relationship between education and worker productivity.

Economists regard expenditures on education as investments because:
A. they are subject to tax deductions at the same rate as are expenditures on machinery and equipment.
B. education is economically beneficial at the same time it is being acquired.
C. such expenditures are current costs that are intended to enhance future earnings.
D. they differ from expenditures on health and worker mobility.

Which of the following involves the creation of human capital?
A. the XYZ Corporation upgrades the machinery on its assembly line
B. Jones receives apprenticeship training as a carpenter
C. Smith buys 30 shares of common stock
D. a retired person decides to reenter the labor force

Human capital is best defined as:
A. the productive skills and knowledge that workers acquire from education and training.
B. the substitution of labor for machinery in the production process.
C. any piece of machinery that must be combined with labor to be productive.
D. the exchange of money for real assets.

Which of the following is a market imperfection that might explain persistent wage differentials within an occupation?
A. movement of labor from lower-wage to higher-wage jobs
B. readily available information about job opportunities and pay
C. principal-agent problems
D. discrimination

Which of the following is a market imperfection that might explain persistent wage differentials within an occupation?
A. geographical immobility of workers
B. readily available information about job opportunities and pay
C. principal-agent problems
D. compensating wage differentials

Which of the following is not an example of a market imperfection that might explain persistent wage differentials within an occupation?
A. geographic immobility of workers
B. discrimination
C. noncompeting groups
D. poor information about job opportunities and pay

Jack and Jill have identical skills and training but Jill earns higher wages in her job. Which of the following reasons would best explain why Jill earns more than Jack?
A. Jack has a chronic illness and would lose health care coverage if he changed jobs.
B. Jill suffers from gender discrimination in the workplace.
C. Jack has better access to information about available jobs in his field.
D. Jill is reluctant to move to a new city because she wants to live near family.

In the context of labor markets, shirking refers to:
A. the nonmonetary disadvantages of certain jobs.
B. the neglecting or evading of work.
C. the elimination of monitoring costs.
D. any scheme where pay is directly related to worker output.

Traveling sales representative Harold Hill only calls on clients four days a week rather than the five days expected by his employer. This is an example of:
A. equalizing differences.
B. a nonmonetary job disadvantage.
C. shirking.
D. the free-rider problem.

The idea of efficiency wages is that:
A. the wages of each type of labor must be proportionate to their marginal products.
B. the wages of each type of labor must be equal to their marginal products.
C. firms might get greater work effort by paying above-equilibrium wage rates.
D. workers are more diligent when paid below-equilibrium wages.

Paying an above-equilibrium wage rate might reduce unit labor costs by:
A. permitting the firm to attract lower-quality labor.
B. increasing the cost to workers of being fired for shirking.
C. increasing voluntary worker turnover.
D. increasing the supply of labor.

Compensation paid in proportion to the number of units of personal output best describes:
A. royalties.
B. profit-sharing.
C. bonuses.
D. piece rates.

A firm might choose to pay its employees a wage higher than that which would clear the market because:
A. the higher wage raises the opportunity cost of shirking.
B. the higher wage may shift the labor demand curve to the left.
C. the firm will have higher turnover, allowing “new blood” to invigorate older workers who have a greater tendency to shirk.
D. this policy reduces the proportion of experienced to inexperienced workers, resulting in a lower overall wage bill.

For the firm, the major goal of profit sharing plans is to:
A. force workers to incur some of the business risk.
B. overcome the monopsony problem of having to pay higher wages to attract additional workers.
C. overcome the principal-agent problem by better aligning the workers’ interests with those of the firm.
D. reduce total compensation payments.

Stock options as a form of payment are designed to:
A. evade the equal-pay-for-equal work provisions of the Federal antidiscrimination law.
B. boost the overall earnings of minimum wage workers.
C. offset monopsony.
D. address the principal-agent problem.

One of the potential negative side-effects of pay in the form of sales commissions is:
A. a greater incentive for sales people to engage in unethical or fraudulent sales practices that may eventually cause legal problems for the firm.
B. increased volatility of sales revenue for the firm.
C. the potential that pay levels may get so high that they will increase a firm’s marginal wage cost more than its marginal revenue product.
D. an increased likelihood of shirking by workers.

Question25: Psychology

The early perspective called Gestalt psychology has evolved into the current perspective called _______________.
Choose one answer.
a. behavioral psychology
b. psychoanalysis
c. social psychology
d. cognitive psychology

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 2
Marks: 1
John B. Watson believed that psychology should involve the study of _________.
Choose one answer.
a. the brain
b. consciousness
c. behavior
d. the mind ect
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 3
Marks: 1
Each of the following is a common ethical guideline suggested by the American Psychological Association EXCEPT __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. parents of infant participants must be informed about the study
b. investigators must debrief participants
c. participants may withdraw at any time
d. debriefing may be omitted when young children are involved
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 4
Marks: 1
According to present research on psychologists, thirty-four percent are in the ________________ subfield of psychology.
Choose one answer.
a. Industrial/Organizational
b. Clinical
c. Developmental
d. Counseling

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 5
Marks: 1
The placebo effect means _______________________.
Choose one answer.
a. the expectations of the participants influence their behavior
b. all conditions in an experiment are the same
c. that there is no control group
d. experimenter bias causes the subjects to act strangely

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 6
Marks: 1
A researcher stops people at the mall and asks them questions about their attitudes toward gun control. Which research technique is being used?
Choose one answer.
a. case study
b. survey
c. experiment
d. naturalistic observation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 7
Marks: 1
Sallie noticed that when her alarm clock goes off in the morning her dog, Ruffles, is standing by her bed salivating. Every morning when Sallie wakes to the alarm, she immediately rolls out of bed and feeds Ruffles who very much enjoys his canned dog food. It is likely that ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to sleep next to her bed
b. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to enjoy canned dog food
c. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to salivate to the sound of her alarm clock
d. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to salivate over canned dog food

Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 8
Marks: 1
Self-actualization was part of which of the following perspectives?
Choose one answer.
a. humanism
b. cognitive perspective
c. behaviorism
d. functionalism

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 9
Marks: 1
Pavlov’s research demonstrated that ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. involuntary reaction (sound of a bell) could occur in response to an unrelated stimulus (food)
b. an unrelated stimulus (food) could occur in response to an unrelated stimulus (barking)
c. an unrelated stimulus (salivation) could occur in response to an involuntary reaction (sound of a bell)
d. involuntary reaction (salivation) could occur in response to an unrelated stimulus (sound of a bell)

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 10
Marks: 1
What did Sigmund Freud consider as the key to understanding the nervous disorders he observed?
Choose one answer.
a. external consequences
b. free will
c. brain physiology
d. unconscious mind

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 11
Marks: 1
The steps or procedures an experimenter must use to control or measure the variables in a study is called the ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. hypothesis
b. double-blind study
c. theory
d. operational definition

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 12
Marks: 1
A variable that the experimenter manipulates is called a _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. independent variable
b. dependent variable
c. control condition
d. coefficient of correlation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 13
Marks: 1
Jane Goodall’s research with chimpanzees and gorillas can best be described as __________.
Choose one answer.
a. participant observation
b. a case study
c. experimentation
d. naturalistic observation
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 14
Marks: 1
______________________ is an experiment in which participants do not know if they are in the experimental or the control group but the experimenters do know which participants are part of which group.
Choose one answer.
a. Correlational research
b. The double-blind study
c. The single-blind study
d. Field research
ect
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 15
Marks: 1
Which of the following is concerning random assignment?
Choose one answer.
a. The best formula for random assignment is birth dates.
b. In random assignment each participant is assigned alphabetically to each condition.
c. Random assignment can only be determined after an experiment is over.
d. In random assignment each participant has an equal chance for each condition.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 16
Marks: 1

Ken is planning on studying the influence of intelligence on the ability to recall events from the 1960s. If Ken does not account for variables such as age that could also influence one’s ability to recall these events, age could be considered a __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. dependent variable
b. random variable
c. independent variable
d. confounding variable

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 17
Marks: 1
A correlation coefficient shows that alcohol consumption and driving accidents are indeed related. As a result, a researcher could predict _____________ if the direction of the relationship is known.
Choose one answer.
a. the number of arrests a person has will go up or down based on the type of car an individual drives
b. the number of arrests will increase the fewer drinks an individual consumes
c. the number of driving accidents a person has will go up or down based on the number of alcoholic drinks consumed
d. the number of driving accidents a person has will contribute to the number of days spent in jail

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 18
Marks: 1
Which perspective focuses on free will and self-actualization?
Choose one answer.
a. behaviorism
b. humanism
c. psychoanalysis
d. cognitive perspective

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 19
Marks: 1
In a laboratory, smokers are asked to “drive” using a computerized driving simulator equipped with a stick shift and a gas pedal. The object is to maximize the distance covered by driving as fast as possible on a winding road while avoiding rear-end collisions. Some of the participants smoke a real cigarette immediately before climbing into the driver’s seat. Others smoke a fake cigarette without nicotine. You are interested in comparing how many collisions the two groups have. In this study, the independent variable is _____________________.
Choose one answer.
a. the use of a driving simulator
b. the use of nicotine
c. the driving skills of each driver
d. the number of collisions

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 20
Marks: 1
Researchers must report their results completely whether the hypothesis was supported or not. Complete reporting is necessary for the purpose of ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. finding a better way to support the hypothesis
b. educational knowledge
c. replication
d. publication

Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 21
Marks: 1
Experimenters can justify the use of deception because ___________.
Choose one answer.
a. it is not that harmful
b. there is informed consent
c. it may be necessary for the experiment to work
d. research is more important than people

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 22
Marks: 1
All of the following variables, except for __________ show a negative correlation.
Choose one answer.
a. school grades and IQ scores
b. men’s educational level and their income
c. height and weight
d. alcohol consumption and scores on a driving test

Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 23
Marks: 1
One of the reasons psychodynamic theories have persisted over the years is that they are ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. used by the majority of psychologists
b. difficult to scientifically test and, thus, difficult to disprove
c. based on facts
d. supported by significant scientific research
ect
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 24
Marks: 1
Which research method involves watching behaviors as they occur without intervening or altering the behaviors in any way?
Choose one answer.
a. case study
b. naturalistic observation
c. experiment
d. correlational studies

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 25
Marks: 1
A perfect correlation, whether positive or negative, is _____________ in the real world.
Choose one answer.
a. rare
b. common
c. expected
d. imperfect

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 26
Marks: 1
Psychologists who give potential employees tests that determine what kind of job those employees might best perform are interested in the goal of _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. description
b. control
c. prediction
d. explanation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 27
Marks: 1
Which of the following is a common ethical guideline suggested by the American Psychological Association?
Choose one answer.
a. Participants must be allowed to make an informed decision.
b. Participants may not withdraw once they start.
c. Participants cannot be subjected to shock of any kind.
d. Participants cannot be deceived about aspects of the research.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 28
Marks: 1
Julie finds that the number of hours she sleeps each night is related to the scores she receives on quizzes the next day. As her sleep approaches 8 hours, her quiz scores improve; as her sleep drops to 5 hours, her quiz scores show a similar decline. Julie realizes that ______________________.
Choose one answer.
a. she should sleep about 10 hours a night to ensure 100 percent quiz grades
b. her low quiz scores are caused by sleep deprivation the night before a quiz
c. there is a negative correlation between the number of hours she sleeps and her quiz grades
d. there is a positive correlation between the number of hours she sleeps and her quiz grades
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 29
Marks: 1
Mei was sent to the school psychologist to be tested. Based on her IQ scores it was decided that she would do well in the gifted child program. This is an example of which goal of psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. describing behavior
b. controlling behavior
c. explaining behavior
d. predicting behavior

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 30
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements concerning using animals in research is ?
Choose one answer.
a. Pain and suffering of animals are allowed but only when necessary.
b. There are rules that prevent the killing of animals.
c. There are no ethical guidelines when it comes to animals.
d. New ethical guidelines prevent the use of primates in psychological research.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 31
Marks: 1
The tendency to look for information that supports one’s own belief is called _____.
Choose one answer.
a. confirmation bias
b. volunteer bias
c. the principle of falsifiability
d. criterion validity

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 32
Marks: 1
Freud stressed the importance of _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. adolescence
b. early adulthood
c. early childhood experiences
d. middle adulthood

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 33
Marks: 1
Critical thinking means making judgments based on ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. emotion
b. keeping a closed mind
c. authority and expertise
d. reason and logical evaluation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 34
Marks: 1
A correlation coefficient represents two things: ______________________ and ______________________.
Choose one answer.
a. a representative sample; strength
b. strength; direction of the relationship
c. the experimental group; control group
d. direction of the relationship; expectant functionality
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 35
Marks: 1
Dr. Mosher is a psychologist who tries to understand how people select their mates. She must be a ___________________ .
Choose one answer.
a. evolutionary psychologist
b. behavioral psychologist ect
c. cognitive psychologist
d. biopsychological psychologist
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 36
Marks: 1
Observing behavior as it happens in real-life natural settings without imposing laboratory controls is known as the ______.
Choose one answer.
a. survey method
b. experimental method
c. naturalistic observation method
d. psychometric approach

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 37
Marks: 1
The question “When will it happen again?” refers to which of the following goals in psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. prediction
b. control
c. explanation
d. description

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 38
Marks: 1
The majority of psychologists work in ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. colleges and universities
b. public school
c. government
d. private practice

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 39
Marks: 1
Sam conducted a naturalistic observation as a project for a psychology class. He observed the interactions of parents and children at a restaurant. Many of the people he observed seemed to notice him. When Sam described his work to his teacher, she suggested he find out more about the _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. observer effect
b. restaurant effect
c. butterfly effect
d. parent effect

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 40
Marks: 1
________________ is a system used for reducing bias and error in the measurement of data.
Choose one answer.
a. Statistics
b. The scientific method
c. The double-blind method
d. Checks and balances

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
1
Marks: 1
Jane Goodall’s research with chimpanzees and gorillas can best be described as __________.
Choose one answer.
a. a case study
b. naturalistic observation
c. experimentation
d. participant observation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 2
Marks: 1
What is one of the major reasons that psychologists report results publicly?
Choose one answer.
a. to comply with legal requirements
b. to allow researchers to replicate experiments
c. to identify all the extraneous variables
d. to explain research results so that non-psychologists can understand them

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 3
Marks: 1
At the close of the nineteenth century, Gerhard is excited to find that he has been accepted for training in the psychology laboratory of Wilhelm Wundt. It is likely that Gerhard will be trained to ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. carefully feel the bumps on a person’s head in order to determine his or her character traits
b. listen intently while individuals tell him of their depression or nervousness
c. analyze how to break down his sensations into their most basic elements
d. determine the function or purpose of a particular human behavior

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 4
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements is true about naturalistic observation?
Choose one answer.
a. It involves observing behavior in its natural context.
b. It recreates natural conditions in the laboratory as closely as possible to make an experiment more valid.
c. It involves observing behavior in the lab without taking formal notes or using technological equipment to measure the experimental findings.
d. It is basically the same process as objective introspection.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 5
Marks: 1
Researchers must report their results completely whether the hypothesis was supported or not. Complete reporting is necessary for the purpose of ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. educational knowledge
b. finding a better way to support the hypothesis
c. publication
d. replication

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 6
Marks: 1

All of the following are accurate statements regarding random assignment EXCEPT ___________.
Choose one answer.
a. it is a procedure in which each subject has the same possibility of being assigned to a given group
b. it is a procedure in which subjects are assigned to a positive correlation or a negative correlation condition
c. it is a procedure for assigning people to experimental and control groups
d. it is a procedure that allows individual characteristics to be roughly balanced between groups

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 7
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements is ?
Choose one answer.
a. Psychiatric social workers can prescribe medication.
b. A psychologist has no medical training.
c. A psychiatrist generally goes to graduate school, not medical school.
d. An M.D. and a Ph.D. are pretty much the same thing.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 8
Marks: 1
Rob was named to the first team all-American basketball team last year. However, he is academically ineligible to play this year due to failing several classes. As a result, he is ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. supporting the idea that negative stereotypes exist for collegiate student athletes that they are likely to perform poorly in academics compared to non-athletes
b. supporting the idea that professors are biased in grading assignments of collegiate student athletes
c. supporting the idea that athletes have higher GPAs than non-athletes
d. supporting the idea that collegiate student athletes are not as smart as non-athletes

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 9
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements is concerning critical thinking and astrology?
Choose one answer.
a. Research shows no connection between astrological signs and personality.
b. Astrology is based on stars and, therefore, it is scientific. ect
c. Astrology is used by a lot of people.
d. Although there are many skeptics, astrology has strong evidence suggesting it is a valid science.
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 10
Marks: 1
Ken is planning on studying the influence of intelligence on the ability to recall events from the 1960s. If Ken does not account for variables such as age that could also influence one’s ability to recall these events, age could be considered a __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. confounding variable
b. independent variable
c. dependent variable
d. random variable

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 11
Marks: 1
Professor Holden gives a psychology exam on the origins of intelligence. She gives a short answer question based on the IQ scores of a parent-child pair. In order to answer the question ly, her students need to remember that ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. given these variables, the correlation will be uncorrelated
b. given these variables, the correlation will be positive
c. given these variables, the correlation will be negative
d. a parent’s high IQ does not necessarily cause a child to have a high IQ

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 12
Marks: 1
Testing a hypothesis is the third step in a scientific investigation. This step is derived from which goal of psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. understanding
b. changing
c. describing
d. predicting

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 13
Marks: 1
“There is no life outside this solar system and nothing you can say will change that fact!” Which criterion of critical thinking does this person lack?
Choose one answer.
a. Evidence is only necessary if it can be tested.
b. All evidence is not equal in quality.
c. Critical thinking requires an open mind.
d. Authority or expertise does not make the claims of the authority or expert true. ect
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 14
Marks: 1
In 1879, in Leipzig, Germany, the first psychological laboratory was developed by ______________.
Choose one answer.
a. William James
b. Wilhelm Wundt
c. Sigmund Freud
d. William Tell

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 15
Marks: 1
Which type of psychologist would be most likely to argue that a criminal engages in unlawful behavior because he grew up around older boys who engaged in criminal activities?
Choose one answer.
a. functionalist
b. behavioralist
c. psychodynamic
d. Gestaltist

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 16
Marks: 1
In a laboratory, smokers are asked to “drive” using a computerized driving simulator equipped with a stick shift and a gas pedal. The object is to maximize the distance covered by driving as fast as possible on a winding road while avoiding rear-end collisions. Some of the participants smoke a real cigarette immediately before climbing into the driver’s seat. Others smoke a fake cigarette without nicotine. You are interested in comparing how many collisions the two groups have. In this study, the dependent variable is ____________________.
Choose one answer.
a. the number of collisions
b. the use of nicotine
c. the use of a driving simulator
d. the driving skills of each driver

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 17
Marks: 1
The emerging field of brain imagery in cognitive neuroscience has developed methods, such as MRI, to examine _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. biopsies of the brain of a cadaver
b. acute time of death in stroke patients
c. images of the living brain
d. select biopsied portions of a brain

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 18
Marks: 1
Which perspective focuses on free will and self-actualization?
Choose one answer.
a. cognitive perspective
b. humanism
c. psychoanalysis
d. behaviorism

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 19
Marks: 1
The work of Freud was built around __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. a theory of personality that emphasizes the awareness of one’s own cognitive processes
b. a method of psychotherapy in which an observer carefully records and interprets behavior without interfering with the behavior
c. a method of psychotherapy that emphasizes how maladaptive behaviors are learned through imitations of others and through cognitive expectations
d. a theory of personality that emphasizes unconscious motives and conflicts

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 20
Marks: 1
Forming a hypothesis is the second step in a scientific investigation. This step is derived from which goal of psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. describing
b. understanding
c. predicting ect
d. changing
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 21
Marks: 1
While on a visit to a large city, you observe several billboards in which a series of lights seems to move. Which perspective in psychology would most likely help you understand this phenomenon?
Choose one answer.
a. Gestalt
b. behavioral
c. humanistic
d. psychodynamic

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 22
Marks: 1
The goals of psychology are to _____.
Choose one answer.
a. understand, compare, and analyze human behavior
b. explore the conscious and unconscious functions of the human mind
c. describe, understand, predict, and control behavior
d. improve psychological well-being in all individuals from birth until death

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 23
Marks: 1
In the statement “Critical thinking requires reasoned judgments,” the word reasoned means __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. logical and well thought out
b. focusing on opinion
c. giving it a lot of thought
d. seeing one side of an argument very clearly

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 24
Marks: 1
Psychologists who give potential employees tests that determine what kind of job those employees might best perform are interested in the goal of _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. prediction
b. control
c. explanation
d. description

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 25
Marks: 1
Wesleyan University researchers Jamison and colleagues conducted a study to explore the negative stereotypes of collegiate athletes as “dumb jocks.” In their study, the researchers found ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. negative stereotypes in higher education may contribute to collegiate student athletes underperforming in academics
b. a correlation between collegiate athletes exposure to the negative stereotypes, the better they performed on an intelligence test
c. collegiate student athletes performed better in the classroom if they were made aware of the impact of
negative stereotypes
d. professors often excuse absences by collegiate student athletes who miss class due to attending practices

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 26
Marks: 1
Unintended changes in participants’ behavior due to cues inadvertently given by the experimenter are called _________________.
Choose one answer.
a. replications
b. experimenter effects
c. volunteer biases
d. single-blind studies

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 27
Marks: 1
Which of the following is a common ethical guideline suggested by the American Psychological Association?
Choose one answer.
a. Participants may not withdraw once they start.
b. Participants cannot be deceived about aspects of the research.
c. Participants cannot be subjected to shock of any kind.
d. Participants must be allowed to make an informed decision.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 28
Marks: 1
A psychologist evaluated Tameka, an eight-year-old child who has experienced difficulty in school. The psychologist sent questionnaires to 100 teachers to determine if they had ever seen similar cases. Based on the teachers’ responses, the psychologist hypothesized that a particular diet might cause the learning problem. Following her tabulation of the responses, she designed a study that would tell her if diet were the actual cause. Which of the following lists, in order from first to last, the research methods this psychologist used?
Choose one answer.
a. experiment, case study, survey
b. correlation, case study, experiment
c. naturalistic observation, survey, experiment
d. case study, survey, experiment

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 29
Marks: 1
An operational definition is ___________________.
Choose one answer.
a. an organized system of assumptions and principles that purports to explain a specified set of phenomena and their interrelationships
b. a statement that attempts to predict a set of phenomena and specifies relationships among variables that can be empirically tested
c. the principle that a scientific theory must make predictions that are specific enough to expose the theory to the possibility of disconfirmation
d. the precise meaning of a term used to describe a variable, such as a type of behavior, that researchers want to measure

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 30
Marks: 1
Which of the following terms do NOT belong together?
Choose one answer.
a. structuralism; observable behavior
b. psychoanalysis; unconscious conflict
c. Gestalt; whole
d. natural selection; functionalism

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 31
Marks: 1
In a laboratory, smokers are asked to “drive” using a computerized driving simulator equipped with a stick shift and a gas pedal. The object is to maximize the distance covered by driving as fast as possible on a winding road while avoiding rear-end collisions. Some of the participants smoke a real cigarette immediately before climbing into the driver’s seat. Others smoke a fake cigarette without nicotine. You are interested in comparing how many collisions the two groups have. In this study, the cigarette without nicotine is _____________________.
Choose one answer.
a. the control group
b. the experimental group
c. the no-control group
d. the driving simulator

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 32
Marks: 1
The tendency to look for information that supports one’s own belief is called _____.
Choose one answer.
a. confirmation bias
b. the principle of falsifiability
c. volunteer bias
d. criterion validity

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 33
Marks: 1
The question “What is happening?” refers to which of the following goals in psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. explanation etc.
b. description
c. control
d. prediction
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 34
Marks: 1
Which of these is the most accurate definition of the discipline of psychology?
Choose one answer.
a. the science of behavior
b. the science of behavior and mental processes
c. the science of human behavior and mental processes
d. the science of mental processes

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 35
Marks: 1
In the early part of the past century, psychologists who broke down thought processes into their basic elements and analyzed them were called structuralists. What term might we use to describe psychologists with similar interests today?
Choose one answer.
a. humanistic
b. cognitive
c. behavioral
d. Gestalt

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 36
Marks: 1
Roger went to McDonald’s to observe people eating in fast-food restaurants. He brought a camera crew and bright lights, and they all wore yellow jump suits. Roger said he wanted to do a naturalistic observation but may have had some problems because of ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. participant observation
b. room crowding
c. eating McDonald’s food
d. observer effects

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 37
Marks: 1
Which of the following statements concerning critical thinking is etc.?
Choose one answer.
a. There are few truths that need not be tested.
b. Critical thinking requires an open mind.
c. Some authorities should not be questioned.
d. All evidence is not equal in quality.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

Question 26: Chemist

Homework 6

An ammonia water solution is added at a specified rate to a charge of a formaldehyde water solution. The reaction is instantaneous, that is, as soon as the ammonia and formaldehyde mix they react forming HMT and water; the reaction is also highly exothermic. A cooling jacket surrounds the reactor to cool the liquid.

Process Information:

Initial charge of formaldehyde water solution = 1000 kg

Mass fraction of formaldehyde in the original solution = 0.42

Initial temperature of formaldehyde water solution = 50 oC

Feed flow rate: ; Ammonia mass fraction in feed:

Feed temperature:

Heat capacity of reactants and products:

Heat of reaction (assumed constant):

Overall heat transfer coefficient:

By the way, the jacket volume (volume of liquid in the jacket) is 2 m3. Be careful with the units!

The feeding time is 130 minutes.

a) Assume that the cooling water flow rate is so high that its temperature due to heat transfer hardly increases that is, its exit temperature is also. Find the heat transfer area such that the reactor temperature just rises to by the end of the feeding time.
b) Assume now that the utility plant providing the cooling water is limited in its capacity, and we must remove the assumption of very high cooling flow and thus, constant cooling temperature. It is necessary to find out the water flow rate that experiences no more than increase in temperature, that is, the maximum exit water temperature cannot be over, and at the same time does not allow the reactor’s content to exceed by the end of the feeding time. Use the heat transfer area obtained in (a).

Question 27: Science

Midterm Exam

Return to Assessment List

Comment: Outstanding!

Part 1 of 1 –

100.0/ 100.0 Points

Question 1 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Blackpowder is an example of a ____?

A.High explosive

B.Low explosive

C.Flammable liquid

D.Caustic explosive

Answer Key:

Question 2 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Which explosive is considered to be the first composite explosive developed?

A.Gunpowder and/or Blackpowder

B.Poudre B

C.Greek Fire

D.Saltpeter

Answer Key:

Question 3 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

An explosive is a substance capable of producing an explosion by its own ______.

A.Matter

B.Structure

C.Density

D.Energy

Answer Key:

Question 4 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Who introduced blackpowder to Europe?

A.Nobel

B.Munroe

C.Schwartz

D.Bacon

Answer Key:

Question 5 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Blackpowder contains a __________ and a ___________ chemical mixture.

A.Fuel & oxidizer

B.Oxidizer & primer

C.Oxidizer & granulate

D.Fuel & nitrate compound

Answer Key:

Question 6 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

High explosives ____________ under the influence of shock.

A.Burn

B.Deflagrate

C.Fizzle

D.Detonate

Answer Key:

Question 7 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

According to Tenny Davis, this type of ordnance/munition contains 3 classes of explosives.

A.Dynamite

B.TNT

C.Blasting Cap

D.Complete round of ammunition

Answer Key:

Question 8 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

This inventor discovered liquid nitroglycerine.

A.Ascanio Sobrero

B.Alfred Noble

C.Charles Munroe

D.Albert Schwartz

Answer Key:

Question 9 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

This process greatly improved upon the quality and production efforts of Blackpowder.

A.Milling and/or corning

B.Sensitizing

C.Drying

D.Wetting

Answer Key:

Question 10 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

TNT is also known as _______?

A.Triluene

B.Trinitrotoluene

C.Tetracycaline

D.Tritium nitrate

Answer Key:

Question 11 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

__________ was the 1st smokeless powder.

A.Ballistite

B.Poudre B

C.Gunpowder

D.Blackpowder

Answer Key:

Question 12 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Which country developed the 1st explosive testing procedures to determine adequate safety handling precautions?

A.England

B.Sweden

C.Germany

D.China

Answer Key:

Question 13 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

___________ is a chemical reaction which takes place between a substance and oxygen.

A.Combustion

B.Equilibrium

C.Kinetics

D.Dissolution

Answer Key:

Question 14 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

The combustion process of propellant and explosive substances can be defined as a _____________.

A.Self-sustaining reaction

B.Exothermic reaction

C.Rapid-oxidizing reaction

D.All of the above

Answer Key:

Question 15 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

The propagation of any explosion reaction through a deflagration explosive is based on _____________.

A.Thermal reactions

B.Chemical kinetics

C.Thermo mechanics

D.Kinetic combustion

Answer Key:

Question 16 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Explosives can be classified by the ease with which they can be _______ and _________.

A.Composed and detonated

B.Composed and deflagrated

C.Detonated and dissolved

D.Ignited and subsequently exploded

Answer Key:

Question 17 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Incendiary compositions containing saltpeter, sulphur, and combustible materials over a century ago were used primarily for ______ and ______.

A.War and amusement

B.Amusement and theology

C.War and advanced space exploration

D.DNA testing and amusement

Answer Key:

Question 18 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Antimony is also known as ________.

A.Sb2S3 which is referred to as Antimony sulphide

B.Sb8h1

C.Saltpeter

D.Sulphur

Answer Key:

Question 19 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Permitted explosives are also known as ____________.

A.Primary explosives

B.Secondary explosives

C.Commercial explosives

D.Special explosives

Answer Key:

Question 20 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

This chemical explosive was the 1st compound to be globally accepted as a basic compound for military use.

A.Picric acid

B.Blasting gelatin

C.Blackpowder

D.Potassium nitrate

Answer Key:

Question 21 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

This chemical code provides the makeup for TNT.

A.C7H5N3O6

B.C5H8N4O12

C.CH4N4O2

D.C3H6N6O6

Answer Key:

Question 22 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Explosions by type can be divided into which 3 groups?

A.Atomic, chemical, & kinetic

B.Kinetic, overpressure, & blastwave

C.Chemical, atomic, & mechamical

D.Atomic, chemical, & physical

Answer Key:

Question 23 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Atomic energy is approximately how many times greater than chemical energy?

A.A million to a billion

B.A hundred and to million

C.A hundred to a thousand

D.A thousand to a million

Answer Key:

Question 24 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

An erupting volcano is an example of what type of explosion?

A.Physical

B.Chemical

C.Atomic

D.Kinetic

Answer Key:

Question 25 of 25

4.0/ 4.0 Points

Chemical explosions can be divided into how many groups?

A.2

B.1

C.3

D.4

Answer Key:

Question 28: Health Care

To improve the health of a population, an acute care nurse practitioner’s intervention is to:

join a professional nursing organization and run for an organizational office.
maintain current certification as an acute care nurse practitioner.
participate in hospital grand rounds.
report any unusual pattern of infections to the local health department.

A patient, who is allergic to penicillin, requires antibiotic treatment for community-acquired pneumonia. The patient has a limited income, lacks health insurance, and is about to be discharged from the hospital. An acute care nurse practitioner’s intervention is to:

consult social services for assistance.
order an aerosol antibiotic.
transfer the patient to an extended care facility.
write a prescription for an antibiotic.

A patient is scheduled for elective orthopedic surgery. During the preadmission physical examination, the acute care nurse practitioner detects an asymptomatic pulsatile mass in the middle upper abdomen. The nurse practitioner’s most appropriate action is to:

obtain a kidney-urethra-bladder x-ray.
obtain a renal arteriogram.
obtain an abdominal ultrasound.
proceed with the patient’s elective surgery.

Which musculoskeletal disease primarily involves the distal joints, hips, knees, and spine, and is characterized by the development of Heberden and Bouchard nodes?

Gout
Osteoarthritis
Osteoporosis
Rheumatoid arthritis

An acute care nurse practitioner is deciding whether to recommend a long-term medication regimen that will help a patient manage disease symptoms but may also introduce problematic side effects. This decision reflects which ethical principle?

Autonomy
Beneficence
Fidelity
Justice

A patient, who has been in the intensive care unit for 17 days, develops hypernatremic hyperosmolality. The patient weighs 132 lb (59.9 kg), is intubated, and is receiving mechanical ventilation. The serum osmolality is 320 mOsm/L kg H2O. Clinical signs include tachycardia and hypotension. An acute care nurse practitioner’s initial treatment is to:

reduce serum osmolality by infusing a 5% dextrose in 0.2% sodium chloride solution.
reduce serum sodium concentration by infusing a 0.45% sodium chloride solution.
replenish volume by infusing a 0.9% sodium chloride solution.
replenish volume by infusing a 5% dextrose in water solution.

A 78-year-old male patient with heart failure develops a bacterial urinary tract infection secondary to an indwelling Foley catheter. The patient has a known history of allergy to penicillin and sulfonamides. The appropriate choice for antimicrobial therapy is:

cephalexin (Keflex).
ciprofloxacin (Cipro).
doxycycline (Vibramycin).
tetracycline (Sumycin).

An acute care nurse practitioner is evaluating a 78-year-old patient for an aortic valve replacement. Laboratory results indicate a low serum albumin level. The nurse practitioner prescribes a high-protein diet and evaluates the patient’s response by:

assessing the total serum protein level.
calculating the body fat percentage.
obtaining a complete blood count.
obtaining a serum prealbumin level.

9. A 42-year-old patient with metastatic lung cancer is admitted with severe intractable pain related to a pathologic fracture of the left femur. The plan is to stabilize the fracture surgically, and begin local radiation therapy to the site. For this patient, the most appropriate analgesic regimen is:

fentanyl (Duragesic) transdermal system applied every 72 hours.
meperidine (Demerol) 50 mg intramuscularly every three hours around the clock.
morphine sulfate (Avinza) IV via a patient-controlled analgesia pump with a basal rate.
oxycodone/acetaminophen (Percocet) orally every six hours around the clock.

10. A female patient is receiving adjuvant chemotherapy for breast cancer and has been given information about her treatment regimen, expected side effects, and symptom management. Which symptom, if occurring two weeks after treatment, warrants a prompt call to the acute care nurse practitioner?

Alopecia
Fatigue
Fever
Nausea

A patient with hydrocephalus secondary to a subarachnoid hemorrhage has developed an intracranial pressure of 25 mm Hg. The acute care nurse practitioner’s intervention is to:

hyperventilate to reach a PCO2 of 30 mm Hg.
order dexamethasone (Decadron) 4 mg IV.
perform a ventriculostomy and drainage of cerebrospinal fluid.
prescribe mannitol (Osmitrol) 100 g IV.

Which medication is used with caution in older adults due to the potential for confusion and delirium?

Fluoxetine (Prozac)
Haloperidol (Haldol)
Lorazepam (Ativan)
Phenelzine (Nardil)

A 45-year-old patient, who is on mechanical ventilatory support in the intensive care unit, is receiving a neuromuscular blockade for respiratory control related to acute respiratory failure. To prevent keratoconjunctivitis sicca, the acute care nurse practitioner prescribes:

artificial tears preparations.
IV antibiotic administration.
local sulfonamide therapy.
topical steroid administration.

After undergoing a successful autologous bone marrow transplant for multiple myeloma, a 55-year-old male patient comes to the clinic for his follow-up appointment. The patient reports that a skin lesion has changed in appearance. The acute care nurse practitioner responds by:

consulting dermatology to evaluate the lesion.
inspecting and excising the lesion.
prescribing a topical steroid preparation.
recommending reevaluation in two weeks.

An 83-year-old patient arrives in the emergency department in severe respiratory distress. The patient verbalizes a desire not to be intubated nor to have cardiopulmonary resuscitation performed. The patient states that a neighbor has a copy of the patient’s recently signed living will. The acute care nurse practitioner leaves the bedside momentarily and returns to find the physician preparing to intubate. The nurse practitioner’s initial action is to:

assist the physician with intubation.
call the patient’s neighbor to deliver a copy of the living will.
locate a previous patient record to find a copy of the living will.
notify the physician of the conversation with the patient.

A 24-year-old male patient with a closed head injury has been intubated for 12 days. The patient’s parents have repeatedly refused consent for a tracheostomy and long-term care placement. On multiple occasions, the surgeon has discussed the risks and benefits of the surgery with them. Addressing the parents, the acute care nurse practitioner states:

“I understand you have reservations about the placement of a tracheostomy.”
“Please know that not many patients die while undergoing a tracheostomy.”
“Without a tracheostomy, we can’t transfer your son to another facility.”
“You know, your son will die if a tracheostomy is not placed.”

Before initiating a new antihypertensive drug therapy, an acute care nurse practitioner uses which evidence-based practice approach?

Discussing the medication choices with a collaborating physician
Discussing the medication’s side effects with a colleague
Reviewing the confidence intervals of related research
Reviewing the institutional formulary

During a clinic appointment, an acute care nurse practitioner sees a 56-year-old male patient with a history of hypertension, metabolic syndrome, and hyperlipidemia. A review of the patient’s symptoms reveals nocturia, occasional heartburn, and transient rhinitis. The patient asks about the appropriate interval of certain screening tests for someone his age. The nurse practitioner responds that a:

digital prostate examination should be performed monthly.
prostate-specific antigen should be performed annually.
sigmoidoscopy should be performed every 10 years.
testicular examination should be performed every two years.

Which is an accurate statement regarding the formal evaluation of quality of care?

Continuous quality improvement (CQI) programs focus on individual incidents.
Health care regulatory agencies have not identified an effective means to measure quality.
Hospitals do not receive payment for services if quality of care evaluations are not performed.
The Joint Commission mandates that hospitals implement CQI programs.

While providing a history, a patient requests that an acute care nurse practitioner disclose the information gathered with no one but the patient’s spouse. By respecting this request, the nurse practitioner demonstrates which component of a therapeutic relationship?

Autonomy
Beneficence
Confidentiality
Empathy

A 57-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department with substernal chest pain. An electrocardiogram reveals ST segment depression in leads V3 and V4. Before administering nitrates, an acute care nurse practitioner assesses the patient’s use of:

angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
aspirin.
beta-blockers.
phosphodiesterase inhibitors.

For an 84-year-old patient who undergoes surgery, the most accurate predictor of mortality and patient outcome is:

a low score on a Mini-Mental State Examination.
an impaired functional status.
the availability of social support.
the patient’s chronological age.

An acute care nurse practitioner performs a cardiac assessment on a patient with a confirmed mitral valve prolapse. During which activity does the nurse practitioner expect the patient’s murmur to diminish?

Inhaling
Sitting
Squatting
Standing

A 21-year-old patient is admitted to the intensive care unit with a severe closed head injury. The patient’s family is becoming louder and more insistent about seeing the patient. To establish a therapeutic relationship with the family, an acute care nurse practitioner’s initial action is to:

acknowledge the family’s anxiety.
arrange for a meeting with a social worker.
escort the family to a conference room.
gently direct the family to maintain composure.

An acute care nurse practitioner is called to the medical intensive care unit to evaluate a patient who is intubated for mechanical ventilation. The patient’s arterial blood gas results are: pH-7.35; PCO2-44 mm Hg; HCO3-22 mEq/L; and PO2-52 mm Hg. The current ventilator settings are: Assist control; Respiratory rate-14 breaths/min; Tidal volume (TV)-400 mL; Fraction of inspired O2-100%; and positive-end expiratory pressure (PEEP)-5 cm H2O. The nurse practitioner’s next action is to increase the:

peak pressure alarm to 40 mm Hg.
PEEP to 10 cm H2O.
respiratory rate to 18 breaths/min.
TV to 500 mL.
Question 29: Health Care

Care of Adults and Older Adults

The nursing unit manager on a medical teaching unit says that she would like a nurse to present a case study at interdisciplinary rounds on a patient who has compartment syndrome from a leg injury. This is the first patient you have cared for with this complication, and you have difficulty presenting your ideas in front of a group. What would you do?
Ask to attend the rounds to increase your understanding of the condition.
Research the condition and present what you have learned as well as your assessment findings and care measures.
Suggest that a more experienced nurse be selected to present this case study.
Approach the unit manager, explain your difficulty presenting in front of interdisciplinary team members, and ask to be excused from presenting.
Which of the following situations would indicate a professional boundary violation?
To empathize with a patient’s situation, sharing a personal experience with a patient that is very similar to the situation the patient is experiencing.
Reminding a patient who has dementia that certain sexual touch behaviours are not acceptable.
Being concerned about a patient’s welfare and seeking ways to protect the client’s best interests.
Having well-intentioned behaviours that detract from achievable health outcomes for patients.

An important component of professional practice is self-awareness. Why is self-awareness an important basis for nursing practice?
It may prevent biases and assumptions from affecting relationships.
It may allow the nurse to examine how biases and assumptions could interfere with therapeutic effectiveness.
It may enable the nurse to treat people from different cultural backgrounds according to the dominant beliefs of their culture.
It allows for mo re objectivity in facilitating the healing process.

Which of the following is a theoretical perspective that underlies group process and effectiveness?
The personality style theory acknowledges that the nature of individuals in a group helps us understand group dynamics and sources of conflict in the group.
When groups are formed to complete a task, the task functions need to be assigned to individuals to ensure effective group functioning.
Considering the roles and functions or groups would explain the developmental theory of groups.
For group effectiveness, a group needs to have homogeneity and common views and interests.

Which of the following group principles interfere with the effectiveness of a group?
Groups get to know each other while focusing on accomplishing tasks.
Groups set norms, cooperate, and monitor progress.
Groups encourage similarity of viewpoints and minimize differing opinions.
Groups deal with conflicts and allow members to express their differences.

Janna, age 27 years, a sing le mother, appreciates the help you have given her through the birth of her first child. When you conclude your last follow-up community visit, she expresses gratitude and suggests that you come back and visit her and the baby for regular outings. How would you respond?
Acknowledge your appreciation of this experience, explain that her nursing needs have been met, and tell her you have to leave to care for other new mot hers.
Thank her for the offer and tell her that you will have to give her a call to see whether you will be able to work in outings in your personal schedule.
Tell her this would be unprofessional.
Stale that you would really like to do this but you are too busy with your other commitments.

How would you respond to Mr. Carlson?
Remind him that he has signed the consent and that the surgery has been scheduled.
Discuss his fear s regarding the surgery and reassure him that many patients want to change their minds as the surgery draws near.
Explore reasons why he wishes to cancel the surgery, clarify his concerns, and reinforce that he can change his mind if he chooses.
Tell him not to make up his mind until the doctor comes to talk to him again.

Mr. Carlson makes the decision to sign himself out of the hospital. What actions would you take?
Ensure that he signs the release form and contact the doctor and the operating room staff.
Convince him 10 slay because heart surgery is very important.
Contact the nursing unit manager and document it in the chart.
Realistically explain the wail list for surgery and what could happen to him.

You are admitting Darlene, age 40 years, who has come in for regulation of her insulin dependent diabetes. When she is unpacking, you note that she has a bag with some of her used syringes with needles, which she places in the top drawer of her bedside table. What would you do?
Rein force that she should keep the syringes in her suitcase so there are no injuries to staff members.
Ask her why she is keeping the used syringes and ensure they are disposed of safely.
Ask her to glove and dispose of the contaminated syringes in the needle receptacle.
Report the incident to the diabetic care team so effective teaching can be done.

You are supervising a nursing student during a dressing change. When the student is removing the dressing from a leg ulcer, the patient begins to yell and swear at both of you. He threatens to throw the water pitcher if both of you don’t leave his room immediately. What should you do?
Leave the leg ulcer undressed and exit the room immediately.
Report the incident to the doctor and have him or her explain that this behaviour will not be tolerated.
Temporarily dress the wound, explain that verbal abuse is not tolerated, leave the room and return later to discuss alternate wound dressing strategies.
Firmly explain that that behaviour will not be tolerated, remove the water pitcher, and continue applying the dressing

You have completed your initial assessment and charting on a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. When you go back into the room 1 hour later, you note that his Status has changed: He has become confused end does not know where he is; is taking short, rapid breaths at 34 breaths/min; has to sit up to breathe; and has a bluish tinge around his lips. His oxygen saturation levels have gone from 94% to 84%. What would you document for the assessment?
Confused and disoriented X3, Dyspneic, Pallor of lips. Oxygen saturation dropped from 94% to 84%.
Confused, Cheyne Stokes breathing at rate of 34/min. Positioned in Fowler’s position. Blue lips.
Disoriented, Tachypneic breathing at 34/min.Short of breath. Oxygen saturation at 84%.
Disoriented to place, tachypneic, shallow breathing at 34/min, orthopneic with circumoral cyanosis. Oxygen saturation at 84%.

Laurana, age 24 years, is being discharged today after the birth of her first baby. She is concerned about how she will manage at home and wonders how she can get her questions answered. What sources of information would you suggest?
Parents and friends.
A retired nurse in her neighborhood and web sites.
Community health clinics, telehealth, and hospital-based web site.
Pamphlets, library books, husband, parents, and in-laws.

What is the most important responsibility when inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube?
Accurate measurement and lubrication of the NG tube.
Asking the patient to breathe deeply when the tube is inserted past the nasopharynx.
Encouraging the patient to swallow sips of water to facilitate the insertion.
Checking the placement of the tube by aspiration and testing the pH of the contents.

Case Study: Mrs. April Hume, age 86 years, has been admitted with advanced liver metastasis after a mastectomy. She is very weak and is experiencing abdominal pain, has ascites, and is having difficulty breathing. She has requested that only supportive measures be given. Questions 14 and 15

Which would be priority nursing Interventions?
Addressing concerns she might have regarding death and dying, encouraging family support, and promoting her independence in meeting her needs.
Initiating oxygen therapy, Fowler’s positioning, pain control, and addressing her Questions and concerns.
Encouraging her to eat, mobilizing her every 2 hours, and having her perform deep breathing and coughing exercises every half hour.
Ensuring that she under stands that she is on a palliative care unit and explaining that only comfort measures she requests will be followed.

Mrs. Hume is anxious and concerned about her breathing difficulties. She states that she feels that breathing is taking so much energy that she is hardly able to eat. She is having difficulty mobilizing because of the pain and spends most of her time in bed. She says that her family is concerned about her lack of progress. What would you do?
Explore other ways to more effectively control her symptoms and advocate for her when approaching her family.
Rein force the meaning of supportive care to her family and restrict their visits so Mrs. Hume has more rest time.
Provide support for the family and encourage Mrs. Hume to become more actively involved in her care.
Determine where the patient is regarding the stages of dying and discuss the findings with her family.

If a mass casualty occurs near your acute care unit what would be included in a disaster preparedness plan?
An informal fan out to contact and inform all registered nurses about the disaster and elicit their help in assisting with the casualties.
A formal written plan of action for coordinating the response of the hospital staff and to designate how different areas will be used.
A designation of levels of casualty care and having nurses volunteer services at different levels.
A formal plan to ensure that medical supplies and medications are available for the great number of casualties.

Mrs. Jones recently had a cystectomy for bladder cancer. She has an ileal conduit (urostomy). What teaching would you include?
How to protect the skin, how to apply a dressing over the ostomy site, and the importance of reporting shreds of mucus in the urine as evidence of a urinary tract infection.
Stoma care and application of an ostomy pouch and drainage bag, increasing intake of fluids, observing amount and the colour of the urine.
Odour control, skin cleansing, and irrigation of the ostomy.
Signs of infections or skin breakdown, intermittent application of the appliance, and the importance of dietary restrictions.

Which of the following patients require increased sensory stimulation to prevent sensory deprivation?
A 24-year-old patient who has been admitted with an anxiety disorder and appears very agitated.
A 60-year-old patient, who is blind, reads books through use of Braille, listens to the radio, and regularly takes walks around the unit.
A 65-year-old patient, who has employment-induced presbycusis and advanced glaucoma.
An 84-year-old patient who has hemiparesis and ambulates with a walker.

Mrs. Starface, age 62 years, a First Nations patient, has been admitted with a chronic cough and progressive weight loss. She has a positive Mantoux test result, and is placed in isolation for suspected tuberculosis. What isolation precautions should the nurse take?
Have her wear a disposable mask when she is transported to the radiography department.
Wear a gown and gloves while in her isolation room.
Wear a disposable mask, gown, and gloves while giving care.
Discourage visitors from spending time with the patient to reduce transmission.

Mrs. Mames, age 27 years, gravida 1, para 0, is admitted in active labour. She states that her contractions are very intense and that she needs pain medication. What is the most important factor to assess before analgesic administration?
Her respiratory rate and fetal heart rate during contractions.
The frequency, duration, and intensity of her contractions.
The effectiveness of the coaching from her husband.
How well she manages through the next five contractions.

Mrs. Dravies, gravida 2, para 1, is admitted at 8 weeks gestation for a moderate amount of bleeding and abdominal cramps. A day later, the bleeding stops, and she is being discharged. What would you include in discharge teaching?
Ask her how badly she wants this baby and what she would be willing to do to ensure carrying the baby to term.
Ask her if she understands the reason for the cramping and bleeding and explain what precautions she could take to retain the pregnancy.
Explain that nurse aborts the fetus if it is abnormal and that bleeding and cramps may indicate an abnormality.
Ask her if she has been eating nutritious meals and restricting her activity during pregnancy.

Mr. Jones, age 64 years, had a transurethral resection of the prostate yesterday. How could you detect hypovolemic shock in this client?
Slow, irregular heart rate and pulse deficit.
Bounding pulse and hypotension.
Pallor, cold extremities, and tachycardia.
Dark red-tinged urine, shivering, and confusion.

Jennifer, age 16 years, is admitted to the postanesthesia recovery room after wiring of a fractured jaw. She is conscious. Her breathing has become noisy and shallow. Her oxygen saturation levels were at 98 and now are at 90. What actions would you take?
Position her in Sims position with her head to the side, give oxygen as ordered, and suction if needed.
Position her in Fowler’s position to assist her in breathing and give oxygen as ordered.
Insert an airway, suction her, and position her in the supine position.
Encourage her to breathe deeply, position her in the prone position, and give oxygen as ordered.

Daniel, age 16 years, had a cast applied after a fracture of the tibia. When teaching him before discharge about detecting signs of impaired circulation and nervous system functioning, which signs would indicate problems?
Pallor, coolness, and numbness of the toes.
Pain at the fracture site and a small amount of bleeding through the cast.
Inability to move the leg at the fracture site.
Slight edema of the foot and presence of pedal pulse.
Mr. Blair had a bowel resection 2 days ago and has had a nasogastric (NG) tube inserted. He is complaining of increased abdominal pain and nausea. What assessments or actions would be most appropriate?
Check the patency and amount of drainage from the NG tube.
Give him an analgesic and antiemetic as ordered.
Irrigate the NG tube with water and give an analgesic as ordered.
Explain that nausea is common because the NG tube irritates the gag reflex.
Mr. Evans has ascites secondary to cirrhosis of the liver. He is jaundiced and malnourished. Which of the following problems is not associated with cirrhosis of the liver?
Eupnea related to esophageal varices.
Potential for pressure ulcers related to malnourishment.
Concentrated, dark urine related to kidney excretion of bile byproducts.
Confusion and disorientation related to increase in circulating toxins.
Mrs. Chu had a cholecystectomy 2 days ago. Which signs would indicate a wound infection?
Serosanguineous drainage, temperature of 38-degree C, and abdominal pain.
Purulent drainage, pain in the mid incision, and temperature of 38.5-degree C.
Serous drainage, temperature of 38 degree C, and redness of the incision line.
Sanguinous drainage, temperature of 37.5 degree C, and bradycardia.

Dillon is 7 years old and weighs 30 kg. He has acute streptococcal pharyngitis. He is prescribed Keflex (cephalexin) 26.67 mg/kg q6h. How much would he receive in each dose?
150 mg.
200 mg.
400 mg.
None of the above.

Jane, age 18 years, has an asthma attack when in the hospital. She is in respiratory distress. What initial action would you take?
Position her in the supine position and administer oxygen and bronchodilators as ordered.
Position her in the Sims position and gave bronchodilators as ordered.
Position her in Fowler’s position, initiate oxygen, and give bronchodilators as ordered.
Give bronchodilators and steroid medication as ordered.

Mrs. Jones, age 34 years, returns from the recovery room after bowel surgery. She is receiving morphine sulfate through a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. When you assess her pain levels, her pain intensity is 8 of 10. When you ask her if she has been using the button to relieve her pain, she states, “I’m afraid that I’ll become addicted if I use too much morphine.” Which would be the best response to her concern?
“Morphine is not addicting in these circumstances.”
“You need to take the morphine to help you rest and recuperate from the surgery; you can deal with the addiction later.”
“When morphine is used to alleviate severe pain for 2 to 3 days, there is little likelihood of becoming addicted.”
“Have you had problems with drug addiction before?”

Mr. Keaton, age 65 years, has a plastic anemia and is going to receive a transfusion of packed blood cells. In addition to taking vital signs and verifying that packed blood cells are matched to the patient, what other assessments would you make?
Assess pain at the transfusion site and transfuse the packed blood cells over 5 hours to lessen reactions.
Check the patient regarding chills, low back pain, dyspnea, and skin itching during the transfusion.
Ask the patient about headaches, maintaining bed rest during the transfusion, and reducing intake of fluids to reduce the likelihood of fluid overload.
Transfuse the blood quickly for the first 15 minutes and then check for abnormal breath sounds and other symptoms.

Mrs. Kilts, age 84 years, has hypostatic pneumonia. When you complete your assessment, which of the following would indicate hypoxia?
Tachypnea, orthopnea, tachycardia, and circumoral cyanosis.
Hypotension, bradycardia, braypnea, and use of accessory muscles in the neck.
Eupnea, hypertension, bradycardia, and cyanosis of the nail beds.
Occasional productive cough, pursed-lip breathing, and nasal flaring.

When you enter the recreation room, you observe Sara Jones, age 20 years, pacing, speaking in a threatening manner, and appearing to defend herself. She has been diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. What approach would you take?
Approach her directly and tell her you are going to get her some medication to help her calm down.
Ignore her until she calms down and then approach her gently and ask what is wrong.
Ask her if she is hallucinating and whether she has taken her medication today,
Approach her calmly and find out what is causing her to be upset.

Mr. Pritchard, age 55 years, has been informed by his doctor that his pancreatic cancer is inoperable and that it has spread to his liver. When you enter the room, he states, “The doctor feels that things are hopeless. I hate this place. You’re all so useless. Just leave me alone.” What would be a therapeutic response?
“This is devastating news for you. I’ll let you have some time and will come back later.”
“You arc much too young to have inoperable cancer. How does your family fee l about this?”
“You’ll need to get over this. Your family needs you to get your affairs in order.”
“Why are you upset with us? You need some time to calm down.”

Mr. Corwin, age 74 years, has had an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) after a right hip fracture. What are important priorities on the first postoperative day?
Supporting the leg to maintain adduction, ensuring adequate pain control, and maintaining bed rest.
Assessing the neurovascular status in the right leg; providing pa in control; and encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises, position changes, and early ambulation.
Assessing for skin integrity, enhancing his nutritional status, and restricting his movement and activity in bed.
Preventing confusion and disorientation, restricting analgesics, and encouraging pursed-lip breathing.

Mr. Balm, age 70 years, comes into the emergency department with acute onset of severe chest pain, dyspnea, and anxiety. His respirations are 28 breaths/min, and he has circumoral cyanosis with an oxygen saturation of 84%.

What would your immediate actions be?

Gather information regarding the nature and intensity of the chest pain.
Place him in Fowler’s position, Initiate oxygen therapy, and gel an analgesic ordered.
Keep him in the supine position, encourage deep breathing, and request an ECG.
Get an order for an analgesic, position him in the side-lying position, and encourage pursed- lip breathing.

During a gymnastics practice, 18-year-old Tracey falls and fractures her right tibia. The doctor asks to be notified if anterior compartment syndrome presents in the right extremity. What signs and symptoms would indicate this syndrome?
Edema of the right foot, loss of sensation in the right leg, and hypotension.
Edema of the right foot, redness on the skin surface or the calf, and poor capillary refill in the toenails.
Severe pain aggravated by plantarflexion, tense and tender muscles in the lateral right calf, and paresthesia.
Painful contracture of the calf muscles, inability to extend the leg, and redness arid warmth in the calf region.

Mr. Harris, age 65 years, had a n abdominal perineal resection for cancer of the rectum. He is receiving morphine via a patient-control analgesia (PCA) pump. What would your priority assessment be regarding the analgesia?
The rate and depth of respiration.
The pulse rate and blood pres sure
The effectiveness of pain control
The accuracy of the programming on the pump.

You are caring for Shauna, an 18- year-old gymnast who has been admitted for investigation of seizures. She weighs 50 kg. For two meals, you observe that she eats a very small amount of salad and skim milk. What approach would you take?
Tell her you will have a dietician come to assess her eating habits.
Ask her about her usual eating patterns and reason for her low intake.
In form the doctor regarding her poor intake and suggest an appetite stimulant.
Inform her that it she isn’t eating foods, a nasogastric feeding tube will have to be inserted.

When you complete the initial postoperative assessment for Mr. Violini, age 55 years, you note that his IV is in fusing at 200 cc/hr. You check the order, which reads: “IV of 1000 cc D5S to infuse over 8 hours.” What actions would you lake?
Continue infusing the IV at 200 cc/hr and observe his hydration status.
Change the rate to 125 cc/hr and observe for fluid overload.
Reduce the rate to 150 cc/hr and observe for fluid overload.
Tell him that he should not adjust the flow clamp on the IV.

Dana Evans, age 19 years, has been admitted after an asthma attack. When you complete your assessment, you observe that she is anxious, has audible wheezing, and is using her neck muscles when breathing. What would you do?
Position her in orthopneic position, encourage coughing exercises, and ask her to calm down.
Position her in Fowler’s position, administer oxygen, and give her the ordered pm lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg.
Encourage her to lie in a semi-prone position, perform diaphragmatic breathing, and give her the ordered pm beclomethasone dipropionate (Beclovent) inhaler.
Position her in Fowler’s position, administer oxygen as ordered, and give her the ordered pm med salbutamol (ventolin) by inhaler.

Mr. Lexus, age 33 years, comes into the emergency department with severe back pain radiating to the left lower groin region. The doctor suspects renal calculi and orders meperidine HCI (Demerol) 100 mg 1M q3-4h pm. One hour after Mr. Lexus receives the medication, he states that the pain is still at 8 of 10. What actions would you take?
Explain that the medication takes longer than 1 hour to exert its effects.
Tell him he will have to wait for 2 more hours before he can get his next injection.
Contact the doctor, explain that the pain is still at 8 of 10, and request a higher dosage.
Ask Mr. Lexus if he has routinely taken pain killers or street drugs.

Which of the following indicates that the nurse is using critical thinking skills?
The nurse follows the routine of the unit and encourages others to do the same.
The nurse asks another nurse to outline the steps in performing a wound packing.
The nurse does not know the answer and checks to find the answer on the unit or in the library.
The nurse asks the patient about the symptoms she is experiencing an d lists them on the care plan.

Which is the most important step in the nursing process?
The assessment step because it involves collecting, organizing, and validating information that is used for the remaining steps.
The nursing diagnosis step because it involves identifying the problems.
The planning steps because it identifies ways to reduce, prevent and resolve problems.
The implementation step because it ensures that interventions are effective.

When identifying the nursing diagnosis or patient problems, which statement is most accurate?
The nursing diagnosis helps to clarify the medical diagnosis and the problems that result from this diagnosis.
Critical thinking skills are used to interpret, analyze, and duster the assessment data to determine the problems.
The nursing diagnosis focuses on ways to prevent, reduce, or resolve the identified problems.
The identification of patient problems provides the means of measuring the degree to which the goals are met.

When performing a psychosocial assessment, which areas should be assessed?
Breathing patterns, circulation patterns, and metabolic needs.
Health ha bits, family, and social and sexual pattern).
General survey, movement, eating habits, and activities of daily living.
Rest and sleep patterns, activity and exercise patterns, and coping and stress tolerance.

What is the primary purpose of conducting a health history?
Identify the risk factors and how to promote health for the client.
Obtain information to identify the level of health of the client and his or her past illnesses.
Examine the chief complaint of the client and related factors.
Provide for health teaching opportunities.
When completing the physical assessment of the abdomen, which is the first skill used in the assessment?

Which of the following statements heard during shift report identifies an important priority for action?
A patient is reluctant to ambulate on the evening of surgery.
A postoperative patient’s pulse has been increasing, and his blood pressure is decreasing.
A postoperative patient is drowsy and slow to respond when the analgesic is at its maximal effect.
A postoperative patient has not voided for 5 hours alter surgery.

Upon completion of teaching related to Lanoxin (digoxin), a client is able to explain the effects of the medication and when not take it and can also identify the radial pulse site. What would this indicate?
An accurate assessment of her teaching needs.
An evaluation of psychomotor and cognitive learning.
A high degree of motivation.
An independent learner.

When teaching a group of middle-aged women, what would you include when discussing primary prevention?
Prevention of anemia and type 1 diabetes.
Prevention of ulcers and inflammatory bowel disease.
Fall prevention and maintaining joint mobility.
Prevention of osteoporosis and the importance of regular breast self-examinations and regular Pap smears.

A community health nurse is planning to address the needs of elderly adults living in their homes. What primary area s should be included in this discussion?
Importance of exercise, balanced nutrition and hydration, and safety and fall prevention.
Prevention of joint deterioration and mobility problems.
Prevention of hearing and visual deficits.
Importance of frequent doctor visits and access to health care resources.

Which of the following legal definitions is true?
Good Samaritan laws are designed to protect victims in emergency situations.
Negligence is intentional failure to act responsibly or deliberate omission of a professional act.
Malpractice is failure to perform professional duties that result in patient injury.
Scope of practice involves general guidelines that define nursing.

A nurse has delegated the taking of vital signs for an unregulated health care provider. When a client’s blood pressure is reported as high, the registered nurse rechecks the blood, pressure and other vital signs for the patient. What would these actions be called?
Obligation to the patient.
Reversing of delegation.
Empowerment of the patient.
Accountability for care.

When suctioning a tracheotomy, which actions are correct?
Insert the suction catheter as far as patient can tolerate and suction for 25 seconds.
Oxygenate the patient and then suction for 10 to 15 seconds while withdrawing the catheter.
Suction every 15minutes to prevent secretions, from accumulating.
Commence suctioning upon insertion of the catheter and continue for 5 seconds while withdrawing the catheter.
A patient has been admitted to the emergency department after a car accident. He is sent to the hospital unit after emergency chest tube insertion. What would constitute an emergency situation with the chest tube?
Bubbling of air in the underwater seal chamber.
Improper suction setting on the wall suction.
Disconnection of the connecting tubing from the chest tube.
Drainage of bloody material into the drainage chamber.

A postoperative patient after bowel surgery has orders for DAT (diet as tolerated). What assessments would indicate return of peristalsis?
Distended abdomen and tympany on percussion.
Soft abdomen and absence of bowel sounds on auscultation.
Intermittent cramping, abdominal pain and bowel sounds in all four quadrants.
Nausea, vomiting, and pain on palpation.

A patient has a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump with morphine after a bowel resection. What are the nursing responsibilities after the client has self-administered a bolus of medication?
Have the client mobilize to reduce the harmful effects of morphine.
Ensure that the client understands that a bolus may take up to 15 minute to alleviate the pain.
Encourage deep breathing and coughing exercises to lessen respiratory depression.
Reduce the amount of IV pain medication being administered on a regular basis.

Your assigned patient has been requesting a stronger pain medication. In response, the doctor has ordered morphine combined with a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) for pain relief. How would you explain the effectiveness of these two medications?
Combining these two drugs will increase pain relief without the increased side effects of increasing the morphine dose.
The two drugs are antagonistic, so they will relieve the pain but will counteract the side effects.
Combining the two drugs will lessen the incidence of addiction.
The NSAID will relieve muscle pain; the morphine will act centrally on the central nervous system to relieve pain.

In addition to the pain medication, what other measures help promote comfort and alleviate pain?
Encouraging ambulation and vigorous rubbing of the inflamed tissues.
Gentle massage of the area, warm and cold applications, guided imagery, and TENS.
Prolonged heat applications followed by prolonged cold application to the area
Encouraging tensing of muscles and performing distraction exercises.

Which of the following would be indicators of severe hypoxia?
Generalized pallor and eupnea.
Circumoral cyanosis and Pa02 of 70 mm Hg.
Low oxygen saturation levels of 95%.
Increased anxiety and drowsiness.
What nursing measures are important when a Foley retention catheter has been inserted?
The Foley catheter should be left unsecured to prevent urethral irritation.
Urine samples should be obtained by disconnecting the catheter from the drainage bag.
The patient should limit fluid intake to keep the catheter patent.
Reflux of urine from the tubing to the bladder should be prevented.

You read through your assigned patient’s chart. The history states: “Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea; reduced CSWM in left leg.” What do these medical history terms and abbreviations indicate.’?
The patient is experiencing intermittent shortness of breath, is unable to breathe unless in a supine position, and has impaired venous return in the left leg.
The patient is experiencing painful breathing and shortness of breath with exertion and has impaired arterial flow to the left leg.
The patient is experiencing periods of severe shortness of breath at night and impaired circulation and sensory and motor functioning in the left leg.
The patient has reduced breathing capacity, loss of breathing reserve, and impaired motor movement of the left leg.

Which sexuality alterations might emerge after a myocardial infarction (MI)?
The patient may be concerned that a heart attack may occur during orgasm.
Emotional concerns may interfere with the phase of resolution.
The arousal phase may he affected by personal concerns.
Sexual dysfunction may present because of reduced ventricular contractions.

Which of the following signs and symptoms would indicate impaired arterial circulation in the lower extremities?
Capillary refill in the toenails with in 2 seconds.
Absence of dorsalis pedis pulse; coolness and decreased sensation in the feet.
Edema and coolness in the ankles and feet.
Redness, inflammation, and sharp pain with calf muscle con traction.

Which of the following isolation precautions would be relevant for the communicable illness identified?
Airborne precautions are indicated for varicella (chickenpox) and involve wearing a mask when in the room.
Gloves, a mask, and a gown are worn when changing a wound dressing infected with Staphylococcus
If a patient is infected with VRE (vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus), vital signs equipment is brought into the room every time it is needed.
Specimens obtained from a contaminated wound would be transferred directly to the laboratory without special precautions.

You are developing a care plan for a patient with tuberculosis. What isolation precautions would you take?
Use a special mask to prevent inhaling infected airborne droplets.
Wear a mask, gown, and gloves when providing care.
Wear c, gown and gloves when in contact with the patient.
Prevent visitors from visiting to reduce the possibility of transmission.

You arc assessing a patient who has been in a car accident. He complains about sore ribs and painful breathing on the left side of his chest cage. What assessment findings would alert you to a pneumothorax?
Pain on exhalation; fatigue.
Dyspnea; decreased breath sounds on the affected side.
Bradycardia and hypertension.
Tachypnea and hyperventilation.

A patient has been diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Suddenly, the patient develops chest pain and severe dyspnea. He looks anxious and is very apprehensive. What actions would you take?
Position him in Fowler’s position, initiate oxygen, and call the physician.
Auscultate for abnormal breath sounds and encourage deep breathing.
Encourage pursed- lip breathing and coughing exercises.
Ambulate the patient, encourage deep breaths, and take the apical pulse.
Your patient has a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Which of the following neurologic deficits may present after a CVA?
Visual field deficits such as homonymous hemianopsia.
Emotional changes such as lack of emotional response and enhanced coping.
Motor deficits such as paresthesia with numbness and tingling.
Verbal deficits such as dysphagia and memory loss.

Which of the following assessment findings are associated with cholelithiasis?
Associated risk factors include being male and athletic.
Jaundice is seen if the calculus lodges in the common bile duct.
Biliary colic attacks occur when there is stone formation in the gallbladder.
Symptoms of pain include steady LUQ pain radiating to the left scapula.
Which of the following assessment findings are seen in patients with cancer of the head of the pancreas?
Early onset of pain.
Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting.
Early onset of jaundice and pruritus.
Presence of steatorrhea, melena stools, and dilute urine.

A client presents with cirrhosis of the liver secondary to alcohol abuse. What assessment findings would indicate portal hypertension?
Ascites and hematemesis.
Pulmonary edema.
Absence of jugular vein distension.
Cramps and watery diarrhea.

Alter a total hip arthroplasty, what are the most important precautions to prevent dislocation?
Limit movement s resulting in internal rotation and adduction of the affected hip.
Use a pillow under the knees to prevent hip flexion.
Reduce extension and hyperextension of the affected hip.
Use toile t seats to prevent circumduction of the hip joint.
Without hand washing between activities, a nurse makes an occupied bed and then assists another patient with meal preparation. Considering the chain of infection, which statement is true?
The new portal of entry of microorganisms could be through the mouth.
The mode of transmission is through direct contact.
Microorganisms from the bed making would be spread by direct contact.
An epidemic infect ion would occur if pathogens from the health care agency caused an illness.
What are characteristics of effective decision making strategies in a nurse?
Reviewing the chart and duplicating the actions of previous nurses.
Gathering assessment data and analyzing and identifying-priority problems.
Independently developing a plan of care based on the nurse’s workload.
Willingness to follow the doctor’s orders and directions without questioning his or her rationale.
What are important considerations when assessing and caring for a patient with pyrexia?
The patient usually experiences a decrease in vital signs.
The patient usually exhibits flushing of the skin and jaundice.
The patient may experience dehydration and convulsions from a high temperature.
The patient may experience increased urine output and dilute urine.
Which of the following statements is true regarding wound healing when an infection is present?
The infected portion of the wound will likely heal by primary intention.
The inflammatory phase of healing will be shortened.
The proliferative or regeneration phase will be delayed and prolonged.
There will be less for mat ion of granulation tissue because of the infection,

Which of the following assessment factors would indicate a need for oral pharyngeal suctioning?
Thin sputum and a weak cough.
Breathing rate of 36 breaths/min; noisy, gurgling respirations.
Auscultation of fluid (rales and rhonchi) in the lower lobes of the lungs.
Oxygen saturation levels of 95%; use of diaphragmatic breathing.

Which of the following is an important consideration when performing oral-pharyngeal suctioning?
Oxygen provided before suctioning limits the effectiveness of the suction.
The nurse should only suction when the patient agrees to the procedure.
Fluid intake should be limited to reduce the secretions produced.
The duration of each suctioning episode should be IO to 15 seconds.
What important postoperative care measures related to care of chest tubes should be done the day after a lobectomy?
Disconnect the tubing to empty and measure drainage at the end of each shift.
Frequently check the dressing and chest tube for drainage.
Ensure that all connections arc securely taped.
Position the patient in the prone or supine position to permit optimal drainage.

Nutrients are important for wound healing. Which of the following is true regarding the role of specific nutrients in healing?
Vitamin C is needed for building capillaries and fibroblasts in the inflammatory phase.
Essential amino acids art’ needed to ensure building blocks are present for building or proliferative phase.
Nonessential fatty acids to provide a good supply of glucose for energy.
Vitamin K is needed for the convalescent phase to help restore energy and nutrient needs.
Mr. John G. has a history of cramps and has been experiencing diarrhea for the past 2 days. His urine is concentrated. You would assess for:
Dehydration by checking tissue turgor and checking mucous membranes.
Impaction as a result of the surgery.
Signs of kidney suppression because of the concentrated urine.
Absence of bowel sounds in the abdomen.

What assessment findings would indicate circulatory overload from too rapid an IV in fusion?
Decreased pulse, decreased blood pressure, and jugular vein distension.
Increased pulse, increased respirations, and jugular vein distension.
Headache, paleness, and hypertension.
Increased temperature, peripheral edema, and decreased pulse rate.

Which is the priority system to assess when a patient has severe hypothyroidism?
Respiratory system.
Heart and circulation.
Neuro logic system.
Integumentary system.
A patient with diabetes is being tested for glvcosylated hemoglobin. How would you explain the reason for this diagnostic test?
It determines the fasting blood glucose level.
It determines the average blood glucose level in the previous; months.
It determines the ratio of glucose to hemoglobin.
It is used to identify a reduction in hemoglobin because of high glucose levels.

Case Study: Mr. Evan Jenkins, age 65 years, has had type 2 diabetes for 20 years and has been admitted to the hospital with chronic renal failure. Questions 87 to 90

When completing the initial assessment, which signs would indicate circulatory overload?
Increased blood pressure, apprehension, and shock.
Weigh t gain, coughing of frothy sputum, and jugular vein distension.
Cool, dry skin; gastric distension; and pleural edema.
Apprehension, poor tissue turgor, and bradycardia.
Which of the following statements is true regarding end-stage renal failure?
A common cause of renal failure is pyelonephritis.
It results in an increase in erythropoietin, leading to chronic fatigue.
It results in a decrease in creatinine and blood urea nitrogen.
It is characterized by fluid volume excess, hypernatremia, and hyperkalemia.
What are important nursing care measures for a patient with chronic renal failure?
Prepare the client for temporary peritoneal dialysis or hemodialvsis.
Restrict sodium and potassium; restrict fluids as ordered.
Provide a diet high in protein; restrict fluids as ordered.
Monitor for hypotension and maintain accurate intake and output records.
Mr. Jenkins makes this comment just before his hemodialysis treatment: “What have I got to live for? I’d just like this to be over.” How would you interpret these comments?
This indicates feelings of depression associated with a long –term, incurable disease.
This response will be temporary, and he will feel much better after his hemodialysis is initiated.
His family is no t providing the support he needs at this time.
This is an unusual response and indicates that his cognitive abilities have become impaired by the disease.
A client has just been transferred to the postanesthesia recovery room. What are the most important initial assessments that need to be completed?
Skin color, warmth of extremities, and mental status assessment.

Question 30: Health Care

NSG 4029 WEEK 5 KNOWLEDGE CHECK
1. Technology competence is:

The goals of nursing informatics are effectiveness, efficiency and safety.
An informatics nurse violates a patient’s legal right to privacy and confidentiality by:
Which fields in nursing were affected by the information technology?

Question 31: Law

The purpose of this paper is to enable you to complete an original research project on a relevant topic in the administration of justice. Drawing on the extant literature and using your own unique research frame, you will develop and complete a research paper that answers your unique questions (your electives classes in AJ will help) about an issue in the administration of justice. While your own interests will guide your research, it is crucial to use the literature available to develop an informed and professional research paper.

Paper Requirements: After your topic is selected and approved. (1) Abstract: should include your research questions, the theory (AJ 100 or 105 will help) or theories that inform your research, the methods of data collection and analysis (see AJ 301/2) to be used, and what you believe you will find as a result of your study (see course objectives). (2) BODY: After you have identified a specific topic, you will then develop your own unique area of discussion and analysis: introduction, literature review, theory and methods, and possible finding (your previous courses in AJ will help such as AJ 100,105, 211,240, etc.). (3) Citations: You must use the APA guide for identifying authors cited in the text as well as the bibliography listing all sources used in alphabetical order. If you are not familiar with APA, there are reference guides in the library as well as on-line sources. (4) Placement of graphs, figures, or tables: If you use graphs, figures, or tables in your paper, I would prefer that you note their location in the text, [TABLE 1 HERE], and compile all tables at the end of the paper. This is easier for both the writer and the reader. (5) Format: Papers must be type, double spaced, with one-inch side, top, and bottom margins and use a 12-point font.. The minimum page requirement for the paper is 12 pages (NOTE: cover, reference, graphs, figures and, tables pages will not be counted as part of the 12 pages). While I do not specify a maximum length, I am anticipating that most people will submit papers 12 pages long.

Question 32: Business

Explain what happens to the 95 % confidence interval as the sample size increases. (2 marks)
Explain what happens to the width of the confidence interval for a 99% interval versus a 95%. (2 marks)

Q2. Consider the population of adult females resident in Melbourne. Our focus is on the population mean height. Assume we do not know 𝜎 (population standard deviation) or the population mean, µ. We take a sample of adult females resident in Melbourne (n=100) and calculate the sample mean height as 70 cm and the sample standard deviation as 25cm.

Derive the 95% confidence interval for the population mean (4 marks)
Compare your interval here and last week – which is larger and why? (2 marks)

To answer ii question, you need to answer the question below.

Tutorial covering Lecture Topic 6: Part 1 Confidence intervals. (answer this in different page)

Q3. Consider the population of adult females resident in Melbourne. Our focus is on the population mean height. Assume we know 𝜎 (population standard deviation) is 25, but we do not know the population mean, µ. We take a sample of adult females resident in Melbourne (n=100) and calculate the sample mean height as 70 cm.

Derive the 95% confidence interval around the sample mean. (3 marks)
In your answer to i) will the specific confidence interval you have derived contain the population mean? Explain carefully. (2 marks)

Question 33: Business

INDIVIDUAL LEARNING PROJECT INSTRUCTIONS The Individual Learning Project is an opportunity for you to evaluate yourself and your role within your organization by completing 10 self-assessment activities. You will begin the paper by completing a modified Abstract that details a past, present, or future job you will use as a basis for analyzing the self-assessment results. You will then write a full-page analysis of each assessment and combine all 10 together according to the provided format for submission at the end of the course. Each self-assessment must have at least 1 reference from your textbook to support your analysis and be cited according to current APA. You will find the Self-Assessment Activities in Connect. These are the activities you must complete. They are found at the end of the indicated chapter. CHAPTER SELF-ASSESSMENT ACTIVITY 2 Are You Introverted or Extraverted? 4 How Do You Cope With Stressful Situations? 5 How Strong Are Your Growth Needs? 7 What is your Preferred Decision-Making Style? 8 What Team Roles Do You Prefer? 9 Are You An Active Listener? 10 What’s Your Approach to Influencing Co-Workers? 11 What’s Your Preferred Conflict Handling Style? 12 Do Leaders Make a Difference? 13 What Organizational Structure Do You Prefer? After completing an assessment, analyze it by using the scoring key located in Connect and write an analysis with the following components: Title of the self-assessment (centered at the top of the page) 1. Purpose of assessment 2. Your actual score 3. The interpretation of your score, using the assessment feedback 4. How you can use the results of this self-assessment to improve your effectiveness and/or efficiency in an organization Page and Paper Format: • Components 1–3 above must not exceed 1/4 of the space on the page. • Component 4 above must occupy the remaining 3/4 of the space on the page. • All pages must be double-spaced with 1” margins (right, left, top, bottom) and left-justified. • Font must be Times New Roman and 12-pt size. • Titles for each assessment must be centered according to current APA format. • The first line of paragraphs must be indented 5 spaces. • For the submitted collection of analyses, attach a standard cover page like the sample document accompanying these instructions. Your submissions must also include a reference page. • Submit the collection as a Microsoft Word document. • Page headers must include short title and pagination (use Microsoft Word header function) with standard numbering according to APA requirements

Question 34: English

Notes on plagiarism:

According to the Arab Open University By-laws, “the following acts represent cases of cheating and plagiarism:

Verbatim copying of printed material and submitting them without proper academic acknowledgement and documentation.
Verbatim copying of material from the Internet, including tables and graphics.
Copying other students’ notes or answers.
Using paid or unpaid material prepared for the student by individuals or firms.

Penalties for plagiarism ranges from failure in the STMA to expulsion from the university.

Collaboration with anyone else (including fellow students) is strictly prohibited.

All quotations used must be referenced.

Declaration: I hereby declare that the submitted STMA is my own work and I have not copied any other person’s work or plagiarized in any other form as specified above.

Student Signature:

FACULTY OF LANGUAGE STUDIES

EL120: English Phonetics and Linguistics

Exam Instructions:

There are THREE parts to this examination paper as in the following table:

Part	Question No.	Marks per section
A		50
B	a	7.5
	b	5
	c	2.5
C		35
TOTAL		100

You are required to answer all THREE parts.

Follow carefully the instruction in each part.

Review your answers carefully paying attention to your grammar, spelling and punctuation as well as to relevant textual elements (e.g. paragraphing, cohesion & coherence) as part of the mark for each question will be given to language accuracy and text organization.

You are required to answer ALL questions

PART A

Answer the following questions in a paragraph form in not less than 150 words each. USE YOUR OWN WORDS (50marks)

Explain why there are more sounds than letters of the alphabet in English? Illustrate your answer with examples. (Not less than 150 words) (25 Marks)

___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

What are the differences between a phoneme and an allophone? Refer to at least 2 features as examples of allophones and the effect of neighboring sounds. Use examples of your own to illustrate your answer. (Not less than 150 words) (25 Marks)

PART B

a) Give the appropriate phonetic symbol for each of the following consonant descriptions and provide examples of this symbol in three positions (initial, medial, final)

(7.5 Marks)

i) Voiced dental fricative: / / Examples: ____________, ______________, ____________

ii) Voiceless velar plosive/stop: / / Examples: ____________, ______________, ____________

iii) Voiceless post alveolar affricate: / / Examples: ____________, ______________, ____________

b) Give the appropriate phonetic symbol for each of the following descriptions of RP

vowels: Put each vowel in three examples of your own. (5 Marks)

A long, front, high, unrounded vowel: / / Examples: ____________, ______________, ____________

A short, front, high, unrounded vowel: / / Examples: ____________, ______________, ____________

c) Use the above two vowels in b) in two sets of minimal pairs to illustrate the difference between them. (2.5 marks)

________________ & ___________________
________________ & ___________________

PART C

Which of the following statements is true (T) and which is false (F)? Provide the correct answer in case of “FALSE” . Explain The Phonetic Rule Relevant To Each Of The 7 Statements. (35 Marks)

The pronunciation in connected speech of “good girl” as / good girl / is an example of aspiration.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

The difference between the /f/ in the word fish and the /v/ sound in the word vase has to do with voicing.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

The pronunciation of the underlined vowel sounds in the following words is identical (the same): four – founder – soup.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

The alveolar ridge is the organ responsible for creating voiced and voiceless sounds.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

The /t/ in till has the same pronunciation as the /t/ in still.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

/l/ in light – while – milk is the same allophone.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

The place of the stress in the word ‘object’ is the same in the noun and the verb.

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Question 35: History

Please write a 250-word essay about a NJ Historical figure (that you select) found within the chapters of the Maxine Lurie text. Tell why this person is important, what they did, how others reacted to their actions, how this person relates to the present, and your Personal Analysis of the individual’s actions.

Question 36: General

What would Mary T. Norton think of the women’s movement of the 1970’s? What would she think of today’s society? Since Norton envisioned a female Governor and a female President, do you think she should have run for those offices? Why? How has Mary T. Norton impacted your life?

Question 37: Human Resource

What do you believe would be the most important components of the selection process for the following jobs? a Telemarketer,

Restaurant manager
c. School teacher
d. A beginner football player

Question 38: Finance

Instructions:

1	This is an individual assignment.
2	Your assignment should be typed using font-size 12, Times New Roman, and 1.5 spacing.
3	Your report should not exceed 2000 words in length. This excludes quotes, references.
4	It should contain complete references by using the APA referencing method for all citations made in the paper (including internet citations). An essay without citations would be considered as plagiarism and would be awarded a failed grade.
5	A Turnitin originality report has to be attached to the assignment. You will have to register yourself at www.turnitin.com. The information required when submitting your assignment are : · Class ID: 24175513 · Enrollment Password: d2fin100
6	The assignment should submit online through LMS
7	You must submit your assignment by 30 April 2020. Failure to submit the assignment by the stipulated date would result in your assignment not being marked or marked as zero.

You will be given a selected public listed company that listed in Bursa Malaysia as your research target.

You are required to find all the necessary financial information from the companies’ Annual Reports, on the companies’ website, online searching etc., in order to perform the different tasks that required by this assignment as shown in the following sections.

You are required to write an analysis report on your selected company to present you findings. Your reports should start with an introduction to introduce the background of the company and perform industry and competitive analysis to understand the intense of competitiveness in the market.

Section A

In the first section of your report, you are required to examine the short-term financial activities of your selected company.

Using the following assumptions together with the information you collect from the company’s annual report to perform the required task:

Assumption:

Assuming a constant rate for purchases, production, and sales throughout the year.
Assuming all sales are on credit.
Assume a 365-day year.
Assuming the credit period that currently offer by the company to their customers are close to the company’s average collection period, and they did not offer any cash discount.
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Required:

Calculate the following ratios for your selected company (based on the latest annual report):
1. Average age of Inventory
2. Average collection period
3. Average payment period
what are your selected company’s operating cycle (OC), cash conversion cycle (CCC), and the resource needs to support its cash conversion cycle (based on the latest annual report)?
The company are contemplating to introduce a cash discount of 3 percent to those who pay the account within 10 days, while the others are still expect to pay according to the current credit period. The following assumption have been made:
The sales revenues are expected to increase by 3 percent.
40 percent of the customers are expected to take the 3 percent discount.

The average collection periods are expected to reduce by 30%

The bad debt expenses are expected to decrease from 1.5% of sales to 1% of sales.
The firm’s opportunity cost of tying up funds in account receivable is 12%
All the costs of sales are variable cost and 50 percent of the other operational costs are variable cost.

Other incomes remain unchanged.

You are required to calculate the following items:

Additional profit contribution from the increase in sales revenue
Cost/cost savings of marginal investment in account receivable
Cost/cost savings of marginal bad debts
Cost of cash discount
Net profit/loss from initiating of proposed cash discount
Use your findings from part (a) to part (e) to assess whether offering the cash discount can be justified financially.

Answer the following questions:
1. Why is working capital management one of the most important and time-consuming activities of the financial manager?
2. What is the relationship between the predictability of a firm’s cash inflows and its required level of net working capital? How are net working capital, liquidity, and risk of insolvency related?
3. What are the basic trade-offs in a tightening of credit standards?

Section B

In this second section, you are required to conduct an equity analysis on your selected company. Your report should include the following content:

You are required to perform the equity valuation on the selected company to find the intrinsic value by using an appropriate equity valuation model.
Explain your selected equity valuation model, and why you think your selected model is appropriate to use to value the selected company.
Explain how you estimate/obtain the inputs for your valuation model, and why you think the method you use to estimate the input is appropriate for your selected company.
You should use the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) to calculate the required return for the selected company. You may find the Beta of your selected company from investing.com.
For the market return, you should use the return on FBM KLCI index as a proxy for the market return. You should first find the average monthly changes for FBM KLCI over the past twenty years and then annualized it to find the annual capital gains. You should then add the average annual capital gains with the long-term average dividend yield of FBMKLCI to find the annual market return. The average dividend yield for FBMKLCI are assumed to be 3.5%.
You should use the yield of 10 years Malaysian Government Securities to represent the risk-free rate.
Based on this information, you can then calculate required rate of return for the common stock of your selected company.
Using all of this information from the previous steps, you are then required to find the intrinsic value for your selected company.
You will also need to find out what is the current price of your selected company.
Explain how the outbreak of the Covid-19 will affect your selected company.
Based on your analysis, would you recommend buying this stock at the current market price? Explain why you make that recommendation.

Assessment Criteria

For your guidance, your assignment report will be marked as follows:

	Question	Marks (%)
	Introduction, Company Background and industry analysis	10
Section A	Working Capital Management
	Shows all calculations using appropriate formula/model. (Use Excel).	25
	Theory and explanation	15
Section B	Equity Valuation and Cost of Capital
	Shows all calculations using appropriate formula/model. (Use Excel).	30
	Explanation, discussion and analysis	15
	Conclusion and recommendation	5
	Total	100

The marks will then convert into the final weightage of 50%.

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Question 1: Art

Write about this sculpture.

Statue of Hercules (Lansdowne Herakles), about A.D. 125, Roman

https://www.getty.edu/art/antiquities/

Follow instruction. (it said artwork from a museum visit, due to virus crisis we change to online observation which is the link i provide above)

Include this:

compare this sculpture with this below

– post
– facial expression
– muscular
– heroism

Statue of a Victorious Youth, 300–100 B.C., Greek. https://www.getty.edu/art/antiquities/

INSTRUCTION:

PURPOSE: to apply what you have learned from the course about formal elements to a single work of art. Skills:This assignment will help you hone the following skills:

Observation in visual analysis
Interpretation and application of observations to problem solving
Articulation of ideas using art historical terminology
Clear writing to express and single point

Knowledge:

Components of composition
How elements of design interact
The creative process in the visual arts

TASK: To complete this assignment you will:

Observe and note formal elements you see. Consult the list of formal elements and principles of composition below.
Build an argument that shows how each element you discuss contributes to the effect you are claiming the work has.
Keep in mind that formal elements never work alone
Consider how the artist uses each element on your list. Ask yourself if the artist uses that element in a consistent way (which has the effect of unifying the subjects represented), or if the artist is using that element to differentiate, and so to create a specific contrast, between two or more areas.
Do NOT arrive at a thesis (the claim that you are going to support) for your essay until you have finished making observations about patterns in the use of each formal element and have thought about how those observations “add up.”
It might be helpful to consider the element of emphasis first. Ask yourself: Does the art/object have one main point of emphasis? Or are there two or more points of equal emphasis? Alternatively, is there no point of emphasis? Your answer to these questions should help you determine where the artist wants to direct initially your attention. Make a note of it.
Compose a formal analysis, 750 words (approximately 3 pages, 12pt times new roman font, double spaced, 1-inch margins)
You may wish to organize your discussion of formal elements by principles of composition that may result from the use of the formal elements, see below.
Be concise. In your first paragraph, clearly state what you think is the work’s main idea or effect—in other words, how the artist is characterizing his or her subject (or what qualities of the subject the artist is revealing). The first paragraph is the only place where a discussion of subject matter belongs. In subsequent paragraphs, support this thesis with evidence of how the various formal elements of the work contribute to that specific effect or idea.
Focus just on those formal elements that have the most impact in your case. You should, however, address no fewer than three formal elements (items 1 through 7 below) in a substantial manner. It is a good idea to organize your paper so that you discuss one formal element per paragraph after your initial paragraph, which should state your thesis. If relevant to your analysis, you may use a principle of composition as a topic for organizing your discussion of several formal elements.
Make sure that each paragraph in which you consider a formal element shows how the artist’s use of that formal element contributes to the overall effect or idea you are claiming (in your thesis, or first paragraph) the artist has achieved.
Do not write in narrative format, describing your experience.
Format your paper
MUST be 750 words (12pt times new roman font, double spaced, 1-inch margins)

NOTES:

This is not a research assignment. You will not be rewarded, and could be penalized, for writing about irrelevant matters.
If the mechanics of writing is not your strength, please note that art history is a writing-based discipline. It is, therefore, recommended that, prior to handing in your assignment, you make time to visit the Learning Resource Center on the second floor of the University Library for assistance.
Plagiarism: Students will automatically fail the course and may be referred for further disciplinary action should the student be found plagiarizing. The 2016-17 University Catalogue, under “Student Conduct and Discipline: Academic Integrity,” at http://catalog.csupomona.edu/content.php?catoid=4&navoid=766#Academic_Integrity, defines plagiarism thus:

“Plagiarism, falsification, fabrication—Plagiarism, falsification, fabrication is intentionally or knowingly presenting words, ideas, or work of others as one’s own work. Plagiarism includes copying homework,

copying lab reports, copying computer programs, using a work or portion of a work written or created by another but not crediting the source, using one’s own work completed in a previous class for credit in another class without permission, paraphrasing another’s work without giving credit, and borrowing or using ideas without giving credit.”

*Note from the catalog’s definition of plagiarism that plagiarism may refer to copying the work of a fellow student. So, if you study with another student, make sure you do the actual assignment INDEPENDENTLY!

Formal Elements

*Refer to class notes to review various formal elements and how they work.

Color (hue)
a. color saturation

High saturation of color helps to create intensity. b. interaction of colors

This includes the impact of complementary and analogous colors.
*Note: Formal analysis does not involve symbolic interpretations of colors. In other words, do not make statements such as “yellow symbolizes optimism.” The formal effect of colors always

depends on their relationship to other colors.

Value
Low value = dark (black or tones of colors). High value = light (white or tints of colors).

Remember that contrast of value is the only compositional dynamic that creates emphasis in a painting.

Line
a. actual: can have character: thick, thin, curving, straight, etc.

They can also direct the eye and indicate movement.

Do not confuse line with brushwork.
b. implied: can indicate movement or they can simply ensure

that the viewer makes connections among certain objects in the painting.
c. axis: refers to the dominant implied line in a painting (horizontal vertical, or

diagonal). Remember that diagonal axis usually imply dynamism, movement.

Scale (remember: in painting, there are two kinds of scale to consider)
a. when speaking of the scale of the painting as an object, consider whether the painting creates,

for example, an intimate or a distant relationship between you, the viewer, and the subject.
b. When speaking of scale as the relative sizes of objects in the painting, consider the impact

of significant disparities of scale. Does the artist, for example, suggest that one object overwhelms, is more powerful, than another?

Brushwork
If it’s visible, brushwork shows how the artist laid down paint (spontaneously, smoothly,

erratically, roughly, etc.). This gives the depiction of the subject a particular energy.

Medium (materials)
Medium could be important if the choice of medium is unusual. If so, it
may be used to emphasize particular physical properties (transparency, roughness, etc.) or

cultural associations (opulence, humbleness, etc.).

Point of view
How objects or figures are arranged in relation to you, the viewer, is an indication of the

perspective (literally and figuratively) that the artist wants us to have in relation to that subject.

Principles of composition
*not themselves formal elements, but are created by the use of formal elements.

Emphasis (focal point).
Note: This is a good one to discuss first, since it tells you whether or not the artist is communicating that a particular part of the composition is more important than other parts. Keep in mind that, in a painting, there may be one or multiple or no points of emphasis.
Contrast (any element may be used contrastingly in a composition). Be sure to specify what sort of contrast you mean.
Rhythm (repetition of line or shape—a form bounded by line—creates rhythm) 10. Unity (referring to compositional coherence)
11. Balance (referring to the equal distribution of visual weights)
Construction of space. Does the artist create spatial recession (depth) or flatness, or a combination of both? If you consider the construction of space in your essay, you should articulate the compositional cause(s) and expressive effect(s) of the spatial recession or flatness you find.

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Question 2: Economics

Drawing diagrams and describing them on the topic of “Impact on AD/AS” (Macroeconomics.)

Impact on AD / AS:

Economic event	Primary Impact on AD / AS (draw a diagram)	Explanation (what caused the change, and make sure you say what happens to the price level and real GDP)
The Central Bank has announced an increase in interest rates.
The price of oil worldwide is decreasing.
The Rouble has fallen in value against many of the major currencies.
Government has announced a new plan to build 3 new high-speed rail lines.
Average wage rates in the economy are rising.
Consumer confidence surveys show that households expect a prolonged recession. At the same time, firms also expect a prolonged recession.
The discovery of new raw material sources
Foreign countries purchase an unusually large quantity of Russian lumber.
The vegetable growing areas of Russia experience an extended drought.

Question 3: Health Care

In a well-constructed paragraph explain & describe the biases in this Case-Control study?

Case-Control study: A researcher plans to investigate the efficacy of a new pancreatic cancer screening tool, using a Case-Control study design. She selects patients from 10 physicians’ offices, and places them into two groups. The Control group has no family history of pancreatic cancer. They receive one screening per year using the typical method. The Case group has a family history of pancreatic cancer. They receive two screenings per year, using the new technique.

Question 4: History

INSTRUCTIONS: Paper must be: Two to three pages in length; APA format; at least two references must be used- the text book does not count; include a reference page——–title page and abstract are not required.

This is the textbook that goes with the class.

Text: Racial and Ethnic Relations, Census Edition Author(s): Feagin, J., R., &

Feagin, C. B.

ISBN: 0-205-02499-8 ISBN-13: 978-0-205-02499-5

Edition / Copyright: 9TH 12 – Current Edition

Publisher: Pearson

Question: EXAM QUESTION: Discuss how the Holocaust has impacted the Jewish people today and how it may impact future generations. Specific examples. If you feel the Holocaust had no past or future impact support your stance with solid research. What impact has the push to deny the Holocaust had on society?

Question 5: Business

This assignment has 2 parts which needs to be done separately. Part 1: You’ve developed a very popular, up-scale but reasonably priced, clothing fashion line for young people. You produce designs in a number of countries, manufacturing in low-cost locations, and with retail outlets in major U.S. and European cities. Demand is popping and you have access to plenty of production capacity and capital. Answer the following questions:(A) How should you organize the business outside of the U.S.? (B)Should you set-up reasonably independent companies, subsidiaries, in each foreign market?(C)What would that do and not do for you?(D)Or, do you want to impose a strict brand image, procedures, and central planning from headquarters, where your offices are?(E)What are the pros and cons of this approach?….

Instruction

Part2: Explain the First Mover Advantage and the six modes of entry into foreign markets. Identify a foreign market that you will be entering. What are the advantages and disadvantages of each? Identify the best market entry strategy that you will be using for the foreign market of your choice……NO MINIMUM WORDING

Question 6: Biology

Format: Formal essay MLA, Times new roman, 12 pt, double spaced, 1000 words. Intro, body paragraphs for evidence, conclusion. – Topic: Compare and contrast the characters in “Boys and girls” by Alice Munro and “The Cask of Amontillado” by Edgar Allan Poe to demonstrate the different way Realism and romanticism portray characters. – Please include a works cited page with the two short stories and other articles and references to back up the claims. (At least minimum of 2 other references minus the short stories) – Make sure you read the short stories and understand the main characters in each of them before writing (Boy and Girls is realism and The Cask of Amontillado is Romanticism)

Question 7: Management

Management Team Decision

PURPOSE – The purpose of this exercise is for your team to assess the importance of certain policies to an organizational culture and to weigh the effects of changing policies that account for the unique character of that organizational culture. This exercise also pushes you to consider how external issues (sociocultural, demographic) affect the internal environment of the firm.

As a team take a perspective (“for pets” or “against pets”) and discuss the reasons in support of that perspective. For example, a group of “for pets” would only discuss reasons to keep the pet policy.

DOG DAY BLUES

One of the reasons you accepted a management position at MicroTek several years ago was the company’s laidback culture. A loose organizational structure enables employees to move freely between projects, and the open office space encourages informal encounters and generates a feeling of teamwork. And among the very generous corporate perks is a policy allowing employees to bring their pets to work. It is not uncommon to see a small animal sitting in an employee’s in-box drinking from a hamster lick. Several employees bring their dogs, large and small, to the office.

As the company has grown, thanks in part to its informal culture, more and more people are taking advantage of the pet policy, and problems are arising. Food is swiped from desks, animals are rooting through trash bins, and dogs are marking territory on the partitions that surround their owners’ desks. Visiting customers often try to mask startled (at best) or disapproving (at worst) looks when they tour your facility for the first time—and even the second and third times. During a recent breakfast meeting, when a board member refused to share her bagel with the CEO’s dog, the dog relieved itself on her briefcase. At least one employee has complained of allergic reactions due to the high levels of pet dander in the office air, but rather than change the policy, you installed a high-power air cleaner.

Despite the challenges, you have resisted changing the pet policy because it symbolizes both the company’s relaxed culture and MicroTek’s commitment to its employees’ work–life balance. This afternoon, however, you were notified that your office does not meet the required indoor air quality standards. Apparently, the cleaner you installed can’t handle all the pet dander. To meet the standards, you’ll need an even more powerful air cleaner that costs between $100,000 and $200,000. That would be a significant investment in the pet policy! And who knows if it would solve the allergy problem. Is the policy worth the cost?

You ask yourself, “How committed am I to the pet policy?” Is the pet policy just trendy (or avant-garde), or does it say something deeper about your company?

For this Management Team Decision, assemble three or four students to act as the management team for MicroTek. Include both pet owners and people without pets to avoid any bias. Before you begin the exercise, have each team member privately write down answers to each of the following questions. By sharing your individual responses, you may be able to have a more varied and rounded discussion.

Questions

Do you buy the expensive air cleaner or eliminate the pet policy? Why or why not?

If you choose to stop allowing animals at the office, what effect, if any, do you think the change will have on the company’s culture?

Can you think of a way to allow people to bring pets to work without upgrading the air cleaner or violating workplace air quality regulations?

Question 8: Communication

The Power of Connection: Building a Personal Learning Network

Relationships are all there is. Everything in the universe only exists because it is in relationship to everything else. Nothing exists in isolation. We have to stop pretending we are individuals who can go it alone.
—Margaret Wheatley, Turning to One Another: Simple Conversations to Restore Hope to the Future

The rise of social media and its power to instantaneously connect people to others is a testament to just how interconnected the world has become. Social media has become an important way to form and maintain relationships. Many people use social media platforms such as Facebook and Twitter to keep in touch with family, friends, and colleagues. Businesses search for new ways to connect with current and future customers. How many people, however, have recognized the potential of social media as a powerful learning tool?

Forward-thinking educators have begun purposefully building online social networks, known as Personal Learning Networks (PLN)s, of colleagues and experts in the field. Rather than see social networks as an annoyance or way of wasting time, these educators have made them an invaluable means of personal and professional growth. Business professionals can benefit from following their lead. Creating a PLN often is a guide for professionals and committed lifelong learners to help build relationships with others from all over the world. With careful work and commitment to building and maintaining a PLN, the possibilities for connection are endless.

To prepare for this Assignment, review the materials in the Learning Resources and consider novel ways in which you might use technology to foster new connections and seek information and advice.

Learning resources:

https://www.fractuslearning.com/2012/01/24/education-twitter-profiles/
https://www.fractuslearning.com/2012/04/17/pln-twitter/
https://technologyembedded.wordpress.com/2012/05/20/twitter-101/

TASK

Submit a 4- to 5-page paper in which you create the plan for your PLN. Your paper should include the following:

A description of what networks and tools you will use to create your PLN, including a brief rationale for each
Information you will present in your professional profile (which may be placed on one or more social media platforms), including specific text you will use to identify yourself and your interests for those who might be interested in following you or joining your PLN
A categorized, annotated list of at least 5people or groups that you might add to your PLN (through their Twitter feed, blog, LinkedIn page, etc.), including the following for each person or group:
- A brief (1–2 paragraphs) rationale for why you would include the person or group in your PLN
- A brief (1 paragraph) description of the process by which you found the person or group you added to your PLN, e.g., by browsing a group’s Twitter feed and then deciding to add it to your own PLN, by locating another person the group’s feed follows, by finding a group on Facebook and deciding to send a friend request to an individual within that group, etc.
Support your work with a minimum of two specific citations per page from this week’s Learning Resources and/or additional scholarly sources.

Be sure to use the APA Course Paper Template (6th Ed.) to complete this Assignment.Please Note: For each page of your paper, you must include a minimum of two APA-formatted scholarly citations.

Question 9: History

19^th Century Europe was shaped by the ideas of liberalism, conservatism, nationalism and socialism. Discuss this statement and provide specific examples to illustrate your points about these forces.

Your essay should be at least 1200 words and should include two citations from the text and two from the primary sources to be read for this assignment. I don’t want any more citations than this, as I want to hear your ideas and words. Choose compelling quotes from the text and the primary sources.

Required Course Textbook(s):

Making of the West, Value Edition, Combined Edition: 5th

ISBN: 9781319065461
Author: Hunt
Publisher: MPS (Macmillan Publishers)
Formats: PAPERBACK
Copyright Year: 2017

Check the sites below for proper citation formatting.

http://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/747/01/ (Links to an external site.)

And for APA:

http://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/560/01/ (Links to an external site.)

*************************************************************************************

Primary sources to consider:

Nationalism

Germany

http://sourcebooks.fordham.edu/Halsall/mod/arndt-vaterland.asp (Links to an external site.)

Conservatism: Divine Origins of Constitutions

http://www.fordham.edu/halsall/mod/1810demaistre.html (Links to an external site.)

Scientific Socialism

http://www.fordham.edu/halsall/mod/marx-summary.html

Question 10: Biology

A client’s spouse states “I’ve noticed that my spouse doesn’t sleep well anymore and sometimes can’t find the right words when we’re visiting.” The nurse should correctly respond:

a) “Does anyone in your family have Alzheimer’s disease?”
b) “How long have you noticed these changes?”
c) “These are common changes associated with age.”
d) “Do you think your spouse is depressed?”

Application

Learning Outcome 2

A client is hospitalized with Guillain-Barre syndrome and the nursing diagnosis Spontaneous Ventilation,Impairedhas been identified. In planning care for this client, the nurse will prioritize the following interventions, with 1 being the most critical and 4 the least:

1) Careful airway suctioning to prevent infection

2) Client education regarding residual problems

3) Monitor arterial blood gases to identify changes.

4) Maintain hydration and caloric intake.

A client comes to the clinic with complaints of blurred vision and muscle spasms that come and go, which have been occurring over the past several months. The client is scheduled for an MRI and lumbar puncture with examination of the CSF. A critical piece of the client history for the nurse to note is that:

a) The client is from Canada.
b) The client has a family history of epilepsy.
c) The client has been depressed.
d) The client’s father had Parkinson’s disease.

A nurse working in a fertility clinic reviews the health history of a client whose father had Huntington’s disease. What statement by the nurse would best address this client’s risk factors?

a) “Have you ever been tested for this disease?”
b) “What do you know about testing for this disease?”
c) “Are you sure you want to have children?”
d) “Your child has a 50% chance of getting this disease.”

A home health nurse visits a client with stage 2 Alzheimer’s disease who lives at home with a spouse. In order to meet the needs of the spouse, the nurse suggests:

a) Making arrangements for the client to visit the local senior citizen’s center in the afternoon.
b) Providing the client a list of daily activities to complete.
c) Finding respite care to come into the home several days a week.
d) Finding placement in a long-term care facility.

A client with stage 2 Alzheimer’s disease has lost 5 pounds over the past month. The best nursing intervention would be:

a) Recommend referral to a nutritionist.
b) Make sure the client is put on a mechanical soft diet.
c) Give the client food choices he can select.
d) Provide quick snacks throughout the day.

A client complains of periods of confusion and forgetfulness at times, and reports clear thought process at most times of the day. The symptoms have been gradually worsening. The best response by the nurse is:

a) “You probably have nothing to worry about, it’s most likely stress-related.”
b) “Everybody has a few problems with memory as they get older.”
c) “Have you started any new medications since the symptoms began?”
d) “You should probably have an MRI of your brain.”

A client states “My doctor said sometimes I would have an on/off problem with this medication—what does that mean?” The best response by the nurse is:

a) “There will be times when you are depressed (off) and when you are happy (on).”
b) “You will have to take breaks from this medicine by stopping (off) and starting it (on) again, so you don’t build up a tolerance to it.”
c) “The on times will be when your symptoms are under control, the off times are when you will have increased problems with symptom management.”
d) “I’m not a pharmacist, so I shouldn’t be answering this question.”

A client with myasthenia gravis is taking pyridostigmine (Mestinon). Teaching about this medication should include immediately reporting:

a) Increased weakness.
b) Problems with increased drooling.
c) Orthostatic hypotension.
d) Headache.

A client with stage 2 Alzheimer’s disease becomes very agitated in the evenings. Appropriate nursing interventions would include:

a) Use of anti-anxiety medications or tranquilizers.
b) Moving the client to an area of activity to provide distraction.
c) Playing soft music in the client’s room.
d) Recommending the client be moved to a more secure environment.

Learning Outcome 4

Chapter 47

When the nurse was assessing a client for neurological changes from a head trauma, which eye assessments are included? Select all that apply.

Ptosis
Extraocular movements
Accommodation
Color of iris
Nystagmus

When teaching a community health class about eye safety, which statement by one of the participants would reflect a need for additional teaching?

“I will wear goggles whenever I work around equipment such as lawnmowers, saws, and trimmers.”
“When I play sports, I should wear protective eyewear to minimize risks of eye injury.”
“When working with chemicals, if a splash occurs, I should first call 911 and then go to the emergency facility.”
“When working or playing in the outdoors, I should wear shades that have UV protection even if the day is cloudy.”

The client was complaining of dizziness and disequilibrium with head movements. The nurse understands which nursing diagnosis would be the top priority based upon these findings?

Fluid Balance, Deficit
Adjustment Impairment
Coping, Ineffective
Falls, Risk for

When the nurse is planning the health history questions to ask a client about possible hearing changes that might have occurred due to frequent sinus infections, which question would be appropriate? Select all that apply.

“Do you have any pain in your ears?”
“Have you ever had drainage from your ears?”
“Does anyone in your family have congenital deafness?”
“Have you noticed a change in your hearing, such as muffling of sounds?”

When the nurse is assessing for a possible conductive hearing loss, which assessment would be the first one to perform?

Inspection of the external ear
Weber test
Rinne test
Tympanogram

The nurse suspects that a bone-conductive hearing loss is present in the client. Which diagnostic would best differentiate between bone conduction loss and air conduction loss?

Rinne test
Weber test
Assessment of balance and body position
Palpation of mastoid process

When planning home management for a client who recently lost vision after eye trauma, which of the following would be most appropriate to evaluate the emotional status of the client?

“Do you feel depressed about your vision loss?”
“Tell me how your change in vision has affected how you feel about yourself.”
“Have you made arrangements for someone to help you around the house?”
“You know; a lot of people do very well with little help once they get home.”

When explaining a tonometer test results of 28 mm Hg to a client, the nurse would use which explanation to be most accurate? The tonometer measures the pressure in the:
Posterior chamber of your eye, which is too low and requires medication to increase the pressure to prevent blindness from retinal damage.
Inner ear, to evaluate the semicircular canals functions related to nerve damage, and 28 mm Hg is “within the normal range.”
Pressure in the middle ear that builds up with Mastoiditis, and 28 mm Hg is very high, and needs to be treated with surgical insertion of tubes to drain the fluid behind the tympanic membrane.
Anterior chamber of the eye that builds up from overproduction or decreased drainage of the aqueous humor, and could lead to possible retinal changes due to above-normal pressures, like yours, if not treated.

****NOTE TEXT contradicts itself for two different norms are given on page 5 of chapter 47 and page 39 of chapter 48…. Please clarify which range is desired for consistency in text readings.

When performing the caloric test, nystagmus develops in the left eye while irrigating the right ear. The nurse evaluates the client further for which condition that contributes to the results of the caloric test?

Alcohol, CNS depression, or barbiturate use
Increased anterior pressure in the left eye
Nothing further, since nerves are intact in the inner ear
Increased pressure from brain lesions

When assessing a 75-year-old client, which findings would require immediate action by the nurse? A statement about:

Floaters being present at times.
Additional light and “reading glasses” being needed more often.
The development of a white circle around colored part of eye.
Frequent falls from tripping over items in the floor.

Chapter 48

A young female who has a 2-year-old and a new baby has just lost all vision in one eye following a vehicle trauma. The client asks what she will do, since she has no help when she goes home. The nurse would choose which nursing diagnoses when planning care? Select all that apply.
Post-Trauma Syndrome
Grieving, Actual/Anticipatory
Family Processes, Interrupted
Self-Esteem, Situational Low
Injury, Risk for

Upon admission when orienting a client who has been blind since birth to the hospital room, which activity by the nurse would be appropriate? Select all that apply.

Orient the client both verbally and physically to the layout of the room.
Describe everything in detail about how the equipment works.
Tell the client you will leave the light on 24 hours a day.
Place signs to remind staff to not move equipment without telling the client.

Which instructions would be appropriate for the nurse to give to a client with acute conjunctivitis from Staphylococcus? Select all that apply.

You should wash your hands before cleansing the eye and giving eyedrops.
You can rub your eyes with a clean, soft cloth for itching.
You can soak your lids with warm saline to soften crusts and exudates.
You should not share towels, make-up, or contact lens with anyone else.

Following a severe corneal ulcer, the client had keratoplasty (corneal transplant). What nursing care should be included in the plan of care? The client should: (Select all that apply.)
Wear an eye-shield the first 24 hours and then at night until several weeks postoperatively as directed by healthcare provider.
Be instructed to avoid lifting, sneezing, coughing or bending over at the waist.
Report any change, such as increased pain, drainage, bleeding, floaters, and cloudiness noted.
Be instructed on how to administer eyedrops and ointments in a sterile manner.
Be educated on the need for mydriatics during the postoperative period.

Before teaching about home management for clients with open-angled glaucoma, which order would be questioned by the nurse?
Timolol (Timoptic), beta-adrenergic blocker, for a 60-year-old with congestive heart failure (CHF)
Dorzolamide (Trusopt), a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, for a client with asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Acetazolamide (Diamox) for a 20-year-old male
Brimonidine (Alphagan), an adrenergic agonist, for a healthy 40-year-old

In a client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the nurse should assess for which complications that might be present? Select all that apply.

Retinitis pigmentosa with retinal atrophy
Kaposi neoplasms of the external surfaces of the eyelid
Cotton-wool spots around the optic nerve
Exudative macular degeneration
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis

Following myringotomy for acute otitis media, which topic would be appropriate for teaching about home management by the nurse?

Ear irrigations should be placed on the wall of the external canal, and not on the tympanic membrane.
Air travel and sudden barometric shifts will not affect the surgical procedure.
Sterile cotton-tipped swabs can be used to clean the ear drainage.
Shampooing and swimming are not restricted after a couple of weeks.

The client with otosclerosis would be expected to have which potential finding by the nurse during assessment?

Rinne test results that bone conduction is equal or greater than air conduction
Severe vertigo is present when questioned.
Purulent drainage is observed or reported with cyanosis of the tympanic membrane.
Diminished hearing is noted in the lower tones, such as a man’s speaking voice.

A client with severe symptoms of tinnitus, vertigo, sensorineural hearing deficit, nausea, and vomiting would have which nursing diagnosis as a first priority?

Nutrition, Imbalanced, Less than Body Requirements
Trauma, Risk for
Disturbed Sleep Patterns
Sensory Perception, Disturbed: hearing

A client with a nursing diagnosis ofCommunication: Impaired, Verbal related to hearing deficit would expect which action in the plan of care? Select all that apply.

Speak face-to-face, but do not overarticulate your words.
Offer alternative methods of communication, such as paper and pencil.
Speak loudly and in a higher pitch for easier understanding of words.
Restate in exactly the same words if not understood the first time.
Do not use facial and hand gestures that are distracting while talking.

Chapter 49

A client is scheduled to undergo a prostate biopsy. When providing education concerning postoperative care related to the procedure, which of the following should be included?

Avoid strenuous activity for 24 hours.
There may be discomfort for 24–48 hours after the procedure.
The client can immediately return to his preprocedure activity level.
The names of sexual contacts must be collected.

A male client reports to the clinic with an open area on his penis. Which of the following questions will be most important to include in the data collection?

“Have you had sexual intercourse recently?”
“Do you think you have a disease?”
“Are you promiscuous?”
“When did you initially notice this open area?”

While providing care to the parents of a baby boy who has the chromosomal makeup of XXY, which of the following should be included in the teaching plan?

The boy will have an enlarged penis and scrotum.
The boy will be at increased risk for the development of testicular cancer.
The child will be sterile.
The child might have altered development of secondary sex characteristics.

The nurse is obtaining a health history on a client complaining of recent-onset impotence. During the interview, which of the following questions will be most beneficial in identifying a potential cause of the manifestation?

“Does this occur often?”
“How does your partner feel about this problem?”
“For what diseases and disorders have you been treated?
“Are you on any medications?

A female client has reported to the clinic for an initial gynecological examination. The client reports feeling nervous. When beginning the interview, which of the following questions would be most appropriate?

“How many sexual partners have you had?”
“Are you OK?”
“How often are you intimate with your partner?”
“What concerns do you have about today’s examination?”

A client is approximately 4 weeks pregnant. The client reports noting a scant amount of vaginal bleeding. The examination reveals the cervix is closed. Based upon your knowledge, which of the following hormones do you anticipate will be lower than expected for the client?

Progesterone
Estrogen
Prostaglandin
Luteinizing hormone

A client is scheduled for a mammogram. Which of the following might adversely impact the testing?

The use of deodorant
The use of facial makeup
The administration of medications used to increase bleeding times
Eating breakfast the morning of the test

When providing education to a client concerning breast self-examinations, the client asks what days are best to perform the examination. What information should be included in the response given to the client?

It does not matter what day the examination is performed.
It is best to perform the examination on the first day of the menstrual period.
It is best to perform the examination in the days just prior to the menstrual period.
The examination is best performed after the menstrual period.

When obtaining the health history of a 60-year-old female, the client reports noting small red lesions on her vulva. Based upon your knowledge, which of these diagnoses is most likely correct?

Herpes simplex
Primary syphilis
Secondary syphilis
Vulvar carcinoma

The nurse is teaching a client how to perform a testicular self-examination. What information should be provided to the client?

Any painful lump should be reported.
Tenderness of the scrotal sac contents should be reported.
Most men have one testicle that is significantly larger than the other.
It is best to do the examination upon arising on the designated day.

CHAPTER 51

A 41-year-old client has reported to the clinic with clinical manifestations consistent with menopause. The client states that her menstrual periods have become irregular, with the last period occurring approximately four months ago. What information should be provided to the client concerning the use of contraceptives?

Contraceptives should continue to be utilized.
Contraceptives are no longer needed.
Contraceptives will only be needed in the months after menstruation is experienced.
Contraceptive use will only be needed for another two months.

The client who has been experiencing the clinical manifestations associated with menopause voices an interest in using alternative and complementary therapies to manage them. What initial response by the nurse is indicated?

“Those seldom work.”
“Many women report success with these measures.”
“What types of therapies are of interest to you?”
“Have you discussed this with the physician?

During the teaching session for a client who recently had a hysterectomy, the client states that she is nervous about taking the estrogen replacement therapy prescribed by her physician. She states that she is worried about developing breast cancer later in life. Which of the statements by the nurses will be most appropriate?

“The risk of breast cancer is somewhat increased for women with a family history who opt to take estrogen replacement therapy.”
“The risk of breast cancer is not increased for women who have had a hysterectomy and take estrogen replacement medications.”
“Perhaps you should consider an estrogen–progestin combination therapy.”
“Taking estrogen replacement is not required after a hysterectomy.”

A 30-year-old woman reports increasing difficulty during the days preceding the onset of her menstrual cycle. Which of the following might assist in the management of her condition? Select all that apply.

Increase dietary sugar intake to promote energy.
Increase intake of simple carbohydrates.
Reduce caffeine.
Utilize guided imagery.

A client who has been experiencing premenstrual syndrome reports to the clinic with a diet diary she has kept over the past several weeks. Which of the following findings should be reviewed with the client, with a recommendation made for dietary modification?

Daily intake of caffeine-free soda
Daily intake of low-fat yogurt
Foods rich in magnesium
Daily intake of white bread

A woman is scheduled to undergo a laparoscopic procedure. Which of the following statements by the client indicates the need for further education?

“I can expect to go home a few hours after the procedure.”
“I might experience some abdominal pain after the procedure.”
“There might be some vaginal bleeding after the procedure.”
“Shoulder pain should be reported, as it might signal a complication.”

A 13-year-old female reports to the school nurse with concerns about her menstrual cycle. The client states that she has not yet started her period, and asks if this is normal. Which of the following should be included in the nurse’s response?

The client should be referred to a gynecologist for a pelvic examination.
The client should have started her period by now.
It is not abnormal for the client to have not yet started her period.
The client should be tested for hormonal imbalances.

The nurse is collecting data during a routine clinic visit. The client reports she has experienced bleeding between her menstrual periods. What initial action by the nurse is most appropriate?

Determine the timing of the bleeding episodes.
Determine the amount of the bleeding episodes.
Assess for the presence of sexually transmitted infections.
Review the length of the client’s normal menstrual cycles.

A client has been experiencing anovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding. The client is 25 years of age, and is concerned about maintaining her fertility. Based upon your knowledge, which management technique likely would be employed first?

Oral contraceptives
Progestin therapy
Therapeutic D and C
Endometrial ablation

A client is preparing to be discharged to home after a hysterectomy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates the teaching session has been successful?

“I will need to report temperature greater than 101 degrees.”
“I might experience vaginal bleeding for about one week.”
“I will need to report any hot flashes, as they indicate my hormone replacement therapy is not effective.”
“I will still need to see my physician for gynecological examinations.”

Chapter 52

A client recently diagnosed with herpes simplex II asks how to best manage the lesions. What information should be given to the client?

The use of soap should be restricted.
It is safe to use a solution of 50% rubbing alcohol and 50% water to clean the lesions.
Wearing nylon panties will reduce discomfort.
Gentle soap and water can be used to clean the lesions.

A client recently treated for pelvic inflammatory disease asks how she can best prevent a recurrence of the disease. What information should be provided to the client?

The physician will prescribe prophylactic antibiotic therapy.
The use of condoms will be beneficial.
Annual gynecological examinations should be scheduled.
Douching after intercourse will assist in removing potential pathogens from the genital area.

A client treated for pelvic inflammatory disease is preparing for discharge. During the teaching session, the use of tampons is discussed. Which of the following statements by the client indicate the understanding of the content provided? Select all that apply.

“I will be able to wear tampons.”
“The use of tampons is forever prohibited.”
“Tampons must be changed at least every four hours.”
“I should wear pads at night.”

A pregnant client reports to the clinic and learns she has tested positive for herpes simplex. The nurse develops a plan of care. Which of the following nursing diagnoses has the highest priority?

Injury, Risk for related to the disease process
Knowledge, Deficient related to the diagnosis
Anxiety related the diagnosis
Family Processes, Interrupted related to the effects of the diagnosis on her relationship with her partner

A client has been diagnosed with latent syphilis. During the counseling session, the client asks about transmitting the disease to his spouse. What information should be provided to the client?

“You will need to abstain from sexual relations until treatment is completed.”
“You will need to wear a condom.”
“At this late stage, the disease is contained to only you.”
“At this stage of the disease, transmission is by contact with blood.”

During a gynecological examination and testing, a female client is diagnosed with a Chlamydial infection. The client denies any symptoms of the disease, and asks when she contracted the disease. What information should be provided to the client?

The client has most likely had the infection for about 1–3 weeks.
The infection has been in her body for less than 1 month, since no symptoms are present.
The infection might have been in her body for an indefinite period of time.
Symptoms typically begin a few months after the infection enters the body.

The nurse is planning to teach a course about sexually transmitted infections. What information concerning genital warts should be included?

Handwashing will aid in the reducing the spread of genital warts.
Genital warts will result in cervical cancer for the majority of women who get them.
Women who have certain types of genital warts should be vaccinated against other types.
The risk for the development of penile cancer is high in men diagnosed with genital warts.

A client asks which method of contraception will provide the greatest protection against sexually transmitted infections. What method can the nurse recommend?

Oral contraceptives
Male condoms
Sponges
Spermicides

A client reports to the clinic with a painless, ulcerated area on her labia. Based upon your knowledge, what diagnosis do you anticipate?

Herpes simplex II
Syphilis
Condylomata acuminata
Gonorrhea

A client with herpes simplex II is concerned about sexual relations. What information should be provided to the client?

The infection can be transmitted only when the lesions present.
The infection can be prevented with condom use.
Sexual relations must be avoided during the prodromal period and for at least 10 days after the lesions are healed.
Sexual activity is permissible once the lesions have dried out.

Question 11: Literary Studies

Choose ONE of the following paired images and poems from the “Poetry and the Visual Arts” section of the textbook (NOTE: This is the section with the thicker, glossy pages in the center of the textbook; the pages have letters rather than numbers) Choice #1: American Gothic – Analyze the painting by Grant Wood and the poem by John Stone. In what sense can Stone’s poem be regarded as an analysis of the painting? Does Stone see Grant’s depiction of the two figures as a satire or a celebration? What symbolic elements are found in the painting? Choice #2: Girl Powdering Her Neck – Analyze the woodblock print by Kitagawa Utamaro and the poem by Cathy Song. What does Song’s poem add to the visual information provided in Utamaro’s woodcut? What is the relationship of the final three lines to the rest of the poem and what effect does it have on the reader? Choice #3: Vietnam Veterans Memorial Wall – Analyze the photograph of the memorial from the Library of Congress and the poem “Facing It” by Yusef Komunyakaa. What is the significance of the poem’s title and how are the speaker’s war experiences reflected in the war memorial? Does the speaker’s response to the memorial indicate that the conception and composition of the memorial were successful or unsuccessful as a public memorial? Remember you must: Adhere to MLA format The Bedford Handbook provides a guide (MLA Chapters 48 to 51) Paper should range between 1,300 and 1,500 words Upload your assignment to Turnitin

Question 12: General Question

5-page research essay in MLA format answering the question “Is the United States on the same trajectory as Italy in the spread of the coronavirus?” must have 3 sources minimum and a work cited page

Question 13: Health Care

Development is best explained by a model that
a. concentrates on one aspect of development
b. uses behavior as its focus
c. includes biological, psychological, and social influences
d. restricts itself to the observable

Humans have a remarkable potential for change, but resiliency has
a. limitations
b. defined markers
c. unlimited capacity
d. known characteristics

A 10-year-old girl peeks in her older sister’s diary, but later feels guilty. She tells herself, “I shouldn’t have done that. It wasn’t right.” According to Freud, which moral component of the personality is responsible for her feelings about her behavior?
a. Id
b. Ego
c. Superego
d. Preconscious

What is Freud’s “pleasure principle”?
a. the notion that unconscious forces govern our behavior is the pleasure principle
b. childhood pleasures have a strong influence on adult personality
c. individuals act to gratify instinctual desires and to avoid pain
d. personality is shaped by how individuals indulge their sexual urges

Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development is based on
a. the notion that the personality develops early in childhood
b. the premise that humans interact with an ever-widening circle of people
c. the need to avoid developmental crises
d. the idea that early social experiences determine later ones

Which of the following crises in the life cycle is the cornerstone of Erikson’s theory?
a. Trust versus mistrust
b. autonomy versus shame and doubt
c. initiative versus guilt
d. identity formation versus identity diffusion

Which of the following statements refers to Piaget’s universalist constructivist theory?
a. humans passively assimilate their understanding of the world
b. humans construct reality through their understanding of the world
c. humans have inborn schemata that help them understand the world
d. humans construct reality by being acted on by the environment

What is Piaget’s definition of adaptation?
a. intelligence
b. assimilation and accommodation
c. ability to effectively negotiate environmental demands
d. all of the above

In his explanation of cognitive development, Vygotsky stressed
a. assimilation
b. social interactions
c. reinforcement
d. schema

Vygotsky believed language gradually becomes ___ and directs behavior
a. structured
b. pragmatic
c. internalized
d. reinforced

In Brofenbrenner’s model of human ecology, the school, the neighborhood, and peer group belong in which system?
a. microsystem
b. mesosystem
c. exosystem
d. macrosystem

The American cultural value placed on the primacy of the biological family is an example of a(n)
a. microsystem
b. mesosystem
c. exosystem
d. macrosystem

Maslow believed that our needs are best seen as a(n)
a. ellipse
b. hierarchy
c. interlocking circle
d. polygon

Using our abilities to the limits of our potential refers to
a. assimilation
b. accommodation
c. conditioning
d. self-actualization

The environment responds to human behavior and either reinforces it or eliminates it. This theory is known as
a. operant conditioning
b. classical conditioning
c. social cognitive learning
d. connectionism

The importance of modeling is emphasized in
a. operant conditioning
b. classical conditioning
c. social cognitive learning
d. connectionism

It is important to remember that different is not
a. unique
b. deficient
c. appreciated
d. diffuse

___ is a belief that interactions among all aspects of development require analysis
a. Piagetian psychology
b. operant conditioning
c. social cognitive learning
d. developmental contextualism

Which of the following is an example of between-group differences in gender research on language development?
a. Girls develop language more rapidly than boys.
b. Girls do better than boys on subtests of anagrams, synonyms, speech production, and word knowledge.
c. Although dyslexia is more common in boys, some girls develop dyslexia
d. Gender accounts for 1% of the variability in language development

Research on aggression supports which of the following statements?
a. Boys are more hostile than girls.
b. For men, physical aggression is about inflicting harm.
c. For women, physical aggression is about defending their social status
d. physical aggression is related to perceptions of social power.

Which of the following is not associated with homelessness?
a. hunger and poor nutrition
b. developmental delays
c. health problems
d. lowered intelligence

A major characteristic of successful schools in poor economic locations is
a. an emphasis on academic achievement
b. classroom television
c. building conditions
d. proximity to the center of the city

What are genes?
a. Long strands of DNA
b. the sequences in which nucleotide bases are arranged
c. multiple combinations of nucleotide bases
d. the functional units of DNA

Skin cells contain
a. 46 chromosomes
b. 23 chromosomes
c. 46 autosomes
d. 23 sex chromosomes

which process is responsible for the genetic variability among human organisms?
a. mitosis
b. meiosis
c. fertilization
d. capacitation

Where does fertilization occur in the female?
a. uterus
b. vagina
c. fallopian tubes
d. ovaries

the critical period of organogenesis occurs doing
a. the embryonic period
b. the germinal period
c. the fetal period
d. at the time of conception

Research suggests that insufficient folic acid in the mother’s diet may contribute to the failure of the neural tube to close, resulting in spina bifida. At which point in prenatal development does the neural tube close?
a. fourth week
b. eighth week
c. fourth month
d. sixth month

the causes of infertility are:
a. unknown
b. male
c. female
d. male or female

estimates are that one in every __ American couples are infertile
a. two or three
b. three or four
c. five or six
d. seven or eight

a major concern for sperm banks is control of
a. disease
b. donor availability
c. confidential information
d. technological innovation

for all assisted reproductive technologies ____ is critical
a. location
b. climate
c. timing
d. contingency

genes make up ___% of DNA
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

the human genome project is an attempt to map
a. all human genes
b. cellular materials
c. nucleotides
d. cell divisions

an example of a single-gene genetic disorder is
a. down syndrome
b. turner syndrome
c. klinefelter syndrome
d. sickle-cell anemia

an example of a chromosomal disorder is
a. spina bifida
b. chronic disease syndrome
c. phenylketonuria
d. turner syndrome

how is prematurity defined?
a. infants are premature if born before 37 weeks, regardless of weight
b. infants are premature if they weigh less than 2500 g at birth, regardless of age
c. infants are premature if they weigh less than 1500 g and are born before 37 weeks
d. prematurity is based on the relationship between weight and gestational age

the organ system that is most critical to the premature infant’s outcome is
a. the heart
b. the lungs
c. the brain
d. the nervous system

Which characteristic makes regular use of alcohol during pregnancy a teratogen?
a. alcohol interferes with fetal cell division and growth throughout pregnancy
b. alcohol alters the development of the fetus’s central nervous system during the last trimester
c. women who abuse alcohol are less likely to be well nourished
d. all of the above are correct

what is the best-known cause of deafness in newborns?
a. cocaine use by the mother during pregnancy
b. mother’s contraction of rubella during the first trimester
c. mother’s exposure to radiation during the last trimester
d. mother’s exposure to cytomegalovirus (CMV)

when a natural mother retains input into the adoption process, it is called ___ adoption
a. selected
b. congruent
c. accommodated
d. open

Couples considering adoption should think carefully about the ___ of the child
a. weight
b. age
c. size
d. cognition

At what point after birth do typical infants double their birth weight?
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 9 months
d. 12 months

you notice that a new mother feeds her baby boy by propping a bottle on a pillow next to him. why do you want to discourage this practice?
a. the baby will have difficulty regulating the flow of formula
b. the baby is not learning how to organize his behavior
c. the mother and the baby are not learning to read each other’s signals
d. all of the above are correct

you observe a baby lying on her abdomen, raising her head, shoulders, and upper abdomen while supporting herself with her forearms. about how old is this baby?
a. 6 weeks
b. 8 weeks
c. 3 months
d. 6 months

a new mother who is breastfeeding her baby asks you if her baby can see her. what is your answer?
a. no. babies cannot see clearly until they are about 6 weeks old
b. yes. babies have 20/20 vision at birth
c. no. visual acuity is about 20/100 at birth
d. yes. objects that are within close range, especially your face, are perfectly clear

apgar scores are recorded at 1 and 5 minutes after birth. what do they measure?
a. heart rate, respiratory effect, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and skin color
b. first and second periods of reactivity
c. behavioral states: sleeping, waking, and crying
d. gestational maturity, such as flexion of extremities, quality of skin, and development of eyes, ears, and genitals.

which of the following is an example of contingency seeking in newborns?
a. infants learn to adjust their rate of sucking by using the mother’s voice as a reward.
b. infants prefer complex patterns of black and white
c. newborns discriminate their mother’s voice from the voices of other women
d. infants turn their head to search for a sound

the final area of the brain to develop is the
a. occipital lobe
b. association area
c. sensory area
d. auditory area

nervous system development commences in a process called
a. neural induction
b. tubular processes
c. neural migration
d. neuronal balance

Human infants exhibit reflexes because
a. their nervous systems are not fully mature
b. some infant reflexes are building blocks for voluntary motor behavior
c. some reflexes are designed to protect them from potential harm
d. of all of the above

to elicit the babinski reflex, you stroke the sole of a baby’s foot, beginning at the heel and moving towards the toes. the toes flex, as if they are going to grab your finger. is this normal?
a. no. if the baby is younger than 1 year, the toes should fan out and extend
b. yes, if the baby is older than 1 year, the toes will flex.
c. both a and b are true
d. neither a nor b is true

According to piaget, what are the four accomplishments of the sensorimotor period?
a. rolling over, sitting up, crawling, and walking.
b. time, spatial relationships, cause and effect, and object permanence
c. visual acuity, binocular vision, depth perception, and spatial relationships
d. primary circular reactions, secondary circular reactions, coordination of secondary circular reactions, and tertiary circular reactions

you are watching a baby who is sitting up in her mother’s lap. the baby is playing with a box of animal crackers, by shaking it, hitting it on the arm of the chair, and patting the lid with her hand. what age range and what substage of piaget’s sensorimotor period is this baby in?
a. age 1-4 months, primary circular reactions
b. age 4-8 months, secondary circular reactions
c. age 8-12 months, coordination of secondary circular reactions
d. age 18-24 months, beginning of representational thought

When parents feel that other adults, including their own parents, are looking over their shoulder and telling them how to bring up their child, this phenomenon is called
a. ghosts in the nursery
b. generational interest
c. parental transference
d. social sharing

most children begin to speak their first words at an age of approximately
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 18 months
d. 24 months

which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. children instantly tune into their environment
b. children give clues to their personalities
c. children, from birth, engage in reciprocal interactions
d. all children are temperamentally similar at birth

Role refers to ___ about behavior
a. observations
b. insights
c. expectations
d. comments

The special bonding between an infant and usually the mother is called
a. detachment
b. attachment
c. relating
d. symmetry

The person most associated with the attachment movement is
a. sigmund freud
b. b. f. skinner
c. jean piaget
d. john bowlby

the three components of an emotion are feelings, internal changes, and
a. behavior
b. continuity
c. congruence
d. assimilation

The true social smile appears at an age of approximately
a. 4 weeks
b. 6 weeks
c. 8 weeks
d. 10 weeks

You are going down the stairs behind a little boy who is placing both feet on each step as he goes while holding the railing. about how old is he?
a. 3 years old
b. 4 years old
c. 5 years old
d. 6 years old

Which skill that is essential for reading readiness develops between ages 3 and 6?
a. using hands as tools
b. copying and tracing figures
c. visuomotor scanning
d. recognizing the letters of the alphabet

You are pouring juice for a 4-year-old and 10-year-old into two different glasses: one short and wide, the other tall and narrow. the 4-year-old insists on having the tall narrow glass despite assurances from the 10 year old that the two glasses have the same amount of juice. which term is used to describe the 4 year olds understanding of this situation?
a. centration
b. appearance reality
c. cause by association
d. difficulty with conversation

Which of the following is an example of a child’s difficulty with conversation during the preschool period?
a. thinks a ball of clay gets bigger when it is rolled into a snake
b. given two rows of m&ms with 10 candles in each row, will say the row more spread out has more
c. says the glass with the most juice is the taller one, even if the child just saw the juice poured from a shorter but wider glass
d. all of the above

montessori’s ideas concerning __ periods are important in planning preschool programs
a. lengthy
b. class
c. sensitive
d. daily

preschool educators are alert to match materials and methods to appropriate ages because of the theory put forth by
a. piaget
b. freud
c. skinner
d. pavlov

the rules of ___ describe how to put words together to form sentences
a. phonology
b. semantics
c. grammar
d. pragmatics

“daddy camed home” is an example of
a. overextension
b. mispronunciation
c. overregulation
d. delayed language

Parents who value compliance with their authority and set nonnegotiable standards for their children’s behavior are examples of ___ parenting, according to Baumrind
a. authoritative
b. authoritarian
c. permissive
d. neglectful

Which of the following factors contribute to how parents parent?
a. childhood experiences of parents
b. personality characteristics of children being parented
c. working environment of parents, especially fathers
d. all of the above

which of the following conditions is not necessarily associated with homelessness?
a. health problems
b. hunger
c. poor nutrition
d. low intelligence

Recent additions to the number of homeless are
a. mothers and young children
b. single fathers
c. individuals with alcohol problems
d. individuals with drug problems

One of the major adjustments a child may experience following the divorce of parents is to
a. siblings
b. transitions
c. relatives
d. synchronicity

Even after their divorced parents remarry, some children still believe their natural parents will reunite. this belief is called
a. hopeful planning
b. wishful thinking
c. reconciliation fantasies
d. psychic cognition

Erikson called it the period of initiative versus guilt; that is, children recognize that they make choices and are responsible for their behavior. plato referred to it as “a constitutional government within them.” freud thought that the superego, as “a garrison in the conquered city of the id,” is similar. to which developmental task of the preschool years are they referring?
a. agency
b. sense of self
c. mastery of aggression
d. self-control

Which of the following is an example of a 4 year old’s concept of self?
a. i am a better swimmer than my brother
b. people like me because i play fair
c. i like to swim
d. i am better at drawing than at coloring

By what age do children typically develop gender identity?
a. 18 months
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 5 years

preschoolers tend to engage in sex-typed behaviors, such as boys playing with trucks and girls playing with dolls, how do developmentalists explain this phenomenon?
a. males and females have inborn sex-typed tendencies
b. preschoolers are rewarded for exhibiting sex-typed behaviors
c. girls are more rigidly socialized to exhibit certain behaviors than are boys
d. preschoolers are developing concepts of gender constancy and role

The most common type of play during early childhood is ___ play
a. physical
b. unrestricted
c. social
d. pretend

Children play for fun, learning, and
a. emotional release
b. cognitive dissonance
c. physical alignment
d. social graces

by what age can children typically ride a two wheeled bicycle?
a. 5 years
b. 7 years
c. 9 years
d. 11 years

7 years

Malnourished children in the united states tend to be obese, not thin, because
a. they consume a lot of junk food
b. they watch too much television
c. they eat too many packaged foods
d. all of the above

What did Piaget mean by concrete operations?
a. children’s thinking is perceptually bound
b. causal reasoning is based on association
c. children’s thinking is very matter of fact
d. children can do mentally what had to be done physically before.

Boys of about ages 9 to 10 love to collect and sort baseball cards. which characteristic of concrete thought contributes to this activity?
a. hierarchical classification skills
b. matrix classification skills
c. abstract thinking
d. set identity

sternberg’s theory is based on
a. context
b. gender
c. age
d. biology

Gardner’s theory of intelligence includes __ types of equal intelligence
a. two
b. four
c. six
d. eight

a well-known model of problem solving is
a. HOME
b. DUPE
c. NATO
d. SAC

Everyone should attempt to internally represent solutions to problems
a. true
b. false
c. uncertain

kohlberg used a method called
a. cognitive structuring
b. contextual determinism
c. moral dilemmas
d. contingencies of reinforcement

Gilligan believed that kohlberg’s work was too ___ oriented
a. age
b. culture
c. neutral
d. male

LEP refers to those students whose primary language is not
a. English
b. Spanish
c. French
d. Vietnamese

To work with LEP students, many school systems are trying to decide between ESL programs and
a. separate systems
b. bilingual education
c. native-born instructors
d. curricular insertion

by about what age do children develop reciprocity in their friendships?
a. 6 years
b. 8 years
c. 10 years
d. 12 years

Which of the following statements best describes children’s games during middle childhood?
a. children are inflexible about the rules of competition
b. rules help keep aggression in check
c. competition can foster social, mental, and physical development
d. all of the above are correct

Good schools are characterized by their emphasis on
a. building conditions
b. recreational facilities
c. amount of materials
d. academic success

academic success

The author of an influential study of school effectiveness was
a. rutter
b. piaget
c. brunner
d. skinner

Creativity is also known as
a. critical thinking
b. convergent thinking
c. divergent thinking
d. vertical thinking

Among the characteristics of creativity are visualization, thinking processes, and
a. knowledge
b. contingency
c. laterality
d. symmetry

What is the sensitive period of the development of language?
a. up to 2 years old
b. up to 4 years old
c. up to 6 years old

Which triad of factors contributes to resilience in children at risk?
a. family discord, low socioeconomic status, poor school environment
b. cohesive family, easy-going personality, competent adults in community
c. mothers who work, absent fathers, good social skills
d. being in foster care, concerned case worker, visits with mother.

Developmental disabilities represent alterations in the typical developmental sequence of which three areas?
a. fine motor, gross motor, intelligence
b. problem solving, language, motor coordination
c. motor; cognitive, neurobehavior
d. neurobehavior, intelligence, gross motor

Which of the following characteristics describes children who are gifted?
a. above average IQ
b. high levels of creativity
c. high levels of commitment to task
d. all of the above

Question 14: Nursing

Nursing/Community Health: Questions and Answers

Questions and Answers

A nurse conducting a community health education program stresses that Lyme disease is caused by a _____________.
Spirochete
Virus
Parasite
Helminth

When conducting a community education program related to Lyme disease, the nurse stresses that if left untreated, Lyme disease result in which of the following?
Respiratory failure
Acute renal failure
Cardiac dysrhythmias
Permanent skin lesions

Maria brought her 10-year-old child to the clinic. She was concerned that the child could develop Lyme disease because a deer tick was found on the child. The nurse tells Maria that infection with Lyme disease is likely if the deer tick
Was large
Was attached to the child’s skin for at least 24 hours
Caused bleeding
Remained attached for at least 1 hour

Systemic lupus erythematosus is
An acute autoimmune disease
The result of hyperactivity of killer T cells
A chronic multisystem inflammatory disease
More common in men aged 20 to 30 than in women in that age group

The nurse conducting a health education program as part of a PTA meeting stresses that gastrointestinal infections are more likely to occur in people who
Smoke
Are lactose intolerant
Take antacids
Eat a spicy diet

During an orientation session for new hires, the nurse educator stresses that some pathogens can survive on bed rails and tables for
30 minutes to an hour
Weeks
5-20 minutes
2-3 months

Which of the following statements about a fever is correct?
A fever is generally harmful.
Oral prednisone masks a fever.
A fever suppresses the action of macrophages.
A rectal fever of 99.6 °F in children indicates serious infection.

During an in-service in a long-term care facility, the nurse educator stresses that in the elderly (select all that apply)
Infection usually produces a fever above 101°F.
Changes in mental status may indicate an infection.
Fatigue is a possible sign of infection.
A fever 2 degrees above baseline requires immediate attention.

What is the most accurate test to detect HIV infection currently on the market?
ELISA
OraSure
Western blot
B-cell analysis

Which of the following statements about HIV is true?
HIV infects CD8 T cells.
HIV uses reverse transcriptase to convert its RNA to DNA.
HIV infections can be completely eradicated by the use of antivirals.
HIV infection initially causes pronounced signs and symptoms.

The role of histamine in the inflammatory process includes
Initiating vasoconstriction to limit bleeding
Coating pathogens for easier phagocytosis
Promoting hyperthermia
Increasing capillary permeability

Which of the following statements about chronic inflammation is true?
Chronic inflammation lasts 5 to 7 days.
Chronic inflammation results in granuloma formation.
Chronic inflammation results from viral infections.
Chronic inflammation produces copious amounts of serous exudate.

Granulocytes
Produce antibodies
Include killer T cells
Contain enzymes capable of killing bacteria
Arrive at the site of cell injury in approximately 24 hours

Macrophages
Are involved in debris cleanup at the inflammatory site
Are responsible for producing allergic reactions
Live approximately 120 days
Are immature monocytes

Which of the following statements about B cells is correct?
B cells provide cell-mediated immunity.
B cells produce antibodies.
B cells release histamine.
B cells live approximately 3 months.

Which of the following statements about suppressor T cells is true?
Suppressor T cells turn off antibody production.
Suppressor T cells mature in the bone marrow.
Suppressor T cells are the most numerous type of T cell.
Suppressor T cells release lymphokines that destroy pathogen cell walls.

The antibody classified as IgE is responsible for
Passive immunity
Protecting the lungs from infection
Activating complement
Allergic reactions

Research has indicated that chemokine receptors (CCR5 and CXCR4)
Are found on human immunodeficiency virus particles
Allow the human immunodeficiency virus to enter CD4 cells
Protect HIV-positive individuals from developing opportunistic infections
Are responsible for neoplasm development

The complement system
Causes the release of histamine from mast cells
Causes clot formation at the site of cell injury
Is another name for T cells
Includes bradykinin

Question 15: Health Care

MULTIPLE CHOICE

BASIC CONCEPTS

What does the term “host” mean?

The person infected by a virus.

The type of virus known as a retrovirus.

The type of virus known as a common virus.

The type of infection that occurs only in immunosuppressed people.

Why do most people become ill with a specific viral infection only once?

Once a virus is killed by the body, it is gone from the earth forever.

During a viral infection, the body changes the virus to be less virulent.

Antiviral drugs change the viral DNA so it cannot infect the same person again.

During a specific viral infection, the person’s immune system improves protection against that virus.

Which statement about antiviral drugs is true?

They are all most effective at killing viruses.

They are all effective against any type of infection.

They all work by slowing the replication of viruses.

They are all only effective in people with strong immune systems.

Which antiviral drug is only given by oral inhalation?

Cyclovir (Zovirax)

Zanamivir (Relenza)

Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)

Amantadine (Symmetrel)

Which specific virus causes mononucleosis?

Cytomegalovirus

Hantavirus

Epstein-Barr virus

West Nile virus

Which antiviral drug is most likely to have more severe central nervous system side effects, including worsening of glaucoma?

Acyclovir

Amantadine

Valacyclovir

Zanamavir

Which antiviral drug is highly likely to cause birth defects when taken by a pregnant woman?

Acyclovir

Zanamivir

Rimantadine

Ribavirin

What is the major difference between retroviruses and common viruses?

Retroviruses cannot be killed by antiviral therapy, but common viruses can.

A retrovirus usually can cause disease over and over again in the same person.

A retrovirus carries the enzyme reverse transcriptase, and common viruses do not.

Retroviruses will respond to antibacterial drugs as well as to all the antiviral drugs.

Which class of antiretroviral drugs works by preventing new viral particles from leaving the infected cell?

Entry inhibitors

Fusion inhibitors

Protease inhibitors

Reverse-transcriptase inhibitors

Which problem is a sign or symptom of an allergic or anaphylactic response to an antiviral drug?

Nausea

Vivid dreams

Intolerance to fatty foods

Swelling of the face or throat

Which drug can only be given by subcutaneous injection?

Atazanavir (Reytaz)

Enfuvirtide (Fuzeon)

Maraviroc (Selzentry)

Darunavir (Prezista)

Which drug does not work on all strains of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and therefore the patient must be tested before using the drug to make sure it will work?

Atazanavir (Reytaz)

Enfuvirtide (Fuzeon)

Maraviroc (Selzentry)

Raltegravis (Issentra)

Which drug increases the risk for muscle weakness in older patients who are also taking a “statin” type of lipid-lowering drug?

Atazanavir (Reytaz)

Enfuvirtide (Fuzeon)

Maraviroc (Selzentry)

Raltegravis (Issentra)

What is the purpose of antiviral drug therapy?

To make the patient immune to infection by viruses.

To reduce infection by killing the virus causing disease.

To reduce illness duration by controlling viral reproduction.

To prevent opportunistic infections in immunosuppressed patients.

Which statement about human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is true?

Everyone with AIDS has HIV infection but not everyone with HIV infection has AIDS.

Everyone with HIV infection eventually dies of it because the disease cannot be cured.

With successful antiretroviral therapy, HIV-infected patients become HIV-antibody negative.

When HIV disease becomes AIDS, the infection is in the blood and treatment must be given intravenously.

Which antiretroviral drug is now prescribed for preexposure prophylaxis to prevent human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection?

Acyclovir

Edurant

Crixivan

Truvada

ADVANCED CONCEPTS

How are viral infections different from bacterial infections?

Bacterial infections can be spread from one person to another, whereas viral infections cannot be spread directly.

Bacterial infections can be cured by treatment with some anti-infective drugs, whereas viral infections are not cured by anti-infective therapy.

Viruses only cause disease in a person who is immunocompromised, whereas bacteria can cause disease even among immunocompetent people.

Viruses are the less mature form of a bacterium, so there is essentially no difference between viral infections and bacterial infections.

What is the most important precaution to teach a patient who is prescribed any antiviral drug?

“Take the drug exactly as prescribed and for as long as prescribed.”

“Never take any antibacterial drugs while you are on antiviral therapy.”

“Drink at least 3 L of water daily for the entire time you are taking this drug.”

“Avoid unnecessary exposure to this drug by stopping it when you have no symptoms for 24 hours.”

A patient is prescribed intravenous (IV) acyclovir (Zovirax). Which question is most important to ask before giving the first dose of this drug?

“Do you have a hearing problem or any trouble with your ears?”

“Do you take medications for seizures?”

“Are you allergic to sulfa drugs?”

“Have you ever had asthma?”

What is the most important precaution to teach a patient who is prescribed oral valacyclovir (Valtrex)?

“Avoid coffee and other caffeinated beverages.”

“Wear long sleeves and a hat when going outdoors.”

“Take this drug 1 hour before or 4 hours after eating a full meal.”

“Drink at least 3 L of water daily for the entire time you are taking this drug.”

A patient who has been prescribed amantadine (Symmetrel) has all of the following health problems. For which problem should you contact the prescriber before giving the first dose?

Asthma

Influenza

Glaucoma

Diabetes mellitus

A 2-year-old patient with respiratory syncytial virus is prescribed aerosolized ribavirin (Virazole). Which visitor should you ensure is not in the patient’s room during the aerosol treatments?

16-year-old brother

81-year-old grandmother

32-year-old pregnant mother

36-year-old father who has diabetes

A patient who is taking interferon is also prescribed ribavirin (Virazole). Which laboratory blood test result for this patient do you report immediately to the prescriber?

Red blood cells (RBCs) 2.2 million/mm3

White blood cells (WBCs) 6000/mm3

Sodium 134 mEq/L

International normalized ratio (INR) 1.6

Which precaution about zanamivir (Relenza) therapy do you teach a patient who also uses a bronchodilator for asthma control?

“Drink at least 3 L of water daily while using this drug.”

“Use the bronchodilator 15 minutes before taking the zanamivir.”

“Avoid taking the zanamivir within 2 hours of using the bronchodilator.”

“Take your pulse daily while on this drug because when taken with a bronchodilator heart rhythm problems are common.”

For what reason does adefovir dipivoxil have a black box warning?

It induces type 2 diabetes mellitus.

It increases the severity of hepatitis B symptoms.

It is highly toxic to both the liver and the kidneys.

It has a high likelihood of increasing the risk for birth defects and fetal damage.

Which common side effects should you watch for when a patient is taking adefovir dipivoxil?

Numbness and tingling in extremities

Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain

Dizziness and light-headedness

Increased confusion

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understanding REF: p. 142

What specific precaution would you teach the family of a patient prescribed amantadine?

“Be sure that the patient performs mouth care four to six times daily.”

“Remind the patient that monthly follow-up lab tests will be needed.”

“Contact the prescriber immediately for any worsening of depression or thoughts of suicide.”

“Ensure that the patient takes in at least 1000 mL more fluids that he or she puts out.”

How are retroviruses different from common viruses?

Retroviruses respond to antibacterial drugs but common viruses do not.

Retroviruses have a greater efficiency of infection than common viruses.

Common viral infections can be cured while retroviral infections can only be controlled.

Common viruses can infect anyone whereas retroviruses can only cause infection in an immunosuppressed host.

A patient is prescribed to begin highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). What is the most important question to ask this patient before beginning therapy?

“Do you have any symptoms now of active infection?”

“Is there any possibility that you are pregnant?”

“Are you currently sexually active?”

“What other drugs do you take?”

A patient taking highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) for a year has the following blood laboratory test values. Which value do you report to the prescriber immediately?

White blood cell count 3500 cells/mm3

Lactate dehydrogenase 990 IU/L

Sodium 132 mEq/L

Hematocrit 32%

A patient has human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) disease and is taking a “cocktail” consisting of protease inhibitors, nucleoside analogue reverse-transcriptase inhibitors, and nonnucleoside analogue reverse-transcriptase inhibitors. Which statement made by the patient indicates that more teaching about the drug therapy is needed?

“Using three drugs at the same time enhances suppression of viral replication.”

“There is no problem using these drugs during the last trimester of my pregnancy.”

“Because this drug combination kills HIV, I do not need to worry about transmitting the virus.”

“If the virus becomes resistant to this cocktail, another combination of drugs may be required to reduce my viral load.”

Which test results indicate that a patient’s antiretroviral therapy is effective?

White blood cell count 5000 cells/mm3

Blood urea nitrogen level 15 mg/dL

Blood positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) antibodies

CD4+ to CD8+ ratio increased

A human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive patient taking highly active antiretroviral therapy informs you that she is now pregnant. What advice regarding drug therapy do you give this patient?

“Stop taking these drugs for your entire pregnancy.”

“Stop taking these drugs for the first trimester and start again for the second and third trimesters.”

“Continue to take these drugs throughout your pregnancy exactly as they have been prescribed.”

“It will be necessary to double your dosages of these drugs to ensure your unborn baby is adequately protected.”

What is the most important question to ask before giving the first dose of darunavir to a patient newly prescribed this drug?

“Do you have a hearing problem or any trouble with your ears?”

“Do you take medications for seizures?”

“Are you allergic to sulfa drugs?”

“Have you ever had asthma?”

A child is prescribed emtricitabine (Emtriva) 120 mg orally. The drug on hand is emtricitabine suspension 10 mg/mL. How many milliliters do you prepare for a correct dose?

A patient who is taking zidovudine (Retrovir) reports diarrhea. Which dietary change should you suggest for this patient?

“Avoid fatty and fried foods.”

“Increase your intake of fiber.”

“Take an antacid 30 minutes before each meal.”

“Restrict your intake of fluids to 1 L/day.”

A patient who has been taking lamivudine (Epivir) for 6 months reports reduced sensation in the fingers and toes. What is your best action?

Document the report as the only action.

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Hold the dose and notify the prescriber.

Remind the patient to continue the drug as usual and take a multiple vitamin daily.

Reassure the patient that this is an expected drug side effect and to use injury precautions.

Which health problem must you be specifically alert for in pregnant women who are prescribed any nucleoside analogue reverse-transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)?

Headache

Lactic acidosis

Diabetes mellitus

Nausea/vomiting

A patient who has been taking efavirenz (Sustiva) reports a sore throat, fever, and blisters. What is your best action?

Hold the dose and notify the prescriber.

Document the report as the only action.

Remind the patient that these are symptoms of opportunistic infection.

Reassure the patient that these are common and expected side effects of the drug.

Which food, drink, or herbal supplement do you warn a patient who is prescribed nevirapine (Viramune) to avoid?

Caffeinated beverages

Grapefruit juice

St. John’s wort

Dairy products

How do protease inhibitor (PI) drugs prevent viral replication?

They are counterfeit bases that prevent reverse transcriptase from synthesizing the DNA needed for viral replication.

They inactivate the enzyme that allows the viral genetic material to be integrated into the human host’s cellular DNA.

They prevent the production of proteins needed for viral particles to leave the cell and infect other cells.

They prevent initial infection by blocking the receptor the virus uses to enter target cells.

A patient who has been taking indinavir (Crixivan) for a year has just been told that the organism is now resistant to this drug. The patient expresses worry to you that this means the disease will now progress to acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and death will soon follow. What is your best response?

“Your health care provider can change this drug to the intravenous form, which prevents viral replication even in HIV that has developed drug resistance.”

“Although the HIV is now resistant to this drug, other antiretroviral drugs are likely to be effective in controlling your disease.”

“The HIV easily becomes drug resistant. That is why the drug combinations are switched so often.”

“That is a possibility because these drugs do not kill the virus. It is best to be prepared.”

A patient on HAART that includes neviripine (Viramune) has all of the following side effects. Which one should you report to the prescriber immediately?

Nausea

2 lb weight loss

Clay-colored stools

Dizziness on standing

A pediatric patient is prescribed nelfinavir (Viracept) 450 mg orally. The available drug is 50 mg/scoop. How many level scoops do you measure into the patient’s pudding to administer the correct dose?

9 scoops

6 scoops

3 scoops

2 scoops

Which precaution is most important to teach an older patient who is prescribed atazanavir (Reyataz)?

“Be sure to take this drug at least 1 hour before or 4 hours after taking an antacid.”

“Weigh yourself daily and notify your prescriber if you gain more than 2 lb in 1 week.”

“Check your pulse for a full minute daily and notify your prescriber if it becomes irregular or slow.”

“Check your calves daily for swelling or redness. If these symptoms appear, go to the emergency department immediately.”

Which precaution is most important to teach a patient who is prescribed enfuvirtide (Fuzeon)?

“After the drug is mixed, store it away from light.”

“Use sterile technique to draw up and inject the drug.”

“Do not take this drug if there is any possibility that you are pregnant.”

“Mix the drug with tap water, then rinse the drug’s original container and add that fluid to the drug mixture.”

A 40-year-old patient infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) asks why the new drug maraviroc (Selzentry) is not being prescribed for her. What is your best response?

“This drug is very expensive and your insurance may not cover it.”

“This drug can cause birth defects and should not be prescribed for anyone who is pregnant or might become pregnant.”

“This drug is very toxic to the heart and lungs. It is prescribed only for patients who are young and have no other health problems.”

“This drug is not effective against all HIV subtypes and the HIV causing your infection does not have the target for this drug.”

Which precaution is most important to teach older adults who are prescribed maraviroc (Selzentry)?

“If an injection site infection occurs, do not reuse that site until the skin has healed completely.”

“Take the drug with food or milk to reduce the likelihood of GI side effects.”

“Change positions slowly when moving from a sitting to a standing position.”

“Store the drug at room temperature.”

A patient prescribed raltegravir (Isentress) reports all of the following problems or changes since starting this drug. Which problem or change do you report to the prescriber?

Abdominal cramps and bloating

Muscle aches and weakness

Urinating more at night

Loss of taste for sweets

What precaution is most important to teach a patient newly prescribed to take Truvada?

“Continue to use safer sex practices.”

“Avoid caffeine and any fatty or fried foods.”

“Be sure to drink at least 3 L of fluids daily.”

“If you develop muscle or joint aches, notify your prescriber immediately.”

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

ADVANCED CONCEPTS

Which antiretroviral drugs have greater effectiveness when administered with ritonavir? (select all that apply)

Edurant (rilpivirine)

Emtriva (emtricitabine)

Invirase (saquinavir)

Lexiva (fosamprenavir)

Prezista (darunavir)

Reyataz (atazanavir)

Tivicay (dolutegravir)

Ziagen (abacavir)

Which patient outcomes are major goals of antiretroviral therapy? (select all that apply)

Prevention of opportunistic infections

Conversion to an HIV-negative antibody status

Reduction of the number of viral particles in the patient’s blood

Increase in CD4+ cells

Decrease in CD8+ cells

Prevention of disease spread

COMPLETION

ADVANCED CONCEPTS

A child who is HIV positive and weighs 40 lb is prescribed to receive atazanavir (Reyataz) at a dose of 7 mg/kg. The drug on hand is a premixed oral suspension of 50 mg/60 mL. How many milliliters will you prepare as the correct dose?

A patient is prescribed to receive 300 mg of ribavirin by oral suspension. The drug on hand is ribavirin oral suspension with a concentration of 50 mg/mL. How many milliliters will you prepare as the correct dose?

A patient is prescribed 45 mg of enfuvirtide by subcutaneous injection. The available drug is a premixed solution of enfuvirtide with a concentration of 90 mg/mL.

Question 16: Business Management

Chapter 9 Foundations of Group Behavior

1) Which of the following is true with regard to groups?

A) A group is characterized by the independence of its members.
B) A group typically lacks definite roles and structures.
C) A group influences our emotional reactions.
D) An informal gathering cannot be considered a group.
E) The membership of a group does not affect how its members treat outsiders.

2) Which of the following is true regarding formal groups?

A) They are natural formations that arise in response to the need for social contact.
B) They lack clearly defined structures and roles for their members.
C) They have negligible impact on employee performance and behavior.

D) A group of people who come together to protest against a new law make up a formal group.
E) They are marked by stipulated behaviors in pursuit of organizational goals.

3) An informal group is characterized by the ________.

A) stipulation of expected behaviors by the organization
B) predetermined designation of tasks of members.
C) pursuit of particular organizational goals.
D) fulfillment of the need for social contact
E) creation of timelines and rationale

4) Which of the following differentiates between formal and informal groups?

A) The timeline of reference for formal groups is greater than that for informal groups.
B) The impact of formal groups on organizational performance is lesser than that of informal groups.
C) Formal groups pursue the goal of social contact, while informal groups have definite organizational goals to attain.
D) Formal groups are typically smaller in size when compared to informal groups.
E) Formal groups involve clearly defined tasks and roles, while informal groups are neither formally structured nor organizationally determined.

5) Our tendency to take personal pride or offense for the accomplishments of a group we are a part of, is the territory of the ________ theory.

A) social exchange
B) expectancy
C) social identity
D) reinforcement
E) equity

6) Which of the following is true with regard to the social identity theory?

A) It proposes that members take personal pride in accomplishments but dissociate from the group in the event of any offenses or failures.
B) It proposes that people have emotional reactions to the failure or success of their group because their self-esteem is tied into the group’s performance.
C) It proposes that people develop only one social identity in childhood that becomes more defined and concrete in the course of their lives.
D) It proposes that social identities can never be detrimental as they have no effect on how members of an in-group view members of an out-group.
E) It proposes that members of an in-group are viewed as being homogenous, while members of an out-group are seen as being heterogeneous.

7) ________ is defined as the tendency to see members of the group of which we are a part of as better than other people.

A) In-group homogeneity
B) Xenocentrism
C) In-group favoritism
D) Black sheep effect
E) Hindsight bias

8) At Milton farms, where a large part of the management comes from the same sociocultural background, many employees of diverse ethical or cultural origins are hired only to ensure legal compliance with laws relating to diversity at the workplace. The company’s day-to-day functioning leaves much to be desired in terms of promoting diversity. Recently, the owner’s cousin was promoted to the post of a branch manager while three suitable candidates hailing from a different cultures were blatantly overlooked. This is an example of ________.

A) social loafing
B) in-group favoritism
C) groupthink
D) contrast bias
E) social exchange

9) Aaron Dias was working on the last shift for the day at All Needs, a retail store owned by an Asian man, when he opened the cash register and stole some money thinking that nobody would witness him stealing. However, one of the customer attendants watched him steal the money and reported it to the manager the next day, following which Aaron was terminated. Subsequently, the manager became extremely strict with all his Caucasian employees and was often heard abusing them saying “you guys are all the same.” This scenario depicts ________.

A) social loafing
B) in-group favoritism
C) groupthink
D) contrast bias
E) social exchange

10) Similarity is a characteristic under the social identity theory that manifests itself in the ________.

A) tendency of in-group members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups
B) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater group identification as well
C) tendency of people to link themselves to high-status groups in an attempt to define themselves favorably
D) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world
E) tendency of in-group members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else’s culture over their own

11) In the context of the social identity theory, distinctiveness refers to the ________.

A) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater identification as well
B) tendency of people to link themselves to high-status groups in an attempt to define themselves favorably
C) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world
D) tendency of in-group members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else’s culture over their own
E) tendency of in-group members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups

12) Status is a characteristic under the social identity theory that reflects the ________.

A) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world
B) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater identification as well
C) tendency of people to link themselves to groups of higher social standing in an attempt to define themselves favorably
D) tendency of in-group members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else’s culture over their own
E) tendency of in-group members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups

13) Uncertainty reduction is a dimension of the social identity theory that manifests itself in the ________.

A) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater identification as well
B) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world
C) tendency of people to link themselves to groups of higher social standing in an attempt to define themselves favorably
D) tendency of in-group members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else’s culture over their own
E) tendency of in-group members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups

14) Which of the following represents the second stage in the five-stage group development model?

A) adjourning
B) performing
C) storming
D) forming
E) norming

15) Which of the following stages of the five-stage group development model is characterized by a great deal of uncertainty about the group’s purpose, structure, and leadership?

A) introduction
B) storming
C) forming
D) evolution
E) norming

16) The second stage of the five-stage group development model is characterized by ________.

A) uncertainty about the purpose, structure, and leadership of the group
B) cohesiveness and close relationships among members of the group
C) strong feelings of group identity among members of the group
D) intragroup conflict within the group
E) pride in the accomplishments of the group

17) By the end of the stage of ________, a relatively clear hierarchy of leadership within the group is established.

A) norming
B) storming
C) forming
D) adjourning
E) performing

18) During the third stage of group development ________.

A) conflicts over leadership are common
B) the group demonstrates cohesiveness
C) intragroup conflicts occur
D) members resist the constraints the group places on them
E) groups disband

19) Which of the following statements is true regarding the norming stage of group development?

A) According to the five-stage group development model, this is the second stage in the group development model.
B) This stage is characterized by a great deal of uncertainty about the group’s purpose, structure, and leadership.
C) During this stage, members accept the existence of the group but resist the constraints it imposes on individuality.
D) During this stage, the group develops a common set of expectations of what defines correct member behavior.
E) During this stage the group completes the task at hand.

20) When the group energy is focused on the task at hand and the group is fully functional, it is said to be in the stage of ________.

A) storming
B) norming
C) inertia
D) forming
E) performing

21) Which of the following statements is most likely to be true regarding the performing stage?

A) The performing stage is characterized by a great deal of uncertainty about the group’s purpose, structure, and leadership.
B) During the performing stage there is conflict over who will control the group.
C) The performing stage involves members trying out different behaviors in order to understand which behaviors the group considers acceptable.
D) For permanent work groups, performing is the last stage in development.
E) During the performing stage, members accept the existence of the group but resist the constraints it imposes on individuality.

22) Which of the following is true with regard to the five-stage group development model?

A) All permanent groups pass through the five stages of this model of group development successively.
B) For temporary work teams, the performing stage is the last stage of group development.
C) The model assumes that employees are functioning at their most effective level from the first stage.
D) A positive social focus may aid a group in reaching the performing stage more rapidly.
E) Groups proceed through the stages of group development in similar speed and timelines.

23) Which of the following statements is true with regard to the punctuated-equilibrium model of group development?

A) It applies to all permanent work groups.
B) It follows the five stages of forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning.
C) It does not consider the changes in patterns of group activities in response to deadlines and time constraints.
D) It involves the two strategies of groupthink and group shift to break out of the phases of inertia.
E) It characterizes groups as exhibiting long periods of inertia interspersed with brief revolutionary changes.

24) Tabby Tolman is a project coordinator at Tristar Solutions. Whenever a new project comes her way, she holds a project meeting and follows it up with repeated meetings to address any concerns the team may have and to monitor their progress. However, with the peak of the business season arriving, she has been holding just one project initiation meeting for every project to save on time. She has become increasingly worried about the team’s progress with no inputs coming from the members and she has had no time to check with them. With two weeks left to go for a high priority project of a month’s duration, she has now begun to see some work coming through and is relieved. This development reflects that the group is at the stage of ________.

A) forming
B) inertia following the first meeting
C) second phase of inertia before the group’s last meeting
D) storming
E) transition following the halfway mark in the timeline

25) The first phase of group development for temporary groups involves ________.

A) the phase of inertia before transition
B) the determination of the group’s direction
C) the transition to plan the major changes
D) a period of accelerated activity
E) the adoption of new perspectives

26) The determination of the behavioral patterns and assumptions through which the group approaches the project is a function of the ________ phase in the punctuated-equilibrium model.

A) performing
B) inertia
C) equilibrium
D) transition
E) first meeting

27) Which of the following represents the major determinants of group development and functioning as depicted by the punctuated-equilibrium model?

A) better perspectives and patterns
B) group solidarity and collectivist goals
C) promotion of diversity
D) deadlines and time constraints
E) role perception and expectation

28) Role perception is defined as ________.

A) the way others believe we should act in a given context
B) our view of how we are supposed to act in a given situation
C) the existence of roles that are at variance with one another
D) the socially defined position or rank given to group members by others
E) the degree to which members are motivated to stay in the group.

29) Janice Cooper has recently joined a hospital as a part of the internship program prescribed by the nursing school she attends. Janice, who was inspired to take up this profession by the story of Florence Nightingale, had very strong ideals about how she should behave as a nurse. She felt that as a nurse, she must be gentle, pleasant, and caring at all times so she could serve her patients well, and she often went to great lengths as an intern by putting in extra hours at the hospital and so on. The scenario reflects Janice’s ________.

A) role fuzziness
B) role ambiguity
C) role conflict
D) role perception
E) role status

30) Role ________ is defined as the way others believe you should act in a given context.

A) fuzziness
B) expectation
C) conflict
D) perception
E) enhancement

31) Most people assume that a police officer should behave in a lawful manner, refrain from demonstrating favoritism to any particular group, and do their best to uphold the law. Which of the following terms best represents these beliefs?

A) diversity
B) similarity
C) role expectation
D) uncertainty reduction
E) dispersion of responsibility

32) When ________, the result is role conflict.

A) compliance with one role aids our performance in another role
B) compliance with the group is an attempt to understand who we are and how we fit into the world
C) compliance with the group is marked by a tendency to notice and emphasize those aspects of the group that are distinctive
D) compliance with one role requirement may make it difficult to comply with another
E) compliance with the group is strengthened by members who have similar values and characteristics

33) Michael is devout and very active in his church. He is also a very dedicated employee. His manager offers him a promotion but the new role will require him to work Sundays. Michael would like the promotion, but realizes that it would force him to miss some church activities. In this situation, Michael is most likely to experience ________.

A) role conflict
B) social loafing
C) groupthink
D) role fuzziness
E) group shift

34) Which of the following represents the acceptable standards of behavior within a group that are shared by the group’s members?

A) status
B) norms
C) dyads
D) goals
E) cliques

35) Which of the following is an example of performance norms?

A) dress codes
B) rules in informal groups
C) assignment of difficult jobs, pay, and equipment
D) distribution of pay
E) the manner in which a job must be done

36) The ________ norms dictate behavior such as with whom group members eat lunch and friendships on and off the job.

A) appearance
B) social arrangement
C) performance
D) reference
E) organizational

37) A local government work crew cleans up parks and other public spaces. In this crew the dirtiest jobs are generally given to the newest members, while the more senior members of the crew tend to do little except draw their pay. Which of the following classes of norms encompasses arrangements like this?

A) performance norms
B) appearance norms
C) resource allocation norms
D) reference norms
E) leisure norms

38) ________ refers to the adjustment of one’s behavior to align with the norms of the group.

A) Deviance
B) Conflict
C) Divergence
D) Conformity
E) Appearance

39) The important groups to which an individual belongs or hopes to belong are known as ________ groups.

A) interacting
B) reference
C) organizational
D) control
E) nominal

40) Jonas Wilkes has struggled for many years with tight finances at home. Throughout school and college, he worked really hard, earned the best grades, and prepared himself for a better life. By a better life, he meant a house in the uptown Wellington Road and a membership in the Diamond District Club where he envisions himself playing golf on weekends. The residents of Wellington Road and the members of Diamond District Club serve as a ________ for him.

A) nominal group
B) organizational group
C) control group
D) intervention group
E) reference group

41) Which of the following terms best represents voluntary actions that violate significant organizational norms and, in doing so, threaten the well-being of the organization or its members?

A) undue hardship
B) deviant workplace behavior
C) antidiscrimination and retaliation
D) progressive discipline
E) wrongful termination

42) Which of the following is true with regard to deviant workplace behavior?

A) It is involuntary in nature.
B) Widespread deviant workplace behavior depends on the accepted norms of the group.
C) It has a negligible adverse impact on organization as it is accepted by some employees.
D) Research on deviance at the workplace has shown that employees operating individually engage in more deviant behaviors than those who function as a part of groups.
E) Leaving work early is an example of a property-related deviant workplace behavior.

43) Status refers to the ________.

A) impact that support of group norms has on workplace civility
B) adjustment of one’s behavior to align with the norms of the group
C) socially defined position or rank given to groups or group members by others
D) existence of roles that are at variance with one another
E) acceptable standards of behavior within a group that are shared by the group’s members

44) According to status characteristics theory, which of the following factors does not determine status?

A) control over the resources needed by the group
B) contribution to goals
C) ability to conform to group norms
D) personality
E) talent

45) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of status on conformity pressure?

A) High-status individuals are often given less freedom to deviate from norms than are other group members.
B) People in high-status jobs have especially negative reactions to social pressure exerted by people in low-status jobs.
C) Lower-status people are better able to resist conformity pressures than their high-status peers.
D) Groups exert equal conformity pressure on all individuals regardless of their status.
E) As compared to high-status members, low-status members are given a wider range of discretion as long as their activities aren’t severely detrimental to group goal achievement.

46) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of size of the group has on the performance of the group?

A) The size of the group does not affect the group’s overall behavior.
B) Evidence indicates that larger groups are faster at completing tasks than smaller ones.
C) As compared to smaller groups, larger groups are better in problem solving.
D) If the goal of the group is fact-finding then smaller groups are more effective than larger groups.
E) Evidence indicates that individuals perform better in larger groups than in smaller ones.

47) Which of the following terms indicates the tendency of individuals to spend less effort when working collectively?

A) groupthink
B) collective efficacy
C) social loafing
D) group shift
E) social facilitation

48) When faced with a number of tight deadlines, Mandy Moore often delegates work collectively. Recently she chose some fairly experienced employees to work on a high-priority project. She was heartened to see that the selected group of employees was having numerous meetings and working hard. However, when she went to check on their progress at the halfway mark in the project schedule, she was shocked to see how little the team had done in the past three weeks. This scenario reflects ________.

A) groupthink
B) collective efficacy
C) social loafing
D) group shift
E) in-group favoritism

49) Which of the following is a contributing factor with regard to social loafing?

A) difficult task assignments
B) high collective efficacy
C) severe time constraints
D) dispersion of responsibility
E) heavy workload

50) Which of the following is an effective means of countering social loafing?

A) increasing the rewards the group is given if it succeeds
B) increasing the amount by which the group’s progress is monitored
C) ensuring that individual contributions to the group’s outcome are identified
D) increasing the size of the group
E) increasing the group’s workload

51) Which of the following is true with regard to social loafing?

A) Social loafing decreases when rewards are added for collective performance of the group.

B) Social loafing reflects the drastic rise in employee performance when they work collectively.
C) Social loafing involves the cumulative rise in productivity when teams increase in size.
D) Social loafing is a result of the emphasis on individual outcomes over shared outcomes.
E) Social loafing is witnessed less in collectivist cultures where people take pride in group performance.

52) ICE is a non-profit organization that runs awareness campaigns and research programs that provide data to initiate the process of legislative changes on various aspects of the environment like forest cover, nuclear fuel, endangered species and others. The ICE operates through networks of grass-root level researchers who are grouped into flexible project teams whose roles and duties change with each new project. The ICE believes its employees to be like family and an informal environment pervades its functioning without any compromises being made in the efficiency. Recently, the project manager of the rainwater harvesting pilot project in the suburbs has been informed of two delays in the project. When the third extension request came to him, he looked into the matter by speaking individually with the five team members. Which of the following complaints by the team members, if true, would indicate the presence of social loafing in the team?

A) A team member complained that the residents of the suburb in which they were working were uncooperative and did not accept their most cordial requests for helping in data collection.
B) Nancy, one of the new team members, reported that she felt the team was not cohesive enough.
C) Two of the most experienced employees on the team reported having to shoulder a disproportionate amount of the current workload and asked for an internal transfer.
D) The scarcity of funds was one of the major concerns that all the team members mentioned.
E) The team members were dissatisfied with the compensation package as they felt they were putting in a lot of work and being paid relatively less.

53) ________ refers to the degree to which members are attracted to each other and motivated to stay in the group.

A) Assertiveness
B) Social dominance
C) Authoritativeness
D) Cohesiveness
E) Diversity

54) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of group cohesiveness and performance norms on group productivity?

A) When cohesiveness is low and performance norms are also low, productivity will be high.
B) The productivity of the group is affected by the performance norms but not by the cohesiveness of the group.
C) If cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low, productivity will be high.
D) If cohesiveness is low and performance norms are high, productivity will be low.
E) When both cohesiveness and performance norms are high, productivity will be high.

55) ________ is defined as the extent to which members of a group are similar to, or different from, one another.

A) Homogeneity
B) Diversity
C) Conformity
D) Civility
E) Universality

56) Which of the following is an advantage of group decision making when compared to individual decision making?

A) increased ambiguous responsibility
B) increased conformity pressures
C) increased diversity of views
D) increased dispersion of accountability
E) increased pace of decision making

57) When ________ is of importance in decision making, group decisions are preferred to individual decisions.

A) acceptance of solution
B) speed
C) efficiency
D) clear responsibility
E) legitimacy

Answer: A

58) Group decision making has a disadvantage in the area of ________, when compared to individual decision making.

A) diversity
B) creativity
C) acceptance of final solutions
D) speed
E) accuracy

59) ________ is defined as a phenomenon in which the norm for consensus overrides the realistic appraisal of alternative courses of action.

A) Group shift
B) Social loafing
C) In-group favoritism
D) Cyber loafing
E) Groupthink

60) Sonia Soans is corporate trainer. One of her favorite ways to start a training program is to present a case study and encourage members to think of the case in depth and discuss it amongst each other. Using the results of the activity she understands the baseline measures of the group’s functioning. During one of her recent sessions, she observed that the group came to a consensus very quickly. However, when asked to present their views, the team members were not too confident and appeared to be under an illusion of unanimity. From the scenario, we can say that this group experienced ________.

A) diversity
B) group shift
C) role conflict
D) groupthink
E) social loafing

Explanation: D) Groupthink relates to norms and describes situations in which group pressures for conformity deter the group from critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular views.

61) Which of the following steps can be taken by a manager so as to minimize groupthink?

A) increasing the group size
B) encouraging group leaders to develop a stronger sense of group identity
C) preventing all team members from engaging in a critical evaluation of ideas at the beginning
D) asking the group members to first focus on the positives of an alternative rather than the negatives
E) seeking input from employees before the group leader presents his opinions

62) In discussing a given set of alternatives and arriving at a solution, group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions they hold. This phenomenon is called ________.

A) social desirability bias
B) group shift
C) halo effect
D) social loafing
E) in-group favoritism

63) Group shift is seen when ________.

A) group members view themselves in better light when compared to members of the out-group
B) group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions they hold when discussing a given set of alternatives and arriving at a solution
C) group members notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups
D) group members tend to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else’s culture over their own
E) group members fail to express alternative opinions and deviant views under the influence of the norm for consensus.

64) The HR department at Bailey Services is considering offering telecommuting as an option to some experienced employees. At a meeting to formalize the move, the heads of the different departments met with Laura Watson, the HR manager. Laura, who thought this meeting would be a short one, was proven wrong when all the members, who had previously agreed that telecommuting would work in their company, began coming up with divergent views. By the end, two divisions claimed having major concerns about allowing employees to telecommute, and those in favor of it were equally vocal. This scenario depicts the operation of ________.

A) conformity
B) group shift
C) role conflict
D) groupthink
E) social loafing

65) Joe Sullivan and Mark Holland, members of the top management at Eu Air, an European airlines, were preparing for a meeting to discuss strategies to combat the recent rise in fuel prices. Before the meeting began, Joe and Mark were discussing how oil prices significantly impact the health of the world economy. Joe spoke of how higher oil prices since 1999, partly the result of OPEC supply management policies, contributed to the global economic downturn in 2000-2001. Mark agreed but added that the right kind of strategy can help them overcome, and even profitably use, this opportunity for hiking fares. Which of the following statements, if true, would denote the occurrence of group shift in Mark’s opinions during the meeting?

A) Mark felt that Eu Air should suspend some of its less profitable flights in the short run in favor of the routes that have greater demand among consumers.
B) Mark proposed that this was an opportunity for Eu Air to use its brand name effectively and diversify into other products and services.
C) Mark agreed with Joe’s opinion that providing the best service possible, even if it meant incurring a loss in the short run, would be the best strategy.
D) Mark proposed that the prices be hiked and additional customer service measures be included so costumers have the best experience flying with Eu Air.
E) Mark encouraged the top-management team to consider laying off surplus employees and rightsizing Eu Air to enhance its efficiency and lower costs.

66) Joe Sullivan and Mark Holland, members of the top management at Eu Air, an European airlines, were preparing for a meeting to discuss strategies to combat the recent rise in fuel prices. Before the meeting began, Joe and Mark were discussing how oil prices significantly impact the health of the world economy. Joe spoke of how higher oil prices since 1999, partly the result of OPEC supply management policies, contributed to the global economic downturn in 2000-2001. Mark agreed but added that the right kind of strategy can help them overcome and even profitably use this opportunity for hiking fares. Which of the following statements, if true, would weaken the argument that Mark experienced group shift in the meeting?

A) Mark felt that implementing a price rise was necessary to recover the costs in operating the flights.
B) Mark stated that the company should increase operations but at lower fares so they can regain control over the market share.
C) Mark believed that most of their clientele was not price sensitive.
D) Mark was of the opinion that oil suppliers were going to pressure them even more in the future and the company had to resort to alternatives like bio fuels.
E) Mark recommended that the company should establish a fuel hedging contract with its key suppliers to ensure protection from fuel price rises.

67) Joe Sullivan and Mark Holland, members of the top management at Eu Air, an European airlines, were preparing for a meeting to discuss strategies to combat the recent rise in fuel prices. Before the meeting began, Joe and Mark were discussing how oil prices significantly impact the health of the world economy. Joe spoke of how higher oil prices since 1999, partly the result of OPEC supply management policies, contributed to the global economic downturn in 2000-2001. Mark agreed but added that the right kind of strategy can help them overcome and even profitably use this opportunity for hiking fares. Which of the following statements, if true, would denote the occurrence of group shift in Joe’s opinions during the meeting?

A) Joe proposed that the company should invite price quotes from new suppliers to reduce their dependence on their current fuel suppliers.
B) Joe determined that the best strategy would be to slash prices and minimize all fringes that are used for customer service.
C) Joe convinced the top management team to decrease the capacity of the flights.
D) Joe recommended that the prices for business class fares be increased as they represent a less price sensitive group of customers.
E) Joe claimed that aviation fuel was their second largest expense and this was the time to contemplate obtaining a few futures contracts with suppliers.

68) Joe Sullivan and Mark Holland, members of the top management at Eu Air, an European airlines, were preparing for a meeting to discuss strategies to combat the recent rise in fuel prices. Before the meeting began, Joe and Mark were discussing how oil prices significantly impact the health of the world economy. Joe spoke of how higher oil prices since 1999, partly the result of OPEC supply management policies, contributed to the global economic downturn in 2000-2001. Mark agreed but added that the right kind of strategy can help them overcome and even profitably use this opportunity for hiking fares. Which of the following statements, if true, would weaken the argument that Joe experienced group shift during the meeting?

A) Joe stated that the company should cut expenditures on other areas like marketing and advertising instead of hiking fares to retain their current profit margins.
B) Joe stated that hiking prices would lead to losing market share to the low-cost airlines which already controlled half the market.
C) Joe stated that precise methods of fuel filling and consumption must be implemented to efficiently use their current supply of fuel.
D) Joe suggested adding a fuel surcharge to all tickets for commercial flights with immediate effect.
E) Joe proposed the usage of direct and higher altitude routes that would curtail fuel consumption.

69) Groupthink is most commonly seen in the group decision-making approach using ________.

A) reference groups
B) nominal groups
C) brainstorming
D) interacting groups
E) electronic meeting groups

70) Like many other marketing strategy specialists, Mark Fritz relies heavily on creativity and originality. Members of his team are selected on the basis of their ability to think divergently, and Mark often conducts activities to ensure that this ability is developed. For instance, before any new project, Mark invites his team to sit together and churn out possible ideas about the new product, its theme, and ways in which it can be projected best in the market. These sessions usually provide him with a bank of potential ideas from which the team selects some strong concepts and develops them into a campaign. To encourage freedom in these sessions, Mark has a no-evaluation policy. This is an example of ________.

A) in-group favoritism
B) group shift
C) brainstorming
D) groupthink
E) social loafing

71) Which of the following statements is true regarding brainstorming?

A) Brainstorming encourages criticizing an idea as early as possible.
B) Brainstorming overcomes the problem of “production blocking.”
C) Brainstorming can overcome the pressures for conformity.
D) Research consistently shows that a group in a brainstorming session generates more ideas than an individual working alone.
E) Brainstorming fails to develop group cohesiveness.

72) A group decision-making method in which individual members meet face-to-face to pool their judgments in a systematic but independent fashion is the ________ technique.

A) reference groups
B) nominal groups
C) brainstorming
D) interacting groups
E) in-group

73) Bonnie Patterson is a manager for seven years at Wayne and Watson, a legal consultancy firm. A good part of her work day involves holding meetings and she likes to get work on a time-bound schedule. For this reason, members of her team receive the agenda at the beginning of the meeting, followed by some time to contemplate over the issue at hand individually. Subsequently, the team members present their ideas one after the another, the group discusses them together, and lastly, a ranking is done to choose the most favored idea. This represents the ________ approach of group decision making.

A) interacting
B) reference group
C) brainstorming
D) nominal group
E) groupthink

74) Hubert Gray needs an instruction manual developed for his new product. This is the last step of the project and he has severe budget constraints. He needs a small team of technical writers to work together closely to write the manual on fairly short notice. He needs them to communicate ideas quickly, creatively, and affordably. Which of the following group techniques should Hubert consider?

A) nominal and electronic
B) brainstorming
C) brainstorming and electronic
D) electronic and interacting
E) interacting and brainstorming

75) ABL is one of the largest consumer goods companies in the country and it recently held its annual conference where members of all regional divisions were invited. Since the company is vast and rarely finds all its employees together in such a manner, it used this opportunity to present to them certain new ideas they had regarding various aspects of their functioning. Large meetings with each regional team were held to provide them with information about the proposed changes and to obtain their anonymous votes through computers. This helped the company speed up the decision-making process and consolidate the results immediately. Which of the following group decision techniques did ABL use here?

A) heuristics and algorithm approach
B) nominal groups approach
C) electronic meeting approach
D) reference groups approach
E) brainstorming

Question 17: Finance

If a stock has a beta of 0.78 would its required rate of return be higher or lower than the required return for the average stock on the market? Why? Would it be more or less risky than holding a fund that replicated the S&P 500 Index ? Why?

The nominal risk free rate (R_RF) equals 0.55%. The market risk premium is equal to 6.0%. The Beta of Harrah’s Inc. is 1.33. Use the CAPM to calculate the required rate of return for Hershey stock (Rs)?

If you are a risk-averse investor and you decide to hold a single stock, which stock would you prefer? Use the Coefficient of Variation (CV) to determine your answer. Explain your final choice.

A stock with an expected return of 20% and a standard deviation equal to 10%.
A stock with an expected return of 7% and a standard deviation equal to 3%.
A stock with an expected return of 16% and a standard deviation equal to 16%

Assume you have a portfolio with the stocks and their information:

Stock	Total $ invested	Beta	Expected Return	Portfolio weight
DuPont	$125,000	1.00	12%
McDonald’s Corp	$150,000	0.55	8.6%
Ford	$600,000	1.33	11%

a) Calculate Beta of the Portfolio.
b) Calculate the Expected return for the portfolio using the CAPM and the beta value for the portfolio. Assume the market risk premium (Rm – Rrf) equals 6% and the Risk free rate (Rrf) equals the rate on a 2 year treasury 1.25%.

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Question 18: Finance

SHOW YOUR WORK.

Assume you own 10 shares of Johnson and Johnson. You paid $43/sh. You sold the stock one year later for $40/share. During the year you held the stock, you earned no Dividends. What was your total dollar return? What was your percentage return?

Assume a share of preferred stock pays a constant dividend of $1.25. If the required return is 6.5%, what is the expected price of this preferred stock?

A share of common stock will pay a dividend of $2.00 at the end of this year so D₁= $2.00. If the expected long-run constant growth rate for this stock is 4 percent, and if investors require an 6 percent rate of return (Rs=6%), what is the expected price of the stock?

Martian stock is expected to grow at 8% in year 1, 9% in year 2 and 6% in year 3.It is then expected to grow at a constant rate of 3% in the years that follow. The required rate of return (Rs) equals 9%. The company just aid a Dividend of $1.55 at the end of last year so (D₀=$1.55. What is the expected price of this stock? If the stock was selling on the market for $45, would you buy it based on your calculations? Explain your answer.

Question 19: General Question

Instruction

James shows up to work approximately five minutes late this morning, walks silently (but quickly) down the hallway and begins to punch in at the time clock located by the front desk. Sarah, the front desk manager, says, “Good morning, James,” but James ignores her, punches in, and heads into the shop to his workplace. Sarah rolls her eyes, picks up the phone, and dials the on-duty manager to alert her that James just arrived and should be reaching his desk any moment. The message should take the form of an email; however, you will submit your assignment to the online course shell. The professional email message must adhere to the following requirements: 1. Content: Address the communication issue from the scenario. Request a face-to-face meeting to discuss the issue (at a specific time). Concentrate on the facts of the situation and avoid using overly emotional language. Assume your recipient is learning about the situation for the first time through your communication. 2. Format: Use a descriptive subject line or heading. Include an appropriate and professional greeting / salutation. Use email form including: To:, From:, Subject:, and Signature. 3. Clarity / Mechanics: Focus on clarity, writing mechanics, and professional language/style requirements. Run spell/grammar check before submitting. 4. Your assignment must: This course requires use of Strayer Writing Standards (SWS). The format is different than other Strayer University courses. Please take a moment to review the SWS documentation for details. 5. Submitting your assignment: Submit your assignment through the online course shell only. 6. The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are: Plan, create, and evaluate professional documents. Deliver professional information to various audiences using appropriate tone, style, and format. Analyze professional communication examples to assist in revision.

Question 20: Law

The book review essay should include all the following – each roman numeral represents a required heading for the paper:

Title Page – Include name, date, and course information.

Introduction – one-page maximum
Summary of the work

Family Experience – a minimum of four pages in length.

In the book, Dave referred to his mother as both ‘mother’ and

‘mom’. What prompted the change? Support with at least two

specific examples from the work.

Why do you suppose Dave was the object of his abuse by his

mother? Provide a specific example from the text to support your work.

Describe the relationship between Dave and his father. Support

with at least two specific examples from the work.

In what ways did Dave not feel a sense of belonging in his family?

Support with at least two specific examples from the book.

What do you suppose was Dave’s worst experience of abuse? Provide a specific example from the book.
Why do you suppose Dave continued to fight?

Contribution to the field of Victimology – one-page minimum
Purpose of the work – how does it increase awareness about Dave’s experience.
How does this work contribute to Victimology?

Conclusion – Summary of your thoughts – one-page maximum

Reference Page – Pelzer book and any supporting readings included in the book review.

The book review essay must be typed, double-spaced, Times New

Roman 12 fonts, with 1″ margins all around. You must include a

title page.

Question 21: Economics

A snack food chain runs a promotion in which shoppers are told that 1 in 4 kid’s meals include a prize. A father buys 2 kid’s meals and neither has a prize. The father concludes that because neither has a prize the chain is being deceptive.

What are the null and alternative hypothesis?

Describe a Type I error in this context.

Describe a Type II error.

A retailer maintains a website that it sues to attract shoppers. The average purchase amount is $80. The retailor is evaluating a new website that would, it hopes, encourage shoppers to spend more. Let µ represent the average amount spent per customer at its redesigned website. Mark each statement as True or False.

The appropriate null hypothesis for testing the profitability of the new designs is µ = $80.

The appropriate alternative hypothesis for testing the profitability of the new design is µ > $80.

The makers of Mini-Oats Cereal have an automated packaging machine that can be set at any targeted fill level between 12 and 32 ounces. Every box of cereal is not expected to contain exactly the targeted weight but the average of all boxed filled should. At the end of every shift, 16 boxes are selected a random and the mean and standard deviation of the sample are computed. Based on these sample results, the production control manager determines whether the filling machine needs to be readjusted or whether it remains all right to operate. Use α = 0.05 and assume the population is normally distributed.

Establish the appropriate null and alternative hypothesis to be tested for boxes that are supposed to have an average of 24 ounces.

At the end of a particular shift during which the machine was filling 24 ounce boxes, the sample mean of 16 boxes was 24.32 ounces with a standard deviation of 0.70 ounces. Assist the production control manager in determining if the machine is achieving its targeted average.

Question 22: Law

The research paper will be based on a recent case before the courts. You must identify the case and how it relates to the topics covered in this course. You must use the proper citation for the case you selected, as well as the APA style for your entire paper. The paper must be a minimum of five pages (not counting the cover and reference pages), double spaced, 12-point font. Your thesis must be concise, explaining your position. I am interested in why you chose a particular case to analyze The case is Florida v. Jardines and the topic is the fourth amendment against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no Warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause

Question 23: Religious Studies

The Journey Paper Instructions

Go somewhere (the park, the lake, etc.), any place that you won’t be disturbed or distracted.

For Step 1, write out your prayer. Be transparent, honest, and thoughtful in your prayer. Pray specifically toward the purpose of discovering and uncovering thoughts, feelings, and behaviors.

You are encouraged to press through and go deeper into yourself to find the hidden meanings of your emotions, thoughts and self-statements.
Follow the remaining steps: (Use a present situation, not one from the past that you have already worked through.)

Step 2: Describe the unpleasant situation that disturbs you.

Step 3: List any destructive behaviors stemming from the unpleasant situation.

Step 4: Describe how others responded to your behaviors and how relationships were affected.

Step 5: What are the negative and harmful emotions you feel in regard to the situation? (You may feel several emotions. Write them all down.).

Step 6: Ask yourself the following questions:

What is the worst thing about this situation?
How does this situation affect me personally?
What is the basis, the essence of the problem?
What is the main thing in this problem that makes me feel so bad?
Exactly what is it that feels so bad about this?
What is the worst of this feeling?

Step 7: Move even deeper through your emotions toward your deepest felt sense, and record all your feelings.

Step 8: (1) Examine your thoughts. Ask, “What am I telling myself?” (2) Ask, “Why am I feeling this way?” (Realize that there is a strong possibility that the reason you feel as you do is that you are taking the situation personally.)

Step 9: Ask, “In the list of strongholds, what is the faulty thinking regarding my security and my worth as a person that causes me to take this situation so personally?” Once you have detected the faulty thinking, how can it be rejected and corrected?

Step 10: First, forgive anyone who may have created the situation, and thank God you that you can learn and grow as a result of it. Second, now that you have detected the basic fallacy in your thinking regarding the problem situation, reject the fallacy. See your textbook for the “how to”.

List at least two specific scriptures that are especially meaningful to you that can be used to reprogram and renew your mind.
Paper requirements.

Written in paragraph (narrative form), covering all of the above.
5-7 full pages >1″ margin, top, bottom, left, right.
Times New Roman, 12 point font.
Double Spaced
Cover Sheet, must meet APA style standards. (See the library or internet if you are unfamiliar with this style.)

Question 24: Health Care

MN551 Unit 10 Final Exam / MN 551 Unit 10 Final Exam (Latest): Kaplan University

MN551 Week 10 Final Exam / MN 551 Week 10 Final Exam (Latest): Kaplan University

Question 25: Science

Instruction

Topic: The Effect of COVID-19 on the Climate Elaborate on the topic, describe and give insights. Please follow the Rubic structure when writing the paper. Please be creative!

Question 26: Business Management

Write a small paragraph about one particular company that used business risk plan that made them overcome business threat or risk. It has to a real example and how they did overcome it

Question 27: History

Instructions: – Your response should be in essay format. Write as much as possible telling me who, what, why, where, and how. Use complete sentences and multiple paragraphs (3 – 5) . 1. Discuss the experiences of Mexican and Mexican Americans during the Great Depression. What was so unique about their experiences and how did they compare to other ethno racial groups throughout the country? What did the federal government do specifically to this community and? What was the purpose of the government’s action? Be detailed and provide examples 2. Describe the Mexican Revolution of 1910. Who were the leaders of the revolutionary groups and who were they opposing? What was the cause or causes of this war? What was the position regarding this conflict? What was the outcome of this war and what did that mean for the relationship between the and Mexico? Provide details and list examples to supplement your response.

Question 28: Psychology

Chapters 11, 3, 4, 5

Chapter 11

With which of Maslow’s claims do contemporary researchers find fault?

Which of the following behaviors is explained by set-point theory?

What does research on the effects of testosterone on sexual desire reveal?

Callie was excellent at darts, so when she challenged her friend Erik to a game, she gave

him the opportunity to pick how far a way he stood from the dartboard. Consider the

study by Atkinson and Litwin (1960) described in the text in which people high and low

in the need to achieve and to avoid failure got to stand wherever they wanted relative to

a target. If Erik was high in the need to achieve and low in the need to avoid failure,

where would he choose to stand?

Imagine you wanted to motivate your younger brother to do a good job keeping his

room tidy. One way to do so might be to increase his sense of autonomy. Which of the

following could help you achieve that end?

According to research described in the text, which of the following statements is false?

Which of the following words is most synonymous with personal agency?

Considering the specificity, level of challenge, and proximity of the following goal

statements, which would be most motivating?

You’ve just failed a math exam. Considering Carol Dweck’s research on mindsets, which

of the following thoughts could keep you from becoming discouraged about your future

math performance?

Which of the following is true of autonomy?

Sophia and Bella joined the local orchestra and had their first performance. During

practice, they performed equally well, but on the day of the show, Bella made several

mistakes, whereas Sophia played better than she ever had. Considering Zajonc’s work

on social facilitation, which of the following could best explain this difference?

According to research described in the text, what do grades measure?
Which of the following motives and motivational orientations is categorized as an

approach motivation?

What is the key function of the behavioral inhibition system?

Cocaine increases the activity of which of the following chemicals in the reward center of

the brain?

Chapter 3

The hippocampus of London taxi drivers is larger than that of the average driver. What

feature of the brain does this best illustrate?

The effects of Phineas Gage’s accident on his intellect and personality illustrated which

of the following about the brain?

Which part of MacLean’s triune brain is responsible for regulating bodily functions

critical to survival?

Damage to which of the following areas would cause your movements to become

uncoordinated, even clumsy?

Of the following, which structure of the limbic system would be most active if you were

to walk into your most challenging class and notice students clearing their desks, as if

preparing to take a test (one for which you aren’t prepared!)?

On which of the following properties of the body does fMRI capitalize to produce

images?

Damage to which of the following lobes would make it difficult for you to touch your

finger to your nose with your eyes closed?

The rich interconnections between _____ lobes and other areas of the brain enable us to

possess uniquely human capabilities, including the ability to think about ourselves and

consider how others view us.

This area of the frontal lobes enables you to concentrate on taking this self-test, while

simultaneously blocking out irrelevant stimuli.

That we’re able to coordinate complex activities is due largely to the fact that the brain is

Which of the following was nota finding in research comparing brain activation among

English and Chinese speakers doing arithmetic?

Which particular structure of the neuron can be as long as a meter (a little over 3 feet),

allowing neurons to send information across relatively long distances?

The incredible speed with which action potentials are able to rush down the length of an

axon is enhanced by which of the following structures?

When used by neurons in the spinal cord, this neurotransmitter controls muscles, and

when used by neurons in the brain, it regulates memory.

Unexplained weight gain would most likely be related to a decrease in the functioning of

which of the following glands?

Chapter 4

Research by Turkheimer and colleagues (2003) indicated that genes had a small

influence on intelligence in poor environments but a large effect in high-SES

environments. What does this suggest about the relative effects of nurture and nature?

Among cultures that encourage the drinking of milk, nature selects for the gene that

enables members of that culture to digest lactose. Among cultures for which milk is not

important, few people possess this gene. These facts support which of the following

ideas about the relation between biology and culture?

Which of the following traits is likely to be the most heritable?
If the only difference between MZ and DZ twin pairs is their genetic similarity, then the

difference in the degree to which the two twin types resemble each other

psychologically must be caused by

Based on research by Bouchard and colleagues (1990) on the psychological similarity of

twins raised apart, we would estimate that the correlation for twins raised apart on the

trait of conscientiousness would be approximately

Based on twin studies, we know that the heritability of personality traits is not 1.00. This

leaves room for what other kind of influences?

Heritability studies indicate that variations in genes do account, in part, for variations in

personality. Which of the following would be reasonable to conclude based on this

finding?

Using the metaphor of books to describe your body’s cells, what part of the book

represents DNA?

In molecular genetic methods, sometimes researchers know exactly what allele they are

interested in. At other times, they conduct a(n) ________ to identify the genetic basis of a

behavior of interest.

Recent advances in molecular genetic analyses of monozygotic twins indicate that

identical twins

The process of natural selection isincompatiblewith which of the following ideas?
Which of the following patterns of preferences for mates should we expect to observe,

according to evolutionary psychologists?

Which of the following wouldnotbe supportive of the mental-modules hypothesis?
In an interesting illustration of culture’s influence on biology, researchers found that

among people living in the Caucasus Mountains, there was little genetic diversity

because of the

Although shared family environments account for none of the variability in sexual

orientation, one theory is that variations in which of the following types of environment

may be influential?

Question 29: Linguistics

Phonetics is one of the linguistic subfields dealing with human speech sounds; it isconcentrated on what three aspects of speech sounds?

a) How they are articulated, how they pattern, and how humans hear them
b) How they are articulated, their physical properties, and how humans perceive them
c) How they are articulated, their physical properties, and how they pattern
d) None of the above

What aspect of articulation is responsible for voice (for sounds that are voiced)?

a)The tongue, specifically, the tongue dorsum

b) The tongue, specifically, the tongue tip
c) The tongue, specifically the tongue blade
d) The pharynx
c) The vocal folds
d) both (a) and (c)
e) Both (c) and (d)
f) None of the above

Which of the following English sounds are voiced?

a.[s] and [t]

b.[k] and [f]

c.[m] and [v]

d.[j] and [g]

e.both (a) and (b)

f.both (c) and (d)

Which of the following contains only sounds that are made with the tongue dorsum (i.e., the back of the tongue)?

a.[b], [d], [h], [k]

b.[v], [z], [g], [p]

c.[g], [k]

d.[t], [d]

e.both (a) and (b)

f.both (b) and (c)

g.None of the above

Which of the following contains only sounds that are made at the velar place of articulation?

a.[b], [d], [h], [k]

b.[v], [z], [g], [p]

c.[g], [k]

d.[t], [d]

e.both (a) and (b)

f.both (b) and (c)

g.None of the above

The articulatory difference between the vowels in “bid” and “bed” is that

a) one has a back tongue position and the other a front tongue position
b) one is rounded and the other unrounded
c) one is voiced and the other is voiceless
d) one has a high tongue position and the other a low tongue position
e) both (a) and (b)
f) both (b) and (c)
g) none of the above

The articulatory difference between the vowels in “Luke” and “look” is that

a) one has a back tongue position and the other a front tongue position
b) one is rounded and the other unrounded
c) one is voiced and the other is voiceless
d) one has a high tongue position and the other a low tongue position
e) both (a) and (b)
f) both (b) and (c)
g) none of the above

The articulatory difference between the vowels in “beat” and “boot” is that

a) one has a back tongue position and the other a front tongue position
b) one is rounded and the other unrounded
c) one is voiced and the other is voiceless
d) one has a high tongue position and the other a low tongue position
e) both (a) and (b)
f) both (b) and (c)
g) none of the above

Phonology is another linguistic subfield that deals with human speech sounds; it is concentrated on aspect of speech sounds?

a) How they are articulated
b) Their physical properties
c) Their perception by human listeners
d) Their patterning
e) None of the above

Which of the following are minimal pairs?

a.“boot” and “beat”

b.“cash” and “dash”

c.“crawl” and “drawl”

d.“treat” and “dream”

e.“tip” and “tips”

f.“go” and “went”

g.“fish” and “fishing”

h.both (a) and (b)

i.both (b) and (c)

j.(a), (b), and (c)

k.(e), (f), and (g)

l.None of the above

Which of the following words contains a consonant cluster?

a) “traps”
b) “tea”
c) “bowl”
d) “though”

How many morphemes does the word “fish” contain?

a.1

b.2

c.3

d.4

None of the above

How many morphemes does the word “fishing” contain?

a.1

b.2

c.3

d.4

None of the above

How many morphemes does the word “fishcakes” contain?

a.1

b.2

c.3

d.4

e.None of the above

The word “fishcake” is an example of what word formation process?

a) blending
b) coinage
c) compounding
d) clipping
e) backformation
f) None of the above

Describe why the sentence “I saw the man with a telescope” is ambiguous, and say what the two possible meanings are.

Describe why “acquisition” is a better term than “learning” to describe the development of language in a child.

Watch the 55-minute documentary “The Human Language Series: Acquiring Language”. Then, discuss what is meant when linguists say that language is“innate”. This understanding of the nature of human language started with Noam Chomsky in the 1950s, and it is now central to all of linguistics.

Your response should be at least 100 words. You can find the video on YouTube here:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=j_KlekPZZ6k

Question 30: Other

Full 10-page criminology paper based on rational theory and how it affects the location, Chicago. Crimes, prevention, solutions, and etc.

Question 31: Other

Directions:

Using this document, please insert your name in the space above.

The midterm will consist of 2 essays and 1 long answer question. You will have a choice of 2 questions for each of the 2 essays. Your answers must be based on material from the course readings, so please make sure to reference your readings when applicable. Your midterm is designed to measure your understanding of the reading and your ability to work with the ideas presented by the authors in the response to the questions.

YOU MAY NOT CONSULT WITH ANYONE ABOUT ANY ASPECT OF THE EXAM. However, questions about clarity should be submitted via “Got Questions” on Blackboard. You may not consult web sources that are not part of the course materials while you are answering the exam.

When you have completed your exam, please sign (electronically) the statement below that indicates that this is entirely your own work.

Essay 1 (Length: 2 ½ to 3 ½ pgs; Double-spaced: 12 pt. font; Times New Roman)
1. Discuss the punitive criminal justice policies implemented at the end of the 20th century and their impact on the criminal justice system (including law enforcement, the courts, and corrections).

1. Discuss the impact of public opinion, punitiveness, politics and the news media on the criminal justice system.

Essay 2 (Length: 2 ½ to 3 ½ pgs; Double-spaced: 12 pt. font; Times New Roman)
1. Discuss the relationship between politics and criminal justice policy.

1. Select a controversial criminal justice issue and use the policy community framework to outline the participants, networks and relationships that will likely influence the policy-making process.

The Long Answer (Length: 2 ½; Double-spaced: 12 pt. font; Times New Roman)
1. Briefly describe the first six stages of planned change (analyzing the problem, setting goals and objectives, designing the program, developing an action plan, monitoring program implementation and evaluating outcomes). What are the major questions we need to ask at each stage?

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Question 1: Health Care

DPH 655 Environmental Health Law Assignment
This is an individual assignment whereby you will identify a US law related to environmental health policy and explore its history and purpose. The paper should be 3 pages’ double spaced, 12 pt Times New Roman font, 1 inch margins. You should make sure your paper answers the questions below. Use professional voice. You should include scholarly citations in your paper (no Wikipedia, web MD, or the like). Answer the questions in paragraph form (do not simply list the questions and answer them).
1. What is the full name of the law?
2. What is the common name that the law is known by?
3. When was the law passed?
4. Describe any significant amendments.
5. What event or circumstances prompted the law’s passing?
6. What is the law’s impact on the environment? That is did it function as it was intended to?
7. In plain language, describe what the law does. Don’t get bogged down in the provisions and sections, highlight and summarize the main point of the law in your own words.
8. What is the state of the law today? Is it working as intended? Is it playing a key role in current environmental issues? Has it been involved in any interesting legal or policy battles? If so, describe that.
Use your own words. Cite references in APA style. Theowl@Purdue is a wonderful resource for proper APA citation. Papers will be analyzed for plagiarism through TurnItIn.
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Question 2: English

Norovirus in Vermont
PART I. OUTBREAK DETECTION

On the morning of February 5, the mother of a young child called the Vermont Department of Health (VDH) to report a possible foodborne outbreak. The woman’s child, age 5 years, and two neighborhood children, ages 7 and 10 years, had become ill with vomiting and diarrhea within 12 hours of each other. The child aged 5-years had become so sick that her mother had taken her to the emergency department at the local hospital.
The mother reported that her child initially complained of nausea around 10:00 a.m. on Monday, February 2. The nausea was followed by vomiting and multiple episodes of diarrhea. The child was unable to eat or drink anything without vomiting. Toward evening, the child became listless. The woman took the child to the emergency department where she was noted to be dehydrated and that she had a fever. Stool and blood specimens were collected, and the child was treated with intravenous fluids and released.
The mother called the emergency department the following day to receive the test results for her child. A nurse told her that preliminary stool culture results were “negative for the usual bacteria.”
The two neighborhood children had had similar symptoms (i.e., nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and fever) but had not become as ill as the woman’s child. Their symptoms started a few hours earlier than her child’s. Both had returned to school the day after becoming ill.
The three children usually did not play together but had attended a birthday party on the morning of Sunday, February 1. The mother was concerned about homemade ice cream that was served at the party because she had heard it had been prepared using raw eggs.
After confirming the mother’s information with the emergency department physician, VDH staff called the mother who had organized the February 1 birthday party. The woman reported that her own child was well (except for a cold). Other parents had called her, however, saying that their children had become ill with vomiting and diarrhea.
The woman reported that her son’s birthday party had occurred at a private indoor swim club in Essex, Vermont, close to Burlington. Approximately 30 children and adults were in attendance. The children ranged in age from 5 to 10 years. Not all of the children attended the same school.
Cake, ice cream, and canned drinks had been served at the party. All refreshments had been commercially prepared. The ice cream had not contained raw eggs.
The majority of children had played in the pool at the swim club before presents were opened and cake and ice cream were served. Two children who later became ill had left the party before cake and ice cream were served to attend another birthday party.
The mother provided a list of party attendees, indicating which ones she knew had been ill, and their telephone numbers. She also provided the name and telephone number for the swim club manager.
PART II. HYPOTHESIS GENERATION
VDH investigators notified the district health department of the problem and then contacted the manager of the private swim club. The manager stated that he was dealing with a “problem” and refused to talk with health department investigators. He suggested that they leave their telephone number and he would call them back if he had time.
After VDH investigators stated the reason for their call and reassured the swim club manager that the health department needed to investigate the reported illnesses so that the source could be found and actions could be taken to prevent others from becoming ill, the manager spoke with investigators.
The manager had not heard about the illnesses associated with the February 1 birthday party, but had received reports of illness among other persons who had used the pool during the weekend. Rumors were circulating that participants in the infant-mother swim class (that last met on Saturday, January 31) were sick with “stomach flu.”

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The manager provided VDH investigators with the names and contact information for persons who had complained to him about being ill and for members of the infant-mother swim class.
VDH investigators, with the assistance of district health department staff, contacted households of persons who had visited the swim club and reported illness since January 27 to VDH, the mother organizing the February 1 birthday party, or the swim club manager. Investigators asked about specific symptoms, the date of illness onset, and the most recent date the ill person had visited the swim club.

On the basis of these calls, 21 persons were identified as having attended the swim club and having reported being ill (Table 1). Signs and symptoms included vomiting (90%), nausea (81%), abdominal cramps (67%), diarrhea (48%), fever (48%), and headache (43%). Symptoms began a median of 30 hours (range: 8−62 hours) after visiting the swim club.

During the calls, multiple parents, who had been at the pool on January 31 noted that the water in the pool had been cloudy. One parent had reported the pool’s condition to the lifeguard and was told that the cloudiness resulted from chemicals added to the water. The parent later saw another swim club staff member collecting water from the pool for testing. No one reported having seen a fecal incident or vomiting while they were at the pool.
On the basis of the initial findings, VDH investigators believed that the gastrointestinal illness was consistent with norovirus infection. They hypothesized that the virus was spread by exposure to the pool at the private swim club on Saturday, January 31, or Sunday, February 1. The district health department arranged collection of stool specimens from 10 patients for norovirus testing at the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), using reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR).

PART III. ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES AND WATER QUALITY INVESTIGATION
On the afternoon of February 5, VDH environmental health investigators undertook a comprehensive evaluation of the private swim club associated with the gastroenteritis outbreak. Investigators met with the swim club manager, the pool operator, and staff on duty during the outbreak period.
The goal of the evaluation was to gain a thorough understanding of the design features of the swim club and its operations so that investigators could explore the suspected source of the outbreak and assess factors that might have contributed to its occurrence.

VDH environmental health investigators learned the following information about the swim club and its operations. The club actually had two indoor swimming pools: a smaller activity pool and a lap pool. The smaller activity pool had been used for the February 1 birthday party and the infant-mother swimming class. The club also had a hot tub, men’s and women’s locker rooms, a sauna, and a party room where food was served for private events (Figure 2).

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The lap pool, activity pool, and hot tub were situated close to each other (Figure 2). The men’s and women’s locker rooms were adjacent to the pools. Each locker room had a diaper-changing station. Hand-washing signs were posted throughout the club.

The swim club was popular for children’s parties because the activity pool had a slide. Swim classes were also held at the club; classes for children and infants-mothers were held in the activity pool. The club did not have a snack bar. Food for private parties was brought in by event organizers. Pool staff did not help prepare or distribute food for these special events.
Municipal public water was used to fill the pools. The water in the three pools circulated separately for treatment, moving first through a hair and lint strainer (where the larger debris in the water was removed) and then to a pump. From the pump, the water was forced through a rapid sand filter, where it was then disinfected. After disinfection, the water was heated and returned to the pool through a series of inlets in the pool wall.
Water recirculated continuously in all three pools. State law required turnover rates of 6 hours for the lap pool, 2 hours for the activity pool, and 1 hour for the hot tub. Flow meters measured the flow rate for filtration of the water from each pool.
Liquid sodium hypochlorite was used to disinfect the pools at the swim club. An automated disinfectant feeder was attached to the filtration system, helping to mix the disinfectant with the water. A device operating in conjunction with the disinfectant feeder automatically adjusted the pH of filtered and chlorinated water.
Pool operations at the private swim club were performed by lifeguards. However, they received no standardized training or certification in pool maintenance but took instructions from the pool operator who serviced the pool equipment and made decisions regarding water treatment. Staff reported that they tested the water from each pool twice daily; but no records of the results were maintained.

Because no records of water chemistry were maintained at the swim club, aquatic staff were asked to recall water conditions during the weekend and the quantity, time, and type of chemical solutions they had added to each pool. Staff were also asked about any unusual occurrences (e.g., fecal incidents, vomiting, or deviations from normal operating procedures).
On Friday, January 30, no abnormalities in pool water appearance were noted by staff, and testing of water from all three pools was reported as being “normal”. Staff had reported a marked cloudiness of the water in the activity pool on Saturday and that patrons had complained about the cloudiness. No action was taken, despite complaints from patrons concerning water quality, because the pool operator was off-duty.
The cloudiness of the activity pool persisted through Sunday morning, February 1. Chlorine and pH readings taken by staff at that time were “below acceptable standards.” The pool operator was called, and staff were instructed to superchlorinate the pool with several cups of 65% calcium hypochlorite granules.

On Monday morning, the pool operator returned to duty at the swim club and tested a water sample from the activity pool. The sample revealed a total chlorine of 1.5 parts per million (ppm), a free available chlorine of 0.5 ppm, and a pH of 6.8.

Upon his return to the swim club, the pool operator found a kink in the chemical feed pump tube that supplied sodium hypochlorite to the activity pool water. The kink was repaired and the pool was super chlorinated again Monday night (February 2). The pool operator reported that the chlorine and pH were within normal limits when tested Tuesday morning, February 3. These findings were confirmed by VDH investigators.

The swim club did not have standard operating procedures detailing how to respond to abnormal pool chemistries; how to handle water quality complaints; or how to respond to fecal incidents, vomiting, or problems when the pool operator was off-duty. Because aquatic staff turnover at the pool was high, the swim club manager believed that the pool operator should make decisions about pool problems on a case-by-case basis.

PART IV. EPIDEMIOLOGIC STUDY TO TEST THE HYPOTHESIS
After the environmental health assessment of the private swim club, VDH investigators conducted an epidemiologic study to confirm suspicions regarding the source of the outbreak and to identify risk factors for infection.
The swim club manager estimated that 250 persons had visited the club from Friday, January 30−Monday, February 2. Pool attendance records and contact information were available for swim club members. The club manager also provided contact names for group events held at the pool during this time period.
VDH investigators decided to undertake a cohort study because the outbreak was confined to a well-defined group of persons (i.e., those individuals who had visited the pool during January 30–February 2) and the exposure of interest was known. A cohort study also permitted investigators to identify all cases and calculate attack rates.
Investigators planned to contact swim club members who had been at the club during the outbreak period and persons who had attended the special events during that weekend. Each person (or his or her parent) was to be asked about recent gastrointestinal illnesses; onset of symptoms; specific swimming pool exposures; food and water consumption while at the swim club; use of locker rooms, showers, and toilets; and whether they witnessed anyone vomiting or any fecal incidents at the pool. A VDH epidemiologist developed a questionnaire to collect the information.

VDH and district health department staff members were trained to administer the questionnaire by telephone for the cohort study. Interviews were conducted during February 12−22. Information was collected for 189 (74%) of the 255 persons who had visited the swim club during the period of interest.
A case was defined as vomiting or diarrhea (i.e., three or more loose stools within a 24-hour period) in a person who had gone to the swim club during the outbreak period and who experienced symptoms within 72 hours of visiting the facility. Investigators calculated attack rates and relative risks for different exposures at the club and set a P value of 0.05 as the cut-off for statistical significance.
Fifty-two (33%) of the 160 persons who either swam in or accompanied children who swam in the activity pool met the case definition. Only one (4%) of the 28 persons who only used other parts of the facility (e.g., lap pool, hot tub, or locker rooms) met the case definition. Because of these findings, further analyses were restricted to the 157 persons who either swam in or accompanied children who swam in the activity pool and who provided investigators complete information.
Attack rates were 0% (0/21) for persons who used the activity pool on January 30; 57% (25/44) for persons who used the pool on January 31; 29% (22/75) for persons who used the pool on February 1; and 12% (2/17) for persons who used the pool on February 2. Six persons, including three who were ill, had exposures to the pool on multiple days. Attack rates also varied by other exposures in and around the activity pool (Table 2).

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In the cohort study, going into the activity pool at the private swim club was significantly associated with illness. Among persons who went into the activity pool, getting water in the mouth and getting splashed in the face were significantly associated with illness. Neither swimming (versus wading) nor using the slide was associated with illness.

Use of the locker rooms or showers at the swim club was not significantly associated with illness. However, eating and drinking at the swim club were significantly associated with illness.

Eating and drinking at the facility accounted for only 18 (35%) of the 52 cases of gastrointestinal illness. Furthermore, investigators noted that persons who ate and drank at the facility were largely limited to children attending the birthday party on the morning of February 1, when the water in the activity pool was highly suspect in terms of maintenance failures and contamination.

When analyses were stratified by date of exposure to the swim club, persons eating at the facility or drinking at the facility were at no greater risk for illness than other persons attending the club on the same day. In addition, multivariate logistic regression analysis identified the date of attendance at the facility and getting water in the mouth were the only factors significantly associated with illness. Investigators concluded that food and drinks were not independent risk factors for illness.

PART V. CONTROL AND PREVENTION MEASURES
The cohort study confirmed suspicions that the outbreak was spread by exposure to water in the activity pool at the private swim club and likely resulted from a fecal incident in the pool when the chlorinator was not functioning properly.

Five of 10 stool specimens collected from ill persons and submitted to CDC tested positive for norovirus by RT-PCR testing. The nucleotide sequences of the amplified RT-PCR products were identical, indicating a single contamination event at the activity pool.
The chlorinator was fixed and, at the time of the pool evaluation, pool chlorine and pH were consistent with recommended national standards.

VDH investigators believed that a lack of pool staff training, inadequate record-keeping, and lack of standard operating procedures contributed to the outbreak. Consequently, VDH investigators recommended that all pool staff at the club be trained in water testing and basic pool maintenance and that the pool operator remain onsite or be readily available for consultation during weekends, when pool usage was usually highest. Investigators also recommended that the club keep records of routine pool chemistries and pool maintenance.

In addition, investigators recommended that the swim club develop written standard operating procedures and emergency response plans detailing how water-quality complaints should be handled, the correct response, and lines of communication to the pool operator. In particular, VDH investigators recommended the development of a fecal incident response policy.

VDH investigators helped the swim club manager and pool operator develop a written policy for responding to fecal incidents. As part of the policy, staff were to document each fecal incident by recording the date and time of the event, whether it involved a formed or diarrheal stool, and the free chlorine levels and pH at the time the event was detected.

Pool management distributed the fecal incident response policy to all swim club staff and held special classes to review the approach to a fecal incident. New staff members received the policy and viewed a short video about the steps necessary to respond to a fecal incident.
After the investigation, members of the private swim club voiced concern about the adequacy of actions taken to prevent future waterborne outbreaks at the club. The club manager asked VDH staff to meet with interested club members.

EPILOGUE

The number of recreational water-associated outbreaks in the United States has increased substantially since 1978 when CDC first began collecting reports.3 The increase has been caused by outbreaks of gastroenteritis (Figure 3) and likely results from a combination of factors, including the emergence of chlorine-resistant pathogens (e.g., Cryptosporidium), increased participation in aquatic activities by the public, and an increased number and variety of aquatic venues.

Source: CDC Waterborne Disease and Outbreak Surveillance System
During 2005−2006, a total of 78 recreational water-associated outbreaks were reported in the United States, resulting in 4,412 cases of illness. Fifty-eight (74%) of the outbreaks occurred at treated water venues, resulting in 94% of the cases of illness.
As experienced in Vermont, problems contributing to outbreaks associated with treated recreational water in 2005-2006 include low disinfectant levels, inadequate water-quality monitoring, breakdowns of equipment and lengthy detection times, inadequately trained aquatic staff, and unclear chains of communication for resolving problems. Unfortunately, these problems are not limited to facilities associated with waterborne outbreaks. In a study of pool inspections at six sites across the United States, over half of all pools had at least one violation. Water-chemistry violations comprised 38.7% of total violations, followed by violations of the filtration and recirculation system (38.6%), and policy and management violations (22.7%). Approximately 8% of pools were closed immediately because of public health concerns.4

Prevention of outbreaks in treated recreational water venues is likely to be accomplished only through concerted efforts by pool operators, the public, and public health professionals.

• Pool operators should employ multiple mechanisms to prevent contamination of pools and transmission of pathogenic agents, including effective facility design and pool maintenance. Operators should implement diarrhea-exclusion policies and disinfection guidelines after fecal incidents. In addition, staff should be trained to perform pool operations, enforce policies, and educate young bathers and their parents about healthy swimming practices.

• The public should follow basic guidelines for healthy swimming. They should avoid swallowing water and stay out of the pool when they have diarrhea. Because fecal shedding of pathogens is common, bathers should use appropriate hygienic measures around pools (e.g., showering before swimming, taking children on frequent bathroom breaks, and changing diapers in the bathroom instead of at the poolside). Pool policies and design should support these efforts by the public. Increased public awareness of pool safety issues and action can promote better maintenance of pools by operators.

• Public health professionals should lead prevention efforts that include surveillance, health education, epidemiologic and laboratory studies, and environmental health research. Public health professionals should (1) require and improve training for pool inspectors, (2) update pool codes to stay current with changing pool designs and needs, and (3) lead efforts to educate aquatic staff and the public. They should also work with industry representatives in developing easier, more effective methods for treating pool water. In addition, because the majority of gastrointestinal illnesses can be spread by water, food, person-to-person contact, and animal-to-person contact, investigators should keep an open mind when investigating such cases and consider all possible sources of transmission during the investigation of an outbreak.

Improved pool operator and public education combined with more effective methods of water treatment should increase swimming safety and reduce the risk for waterborne diseases associated with recreational water facilities.

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REFERENCES
1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). An outbreak of norovirus gastroenteritis at a swimming club—Vermont, 2004. MMWR Morb Mort Wkly Rep 2004; 53:793−5. Available at http://www.cdc.gov/mmwr/preview/mmwrhtml/mm5334a5.htm. Accessed on September 18, 2010.

2. Podewils LJ, Blevins L, Hagenbuch M, et al. Outbreak of norovirus illness associated with a swimming pool. Epidemiol Infect 2007; 135:827−33.

3. Yoder JS, Hlavsa M, Craun GF, et al. Surveillance for waterborne disease and outbreaks associated with recreational water use and other aquatic facility-associated health events—United States, 2005–2006. MMWR Surveill Sum 2008;57(No. SS-09);1−29. Available at http://www.cdc.gov/mmwr/preview/mmwrhtml/ss5709a1.htm. Accessed on September 18, 2010.

4. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). Surveillance data from swimming pool inspections—selected states and counties, United States, May−September 2002. MMWR Morb Mort Wkly Rep 2003; 52:513−16. Available at http://www.cdc.gov/mmwr/preview/mmwrhtml/mm5222a1.htm. Accessed on September 18, 2010.
1. Describe the event.
2. Which individuals experienced the event?
3. When did they experience the event?
4. Where are the individuals who have experienced the event?
5. What environmental factors are associated with the event?
6. Given the differences in resources, how well were available resources used?
7. Evaluate the process; describe how you would have done things differently given the location, resources, and particular event.
8. Going forward, what screening mechanisms should be put in place to detect these conditions early?

Question 3: English

Instruction
To begin this assignment, you will examine the case study, “Missed Pickup Means a Missed Opportunity for 30 Seeking a Fellowship,” provided in this week’s resources. Then, to complete this Assignment, review the Learning Resources below, and respond to the following bullets in a 3- to 5-page paper, which will include 2 Appendices. Begin your paper with an introduction and then provide a summary of the case study (Missed Pickup). Prepare a needs assessment to analyze both employees’ skill levels identified in the scenario. Based on the needs assessment, prepare an analysis of what should have happened, and what actually did happen, in the scenario. Based on the needs assessment, evaluate the appropriateness among possible choices of action (strategies), including discipline, development, improvement, or termination for the two employees. As a Human Resources professional, create a performance improvement plan for each employee that outlines the following: Expected behaviors; Metrics for improvement; Required action steps; Consequences for not meeting the plan’s expected outcomes; Their manager’s role. Prepare instructions for the manager on how to conduct a meeting with each employee about improvements and consequences. Your Assignment must include 3–5 references to support your thinking. USE THE TEMPLATE BELOW, MUST USE SUPPORTING EVIDENCE, USE RESOURCES BELOW https://www.shrm.org/ResourcesAndTools/hr-topics/employee-relations/Pages/performance-improvement-plans.aspx https://www.thebalancecareers.com/performance-improvement-plan-contents-and-sample-form-1918850

U.S.
Missed Pickup Means a Missed
Opportunity for 30 Seeking a Fellowship
By DEAN E. MURPHY FEB. 5, 2004
A missed courier pickup, an honest clerk and an unyielding federal bureaucracy have conspired to deny 30 college students here the chance to compete for a prestigious Fulbright research grant.
”It seems surreal to me,” said Mary Ann Mason, dean of the graduate division at the University of California, Berkeley. ”It is an unnecessary, foolish, tragic incident.”
The students, all enrolled in doctoral studies, got the news on Tuesday night from the university’s chancellor, Robert M. Berdahl, that their applications were disqualified because they were late. Dr. Berdahl had earlier flown to Washington in a failed bid to persuade education officials in the Bush administration to change their minds.
”For these students to lose out on the opportunity to compete for the Fulbright award in this way is outrageous,” Dr. Berdahl said. ”No one could have imagined the Department of Education could have reacted the way it did.”
The department, which administers the Fulbright-Hays Doctoral Dissertation Research Abroad Fellowship Program, rejected the applications because they were not mailed by the Oct. 20 deadline, according to a letter to Dr. Berdahl from Sally L.
Stroup, an assistant secretary of education.
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On that day, the applications were in an envelope at the university’s Sproul Hall for pickup by Federal Express. But the courier did not come until the next morning because of a ”software glitch,” said Sandra Munoz, a FedEx spokeswoman.
The company provided the university with two letters acknowledging the mix-up and accepting blame for the late delivery. It also backdated the shipment’s air bill to reflect the intended Oct. 20 pickup date.
”We realize how serious this is, and the inconvenience we are causing everyone,” Ms. Munoz said. ”We certainly apologize.”
Late in the day on Oct. 20, an employee with the university’s graduate division sent an explanation by e-mail to the Education Department, which told the university to send the applications with the explanation from FedEx, university officials said.
For months, the university officials assumed the problem had been worked out. But the e-mail exchange, Dr. Mason said, came back to haunt them. It was cited last month by lawyers for the department as grounds for rejecting the applications, she said. Since the air bill had been backdated, the correspondence was apparently the only evidence that the applications had not been sent on time.
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”The final terrible remark of the lawyers was, ‘If you hadn’t e-mailed Washington, we would have let it go because we wouldn’t have known there was a problem,’ ” Dr. Mason said.
The implicit message, she said, was, ”Honesty is not the best policy.”
A spokeswoman for the Department of Education did not respond to several telephone messages seeking comment. In a statement released Wednesday, Assistant Secretary Stroup defended the decision.
”Although we are very sorry for UC Berkeley’s graduate students who had hopes of Fulbright-Hays doctoral fellowships, the facts are indisputable: UC Berkeley was negligent in failing to mail its application on time, despite the fact that for years the
university has applied for this program each fall,” she said.
”When it became apparent that Federal Express would not arrive in time, a simple trip to the post office would have ensured that the university’s application met the deadline,” she said. ”Sixty other institutions met the application deadline.”
Last year, 15 of the 30 applicants from Berkeley were awarded Fulbright fellowships, ranging from $20,000 to $64,000.
In retrospect, the officials said, it would have been prudent to take the package to a nearby FedEx office or the post office, but no one had envisioned a delivery error would have such consequences. Now, officials are looking to FedEx to bring about some sort of happy ending.
Dr. Mason said lawyers for the university were ”talking with FedEx about sharing some responsibility.” She said one idea was that FedEx would provide some doctoral research grant money.
Ms. Munoz said FedEx was eager to resolve the situation.
”Obviously,” she said, ”our goal is always 100 percent customer satisfaction.”
Jason Seawright, one of the applicants, said that while he would appreciate any help, it would be hard for any other grant to match the résumé-building force of a Fulbright.
”In addition to the money, this is something that opens doors in your career,” he said. ”Right, I’ll put that on my résumé: the FedEx fellowship.”
© 2016 The New York Times Company

Title of Your Paper, Centered, and Using Both Upper and Lowercase Letters
Your Name Here
Walden University

Instructor’s Name
Course Title and Number
Date:

Center the Title of Your Paper Here
Please regard this APA document as providing a template for most of your written paper assignments. If you read this essay carefully and print a copy for your use, it will be a great help as you create your assignments. We ask you to write most of your written paper assignments in with opening and closing paragraphs, a clear purpose that is accomplished in the course of the essay, and logically organized paragraphs that develop your ideas. Please notice what this introductory paragraph accomplishes. As you construct your introductory paragraph, remember to engage the reader and to express the purpose you hope to fulfill in the paper. In addition, the introduction may offer a roadmap or a plan for the paper as a whole.
This template generally follows APA formatting, but there are exceptions. A number of features appropriate for a long manuscript or for a dissertation are not necessary for relatively brief assignments. For example, you do not need an abstract for every assignment.
Throughout your paper, consider the way a paragraph looks on the page. The indentation and length of a paragraph convey a message to the reader, suggesting a brief or extensively developed unity of an idea. Two naturally emphatic places in any paragraph are the opening sentence and the closing sentence. Take advantage of these positions in a paragraph; use them for emphasis and for guiding your reader.
The opening sentence of any paragraph provides a natural opportunity to direct the reader from one idea to another. The sentence may function as a combination topic and transition device, suggesting to the reader where this particular section is headed. You may also use single words or phrases to connect your ideas to one another. Think of transitional expressions such as the following as glue or signposts: also, in addition, moreover, therefore, similarly, in contrast, although, or however. (You will find many more transitional expressions and the punctuation they require in any grammar book or on the Walden Writing Center website). It is your responsibility to demonstrate for the reader the relationship between one idea and another so that the reader never has to guess at the logical organization of your ideas.
Another way that you might wish to indicate organization to your reader is the use of headings. However, in your written paper assignments, no headings are required. If your paper exceeds five pages, or if you think that headings will help to convey the organization and clarity of a particularly complex paper, consult the Walden Writing Center for the correct formatting of the various levels of headings. Remember that headings alone will not accomplish what your writing should accomplish. In other words, your heading may announce “Conclusion,” but if a number of paragraphs introducing new ideas follow that heading, it is rather like a false advertisement and will confuse the reader.
Because this is a graduate program, your writing is expected to reflect Standard Edited English. That is, it is to be grammatically correct, formal, written English intended for silent reading. We do not usually speak in (or listen to) Standard Edited English; in our oral dialect, we naturally use contractions, slang, repetition, and all kinds of interpersonal oral signals to one another. In a rather formal writing context, however, none of those elements of speech are particularly useful or appropriate. In particular, APA style does not allow for the use of contractions (e.g., write it is instead of it’s) or informal slang (e.g., use learners or students instead of kids). Admittedly, the writing that you are submitting for a grade in your master’s courses is more formal than that to which you may be accustomed. Take the time to read your writing aloud; to consult a grammar source regarding some stylistic elements you might have forgotten over the years; to avoid contractions and the use of underlining; and to be sure that your sentences are clear to your reader. Write in your authentic voice but in your most intelligent and interesting voice as well. Imagine what questions your reader might ask you, and then provide your reader with well-developed, detailed, specific ideas rather than vague generalizations.
One essential way to develop your ideas is to ground them in the course materials you have been reading or in additional sources that you discover in the course of your studies. When you refer to the author of a required reading or to a statement by an expert on a video, you are offering a context for your idea that stems from the published research by experts in your field. Conversely, if your thinking remains vague and general and you do not ground your ideas in published references, your ideas are likely to be underdeveloped. Let your readers know that you have read (or viewed) and learned from the writings of education experts by either paraphrasing their ideas or quoting their language and following either the quote or a paraphrase with an in-text citation. For example, if you wanted to quote an extensive passage from Gardner’s The Unschooled Mind, the block quotation format as outlined would be:
We are able to know the world through language, logical-mathematical analysis, special representation, musical thinking, the use of the body to solve problems or to make things, an understanding of other individuals, and an understanding of ourselves. Where individuals differ is in the strength of these intelligences—the so-called profile of intelligences—and in the ways in which such intelligences are invoked and combined to carry out different tasks, solve diverse problems, and progress in various domains. (Gardner, 2004, p. 12)
Note that the block quotation as shown above is double-spaced. When you end your quotation, make sure the next paragraph transitions from that information so your reader can follow you. You might additionally want to include other theorists’ ideas to substantiate the above information. You can insert shorter quotations (fewer than 40 words) by using the format in the following sentence: Knowles (1998), an authority on adult learning theory, most likely described (use past tense for reporting research) adults as “motivated to learn to the extent that they perceive that learning will help them perform tasks or deal with problems that they confront in their life situations” (p. 67). The reader may be so intrigued with this allusion to Knowles’s idea that he or she may wish to follow up by consulting the same reference.
Note that if you are citing information from Laureate multimedia files, you will cite as (Laureate Education, 2016). The year may change depending on the multimedia file. The complete bibliographic information for the cited reference is available in the reference list for your reader to further investigate if he or she chooses. Full guidelines for citing Laureate multimedia files in current APA format appear on the Writing Center website at http://writingcenter.waldenu.edu/624.htm. It is important to know that APA formatting does not support quoting directly from multimedia files. If you use any multimedia as support for your thinking, you must paraphrase and include the cited reference.
A third option open to you is to cite a fellow student’s discussion posting or other shared course work in your assignments to substantiate your own perspective. Citing other students is a way to use all resources available to you, and it demonstrates your willingness to give credit to your online colleagues. For example, in a critical analysis of a source, you might remark that a fellow student named Alex Jones identified an author’s study as “interesting but lacking in practical application to the classroom” (Jones, 2012) to indicate how your views harmonized with those of other classmates. Information on how to cite discussion posts and other more unique references in APA are found at the Writing Center’s citations web page.
Now, glance back over this essay to note that it is a well-developed piece of writing and not merely a five-paragraph, perfunctory essay. Notice the transitional expressions that allow your mind to move smoothly from one idea to the next. Not all paragraphs are the same length, suggesting that the author is able to develop ideas in various ways. Try to determine what single topic unifies each paragraph. Ask yourself, “What question does this paragraph attempt to answer?” All sentences do not look or sound alike either: Some are brief and direct, while others are more complex and flowing. With practice and a bit of extra time, you can create an assignment that not only looks professional but also conveys your ideas powerfully and earns you the grade you seek.
Some program tools can assist you in creating documents with a professional appearance. The MS Word Troubleshooting site can be a helpful resource. If you have Office 365, go to Tools and then Spelling and Grammar down at the bottom of the box. Alternatively, you may use another resource to check your documents by going to Review and then select Spelling and Grammar. When a green squiggle line (indicating potential grammatical error) or a red squiggle line (indicating potential spelling error) appears, right click on the line and you will get a message about the possible error. However, remember that this is just a computer program and therefore not as wise as the judgment of the author who has consulted a grammar or usage dictionary. You might also consider using Grammar, a more comprehensive, free grammar revision tool available through the Walden Writing Center website.
Finally, just before submitting your work to your faculty member, ask yourself, “Have I fully addressed the complete assignment?” Then in your concluding paragraph, end your essay, rather like the last gesture of tying the ribbon on a present. Some writers close an essay with a concise summary of key ideas because there is no need for unnecessary repetition in a brief essay as in the following sentence. In this essay, we have identified, modeled, and directed you to the key requirements. Others like to offer an idea that takes the reader beyond the implications of this particular treatment of the topic. However, you choose to close your essay, do close the door firmly, thereby giving the reader a satisfying sense of completion.
References
Note: For additional information regarding APA formatting, consult

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http://writingcenter.waldenu.edu/624.htm.

Fisher, D. (2004). Setting the “opportunity to read” standard: Resuscitating the SSR program in an urban high school. Journal of Adolescent and Adult Literacy, 48, 138-150. doi:10.1598/JAAL.48.2.5 When a DOI is available for documents you retrieve from a library database, such as EBSCOHost or ProQuest, use the DOI. Often, the DOI is printed directly on the first page of the article. Never use the URL from the library database because it is a password-protected site.
Frey, N., & Allen, A. (2008). Retelling informational text to improve reports of information. The California Reader, 41(2), 12-15. Retrieved from http://www.californiareads.org/california_reader.htm When no DOI is available, use the home page of the journal and “retrieved from” even though you obtained the article from a database (e.g., ProQuest) or other electronic source. You may need to use a search engine (e.g., Google or Yahoo) to find the homepage. If you used a copy on paper, there is no need to include a DOI or journal homepage.
Gardner, H. (1999). Intelligence reframed: Multiple intelligences for the 21st century. New York, NY: Basic Books.
Gardner, H. (2004). The unschooled mind: How children think and how schools should teach. New York, NY: Basic Books.
Knowles, M. (1998). The adult learner. Woburn, MA: Butterworth-Heinemann.
Swan, D. (2006, September 22). Learning styles. Message posted to EDUC 6610 discussion board, Week 3.

Appendix: Guidelines for Formatting Multimedia Files

Note: Walden’s guidelines for citing multimedia files can be found here:
http://writingcenter.waldenu.edu/624.htm.

Across the courses, the in-text citation is (Laureate Education, date)
Note: The publishing date for multimedia files are found in the Course Syllabus under Course Materials. This is the date you will use in the in-text citation and in the reference entry.

1. If you are using the Multimedia file, the correct formatting is:
Laureate Education. (Producer). (2015). Voices from the field: The 21st century
[Multimedia file]. Baltimore, MD: Author

Note: Use the actual word Author; do not substitute the author’s name. Also, the title of the program is in italics.
2. How do you tell if the multimedia file is in a series or a single source?
Multimedia files that are part of a series will usually be listed as Part 1, Part 2, or Program 1, Program 2, etc. Some multimedia files are clearly labeled as being excerpts from a series.
3. If you are viewing the multimedia files in the Resource section of 6610, the correct reference entry is:
Laureate Education. (Producer). (year). Name of program [Multimedia file]. Baltimore, MD Author.
Note: Use the actual word Author; do not substitute the author’s name. Also, the title of the program is in italics.

Note: Use the above for stand-alone multimedia that are (a), not part of a series and (b), are viewed via a media. The title of the multimedia file is in italics. In the case of a multimedia file that is part of a series, the individual program is not in italics, but the series title is italicized instead.

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Question 4: Business

conduct an Internet search on the following topics: “History of Hospitals” “Hospitals of the Early Christian Era” “Hospitals in the Renaissance” “Medieval Hospitals” “Health Care and Hospitals in the Twenty-first Century” Utilizing the above information, develop an outline that identify the key turning points in the historical development of the hospital concept, including the evolution of ethical and legal issues related to health care. The outline should be in the form of bulleted information – sentences or paragraphs are not needed. Then, consider and briefly explain the following in preparation of your outline: How the development of the hospital has been a difficult process, legally and ethically. How time and public enlightenment were necessary to overcome major barriers of ignorance and prejudice. Support your outline with a minimum of three scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-pages, not including title and reference pages

Question 5: Health Care

Write 12 pages, APA format and include a cover page, reference page, and any applicable tables or appendices. Research proposal should have a nursing theoretical foundation

Your research proposal must include the following sections: Background and rationale for the study Review of the relevant literature Design and methodology You must include the following components: Section One: Introduction The research proposal should: Start with a statement of the problem and objective for the study, which articulates the main objectives that the study desires to achieve. Include a description of the theoretical framework to be utilized and a rationale for choosing a framework. Describe the significance and relevance of the problem. Why is this particular study needed? How will findings contribute to the field of advanced practice nursing? Why is this research needed? Section Two: Literature Review The literature review should: Be a synthesis of the major concepts from recently published research findings. Be organized by themes and not just a report about what each author discovered in his or her research findings. Identify no fewer than six relevant research articles. Synthesize the literature in relation to where the study fits within the context of the proposed study. Section Three: Design and Methodology In this section, what is to be done, and who, what, how, and where are all to be included in your proposal. The methods should be relevant to the question that is to be answered as a result of the research study. There should be information included about the study design, the setting and sample, data collection methods, and data collection analysis procedures. Ethical considerations should also be addressed in this area. Limitations and a plan for communicating the research findings should also be included in this section. All critical elements of design and methods should be detailed, including: Definitions of the variables Identification of the population and sample Procedures for sampling Processes for obtaining consent to do the study Informed consent form to be given to research participants Data collection procedures A clearly stated method of data analysis An explanation on why your data analysis method is appropriate for your research Issues related to validity and reliability Ethical considerations (including plans for the protection of human subjects as appropriate)

Question 6: English

Write a 3-4 page extra credit essay of how digital media has affected individual and cultural understanding of and relationship to food.

Digital Project: Food Culture
For this optional, extra credit assignment, you will be tasked with researching food and food culture via various digital channels and using your findings to carve out your own role in the world of digital food culture. The purpose of this assignment is for you to explore how digital media has affected individual and cultural understanding of and relationship to food.
The assignment will be in 3 parts, each of which has its own point value (listed below).
Part 1: For the first part of this assignment, you will do what I like to call “light research” (i.e., informal, without need for MLA formatted citations) on food culture in digital media. In your research, you will spend some time looking through at least three of the following channels: food magazines (online), food blogs (websites), food “influencers” (Instagram, YouTube, etc.), and food television (Netflix, cable, etc.). Make a list of the shows, influencers, magazines, and/or blogs you come across, highlighting specific details about each. Consider making a list/chart/etc. to outline these similarities/differences you see.
Part 2: After you do your research, you will construct an explanation of your findings that is 1-2 pages in length (roughly 300-500 words). This will be a coherent response that utilizes complete sentences and appropriate academic language. Your response will detail what research you did and, more specifically, what factors stood out in your research. Such factors include but are not limited to: the similarities/differences in presentation, major themes, significant flaws, etc. You will, essentially, explain and expand upon the notes you took throughout the research portion (Part 1). Don’t forget to draw conclusions about what this all means!
Part 3: Finally, after you’ve (1) done your research and (2) drawn up conclusions about your research, you will (3) consider what role you play in all of this. In a short response of 100-150 words (a few sentences), you will identify the role you play in the realm of digital food culture. Are you a creator, viewer, or something else? Why/how? To what extent? Identify and explain why and how you play the role you do, and any other relevant details about your engagement with digital food culture.
Again, this is an optional, extra credit assignment. Adhere to the rules above, but have fun with it! Find below the point values for each portion of the assignment:
1. Part 1: 20 points possible
2. Part 2: 25 points possible
3. Part 3: 5 points possible
4. Total: 50 points possible
Question 7: Mathematics

Sample Final Exam 1 Part A
James is taking a computer science course. The mark breakdown is as follows:
• Midterm Exam 1 – 20% • Midterm Exam 2 – 30% • Final Exam – 50%
All exams are out of 100 marks. James received scores of 70 on Midterm Exam 1 and 60 on Midterm Exam 2. To receive a final grade of B+ in the course, a student requires a final grade of 75% or higher. What is the minimum score James must get on the final exam in order to receive a final grade of B+?
(A) 78 (B) 83 (C) 86 (D) 90 (E) 95
A researcher is studying how the height of children during early adolescence is affected by milk consumption. She plots the heights (in inches) and the milk consumption (in cups per day) for a sample of children and wants to fit a least squares regression line to the data. She calculates the following for this sample of children:
• The correlation between milk consumption and height is 0.4.
• The mean milk consumption is 4.0 cups per day.
• The mean height is 60.0 inches.
• The standard deviation of milk consumption is 1.5 cups per day. • The standard deviation of heights is 3.0 inches.
What is the predicted height of a child who consumes 5 cups of milk per day?
(A) 60.4 inches (B) 60.8 inches (C) 61.2 inches (D) 61.6 inches (E) 62.0 inches
3. A biologist is studying the mercury levels in fish from three different lakes in the area. She selects random samples of ten fish from each lake. The sample of 30 fish is a:
(A) stratified sample.
(B) simple random sample. (C) convenience sample. (D) multistage sample.
(E) systematic sample.
4. The head of the Department of Mathematics would like to determine whether student performance in an introductory math course differs depending on the professor of the course and the time of day the course is offered. Two math professors, Dr. Smith and Dr. Johnson, are each teaching two sections of the same introductory math course this semester. Dr. Smith teaches sections A01 (at 9:30 a.m.) and A03 (at 1:30 p.m.) and Dr. Johnson teaches sections A02 (at 9:30 a.m.) and A04 (at 1:30 p.m.). At the end of the semester, the department head will compare the average grades of the students in the four sections.
This is an example of:
(A) a completely randomized design with four treatments.
(B) a randomized block design with two blocks and two treatments. (C) a randomized block design with four blocks and four treatments. (D) a matched pairs design with two treatments.
(E) an observational study.
2

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The next two questions (5 and 6) refer to the following:
The following five games are scheduled to be played at the World Curling Championships one morning. The values in parentheses are the probabilities of each team winning their respective game.
Game 1: Game 2: Game 3: Game 4: Game 5:
Finland (0.43) USA (0.28) Japan (0.11) Denmark (0.33) France (0.18)
vs. Germany (0.57) vs. Switzerland (0.72) vs. Canada (0.89)
vs. Sweden (0.67)
vs. Scotland (0.82)
The outcome of interest is the set of winners for each of the five games. How many outcomes are contained in the appropriate sample space?
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 25 (D) 32 (E) 64
In a sports game, the “favourite” is the team with the higher probability of winning and the “underdog” is the team that is less likely to win. What is the probability that at least one underdog wins their game?
(A) 0.93 (B) 0.74 (C) 0.80 (D) 0.67 (E) 0.59
The next five questions (7 to 11) refer to the following:
Suppose we have the following facts about customers buying alcohol at the Liquor Mart:
• 55% buy wine (W).
• 40% buy beer (B).
• 22% buy wine and beer.
• 6% buy wine and vodka (V ).
• 5% buy beer and vodka.
• 50% buy beer or vodka.
• 2% buy wine and beer and vodka.
7. If we randomly select a customer, what is the probability the customer buys vodka? (A) 0.10 (B) 0.15 (C) 0.19 (D) 0.25 (E) 0.28
3
8. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Events W and B are independent.
(B) Events W and B are mutually exclusive. (C) Events W and V are independent.
(D) Events W and V are mutually exclusive. (E) Events B and V are independent.
If we randomly select a customer, what is the probability the customer buys only wine? (A) 0.14 (B) 0.17 (C) 0.25 (D) 0.29 (E) 0.34
In a random sample of 17 customers, what is the probability that exactly 10 of them buy wine?
(A) 0.1153 (B) 0.1367 (C) 0.1495 (D) 0.1629 (E) 0.1841
In a random sample of 300 customers, what is the approximate probability that less than 38% of them buy beer?
(A) 0.0808 (B) 0.1492 (C) 0.1736 (D) 0.2389 (E) 0.2929
In a particular election, 40% of voters voted for the NDP, 35% voted for the Liberals and 25% voted for the Conservatives. If we take a random sample of two voters, what is the probability that they voted for different parties?
(A) 0.765 (B) 0.345 (C) 0.525 (D) 0.655 (E) 0.485
There are four patients on the neonatal ward of a local hospital who are monitored by two nurses. Suppose the probability (at any one time) of a patient requiring attention by a nurse is 0.3. Assuming the patients behave independently, what is the probability at any one time that there will not be enough nurses to attend to all patients who need them? (i.e., what is the probability that at least three patients require attention at the same time?)
(A) 0.0756 (B) 0.1104 (C) 0.0837 (D) 0.0463 (E) 0.2646
4
14. The yearly rainfall in Vancouver, B.C. follows a normal distribution with standard
deviation 172 mm. In 20% of years, the city gets over 1200 mm of rain. What is the mean annual rainfall in Vancouver (in mm)?
(A) 1055.5 (B) 1165.6 (C) 982.6 (D) 1344.5 (E) 1234.4 The next two questions (15 and 16) refer to the following:
The time X taken by a cashier in a grocery store express lane to complete a transaction follows a normal distribution with mean 90 seconds and standard deviation 20 seconds.
What is the first quartile of the distribution of X (in seconds)?
(A) 73.8 (B) 85.0 (C) 69.4 (D) 81.2 (E) 76.6
What is the probability that the average service time for the next three customers is between 80 and 100 seconds?
(A) 0.6156
(B) 0.4893
(C) 0.7212
(D) 0.5559
(E) impossible to calculate with the information given
5
The next two questions (17 and 18) refer to the following:
The amount X spent (in $) by customers in the grocery store express lane follows some
right-skewed distribution with mean $24 and standard deviation $15.
17. What is the probability that the average amount spent by the next three customers is more than $20?
(A) 0.4619
(B) 0.6772
(C) 0.8186
(D) 0.7673
(E) impossible to calculate with the information given
What is the approximate probability that the next 40 customers spend less than $1,000 in total?
(A) 0.5199 (B) 0.6064 (C) 0.6628 (D) 0.5784 (E) 0.6331
An economist calculates that, in order to estimate the true mean amount spent per year by Canadians on Christmas presents to within $60 with 95% confidence, she requires a sample of 90 Canadians. What sample size would be required to estimate the true mean amount spent per year by Canadians on Christmas presents to within $20 with 95% confidence?
(A) 10 (B) 30 (C) 156 (D) 270 (E) 810
The breaking strength of yarn used in the production of woven carpet material is normally distributed with standard deviation 2.4 psi. A random sample of 4 specimens of yarn from a production run is measured for breaking strength, and a confidence interval for μ is calculated to be (128.609, 134.191). What is the confidence level for this interval?
(A) 0.90 (B) 0.95 (C) 0.96 (D) 0.98 (E) 0.99
6
21. A variable X is described by a semi-circular density curve with mean 0 and standard deviation 0.4, as shown below:
We take a simple random sample of 100 individuals from the semi-circular distribution and calculate the sample mean x ̄. The sampling distribution of X ̄ is:
(A) approximately normal with mean 0 and standard deviation 0.004. (B) semi-circular with mean 0 and standard deviation 0.04.
(C) approximately normal with mean 0 and standard deviation 0.4. (D) semi-circular with mean 0 and standard deviation 0.004.
(E) approximately normal with mean 0 and standard deviation 0.04.
22. We would like to conduct a hypothesis test to examine whether there is evidence that the true mean amount spent on textbooks by U of M students in one semester is greater than $400. A random sample of 50 students is selected and the mean amount spent on textbooks for one semester is calculated to be $430. Assume the population standard deviation is known to be $165. What is the P-value for the appropriate hypothesis test?
(A) 0.0985 (B) 0.0409 (C) 0.0764 (D) 0.1112 (E) 0.0630
7
23. A man accused of committing a crime is taking a polygraph (lie detector) test. The polygraph is essentially testing the hypotheses
H0: The man is telling the truth. vs. Ha: The man is lying.
Suppose we use a 5% level of significance. Based on the man’s responses to the questions
asked, the polygraph determines a P-value of 0.08. We conclude that:
(A) there is insufficient evidence that the man is telling the truth. (B) there is sufficient evidence that the man is telling the truth. (C) there is insufficient evidence that the man is lying.
(D) the probability that the man is lying is 0.08.
(E) the probability that the man is telling the truth is 0.08.
A statistician conducted a test of H0: μ = 10 vs. Ha: μ > 10 for the mean μ of some normally distributed variable X. Based on the gathered data, the statistician calculated a sample mean of x ̄ = 12 and concluded that H0 could be rejected at the 5% level of significance. Using the same data, which of the following statements must be true?
AtestofH0: μ=10vs. Ha: μ>10atthe1%levelofsignificancewouldalso lead to rejecting H0.
AtestofH0: μ=9vs. Ha: μ>9atthe5%levelofsignificancewouldalso lead to rejecting H0.
AtestofH0: μ=10vs. Ha: μ̸=10atthe5%levelofsignificancewouldalso lead to rejecting H0.
(A) I only (B) II only (C) III only (D) I and II (E) II and III
A sample of 30 vehicles is outfitted with snow tires. The vehicles travel 80 km/h in winter driving conditions and apply the brakes. The sample mean and standard deviation of stopping distances for these 30 vehicles are calculated to be 162 metres and 35 metres, respectively. We would like to test whether the true mean stopping distance differs from 150 metres. At the 1% level of significance, we should:
(A) reject H0, since the P-value is between 0.02 and 0.025.
(B) fail to reject H0, since the P-value is between 0.025 and 0.05. (C) reject H0, since the P-value is between 0.025 and 0.05.
(D) fail to reject H0, since the P-value is between 0.05 and 0.10. (E) reject H0, since the P-value is between 0.05 and 0.10.
8
The next two questions (26 and 27) refer to the following:
Researchers are studying the impact of alcohol consumption on a person’s ability to perform a simple task. Five subjects complete a small puzzle while sober, and then again after drinking three glasses of wine. The times (in seconds) are shown below, as well as some summary statistics:
Subject Sober (S) After Wine (AW)
1
2
3
4
5 mean 169.2 198.6
std. dev. 55.9 72.5
109 132 248 155 202 141 128 290 174 260
Diff.(d=S−AW) −32 4 −42 −19 −58 −29.4 23.5
Assume that all necessary normality conditions are satisfied. We would like to conduct a hypothesis test to determine whether there is evidence that the true mean time to complete a puzzle is longer after consuming three glasses of wine.
26. What are the hypotheses for the appropriate test of significance?
(A) H0: μd =0vs.Ha: μd <0
(B) H0: μS =μAW vs.Ha: μS >μAW (C) H0: X ̄d =0vs.Ha: X ̄d <0
(D) H0: μd =0vs.Ha: μd >0
(E) H0: X ̄S = X ̄AW vs. Ha: X ̄S < X ̄AW
27. The P-value of the appropriate test of significance is:
(A) between 0.01 and 0.02. (B) between 0.02 and 0.025. (C) between 0.025 and 0.05. (D) between 0.05 and 0.10. (E) between 0.10 and 0.15.
28. You want to estimate the proportion of Canadians who would support a merger of the federal NDP and Liberal parties to within 0.035 with 92% confidence. What sample size is required?
(A) 625 (B) 784 (C) 466 (D) 816 (E) 553
9
We would like to estimate the true proportion p of Manitobans who are bilingual (fluent in two languages). We take a random sample of 200 Manitobans and find that 42 of them are bilingual. What is the margin of error for a 95% confidence interval for p?
(A) 0.0565 (B) 0.0353 (C) 0.0693 (D) 0.0288 (E) 0.0404
The Acme Car Company claims that less than 8% of its new cars have a manufacturing defect. A quality control inspector randomly selects 300 new cars and finds that 15 have a defect. He conducts a hypothesis test to examine the significance of the car company’s claim. What is the P-value of the appropriate hypothesis test?
(A) 0.0359 (B) 0.0485 (C) 0.0162 (D) 0.0571 (E) 0.0274
10
Sample Final Exam 1 Part B
The shower flow rates (in L/min) for a sample of 30 houses are ordered and shown below:
2.2 2.8 3.8 4.2 4.6 5.0 5.7 6.0 6.2 6.2 6.5 6.5 6.7 6.8 7.0 7.2 7.3 7.4 7.4 7.6 7.7 7.9 8.0 8.1 8.5 8.6 8.7 8.8 8.8 11.4
(a) Find the five-number summary for this data set.
(b) Construct an outlier boxplot for this data set. Show any necessary calculations. What is the shape of the distribution, excluding outliers?
We would like to examine how the age X of a certain model of car affects its selling price Y . The age (in years) and price (in $) for a sample of 10 cars of the same make and model are recorded from the classified ads in the newspaper one weekend. The least squares regression line is calculated to be yˆ = 18, 600 − 1, 700x. It is also determined that 81% of the variation in a car’s price can be accounted for by its regression on age.
(a) Provide an interpretation of the slope of the least squares regression line in this example.
(b) What is the value of the correlation between age and price for these cars?
(c) One car in the sample is 5 years old and has a price of $15,500. Calculate the value of the residual for this car.
Three hats each contain ten coins. Hat 1 contains two gold coins, five silver coins and three copper coins. Hat 2 contains four gold coins and six silver coins. Hat 3 contains three gold coins and seven copper coins. We randomly select one coin from each hat.
(a) The outcome of interest is the colour of each of the three selected coins. List the complete sample space of outcomes and calculate the probability of each.
(b) Let X be the number of gold coins selected. Find the probability distribution of X.
State the Central Limit Theorem.
We take a random sample of 27 trees in a large forest and measure their heights. The sample mean is calculated to be 28.4 feet and the sample standard deviation is calculated to be 5.3 feet. Heights of trees in the forest are known to follow a normal distribution.
(a) Construct a 98% confidence interval for the true mean height of all trees in the forest.
(b) Provide an interpretation of the confidence interval in (a).
(c) Conduct a hypothesis test at the 2% level of significance to determine if there is evidence that the true mean height of all trees in the forest is less than 30 feet. Show all of your steps, including the hypotheses, test statistic, P-value and a properly- worded conclusion.
(d) Provide an interpretation of the P-value of the test in (c).
(e) Could the confidence interval in (a) have been used to conduct the test in (c)? Why or why not? If it could have been used, explain what the conclusion would be, and why.
12
Sample Final Exam 2 Part A
1. The receipt totals (rounded to the nearest dollar) for a sample of 25 customers in the express lane at a supermarket are ordered and shown below:
5 8 9 13 16 18 19 19 21 23 24 26 30 34 35 37 42 45 48 50 56 56 62 64 73
What is the interquartile range for this data set?
(A) 29 (B) 29.5 (C) 30.5 (D) 31 (E) 32
2. The table below displays the number of pass completions X and the number of passing yards Y for six Winnipeg Blue Bomber quarterbacks during the 2015 football season:
Quarterback 1 2 3 4 5 6
Completions 107 34 16 51 149 1 Passing Yards 1434 346 169 453 1757 6
The least squares regression line is calculated to be yˆ = −53.51 + 12.53x. What is the value of the residual for Quarterback 5 (Matt Nichols)?
(A) −109.97 (B) −56.46 (C) −14.46 (D) 14.46 (E) 56.46
A farmer grows pumpkins, whose weights follow a normal distribution with mean 18 pounds and standard deviation 3 pounds. A supermarket will only buy those pumpkins that weigh between 15 and 25 pounds. What proportion of the farmer’s pumpkins will the supermarket buy?
(A) 0.7850 (B) 0.8314 (C) 0.8876 (D) 0.9772 (E) 0.9996
The yearly rainfall in Regina, Saskatchewan follows a normal distribution with mean 384 mm and standard deviation σ. In 10% of years, the city gets less than 320 mm of rain. What is the standard deviation of the amount of annual rainfall in Regina?
(A) 40mm (B) 50mm (C) 60mm (D) 70mm (E) 80mm
From past records, the professor of a large university course has established the following distribution of grades received by students in the course (with some values missing):
Grade A+ A B+ B C+ C D F Probability 0.08 0.17??? 0.13??? 0.22 0.09 0.07
A student requires a grade of C or better to pass the course. What is the probability that a randomly selected student passes the course?
(A) 0.76
(B) 0.62
(C) 0.84
(D) impossible to calculate without at least one of the missing probabilities (E) impossible to calculate without both of the missing probabilities
Over the last year, suppose it is known that 32% of Winnipeggers have been to a Jets hockey game, 25% of Winnipeggers have been to a Blue Bombers football game, and 63% of Winnipeggers have been to neither a Jets game nor a Bombers game. What is the probability that a randomly selected Winnipegger has been to both a Jets game and a Bombers game over the last year?
(A) 0.08 (B) 0.12 (C) 0.15 (D) 0.18 (E) 0.20
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7. A recently married couple plans to have two children. The outcome of interest is the gender of each of the two children. Consider the event that exactly one of the couple’s children will be a boy. Which of the following is the complement of this event?
(A) two boys
(B) two girls
(C) one girl
(D) at least one girl (E) zero or two girls
The next three questions (8 to 10) refer to the following:
We have a small deck of ten cards. Five of the cards are red, three are blue and two are green. We randomly select four cards from the deck with replacement. That is, after we select a card and record the colour, we replace the card in the deck and thoroughly shuffle it before we select another card.
8. Let X be the number of blue cards that are selected. The distribution of X is:
(A) binomial with parameters n = 4 and p = 0.1. (B) binomial with parameters n = 10 and p = 0.3. (C) binomial with parameters n = 10 and p = 0.4. (D) binomial with parameters n = 4 and p = 0.3. (E) not binomial.
9. Let A be the event that the first selected card is the only red card in our four selections. Which of the following events is mutually exclusive of the event A?
(A) second card selected is blue
(B) no green cards are selected
(C) third selected card is the only green card
(D) same number of red and blue cards are selected (E) same number of blue and green cards are selected
10. Now suppose that, instead of selecting four cards, we repeatedly select cards with re- placement (replacing the card and shuffling the deck after each draw) until we draw a green card for the first time. What is the probability that we draw our first green card on the fifth draw?
(A) 0.0819 (B) 0.4096 (C) 0.1342 (D) 0.0554 (E) 0.1746
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A backpacking party carries five emergency flares, each of which will light with a probability of 0.93. What is the probability that exactly four of the flares will light?
(A) 0.1271 (B) 0.0524 (C) 0.2947 (D) 0.2618 (E) 0.1835
Suppose it is known that 11% of students at a large university live in dorms. In a random sample of 500 students at the university, what is the approximate probability that at least 14% of them live in dorms?
(A) 0.0735 (B) 0.0418 (C) 0.0162 (D) 0.0028 (E) 0.0968
A variable X follows some left-skewed distribution with mean 100 and standard deviation 50. We take a random sample of 2,500 observations from this distribution and create a histogram of the data values. We expect the histogram to be:
(A) approximately normal with mean close to 100 and standard deviation close to 1. (B) skewed to the left with mean close to 100 and standard deviation close to 1.
(C) approximately normal with mean close to 100 and standard deviation close to 50. (D) skewed to the left with mean close to 100 and standard deviation close to 50.
(E) approximately normal with mean close to 100 and standard deviation close to 0.02.
A manufacturer of automobile batteries claims that the distribution of battery lifetimes has a mean of 54 months and a variance of 36 months squared. A consumer group decides to check the claim by purchasing a sample of 50 of these batteries and subjecting them to tests to determine their lifetime. Assuming the manufacturer’s claim is true, what is the probability that the sample has a mean lifetime less than 52 months?
(A) 0.1292 (B) 0.3707 (C) 0.0091 (D) 0.4909 (E) 0.3483
A recycling plant compresses aluminum cans into bales. The weights of the bales are known to follow a normal distribution with mean 100 pounds standard deviation 8 pounds. What is the probability that a random sample of 64 bales has a mean weight between 99 and 101 pounds?
(A) 0.3413 (B) 0.4772 (C) 0.5561 (D) 0.6826 (E) 0.7485
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16. We would like to estimate the value of the mean μ of some population. Ten statisticians each take a separate random sample of 100 individuals from the population, and each of them calculates a 90% confidence interval for μ. What is the probability that exactly eight of their confidence intervals will contain the value of μ?
(A) 0.1445
(B) 0.1937
(C) 0.2324
(D) 0.2891
(E) depends on the value of μ
We would like to construct a confidence interval to estimate the true mean systolic blood pressure of all healthy adults to within 4 mm Hg (millimeters of mercury). We have a sample of 25 adults available. Systolic blood pressures of healthy adults are known to follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 8.6 mm Hg. What is the maximum confidence level that can be attained for our interval?
(A) 80% (B) 90% (C) 95% (D) 96% (E) 98%
Lumberintendedforbuildinghousesandotherstructuresmustbemonitoredforstrength. A random sample of 25 specimens of Southern Pine is selected, and the mean strength is calculated to be 3700 pounds per square inch. Strengths are known to follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 500 pounds per square inch. An 85% confidence interval for the true mean strength of Southern Pine is:
(A) (3615, 3785) (B) (3671, 3729) (C) (3556, 3844) (D) (3544, 3856) (E) (3596, 3804)
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The University of Manitoba uses thousands of fluorescent light bulbs each year. The brand of bulb it currently uses has a mean lifetime of 900 hours. A manufacturer claims that its new brand of bulbs, which cost the same as those the university currently uses, has a mean lifetime of more than 900 hours. It is known that the standard deviation of lifetimes of the new brand of bulb is 80 hours. The university has decided to purchase the new brand of bulb if a hypothesis test gives significant evidence supporting the manufacturer’s claim at the 3% level of significance. A random sample of 64 bulbs were tested and their mean lifetime was 920 hours. Based on these findings:
(A) the university will not purchase the new brand of bulb, as the P-value is 0.0228. (B) the university will not purchase the new brand of bulb, as the P-value is 0.0456. (C) the university will not purchase the new brand of bulb, as the P-value is 0.9772. (D) the university will purchase the new brand of bulb, as the P-value is 0.0228.
(E) the university will purchase the new brand of bulb, as the P-value is 0.0456.
We would like to determine whether the true mean pH level of a lake differs from 7.0. Lake pH levels are known to follow a normal distribution. We select a sample of ten water specimens from random locations in the lake. The sample mean pH level is calculated to be 6.8. A 98% confidence interval for μ is calculated to be (6.5, 7.1). Based on this confidence interval, our conclusion is to:
(A) fail to reject H0 at the 2% level of significance, since the value 7.0 is contained in the 98% confidence interval.
(B) fail to reject H0 at the 1% level of significance, since the value 6.8 is contained in the 98% confidence interval.
(C) fail to reject H0 at the 4% level of significance, since the value 7.0 is contained in the 98% confidence interval.
(D) reject H0 at the 2% level of significance, since the value 7.0 is contained in the 98% confidence interval.
(E) reject H0 at the 4% level of significance, since the value 6.8 is contained in the 98% confidence interval.
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21. We select a random sample of ten oranges from trees grown in a large orchard. The standard deviation of the weights of these ten oranges is calculated to be 19 grams. Based on this sample, a confidence interval for the true mean weight of all oranges grown in the orchard is calculated to be (126.41, 153.59). What is the confidence level of this interval?
(A) 90% (B) 95% (C) 96% (D) 98% (E) 99%
The next two questions (22 and 23) refer to the following:
Carbon Monoxide (CO) is a colourless and odourless gas. Even at low levels of exposure, carbon monoxide can cause serious health problems. A home is considered safe if the mean CO concentration is 4.8 parts per million (ppm) or lower. We take a random sample of eight readings in various locations of a home. These readings have a mean of 5.0 ppm and a standard deviation of 0.5 ppm. Assume that CO readings follow a normal distribution. We would like to conduct a hypothesis test at the 1% level of significance to determine whether the home is unsafe.
22. The P-value for the appropriate hypothesis test is:
(A) between 0.02 and 0.025. (B) between 0.025 and 0.05. (C) between 0.05 and 0.10. (D) between 0.10 and 0.15. (E) between 0.15 and 0.20.
23. We conclude that:
(A) there is proof that the home is safe.
(B) there is sufficient evidence that the home is safe.
(C) there is insufficient evidence that the home is unsafe. (D) there is sufficient evidence that the home is unsafe. (E) there is insufficient evidence that the home is safe.
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24. The heights (in inches) of all 24 players on the Winnipeg Jets hockey team are ordered and shown below:
69 70 70 71 72 72 73 73 73 74 74 75 75 75 75 75 75 75 75 76 77 77 77 80
We would like to determine if the true mean height of Winnipeg Jets hockey players differs from 75 inches. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) We should conduct a z test, as it is reasonable to assume heights follow a normal distribution.
(B) We should conduct a t test, as we have no idea of the form of the distribution of heights.
(C) We should conduct a z test, as the sample size is fairly high, so X ̄ will have an approximate normal distribution.
(D) We should conduct a t test, as the population standard deviation is unknown.
(E) A hypothesis test is unnecessary in this situation.
The next three questions (25 to 27) refer to the following:
The high school and university GPAs for random samples of students from two
universities are shown below:
University A
Student 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 x ̄ s
High School (H) University (U) Diff. (d =H−U)
0.02
−0.66
0.06
0.17
0.74
0.19
3.87 0.26
3.70 0.44 0.67 0.17 0.47
3.76 3.64 4.15 4.07 4.20 3.56 3.71 3.74 4.30 4.09 3.90 3.46 3.37 3.04
University B
Student
High School (H) University (U)
Diff. (d = H−U) 0.58
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 x ̄ s 3.54 0.64 3.28 0.69 0.14 0.26 0.33
3.60 2.79 4.21 3.75 2.58 4.00 4.25 3.14 3.02 2.42 4.23 3.87 2.52 3.15 4.03 3.00
0.37
−0.02
−0.12
0.06
0.85
0.22
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25. We would like to construct a 95% confidence interval for the true mean difference μd in high school GPA and university GPA for all students at University A. Which of the following statements are true?
(I)
(II) (III)
(IV)
For any University A student, high school GPA and university GPA are independent.
For any two University A students, high school GPAs are independent.
In order to construct the confidence interval, we must assume that differences in high school GPA and university GPA follow a normal distribution.
In order to construct the confidence interval, we must assume that high school GPAs and university GPAs both follow normal distributions.
(A) I
(B) I
(C) II and III only (D) II and IV only (E) I, II and III only
26. Refer to the previous question. Assuming the necessary normality conditions are satis- fied, the 95% confidence interval for the true mean difference in high school GPA and university GPA for all students at University A is:
(A) (−0.12, 0.46) (B) (−0.47, 0.81) (C) (−0.03, 0.37) (D) (−0.26, 0.60) (E) (−0.38, 0.72)
27. We would like to conduct a hypothesis test to determine whether high school GPAs differ on average from university GPAs for all students at University B. Assuming the proper normality conditions are satisfied, the P-value for the appropriate test of significance is:
(A) between 0.01 and 0.02. (B) between 0.02 and 0.025. (C) between 0.025 and 0.05. (D) between 0.05 and 0.10. (E) between 0.10 and 0.15.
and III only and IV only
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28. The North Dakota Department of Tourism is interested in estimating the true proportion p of Manitobans visit the state in any given year. What sample size is required in order to estimate p to within 0.06 with 95% confidence?
(A) 234 (B) 245 (C) 256 (D) 267 (E) 278
29. In a random sample of 1,000 university students, 837 of them say they have a Facebook account. A 90% confidence interval for the true proportion of all university students who have a Facebook account is:
(A) (0.818, 0.856) (B) (0.783, 0.891) (C) (0.829, 0.845) (D) (0.794, 0.880) (E) (0.806, 0.868)
30. In a random sample of 175 university students, 70 have student loans. We would like to test the claim that more than 30% of all university students have student loans. The test statistic for the appropriate test of significance is:
0.30 − 0.40 (A) (0.30) (0.70)
0.40 − 0.30 (D) (0.40) (0.60)
175 0.40 − 0.30
175 0.30 − 0.40
(B) (0.30) (0.70) 175
(E) (0.30) (0.40) 175
0.40 − 0.30
(C) (0.35) (0.65) 175
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Sample Final Exam 2 Part B
1. A dentist would like to conduct an experiment to determine the effect of the brand of toothpaste (Crest or Colgate) and the type of toothbrush (regular or electric) his patients use on the health of their teeth. The dentist has 240 patients (80 children and 160 adults) who volunteer to participate in the experiment. The treatments will be randomly assigned to the subjects. The dentist believes the effect of the treatments will differ for children and adults, so she conducts a randomized block design.
(a) Identify the following in this experiment: i. factors
ii. factor levels
iii. treatments
iv. response variable
v. blocking variable
(b) How is control achieved in this experiment?
(c) Suppose at the end of the experiment that it is determined that subjects who used Crest toothpaste and an electric toothbrush had significantly healthier teeth than subjects in the other treatment groups. Can we conclude that the treatment was likely the cause?
2. The
probabilities that each team will win their respective game, as determined by odds- makers. Note that tied games are not possible. We will assume the outcome of one game is independent of any other.
Winnipeg Jets’ next three scheduled games are shown below, together with the
Game 1: Game 2: Game 3:
Winnipeg Jets (0.6) Winnipeg Jets (0.7) Winnipeg Jets (0.8)
vs. Pittsburgh Penguins (0.4) vs. Montreal Canadiens (0.3) vs. Buffalo Sabres (0.2)
(a) The outcome of interest is the set of winners of each of the three games. List the complete sample space of outcomes and calculate the probability of each.
(b) Let X be the number of games the Winnipeg Jets win. Find the probability distribution of X.
3. The weights of adobe bricks used for construction follow a normal distribution with mean 5.0 pounds and standard deviation 0.2 pounds.
(a) Only 12% of bricks are heavier than what weight?
(b) We take a random sample of four bricks. Can you calculate the probability that the average weight of these four bricks is greater than 5.1 pounds? If so, calculate the probability. If not, explain why not.
(c) What is the probability that the total weight of a random sample of 50 bricks is less than 248 pounds?
(d) Is the probability you calculated in (c) exact or approximate? Explain.
4. A random sample of 20 students at a large university has a mean GPA of 3.12. GPAs at the university are known to follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 0.47.
(a) Calculate a 95% confidence interval for the true mean GPA of all students at the university.
(b) Provide an interpretation of the confidence interval in (a).
(c) Conduct an appropriate hypothesis test at the 5% level of significance to determine whether there is evidence that the true mean GPA of students at the university differs from 3.00. Show all of your steps, including the statement of hypotheses, the calculation of the appropriate test statistic and P-value, and a carefully-worded conclusion.
(d) Provide an interpretation of the P-value of the test in (c).
(e) Could the confidence interval in (a) have been used to conduct the test in (c)? Why or why not? If it could have been used, explain what the conclusion would be, and why.
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Sample Final Exam 3 Part A
1. The five-number summary for the heights (in cm) of the players on a men’s hockey team is as follows:
162 174 176 181 194
The three goalies on the hockey team are Darren, who is 191 cm tall, Brandon, who is 165 cm tall, and Kyle, who is 193 cm tall. If an outlier boxplot for the heights of the hockey team was constructed, which of these players’ heights would be labelled as outliers?
(A) only Brandon
(B) only Kyle
(C) Darren and Kyle, but not Brandon (D) Brandon and Kyle, but not Darren (E) Darren, Brandon and Kyle
2. Researchers want to determine how the height of a mountain can help explain the temperature at the top of the mountain. The two variables were measured for a sample of mountains and the least squares regression line was calculated. It was also reported that 58% of the variation in temperature at the top of a mountain can be explained by its regression on the mountain’s height. What is the value of the correlation between the two variables?
(A) 0.76 (B) 0.58 (C) −0.34 (D) −0.76 (E) −0.58
3. How fast do icicles grow? Researchers measured the growth rate of icicles in a cold chamber subjected to different temperatures (−20◦C or −30◦C) and different wind speeds (30, or 40 km/h). What is/are the factor level(s) in this experiment?
(A) length of the icicles
(B) growth rate of the icicles
(C) temperature and wind speed
(D) −20◦C, −30◦C, 30 km/h, 40 km/h
(E) −20◦C/30 km/h, −20◦C/40 km/h, −30◦C/40 km/h, −30◦C/40 km/h
There are three coloured coins in a hat – one gold coin, one silver coin and one copper coin. You will randomly select coins from the hat, one at a time without replacement, until the gold coin is selected, and then you will stop. The outcome of interest is the sequence of colours that are selected during this process. How many outcomes are contained in the appropriate sample space?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6 (E) 9
Consider two events A and B. We know P(A) = 0.37 and P(A∪B) = 0.7354. If A and B are independent, then what is P(B)?
(A) 0.47 (B) 0.39 (C) 0.62 (D) 0.44 (E) 0.58
A six-sided die has faces numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6. Suppose the die is “loaded”, so that any particular even-numbered face is twice as likely to land face up as any particular odd-numbered face. If we roll this die once, what is the probability that the number showing is greater than 3?
(A)1 (B)2 (C)5 (D) 7 (E) 9 2 3 9 12 16
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7. Two friends are playing a game of Rock, Paper, Scissors. To play this game, each player simultaneously and independently selects one of the three items. From prior experience, it is known that each of the two friends will select the items with the following probabilities:
Player Rock Paper Scissors Joe 0.4 0.2 0.4 Tom 0.5 0.2 0.3
In this game, rock beats scissors, scissors beats paper and paper beats rock. The two friends will play one game. What is the probability Joe wins against Tom?
(A) 0.30 (B) 0.35 (C) 0.40 (D) 0.45 (E) 0.50
8. Which of the following statements is false?
(A) If the probability of A is 0.6 and the probability of B is 0.5, then A and B cannot
be mutually exclusive.
(B) If the probability of A is 0.4 and the probability of B is 0.6, and if A and B are
independent, then P (A ∩ B) must be equal to 0.24.
(C) If P(A)=0.3,P(B)=0.6,andP(A∪B)=0.72,thenAandBmustbeindepen-
dent.
(D) If A and B are mutually exclusive, and if A and C are mutually exclusive, then B
and C must be mutually exclusive.
(E) Two events that are mutually exclusive cannot be independent.
9. Which of the following variables has a binomial distribution?
(A) You roll five fair dice, each with face values of 1 through 6.
X = total number of dots facing up on the five dice
(B) You monitor the weather statistics every Saturday in Winnipeg for a year.
X = number of Saturdays during the year that it snows
(C) A paper boy delivers the newspaper to every house on your block.
X = number of houses that get their newspaper on time tomorrow morning
(D) You repeatedly flip two quarters simultaneously until both quarters land on Heads.
X = number of flips required for both quarters to land on Heads
(E) An unprepared student randomly guesses the answer to each of the 30 multiple- choice questions on the final exam.
X = number of multiple-choice answers the student gets correct
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10. During Tim Hortons’ annual “Roll Up the Rim to Win” promotion, customers who purchase a cup of coffee check under the rim of the cup to see if they have won a prize. It is known that 16.7% of all cups are winners. If you buy one cup of coffee every day for a week (7 days), what is the probability you win at least two times?
(A) 0.1892 (B) 0.2349 (C) 0.2857 (D) 0.3311 (E) 0.3836
The next three questions (11 to 13) refer to the following:
The amount of soap per bottle for a particular brand of dish soap follows a normal
distribution with mean 828 ml and standard deviation 4 ml.
What is the probability that a random sample of 10 bottles of dish soap contain a mean amount greater than 830 ml?
(A) 0.3085 (B) 0.1539 (C) 0.9429 (D) 0.2296 (E) 0.0571
There is an approximate 99.7% chance that a random sample of 16 bottles of dish soap will contain an average fill volume between:
(A) 825 and 831 ml. (B) 824 and 832 ml. (C) 826 and 830 ml. (D) 816 and 840 ml. (E) 820 and 836 ml.
13. What amount should be placed on the label of the bottles so that only 4% of bottles contain less than that amount?
(A) 820ml (B) 821ml (C) 822ml (D) 828ml (E) 829ml
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14. When an archer shoots her arrow, she hits the bullseye on the target 78% of the time. The result of each of her shots is independent of any other. If she shoots 300 arrows, what is the approximate probability she hits the bullseye at least 240 times?
(A) 0.0162 (B) 0.0436 (C) 0.0719 (D) 0.1401 (E) 0.2005
15. The Central Limit Theorem states that:
(A) when n gets large, the sample mean X ̄ gets closer and closer to the population
mean μ.
(B) if a variable X has a normal distribution, then for any sample size n, the sampling
distribution of X ̄ is also normal.
(C) if a variable X follows a normal distribution, then when n gets large, the sampling
distribution of X ̄ is exactly normal.
(D) when n gets large, the standard deviation of the sample mean X ̄ gets closer and
closer to σ/√n.
(E) regardless of the population distribution of a variable X, when n gets large, the
sampling distribution of X ̄ is approximately normal. The next two questions (16 and 17) refer to the following:
The fill volume per bottle for a certain brand of beer follows a normal distribution with mean 341 ml and standard deviation 3 ml.
If you buy a case of 24 bottles of beer, what is the probability that the bottles will contain an average of exactly 339.5 ml?
(A) 0.0034 (B) 0.0207 (C) 0.0000 (D) 0.0071 (E) 0.0122
If you buy a twelve-pack of beer, what is the probability that the total volume of beer will exceed 4.1 litres?
(A) 0.0838 (B) 0.2206 (C) 0.1397 (D) 0.4443 (E) 0.3632
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18. Weights of loaves of bread made at a bakery follow a normal distribution with a mean of 450 grams and standard deviation 12 grams. A random sample of five loaves of bread is selected. There is only a 2.5% chance that the average weight of the sample will be below:
(A) 439.48 grams. (B) 441.20 grams. (C) 442.54 grams. (D) 438.62 grams. (E) 440.76 grams.
19. Sizes of apartments in a large city follow a normal distribution with mean 846 square feet and standard deviation 160 square feet. We will take a simple random sample of four apartments in the city and calculate their average size x ̄. The sampling distribution of X ̄ is:
(A) approximately normal with mean 846 and standard deviation 40. (B) exactly normal with mean 846 and standard deviation 40.
(C) approximately normal with mean 846 and standard deviation 80. (D) exactly normal with mean 846 and standard deviation 80.
(E) impossible to determine with the information given.
20. Consider two Canadian universities. University A has a student population of 10,000 and University B has a student population of 30,000. A statistician, interested in the average age of first-year students, collects the general records of samples of 500 first-year students from University A and 600 first-year students from University B. She assumes the standard deviations of ages are equal for the two universities. Based on her samples, she constructs a 95% confidence interval for the true mean age of first-year students at each university. Which of the following statements is/are true?
(I) The interval for University A will be narrower, as a higher percentage of students was sampled from University A.
(II) The interval for University B will be narrower, as a higher number of students was sampled from University B.
(III) If the statistician calculated 90% intervals instead, the intervals would be wider.
(IV) If the statistician doubled her sample sizes, the lengths of her intervals would
be reduced by half.
(A) I only (B) II only (C) II and III (D) I and IV (E) II and IV
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The next two questions (21 and 22) refer to the following:
City engineers in Hamilton, Ontario would like to estimate the true mean commuting distance of all workers in the city between home and their principal place of business. They calculate that, in order to estimate this mean to within ±1 kilometer with 99% confidence, they require a sample of 120 workers.
What sample size would be required to estimate the true mean commuting distance for all workers in Hamilton to within ±2 kilometres with 99% confidence?
(A) 30 (B) 60 (C) 85 (D) 240 (E) 480
The city of Montreal has a population five times greater than that of Hamilton (and so it would be logical to assume that it has five times as many workers). Suppose we wanted to estimate the true mean commuting distance between home and work for all workers in Montreal to within ±1 kilometre with 99% confidence. Assuming equal standard deviations for the two cities, we would require a sample of how many Montreal workers?
(A) 24 (B) 120 (C) 269 (D) 600 (E) 3000
We take a random sample of n individuals and measure the value of some variable X. We conduct a hypothesis test of H0: μ = 30 vs. Ha: μ ̸= 30 at the 5% level of significance. We calculate a sample mean of x ̄ = 33 and we reject the null hypothesis. Which of the following must be true?
(I) AtestofH0: μ=30vs.Ha: μ ̸= 30 at the 10% level of significance would also result in the rejection of H0.
(II) AtestofH0: μ=30vs.Ha: μ > 30 at the 5% level of significance would also result in the rejection of H0.
(III) AtestofH0: μ=31vs.Ha: μ ̸= 31 at the 5% level of significance would also result in the rejection of H0.
(A) I only
(B) I and II only (C) I and III only (D) II and III only (E) I, II and III
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Prior to distributing a large shipment of bottled water, a beverage company would like to determine whether there is evidence that the true mean fill volume of all bottles differs from 600 ml, which is the amount printed on the labels. Fill volumes are known to follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 2.0 ml. A random sample of 25 bottles is selected. The sample has a mean fill volume of 598.8 ml and a standard deviation of 3.0 ml. What is the value of the test statistic for the appropriate test of significance?
(A) t=−0.50 (B) z=−2.00 (C) t=−2.00 (D) z=−3.00 (E) t=−3.00
We would like to conduct a hypothesis test at the 5% level of significance to determine whether there is evidence that the true mean amount of jam per jar for a certain brand of jam differs from 350 ml, the amount stated on the label. We take a simple random sample of 16 jars and measure the amount of jam in each of them. The sample mean is calculated to be 348.7 ml. Suppose it is known that the amount of jam per jar follows a normal distribution with standard deviation 2.8 ml. The correct conclusion is to:
(A) reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0157.
(B) reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0314.
(C) fail to reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0314. (D) reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0628.
(E) fail to reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0628.
We would like to conduct a hypothesis test of H0: μ = 50 vs. Ha: μ ̸= 50 for the mean μ of some normally distributed variable X. A random sample of 25 observations is taken from the population. A 90% confidence interval for μ is calculated to be (44.46, 49.58). A 96% confidence interval for μ is calculated to be (43.82,50.22). The P-value of the appropriate test of significance must be:
(A) less than 0.04.
(B) greater than 0.10.
(C) between 0.02 and 0.05. (D) between 0.04 and 0.10. (E) equal to 0.06.
32
The next three questions (27 to 29) refer to the following:
Coke and Pepsi are the two most popular colas on the market. Do consumers prefer either one of the two brands of cola over the other? We conduct a matched pairs experiment as follows: 20 volunteers participate in a blind taste test. Each volunteer tastes both Coke and Pepsi (in random order) and scores the taste of each cola on a scale from 0 to 100. Some information that may be helpful is shown in the table below:
Scores for Coke mean = 78 std. dev. = 27
Scores for Pepsi mean = 83 std. dev. = 24
Difference (d = Coke − Pepsi) mean = −5
std. dev. = 13
Which of the following statements is/are true?
(I) The scores for Coke and Pepsi for each individual are independent.
(II) The scores for Coke and Pepsi for each individual are dependent.
(III) In order to conduct the matched pairs t test, we must assume that scores for Coke and scores for Pepsi both follow normal distributions.
(IV) In order to conduct the matched pairs t test, we must assume that differences in scores (Coke − Pepsi) follow a normal distribution.
(A) I only (B) I and III (C) I and IV (D) II and III (E) II and IV
What are the hypotheses for the appropriate test of significance?
(A) H0: μd =0vs.Ha: μd <0 (B) H0: X ̄d =0vs.Ha: X ̄d ̸=0 (C) H0: μC =μP vs. Ha: μC <μP (D) H0: X ̄d =0vs.Ha: X ̄d <0 (E) H0: μd =0vs.Ha: μd ̸=0
29. Assuming the appropriate assumptions are satisfied, what is the value of the test statistic for the appropriate test of significance?
(A) −0.38 (B) −7.69 (C) −2.85 (D) −1.72 (E) −0.88
33
30. Which of the following statements is false?
(A) The P-value in a hypothesis test is calculated under the assumption that the null
hypothesis is true.
(B) The lower the P-value of a hypothesis test, the greater the strength of evidence against the null hypothesis.
(C) The level of significance in a hypothesis test is the highest P-value for which the null hypothesis will be rejected.
(D) A hypothesis test is designed to assess the evidence in favour of the null hypothesis.
(E) For normally distributed populations, the most important assumption in a hypothesis test for μ is that the sample is a simple random sample.
34
Sample Final Exam 3 Part B
Researchers are studying the effect of alcohol consumption on a person’s short-term memory. Six volunteer subjects are assigned to consume a certain number of drinks X. A short time later, the subjects are given a memory test, and their score Y on the test is recorded. The data are shown below, together with the means and standard deviations:
Subject 1 2 3 4 5 6 mean std. dev. No. of Drinks 4 2 8 3 1 6 4 2.61 Test Score 81 90 22 58 80 53 64 25.07

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The correlation between number of drinks and test score is calculated to be r = −0.869.
(a) What fraction of the variation in test score can be accounted for by its regression
on number of drinks consumed?
(b) Find the equation of the least squares regression line.
(c) Find the predicted test scores for a subject who consumes 5 drinks and for a subject who consumes 11 drinks.
(d) Is one of your predictions in (c) more reliable than the other? Explain.
Consider the following information about three events A, B and C:
• P(A)=0.43
• P(C)=0.28
• P(A∩B)=0.19 • P(B∩C)=0.12 • P(A∪B)=0.61 • P(A∪C)=0.71
(a) What is P(B)?
(b) Are any two of the three events mutually exclusive?
(c) Are any two of the three events independent?
(d) What is the probability that exactly one of the three events occurs?
We would like to estimate the true mean size μ (in square feet) of all two-bedroom apartments in Winnipeg. A random sample of 30 two-bedroom apartments in the city is selected, and the mean size of these apartments is calculated to be 1000 square feet. Suppose it is known that sizes of two-bedroom apartments in the city follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 200 square feet.
(a) Calculate a 93% confidence interval for the true mean size of all two-bedroom apartments in Winnipeg.
(b) Interpret the meaning of the interval you calculated in (a).
An apple grower selects a random sample of 30 apples from this year’s crop. The mean and standard deviation of weights of these apples are calculated to be 156 grams and 14 grams, respectively. Weights of apples are known to follow a normal distribution.
The apple grower suspects that the true mean weight of apples from this year’s crop differs from that of last year’s crop, when the true mean weight was 150 grams. Conduct an appropriate hypothesis test at the 5% level of significance to investigate the grower’s suspicion. Show all of your steps.
We would like to estimate the true proportion p of Canadians who support Donald Trump. In a random sample of 400 Canadians, 80 of them say they support the American president.
(a) Calculate a 90% confidence interval for the true proportion of Canadians who sup- port Donald Trump.
(b) Conduct a hypothesis test at the 10% level of significance to determine whether there is evidence that the true proportion of Canadians who support Donald Trump is less than 0.25.
(c) Provide an interpretation of the P-value of the test in (b).
36
Sample Final Exam 4 Part A
The average height of all 23 students in a class is 132.5 cm. The average height of the 14 boys in the class is 135.2 cm. What is the average height of the girls in the class?
(A) 129.1 cm (B) 128.6 cm (C) 129.8 cm (D) 127.9 cm (E) 128.3 cm
The batting averages of 34 Major League Baseball players are ordered and shown below:
0.178 0.202 0.210 0.219 0.222 0.237 0.245 0.250 0.256 0.258 0.258 0.260 0.261 0.263 0.267 0.268 0.271 0.275 0.277 0.279 0.279 0.281 0.283 0.284 0.286 0.288 0.294 0.299 0.305 0.311 0.313 0.327 0.338 0.340
The five-number summary is: 0.178 0.256 0.273 0.288 0.340
We construct an outlier boxplot for this data set. To what values do the lines coming out from the box (i.e., the whiskers) extend?
(A) 0.202 and 0.338 (B) 0.210 and 0.327 (C) 0.208 and 0.336 (D) 0.237 and 0.313 (E) 0.178 and 0.340
A police officer would like to determine how the number of alcoholic beverages consumed by a person can predict his or her blood alcohol level. The officer measures the values of both variables on a sample of people leaving a bar one night. The correlation between the two variables is calculated to be 0.88 and the equation of the least squares regression line is calculated to be yˆ = 0.003 + 0.012x. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) 88% of the variation in blood alcohol level can be accounted for by its regression on number of alcoholic beverages consumed.
(B) 77% of the variation in number of alcoholic beverages consumed can be accounted for by its regression on blood alcohol level.
(C) 94% of the variation in blood alcohol level can be accounted for by its regression on number of alcoholic beverages consumed.
(D) 88% of the variation in number of alcoholic beverages consumed can be accounted for by its regression on blood alcohol level.
(E) 77% of the variation in blood alcohol level can be accounted for by its regression on number of alcoholic beverages consumed.
An experiment is being conducted to study the effectiveness of different brands of sun- screen and SPF (sun protection factor) levels. Volunteers will be randomly assigned to apply either Coppertone or Ombrelle sunscreen, with an SPF level of either 30 or 60. Subjects will spend eight hours outside in the sun, and the degree of sunburn (if any) will be compared for all treatments. What is/are the treatment(s) in this experiment?
(A) degree of sunburn
(B) sunscreen brand and SPF level
(C) sunscreen brand, SPF level and degree of sunburn
(D) Coppertone, Ombrelle, SPF 30, SPF 60
(E) Coppertone/SPF 30, Ombrelle/SPF 30, Coppertone/SPF 60, Ombrelle/SPF 60
38
The professor of a large class decides to grade the final exam on a curve. He will use the following criteria:
• 15% of students will get a grade of A+. • 17% of students will get a grade of A. • 11% of students will get a grade of B+. • 18% of students will get a grade of B. • 9% of students will get a grade of C+. • 12% of students will get a grade of C. • 10% of students will get a grade of D. • 8% of students will get a grade of F.
Scores on the exam are known to follow a normal distribution with mean 67 and standard deviation 11. What is the minimum score required to obtain a grade of C?
(A) 56.88 (B) 57.26 (C) 58.90 (D) 59.32 (E) 60.44
Labels on the boxes for a certain brand of soap claim the bars of soap weigh 150 grams. Weights of bars of soap are in fact known to be normally distributed with a standard deviation of 4 grams. What should be the mean weight of all bars of soap if we want only 7% of bars to weigh less than the amount stated on the label?
(A) 144.08 grams (B) 145.83 grams (C) 153.28 grams (D) 154.75 grams (E) 155.92 grams
39
The next five questions (7 to 11) refer to the following:
Winnipeg has three professional sports teams – the Winnipeg Jets hockey team, the
Winnipeg Blue Bombers football team and the Winnipeg Goldeyes baseball team. Suppose we have the following information about Winnipeg residents:
• 55% are Jets fans (J).
• 20% are Goldeyes fans (G).
• 50% are Bombers fans (B) or Goldeyes fans. • 27% are Jets fans and Bombers fans.
• 11% are Jets fans and Goldeyes fans.
• 10% are Bombers fans and Goldeyes fans.
• 6% are fans of all three teams.
What is the probability that a randomly selected Winnipeg resident is a Bombers fan? (A) 0.30 (B) 0.35 (C) 0.40 (D) 0.45 (E) 0.50
Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Events J and B are independent.
(B) Events J and G are mutually exclusive. (C) Events J and G are independent.
(D) Events B and G are mutually exclusive. (E) Events B and G are independent.
9. What is the probability that a randomly selected Winnipeg resident is a fan of none of the three teams?
(A) 0.21 (B) 0.23 (C) 0.25 (D) 0.27 (E) 0.29
10. If we take a random sample of 12 Winnipeg residents, what is the probability that exactly three of them are Goldeyes fans?
(A) 0.2084 (B) 0.2137 (C) 0.2256 (D) 0.2362 (E) 0.2419
40
11. If we take a random sample of 500 Winnipeg residents, what is the approximate probability that less than half of them are Jets fans?
(A) 0.0122 (B) 0.0287 (C) 0.0351 (D) 0.0446 (E) 0.0594
The next three questions (12 to 14) refer to the following:
We have four boxes, each of which contains 10 coloured balls:
• Box 1 contains 4 red balls, 5 green balls and 1 yellow ball. • Box 2 contains 3 red balls, 5 green balls and 2 yellow balls. • Box 3 contains 2 red balls, 5 green balls and 3 yellow balls. • Box 4 contains 1 red ball, 5 green balls and 4 yellow balls.
If we randomly select one ball from each box, what is the probability of selecting exactly one yellow ball?
(A) 0.44 (B) 0.40 (C) 0.36 (D) 0.48 (E) 0.32
If we randomly select one ball from each box, what is the probability of selecting at least one yellow ball?
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.6 (C) 0.7 (D) 0.8 (E) 0.9
14. Which of the following variables have a binomial distribution?
(I) Randomly select three balls from Box 1 with replacement. X = number of red balls selected
(II) Randomly select one ball from each of the four boxes. X = number of yellow balls selected
(III) Randomly select three balls from Box 1 without replacement. X = number of red balls selected
(IV) Randomly select one ball from each of the four boxes. X = number of green balls selected
(A) I only
(B) I and III only (C) I and IV only (D) II and IV only (E) I, II and IV only
41
The next two questions (15 and 16) refer to the following:
A variable X follows a uniform distribution, as shown below:
The mean and standard deviation of this distribution are 3.5 and 2, respectively.
15. We take a random sample of 400 individuals from this distribution and create a histogram of the data values. We expect this histogram to be:
(A) approximately normal with mean close to 3.5 and standard deviation close to 0.1. (B) approximately uniform with mean close to 3.5 and standard deviation close to 2. (C) approximately normal with mean close to 3.5 and standard deviation close to 0.005. (D) approximately uniform with mean close to 3.5 and standard deviation close to 0.1. (E) approximately normal with mean close to 3.5 and standard deviation close to 2.
16. We take a random sample of 400 individuals from this distribution and calculate the value of the sample mean x ̄. The sampling distribution of X ̄ is:
(A) approximately normal with mean 3.5 and standard deviation 0.1. (B) uniform with mean 3.5 and standard deviation 2.
(C) approximately normal with mean 3.5 and standard deviation 0.005. (D) uniform with mean 3.5 and standard deviation 0.1.
(E) approximately normal with mean 3.5 and standard deviation 2.
42
The next two questions (17 and 18) refer to the following:
Credit card balances for the I. O. U. Credit Corporation follow a normal distribution
with mean $800 and the standard deviation is $200.
What is the probability that the mean balance for a random sample of 100 customers is greater than $780?
(A) 0.7157 (B) 0.5793 (C) 0.9484 (D) 0.8413 (E) 0.6368
What is the probability that the total balance for a random sample of 40 customers is less than $30,000?
(A) 0.0162 (B) 0.0287 (C) 0.0336 (D) 0.0446 (E) 0.0571
A variable X follows a normal distribution with mean 43 and variance 144. We take a random sample of n individuals from this distribution and calculate the sample mean x ̄. What must the sample size be so that the standard deviation of the sample mean X ̄ is equal to 0.8?
(A) 15 (B) 64 (C) 120 (D) 180 (E) 225
The number of undergraduate students at the University of Winnipeg is approximately 9,000, while the University of Manitoba has approximately 27,000 undergraduate students. Suppose that, at each university, a simple random sample of 3% of the undergraduate students is selected and the following question is asked: “Do you approve of the provincial government’s decision to lift the tuition freeze?”. Suppose that, within each university, approximately 20% of undergraduate students favour this decision. What can be said about the sampling variability associated with the two sample proportions?
(A) The sample proportion for the U of W has less sampling variability than that for the U of M.
(B) The sample proportion for the U of W has more sampling variability that that for the U of M.
(C) The sample proportion for the U of W has approximately the same sampling variability as that for the U of M.
(D) It is impossible to make any statements about the sampling variability of the two sample proportions without taking many samples.
(E) It is impossible to make any statements about the sampling variability of the two sample proportions because the population sizes are different.
43
The sizes of farms in a U.S. state follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 30 acres. We would like to take a sample of farms large enough to estimate the true mean size of all farms in the state to within 5 acres with 94% confidence. What sample size is required?
(A) 126 (B) 128 (C) 130 (D) 132 (E) 134
A researcher would like to estimate the true mean daily water intake μ for all Canadians. She measures the daily water intake (in ml) for a sample of Canadians and calculates a 95% confidence interval for μ to be (1771.6, 1928.4). Daily water intake for Canadians is known to follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 280 ml. What sample size did the researcher take?
(A) 16 (B) 25 (C) 36 (D) 49 (E) 64
We would like to test whether the true mean IQ of all adult Canadians is less than 110. Suppose that IQs of adult Canadians follow a normal distribution with standard deviation 17. A random sample of 30 adult Canadians has a mean IQ of 108. What is the P-value for the appropriate test of H0: μ = 110 vs. Ha: μ < 110?
(A) 0.6444
(B) 0.2090
(C) 0.3556
(D) 0.2611
(E) impossible to determine because the level of significance was not given
24. Which of the following statements comparing the standard normal distribution and the t distributions is false?
(A) The density curve for Z is taller at the Centre than the density curve for T.
(B) Thetdistributionshavemoreareainthetailsthanthestandardnormaldistribution.
(C) In tests of significance for μ, Z should be used as the test statistic when the distribution of X is normal, and T should be used in other cases.
(D) As the sample size increases, the t distributions approach the standard normal distribution.
(E) In tests of significance for μ, T should be used as the test statistic when the population standard deviation is unknown.
44
25. A sample of five Major League Baseball games has a mean duration of 168 minutes and a standard deviation of 17 minutes. Game durations are known to follow a normal distribution. A 90% confidence interval for the true mean duration of all Major League baseball games is:
(A) (155.49, 180.51) (B) (154.18, 181.82) (C) (153.10, 182.90) (D) (152.68, 183.32) (E) (151.79, 184.21)
26. We would like to conduct a hypothesis test at the 10% level of significance to determine whether the true mean score of all players in a bowling league differs from 150. The mean and standard deviation of the scores of 12 randomly selected players are calculated to be 170 and 16, respectively. Scores of all players in the league are known to follow a normal distribution. The P-value of the appropriate test of significance is:
(A) between 0.0005 and 0.001. (B) between 0.001 and 0.002. (C) between 0.0025 and 0.005. (D) between 0.005 and 0.01. (E) between 0.01 and 0.02.
27. For which of the following situations is a matched pairs t test appropriate? (Assume all appropriate normality conditions are satisfied.) A researcher wants to know:
(I) whether hypnosis reduces pain. 20 volunteers place their hand in ice water and the time until the pain is unbearable is recorded. They are hypnotized and the exercise is repeated.
(II) whether Shell sells more gasoline than Petro Canada. The weekly gas sales are recorded for samples of 5 Shell gas stations and 5 Petro Canada gas stations.
(III) whether husbands spend more household money than wives on average. The amount spent on the husband’s credit card and wife’s credit card are compared for a sample of 10 married couples.
(A) I only (B) III only (C) I and II (D) I and III (E) II and III
45
On the evening news, a reporter states, “In a recent poll of likely voters, 50% of respondents indicated that they plan to support the Conservative Party in the upcoming provincial election. The results are accurate to within 3.1%, 19 times out of 20”. What sample size was used for the survey?
(A) 600 (B) 800 (C) 1,000 (D) 1,200 (E) 1,400
We would like to estimate some population proportion p. We take a random sample of n individuals and calculate an 80% confidence interval for p to be (0.33, 0.37). Using the same sample, which of the following could be a 99% confidence interval for p?
(A) (0.36, 0.38) (B) (0.32, 0.40) (C) (0.34, 0.36) (D) (0.36, 0.44) (E) (0.31, 0.39)
30. We would like to conduct a hypothesis test at the 5% level of significance to determine whether the true proportion of Canadians who support Prime Minister Justin Trudeau differs from 0.50. In a random sample of 300 Canadians, 165 of them say they support the prime minister. The correct conclusion is to:
(A) reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0418.
(B) fail to reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0836. (C) fail to reject H0, since the P-value is 0.9582. (D) reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0836.
(E) fail to reject H0, since the P-value is 0.0418.
46
Sample Final Exam 4 Part B
1. A student driving to university must pass through two sets of traffic lights. The first set of lights is green 50% of the time, yellow 10% of the time, and red 40% of the time. The second set of lights is green 60% of the time, yellow 10% of the time, and red 30% of the time. It is also known that the lights function independently.
2.
(a) The outcome of interest is the colour of each of the two lights when the student ar- rives at the intersections. List the complete sample space of outcomes, and calculate the probability of each.
(b) What is the probability that both sets of lights are the same colour when the student arrives at the respective intersections?
(c) What is the probability that the first light is green or the second light is red?
(d) Let X be the number of red lights encountered by the student on her way to
university. Find the probability distribution of X.
(a) List the four conditions of the binomial setting.
(b) Heights of professional basketball players follow a normal distribution with mean 196 cm and standard deviation 8 cm. What proportion of professional basketball players are taller than 200 cm?
(c) If we take a random sample of ten professional basketball players, what is the probability that exactly four of them are taller than 200 cm?
(a) Give the definition of a lurking variable.
(b) Give the definition of a simple random sample.
(c) Explain the difference between a statistic and a parameter. Give three examples of each.
(d) Explain the difference between two events being mutually exclusive and two events being independent.
(e) Explain what it means for a result to be statistically significant.
3.
One measure of the quality of education provided by a university is the number of students per class. A random sample of 30 third-year classes is selected at a large university. The number of students in each of the classes are ordered and shown below:
10 11 14 14 15 17 18 20 22 22 22 23 26 26 27 28 31 33 34 34 36 42 44 49 50 55 62 68 77 82
From these data, the sample mean is calculated to be 33.73. The population standard deviation of class sizes is known to be 18.50.
(a) Construct a histogram for this data set. What is the shape of the distribution of class sizes for this sample?
(b) We would like to estimate and conduct a hypothesis test for the true mean class size of all third-year classes at the university. Despite the fact that class size does not appear to follow a normal distribution, explain why it is nevertheless appropriate to use inference methods which rely on the assumption of normality.
(c) Construct a 99% confidence interval for the true mean class size of all third-year classes at this university.
(d) Provide an interpretation of the confidence interval in (c).
(e) Conduct an appropriate hypothesis test at the 1% level of significance to determine whether there is evidence that the true mean third-year class size at this university differs from the national average of 40. Show all of your steps.
Sixteen people (eight males and eight females) volunteered to be part of an experiment. All 16 people were between the ages of 25 and 35. The question of interest in this experiment was whether females receive faster service at nightclubs than males. Each of the eight male participants was randomly assigned a bar, and each of the eight females was randomly assigned to one of these same eight bars. One Friday night, all 16 people went out to the bar. The male and female assigned to the same bar would arrive within five minutes of each other. Each person then waited at the bar and ordered a similar drink. The time (in seconds) until the drink was served was recorded. Some information that may be helpful is shown below:
Females mean = 275 std. dev. = 37
Males mean = 302 std. dev. = 48
Difference (d = F−M) mean =−27
std. dev. = 29
(a) Conduct an appropriate hypothesis test, at the 1% level of significance. Show all of your steps, including the statement of hypotheses, the calculation of the appropriate test statistic and P-value, and a carefully-worded conclusion.
(b) Provide an interpretation of the P-value of the test in (a).
48
Sample Final Exam Answers Part A
Question Sample Final 1 Sample Final 2 Sample Final 3 Sample Final 4
1 C C B E
2 B B D B
3 A B D E
4 E B C E
5 D C E A
6 C E C E
7 B E A C
8 A D D C
9 D E E D
10 E A D D
11 D D E A
12 D C A A
13 C D B C
14 A C E C
15 E D E B
16 A B C A
17 E E B D
18 C C A E
19 E D D E
20 D A B B
21 E B A B
22 A D B D
23 C C B D
24 B E D C
25 D C E E
26 A D D B
27 B D E D
28 A D E C
29 A A D E
30 E B D B
1. (a)
Sample Final 1 Part B Solutions
The minimum is 2.2 and the maximum is 11.4.
The median is in position (n + 1)/2 = (30 + 1)/2 = 15.5, so the median is the
average of the 15th and 16th ordered data values, i.e., (7.0+7.2)/2 = 7.1.
The first quartile is the median of all data values lower in position than the median,
so Q1 is in position (15 + 1)/2 = 8. Therefore, Q1 = 6.0.
The third quartile is in position 8 above the median (or equivalently, 8 positions
down from the maximum), and so Q3 = 8.0.
The five-number summary is: 2.2 6.0 7.1 8.0 11.4
(b) We calculate the fences:
LF =Q1−1.5IQR=6.0−1.5(8.0−6.0)=6.0−3.0=3.0
UF =Q3+1.5IQR=8.0+1.5(8.0−6.0) =8.0+3.0=11.0
There are two values less than the lower fence (2.2 and 2.8) and one value greater than the upper fence (11.4). These outliers will be plotted as points on the outlier boxplot.
The whiskers extend to the lowest and highest data values that are not outliers (the “new minimum” and “new maximum”), i.e., 3.8 and 8.8.
The outlier boxplot is shown below:
Excluding outliers, the distribution is skewed to the left. 50
(a) (b)
(c)
(a) (b)
When the age of a car increases by one year, we predict its selling price to decrease by $1,700.
We know that 81% of the variation in a car’s selling price can be accounted for by its regression on the age of a car. This is the definition of r2, so we know r2 = 0.81. The correlation is therefore
√√
r=− r2 =− 0.81=−0.90
Note that we take the negative square root of r2, since there is a negative association between the two variables.
The residual for this car is
yi − yˆi = 15500 − (18600 − 1700(5)) = 5400
S = {GGG, GGC, GSG, GSC, SGG, SGC, SSG, SSC, CGG, CGC, CSG, CSC} The probability distribution of X is as follows:
x0123 P (X = x) 0.336 0.452 0.188 0.024
4. The
variable X, when the sample size is high (we use n ≥ 30), the sampling distribution of X ̄ is approximately normal.
5. (a) (b)
(c) (d)
(e)
(25.87, 30.93)
If we took repeated samples of 27 trees and calculated the interval in a similar manner, 98% of all such intervals would contain the true mean height of all trees in the forest.
t = −1.57, 0.05 < P-value < 0.10, fail to reject H0.
If the true mean height of all trees in the forest was 30 feet, the probability of observing a sample mean at least as low as 28.4 feet would be between 0.05 and 0.10.
No
Central Limit Theorem states that, regardless of the population distribution of a
51
1. (a)
Sample Final 2 Part B Solutions
i. The factors in an experiment are the explanatory variables. There are two factors in this experiment – brand of toothpaste and type of toothbrush.
ii. Brand of toothpaste has two factor levels – Crest and Colgate. Type of toothbrush has two factor levels – regular and electric.

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iii. There are 2 x 2 = 4 treatments – Crest/regular, Crest/electric, Colgate/regular and Colgate/electric.
iv. The response variable is the health of the patients’ teeth.
v. The blocking variable is age (one block consisting of the children and the other block consisting of the adults).
Control is achieved by the comparison of the four treatment groups in each block. (Note that blocking is also another form of control. In this case, by using a random- ized block design, we eliminate the possibility of age becoming a lurking variable.)
Yes. Since this was a properly designed experiment using the principles of randomization, replication and control, we can conclude that the treatment was likely the cause of the observed difference in the response.
S = {WWW, WWB, WMW, WMB, PWW, PWB, PMW, PMB} The probability distribution of X is as follows:
(b)
(c)
2. (a) (b)
3. (a) (b) (c) (d)
x0123 P (X = x) 0.024 0.188 0.452 0.336
5.235 0.1587 0.0793 exact
52
4. (a) (b)
(c) (d)
(e)
(2.91, 3.33)
If we took repeated samples of 20 students at the university and calculated the interval in a similar manner, 95% of such intervals would contain the true mean GPA of all students at the university.
z = 1.14, P-value = 0.2542, fail to reject H0.
If the true mean GPA of all students at the university was 3.00, the probability of
observing a sample mean at least as extreme as 3.12 would be 0.2542. Yes. Fail to reject H0.
53
1. (a)
Sample Final 3 Part B Solutions
The fraction of the variation in test score that can be accounted for by its regression on number of drinks consumed is, by definition, r2. Here, r2 = (−0.869)2 = 0.755.
(b) The slope of the least squares regression line is
sy 25.07
b1 =rs =−0.869 2.61 =−8.347
x
The intercept of the least squares regression line is
b0 = y ̄ − b1x ̄ = 64 − (−8.347)(4) = 97.388
The equation of the least squares regression line is yˆ = 97.388 − 8.347x. (c) The predicted test score for a subject who consumes 5 drinks is
yˆ = 97.388 − 8.347(5) = 55.653
(d) The predicted test score for a subject who consumes 11 drinks is
yˆ = 97.388 − 8.347(11) = 5.571
(e) The prediction for the subject who consumed 5 drinks is more reliable, since the value x = 11 falls outside the range of x-values in our sample. Predicting the test score for the subject who consumed 11 drinks is extrapolating.
54
2. (a) (b)
(c)
(d)
3. (a) (b)
0.37
A and B are not mutually exclusive. B and C are not mutually exclusive. A and C are mutually exclusive.
A and B are not independent. A and C are not independent. B and C are not independent.
0.46
(933.9, 1066.1)
If we took repeated samples of size 30 and calculated the interval in a similar manner, 93% of all such intervals would contain the true mean size of all two- bedroom apartments in Winnipeg.
4. t = 2.35, 0.02 < P-value < 0.04, reject H0.
5. (a) (b) (c)
(0.1671, 0.2329)
z = −2.31, P-value = 0.0104, reject H0.
If the true proportion of Canadians who supported Donald Trump was 0.25, the probability of observing a sample proportion at least as low as 0.20 would be 0.0104.
55
1. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a)
(b) (c)
(a)
(b)
(c)
Sample Final 4 Part B Solutions
S= {GG, GY, GR, YG, YY, YR, RG, RY, RR}
0.43
0.65
The probability distribution of X is as follows: x012
P (X = x) 0.42 0.46 0.12
A binomial experiment is one for which the following four conditions are satisfied:
There is a fixed number of trials n.
There are only two possible outcomes of interest for each trial – a success or a failure.
The outcome of one trial is independent of any other.
The probability of success p is constant from trial to trial.
0.3085 0.2080
A lurking variable is one that explains the relationship between variables in a study, but is not included in the study itself.
A simple random sample of size n is one that is chosen in such a way that all possible groups of n individuals have the same chance of being chosen.
A statistic is a number that describes a sample. Examples of statistics include the sample mean x ̄, the sample standard deviation s and a sample proportion pˆ. A parameter is a number that describes an entire population. Examples of parameters include the population mean μ, the population standard deviation σ and a population proportion p.
56
4. (a)
From a histogram of the data, we see the distribution of class sizes for this sample is skewed to the right.
5. (a)
t = −2.63, 0.01 < P-value < 0.02, fail to reject H0.
Note that n = 8 (and not 16), as n is the number of pairs.
(d) Two events that are mutually exclusive have no outcomes in common (i.e., they cannot both occur at the same time). Two events that are independent can both occur at the same time, but the outcome of one does not affect the outcome of the other.
(e) Statistical significance is a difference so large that it would rarely be observed by chance alone. We say that the results of a hypothesis test are statistically significant when the P-value ≤ α and we reject H0.
(b) Although it does not appear that the population distribution of class sizes is normally distributed, the Central Limit Theorem tells us that since the sample size is high (we use n ≥ 30), the sampling distribution of the sample mean X ̄ is approximately normal.
(c) (25.03, 42.43)
(d) If we took repeated samples of 30 classes and calculated the interval in a similar manner, 99% of such intervals would contain the true mean class size of all third-year classes at the university.
(e) z = −1.86, P-value = 0.0628, fail to reject H0.
(b) If the service time in nightclubs was the same on average for males and females, the probability of observing a sample mean difference at least as low as −27 would be between 0.01 and 0.02.

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Question 8: Science

UNIT 1.0: Human-Environment Interactions 1
Introduction: Human-Environment Interactions 1.1 The Environment and Environmental Sciences 1.2 Over-Population and Over-Consumption As Central Themes in Human Resource Demands 1.3 Sustainable Development 1.4 Using Science to Describe and Evaluate the Environment Conclusions UNIT 2.0: Ecosystem Dynamics 2 Introduction: Ecosystem Dynamics 2.1 Ecology and Ecosystems 2.2 Systems Theory and Feedback 2.3 Energy Flow in Ecosystems 2.4 Material Cycling in Ecosystems – Biogeochemical Cycles 2.5 Biotic Interactions and Their Influences on the Ecosystem 2.6 Population Dynamics Conclusions UNIT 3.0: Managing Ecosystems for Sustainability 3 Introduction: Managing Ecosystems for Sustainability 3.1 Ecosystem Management 3.2 Parks and Protected Areas 3.3 Sustainable Forestry 3.4 Biodiversity – Alien Invasive Species and Species at Risk 3.5 Sustainable Agriculture and Soil Conservation Conclusions UNIT 4.0: Water Resources and Their Management 4 Introduction: Water Resources and Their Management 4.1 Properties of Water 4.2 Water Quantity and Conservation 4.3 Water Quality 4.4 Water Treatment and Pollution Prevention Conclusions UNIT 5.0: Earth’s Climate System and Climate Change 5 Introduction: Earth’s Climate System and Climate Change 5.1 Earth’s Climate System and Energy Budget 5.2 Arctic Amplification and Climate Change in Canada 5.3 Canada’s Climate Change Plan Conclusions UNIT 6.0: Ecotoxicology 6 Introduction: Ecotoxicology 6.1 What is Ecotoxicology? 6.2 Features and Fate of Toxins 6.3 Toxins and Pest Management 6.4 Risk Assessment 6.5 Case Studies in Ecotoxicology Conclusions

Question 9: Health Care

For this assessment, you will report on the information that you collected in your interview, analyzing the interview data and identifying a past or current issue that would benefit from an interdisciplinary approach. This could be an issue that has not been addressed by an interdisciplinary approach or one that could benefit from improvements related to the interdisciplinary approach currently being used. Additionally, you will start laying the foundation for your Interdisciplinary Plan Proposal (Assessment 3) by researching potential change theories, leadership strategies, and collaboration approaches that could be relevant to issue you have identified. Additionally, be sure to address the following, which corresponds to the grading criteria in the scoring guide. Please study the scoring guide carefully so you understand what is needed for a distinguished score. Summarize an interview focused on past or current issues at a health care organization. Identify an issue from an interview for which an evidence-based interdisciplinary approach would be appropriate. Describe potential change theories and a leadership strategy that could inform an interdisciplinary solution to an organizational issue. Describe collaboration approaches from the literature that could facilitate establishing or improving an interdisciplinary team to address an organizational issue.

Interdisciplinary Plan Proposal
Write a brief introduction (2 to 3 sentences) to your proposal that outlines the issue you are attempting to solve, the part of the organization in which the plan would be carried out, and the desired outcome. This will set the stage for the sections below.
Objective
Describe what your plan will do and what you hope it will accomplish in one or two succinct sentences. Also, comment on how the objective, if achieved, will improve organizational or patient outcomes. For example:
Test a double-loop feedback model for evaluating new product risk with a small group of project managers with the goal of reducing the number of new products that fail to launch. This objective is aligned to the broader organizational goal of becoming more efficient taking products to market and, if successful, should improve outcomes by reducing waste.
Questions and Predictions
For this section ask yourself 3 to 5 questions about your objective and your overall plan. Make a prediction for each question by answering the question you posed. This helps you to define the important aspects of your plan as well as limit the scope and check its ability to be implemented.
For example:
1. How much time will using a double-loop feedback model add to a project manager’s workload?
a. At first, it will likely increase their workloads by 5 to 10 percent. However, as the process is refined and project managers become more familiar and efficient, that percentage will decrease.
Change Theories and Leadership Strategies
For this section, you may wish to draw upon the research you did regarding change theories and leadership for the Interview and Interdisciplinary Issue Identification assessment. The focus of this section is how those best practices will create buy-in for the project from an interdisciplinary team, improve their collaboration, and/or foster the team’s ability to implement the plan. Be sure that you are including at least one change theory and at least one leadership strategy in your explanation. Always remember to cite your sources; direct quotes require quotation marks and a page or paragraph number to be included in the citation.
Another way to approach your explanations in this section is to think through the following:
• What is the theory or strategy?
• How will it likely help an interdisciplinary team to collaborate, implement, and/or buy in to the project plan?
o Make sure to frame this explanation within the organizational context of the proposed plan, that is, your interviewee’s organization.
Team Collaboration Strategy
In this section, begin by further defining the responsibilities and actions that represent the implementation of the plan. One strategy to defining this is to take a “who, what, where, and when” approach for each team member.
For example:
• Project Manager A will apply the double-loop feedback model on one new product project for a single quarter.
• Project Manager B will apply the double-loop feedback model on all new product projects for a quarter.
Vice President A will review the workloads of project managers using the double-loop feedback model every Thursday for one quarter.
After you have roughly outlined the roles and responsibilities of team members, you will explain one or more collaborative approaches that will enable the team to work efficiently to achieve the plan’s objective. As with the change theories and leadership strategies, you may draw on the research you conducted for the Interview and Interdisciplinary Issue Identification assessment. However, you are being asked to give a more in-depth explanation of the collaboration approaches and look at how they will help the theoretical interdisciplinary team in your plan proposal.
Another way to approach your explanations in this section is to think through the following:
• What is the collaboration approach?
• What types of collaboration and teamwork will best help the interdisciplinary team be successful?
• How is the collaboration approach relevant to the team’s needs and will it help drive success?
o Make sure to frame this explanation in terms of the subject of the plan proposal; that is, your interviewee’s organization.
Required Organizational Resources
For this section, you will be making rough estimates of the resources needed for your plan proposal to be successful. This section does not have to be exact but the estimates should be realistic for the chosen organization.
Items you should include or address in this section:
• What are the staffing needs for your plan proposal?
• What equipment or supplies are needed for your plan proposal?
o Does the organization already have these?
 If so, what is the cost associated with using these resources?
 If not, what is the cost of acquiring these resources?
• What access (to patients, departments, and so forth) is needed?
o Are there any costs associated with these?
• What is the overall financial budget request for the plan proposal?
o Staff time, resource use, resource acquisition, and access charged?
 Remember to include a specific dollar amount in your request.
After you have detailed your budget, make sure that you explain any impacts on organizational resources that could happen if your plan is not undertaken and successful. In other words, if the issue you are try to solve through your plan proposal persists or gets worse, what will be the potential costs to the organization?

Question 10: Science

Write about one of the following subjects: – intellectual property related to information technology OR – computer crime The paper should have an introduction, good and bad sides, conclusion. If you have an opinion about the subject, write about it. You can study a case to better describe the subject of your paper. Also if you have recommendations to fix any problems with the subject of the paper, include them. Avoid blogs because in most cases they are people’s opinions without supporting sources/references. Cite at least 3 different sources. Assume you are writing the paper for college students who don’t have a technical background.

Question 11: Biology

Choose a topic and write a brief (4-5 pages) review (formal essay format) of some scientific articles that relate to a topic covered in the human nutrition curriculum of Biology 102 *note the topic must be somehow related to human nutritional science – if you want to choose a research topic that involves research outside of humans – you must relate it to human biology in some sense.

This must include references to scientifically sound sources (peer reviewed journal articles), and these references must be cited in the correct scientific format.

* no data base links – (do not copy and paste from pub-med)
* web pages can be used as “supportive references” and must also be referenced correctly

Your analysis should include a summary of the hypotheses of the experiments, the results and discussion of the results and most importantly – your opinion of the study. Why did you find it interesting and what did you learn about the topic?

Use the knowledge that you have gained from Chapter 1 to convey the information in a way a scientist would understand.

Marking Rubric:

1. At least 3 scientific journal article references (other resources can be used to support your ideas) that convey different conclusions related to your topic. (1 mark)

2. A brief but well thought out description of the experiments and the results and conclusions (2 marks)

3. Your personal opinion about what the results mean, and why you chose to research this topic. (1 mark)

4. References are correctly formatted (both the embedded references in the text, and the full reference in the Bibliography) (1 mark)

Total = 5 marks

Chapter 1 in your textbook gives you information related to how science is done and how to think critically to evaluate scientific claims. Incorporate this material into your assignment and convince me that the information you are conveying is scientifically sound and comes from a peer reviewed source. An example of a database that will allow you to access these articles is:

(www.pubmed.com)

Your paper must be referenced in a scientifically accepted format (APA) – for an example: look at the format of the references included in the papers you have chosen, or the “endnotes” provided at the end of every chapter in your textbook.

Question 12: Biology

How do seniors with compromised sight/hearing navigate the city?] Describe the mechanics of normally functioning eyes… How does one see? (Biology) Describe the mechanics of normally functioning ears… How does one hear? (Biology) Describe (for your reader) how one uses sound and sight to navigate the streets of NYC. It may help to walk us through a route that’s familiar to you: like traveling from home to school. Explain how someone with limited sight/hearing could navigate that same route (Include your research) Conclusion

Question 13: Religious Studies

1. How and why would Matthew have edited Mark 6:45-52 contrasted with Matthew 14:25-27,32-33? 2. How and why would Matthew have edited Mark 9:2-10 contrasted with Matthew 17:1-13? Be sure to distinguish between paraphrase and direct quotes. Type a 350-750-word paper using MLA formatting. Make sure to use and cite these sources below: The Gospels by Barton and Muddiman (2010), p. 56 New Testament History and Literature by Martin (2012), pp. 106-108 Accurate use of English including careful documentation (including the ability to paraphrase and use quotations) and good organizational plan. 40 pts Adequate research. 20 pts Accurate and complete reflection of material read for the assignment. 40 pts

Question 14: Mathematics

Find the derivative and simplify completely.
1. 𝑓(𝑥)=√𝑥3−7𝑥+6
2. 𝑔(𝑥) = 𝑒sec 2𝑥
3. 𝑦=𝑙𝑛(3𝑥+𝑒−𝑥)4
4. h(𝑥)=𝑐𝑜𝑠4 7𝑥 √
5. 𝑦=cot(−2𝑥+𝑥4)
6. 𝑦=−2𝑥4𝑐𝑜𝑠3𝑥

𝒙 𝑓(𝑥) 𝑓′(𝑥) 𝑔(𝑥) 𝑔′(𝑥)
1 -1 -3 2 4
0 3 7 1 -3
7. 𝑑 (𝑓∙𝑔)2, Evaluate when𝑥=1 𝑑𝑥
8. 𝑑 (1), Evaluate when𝑥=0 𝑑𝑥 𝑓3

Derivatives Part 3

Select the best answer and place the letter in the space provided.
_________ 1. If 𝑓(𝑥) = csc(4𝑥) − sec(3𝑥2), then f ‘(x) =
_________ 2. If f (x) = sin2 x, then 𝑓′ (𝜋) = 3
_________ 3. What is the derivative of 𝑦 = 𝑡𝑎𝑛−1(cos 𝑥)?
1 _________4. If𝑦=(9−𝑥2)3, what is the
equation of the normal line at (1,2)?
Differentiate the following. Simplify as best you can.
5.𝑓(𝑥)=√𝑐𝑜𝑠(3𝑥) 6.𝑔(𝑥)=𝑙𝑜𝑔6(2𝑥4 +5)3
7.𝑦=𝑐𝑜𝑠−1(6𝑥2) 8.14𝑥+8𝑦2 +𝑥5 =12−𝑦
9. Consider the equation 4𝑦2 − 3𝑥𝑦 = −2
a) Find the derivative for the function above.
b) Find the equation of the normal line to the curve at the point (1,3).
c) Find d2 y at (1,3) dx2

Directions: use the space provided to answer the following questions. Be sure to show all work to be awarded partial credit.
1. Suppose the position equation for a moving object is given by 𝑠(𝑡) = 𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝑡 + 3𝑡 where 𝑠(𝑡) is
measured in meters and t is measured in seconds. Find the velocity of the object when 𝑡 = 𝜋. 3
Find the derivatives of the following. Simplify as best as you can.
2.𝑦= 2𝑥 𝑥3−3𝑥2 3. h(𝑥) = 𝑥3−1 3√𝑥
4. 𝑦 = −𝑥3 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥 5.𝑦= 5𝑒𝑥 2𝑥2−1
6. 𝑓(𝑥) = 3 sec 𝑥 sin 𝑥 7. h(𝑥) = (2𝑥4 − 1) (𝑥2 − 𝑥3) 𝑥4
8. Find𝑑3𝑦given𝑦=3𝑥4−5𝑥3+8𝑥−10. 𝑑𝑥3
9. Find the fourth derivative when 𝑓(𝑥) = 3𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥.
10.Find𝑓”(𝑥)when𝑓(𝑥)=√𝑥12 −𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑥−4

Question 15: Economics
Industrial Organization Econ 304
Problem Set 3
1. Assume that there are two hair salons located on Main Street which is 1 mile in length. Salon A which is located at the east end of the Main Street has a constant unit cost of $5and Salon B which is located at the west end of the Main Street has a constant unit cost of $10. There are 1000 potential customers who live along the street and they are uniformly spread out along the street. Customers are willing to pay $40 for a hair-cut that is done at their home. If a customer has to travel to get a hair-cut, then a there and back travel cost of $5 per mile is incurred. Suppose that each salon wants to set a price for a hair-cut that maximizes salon’s profit.
1. a- Salon A and Salon B choose their prices sequentially. Suppose Salon A chooses its price first. What are the equilibrium prices and profits? Do these two salons serve all customers?
2. b- Salon A and Salon B choose their prices sequentially. Suppose Salon B chooses its price first. What are the equilibrium prices and profits? Do these two salons serve all customers?

Question 16: Psychology

Instruction
• Choose 1 specific stage of the family life cycle and apply it to a specific family challenge.
• Next chose 1 type of family challenge/crisis and describe in detail how it will impact the normal development of the family life cycle in general and then for the majority of the paper drill down into how that 1 specific challenge/crisis will impact 1 particular stage of the family life cycle.
• You will research both the challenge and the life cycle stage and then report out on best practices and evidence based social work interventions with families.
• Finally, you will design a family therapy treatment plan (see syllabus page 11) and discuss the treatment goals, objectives, and techniques used in treatment if it helps develop a mini case scenario with a presenting problem related to the family challenge/crisis
• Some examples of family challenges/crises include but are not limited to: substance abuse of a parent or other family member, infertility, incarceration, re-entry into society/community from incarceration, terminal illness diagnosis, chronic illness, unemployment, natural disaster, death of grandparent, death of child, suicide of a family member, chronic persistent mental illness of a family member, immigration/deportation/detainment, relocation to another city/state/country, returning war veteran, active deployment, juvenile delinquency, disability new onset, child with physical or mental or cognitive/developmental disability etc.
*It must be written using APA format, 6-8 pages in length, and with a minimum of 6 references. GRADING RUBRIC FOR RESEARCH-BASED PAPER APA Format 10 points Use of scholarly sources (less than 10 years old) 10 points Proper length and number of references 10 points Clearly and thoroughly identifies the challenge area being explored 10 points Clearly and thoroughly explores each stage of family development and impact of challenge area 40 points Clearly and thoroughly describes treatment in specific stage 20 points Violations such as the absence of or minimal use of citations in the paper (a form of plagiarism) or in-body citations in the paper not found on the reference page or vice versa, etc. or any indication of plagiarism. Automatic “0” for the paper
Below here are the stages to choose from: The stages of family life
Stage 1: Family of origin experiences · During this phase the main tasks are: o Maintaining relationships with parents, siblings and peers
*Completing education o Developing the foundations of a model of family life
Stage 2: Leaving home · During this phase the main tasks are: o Differentiation of self from family of origin and parents and developing adult to adult relationships with parents *Developing intimate peer relationships. o Beginning work, developing work identity and financial independence.
Stage 3: Premarriage stage · During this phase the main tasks are: o Selecting partners’ o Developing a relationship o Deciding to establish own home with someone.
Stage 4: Childless couple stage · During this phase the main tasks are: o Developing a way to live together both practically and emotionally o Adjusting relationships with families of origin and peers to include partner
Stage 5: Family with young children · During this phase the main tasks are: o Realigning family system to make space for children o Adopting and developing parenting roles o Realigning relationships with families of origin to include parenting and grand parenting roles o Facilitating children to develop peer relationships
Stage 6. Family with adolescents · During this phase the main tasks are: o Adjusting parent-child relationships to allow adolescents more autonomy o Adjusting family relationships to focus on midlife relationship and career issues o Taking on responsibility of caring for families of origin
Stage 7: Launching children · During this phase the main tasks are: o Resolving midlife issues o Negotiating adult to adult relationships with children o Adjusting to living as a couple again o Adjusting to including in-laws and grandchildren within the family circle o Dealing with disabilities and death in the family of origin
Stage 8: Later family life · During this phase the main tasks are: o Coping with physiological decline in self and others o Adjusting to children taking a more central role in family maintenance o Valuing the wisdom and experience of the elderly o Dealing with loss of spouse and peers o Preparation for death, life review, reminiscence and integration

Question 17: History

250 Word Discussion Post on the Transition of Rome from Republic to Empire. Must be cited using Chicago style format, please see rubric before starting. 6. Discuss the transition of Rome from a Republic to an Empire. Is it even accurate to call Rome a Republic before the reign of Augustus? Or is it an empire in every way except for name? Hint: A Roman Empire is different than The Roman Empire.

Question 18: Sociology

In the first part of the term we went through the various perspectives on what the self/individual is and what society/culture is and the relationship between self and society (the individual and culture). We concluded that all the perspectives believe that we are a product of culture (they, of course, had differing views on the individual’s capacity to create society, etc..). 1)So start by simply summarizing this. Explain what culture is (define it and explain it. Use my notes and the textbook. 2) Next, explain how we are a product of our culture. Again, refer to my notes and the textbook. Here introduce your choice of the influencer. Briefly explain cultural values and norms that the influencer embodies. Depending on your choice, you may want to explain the culture industry and its ability to produce human commodities that others consume, etc… 3) If you are dealing with an activist you might want to discuss the political discourses that this person’s identity embodies. 4) Next, from the Foucault lecture on discourse and Mead and Cooley’s lecture, we looked more deeply at how the self is formed. I explained the I-Other relationship and how we need others to emerge as a self. So explain this. In other words, explain how we require others to mirror back to us who we are extra… 5) Next, once you have explained what culture is and how the self is formed…and you have introduced your choice of influencer, you need to begin to answer my questions. What values does the person embody? What do they represent? Etc… And explain who their followers are? Who is the audience and what are they embracing about this person? Who are the haters? 6) The next part is about globalization and the postmodern world. I posted some notes but will lecture on this with reference to your essays tomorrow. Basically, Postmodernity allows us more freedom in becoming our own unique selves. We interact with multiple cultures and multiple discourses and from these interactions, we create a unique self and are thus a complex configuration of identities. Here you will bring in your influencer and build your analysis. It is said that in the postmodern world cultural products, which include human beings, are a complex configuration of identities–a hybrid or fusion of multiple identities–and this has given people more freedom to become what we want to be. But we still have to appeal to the greater of society in order to be accepted or included. So you need to explore your influencer and come up with a conclusion of who they are and how they are an expression or reflection of the postmodern world.

Question 19: English

CG Assignment 2
Student’s name: Academic no:
A/Complete the sentences using must, mustn’t, can’t, could, might, have to, need to, needn’t (4marks)

1 We’re absolutely sure they’ve got our money. They ______________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
2 Perhaps she’ll arrive this afternoon. She _________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________
3 It’s impossible that they are brother and sister. They _____________________________________ .
______________________________________________________________________________________________________
4. We don’t have plenty of time. We ___________________________________________ hurry up.
5. You must keep it a secret. You______________________________________________ tell anybody.
6. I’ll be all right. You _______________________________________________ worry about me.
7. I__________________________________________ have bought eggs. We had some already.
8. He works away from home. He___________________________ drive 80 miles every day.

B/Respond to the statements or questions using the words in brackets. (3 marks)
1. I have just seen a bank robbery. (must, be frightened
_______________________________________________________________________________________
2. She walked straight past me without saying hello. (can’t, see) ________________________________________________________________________________________
3. The team lost 5–0. (must, play badly)
________________________________________________________________________________________

What would you say in these situations? (3 marks)
You have booked a seat on a train. You find that someone is sitting in your seat. Explain politely that the seat is yours.
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
You are in a hotel and you want to write a letter but there’s no writing paper in your room. You want Reception to provide you with some. ________________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________
Your friend feels he isn’t making much progress with his English. Make a suggestion to help him.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Question 20: Gender Studies

All papers need to have an abstract included

Based upon your research in this module and additional research you conduct:

1) what specific training relating to YOUTH in gangs is available to law enforcement or corrections officers? Present an overview of currently available training designed to teach law enforcement officers about youth in gangs (NOTE: G.R.E.A.T. is NOT gang officer training; it is a training for youth led by officers and should NOT be referred to). Listing names of training courses is insufficient; you must explain the contents of the training. HINT: search in government publications and state and national gang training organization web sites that list training conferences.

2) using theories and concepts examined in this module and your own research propose at least two (2) specific improvements to training police or corrections officers could use to better work with youth in gangs (more of the same training is not an improvement),

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3) explain how and why the improvements you proposed in 2) above can help officers work safer and more effectively with youth drawn to or in gangs, and

4) specifically explain in one paragraph how our university’s core value of RESPECT applies to specific contents of the textbook readings for this module and include a citation and page number.

Respect
Animated in the spirit of Jesus Christ, we value all individuals’ unique talents, respect their dignity, and strive to foster their commitment to excellence in our work. Our community’s strength depends on the unity and diversity of our people, on the free exchange of ideas, and on learning, living, and working harmoniously.

Your response should go beyond the obvious and be written at a graduate level. Your answer must be no less than 1500 words and you must use at least three authoritative sources to support your position. NOTE: the use of only three (3) authoritative sources demonstrates a minimum level of acceptable graduate level work and is not exemplary nor necessarily proficient.
YOU MUST ALSO ADD THE URL (Uniform Resource Locator) OR the DOI (Digital Object Identifier) to the end of EVERY APA reference found on the internet.

Question 21: English

Instruction
A poem consists of at least twenty lines. The longer the better (but not too long) The topic is on “ignorance is bliss”. It must cover how ignorance is bliss. I want as many allusions of current or historical social issues that touch upon the topic. plenty of poetic devices need to be incorporated into the piece. Also, the poem must be insightful and complex with a lot of ambiguity that can be deciphered.

Question 22: Religious Studies

Write four summaries of the reading from any four of the following chapters in Everyday Bible Study:
15. Observe: How to Make Accurate Observations
16. How to Use Multiple Translations of the Bible
17. How to Ask Key Questions
28. Interpret: How to Find the Meaning of the Bible
29. Correlate: How to Connect Scripture to Other Scriptures
30. Correlate: How to See Jesus in the Bible
31. Apply: How to Live Out What You Learn
32. How to Study the Old Testament Genres, Part 1: Law
33. How to Study the Old Testament Genres, Part 2:
Narrative 34. How to Study the Old Testament Genres, Part 3: Wisdom and Poetry
35. How to Study the Old Testament Genres, Part 4: Prophetic Literature
This means that in this assignment you are developing four summaries of 120 words each (one for each of the four chapters you selected). You should aim to create four summaries where each summary is between 100-120 words. Each of your summaries should not exceed the 120-word or $12 limit.

Question 23: Law

Essay on Biometrics and intersection with technology and law. Follow the outline and please should be well foot-noted!

Biometrics Now/Future/Ethics/Law
Introduction: Fingerprint recognition, voice identification, facial recognition, DNA matching, and signature matching are all forms of Biometric technology. These technologies aim to identify a person’s identity through unique traits and characteristics. Since biometric characteristics cannot be conjectured or stolen, biometric systems present a superior level of security than usual means of authentication such as passwords or pins.
1. Background
a. Timeline and brief history of biometrics – A.K. Jain, A. Ross, S. Prabhakar (2004), An
introduction to biometric recognition, IEEE Transactions on Circuits and Systems for Video Technology 14 (1) 4–20
2. Biometrics Today
1. Biometric technologies
2. Biometric applications
3. Recent advancements in emerging biometrics
i. Biometrics based on brain and heart signals – Vascular pattern based biometrics – Kauba C., Prommegger B., Uhl A. (2020) OpenVein—An Open-Source Modular Multipurpose Finger Vein Scanner Design.
3. Future of Biometrics
a. Second generation biometrical systems aims to scan intent – Sutrop, M. and Laas-Mikko,
K. (2012), From Identity Verification to Behavior Prediction: Ethical Implications of Second Generation Biometrics. Review of Policy Research, 29: 21-36.
4. Implications of current and future Biometric technology a. Threat to individuals and organizations
i. Dangers to owners of secured items
ii. Threat of privacy invasion
iii. Identity theft – Park, Eunice, Your Biometrics: Private or Not? (December 31, 2019). Orange County Lawyer Magazine, Vol. 62, No. 1, February 2020, at 32.
iv. Threat to companies for compliance
v. Wrongful accusations and threat of civil liberties if Biometrics mapped intent
5. Ethical Discussion of Biometrics
a. Possible Effects on Human Dignity – Alterman, A. (2003). “A piece of yourself”: Ethical
issues in biometric identification. Ethics and Information Technology , 5, 139– 150.
6. Legal Ramifications
1. Constitutional Law Considerations
i. Right to Privacy – Woodward J.D. (2008) The Law and the Use of Biometrics . In: Jain A.K., Flynn P., Ross A.A. (eds) Handbook of Biometrics . Springer, Boston, MA
ii. 4th and 5th Amendments
2. Laws Regulating Biometric Data
i. BIPA
ii. California Statutes
1. CCPA
3. The need for a global standard of laws that regulate biometrics – Pope, C. (2018).
Biometric data collection in an unprotected world: Exploring the need for federal legislation protecting biometric data . Journal of Law and Policy, 26(2), 769-804.
7. Conclusion
Question 24: Education

Mini Case International Financial Management Fifth Edition Mexico’s Balance of Payments Problem
Mini Case
International Financial Management Fifth Edition
Mexico’s Balance of Payments Problem
Mexico experienced larger scale trade deficits, depletion of foreign reserve holdings, and a major currency devaluation in December 1994, followed by the decision to freely float the peso. These events also brought about a severe recession and higher unemployment in Mexico. Since the devaluation, however, the trade balance has improved.
Investigate the Mexican experiences in detail and write a report on the subject.
· Mexico’s key economic indicators; BOP, the exchange rate, and foreign reserve holdings, during the period 1994-1995
· Causes of Mexico’s balance of payments difficulties prior to the peso devaluation
· Policy actions for prevent and mitigate the balance of payment problem and the subsequent collapse of the peso
· Lesson from the Mexican experience that may be useful for other developing countries

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Question 25: Sociology
1.
a. What is the difference between the free exercise clause and the establishment clause?

b. What limitations exists on religious practices?

2.
a. What are three types of speech not protected by the First Amendment?

b. Why do you think the Supreme Court limits student speech more than the speech of adults?

3.
a. What are the requirements for a lawful assembly on private property?

b. For what reasons might the right to assemble be limited on public property

4.What kinds of clubs are not allowed in school?

a. Why do school officials have the right to limit students’ rights of assembly?

1. Is a trained dogs sniff of someone or something a search of that person or thing? Explain why or why not.
2. Do you agree with the majority of the Court in the Caballes case or with the dissenting opinions? Explain why.

3. Would your opinion in the Caballes case be different if it had involved a bomb-sniffing dog instead? Explain.

1.
a. What is the plain view doctrine?
b. In what situations can police conduct a search warrant?
c. Should searches of motor vehicles require police to have a warrant?
2.
a. What is cyber-surveillance?

b. What do you think is the most important factor in deciding whether a search is reasonable?
3.
a. Why is it possible for people to agree on a fundamental value such as the right to privacy but disagree over the meaning of that right in specific situations?

Question 26: Law

This is an exercise in legal problem solving. This assessment task covers material taught in Contracts I and II only.

Assessment tasks exist to help students learn and apply their knowledge. Grades exist to show how fully this goal is attained.
This assessment task must be the student’s own understanding and effort. If the words or ideas used are not your own, then you must correctly reference them using the Harvard/WesternSydU referencing style.
Requests for extensions will only be considered in the most extraordinary circumstances. If you make such a request, you must attach all work done to date on this task to your email, otherwise it will be automatically declined and you will then need to file an application for special consideration. Late penalties will apply to a submission made after the due date without an extension – 10% of total marks per day or part thereof. You should upload your completed work as soon as you are able, without waiting for an email from the unit coordinator granting or declining an extension or for an outcome on your special consideration application, as the Easter public holidays will occur just after submission so your request will not be dealt with until the Tuesday, some 4 days after the due time for submission, or even later.

A deferred assessment task might be granted as a result of your application for special consideration. If so, it will take the form of a 2 hour open book online exam. This will be held after the teaching is finished but before the final exam.

This assessment task is designed to address student learning outcomes 1–4 for the unit:

INSTRUCTIONS:

· Before submitting your Essay, it should be spell-checked and read aloud to check for grammatical errors and/or run through the grammar-checking tool in MS Word.
• Answer all questions.
• Word limit: 1500 words for the entire task, excluding your Reference List. This is a strict word count, you cannot exceed this count, therefore no +10% permitted. The penalty for exceeding the word limit is 1 mark per 100 words or part thereof.
· Do not attach a cover sheet, as this is built into the Turnitin system. If you do this will impact upon your Originality Report, your word count, and your privacy.
• Format: Double spaced, Arial 12 point, MS Word document. If you do not use a Word document we will not be able to view and mark it. Please note you can download the MSWord App for iPads free via App Store.
• If you have a question about this assessment task, please read the Learning Guide and these instructions, before posting a question to the Discussion Board on vUWS. Do not email the unit coordinator unless your enquiry is of a personal nature. Using the Discussion Board means that every student has the benefit of access to the answers to questions about the assessment task, which is a fairer system for everyone. Do NOT post your actual responses to any of the questions, as this may involve you in possible academic misconduct. Also do not ask for help in identifying how to answer a problem.

QUESTIONS:
There are three questions in this assessment task. Students must answer all questions.

Question 1: 8 marks
Graham wishing to impress his friend Stacey, goes with Stacey to an antique shop. He inspects an antique dining table and asks the shop assistant the price. The shop assistant tells him that the price is $5,000. Graham says to the shop assistant that he will take it and gives his address to the shop assistant to deliver it to his home. Payment will be on delivery.
When the table arrives, Graham telephones the shop and tells the shop assistant that he was only pretending to buy the table and that he had no intention of going through with the purchase. The shop assistant tells him that Graham must pay for the table.
Is there a binding contract between Graham and the shop? Discuss this situation using case law to support any argument you may make.
Question 2: 5 marks
Andrew and Susan married in 2015 and lived together until they separated in 2018. After 12 months of living apart, they came to an agreement in relation to maintenance and property matters. The agreement was that Susan would pay Andrew $250,000 for his interest in their matrimonial home, and that Andrew would pay Susan $1000 per month to contribute to the mortgage payments on this home. Susan paid to Andrew $250,000 but Andrew refuses to make maintenance payments to Susan. Andrew argues that their agreement is not enforceable because it was made in a domestic context. Is Andrew correct? Explain your answer and indicate relevant authority where appropriate.

Question 3: 5 marks
Chris owned and raced some greyhound dogs, who were very successful on the track. Bruce wanted to buy one of them and breed with it. However, when Bruce approached Chris, Chris told him his dogs were not for sale. Bruce increased the price he was offering but Chris continued to say no.
After several attempts Bruce finally said to Chris that he was being a stubborn ox and that dogs can easily die if one was not too careful with what they fed them.
Chris started to fear for the safety of his beloved animals and himself, so he approached another dog owner, George, and offered to sell all his dogs quite cheaply provided it was a quick sale. George agreed to the sale and now has the dogs.
Chris regrets his hasty decision and wishes to set aside the contract for the sale of his dogs. What legal argument could Chris make to set aside the contract for sale? Is it likely he will be successful?

Two marks are specifically set aside for English expression and referencing in your answer. This is negatively marked, that is you will lose ½ mark for each error up to a maximum loss of 2 marks.
The marking guidelines are as set out in the Learning Guide: Students are assessed against those standards.

Question 27: Business
The final consists of 5 essay questions from Chapters 11-15. Each response should be 150-200 content words and include references.

Question 1 of 5
Differentiate between the three types of bonds.

Question 2 of 5
Describe the five as they apply to human resource management.

Question 3 of 5
20.0 Points
Differentiate between transaction and translation risks. Explain how these risks affect firms and investors.

Question 4 of 5
20.0 Points
Differentiate between standardization, adaptation, and globalization. Provide an example of each.

Reference:

Question 5 of 5
20.0 Points
Describe and differentiate between the US GAAP and the International GAAP.

Question 28: Business

Introduction
½ a page. Introduce the small business (the name, main operations, target market)
P 1. Analyse key considerations for evaluating growth opportunities and justify these considerations within an organizational context.
You should include an analysis of key considerations for evaluating growth opportunities and justify them within the organization’s context. SWOT analysis; evaluating performance; business model canvas; Mckinsey 7S Framework.
P2 Evaluate the opportunities for growth applying Ansoff’s growth vector matrix.
Within the chosen small business, the risks of each option and how they can be mitigated.

P3 Assess the potential sources of funding available to businesses and discuss benefits and drawbacks of each source.
Talk about the long term (2 examples) and short term sources (2 examples), advantages and disadvantages of each source.

P4 Design a business plan for growth that includes financial information and strategic objectives for scaling up a business.
Must be detailed enough to show plans for growth and securing funding, set out strategic objectives, strategies and appropriate frameworks for achieving objectives.
P5 Assess exit or succession options for a small business explaining the benefits and drawbacks of each option.
Compare and contrast the options and make valid recommendations.
Decide appropriate course of action with justified recommendations.
Planning for Growth

You will prepare a report of a business plan for the growth of your simulated small business.
Use a standard report word-process and use a normal script of font size 10 to 11. Line spacing 1.5

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Question 29: Economics

Q.1 Why do national income accountants compare the market value of the total outputs in various years rather than actual physical volumes of production? What problem is posed by any comparison over time of the market values of various total outputs? How is this problem resolved?

Q.2 Why are only final goods counted in measuring GDP for a particular year? Why is the value of used furniture that’s bought and sold not counted?
Answer:

Q.3 What are the three main types of consumption expenditures? Why are purchases of new houses considered to be investment expenditures rather than consumption expenditures?
Answer:

Q.6 Which of the following are included in this year’s GDP? Explain your answer in each case.
a. The services of a commercial painter in painting the family home.
b. An auto dealer’s sale of a new car to a nonbusiness customer.
c. The money received by Smith when she sells her biology textbook to a used-book buyer.
d. The publication and sale of a new economics textbook.
e. A $2 billion increase in business inventories.
f. Government purchases of newly produced aircraft.

Question 30: Chemistry
1. Which is true regarding the seven crystal systems?
A) they completely define a crystal structure
B) they describe the shape of the unit cell.
C) there are 7 shapes that can completely fill 3D space through translational symmetry
D) all of the above.

2. Which of the following is NOT one of the 7 crystal systems?
A) Tetragonal
B) Rhombohedral
C) Trigonal
D) Face centered cubic

3. Elemental metals do not commonly crystallize in which of the following lattices
A) simple cubic
B) face centered cubic
C) hexagonal close packed
D) body centered cubic.

4. Which direction has the highest linear density in a crystal of Cu that crystallizes in the fcc? A) [100]
B) [110]
C) [111]
D) (110)

5. Which direction has the highest linear density in a crystal of Na that crystallizes in the bcc? A) [110]
B) [100]
C) [111]
D) (111)

6. In a BCC metal, the plane with the highest planer density is: A) (100)
B) (110)
C) (111)
D) (200)

7. The closest packed plane in a metal FCC structure is: A) (100)
B) (110)
C) (111)
D) (200)

8. Which is TRUE about Bragg’s Law?
A) It defines conditions necessary for diffraction in primitive cells
B) It is insufficient to predict diffraction in non¬primitive cells
C) It relates the path length difference between to diffracted beams to the lattice d¬spacing
D) All of the above

9. Which plane will show a peak on a diffraction pattern for alpha¬Fe (metal bcc structure)? A) (100)
B) (220)
C) (210)
D) (221)

10. Which of the following statements about vacancies is true?
A) vacancies are always present in materials
B) as temperature increases, the number of vacancies will increase
C) as temperature decreases, the number of vacancies will increase
D) vacancies are considered linear defects

11. The Hume¬Rothery rules give the conditions to be met for
A) Mixing between two elements
B) Assignment of coordination number
C) The existence of an impurity
D) Complete solid solubility

12.
Which of the following describe the defect represented by AlMg•

A) Aluminum vacancy on a magnesium site
B) Magnesium vacancy on an aluminum site
C) Aluminum substitution on a magnesium site
D) Magnesium substitution on an aluminum site

13. Which of the following could be used to maintain electroneutrality for the substitution of an aluminum atom into a magnesium lattice point?
A) For every two aluminum substitutions, create one oxygen vacancy
B) For every two aluminum substitutions, create a magnesium vacancy
C) Electroneutrality is maintained for this substitution
D) For every two aluminum substitutions, create a magnesium interstitial

14. Which is true regarding dislocations in crystals?
A) they are categorized as being two¬ dimensional defects
B) they occur only in metals
C) they can be described quantitatively by their Burger’s vector
D) cannot be readily detected because they are too small.

15. Twin boundaries, grain boundaries, and stacking faults all represent which kind of defect?
A) Types of dislocations
B) Two dimensional defects
C) Linear defects
D) Point defects

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16. Which of the following statements describes Fick’s first law?
A) the diffusivity is proportional to the concentration gradient
B) the net mass flux is proportional to the diffusivity
C) the flux is described by the error function
D) the diffusivity is thermally activated

17. Diffusion in a solid
A) is facilitated by point defects such as vacancies
B) is a function of temperature
C) requires a concentration gradient,
D) all of the above.

18. A condition of non¬steady state diffusion (i.e. the net flux is varying with time) can be described by
A) Fick’s Second law,
B) the Avrami equation
C) an Arrhenius relationship
D) none of the above.

19. Diffusivity has units of
A) mass/time2
B) length2/time
C) mass/length2•time
D) mass length/time

20. Which of the following statements about diffusion is TRUE?
A) As the bond strength is increased, the diffusion coefficient increases
B) The smaller the diffusing species the smaller the diffusivity
C) As atomic packing factor increases, diffusivity increases
D) As bond energy increases, the activation energy for diffusion increases

21.

NaCl crystallizes in the Rock salt structure illustrated above. (the figure shows multiple unit cells together). Its x-ray diffraction pattern for lamda = 0.154 nm is also shown. The table attached shows relevant data for atoms and ions which you may find useful to answer the questions, 21¬24, below.
21. Consider NaCl as well as the compounds MgO, MgS, and KBr which also crystal in the same Rock salt structure. Which shows the ranking order these compounds from lowest to highest melting point?

A) MgS < MgO < KBr < NaCl
B) MgO < MgS < KBr < NaCl
C) NaCl < KBr < MgS < MgO
D) NaCl < KBr < MgO < MgS

22.
Refer to the picture in question 21. The peak for the (220) takes place at a 2¬theta value of 45 degrees. Calculate the lattice parameter for NaCl. The value of the lattice parameter is
A) 0.201 nm
B) 0.569 nm
C) 0.109 nm
D) 0.308 nm

23. Refer to the figure in question 21. The calculated the theoretical density of NaCl is A) 13.29 g/cm3
B) 1.05 g/cm3
C) 2.11 g/cm3
D) 0.527 g/cm3

24.
Refer to the figure in question 21. For a similar XRD pattern for MgS (with lamda=0.154 nm) at what diffraction angle (2¬theta) would you expect the first peak to appear?
A) 30.2 degrees
B) 15.1 degrees
C) 17.9 degrees
D) 35.8 degrees

25.

Refer to figures (i) – (ii) to answer questions 25 – 26 about the specific directions and planes depicted below using proper Miller (or Miller¬Bravais) indices.
25. Which choice indicates the three directions shown in Figure i?
A) (101), (111), (010)
B) [101], [111], [010]
C) [110], [010], [011]
D) None of the above

26. Which choice indicates the plane shown in Figure ii, in question 25? A) [101]
B) (110)
C) [110]
D) (101)
27.
Using a MgCl2 crystal as an example, Which of the following choices describes a Frenkel defect reaction in this material?
A) Null → VMg″ + VCl•
B) MgCl2 → VMg″ + 2Cli•
C)
Cl

MgCl2 → VMg″ + Mgi•• +2Cl x

D) Null → VMg″ + 2VCl•

28.
Using a MgCl2 crystal as an example, If the fraction of intrinsically vacant Mg sites in this crystal is 2.3 x10¬13 at 500°C and the activation energy for this vacancy formation is Ev = 2.3 eV, calculate the fraction of Mg vacancies expected to exist at 800°C.
A) 3.6 x10¬9
B) 1.1 x10¬4
C) 1.4 x10¬17
D) 4.6 x10¬22

29.
Using a MgCl2 crystal as an example, If the compound was MgBr2, how would you expect the slope of the curve to change in a plot of ln (fraction of intrinsically vacant Mg sites) as a function of 1/T?
A) Slope of curve would become positive
B) Slope of the curve would decrease
C) Slope of the curve would increase
D) Slope would stay the same

30.
Using a hydrocarbon gas to carburize the surface of a steel, we obtain a surface carbon content of 1.0 wt%. The initial carbon content of the steel is 0.2 wt%. How long would take at 1000˚C to obtain a carbon concentration of 0.6 wt% at a distance 1mm from the surface? Given: Do = 20 x 10¬6 m2/S; Q = 142 kJ/mol
A) 1.52 x10¬5 hours
B) 1.02 x107 hours
C) 15.2 hours
D) 10.2 hours

Question 31: Health Care

NUTRI 101 FINAL EXAM
Question1 What is the major monosaccharide found in the human body?
Select one:
a. glucose
b. sucrose
c. lactose
d. galactose
Question2 Which of these is a complex carbohydrate that cannot be broken down by the human digestive process?
Select one:
a. amino acid
b. simple sugar
c. starch
d. fiber
Question3 What is the purpose of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, 2010?
Select one:
a. to help people with specific diseases requiring special diet information
b. to provide dietary guidelines for Americans from birth to old age
c. to support the premise that nutrients should come primarily from supplements
d. to help Americans choose an overall healthful diet
Question4 How much moderate-intensity exercise is recommended in order to decrease an individual’s risk of chronic disease?
Select one:
a. 30 minutes per day
b. 45 minutes per day
c. 60 minutes per day
d. 90 minutes per day

Question5 What is an advantage of fat as a source of fuel for exercise?
Select one:
a. It can be utilized during intense, short-term exercise.
b. It is the most efficient fuel source for anaerobic exercise.
c. The body can utilize it quickly and efficiently.
d. It supplies more than twice the energy of carbohydrates.
Question6 In the human body, when is glycogen synthesis greatest?
Select one:
a. during sleep
b. upon rising in the morning
c. preceding strenuous activity
d. immediately following exercise
Question7 What is the first step in the production of energy from food?
Select one:
a. anaerobic breakdown of glucose in the cytoplasm
b. conversion of food energy to ATP
c. aerobic breakdown of nutrients in the mitochondria
d. anabolic metabolism of vitamins and minerals
Question8 A cell’s genetic material is contained in its
Select one:
a. endoplasmic reticulum.
b. nucleus.
c. mitochondria.
d. Golgi complex.
Question9 The primary functions of epithelial tissue in the lining of the respiratory tract are to
Select one:
a. facilitate communication with the brain and other organs.
b. support and protect the lungs, store fat, and produce blood cells.
c. hold internal structures together and facilitate movement.
d. secrete important substances, absorb nutrients, and excrete waste.

Question10 What happens in the human body when too much Vitamin C is consumed via supplements?
Select one:
a. It is stored in muscle and liver.
b. The body converts it to its active form.
c. It will all be used for metabolic processes.
d. It is excreted in the feces and urine.
Question11 What substances manufactured by the endocrine glands act as chemical messengers in the body? Select one:
a. enzymes
b. genes
c. hormones
d. proteases
Question12 What is the term for the partially digested food mixture as it leaves the stomach and enters the small intestine?
Select one:
a. chyme
b. bile
c. mucus
d. chyle
Question13 How does the body regulate blood glucose levels after a meal?
Select one:
a. Glycogen is released from muscles.
b. Epinephrine is released by the adrenal glands.
c. Insulin is released from the pancreas.
d. Glucagon is released from the pancreas.
Question14 Which of these is the only animal-derived food that contains a significant amount of carbohydrates? Select one:
a. beef
b. eggs
c. milk
d. poultry
Question15 Which enzyme breaks down carbohydrate?
Select one:
a. lipase
b. protease
c. amylase
d. dextrose
Question16 What product is formed as a result of the incomplete breakdown of fat when carbohydrates are not available to the body?
Select one:
a. glycogen
b. ketones
c. insulin
d. cholesterol
Question17 Which type of fats can raise the low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level in the blood?
Select one:
a. saturated
b. monounsaturated
c. polyunsaturated
d. essential
Question18 Which of the following is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease?
Select one:
a. HDL > 40 mg/dl
b. LDL < 200 mg/dl
c. total cholesterol > 150 mg/dl
d. blood pressure >139/89 mg HG
Question19 If a 100-calorie serving of food has 10 grams of fat, what percentage of the calories in that food is fat? Select one:
a. 90%
b. 70%
c. 40%
d. 10%
Question20 Plant proteins are considered incomplete when they are missing which of these?
Select one:
a. peptide bonds
b. gelatin
c. branch chained amino acids
d. essential amino acids
Question21 Edema can be caused by a lack of which substance in the bloodstream?
Select one:
a. cholesterol
b. triglycerides
c. protein
d. glucose
Question22 The enzymatic digestion of protein begins in the
Select one:
a. mouth.
b. esophagus.
c. stomach.
d. small intestine.
Question23 Based on the RDA, how many grams of protein would a healthy 125-pound woman need daily?
Select one:
a. 46
b. 56
c. 66
d. 76
Question24 Which of the following is closely correlated with an increase in basal metabolic rate?
Select one:
a. being a female
b. having a smaller body surface area per body volume
c. having greater lean body mass
d. undergoing an extreme dieting regime
Question25 Joe is 25 years old and weighs 154 pounds. What would be Joe’s 24-hour estimated basal metabolic rate?
Select one:
a. 70 kcal/24 hours
b. 1680 kcal/24 hours
c. 1848 kcal/24 hours
d. 3696 kcal/24 hours
Question26 Which term refers to the minimum amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest?
Select one:
a. basal metabolism
b. physical activity caloric expenditure
c. thermic effect of food
d. thermogenesis
Question27 What theory proposes that everyone has a genetically determined body weight that is maintained through internal controls?
Select one:
a. environmental theory
b. external cue theory
c. internal cue theory
d. set point theory
Question28 In which list are all of the vitamins fat-soluble?
Select one:
a. Vitamins A, B, C, D
b. Vitamins A, D, E, K
c. Vitamins B, C, D, E
d. Vitamins B, D, E, K
Question29 What is the primary role of Vitamin D in the body?
Select one:
a. to carry oxygen in the blood to the cells
b. to help regulate calcium and bone metabolism
c. to help regulate the heart beat
d. to act as an antioxidant
Question30 Where is most Vitamin A stored in the body?
Select one:
a. liver
b. kidneys
c. heart
d. small intestine
Question31 Which vitamin is synthesized in the skin with exposure to UVB rays?
Select one:
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B-6
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
Question32 Iron absorption is enhanced by the consumption of
Select one:
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a. eggs.
b. chicken.
c. peas.
d. oranges.
Question33 Why does an increase in energy expenditure require an increase in B complex vitamins?
Select one:
a. They provide minimal calories.
b. They are involved in carbohydrate, fat, and protein metabolism.
c. They have a high bioavailability.
d. They regulate calcium absorption.
Question34 What compound is necessary for the absorption of Vitamin B-12?
Select one:
a. intrinsic factor
b. insulin
c. Vitamin D
d. calcium

Question35 How does sodium maintain appropriate fluid balance in the body?
Select one:
a. In osmosis, sodium acts as the major positive ion in the extracellular fluid.
b. In osmosis, sodium acts as the major negative ion in the extracellular fluid.
c. In osmosis, sodium acts as the major positive ion in the intracellular fluid.
d. In osmosis, sodium acts as the major negative ion in the intracellular fluid.
Question36 Which mineral is important in regulating the human heartbeat?
Select one:
a. iron
b. potassium
c. sodium
d. zinc
Question37 Goiter is caused by a deficiency of
Select one:
a. fluoride.
b. iodine.
c. magnesium.
d. sodium.
Question38 While Jim was running a marathon he lost 2.5 pounds. How much fluid should Jim have consumed to prevent dehydration?
Select one:
a. 10-19 ounces
b. 20-39 ounces
c. 40-49 ounces
d. 50-60 ounces

Question39 Why does excessive intake of alcohol result in dehydration?
Select one:
a. Alcohol is high in calories.
b. Antidiuretic hormone is inhibited by alcohol.
c. Antidiuretic hormone is stimulated by alcohol.
d. There is a decrease in urinary output.
Question40 A decrease in urine output would likely be the result of a diet that is
Select one:
a. high in carbohydrates.
b. high in protein and sodium.
c. low in carbohydrates.
d. low in protein and sodium.
Question41 Which pituitary hormone signals the kidneys to conserve water by conserving sodium?
Select one:
a. aldosterone
b. antidiuretic hormone
c. glucagon
d. insulin
Question42 During which stage of the lifecycle can a prolonged deficiency in iron result in impaired cognitive development?
Select one:
a. early infancy
b. early adulthood
c. late adulthood
d. pregnancy
Question43 Which government program provides supplemental food vouchers specifically for low-income pregnant women and children?
Select one:
a. Child and Adult Care Food Program (CACFP)
b. Commodity Supplemental Food Program (CSFP)
c. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP)
d. Women, Infants, and Children (WIC)

Question44 Which is a symptom of anorexia?
Select one:
a. shame or embarrassment
b. fluctuating weight of ±10 pounds
c. erosion of tooth enamel
d. rituals involving food and exercise
Question45 Which statement describes a consequence of anorexia?
Select one:
a. The white blood cell count increases, leading to a higher number of infections.
b. Body temperature is lowered, which results in decreased metabolism.
c. The body conserves energy to combat semi-starvation.
d. Heart rate increases to make up for other metabolic changes.
Question46 Which of these is an effective means to reduce the risk of foodborne illnesses?
Select one:
a. Increase the use of antibiotics in animal feed.
b. Keep cold foods between 42-50 degrees F.
c. Keep hot foods between 90-100 degrees F.
d. Thaw foods in the refrigerator.
Question47 According to the Environmental Protection Agency, which of the following is a useful strategy for reducing the intake of pesticide residue from foods?
Select one:
a. Thoroughly scrub, rinse, and peel fruits and vegetables.
b. Limit the variety of foods eaten to avoid overexposure to chemicals.
c. Consume only larger, more mature fish and not smaller, younger ones.
d. Eat the outer leaves of compact leafy vegetables and discard the remainder.
Question48 It is unlawful to add any amount of a cancer-causing substance to food, according to the
Select one:
a. GRAS list.
b. USDA.
c. Delaney Clause.
d. Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.
Question49 Which of the following is an unintended effect of the use of pesticides in food production?
Select one:
a. decreased food production
b. shortened storage life of harvested crops
c. destruction of natural predators of plant eating insects
d. increased food costs
Question50 Which food should be consumed no more than once per week to limit the intake of mercury?
Select one:
a. pickled vegetables
b. shellfish
c. fried foods
d. swordfish
Question51 Which of these actions helps to decrease the risk of pesticide exposure?
Select one:
a. Remove skin from poultry and fish.
b. Store food at proper temperatures.
c. Use ground meat within 1 to 2 days after purchase.
d. Cook meats thoroughly.
Question52 Which of these pregnancy complications can be reduced by 50% if a woman is physically active during pregnancy?
Select one:
a. low birth weight baby
b. premature labor
c. gestational diabetes
d. cesarean section
Question53 The body’s need for iron increases during pregnancy because of the need to
Select one:
a. increase absorption of Vitamin C.
b. reduce nausea.
c. increase appetite.
d. synthesize additional hemoglobin.
Question54 It is recommended that a healthy woman of food should be consumed no more than once per week to limit the intake of mercury?
Select one:
a. up to 15
b. 16 to 25
c. 26 to 35
d. 36 to 45
Question55 After about six months, which mineral stores have been depleted in breast-fed babies?
Select one:
a. calcium
b. iron
c. magnesium
d. iodine
Question56 Why is it recommended that solids foods be introduced after six months of age?
Select one:
a. to prevent risk of choking
b. to decrease risk of food allergies
c. to meet increased caloric needs
d. to meet increased calcium needs
Question57 Which of the following can increase the risk of osteoporosis?
Select one:
a. higher lactase production
b. increased absorption of calcium
c. inadequate exposure to sunlight
d. increased vitamin D synthesis

Question58 What is one of the basic premises of the USDA/HHS Dietary Guidelines for Americans,2010?
Select one:
a. Most Americans can best meet their nutrient needs by taking supplements.
b. Adults should consume 8 to 10 glasses of water every day.
c. Nutrient needs should be met primarily through food consumption.
d. Weight loss is best achieved with a low-carbohydrate diet.
Question59 How does an active lifestyle help to slow some of the physiological changes that occur during aging?
Select one:
a. maintains muscle mass
b. decreases body water
c. decreases muscle elasticity
d. increases fat stores
Question60 Charlie is 75 years old and is complaining of problems with constipation. Which dietary recommendation may be appropriate to help Charlie establish more regular bowel habits?
Select one:
a. Decrease intake of sweets.
b. Increase intake of calcium-rich foods.
c. Increase intake of whole grains and water.
d. Decrease intake of fat.

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Question 32: Health Care

NUTRI 101 MIDTERM EXAM

1. Healthy People 2020 was designed to

Select one:
a. eliminate health disparities, improve access to health education and quality health care, and strengthen public health services.
b. disclose dietary practices that best support health.
c. prevent chronic disease.
d. eliminate dietary inadequacies and excesses, and to encourage healthful practices.

2. A ______ is generally a fake medicine used to disguise the treatments of participants in an experiment.

Select one:
a. placebo
b. control
c. case
d. Hypothesis

3. Which of the following are substances in plant foods that are not digested in the stomach or small intestine?

Select one:
a. Dextrose
b. Disaccharides
c. Dietary fiber
d. Simple sugars

4. A kilocalorie is a measure of

Select one:
a. heat energy.
b. fat in food.
c. nutrients in food.
d. sugar and fat in food.

5. According to MyPlate, consumption of foods from the Grains group should include

Select one:
a. an equal amount of whole grain and refined grain products.
b. at least half of the grain servings as whole grain cereals, breads, crackers, rice, or pasta every day.
c. only whole grain products.
d. a serving of grain products at each meal.

6. Which of the following is true about the way we should eat to achieve good nutritional status?

Select one:
a. Eat fruits and vegetables because we can get all the nutrients we need from these.
b. Do the best we can but take supplements to fill in the deficient areas.
c. Eat a wide variety of foods because no single natural food meets all human nutrient needs.
d. Eat only plant products because animal products are bad and generally filled with hormones for animal growth.

7. Compare the following menu to MyPlate and answer the subsequent questions.
Picture Using MyPlate’s Daily Food Plan for 2000 kilocalories as a reference, the Grains are

Select one:
a. adequate in number of servings but lacking fiber.
b. adequate in number of servings and fiber.
c. inadequate in number of servings.
d. inadequate in number of servings and fiber.

8. One cup of apple juice has 111 kilocalories and 1.4 mg of vitamin C. The same serving size of orange juice has 112 kilocalories and 124 mg of vitamin C. Which of the following is true regarding their nutrient density?

Select one:
a. Apple juice is more nutrient dense for vitamin C than orange juice.
b. To get adequate vitamin C while watching kilocalorie intake, it would be better to consume apple juice than orange juice.
c. Apple juice provides more vitamin C per kilocalorie than orange juice.
d. Orange juice is more nutrient dense for vitamin C than apple juice.

9. A compound that allows for communication between one cell and the next is a

Select one:
a. neurotransmitter.
b. neuron.
c. nephron.
d. Synapse.

10. ______ tissue is part of rigid body structures, such as bone and cartilage.

Select one:
a. Connective
b. Epithelial
c. Nervous
d. Muscle
11. A function of the large intestine is to absorb

Select one:
a. fats and proteins.
b. dietary fiber.
c. water and minerals.
d. proteins and carbohydrates.

12. Which of the following hormones corrects a hyperglycemic state?

Select one:
a. Insulin
b. Epinephrine
c. Cortisol
d. Glucagon

13. Of the following, which is a major source of sucrose?

Select one:
a. Alcohol
b. Fruits
c. Grains
d. Sugar cane

14. The most important long-term strategy for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus is to

Select one:
a. lose body fat.
b. eat regular meals.
c. maintains a constant ratio of carbohydrate to protein to fat throughout the day.
d. avoid sugar.

15. “Hidden” fat includes

Select one:
a. butter.
b. fat in crackers and other grain products.
c. fat around the edges of meats.
d. mayonnaise in potato salad.

16. Sometimes phospholipids are used in commercial salad dressings to suspend vegetable oil in water. In this case, phospholipids are serving as _______________.

Select one:
a. fat replacers
b. emulsifiers
c. thickeners
d. homogenizers

17. All of the following describe the characteristics of fat cells except

Select one:
a. the number of fat cells decreases when fat is lost from the body.
b. the storage capacity for fat depends on both fat cell number and fat cell size.
c. the number increases when storage capacity has reached its limit.
d. the body’s ability to store fat is limitless.

18. The child with kwashiorkor has all the following conditions except

Select one:
a. moderate weight deficit.
b. some visible fat stores.
c. edema in the abdomen and legs.
d. a skin-and-bones appearance.

19. An illness that results from a malfunction of the red blood cell because of an incorrect structure in parts of the hemoglobin protein chain is called _______________.

Select one:
a. marasmus
b. kwashiorkor
c. sickle cell anemia
d. megaloblastic anemia

20. The basic building block of a protein is called a(n)

Select one:
a. fatty acid.
b. monosaccharide.
c. amino acid.
d. keto acid.

21. A _________________________ is usually more accurate at estimating the number of calories you burn during a workout than are calorie estimators on cardio machines.

Select one:
a. bathroom scale
b. body fat monitor
c. step monitor
d. heart rate monitor

22. Which of the following is true about basal metabolism?

Select one:
a. It represents about 30 percent of total energy expenditure.
b. It is energy expenditure to maintain heartbeat, respiration, other basic functions, and daily activities.
c. It represents about 60 percent to 75 percent of total calories used by a sedentary person during each day.
d. It includes the energy used to digest food.

23. The Physical Activity Guidelines recommend that adults should engage in the equivalent of 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity each week for substantial health benefits. Which of the following statements accurately describes the physical activity required to lose excess body weight and maintain weight loss?

Select one:
a. Weight loss and weight maintenance will likely require more than 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week.
b. Engaging in 150 minutes per week of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week is adequate for weight loss and weight maintenance for most adults.
c. During a weight-loss program, physical activity should be restricted to no more than 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week to prevent increases in appetite.
d. Moderate-intensity aerobic activities are not adequate for weight loss or weight maintenance; intense activity is necessary to boost basal metabolic rate.

24. Beta-carotene is a precursor to

Select one:
a. vitamin A.
b. vitamin E.
c. vitamin C.
d. vitamin D.

25. High doses of vitamin D may cause

Select one:
a. excessive acne.
b. calcium deposits in the kidneys and other organs.
c. limb paralysis.
d. a flaky skin rash.

26. Soybeans, egg yolks, meats, and lecithin are sources of ______.

Select one:
a. riboflavin
b. choline
c. chromium
d. iodide

27. A niacin deficiency causes the disease _______________.

Select one:
a. anemia
b. beriberi
c. cheilosis
d. Pellegra

28.Some niacin is formed in the body from

Select one:
a. phenylalanine.
b. tyrosine.
c. tryptophan.
d. lysine.

29. A pantothenic acid deficiency

Select one:
a. is very unlikely because of its widespread availability.
b. is very likely.
c. occurs commonly in children.
d. occurs commonly in the elderly.

30. Which of the following is an example of a vitamin that is more bioavailable in its synthetic form?

Select one:
a. folate
b. vitamin B-6
c. vitamin E
d. vitamin A

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Question 1: Health Care

What policy should be Done to control immunization in Saudi Arabia?

Essay with introduction and 3 bodies and conclusion

Question 2: Statistics

The City of New Westminster is considering implementing a citywide ban on pesticides. Before
they implement this policy they want to get an idea of the percentage of New Westminster residents who would be in favour of banning pesticides. They randomly select 300 residents and find that 225 are in favour of a citywide ban on the use of pesticides.

(a) Construct a 95% confidence interval estimate for the percentage of residents in favour of banning pesticides (no statement needed). [7 marks]

Confidence Interval (Percentage, 1 decimal):____________________________________

(b) How many additional residents need to be sampled to reduce the margin of error (on the estimate of the proportion of residents in favour) to 2% at the 95% confidence level? [3] Additional:

(c) The City Manager also wants to estimate what percentage of New West residents are seniors and wants the error on the estimate is no more than 3.5% with 95% confidence. How many residents do they need to sample. [4 marks]
ANSWER:

(d) The City Manager also wants to estimate the average age of New West residents. The manager randomly selects 16 residents and obtains a mean age of 51 years and a standard deviation of 17 years. Assume the ages are approximately normally distributed. Construct a 90% confidence interval estimate for the average age of residents. [7 marks]

ANWER: (2 decimals):

(e) The City Manager wants to reduce the margin of error (on the estimate of the mean age) to 2 years with 90% confidence. What sample size is needed? Assume the sample
standard deviation is a close estimate of the population standard deviation. [4 marks

Question 3: Computer Science

Identify a data breach that has occurred in the Middle East. Briefly describe the organization whose data was breached and then answer these questions for each: 1- How did the breach get discovered? 2- How was the Incident Reporting (IR) process used? 3- How was the evidence handled? 4- What was the cost estimate of the breach? 5- What privacy data was taken or stolen? Your well-written report should be 4-5 pages in length, not including the title or reference pages. Use APA style guidelines, citing at least two references in support of your work, in addition to your text and assigned readings. You are strongly encouraged to submit all assignments to the Turnitin Originality Check.

Question 4: Geography

Write a research paper on a current issue using theory and concepts from economic geography. Topic: The University of Toronto is changing. International tuition is rising. There is a mental health crisis on campus where students are demanding improved services, program and policy changes, and increased material supports. Instruction is increasingly being carried out by sessional instructors, supervised by a growing amount of administrative staff. The province has clawed back funding and restructured student fees. Today, provincial support accounts for less than a third of the total university budget. To make up for this, the University has expanded enrolment in expensive professional programs and seeks to expand international enrolment. However the austerity does not seem to impact the enormous capital projects on campus, including the new AI centre. In what ways is the University privatized, neoliberalized and financialized?

Instruction

Organization: The paper should have a creative title There should be an introduction which outlines the argument and the paper, with a clear thesis statement and argument. Introductions should introduce the paper and the argument (not just the topic). This could be followed by a theoretical framework section that explores a relevant theory from the course or economic geography. The main body of the paper should be used to forward the argument. Use description to map out the connections between actors, spaces, power relationships and flows of capital. However, description is not enough, it is important to develop and forward the argument in the paper. The conclusion should summarize the main points of the argument. Use research and findings from the annotated bibliography. Tips: A successful paper will present an original argument of its own. It will use others’ work to substantiate its position. A successful paper will move beyond simple paraphrasing of research from the annotated bibliography, but will utilize these texts to bring original insight and data to course concepts. The paper should use course themes. Try to keep your paper narrowly focused, avoid broad generalization, being too descriptive, or overly comparative. Avoid simply summarizing the materials: try to find an original thesis that weaves your sources and data together. This paper should seek de-naturalize assumptions about people, places and processes. Why are some countries called “advanced” or “developed” and why are some are allegedly not. Critically think about why some workers and jobs are allegedly “skilled” and which are “unskilled”. Why is some work “innovative” and “creative” and other work is not. An important task is to determine who has power and who does not? Does an uber driver or student intern have the power that their employers have? Do consumers have the power that executives have? In other words, you do not want to naturalize hierarchies of class, race, gender and ability: your task is to disturb the simplistic story that suggests evolution from uncivilized to civilized, from backward to modern, from undeveloped to developed, from uncreative to creative. Developing the argument is more important than description Have an original title Use subheadings to separate ideas Paraphrasing and summarizing sources is better than directly quoting Focus on clarity, simple clear writing is preferred Presentation matters, make sure the document looks good Explore the history of the space or sector The network of actors involved and their power relationships The geography of work, capital, production, distribution and consumption The various cultural meanings and contested politics of the space or sector Requirements: 2000-2200 words (not including title page and bibliography, only the main body text) Minimum 4 scholarly sources (not already on the syllabus) Minimum 4 popular sources Double spaced, 12 point Times New Roman (or similar serif font) Cite all lecture material APA citation style for all in text citations and bibliography

Question 5: Chemistry

what happens to the particles of a solid as it becomes a liquid ?

how does the thermal energy of solid water change as it melt ?

Question 6: Engineering

Homework 3 Life Cycle Costing

100 points. Show your work.

The management of a Sports Stadium would like to install a new HVAC system. The size of the space to be air-conditioned is 20 million cubic feet. The costs are as follows:
- Stadium HVAC system acquisition cost: $50,000 per million cubic feet
- Operation and Maintenance Cost: $1,000 pe million cubic feet per hour
(2 points) What type of costing is involved here?
(8 points) Assuming a life of 15 years for the system, and 2,000 hours of operation per year, compute the total life-cycle costs. No present value calculation required.
Following is the cost break-down structure (CBS) for the development of a new grocery self-checkout system in a grocery chain. The Program Start Date is Jan 1, 2020 (to be used as present date for present value calculations). The expenditure date is given alongside each cost category.:
- Research and Development Cost: $200,000 (Dec. 31, 2020)
- Construction Cost:
  1. Procure Grocery Self-Checkout Systems (100 units @ $5,000 per unit) (Dec. 31, 2020)
  2. Installation Costs $25,000 (Dec. 31, 2020)
- Operating Cost:
  1. Labor Cost: $1,000,000 per year for 5 years, the first one occurring on 12/31/2021 at the end of the first year of operation.
  2. Energy Cost: $200,000 (same time schedule as Labor Cost)
- Maintenance Cost: $100,000 (same time schedule as Labor Cost)
- Retirement and Disposal Cost: $500 per unit at the end of the fifth year of operation, on 12/31/2025

Questions:

(40 points) Present the life cycle costs for the entire system listed above in a tabular form with the following details (as shown in Slide 24 in Slide Deck 7). Show the Present Value calculations for each year (cost break-down and total). Assume interest rate (discount factor) of 5%.
(20 points) If the grocery chain would have to borrow all the funds required for Research and Development, and Construction, for this system at 8% interest rate on 12/31/2020, and pay it back in 15 equal, annual payments, how much would the annual payment be?
(15 points) Draw the Life Cycle Cost Projection (bar chart as shown in slide 21 in Slide deck 7). You can do it by hand or in Excel and attach the picture or file.
(15 points) Draw the Program Plan as in Slide 23, Slide Deck 7.

Question 7: Economics

How does an import quota differ from a tariff? Do you know any differences between Tariff and Tax? Please explain in details types of taxes and tariffs. Can the government ever capture the tariffs or/and taxes? If so, how? Provide with real examples from Spain.

Instruction

The document needs to be done in APA format, with no plagiarism, conclusion, and opinions base on research. 2 pages.

Question 8: Sociology

You are a policy analyst for the Manitoban government in the Department of Education. The province has noticed that, since a new English high school curriculum was implemented two years ago, standardized test scores have dropped significantly across the province. Your boss does not know why and asks you to draft a research design to figure out why this is the case. Your boss tells you that the budget for this research is tight, and requests that you keep it as cost-effective as possible. using a critical case study and an interview research method how does the new English curriculum impact student learning?

Question 9: Health Care

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Using the Lesson Plan Activity Sheet Template below AND the example Activity Lesson Plan your instructor reviewed in class, create a Lesson Plan related to activity topic applicable to a classroom of 4-year-old children.

ECCE Activity Lesson Template

Student’s Name:

Book Title and Author:

Subject Area: Target Age of Group:

GELDS/CCGPS:

Instructional Objective: Children will

Materials and Resources Needed (Teacher Preparation):

Detailed Procedure (Include step-by-step directions):

Introduction:
Procedures:
Closing:

Evaluation/Checking for Understanding: (How will you know if they understand the concept and are ready to move on?)

Special Needs Accommodations:

Reflection: (Completed during Internship)

Question 10: General Question

NAPSRx Final Exam Solution Latest 2020

Question 11: Other

Two page paper on coronavirus pandemic The coronavirus pandemic has quickly become the main global issue and it’s hard to imagine an economic sector or geographic region that is not being directly or indirectly affected. One can read books on change management but arguably none of the authors would have expected or considered an external force of such scale, breadth, and speed. -Which industries are being hit especially hard by this pandemic? How are they currently adapting and what additional steps might they take to respond to this crisis? -Are there industries/companies that are better positioned to adapt to this new environment? If so, why are they more adaptable? -While a lot of the precautionary measures (remote work, online classes, social distancing etc) are being considered for the short term in order to ‘flatten the curve’, can you see some of these becoming long-term features of our work environment?

Question 12: Health Care

In 250 words, please discuss the following. Please make sure the answer relates to the question: Discuss how Biblical worldview might impact new-age leadership skills desired for the 21st Century workplace. 2. In 250 words, please discuss the following. Please make sure the answer relates to the question: Discuss how Covey’s three resolutions might be utilized by the Christian health administrator to lead change. 3. Please discuss in an 800 word response paper, APA format. Please avoid plagiarism and uniqueness. Papers must include a substantive elaboration on the topic as well as support from scripture. Do not use the question in your response: According to the course text, leaders should be focused on issues of “fit”. Discuss at least three of your personal leadership characteristics and evaluate their fit with the leadership skills needed in the emerging healthcare system. Covey, S. (1992). Principle-centered leadership. Los Angeles, CA: Fireside Press. Porter-O’Grady, T., & Malloch, K. (2015). Quantum leadership: Building better partnerships for sustainable health. (4th ed.). Sudbury, MA: Jones & Bartlett Learning. ISBN: 9781284050684

Question 13: English

How has your study of The Catcher in the Rye shaped your understanding of the role of literature in society?

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Question 14: Literary Studies

Should not be more than 2 pages.

Please read margaret walker’s poem from the norton anthology book, and analyze its content. After providing a brief biography of the author, what do you think the author’s intent of the poem is? What is the poem about?

Question 15: Health Care

Select a type of cancer (breast, lung, prostate, or colon cancer, melanoma, or any type of leukemia) and discuss the relationship of the disease process to the immune system. Identify current evidence-based treatment modalities for the selected cancer and discuss how the treatment impacts the disease process. Conduct an evidence-based literature search to identify the most recent standards of care/treatment modalities from peer-reviewed articles and professional association guidelines (www.guideline.gov). These articles and guidelines can be referenced, but not directly copied into the clinical case presentation. Cite a minimum of three resources. Include the following in your clinical case presentation: A discussion of the pathophysiology of the disease, including signs and symptoms. An explanation of diagnostic testing and rationales for each. A review of different evidence-based treatment modalities for the disorder obtained from guideline.gov or a professional organization. Next, address the following questions: How does the information in this case inform the practice of a master’s prepared nurse? How should the master’s prepared nurse use this information to design a patient education session for someone with this condition? What was the most important information presented in this case? What was the most confusing or challenging information presented in this case? Discuss a patient safety issue that can be addressed for a patient with the condition presented in this case. The use of medical terminology and appropriate graduate level writing is expected. Your paper should be 3–4 pages (excluding cover page and reference page). Your resources must include research articles as well as reference to non-research evidence-based guidelines. Use APA format to style your paper and to cite your sources. Your source(s) should be integrated into the paragraphs. Use internal citations pointing to evidence in the literature and supporting your ideas. You will need to include a reference page listing those sources. Cite a minimum of three resources

Question 16: Health Care

Discussion Prompt 1 Select one of the following discussion prompts to address: Describe autoimmunity and the process by which the body develops a hyper immune or hypersensitive reaction to its own tissues. Consider lupus. It has been found that those living with lupus are at higher risk for other autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis. Explore this interrelationship, known as overlap diseases, in the following website, Molly’s Fund and discuss the implications for care. Describe active versus passive immunity and provide an example of each. Define antibody or immunoglobulin and describe the five molecular classes of immunoglobulins and their function(s) in the body by providing a pathologic example for an increase of each immunoglobulin (e.g., IgE—parasitic infection). Why are some viruses inaccessible to antibodies after initial infection? Describe and discuss transmission, pathogenesis, clinical manifestations, treatment and prevention of HIV/AIDS. Use at least one scholarly source other than your textbook to connect your response to national guidelines and evidence-based research in support of your ideas. In your peer replies, please reply to at least one peer who chose a different discussion prompt. Discussion Prompt 2 Select one of the following discussion prompts to address: Describe how normal cells go through the process of transformation into cancer cells. How is this process different from DNA mutations associated with genetic disease? Review this article on genetics and identify how the mutations differ. Stress and Disease: Describe the physiologic effects on body systems of increased cortisol levels released during the stress response. Review the current research evidence from credible, scholarly sources and summarize the results of the effects and health risks of electromagnetic radiation (from cellular and cordless telephones, microwaves, computers, fluorescent lights, radar, and electronic equipment). Use at least one scholarly source other than your textbook to connect your response to national guidelines and evidence-based research in support of your ideas.

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Question 17: Law

Competency 1 – Understands the fundamentals of law and how the U.S. legal system promotes the expansion of commerce while protecting the rights of citizens and business entities. Paper: Analysis of the U.S. Legal System In this paper, you will discuss the historical circumstances that led to our nation’s current legal system along with the distinctive characteristics that promote the expansion of commerce while protecting the rights of citizens and business entities. Address the following questions: What major historical events and circumstances led to the development of the U.S. legal system? How did the Christian faith impact the establishment of the laws in the United States? How does the U.S. legal system promote the expansion of commerce while balancing the need to protect the rights of citizens and business entities? What do you believe should change about our legal system? Your paper should meet the following requirements: Your paper should be approximately 3 pages, double-spaced, but should not exceed 4 pages; 12 point font. APA formatting, including in-text citations, a title page and reference page(s). Minimum of four academic sources. Your course text can be used as one source.

Question 18: Health Care

Scenario: You work for the contracting department for a national payer that is working to convert its provider contracts to value-based arrangements. Your team is approaching large physician groups for reconstructing. Develop a 12-15-slide presentation with speaker notes to show the value of converting to a value-based arrangement:

Instruction

Explain value-based care. Explain how value-based care differs from a fee-for-service or a capitated approach. Describe why adopting a value-based purchasing arrangement would be financially advantageous for the physician groups and to the health plan. Include at least three references, including your textbook. Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

Question 19: Marketing

CRITICAL WRITING

Today, there is a great multitude and varieties of new products available in stores and online, from which consumers can choose. Think about the new products you’ve seen in the past two or three years, then choose a new product from any category.

Questions

How would you define the attributes and benefits of the chosen product?
Define the core, actual, and augmented product benefits.
Briefly describe the steps in the new product development process.
Each product will have a life cycle, although its exact shape and length are not known in advance. Explain each step in the PLC.
What are the dimensions upon which a company manages its product portfolio?

Question 20: Human Resource Management

Case Study

Imagine you’re the VP of Human resources for a Fortunate 100 company. You’ve spent your entire career attempting to enhance the workplace for employees to support their productive work in the organization. While you understand that bottom-line decisions often dominate many of the matters you have to address. You have worked hard to ensure that the employees were treated with respect and dignity in all interactions that affected them. You aligned the hiring process to serve the strategic needs of the organization, as well as implemented an effective performance management system. You truly believe in the progress you’ve made in helping the organization achieve its goals. You simply couldn’t imagine doing things differently. However, concern that the performance management process is becoming less effective because managers are inflating employee ratings has led 15 percent of all large organizations to adjust their performance management to what is frequently called “rank and yank”. Under such a system, managers are evaluated as 1, 2, 3 or 4, with 1 being the highest rating and 4 the lowest. In many cases, managers are required to give a 4 rating to the lowest 10 percent of employees each year. Those individuals receiving a rating of 4 for two consecutive years are often let go from the organization.

The intent behind this system is that the throughout the two year process, evaluators are to meet frequently with the four employees, counsel them and provide necessary development opportunities. Employees in organizations that employ such a performance management system often view this process unbearable. They view the performance management process as punitive, one in which the organization is attempting to rid itself of higher-paid older workers. In at least one case, Ford Motor Company employees have filed a lawsuit to stop this practice—and prevailed .Ford removed the punitive nature of its evaluation system—and focused it more on counselling and performance improvement of the lowest-rated employees rather than elimination from the organization.

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Source: Textbook- DeCenzo, D. A., & Robbins, S. P. (2013). Human resource management

ASSIGNMENT QUESTIONS:

What type of evaluation process would you say is being used in this case? Explain this evaluation process
What effect, if any, do you believe rank and yank evaluations have on managers? Do you see these effects as positive or negative? Defend your position
What role does such a system have in distorting performance appraisals?
Write your suggestions/opinions to create better performance appraisal system in the Organization.

Question 21: Communication

How the industry is reacting to COVID-19

The spread of COVID-19 is affecting the broadcast industry in many ways. Use the links below, as well as information you gather from news and industry sites on the web, as points of discussion.

I’d like everyone to make two posts:

Response to threat: How are networks/stations responding to coronavirus? Cancelling coverage, keeping employees safe, etc. Have you noticed any changes when watching television? What ideas do you have to keep employees safe?
Opportunities: How is the industry filling gaps? Live-streaming events instead of gathering crowds in person, etc. Do you have any ideas along these lines?

Then, please comment on three of your classmates’ posts. Note: you must make your posts before you can see anyone else’s replies.

Links to get you thinking:

https://www.sportsvideo.org/2020/03/13/coronavirus-hits-sports-studio-shows-fox-sports-suspends-production-accns-packer-durham-on-hiatus/ (Links to an external site.)

https://www.rtdna.org/article/coronavirus_and_the_newsroom_guidance_to_keep_your_team_safe (Links to an external site.)

https://www.newscaststudio.com/2020/03/14/tolonews-coronavirus/ (Links to an external site.)

https://www.mixdexhq.com/tv-news/cbs-sunday-morning-couldnt-produce-a-new-show-due-to-coronavirus/ (Links to an external site.)

https://www.newscaststudio.com/2020/03/14/inside-edition-deborah-norville-kitchen/ (Links to an external site.)

https://www.sportsvideo.org/2020/03/16/cbs-sports-will-pay-all-march-madness-technicians-and-utilities-including-freelancers/ (Links to an external site.)

https://www.wsbtv.com/video/local-video/behind-scenes-channel-2-showing-how-were-participating-social-distancing/J24KMA3I4B6KHB4C5UNTI5REIM/?_website=cmg-tv-10010 (Links to an external site.)

https://www.vice.com/en_us/article/akwa5j/cdc-tells-morticians-to-livestream-coronavirus-funerals

Question 22: Engineering

Writing research about (5G) for Digital Signal Processing class. Research should be 13-15 pages No plagiarism

Question 23: Communication

write a report of 10-15 pages that provides a literature review of the state-of-the-art of the Modulation and Coding in 5G networks

. Please make sure to provide all the supporting references and avoid plagiarism

Question 24: Business

Though each grant proposal differs based on the specific technology, program, or construction that is being requested, there are a number of common building blocks in each proposal. Describe at least 4 of the different elements below that are commonly found in grant proposals.

Assignment Guidelines

Address the following in 2 pages:
Thoroughly describe at least 4 of the different elements below that are commonly found in grant proposals, and explain their importance:
- Statement of need
- Description of existing system/program/technology
- Organizational capabilities and management plan
- Program narrative/project description
- Staff task loading chart
- Project timeline
- Budget narrative
- Evaluation of the program
- Travel policy
- Dissemination of the proposal
Be sure to reference all sources used in APA style

Question 25: Mathematics

1- Consider the following data:

Class Homework

t(sec)	0	0.1	0.2	0.3	0.4	0.5
d(m)	0	1	2	2.5	3	4

Use Richardson extrapolation method to obtain the highest accurate value of estimating the speed at t =0.2 seconds.

2- For the example in slide#18, find D(3,3) and compute the true error by finding the analytical derivative of f(x).

Question 26: Chemistry

What’s a saturated hydrocarbon?

Question 27: History

How did the sinking of the German ship Blucher influence the second world war?

Question 28: Statistics

An insurance company reported that, on average, claims for a certain medical procedure are $942. An independent organization constructed a 95% confidence interval of ($930 , $950) for the average amount claimed for the particular medical procedure. What conclusion best evaluates the truthfulness of the number reported by the insurances company?

With 95% certainty, the average claim for this medical procedure is $942.
With 95% certainty, the average claim for this medical procedure is not $942
The confidence interval is consistent with an average claim of $942 for this medical procedure.

Question 29: Business

Instruction

In 2000, the high flying company Enron completely collapsed taking venerable accounting and audit firm Arthur Anderson along with it. There were some warning signs, but right up to the end, an examination of the company’s financial statements showed a healthy company with no reason to be concerned. Of course, the numbers were fiction, as were many of the operations of the company itself. This meltdown ultimately led to passage of the Sarbanes- Oxley Act of 2002, which requires the CEO, CFO, CIO and all of their supporting managers to certify that the financial information being reported is correct and accurate. Penalties for failure to comply are severe. Plato wrote of the analogy of the Cave – prisoner’s only experience of reality is what they see reflected in the shadows on the blank wall in front of them. Think about the financial statements discussed this week. How are they real and how are they simply reflected shadows? And if they are simply reflected shadows, what do we need to do as managers to ensure that they are an accurate reflection of the business, and not just a shadow?

As was discussed last week, a manager’s primary goal is to maximize the wealth of a firm’s owners by increasing the value of his or her firm’s stock. Value is based on the stream of cash flows the firm will generate in the future. But how does an investor go about estimating future cash flows, and how does a manager decide which actions are most likely to increase cash flows? The answer to both questions lies in a study of the financial statements that publicly traded firms must provide to investors. Here, “investors” include both institutions (banks, insurance companies, pension funds, and so forth) and individuals. Thus, this week’s lesson begins with a discussion of what the basic financial statements are, how they are used, and what kinds of financial information users need.

The value of any business asset-whether it is a financial asset such as a stock or a bond, or a real (physical) asset such as land, buildings, and equipment-depends on the usable, after-tax cash flows the asset is expected to produce. Therefore, this week we will focus on the difference between accounting income and cash flow. Finally, since it is after-tax cash flow that is important we will briefly look at the effects of the federal tax system (Brigham & Ehrhardt, 2008).

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Introduction to Financial Statements

As mentioned above, accounting information is used to aid in the decision-making process and to measure the results after the decisions are made and implemented. You might say that Financial Accounting and the statements produced therefrom are the ultimate score keeping methodology in the business world. Accounting provides an important information base and a particular analytical orientation that helps the decision maker assess the potential financial implications of various business alternatives that are being considered.

The first known treatment of the subject of accounting was written in 1494, two years after the discovery of America. An Italian monk and mathematician Fr. Luca Paciolo, described an approach that had been developed by the Italian merchants of the time to account for their business ventures. Paciolo laid down the foundations of the basic “accounting model” that is still in use today.

The two financial statements that are of primary interest to us are the Balance Sheet (Statement of Financial Position) and the Income Statement (Statement of Earnings). The Balance Sheet is a statement of assets, liabilities and owners equity. The Income Statement describes revenues, expenses, and profit.

The Balance Sheet

The Balance Sheet reports the financial position of a business at a particular point in time. The accounting model for this document is:

Assets = Liabilities + Owners Equity

Assets are things of value owned by the business. There are several classes of assets:

Current Assets is a grouping that includes cash and other resources that are expected to be realized in cash or sold or consumed usually within one year – cash, short-term or temporary investments such as marketable securities, accounts receivable, inventories, etc.

Long-term Investments are assets the business intends to hold for the long-term – stocks and bonds of other companies, real estate, savings accounts.

Fixed Assets are those that have physical substance and that were acquired for use in operating the business – buildings, land, equipment, tools, furniture

Intangible Assets represent the value of intellectual property such as patents, trademarks, copyrights, franchises or goodwill. As you might guess this is a tough one to value.

Liabilities are debts or obligations owed by the business to the creditors. Here again, we have a couple of categories:

Current Liabilities are short-term debts that are expected to be repaid usually within a year. Some examples are short-term notes payable, accounts payable, wages payable, income taxes payable

Long-Term Liabilities or long-term debt are instruments like bonds or notes.

Owners Equity is a claim of the owners to the assets of a business (sometimes also referred to as partner’s equity or shareholder’s equity). The two general classes or categories of equity are contributed capital and retained earnings.

Most businesses, for-profit or not-for-profit, produce a Balance Sheet at least once per quarter, if not at the end of each month. This is an important tool both for managers and for investors (or donors) as it shows the overall health of the operation, and offers an objective basis for comparison, period over period or operation to operation.

The Income Statement

The Income Statement reports the results of a businesses’ operations for a specific period of time. This statement is simply a detailed explanation of the increases in Owner Equity represented by Net Income. The accounting model for this statement is:

Revenues – Expenses = Net Income

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Revenues are inflows of cash and other items of value received for goods or services rendered. Accountants recognize these occurrences in the period or time frame when a sale is made. Revenues can be in the form of cash, accounts receivable, certain rights gained, etc. They are most generally classified as sales revenue or service revenue.

Expenses represent outflows of resources for goods and services used by a business to earn revenues. The period in which an expense is deemed to be incurred is the period in which the goods or services are received. Examples of expenses are: cost of using equipment or buildings (depreciation), cost of components that are assembled to produce the saleable end product, salaries, taxes, rent, utilities, advertising, etc.

Net Income = the excess of revenues over expenses

Net Loss = the excess of expenses over revenues

Break-even occurs when revenues = expenses

Before we take a look at a sample Income Statement we need to define one more term-Gross Profit.

Gross Profit = Revenues – Cost of Goods Sold

(i.e., the expense to produce the saleable item).

This represents total income before deducting expenses.

In very simple form an Income Statement has this format:

Revenue – Cost of Goods Sold = Gross Profit Gross Profit – Operating Expense, Interest, and taxes = Net Income

Investopedia offers a clear and concise explanation of the Income Statement:

https://www.investopedia.com/articles/04/022504.asp

As with the Balance Sheet above, the Income Statement is produced at least once per quarter, and in most operations each month. This important tool allows management to evaluate the income and expenses for the operation. Management can then make decisions on costs, prices, expenditures, investments, etc. that may impact operating results.

Focusing on Free Cash Flow

The firm’s free cash flow represents the amount of spendable cash available to investors-the providers of debt (creditors) and equity (owners)-after the firm has met all operating needs and paid for investments in net fixed assets and net current assets. It represents the summation of the net amount of cash flow available to creditors and owners during the period. Pages 73 – 87 and 106 – 111 of Finance Basics for Managers (coursepack) give you more information on the importance of cash and cash flow to the business.

Again, from Investopedia:

https://www.investopedia.com/video/play/understanding-free-cash-flow/

Links to useful sources of Financial Information

http://www.annualreportservice.com (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

Annual Reports Service

http://finance.yahoo.com (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

Yahoo Finance

http://www.sec.gov (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

SEC EDGAR Company Filings

http://www.mergent.com (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

(you can get to Mergent information through the Champlain Library Web Site as well)

The basic financial statements should be seen as the start, not the end of story of the operating entity. It makes no difference if we are looking at General Motors, General Electric, Massachusetts General Hospital or the General Synod of the Scottish Episcopal Church; balance sheets and income statements are used by management (at all levels) as the starting point for more questions. An expense line that seems unusual (too high or too low) may be plumbed in depth to understand why? An excess of cash, receivables, payables or debt may trigger more analysis.

Churchill

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Now this is not the end. It is not even the beginning of the end. But it is, perhaps, the end of the beginning. Winston Churchill

Personal Finance Example

Jon and Jillian Raymond, a mid-30s married couple with no children, prepared a personal income and expense statement, which is similar to a corporate income statement. A condensed version of their income and expense statement appears below.

Jon and Jilliam Raymond

Income and Expense Statement

for the year ended December 31, 2009

Income

Salaries (incl. sales commissions) $72,000

Interest Received $195

Dividends received $120

(1) Total Income $73,040

Expenses

Mortgage payments $16,864

Auto loan payments $2,520

Utilities (incl. cable) $2,470

Home repairs & Maintenance $1,050

Food (incl. dining out) $5,825

Car expense $2,265

Health care and insurance $1,505

Clothes, shoes, accessories $1,700

Insurance (homeowners, auto & life) $1,380

Taxes (Income, Soc. Security, prop.) $16,430

Appliance and furniture payments $1,250

Recreation and entertainment $4,630

MBA books and tuition for Jillian $1,400

Personal care & other items $2,415

(2) Total expenses $61,704

(3) Cash surplus (or deficit)

[(1) – (2)] $11,336

During the year, the Raymonds had a total income of $73,040 and total expenses of $61,704, which left them with a cash surplus of $11,336. They can use the surplus to increase their savings and investments (Gitman, 2009).

Question 30: Business

Prepare an assessment of Canada’s potential to be the global market leader in supplying cannabis. 2-3 pages. References. Plagiarism free. Prepare a societal assessment of the new Canada Health food guide and its potential impact on food sciences. Is the new food guide a potential disruptor on Canada’s health and eating habits. 2-3 pages. References. Plagiarism free.

Question 31: Business

A state legislature is writing a public sector bargaining law and asked you to design the law’s impasse procedures (strike, arbitration, mediation, fact-finding, some combination, etc.). Outline a detailed plan of 1 to 1 ½ pages. Some things to consider: Do you allow workers to strike? Do you allow permanent strike replacements? Do you require any types of third party dispute resolution procedures? How would you sell this plan to the various interested parties? Please be sure to include a brief rationale behind each of the points in your plan.

Question 32: Business

Strategies to Compete II Building Brands of Value

This week we will consider the Under Armour case. Under Armour is a well-known athletic apparel brand with strong Maryland roots. Respond to all four points in your discussion of this case, citing sources from this week’s readings to support your views.

What are the points of parity for the Under Armour brand?
What are the points of difference?
How has Under Armour positioned this brand?
How does this approach build value in the brand?

Now going beyond the case study, choose one of the following to complete your discussion.

Is Under Armour a valuable brand? How can you tell? Do you have any concerns for this brand? Cite evidence and sources for your concerns.
Does Under Armour have loyal customers? Do Under Armour customers “love” the brand? How can you tell? Cite evidence and sources for your view.
Is Under Armour a digitally savvy brand? How can you tell? Cite evidence and sources for your view.
Since the time of the Under Armour case has the brand experienced any challenges? Cite credible sources to support your views.

Question 33: Business

Assignment 4: International Finance and Monetary System (100 marks total; 15%) Turn in Assignment 4 at the end of Lesson 12.

Introduction

In Lessons 10 to 12, you continued to examine international business issues related to economic co-operation, regional economic integration (trading blocs), and the international monetary system.

Instructions
Part A: Economic Cooperation and Regional Economic

Integration (30 marks)
Prepare a 2–3-page report (500–750 words, double-spaced) containing the following:

Of which trading blocs are your two target countries members? If not part of a bloc, which bloc do you think they should join? Describe the advantages and disadvantages of being part of a trading bloc.
How will Canada’s membership in NAFTA help or hinder your ability to take your product or service to your two target countries?
What is the difference between a free trade agreement (such as NAFTA) and an economic union (such as the EU)?
What would be the advantages and disadvantages for Canada to join a customs union with the USA and Mexico?
What are the stated aims of the Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN)? What are the risks of working with a business partner from ASEAN?

Part B: International Money Markets and Foreign Exchange (40 marks)

Prepare a 3–4-page report (750–1,000 words, double-spaced) that responds to the following:

Note
This assignment will contribute to the development of your Final Project.

In many ways, the economy of a country is like the economy of a household. If the household spends more than it earns, then it faces difficult times. On the other hand, if it earns more than it spends, then it can save for a rainy day. Discuss the relevance of this analogy to the economy of a country. In particular, discuss imports, exports, the balance of payments, and the strengthening or weakening of the nation’s currency.
When the USA experienced high inflation in the 1970s, Canada also experienced high inflation. Indeed, Canada was said to have “imported inflation” from the USA. If Canada’s exports to the USA were high, Canada’s foreign exchange reserves would have increased. Since exports create jobs, how could Canada have imported inflation from the USA?
Suppose a Canadian firm wants to import canned beef from Brazil. The shape of graph of GDP per capita (in US$) from 1960 to 2005 (below) shows that Canada has a significantly higher rate of GDP increase and a higher rate of exports. Based on these two factors, which country had the harder currency during this period? Why? Which country do had the greater rate of inflation in this period? Why? Find the relevant PPP numbers for each country. Does the result match your analysis?
Based on the 1960–2005 period, if a Canadian company were to import from Brazil and must pay in Brazilian reias when the goods are delivered in 90 days, should the company get the currency through the spot or the futures market? Why? Would it be different if the company had to pay in US$? Explain.

Part C: International Monetary Systems (30 marks)

Prepare a 2–4-page report (500–1,000 words, double-spaced) to reflect on and compare the current economic, political, technical and financial risks your international business will face entering the two countries you selected.

Considerations might include:

· Economic stability
· Currency fluctuations and inflation
· Rising nationalism and other political uncertainties
· Potential changes in administrative trade barriers
· Accounting practices
· Relevant cultural or technological forces

Hint:

A quick search of reliable Internet sources may help you formulate some thoughts about these and other factors and current events that will impact your planning. There is no right or wrong answer to this question. This is your opportunity to show your ability to look at data and draw some evidence-based conclusions that demonstrate your understanding of how political and economic pressures impact currency flows and international business.

Journal Reflection 2 (5%)
See the journal information sections on the Assignments Overview tab for

instructions, topics and marking information.

Module 3 and Module 4 require your participation in the reflection topics listed in the discussion board. At the end of Module 4, include a report of your reflections in Assignment 2.

The journal reflection requires you to look back at your contributions and to reflect on your learning experience.

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Consider the following reflective questions:

Did the topics for reflection and the ideas and information you explored influence your understanding of or perspective on international business?
Did your ideas and views shift as you progressed through the course?
Did the contributions of other learners influence you and help enrich your knowledge of international business?
Did you agree with everything others posted on the discussion board?

Write 1–2 pages (approximately 500 words) reviewing your journaling activity and contributions to the reflection prompts/questions of modules 3 and 4. The journal

reflection requires you to look back at your contributions and to reflect on your learning experience. Document your best journal reflections. Also, you may include highlights from other activities and the course in general.

Consult the Journal Reflection Rubric file on the Assignments Overview tab, and then assign yourself a mark. Your Open Learning Faculty Member will verify your report and adjust your mark as she or he sees fit.

For further reading about journaling, please read Appendix C: Becoming a Reflective Learner.

General Completion Checklist

· Be sure to save your assignment as a Word document and name it IBUS3511_A4_YOURLASTNAME.docx
· Have you scanned the documents for viruses?
· Have you completed all the required elements?
· Have you used information and terminology learned in this course?
· Did you support your statements with specific examples and external resources?
· Do you cite references, using correct APA referencing format?
· Is your report grammatically correct, clear, and well organized?
· Do you demonstrate your ability to evaluate sources of information?
· Turn in Assignment 4 at the end of Module 4.

Task

Your task is to explain the research of a published scientific article to a casual, non-academic reader. You need to use professional, accessible and non-technical language. To do this, you need to select one of two articles provided to you on Moodle to complete your assignment. You will need to deconstruct the article you have chosen and explain:

Theories, concepts, or ideas that underpin the article
Other research articles to provide background to the primary DRR article
Why the study was conducted
How the study was conducted
What the findings were and how they can be applied in the real world
How the findings have extended upon previous or have been used to inform subsequent research
Some future avenues of research

You will submit your DRR online in the form of a word processing document in Word or PDF format via Moodle.

Articles to Choose from

There are two primary DRR articles you can choose from. You only need to select one article to complete your DRR on. The articles to choose from are:

High-frequency gamblers show increased resistance to extinction following partial reinforcement. By Rachel R. Horsley, Matthew Osbourne, Christine Norman and Timothy Wells (2012)

Executive functioning in chronic alcoholism and Korsakoff syndrome. By Malini Maharasingam, Jamie A. B. Macniven and Oliver J. Mason (2013)

You only need to write on ONE of these articles. Please read both and decide which of the two articles you would prefer to write your assignment on. Choosing an article you enjoy is one of the key characteristics of doing well in this assessment – if you like the topic, you’ll want to read and write about it more!!).

Referencing Style

Psychology has a specific referencing style that you will use throughout your studies and beyond. The referencing style for this assignment is the American Psychological Association (APA) version 6. You need to format your assignment according to APA format. The reference guide for this unit is Taines (2015) – A Practical Guide to Writing (this comes with the textbook bundle and can be purchased from the DUSA bookshop – http://dusabookshop.com.au/order). Deakin University also has an in-house APA 6 guide and can be accessed from this website – http://www.deakin.edu.au/students/studying/studysupport/referencing/apa-6

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Question 1: Health Care

What policy should be Done to control immunization in Saudi Arabia?

Essay with introduction and 3 bodies and conclusion

Question 2: Statistics

The City of New Westminster is considering implementing a citywide ban on pesticides. Before
they implement this policy they want to get an idea of the percentage of New Westminster residents who would be in favour of banning pesticides. They randomly select 300 residents and find that 225 are in favour of a citywide ban on the use of pesticides.

(a) Construct a 95% confidence interval estimate for the percentage of residents in favour of banning pesticides (no statement needed). [7 marks]

Confidence Interval (Percentage, 1 decimal):____________________________________

(b) How many additional residents need to be sampled to reduce the margin of error (on the estimate of the proportion of residents in favour) to 2% at the 95% confidence level? [3] Additional:

ANWER: (2 decimals):

Question 3: Computer Science

Question 4: Geography

Instruction

Question 5: Chemistry

what happens to the particles of a solid as it becomes a liquid ?

how does the thermal energy of solid water change as it melt ?

Question 6: Engineering

Homework 3 Life Cycle Costing

100 points. Show your work.

The management of a Sports Stadium would like to install a new HVAC system. The size of the space to be air-conditioned is 20 million cubic feet. The costs are as follows:
- Stadium HVAC system acquisition cost: $50,000 per million cubic feet
- Operation and Maintenance Cost: $1,000 pe million cubic feet per hour
(2 points) What type of costing is involved here?
(8 points) Assuming a life of 15 years for the system, and 2,000 hours of operation per year, compute the total life-cycle costs. No present value calculation required.
Following is the cost break-down structure (CBS) for the development of a new grocery self-checkout system in a grocery chain. The Program Start Date is Jan 1, 2020 (to be used as present date for present value calculations). The expenditure date is given alongside each cost category.:
- Research and Development Cost: $200,000 (Dec. 31, 2020)
- Construction Cost:
  1. Procure Grocery Self-Checkout Systems (100 units @ $5,000 per unit) (Dec. 31, 2020)
  2. Installation Costs $25,000 (Dec. 31, 2020)
- Operating Cost:
  1. Labor Cost: $1,000,000 per year for 5 years, the first one occurring on 12/31/2021 at the end of the first year of operation.
  2. Energy Cost: $200,000 (same time schedule as Labor Cost)
- Maintenance Cost: $100,000 (same time schedule as Labor Cost)
- Retirement and Disposal Cost: $500 per unit at the end of the fifth year of operation, on 12/31/2025

Questions:

(40 points) Present the life cycle costs for the entire system listed above in a tabular form with the following details (as shown in Slide 24 in Slide Deck 7). Show the Present Value calculations for each year (cost break-down and total). Assume interest rate (discount factor) of 5%.
(20 points) If the grocery chain would have to borrow all the funds required for Research and Development, and Construction, for this system at 8% interest rate on 12/31/2020, and pay it back in 15 equal, annual payments, how much would the annual payment be?
(15 points) Draw the Life Cycle Cost Projection (bar chart as shown in slide 21 in Slide deck 7). You can do it by hand or in Excel and attach the picture or file.
(15 points) Draw the Program Plan as in Slide 23, Slide Deck 7.

Question 7: Economics

Instruction

The document needs to be done in APA format, with no plagiarism, conclusion, and opinions base on research. 2 pages.

Question 8: Sociology

Question 9: Health Care

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ECCE Activity Lesson Template

Student’s Name:

Book Title and Author:

Subject Area: Target Age of Group:

GELDS/CCGPS:

Instructional Objective: Children will

Materials and Resources Needed (Teacher Preparation):

Detailed Procedure (Include step-by-step directions):

Introduction:
Procedures:
Closing:

Evaluation/Checking for Understanding: (How will you know if they understand the concept and are ready to move on?)

Special Needs Accommodations:

Reflection: (Completed during Internship)

Question 10: General Question

NAPSRx Final Exam Solution Latest 2020

Question 11: Other

Question 12: Health Care

In 250 words, please discuss the following. Please make sure the answer relates to the question: Discuss how Biblical worldview might impact new-age leadership skills desired for the 21st Century workplace. 2. In 250 words, please discuss the following. Please make sure the answer relates to the question: Discuss how Covey’s three resolutions might be utilized by the Christian health administrator to lead change. 3. Please discuss in an 800 word response paper, APA format. Please avoid plagiarism and uniqueness. Papers must include a substantive elaboration on the topic as well as support from scripture. Do not use the question in your response: According to the course text, leaders should be focused on issues of “fit”. Discuss at least three of your personal leadership characteristics and evaluate their fit with the leadership skills needed in the emerging healthcare system. Covey, S. (1992). Principle-centered leadership. Los Angeles, CA: Fireside Press. Porter-O’Grady, T., & Malloch, K. (2015). Quantum leadership: Building better partnerships for sustainable health. (4th ed.). Sudbury, MA: Jones & Bartlett Learning. ISBN: 9781284050684

Question 13: English

How has your study of The Catcher in the Rye shaped your understanding of the role of literature in society?

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Question 14: Literary Studies

Should not be more than 2 pages.

Question 15: Health Care

Question 16: Health Care

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Question 17: Law

Question 18: Health Care

Instruction

Question 19: Marketing

CRITICAL WRITING

Questions

How would you define the attributes and benefits of the chosen product?
Define the core, actual, and augmented product benefits.
Briefly describe the steps in the new product development process.
Each product will have a life cycle, although its exact shape and length are not known in advance. Explain each step in the PLC.
What are the dimensions upon which a company manages its product portfolio?

Question 20: Human Resource Management

Case Study

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Source: Textbook- DeCenzo, D. A., & Robbins, S. P. (2013). Human resource management

ASSIGNMENT QUESTIONS:

What type of evaluation process would you say is being used in this case? Explain this evaluation process
What effect, if any, do you believe rank and yank evaluations have on managers? Do you see these effects as positive or negative? Defend your position
What role does such a system have in distorting performance appraisals?
Write your suggestions/opinions to create better performance appraisal system in the Organization.

Question 21: Communication

How the industry is reacting to COVID-19

The spread of COVID-19 is affecting the broadcast industry in many ways. Use the links below, as well as information you gather from news and industry sites on the web, as points of discussion.

I’d like everyone to make two posts:

Response to threat: How are networks/stations responding to coronavirus? Cancelling coverage, keeping employees safe, etc. Have you noticed any changes when watching television? What ideas do you have to keep employees safe?
Opportunities: How is the industry filling gaps? Live-streaming events instead of gathering crowds in person, etc. Do you have any ideas along these lines?

Then, please comment on three of your classmates’ posts. Note: you must make your posts before you can see anyone else’s replies.

Links to get you thinking:

https://www.sportsvideo.org/2020/03/13/coronavirus-hits-sports-studio-shows-fox-sports-suspends-production-accns-packer-durham-on-hiatus/ (Links to an external site.)

https://www.rtdna.org/article/coronavirus_and_the_newsroom_guidance_to_keep_your_team_safe (Links to an external site.)

https://www.newscaststudio.com/2020/03/14/tolonews-coronavirus/ (Links to an external site.)

https://www.mixdexhq.com/tv-news/cbs-sunday-morning-couldnt-produce-a-new-show-due-to-coronavirus/ (Links to an external site.)

https://www.newscaststudio.com/2020/03/14/inside-edition-deborah-norville-kitchen/ (Links to an external site.)

https://www.sportsvideo.org/2020/03/16/cbs-sports-will-pay-all-march-madness-technicians-and-utilities-including-freelancers/ (Links to an external site.)

https://www.wsbtv.com/video/local-video/behind-scenes-channel-2-showing-how-were-participating-social-distancing/J24KMA3I4B6KHB4C5UNTI5REIM/?_website=cmg-tv-10010 (Links to an external site.)

https://www.vice.com/en_us/article/akwa5j/cdc-tells-morticians-to-livestream-coronavirus-funerals

Question 22: Engineering

Writing research about (5G) for Digital Signal Processing class. Research should be 13-15 pages No plagiarism

Question 23: Communication

write a report of 10-15 pages that provides a literature review of the state-of-the-art of the Modulation and Coding in 5G networks

. Please make sure to provide all the supporting references and avoid plagiarism

Question 24: Business

Assignment Guidelines

Address the following in 2 pages:
Thoroughly describe at least 4 of the different elements below that are commonly found in grant proposals, and explain their importance:
- Statement of need
- Description of existing system/program/technology
- Organizational capabilities and management plan
- Program narrative/project description
- Staff task loading chart
- Project timeline
- Budget narrative
- Evaluation of the program
- Travel policy
- Dissemination of the proposal
Be sure to reference all sources used in APA style

Question 25: Mathematics

1- Consider the following data:

Class Homework

t(sec)	0	0.1	0.2	0.3	0.4	0.5
d(m)	0	1	2	2.5	3	4

Use Richardson extrapolation method to obtain the highest accurate value of estimating the speed at t =0.2 seconds.

2- For the example in slide#18, find D(3,3) and compute the true error by finding the analytical derivative of f(x).

Question 26: Chemistry

What’s a saturated hydrocarbon?

Question 27: History

How did the sinking of the German ship Blucher influence the second world war?

Question 28: Statistics

With 95% certainty, the average claim for this medical procedure is $942.
With 95% certainty, the average claim for this medical procedure is not $942
The confidence interval is consistent with an average claim of $942 for this medical procedure.

Question 29: Business

Instruction

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Introduction to Financial Statements

The Balance Sheet

The Balance Sheet reports the financial position of a business at a particular point in time. The accounting model for this document is:

Assets = Liabilities + Owners Equity

Assets are things of value owned by the business. There are several classes of assets:

Long-term Investments are assets the business intends to hold for the long-term – stocks and bonds of other companies, real estate, savings accounts.

Fixed Assets are those that have physical substance and that were acquired for use in operating the business – buildings, land, equipment, tools, furniture

Intangible Assets represent the value of intellectual property such as patents, trademarks, copyrights, franchises or goodwill. As you might guess this is a tough one to value.

Liabilities are debts or obligations owed by the business to the creditors. Here again, we have a couple of categories:

Current Liabilities are short-term debts that are expected to be repaid usually within a year. Some examples are short-term notes payable, accounts payable, wages payable, income taxes payable

Long-Term Liabilities or long-term debt are instruments like bonds or notes.

The Income Statement

Revenues – Expenses = Net Income

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Net Income = the excess of revenues over expenses

Net Loss = the excess of expenses over revenues

Break-even occurs when revenues = expenses

Before we take a look at a sample Income Statement we need to define one more term-Gross Profit.

Gross Profit = Revenues – Cost of Goods Sold

(i.e., the expense to produce the saleable item).

This represents total income before deducting expenses.

In very simple form an Income Statement has this format:

Revenue – Cost of Goods Sold = Gross Profit Gross Profit – Operating Expense, Interest, and taxes = Net Income

Investopedia offers a clear and concise explanation of the Income Statement:

https://www.investopedia.com/articles/04/022504.asp

Focusing on Free Cash Flow

Again, from Investopedia:

https://www.investopedia.com/video/play/understanding-free-cash-flow/

Links to useful sources of Financial Information

http://www.annualreportservice.com (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

Annual Reports Service

http://finance.yahoo.com (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

Yahoo Finance

http://www.sec.gov (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

SEC EDGAR Company Filings

http://www.mergent.com (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

(you can get to Mergent information through the Champlain Library Web Site as well)

Churchill

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Now this is not the end. It is not even the beginning of the end. But it is, perhaps, the end of the beginning. Winston Churchill

Personal Finance Example

Jon and Jilliam Raymond

Income and Expense Statement

for the year ended December 31, 2009

Income

Salaries (incl. sales commissions) $72,000

Interest Received $195

Dividends received $120

(1) Total Income $73,040

Expenses

Mortgage payments $16,864

Auto loan payments $2,520

Utilities (incl. cable) $2,470

Home repairs & Maintenance $1,050

Food (incl. dining out) $5,825

Car expense $2,265

Health care and insurance $1,505

Clothes, shoes, accessories $1,700

Insurance (homeowners, auto & life) $1,380

Taxes (Income, Soc. Security, prop.) $16,430

Appliance and furniture payments $1,250

Recreation and entertainment $4,630

MBA books and tuition for Jillian $1,400

Personal care & other items $2,415

(2) Total expenses $61,704

(3) Cash surplus (or deficit)

[(1) – (2)] $11,336

Question 30: Business

Question 31: Business

Question 32: Business

Strategies to Compete II Building Brands of Value

What are the points of parity for the Under Armour brand?
What are the points of difference?
How has Under Armour positioned this brand?
How does this approach build value in the brand?

Now going beyond the case study, choose one of the following to complete your discussion.

Is Under Armour a valuable brand? How can you tell? Do you have any concerns for this brand? Cite evidence and sources for your concerns.
Does Under Armour have loyal customers? Do Under Armour customers “love” the brand? How can you tell? Cite evidence and sources for your view.
Is Under Armour a digitally savvy brand? How can you tell? Cite evidence and sources for your view.
Since the time of the Under Armour case has the brand experienced any challenges? Cite credible sources to support your views.

Question 33: Business

Assignment 4: International Finance and Monetary System (100 marks total; 15%) Turn in Assignment 4 at the end of Lesson 12.

Introduction

In Lessons 10 to 12, you continued to examine international business issues related to economic co-operation, regional economic integration (trading blocs), and the international monetary system.

Instructions
Part A: Economic Cooperation and Regional Economic

Integration (30 marks)
Prepare a 2–3-page report (500–750 words, double-spaced) containing the following:

Of which trading blocs are your two target countries members? If not part of a bloc, which bloc do you think they should join? Describe the advantages and disadvantages of being part of a trading bloc.
How will Canada’s membership in NAFTA help or hinder your ability to take your product or service to your two target countries?
What is the difference between a free trade agreement (such as NAFTA) and an economic union (such as the EU)?
What would be the advantages and disadvantages for Canada to join a customs union with the USA and Mexico?
What are the stated aims of the Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN)? What are the risks of working with a business partner from ASEAN?

Part B: International Money Markets and Foreign Exchange (40 marks)

Prepare a 3–4-page report (750–1,000 words, double-spaced) that responds to the following:

Note
This assignment will contribute to the development of your Final Project.

In many ways, the economy of a country is like the economy of a household. If the household spends more than it earns, then it faces difficult times. On the other hand, if it earns more than it spends, then it can save for a rainy day. Discuss the relevance of this analogy to the economy of a country. In particular, discuss imports, exports, the balance of payments, and the strengthening or weakening of the nation’s currency.
When the USA experienced high inflation in the 1970s, Canada also experienced high inflation. Indeed, Canada was said to have “imported inflation” from the USA. If Canada’s exports to the USA were high, Canada’s foreign exchange reserves would have increased. Since exports create jobs, how could Canada have imported inflation from the USA?
Suppose a Canadian firm wants to import canned beef from Brazil. The shape of graph of GDP per capita (in US$) from 1960 to 2005 (below) shows that Canada has a significantly higher rate of GDP increase and a higher rate of exports. Based on these two factors, which country had the harder currency during this period? Why? Which country do had the greater rate of inflation in this period? Why? Find the relevant PPP numbers for each country. Does the result match your analysis?
Based on the 1960–2005 period, if a Canadian company were to import from Brazil and must pay in Brazilian reias when the goods are delivered in 90 days, should the company get the currency through the spot or the futures market? Why? Would it be different if the company had to pay in US$? Explain.

Part C: International Monetary Systems (30 marks)

Considerations might include:

· Economic stability
· Currency fluctuations and inflation
· Rising nationalism and other political uncertainties
· Potential changes in administrative trade barriers
· Accounting practices
· Relevant cultural or technological forces

Hint:

Journal Reflection 2 (5%)
See the journal information sections on the Assignments Overview tab for

instructions, topics and marking information.

Module 3 and Module 4 require your participation in the reflection topics listed in the discussion board. At the end of Module 4, include a report of your reflections in Assignment 2.

The journal reflection requires you to look back at your contributions and to reflect on your learning experience.

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Consider the following reflective questions:

Did the topics for reflection and the ideas and information you explored influence your understanding of or perspective on international business?
Did your ideas and views shift as you progressed through the course?
Did the contributions of other learners influence you and help enrich your knowledge of international business?
Did you agree with everything others posted on the discussion board?

Write 1–2 pages (approximately 500 words) reviewing your journaling activity and contributions to the reflection prompts/questions of modules 3 and 4. The journal

For further reading about journaling, please read Appendix C: Becoming a Reflective Learner.

General Completion Checklist

· Be sure to save your assignment as a Word document and name it IBUS3511_A4_YOURLASTNAME.docx
· Have you scanned the documents for viruses?
· Have you completed all the required elements?
· Have you used information and terminology learned in this course?
· Did you support your statements with specific examples and external resources?
· Do you cite references, using correct APA referencing format?
· Is your report grammatically correct, clear, and well organized?
· Do you demonstrate your ability to evaluate sources of information?
· Turn in Assignment 4 at the end of Module 4.

Task

Theories, concepts, or ideas that underpin the article
Other research articles to provide background to the primary DRR article
Why the study was conducted
How the study was conducted
What the findings were and how they can be applied in the real world
How the findings have extended upon previous or have been used to inform subsequent research
Some future avenues of research

You will submit your DRR online in the form of a word processing document in Word or PDF format via Moodle.

Articles to Choose from

There are two primary DRR articles you can choose from. You only need to select one article to complete your DRR on. The articles to choose from are:

High-frequency gamblers show increased resistance to extinction following partial reinforcement. By Rachel R. Horsley, Matthew Osbourne, Christine Norman and Timothy Wells (2012)

Executive functioning in chronic alcoholism and Korsakoff syndrome. By Malini Maharasingam, Jamie A. B. Macniven and Oliver J. Mason (2013)

Referencing Style

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Question 1: Philosophy

Have to write a philosophy response paper on Heraclitus. Give a small bio Over him then state one of his philosophies he made and whether you agree with it or not. Then explain why you do or don’t. Has to be 1 1/2- 2 pages, single spaced, Font Times New Roman, Font Size 12. If you use any websites or books to help please site where it came from.

Question 2: Education

Make up a incident in which you violated a core principle of integrity. make sure you make sense when you make up the integrity. it could be a cheating in high school etc. 2-3 page

ASSIGNMENT #2
Recognizing and Responding to Justifications

This assignment offers you the opportunity to think more deeply about an incident, an unethical choice, in your life; either your AI incident or a time in your life when you violated one of the core principles of integrity (honesty, respect, responsibility, fairness and trustworthiness). You will look at the contributing factors including personal weaknesses and external obstacles as well as justifications for the incident. You will also respond to those justifications while drawing on your personal values and the values associated with integrity.

To begin, decide what incident of unethical behavior in your life you would like to explore further: your academic integrity violation or a different past incident in which you violated a core principle of integrity. Next, write about the following prompts in relation to that incident.

PART I
A. Contributing Factors
Looking at the incident, what external frustrations, challenges or obstacles (ie. circumstances beyond your control) might have contributed to your choice(s) and interfered with your ethical decision-making? Detail at least two.

Thinking about yourself, what weaknesses did/do you have that may have contributed to your choice(s) and interfered with your ethical decision-making? Detail at least two.

Justifications
When we make a choice that is inconsistent with our core beliefs and values, we often try to justify the behavior to make ourselves feel better.

How did you justify your choices and lack of ethical decision-making? What did you say to yourself before, during and after the incident to make yourself feel better or correct in your course of action (ie. “I needed a good grade because I want to get into grad school”, “It is none of my business so I won’t get involved”)?

List at least three. Write several sentences for each justification, exploring them in detail, explaining how each is connected to the action.

Do these justifications sound familiar to you? Have you used these before in other situations (is there a pattern)? If not, write about at least two other justifications that you have more typically used to try to excuse choices or behavior.

PART II
A. Responding to Justifications
Thinking

about your core beliefs and values as well as the values associated with integrity, respond to at least three of your most common justifications, writing at least a paragraph for each.

Are there assumptions or falsehoods underlying those justifications?
If there are truths in the justifications (ie. You dowant to get into grad school), why does that not excuse or justify the behavior/choice?
What could you have done instead?
What can you do in the future to confront justifications before they lead you to an unethical choice?
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Question 3: Health Care

Rubric for ALHS 1113/ Allied Health Professions Presentation:

This is to be an oral and PPT presentation. (Slide count maximum 15 with speaker notes included.) (For on-line students do a PPT with speaker notes included at the bottom of each slide along with a video recording presentation). The presentation will count for 34% of your overall grade. Do not plan to read straight off the slide (the audience can do that). For more details read all content items to be included below.

Include in your project the information related to the profession or career of your choice:

Visuals (Pictures, graphs, or charts) to attract the audience.
Describe/list specific responsibilities, and challenges of this particular profession.
Governing bodies/ Professional organizations.
Required Education: Explain in detail how many years of schooling, training, and continuing education will be required.
Work environments. ( Career paths)
List employment opportunities: city, state, and nation wise, and salary.
Current trends of influence: Is this career growing, or expanding?

You will also be scored on the following items:

Professionalism: Information given in a logical and organized manner.
Oral presentation: Posture, body language, eye contact, clear delivery of messages.
Grammar/spelling
References/citing in APA format

Allied Health professions:

Certified Nurse Assistant (CNA)
Medical Assistant
Emergency Medical Service (EMS)
Dental Professions (Hygienist, Assistant, Technician.)
Surgical Technician
Respiratory Therapist (RT)
Radiography
Health Information Systems
Speech Language Pathologist (SLP)
Physical Therapist (PT) /Physical Therapist Assistant(PTA)
Occupational Therapist (OT) /Occupational Therapist Assistant (OTA)
Mental Health: Counselor, Psychologist, Social Worker
Clinical laboratory Science
Dietetics
Health Information Management
Nursing: Registered Nurse (RN), License Practical Nurse (LPN), Nurse Practitioner (NP), Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist (CRNA), Certified Nurse Manager (CNM).
Physician, Physician Assistant (PA)
Pharmacy

Weight of Possible Points

Information not

Included 0%

Limited information

62%

Detailed information

100%

Total

Visuals

· No Visuals aids

0 Points

· 1-4 Visuals aids included

10 Points

· 5 + Visuals aids included

15 Points

Basic

Responsibilities

· Not included

0 Points

· 1-4 Responsibilities listed

6 Points

· 5 + Responsibilities listed

10 Points

Governing Body/

Professional

Organizations

· Governing body or Professional

Organizations not listed

0 Points

· Only 1 Governing body or Professional Organizations listed

6 Points

· 2+ Accrediting governing body or Professional

· Organizations listed.

10 Points

Education

· No degrees listed

0 Points

· Vague information given

3 Points

· Detailed information given

5 Points

Work

Environments

· Not career paths included

0 Points

· 2 career paths listed

6 Points

· 4 + career paths listed

10 Points

Employment

and Salary

· No opportunities /salary listed

0 Points

· Only one category listed

6 Points

· Detail information listed.

10 Points

Current Trends

of Influence

· Not mentioned

0 Points

· Vague information given

6 Points

· Detail and concise information given.

10 Points

Professionalism

· Disorganized presentation

0 Points

· Organized presentation

6 Points

· Well organized, detailed presentation

10 Points

Oral Presentation

· Posture, body language, eye contact, and uneasy behaviors inappropriately demonstrated.

0 Points

· One of the following: Posture, body language, eye contact, or uneasy behaviors inappropriately demonstrated.

3 Points

· Good posture, and body language used, eye contact maintained, and no nervous habits exhibited.

· Able to answer questions.

5 Points

Grammar/Spelling

in presentation

· Several grammar/spelling errors

0 Points

· Very limited grammar/spelling errors

6 Points

· No grammar/spelling errors

10 Points

References

· No references listed

0 Points

· 1-3 references. However, not using APA citation

4 Points

· 4+ references listed with appropriate APA citation.

5 Points

Total points

Question 4: Business

For a project consisting of 5 miles stretch of highway construction, among many activities, one can identify the following tasks (NOT IN ANY PARTICULAR ORDER). Please list all tasks, including a few more that you may suggest to be performed in an acceptable sequence of events, or order:

Initial surveys
Grading
Build foundations, storm water drainage
Compaction of soils
Base Gravel & compaction
Curbs
Asphalt base
Pavement asphalt layer
Signage
Approvals
Designs

Considering the fact that, as a PM, you do not need to wait for a particular task to be completed, which might last during the entire length of highway, to start the next task (or have multiple crews designated to do the same task at different parts of the roadway), please draw the best Gantt Chart for all tasks involved, to be listed in a proper sequence, including many other important tasks that may not be listed above, using your own best estimates for the duration, and show where do you set your milestones/ control measures and on what elements/tasks in order to reduce cost-overruns?

Question 5: Statistics

The per-pupil costs (in thousands of dollars) for cyber charter school tuition for districts schools in three areas of South-western Pennsylvania are shown below. At 5% level of significance, is there a difference in the costing means? [10 Marks]

Area 1	Area 2	Area 3
6.2	7.5	5.8
9.3	8.2	6.4
6.8	8.5	5.6
6.1	8.2	7.1
6.7	7	3
6.9	9.3	3.5

Question 6: Other

Scholarly Book Review – The final component of this course is for you to read one of the assigned books, Out-of-Control Criminal Justice, and write a scholarly book review. For this assignment, you must cite at least five peer-reviewed articles, not books, in your review. The articles students cite should be relevant and timely (e.g. no older than say 2010, unless they are considered to ‘classics’). Your scholarly book review must be between 2,250 to 2,700 words. For this assignment, you need to do more than merely provide merely provide a synopsis of the book. Rather, provide a scholarly analysis of the book and explain what, if anything, it contributes to our understanding of criminal justice policy.

Question 7: Business

Discuss TWO positive economic effects and TWO negative economic effects on the U.S. economy when the U.S. imposes tariffs on importation of foreign goods.

Question 8: Business

Need a 10-page research paper. Title is “Effects of low morale in the workplace”. Cites can’t be older than 7 years

Question 9: Computer Science

Background: Creating a Bootable USB and CD/DVD for Clonezilla Backup/Restore In this exercise you will install Windows 7/8 OS onto virtual computer, then use the Clonezilla utility to make a backup image of the installed OS and save the backup image onto a separate virtual disk. Later, you will restore the backup image to the original disk and boot from the restored image to confirm the correctness of the backup and restore operations. Clonezilla is a disk copy/clone utility from the Taiwanese National Center for High Performance Computing (NCHC), Steven Shiau, author. It is available as a free download from http://clonezilla.org. Clonezilla works with disk blocks, which means that it backs up both files and metadata that define partitions and volumes. It supports imaging and copying of a very long list of different file systems. As a point of comparison, Clonezilla is similar to an older commercial utility called Norton Ghost. Ghost was acquired by Symantec.

Instruction

Project needs to have screen shots of the process in between the steps

Project #2

This project should be performed in groups of 2 students. Please be sure to prepare one single submission with both team members’ names on it.

Background: Creating a Bootable USB and CD/DVD for Clonezilla Backup/Restore

In this exercise you will install Windows 7/8 OS onto virtual computer, then use the Clonezilla utility to make a backup image of the installed OS and save the backup image onto a separate virtual disk. Later, you will restore the backup image to the original disk and boot from the restored image to confirm the correctness of the backup and restore operations.

Clonezilla is a disk copy/clone utility from the Taiwanese National Center for High Performance Computing (NCHC), Steven Shiau, author. It is available as a free download from http://clonezilla.org. Clonezilla works with disk blocks, which means that it backs up both files and metadata that define partitions and volumes. It supports imaging and copying of a very long list of different file systems. As a point of comparison, Clonezilla is similar to an older commercial utility called Norton Ghost. Ghost was acquired by Symantec and has now been replaced by Symantec System Recovery (SSR).

There are several modes of operation, but the one we will use in the lab is Clonezilla Live. This is a version that is installed onto a small bootable Debian Linux installation on either an optical (CD/DVD) or USB flash drive. In other words…

Clonezilla + Debian Live = Clonezilla Live

As part of getting some experience working with the utility, you should create both a CD and a USB version of Clonezilla Live. The Clonezilla website contains detailed instructions which will be summarized below, under Prep.

General “Your Computer” Lab Policies

Do whatever you want with your own stuff.

Prep

Mount the class file server: \\casper.ecs.csun.edu\cit360
- If you connect from outside campus, you will need to first create a VPN connection to CSUN. The Cisco VPN client software is available for free download from the CSUN ITR software downloads page at
  - https://www.csun.edu/itr/downloads/index.cgi (requires CSUN ID logon)
- If you connect to a Windows file share from Mac OS, use
  - smb://casper.ecs.csun.edu/cit360
- Logon with the following credentials:
  - User ID: csun.edu\download
  - Password: d0wn!oad
- Download a copy of the Windows 7 and/or Windows 8 installation disks.
  - Disks will be a little over 3 GB each.
  - HINT: For this lab, you may find it best to use the 32-bit (x86) ISOs.
  - You may perform the lab with EITHER Windows7 or Windows8, or both if you want practice. You must select AT LEAST ONE OF THESE OSes.

Go to the clonezilla.org website.
Follow the instructions to create and burn a Clonezilla Live disk.
- Basically, you will download the image from the website and burn it to a CD-R (about 131 MB).
Follow the instructions to create a Clonezilla Live bootable USB.
- Download the tuxboot.exe utility to the local machine. This utility can be run in place without having to install it.
- You can either point Tuxboot to the Clonezilla ISO that you have already downloaded, or you can point it to the latest distribution on the Clonezilla website.
- Plug in your Clonezilla USB and indicate it to Tuxboot.
- Tuxboot will now install Clonezilla Live to the USB.

Lab Work

Install Windows 7/8 onto the first hard drive.
Logon to Windows as admin.
Use the disk administration utility to confirm that the second disk is
- NTFS
- Empty
Create a folder at the top level on the second disk to hold Clonezilla backup images, with an obvious name.
- g., “TeamVenture_Diaz_Salazar_Clonezilla_Images”
Shutdown
Boot from Clonezilla CD or USB (ultimately confirm that you can boot to Clonezilla from both).
Make a backup of the Windows 7/8 on the first disk and store the image on the second disk.
Reboot Windows 7/8.
Modify the OS so that it is not identical to the backup.
Boot from Clonezilla.
Restore the Windows 7/8 image from the 2^nd disk to the 1^st disk (overwriting the existing OS on the first disk).
Boot from Windows 7/8 on the first disk.
Confirm that the OS is the restored version not the modified version.

Clonezilla Guidelines for Creating a Backup Image

Clonezilla is a complex program with a lot of runtime options. Here is a guide to get you started on the backup operation.

Pick “English” or whatever. If you pick something else, I likely won’t be able to help you.
Don’t touch the keymap.
Start Clonezilla.
Choose the “Device è Image” option.
Mount the Clonezilla image directory. This must be the 2^nd hard drive, the empty drive with the Clonezilla images folder you created earlier.
Choose “local-dev” since the 2^nd disk is a local device, not a network device.
If you were using a USB as your backup image device, there are special instructions here, but it doesn’t apply for this exercise.
You will get a list of devices, for example:

sda1 953 MB ext4

sda3 140 GB ext4

sdb1 149 GB ntfs

You must carefully choose the correct device at this point.

On this device, locate the directory you created earlier. If you can’t find it, this is a good opportunity to bail out, you’ve probably chosen the wrong disk.
You will get a quick confirmation of disk space available for that image directory.
Choose “beginner’s mode” which comes with lots of default values for options.
Select the “savedisk è save disk to an image” mode
Give the image a name.
Choose local disk as source (the disk to be backed up, which is different from the disk holding the backup images)
Choose “skip checking/repairing source file.” (Or not, and wait through it).
Choose to skip or check after image is saved.
At this point, the full command-line version of the command is echoed. (You can copy it and enter it next time directly from the command prompt, saving you the trouble of going through the command builder phase.) J
Clonezilla will collect some info now.
Clonezilla is ready to make the backup. It will prompt you several times to make sure you picked the right devices.
Commence backup.

For the restore operation, you are on your own.

Credit for Project

You will show your machine to the instructor, who will confirm that the proper steps were performed. Be ready to answer a few simple questions about what you did. Credit for this project is basically a check-off that your team performed the work.

Question 10: Philosophy

Informal Fallacies Paper

Critical Thinking S20

Purdue

Choose one (1) fallacy from each group below for a total of two (2):

Group A: red herring, subjectivist fallacy, appeal to popularity (ad populum), appeal to fear (ad metum), appeal to the stick (ad baculum), appeal to pity (ad misericordiam), appeal to anger/indignation, appeal to ignorance (ad ignorantiam), appeal to authority (ispe dixit)

Group B: personal attack (ad hominem abusive), ad hominem circumstantial, genetic fallacy, straw man, false dilemma, false dichotomy, perfectionist fallacy, line-drawing, slippery slope, begging the question, equivocation

For each fallacy you chose, do the following:

First Part: Preparatory Work
1. Quote and cite the definition of the chosen fallacy from the readings. (If no explicit definition is given in the readings, still use quotes from the readings to generate an acceptable definition.)
2. Explain that definition.
3. Explain why the chosen fallacy is effective.
4. Using at least one example not from the readings, explain how a statement might appear to be an abuse of the chosen fallacy when in fact that statement is acceptable.
Second Part: Concrete Example
1. Find and quote one example of a fallacious use of this fallacy.
2. Explain the context in which the chosen example was used.
3. By reference to your explanations in the First Part (above), explain why your example is fallacious.
4. Provided sufficient reference information for me to find the source. If it’s a video or radio source, provide a link where I can watch or listen to it, along with the approximate time (hours:minutes:second). If it’s a written source, provide a link to the website on which it appears, or bibliographical information for examples not on the web. Not providing this information will result in failing this portion of the assignment.

Your answers for the Second Part must include at least one concrete example from a sitting American politician or a news anchor/journalist from a major news source. For the other fallacy, if you want to include an example from your life, email me a written record and description of the conversation at least five (5) days before the deadline so that I can OK it. If I don’t OK the example, it will not count, and you will fail this portion of the assignment. Otherwise, you will need a second example from a sitting American politician or a news anchor/journalist from a major news source.

A “sitting politician” means a politician who is currently in office.
What counts as a major news source for our purposes: NO BLOGS AND NO TALK-SHOWS, except those from major news sources. Examples of major news sources include: Associate Press (AP), Al Jazeera, BBC, CNN, Democracy Now!, Le Figaro, Fox News, France 24, MSNBC, National Public Radio (NPR), The New York Times, Reuters, Russian Times (RT), Der Spiegel, Times of India, Voice of America, The Wall Street Journal, etc. If you’re not sure if something you want to use counts, ask me ASAP.

Requirements:

You will be graded relative first, to class lectures, and second, to the readings. Make sure you don’t commit the mistakes laid out in the readings regarding arguments that appear fallacious but are not.
Cite every quote or paraphrase (no exceptions).
Provide a “Works Cited” page of the sources you use in your paper, except for class readings. If you are led to an example through a different source, include that source under “Works Consulted” (failure to do so constitutes a breach of academic integrity).
ANSWER IN ESSAY FORMAT, NOT IN BULLET POINTS. While it’s your responsibility to produce clearly written, well organized responses, answering the questions in order should make organization fairly simple.
Word count: 600 words. In commonly accepted fonts and font sizes, this translates to about one page per fallacy. It’s more important that you answer the prompt successfully than that you hit the word count.
Only submit .doc and .docx (MS Word) file types.
Submit the finished product on Canvas’ Turnitin dropbox for “Informal Fallacies Paper”. You only get one chance to submit, so make sure a) that it’s finished, and b) that it’s the correct file type.

Getting feedback prior to submission:

You can come to my office hours or make an appointment to talk about your paper. Papers will only be reviewed in person, except in extenuating circumstances.
EXTRA CREDIT: You can receive five percent (5%) extra credit on this assignment by taking your essay to the writing center (http://www.lib.usf.edu/writing/
(Links to an external site.)
) prior to submission and providing documentation for your visit.

The following content is partner provided

Question 11: Biology

Students should discuss at least (but not limited to) the hypothesis of the article, methods and materials to test the hypothesis, results taken, interpretation of graphs and tables, strength and weak points, reliability of the results, and any suggestions for similar papers or other ways to test the hypothesis. This assignment can be in any format, should include the original article.

Instruction

Article to be used: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC5007978/ should be a minimum of 6-7 pages and should answer these questions. 1) what is the observation 2)what is the main and detailed questions? 3)what is the main hypothesis 4)how to test the hypothesis? 5)what are the results of experiment and analysis of data(graphs) 6) are the results reliable and if they can reject the null hypothesis? 7)what are your suggestions for different experiments to test the hypothesis?

Question 12: History

Write 150 words discussion on: –

How did the civil rights movement transform American culture and the place of black people in American society?

Question 13: History

* A minimum of 500 words, * 12 point Times New Roman, and * Double spaced. In this unit, you have explored the African American fight for justice from the Great Depression through the height of the Civil Rights Movement in the mid-1960s. You have had the opportunity to think about the topic from various points of view and through the lenses of competing voices. Now you can pull the pieces together and create an argument of your own on this topic, in the form of an essay. QUESTION: What were key factors in the development and progress of the modern black freedom struggle? Context To answer this question, you may wish to consider some related issues, How did the Great Depression and New Deal affect African Americans? * During and after World War II, what factors led the government to pay attention to the political and economic status of African Americans? * How did World War II and the Cold War spur or inhibit the black freedom struggle? * Who were the key players and organizations within the Civil Rights Movement, and what accounted for their prominence? * What role did gender, region, class, and sexuality play within the Civil Rights Movement?

Question 14: Health Care

574 Module 07: Critical Thinking Determinants of Health (100 Points) The Ministry of Health has asked you to prepare a PowerPoint presentation indicating determinants, indicators, and measurements of Middle East Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus (MERS-CoV). Be sure to include individual characteristics as well as outside influences and use specific examples. Compare and contrast how these determinants affect health. Your presentation should meet the following structural requirements: Organized, using professional themes and transitions. It should consist of nine slides, not including the title and reference slides. Each slide must provide detailed speakers notes, with a minimum of 100 words per slide. Notes must draw from and cite relevant reference materials. Provide support for your statements with in-text citations from a minimum of six scholarly articles. Two of these sources may be from the class readings, textbook, or lectures, but the other four must be external. The Saudi Digital Library is a good place to find these references. Follow APA and Saudi Electronic University writing standards. You are strongly encouraged to submit all assignments to the Turnitin Originality Check prior to submitting them to your instructor for grading. If you are unsure how to submit an assignment to the Originality Check tool, review the Turnitin Originality Check Student Guide.

Question 15: Biology

Harvard style referencing Assignment in Word. -research the natural environment of the African wild dog -produce a timetable and explain about their extinct ancestors to being captive in a zoo -Explain their behaviour while being held captive -explain the different behaviours of the dog when wild and captive -explain the feeding, sleeping, playtime and enrichment devices used for these dogs when in Dublin zoo -explain the housing used while in a zoo -if you were to change anything about the lives the dogs have in the zoo what would it be (more space, entertainment etc.) It might be difficult to find all of the information on how the dog lives in Dublin zoo so you can use any other Zoos which they are held and use that instead but still make sure to say that this is in Dublin Zoo. I will need about 6 or so pages

Question 16: Psychology

A paper about Ego Identity by Erickson with 7 to 10 sources

Question 17: Psychology

In this final reflection journal, read through the below course outcomes for this class and reflect on your learning. How has your perspective changed about leadership? Explain the historical, philosophical, and empirical foundations of the field of organizational psychology and the psychology of leadership. Summarize the major tenets of pre-modernism, modernism, and post-modernism as they apply to the field of psychology. Evaluate how the history of organizational psychology has helped to shape important contemporary psychological theories and issues of leadership and leading organizations. Discuss the relevance of issues of diversity as they are related to the history of the psychology of leadership, with particular emphasis on how diversity issues have been handled historically and how people from diverse backgrounds have struggled in gaining influence in the field. Compare and contrast psychological theories of leadership in order to determine their foundational philosophical assumptions and values. Develop critical comparative skills in order to determine important similarities and differences in the various approaches to the psychology of leadership. Additionally, reflect on your experiences in this course. What were your most desired and least desired assignments? Discuss ways you have developed in your understanding of the psychology of leadership. If you could change one thing about this class, what would it be?

Question 18: Health Care

In this assignment, you would create media for marketing your Advance Practice Nurse role or skills to a target audience (https://www.aanp.org/news-feed/how-to-market-your-practice) in a Poster, Infographics, or other creative ideas such as YouTube video; TV spot and commercial; Radio clip; podcast; political or community activism; and many other creative ideas.

Instruction

INTRODUCTION/OVERVIEW: • Who are you and what you are offering? • How does your philosophy (values, beliefs, attitudes, visions, mission) or professional code reflect in or strengthen your media campaign? • What is the value of your offering? • Who or what is the target of your marketing campaign and why would they want your offering? • Is the media appropriate for the target audience or consumer? • What support do you have for your claims? • How is consideration for the 4Ps of marketing reflected in your campaign? check out these links: https://npbusiness.org/marketing-nurse-practitioners/ http://media.aanponline.com/psa/AANPPrintAD.pdf https://youtu.be/L8PtwvTVir8 https://youtu.be/OdzjdxWwEbU https://youtu.be/Vey2vBa3wt4 https://youtu.be/JFKQm1IB-DY https://youtu.be/mmkLxiFK16c

Question 19: Business

In a three- to five-page paper (excluding the title and references pages), complete an article review. Your article should cover the following topic that was introduced in your readings: Cultural patterns by world regions

Instruction

Support your article review with at least two additional peer-reviewed articles. Paper must be formatted according to APA style.

Question 20: Science

Why the Earth is round? Does the Earth have a perfect sphere shape? Give proper reason. (5 points)
A car is moving at 2 m/s when it begins to accelerate to 1 m/s². (a). How long does it take to reach a 5 m/s? (b). How far did it go? (15 points)
Write down the Newton’s law of attraction with the formula. (5 points)
How many steps are there in a scientific method and list all of them? (5 points)
The 1kg head of a golf club moves at 10 m/s in a circular arc of 1m radius. How much centripetal force must the player exert to prevent the club from flying out of her hands. (5 points)
Distinguish between mass and weight. (5 points)
A person drops apple from a window and it takes about 5s to reach the ground. Determine the height of the window from the ground. (5 points)
a) A horizontal force of 100 N is used to push a 20 kg box 10 meters across a level. How much work we have to do? (b) How much work is needed to raise the same box by 10 m? (10 points)
A 15 kW electric motor provides power for the elevator in a building. What is the minimum time needed for the elevator to rise 30 m to the sixth floor when the total mass when loaded is 900 kg? (15 points)
What is the KE of a 1000 kg car whose speed is 10 meters/sec? (5 points)
What is the gravitational potential energy of a 1000 kg car on top of a 45 m cliff? (5 points)
What is global warming? Give two reasons why global warming is causing sea level to rise? (5 points)
How much heat in KJ does it take to heat 80Kg of water from 20°C to 100°C? (C(water)=4.2 KJ/Kg °C) (15 points)

Question 21: Health Care

Gender identity disorder has become a controversial topic over the last few decades. Conduct research on a medical and psychological protocols a person would need to follow if considering gender reassignment

Question 22: Health Care

Create a newsletter to the “parents” in your classroom highlighting the important aspects of the safety lesson you are preparing to present to their children.

IMPORTANT: This newsletter is announcing to the parents the upcoming lesson you are going to give to their children BASED ON THE SAFETY LESSON PLAN YOU CREATED EARLIER IN THIS MODULE. This must be done in Microsoft WORD. Include in your newsletter:

The topic
Why this topic is important enough for you to create a lesson on it and deliver it to their children
The classroom policy that is either being reinforced through the lesson or is being created from the lesson
How you hope the parents will reinforce the policy in their home environment

Question 23: Health Care

Using the Safety Lesson Plan Activity Sheet Template attached below; AND the example Safety Lesson Plan your instructor reviewed in class, create a Lesson Plan related to a safety topic applicable to a classroom of 4-year-old children.

ECCE Lesson Plan Template

Student’s Name:

Book Title and Author:

Subject Area: Target Age of Group:

GELDS/CCGPS:

Instructional Objective: Children will

Materials and Resources Needed (Teacher Preparation):

Detailed Procedure (Include step-by-step directions):

Introduction:
Procedures:
Closing:

Evaluation/Checking for Understanding: (How will you know if they understand the concept and are ready to move on?)

Special Needs Accommodations:

Reflection: (Completed during Internship)

Question 24: Economics

Research, a general reference list in international Economics, such as: Specialized Journals General Journals Sources of International Data General Current information and the Internet Sources and develop a summary of the organization’s strategy and how they use these concepts to compete.

Instruction

APA format, no plagiarism, conclusion, and opinions base on research 1.5 pages.

Question 25: Other

Use a reference or two and have at least one page all together.

Estimating techniques.Compare and contrast techniques for estimating project time and cost. Under what circumstances might you use each of these techniques you are describing? Discuss this topic in the context of any personal or professional projects that you were involved with, or could manage in the future. How did you estimate project time and cost? How will use these estimation techniques in your future projects. How would a project manager use the WBS during the estimating process?
Project resources.What type of resources would a PM find in a project? How are these resources determined and when are they determined? How would use the concept of learning curves to estimate your human resource requirements? In your discussion, describe a project or process when you could have applied the concept of learning curves. How could applying the concept of learning curves improve the process or project?

Question 26: Other

Question 1:

How can a Project Manager decide which problems need to be reported to the top management, and which are not worth the trouble when attempting to “Never Surprise the Boss”?

Question # 2:

Generally, what causes conflicts on multidisciplinary teams? As a Project Manager, what would you try to do to prevent or reduce such conflicts?

Question # 3:

When making an estimate for the time and costs to execute a project, should the time and cost required to develop the planning, initial survey, monitoring and controlling systems be included in the budgeting as well? Should the actions required to monitor and control a project be included in the project’s action plan or WBS (Work Breakdown Structure) ?

Question 27: History

Write a short account of the conquering of the Aztecs by Cortez including who, what, when, where and why it happened. Be sure to explain why it was so easy for Cortez and his men to conquer the mighty Aztec Empire. Please explain each of your examples.

Question 28: Health Care

Use APA Format…

Nursing Policy Organization and Financing Healthcare

Answer all the questions in each prompt. Each response should be at least 2 paragraph. Be sure to cite your sources for each response in APA format.

Discuss your position regarding access to and coverage for health care. Are we obligated to provide access to and coverage for health care for all Americans as an entitlement (a right), or should health care be considered a commodity that is subject to the influences of economic, social, and market demand (supply and demand)? Be sure to include the rationale for your position in your discussion.

Answer:

What are the barriers to nurses’ participation in the development of health care policy at the state or national level or in an organization in the United States? Why do you think these are barriers? Support your opinion with a rationale or example.

Answer:

Evaluate and discuss clinical and business solutions for hospital improvement. Include in your discussion improvement of outcomes, reduction in costs, optimization of payment, and improvement in the overall patient experience.

Answer:

Discuss the nurse’s role in the policy development model. Additionally, talk about the policy meeting you have attended or will be attending. What key points could a nurse bring to this meeting and subject?

Answer:

Identify three components of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act that went into effect in 2014 and discuss their impact or potential impact on the practice of nursing and medicine. Be specific as to what the provision states, who it affects, and the impact that it may have.

Answer:

Describe a type of health care spending that you consider wasteful or services that you consider have little or no benefit. Explain why you find the spending wasteful, and if eliminated, what impact it may have on the American public.

Answer:

Identify three major components of the Medicare and Medicaid programs and, based on these components, identify at least two patient coverage gaps for each of the programs. Be clear when you describe the coverage and the gaps as they may relate to specific ages, patient populations, or disease entities. Use primary sources to identify the components and the gaps. Additionally, discuss your stand (criticize or defend) regarding the relevance of the Social Security program to the American public. Should the program be left alone, modified, drastically changed, or eliminated? Provide the rationale and use facts to defend your position.

Answer:

Select a state or federal law or regulation related to patient safety that has been implemented within the last five years requiring hospitals or any other health care organizations to change the way they manage the delivery of care. Discuss the changes that have occurred because of this law or regulation.

Additionally, discuss the technology associated with either your selected law/regulation or a similar one. Are there ethical dilemmas that have resulted from technology changes when delivering care to patients or patient safety? Explain the dilemmas and how they might be resolved.

Answer:

Evidence-based practice is extremely important in nursing. Throughout your master’s program, you will complete research on various topics. Knowing how to construct a strong problem statement and complete a critical analysis of the available information to write a literature review is essential.
This week, you will write a problem statement and perform a literature review in preparation for your ethical issues debate presentation. Share your problem statement in this discussion so that you can review each other’s work and provide peer-to-peer feedback. Also, describe what you think are the most important learning takeaways from the literature review resources you reviewed.

Answer:

Nurse-managed health centers and clinics are providing care at more convenient locations. Please explain the need for this change, benefits, and possible solutions to any obstacles.
Answer:

What is the difference between a protocol, standard of care delivery, and policy at the practice, state, and federal level? Briefly outline each. What are the perceptions of the health care delivery system from the perspectives of patients, providers, payers, and policy makers? Discuss at least one perception from one of the populations listed: patient, provider, payer, and policy maker.
Answer:

8.
A. Describe how the educational level achieved by a nurse or the entry point into professional nursing practice affects the quality and competence of a nurse’s participation in policy making.Why it is important for registered nurses to influence the regulatory process? Does the nurses education have influence on their ability to make an impact? .

Answer:

Reflect on what you have learned in this course. What were your major takeaways? Surprises? How will you apply what you have learned to your career?

Answer:

Question 29: Christianity

CHRISTIANITY

__________________

A Paper

Presented to

Dr. Carey A. Ford, III

Navarro College

__________________

In Partial Fulfillment

of the Requirements for PHIL 1301

__________________

Name of Student

Date

CHRISTIANITY

Claim

Please use this document as a template for your paper. Any other format is unacceptable. You can actually replace the words on this document with your own words so that you can make sure you have use the same font, size and margins. The text of your paper is to be 5-pages long plus a cover page for a total of 6 pages.

In this section, you need to present the claim for Christianity: 2,000 years ago God the Son came to the earth to reveal the Father to us and then to die to save us from our sins; the resurrection is the evidence which supports this claim. All this can be found in the Amazon eBook From Plato to Plantinga, by Carey Ford, Ph.D. You will need to explain several items in this section on the claim of Christianity:

Why is Jesus here called God the Son?
Why made Jesus qualified as the Son to reveal the Father to us?
What is meant by salvation? (Focus on transformation.)
Why is Christ’s resurrection important to the claim that Jesus is God the Son?

Evidence and Logical Support for Christianity

In this section, you will need to present in depth logical, philosophical evidence for Christianity, especially evidence that the resurrection of Jesus actually occurred:

The empty tomb
1. Explain why the empty tomb is negative evidence.
2. Alternate explanations of the empty tomb and the reason they are untenable.
3. The eyewitnesses who claimed they saw the resurrected Jesus.
4. Present the official list
5. Also mention the women who were not a part of the official list.
6. The credibility of the eyewitnesses
7. They suffered for their claim—how does this support their claim?
8. They were Jews—why is this important?
9. Women are listed—why is that important?

Response to Challenges to Materialism

Present and respond to the following challenges for Christianity:

Did Jesus even ever really exist?

1. a. He isn’t mentioned outside the NT (or was He?)
2. b. The attacks of the early opponents of Jesus verify that He lived.
3. c. The Jesus of the Gospels is not the kind of Jesus a Jew would have made up.

Evil and suffering: how can a loving God promoted by Christianity allow evil and suffering in the world?
The Document challenge:

1. a. The New Testament is contradictory in nature.
2. b. The NT was written decades after the events it describes.

The Mythological challenge: Christianity is based upon mythology

1. a. An example of a myth actually being based upon Christianity and not vice versa: the so-called Horusmyth.
2. b. Lewis’ view on myth and the view that Christianity is the basis of most of the myths.

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If you do not address all the challenges your system faces, you will not receive an A for the paper and an A for the course.

Question 30: Business

OPM 455 Assignment 02

The submission instructions are to be followed completely and exactly

Submission Instructions:

APA Style format is to be fully used for all aspects of the assignment.
Wikipedia, encyclopedias, and dictionaries (of any type) are not acceptable references.
Three references other than the textbook are required.
Word count: Minimum 1000, maximum 1500. This is exclusive of cover page, references, or any appendices, graphics, or tables considered necessary. An abstract or executive summary is not necessary or wanted and will not be consider part of the word count if included. The assignment questions can be used as heading (or subheadings).
Send finished MSWORD document ONLY via e-mail.
No embedded links, objects, or similar – Do not use automatic formatting tools. MSWORD (North American only) documents are to be unblocked, full permissions granted. Software language set to Canadian English (only).
Use Times New Roman or Arial, 12-point font, margins 2.5 centimeters. Line space = 1.5 min. and max.
Proofread, edit, spell check and grammar check before submission. 8. Cover page is to conform to Instruction #1 – plain, no graphics.

Mechanics: Failure to follow submission instructions, proofread, spell and grammar check or make a best effort at APA Style Format: Deduction = up to Two (2) Marks

Page 2 . . .

Ethics Dilemma: CEO Compensation

Critics of executive pay practices in Canada and the United States argue that CEOs choose Board of Director members whom they can count on to support ever-increasing pay for top management. If board members fail to provide this benefit, they risk losing their positions, their fees, and the prestige and power inherent in board membership.

In addition, it is not clear that executive compensation is tied to firm performance. For instance, KPMG found in one survey that for 40 percent of the respondents, there was no correlation between the size of the bonus and how poorly or well the company performed. Consider the data in the below exhibit, which illustrates the disconnect that can sometimes happen between CEO compensation and firm performance. National Post Business writers use an executive compensation formula that can be used to determine which CEOs were overpaid (or underpaid), based on their company’s performance between 2006 and 2009.

Deliverables:

Note: Simply stating some issue is unethical is meaningless. An ethical principle has to be stated and how it was violated.

How can such large pay packages for CEOs be explained (i.e., justified)? Marks = 2
Is high compensation of CEOs a problem and what ethical/business management problem might high compensation create? Marks = 2
If so, does the blame for the problem lie with CEOs, the shareholders and/or the Board of Directors that knowingly allow the practice? How could the issue of excessively high compensation be corrected. Marks = 3
Are these CEOs acting unethically? Should the CEOs pay reflect more closely some multiple of their employees’ wages? Marks = 3

Mechanics: Failure to follow submission instructions, proofread, spell and grammar check or make a best effort at APA Style Format: Deduction = up to 2 Marks

Page 3 . . .

OPM 455 Assignment 02

Exhibit

OPM 455 Assignment 02

Note: Research in Motion is now BlackBerry Ltd.

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Question 1: Law

The Cardigan family has made a name for themselves in the sweater industry whereby they have designed sweaters for a variety of uses and for a wide target audience ranging from toddlers to business professionals. Cassandra, whom everyone calls Cassie, is the CEO of CARDWARE Inc., Camoni is the spokesperson for the sweater line, and Candie models the lines in the professional sphere. They often use their mother, Camille, as a business consultant for input about various new ideas and marketing because she was the manager and agent of her son’s glove company. Cora and Caley, Camille’s two youngest daughters from her second failed marriage to Bo Jenkins, are co-office managers of their headquarters located in Silkadonia.

Camille has developed a good network among those in the fashion industry, especially the seamstresses who have been hired by well-known celebrities. One day, Camille spoke with Sonya, the owner and Lead Seamstress for Shazam Clothing Industries. Shazam is a leading manufacturer of unique limited edition clothes in Silkadonia. Camille presented Sonya with her order to sew a limited number (500) of hot pink and black machine knitted sweaters with a matching knit hat. Each sweater was to have a number and Candie Cardigan’s signature on a label sewn onto the bottom right side of the sweater. The hats would have the same label with matching number to its sweater, but sewn on the right side of the turned up hat cuff. Sonya agreed to make each sweater and hat pair for $100. Camille’s plan was to sell each set for $300 thereby making a $200 profit per set. While discussing the type of yarn to be used, Sonya’s cell phone rang. Sonya pushed a piece of paper and a color palette towards Camille and whispered, “write the type of yarn you want used and exact dye lots” and I will begin work on this right away. Camille did as requested, but forgot to give Sonya the traditional 25 % down payment. The down payment has always been used to purchase the materials.

Sonya completed production of all 500 sweaters in record time and has presented Camille with an invoice for payment for the same. At the bottom of the invoice, the words, “Payment Due Upon Receipt” was written. Camille changed her mind about wanting the sweaters and hats, as she decided that the items would not be as profitable as originally anticipated. Sonya now comes to the law firm you work for, P. Strami, and Hammond, Attorneys at Law, and wants to know if she has any recourse. Attorney Strami hands you the following instructions and asks that you draft a memorandum to him incorporating your research.

Dear Paralegal:

Please prepare a 2–3-page double-spaced memorandum in size 12 Times New Roman font with APA format citations and references page discussing the following in the order presented:

Please determine whether or not a contract has been formed using the basic contract principles of offer, acceptance, and consideration. State whether or not any of the crucial parts of the initial offer may be missing.
Further, please research whether or not Camille and Sonya’s prior course of dealings has an impact on the parties’ communications and whether or not Sonya would be successful against CARDWARE Inc. should a breach of contract lawsuit be brought against her.
Do not forget to provide your legal research within your memorandum. You may use case law to make comparisons, your textbook, and reliable Internet research to provide in-text citations for your work. Do not use Wikipedia.

Question 2: History

Please read the information below and write an essay of at least 250 words about the Iroquois Confederacy and the importance it has in American History. When writing an essay of this type, include important information, such as who, what, when, where and why. This essay should include solid information and there should be evidence of your critical thinking skills. Please do NOT plagiarize. Plagiarized work will receive a ZERO. Grammar and spelling are part of this grade. EveryCulture.com (Links to an external site.) The Six Nations: Oldest Living Participatory Democracy on Earth (Links to an external site.) The League of the Iroquois (Links to an external site.) Iroquois Confederacy Video (Links to an external site.) Iroquois Video

Question 3: Finance

A minimum of seven slides is required for your oral presentation. The Microsoft PowerPoint Presentation should include: Title slide Abstract slide Answers to the outlined questions Conclusion slide Use in-text citations where appropriate in your slide’s note section. Use an APA 6th edition style and guidelines for your reference slide and cite at least one source

Assignment: PowerPoint

Here is an opportunity to connect you current learning about revenues, expenses and adjusting entries with the profession’s commitment to ethics.

EC3: Russell Company is a pesticide manufacturer. Its sales declined greatly this year due to the passage of legislation outlawing the sale of several of Russell’s chemical pesticides. In the coming year, Russell will have environmentally safe and competitive chemicals to replace these discontinued products. Sales in the next year are expected to greatly exceed any prior years. The decline in sales and profits appears to be a one-year aberration. Even so, the company president fears a large dip in the current year’s profits. He believes that such a dip could cause a significant drop in the market price of Russell’s stock and make the company a takeover target.

To avoid this possibility, the company president calls in Zoe Baas, controller, to discuss this period’s year-end adjusting entries. He urges her to accrue every possible revenue and to defer as many expenses as possible. He says to Zoe, “We need the revenues this year, and next year can easily absorb expenses deferred from this year. We can’t let our stock price be hammered down!” Zoe didn’t get around to recording the adjusting entries until January 17, but she dated the entries December 31 as if they were recorded then. Zoe also made every effort to comply with the president’s request.

Weygandt, J.J., Kimmel, P.D., & Kieso, D.E (2018). Accounting Principles (13^th Ed.). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons, Inc.

Respond thoroughly to the following questions in your PowerPoint presentation:

Who are the stakeholders in this situation?
What are the ethical considerations of (a) the president’s request and (b) Zoe dating the adjusting entries December 31?
Can Zoe accrue revenues, defer expenses, and still be ethical?
Can Zoe’s accrued revenues and deferred expenses be illegal?
Who do you think can discover Zoe’s accrued revenues and deferred expenses?

Question 4: Health care

Write a response of 250 words for each question. Question 1, 2, 3, & 4 should be answered separately with a 250-word count for each. The questions should relate to nursing and evidence based practice. each question requires at least one reference.

Health plans participating in the Affordable Care Act must be accredited; what is the difference between the National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA) and the Utilization Review Accreditation Commission (URAC)? Why would a health plan select one over the other? 2. Do you think it is important for health care organizations to be paid for quality of performance? Why or why not? 3. In an accountable care organization (ACO), insurance companies are looking at how health care organizations care for a specific population. How do you think this impacts the health of the population? 4. What are the similarities and differences between an ACO and a managed care organization (MCO)? Describe a personal or professional situation in which you encountered either an ACO or MCO.

Question 5: General

Brief Knowledge of Alpha Kappa Mu History –at least 200 words typed (double-spaced). Along with the history, include how you would like to contribute to Alpha Kappa Mu.

Question 6: Psychology

Discussion post at least 350 words**

Instruction

Respond to all of the following questions related to Psychoanalytic, Adlerian, and Existential Therapy. (in APA Style) an outside resource (see grading rubric below). Select one of the defense mechanisms from the reading and provide a description and a specific example the defense mechanism being used. You can apply this to yourself or someone that you know. Compare and contrast your own family experience with Adler’s view on birth order. Is your experience consistent regarding his take on sibling relationship and birth position? Provide support for your response as to why or why not. According to the text, “Existential Therapy places central prominence on the person-to-person relationship. It assumes that client growth occurs through this genuine encounter. It is not the techniques a therapist uses that makes a therapeutic difference; rather it is the quality of that client-therapist relationship that heals” (p. 157). Question: What is your reaction related to this notion? Make sure to support your opinion with information from the textbook reading or other referenced sources. If you viewed the video, Good Will Hunting what role did you think the relationship between Will and his therapist play with respect to Will’s progress in treatment? **Grading Rubric for Discussion Posts- 8 Points** Did the student answer the question fully? (4 points) Did the response incorporate and make reference to the assigned reading? (1 point) Did the response include at least one outside resource with reference listed? (2 points) Did the student respond to at least 2 other student posts (1 point)

Question 7: Business

International Business

You are to write a 1 to 3 page short and concise recommendation based on your presentation about what Target should do in regard to international expansion. It should parallel your presentation, and should not exceed the three-page limit; points will be given for being succinct and to the point. Again present your recommendation to expand or to not expand and support it with 3 to 5 main points from topics we learned throughout the course. Do not read your paper word for word as your presentation. Be sure to properly cite sources using APA format.

Question 8: General

Instruction

All you have to do is respond to how the original question was answered it’s a discussion board agree or disagree stating why or add additional input

American Government

What in your view is the most important policy issue facing the United States? Why is it important and which specific problems need to be solved?

Prison-based Gerrymandering is an important policy issue that the United States is facing. The Legal Defense & Educational Fund, Inc. (LDF, 2020) defines “Prison-based gerrymandering” as a practice whereby many states and local governments count incarcerated persons as residents of the areas where they are confined when election district lines are drawn and not where they are from. According to the Prison Policy Initiative (n.d.), the U.S. Census Bureau uses these counts to draw state and local legislative districts to enhance the weight of votes cast by people who live near prisons at the expense of everyone else in the state or county. A 2018 Philadelphia Inquirer analysis revealed out of more than 12,000 prisoners (25% of the state prison population) were from Philadelphia and at least 80% were housed in state prisons more than 100 miles from home. One such individual, R. Holbrook, was 16 years old when he was convicted and served 27 years of a life sentence in Greene County. He was released and returned home 3 years ago to Delaware County. Because he was counted in the 2010 Census as a resident of Greene County, he is still considered a Greene County resident today for purposes of apportionment (Melamed, 2020).

2)There are many policy issues the US is facing like Environmental, Education and Healthcare. The policy in need of the most attention and urgency is the Immigration policy. Literally, kids are being ripped from their parents and thrown in cages. This is bigger than policy and politics this is a humane issue. The current US immigration policy current immigration policy is called, The Immigration and Nationality Act (INA). The INA allows the United States to grant up to 675,000 permanent immigrant visas each year across various visa categories. Immigrants migrate to the US for many reason weather it’s to join their families, to work, and to seek safety and refuge from war, violence, and natural disasters. In 2017 Trump tried to derail the Deferred Action for Childhood Arrivals (DACA) program, which has protected more than 800,000 undocumented immigrants from deportation brought to the country as children and granted them work permits. Literally, kids are being ripped from their parents and thrown in cages. This is bigger than policy and politics this is a humane issue. There are still families that are separated from each other because of this. The U.S. has prided themselves on the land of the free and yet we have many immigrants scared for their lives. One main problem is that refugee vetting takes about 2 years and workers without college degrees only get 5,000 green cards. Illegal immigrants cannot leave and reapply to return legally. Overall the immigration policies are old, outdated and not setup for a clear pathway to become a U.S. citizen. We must

streamline and simplify the process, and instantly stop putting immigrant families in these inhabitable jailsThe irony is incarcerated individuals do not have the right to vote making this issue important because the practice of prison-based gerrymandering artificially inflates the population count and distorts the democratic process along with the political influence of the districts where prisons are located. Consequently, the voting power of everyone living outside of those districts is weakened (Legal Defense & Educational Fund, Inc., 2020).

If you were president and wanted to gather support for a new foreign policy initiative, which three U.S. foreign policy actors would you approach and why? What do you think is the most advantageous school of thought for the United States to follow in foreign policy in the future? Why?

I would approach Homeland Security to ensure that the initiative would not cause any threats to the nation. I would enlist the Senate Foreign Relations to attempt to get the Senate votes. I would, also, enlist support from the House Foreign Affairs to attempt for the House of Representatives votes. I believe that the most advantageous school of thought for the United States to follow in regards to foreign policy in the future is that we need foreign relations and allies, and we must show a united front when attempting to garner a productive relationship with foreign governments.

2)If I were president (feeling the grays growing in as I type! lol) and wanted to gather support for a new foreign policy initiative, I would have to go with the 3 who are most familiar and possibly most qualified. Which would be the secretaries of state, defense, and homeland security. With their experience, knowledge, training, and 1st hand decision making within foreign policy, me being new and looking to set a new initiative. I would like the backing of those I feel would be the most qualified to advise me in my success. Through readings, research of clarification, and videos provided, I’ve put together that there is four schools of thought. The one I would prefer to see moving forward to be followed would be isolationism. Why? In a nutshell, the United States has the tendency of being too “nosey” and/or involved. Isolationism does somewhat the opposite of that. Taking a fall back approach of being isolated and less involved.

Management

How can the concepts learned in this course help you be successful in your personal life and professional life? Be specific.

1) Every single day we all use some type of management either at home or in a work related environment. Whether you’re the big boss or that janitor at your business no one goes through an entire day without managing someone or something. I have always been a VERY organized people at home, at work and in school. Sometimes I was very effective in my

concepts and sometimes I was not too effective in the way that I handle some things. It is so important to stay organized and plan things out in every aspect of your life. Not only does it prepare you and help with your readiness in those situations but it also prepares you for something to go wrong and alternative ways to handle a specific situation. This class has only improved my sense of management in large groups. The different concepts that can be used to implement change and how to account for things to not work out. Being a leader, a big part of this course in how to manage large groups. Being a coach I sometimes forget that I am the leader of that class and I do need to maintain control over those attending to avoid chaos. This class has served me well in showing the importance of being a leader and acting like it. The biggest take away from this class is self-management. Although I am already a very organized person everyone can always improve and that is something that I am continuously Hire an essay writer online 2020? https://homeworknest.com/ has all the answers. Online Professional tutoring tailored for college students studying online. 2020 revision materials , Timed quizzes, biology quizzes, Us History assignment help. Dissertation, thesis help at cheap prices. Give your online courses grade A boost. Homework nest is the ultimate answer. register today. https://www.homeworknest.com/ and get all types of assignment help today. Our Expert tutors are waiting for you. The cheapest essay writing service in 2020. Ace my Homework is a question asked by many college and university students. we got them all answers at Homework Nest. Do my homework for a pay? Where can I hire an online essay writer? You can trust us with all of your assignments needs.

trying to do in my everyday life.

2) Management is defined as the process of dealing with or controlling things or people. It is the act that consists of general functions as planning, organizing, staffing, leading and controlling. Common sense dictates that without these principles of management being in place an organization would have trouble achieving its goals. This is what I find in my own personal and professional life. Each one of these concepts have helped me achieve my goals. I am a natural planner, so reading this just encouraged me more in this area. Organizing was a little more challenging. For me, I used this to structure my work. I have been more organized in action and thought with how to plan my day and get the goals I set done. I do not staff a business, but I used to manage a staff and had to make all the schedules fit. This really ties in with planning and organizing when you are dealing with many employees. Controlling and maintaining have always been the hardest. This is imperative to a successful business. I let an employee get away with slacking off for a week and I got an earful of complaints. I had to talk to this employee and write him up. Inaction is just a decision to do nothing. I have learned not to let these negative things fester. It will come back to bite you

Question 9: Education

Research topic: Finnish early education model provide the following information: 1. Summarize the key beliefs the model promotes regarding the learning and development of young children. Include information identifying the major theoretical influences on the selected curriculum model. 2. Outline the key programming and curriculum elements the selected model uses for planning and setting up the learning environment. Specifically address the elements of the curriculum cycle: Observation Goal setting Planning Implementation Assessment 3. Provide a summary of the types of assessment used and the role of documentation strategies used to evaluate on-going learning and plan subsequent opportunities. Have a minimum of 5 scholarly references to support the statements you make regarding the model. 4 pages (not include any title page

Question 10: Science

This interaction could be due to the mechanism of action of the drugs (i.e. a pharmacodynamic interaction), or due to one drug (the precipitant drug) impacting the other drug’s (the object drug) absorption, distribution, metabolism or excretion (a pharmacokinetic interaction). Either type of interaction (pharmacodynamic or pharmacokinetic) could result in serious adverse effects, toxicity, or in some cases, therapeutic failure. Students will submit a paper describing the mechanism of action of each drug, the underlying pharmacological/biomedical basis of the drug interaction, the clinical relevance or consequence of the interaction, and at least one recommendation to minimize or avoid the interaction if a patient was prescribed those medications (e.g. dose adjustment in one or both drugs, replace one drug with another (appropriate) drug that does not interact, etc.). Students must provide at least 4 references. Drugs = Diltiazem + cyclosporine

Question 11: Business

In a well thought out PowerPoint presentation, discuss the impact of e-commerce and digital technology for small business. How can the latest technologies be integrated into small business?

Instruction

Instructions: Develop a formal 8-10 slide presentation Your presentation should include an Agenda slide and a References slide. Include speaker notes to further the content of your presentation in lieu of putting all your information on each slide OR record a video of your presentation and include the link for viewing. Follow APA format for structure of your references. Support your essay with 3 credible, academic references beyond the course materials. Please note Wikipedia, Investopedia and similar general websites are not credible academic references. Grading Rubric: Please review the rubric provided for details on how this assignment will be evaluated.

Question 12: Psychology

Instruction

Several states have abolished the use of an insanity defense, an action upheld by the U.S. Supreme Court in 1994. Based on class lectures and text readings, what is your opinion of the insanity defense? Should it be abolished? Has your view of it changed since before you took this course? Be sure to argue your point logically and persuasively, as if trying to convince me we either should or should not abolish it. If needed, you can also review some information at the following site: http://www.washingtonpost.com/wp-srv/local/longterm/aron/qa227.htm

Insanity Defense
1. Criminal Responsibility
  1. Insanity defense: a legal argument that a defendant should not be held responsible for illegal action if a mental illness or cognitive defect interferes with rationality or the ability to distinguish right from wrong
  2. Insanity is not the same thing as mental illness

Aimed at a verdict of Not Guilty by reason of insanity (NGRI)

Used in fewer than 2% of criminal trials, successful 25-30% of the time it’s used

Sentencing Goals
1. Incapacitation: confinement of the offenders, segregating them from society so they are unable to commit further crimes.
2. General Deterrence: the threat of punishment that leads individuals to avoid crime. (seeing a cop pull someone over- you slow down so you do not get pulled over)
3. Special ( or specific) Deterrence: the aversive experience of punishment to prevent an individual form recidivating (repeating an offense).
4. Rehabilitation: interventions designed to bring about changes in behavior so that he/she may become a productive, functional member of society ( dui- go back to defensive driving classes so you rehabilitate your driving to become a functional member of society)( education and therapy facilities in prisons)
5. Retribution: the severity of the punishment should be commensurate with the severity of the crime

Definitions of Insanity
1. Irresistible Impulse Test: persons cannot be held accountable for their behavior if one’s mental condition makes it impossible for them to control a powerful impulse despite knowledge that the impulse is morally wrong
2. M’Naghten Rule: persons cannot be held accountable for actions if a “defect of reason” or “disease of the mind” made it so they:
  1. Did not know what they were doing during act, or→
  2. Knew what they were doing but could not tell the difference between right and wrong
3. American Law Institute (ALI) Rule: combines irresistible impulse and M’Naghten Rule
  1. A person is not responsible if a mental disease (illness) or defect (ability) interfered with his/her ability to either appreciate the wrongfulness of his/her act to conform his conduct to the law.’
  2. “Mental diseases or defects” do not include those which are defined by repeated criminal offenses
    - Antisocial personality disorder- mainly defined as behavior that defines the rules of going against society rules, most people who continually are involved in crimes are diagnosed with this illness, you can claim it but it wont work as an insanity defense.
    - Tell judge you shouldn’t have has sex but i have an illness called pedophilia in the dsm but it won’t work, you can claim it all you want

Insanity Defense Reform Act: enacted by Congress in 1984
1. Abolished irresistible impulse part (volitional prong) of American Law Institute (ALI)
2. Defense is required to prove insanity rather than prosecution having to prove sanity (shift of burden of proof).- affirmative defense (defense has to prove insanity)

Must be incarcerated for maximum possible sentence as if found guilty

Guilty But Mentally Ill (GBMI)
1. Verdict alternative allowed in 13 states
2. In theory, defendant found GBMI serves sentence in psychiatric institution and then prison for maximum possible sentence
3. GBMI defendants often receive longer sentences and serve more time than those found guilty for the same offenses
4. Many GBMI defendants go straight to prison with no psychiatric care

Insanity Defense Info
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1. Some states have abolished the insanity defense
2. Juries are less likely to acquit for insanity than a judge
3. Women are also much more likely to be successful with an NGRI defense than men
4. NGRI defendants spend more time confined than comparable felons found guilty of the same offense

Assessment of Sanity
1. Slobogin MSE (The Mental State at the Time of the Offense Screening Evaluation): designed to decide whether a further evaluation might support an insanity or mental status defense
2. R-CRAS (The Rogers Criminal Responsibility Assessment Scales): defendants are rated on characteristics including psychopathology, reliability of their crime report, behavioral control, etc.

Men’s Rea (guilty mind) Cases
1. Men’s rea= state of mind
2. Men’s rea defenses are based on diminished capacity and thus argue for diminished responsibility
  1. Not looking for a not guilty verdict but the person had some but not as much as a guilty verdict, looking for a lower sentence
3. Many such defenses center around psychiatric conditions

Dissociative Identity Disorder (Multiple Personality Disorder
1. Existence of more than one discrete personality within the same individual
2. Highly controversial disorder that even makes professionals skeptical
3. Rarely successful as a diminished capacity defense

Amnesia
1. Amnesia= loss of memory
2. Chronic organic amnesia: due to neurological damage
3. Functional Retrograde Amnesia: memory loss due to severe psychological trauma
4. Limited Amnesia: inability to remember one or more episodes form the recent past typically due to shock, seizures, drugs, or alcohol
5. Amnesia tends to be unsuccessful as a defense

Question 13: Religious Studies

QUOTE: Apostolic skills are crucial in spreading the word of Christ. Acquiring this gift bestows power on the leaders in expanding the ministry by preaching, administering ordinances, censure, reprove, and counsel. Katharina, Bracht. “Christ as Helmsman of the State Ship Old-church Daniel Reception and reformist Mastery of Understanding.” ZEITSCHRIFT FUR KIRCHENGESCHICHTE 128, no. 1 (2017): 17-40. Please provide a photograph or screenshot of the specific passage where you utilized this source. The screenshot must show the context for the quote. QUOTE: The management of the ministry should ultimately glorify God and benefit His people. Kent R., Wilson. Steward leadership in the nonprofit organization. Intervarsity Press, 2016. Please provide a photograph or screenshot of the specific passage where you utilized this source. The screenshot must show the context for the quote.

Question 14: Business

Chapter 7

https://courses.lumenlearning.com/wmopen-introductiontobusiness/chapter/why-it-matters-business-ownership/

Describe sole proprietorships, partnerships, and corporations; compare advantages & Disadvantages of each.
What are the differences between the different types of corporations?
What are the advantages & disadvantages of franchises?
If you were in the process to open your own small business, what type of ownership would you choose and why?

Question 15: Business

Chapter 6

https://courses.lumenlearning.com/wmopen-introductiontobusiness/chapter/why-it-matters-business-ethics-and-corporate-social-responsibility/

The requirements for this discussion is twofold:

1) The board of Directors of ABC Company has determined that there is a lack of ethical behavior among its managers and general staff. They hire you as their consultant to present a plan to them that will include specific recommendations with rational describing what the company needs to do to improve the ethical behavior of its employees. Remember being unethical does not necessarily mean illegal. Start you proposal indicating why ethical behavior is important for all employees within a company

2) Read the following critical thinking scenarios carefully and respond:

You are a member of the Board of Directors for ABC Company. As a Board member you are asked to respond to the following scenario:

John is the CEO of ABC Company and has turned the company around. Prior to John being appointed as the CEO, the company had some sever financial problems. John has come in and made the necessary changes that needed to be made and the company has not only turned around, but continues to prosper under John’s leadership. However, the issue that has come to light is John’s character. John is married with children, but is a flirt inside and outside the company. Within the company no one has made a formal complaint (re: harassment), but everyone is well aware of his flirtatious character. Outside the company John has been seen with other women with behavior that does not appear to be platonic in nature. He has attended Gala openings for new businesses with women other than his wife. His character has been suspect and this has been bought to your attention as a Board member of the company.

Do you see any issue with John staying on with the company as the CEO? Do you feel John’s behavior may be determential to the company in the future? Do you see John’s behavior as a problem? If so, should anything be done to correct his behavior?

Question 16: English

Be sure to read the Essay Project #2 link on the Menu.

Hopefully you’ve all had the chance to see the 1957 movie “Twelve Angry Men” (if not, watch it asap. I have it linked on the Menu). By the way, it was this film that influenced a very young Sonia Sotomayor to become a lawyer, and of course, she now serves on the Supreme Court!

These first two weeks, I want you all to do some research on the qualities of a critical thinker. I would say to start within, write down whatever ones you already believe you know. Then go online. When you do go to Google (I’m just assuming!), don’t everyone just use the hit result; I want all of you to visit at least three sites, pull some points from each of them, make a master list. Come up with at least seven qualities. Then, using the movie-specifically, Juror #8 (Henry Fonda’s character, the one in the white suit who first voted “not guilty”)-discuss his character in a well-developed response paper of at least 200 words citing at least three characteristics you found that apply to him. Cite specific moments/lines from the movie. Be sure to cite your sources at the end in MLA format. If anyone wants to take this further, consider writing a paragraph on Juror #3, the one who yells most of the time, the one with the estranged son; what are several ways in which he is NOT a critical thinker?

EN 102 Essay Project #2- Critical Thinking

The Assignment: By the end of the project, you should be able to identify, define and explain the characteristics of a critical thinker as well as the benefits to being one. Finally, you will choose at least three of these characteristics and discuss in a well-developed essay the ways you shall utilize them.

Why We Do This: As a subject, Critical Thinking is thinking about thinking, learning how we can become more logical, analytical and skilled at communicating while also being passionate and curious, among other traits. As a discipline, Critical Thinking is a way of life, a practice that helps people to navigate a fast-paced and increasingly complex world. This project itself is an exercise in critical thinking. In fact, one will find the phrase occurring in the majority of college syllabi as well as many job descriptions; learning and writing about and mastering this subject prepares a person for a productive, successful and meaningful adult life.

How We Do This: Over the next four weeks, you will perform research into the essential characteristics of a critical thinker, the benefits of its practice and well-known examples of critical thinkers. We will share our findings in class as well as view some online resources, including a classic movie, Twelve Angry Men (1957). At the end of the research period, you will have one week to work on a rough draft of the essay topic, revise and edit and then compose the final version.

Week One: Twelve Angry Men + a general discussion of Critical Thinking

Week Two: the characteristics of a Critical Thinker

Week Three: the benefits of critical thinking

Week Four: examples of critical thinkers

Week Five: writing the essay

Question 17: Law

LGS3010 – Project 1 Outline

Major Project Outcomes

In this project you will identify legal forms of property. To do so you will:

Describe and identify real, personal and intellectual properties
Explain the historical changes in the legal definition of property.
Investigate the historical changes regarding persons who could own property.

PROJECT ASSIGNMENT

Using the references in the module, and any others you decide to choose, create a presentation in any form you choose (e.g. PowerPoint, Video etc.) that clearly demonstrates you have met the outcomes of the project requirements identified above.

INSTRUCTIONS

Complete the Project Assignment – use PowerPoint or a similar program
Name it appropriately.
Submit it to the Dropbox.

Assignment/PowerPoint Tips

Presentations on PowerPoint can be an engaging or boring. Please looks at the following tips to improve your PowerPoints Presentations. A presentation is much different than a report or essay. Please follow the guidelines laid out in the following websites.

8 Simple Rules for Stronger PowerPoint Presentations

Simple rules for better PowerPoint presentations

The 4 Most Important PowerPoint RULES for Successful Presentations

Images

This is a presentation so include images or graphics or multimedia: Relevant images can illustrate what you are talking about on the slide. The most “compelling” images/graphics would be ones that are evidence supporting your arguments. Use images/graphics as you would any source or written example/evidence. Include relevant image captions. And cite your image sources in a references section.

Support Your Arguments:

In all assignments, you will also be expected to support your arguments with evidence or examples.

Examples demonstrate understanding. Examples that are not in the course content demonstrate you can apply concepts to new situations/issues/topics, and therefore an even higher level of understanding, highlight these examples by bolding that text.

For example, you could cite specific legal cases or laws or how laws have been applied in specific circumstances.

Watch the following video animations, set in a classroom courtroom, to understand supporting evidence.

Claims and Support (from McGraw-Hill Education):

Claims and Supporting Evidence – 2:

You don’t need to click this

If you are still unsure about the skills expectation of supporting your opinions, see the Supporting Evidence page in the Student Tools section of content for more resources that will help you to better understand how you can do this in your presentations.

Avoid Logical Fallacies in Your Arguments

See the Logical Fallacies page in the Student Tools section of content for the types of arguments to avoid in your writing. Logical fallacies are false logic. For example, an Ad Hominum argument attacks the person making the argument instead of the merit of the argument.

Courtroom judges will not accept logical fallacies in legal cases. Similarly, they are not accepted as valid arguments in academic writing. Logical fallacies are the opposite of critical thinking and logical arguments.

Question 18: Health Care

Activity 7: E-Waste and Commodity Analysis

The contemporary economy produces increasing masses of “e-waste” – computer monitors, processors, cell phones, televisions, and other goods that, while still functional, are thrown away or occasionally recycled. These typically become hazards, as they contain mercury and other heavy metals that enter waterways and the ecosystem.

Watch the 17 min. video, “E-Waste Hell”:
https ://www.youtube.com/watch?feature:player:embedded&v:dd ZttK3 PuM

V/atch the 4 min. CNN video, “‘Where do Cell Phones Go To Die”: http://monev.cnn.com/video/technoloqv/2013/05/31/t-china-electronic-waste.cnnmonev/index. html

Also, watch the 8 min.20l0 Free Range Studios video, “The Story of Electronics with Annie Leon- ard”:
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=EYpavuE6plq&feature=plaver embedded #t=14

To receive full credit, please be detailed in your answers, providing examples from your text, the notes and the videos above. Note: Some answers can only be found in the video5-ss, þs sure to read through the questions before viewing to listen for the ans\ryers.

What is e-waste?
What are the tendencies of capitalism that make such waste necessary?

ENV105 Activity: E-Waste and Commodity Analysis Page ll2

What are some of the externalized costs of production that companies avoid to help keep costs down? Name at least two.
What environmental justice issues might arise in the disposal and recycling of these goods?
What is extended producer responsibility?
Give four examples of extended producer responsibility to demonstrate how this can help with e-waste.

ENVIOS Activity: E-\ilaste and Commodity Analysis Page2l2

Question 19: Health Care

Instruction

Write a 1,250-1,500-word essay about quality improvement. Include the following points in your essay: Describe which accrediting body would be most appropriate for your health care organization. Summarize the requirements to obtain accreditation. Based on your research and experience, what performance or quality metrics could you focus on for a quality improvement project to present to the accrediting body? How does the quality performance financially impact the organization? Include at least three references, including the textbook. Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.

Question 20: Business

Part 1: Describe the role and importance of listening skills in cross-cultural communication. How can these skills be learned or improved? Part 2:Consider the following statement: “Each culture has its own norms of etiquette. In a diverse society like America, as well as in a globalized world, it is difficult to establish principles of communication etiquette that would apply in most business situations.” What do you think of this view? Have you ever been misunderstood due to cultural differences? Are there any principles of etiquette that might be considered universal? Give reasons and examples to support your answer.

Question 21: History

150-word discussion question about African American history

Instruction

How did changes in the meaning of blackness both expand and challenge traditionally held ideas of race?

Question 22: History

write a 3-page essay on one case of police brutality in the state of North Carolina. and a reference page. double space.12 font times new Roman

Question 23: Biology

MODULE 2 ASSIGNMENT: RESEARCH AND REPORT

OVERVIEW

As you have seen throughout this module, the use of vaccines is a point of debate. Your task is to present to a parent of one of your young patients an overview of the different systems, and your personal argument either for or against vaccines.

INSTRUCTIONS

Prepare a 500-minimum word report for a parent. In your report, provide the following:

A summary of the three different systems covered in this module (i.e., vascular or circulatory, lymphatic, and immune systems)

Address how blood vessels and lymphatic organs work together, and with other systems, to maintain homeostasis.

Address how the immune system maintains homeostasis by protecting the body.

Describe the following: (Feel free to create a diagram if that is helpful.)
The main blood vessels that form the systemic, pulmonary, and portal circulation. Include the function of each one.

The main arteries that supply blood to the head, trunk, and upper and lower limbs

The two main veins of the body. Include the parts of the body that drain blood on each one.

Trace or describe the pathway of the lymph from the left foot to the left subclavian artery.

Make a note of the differences between the T and B lymphocytes. Identify the location of the spleen and tonsils, and include their functions.

Your paper should be formatted as a proper research paper with an introduction and conclusion. Do not simply follow the bullet points above, but really think about what you have learned and how that relates to other material we have covered and knowledge you have from other courses you may have taken.
Outline your recommendation either for or against the use of vaccines. Be sure to consider these questions: What is the difference between innate and acquired, passive and active, and natural and artificial immunities? How does the knowledge of them help you explain the physiological foundation of vaccination?
All references must be cited using APA Style format. Please refer to the CCCOnline APA Citation Toolkit.

Remember, use what you have learned from this module to complete the assignment. In some cases, you may need to conduct additional research. You can use the library research guides posted for you in the Grading and Evaluation section of the Syllabus module.
Submit your paper to the Module 2 Assignment: Research and Report assignment folder.

See the Course Schedule and Course Rubrics sections in the Syllabus module for due dates and grading information.

Question 24: Business

Demographics can include population, age, gender, race, ethnicity, veteran status, foreign born persons, housing, family and living arrangements, computer and Internet use, education, health, economy, transportation, income and poverty, businesses, or geography. You are a program manager tasked with learning more about your population’s demographics. Understanding these characteristics can result in developing or revising programs to more effectively target your community’s unique needs. For example, if you were to determine that unemployment and homelessness is higher in your area for those aged under 30 years old, you could more effectively target interventions and recruit partners tailored to that population (which may be different interventions and partners if your community saw increased homelessness in those aged 60 and over). Your first objective is to examine your local data and compare it to your state and country. Go to the U.S. Census website located in this week’s readings list. . This website allows for a city, town, state, or county to be entered for data generation. Compare data of your local community (city or county) to data in your 1) state, and 2) country. If you are examining a country other than the United States, feel free to use another website for that information. Explore the different factors, topics, and ways to generate data (table, charts, etc.). Select any five of the 18 factors shown: population, age, gender, race, ethnicity, veteran status, foreign born persons, housing, family and living arrangements, computer and internet use, education, health, economy, transportation, income and poverty, businesses or geography. Length: 5-pages not including title or reference pages (tables, maps, charts, or other illustration that can be easily generated from the Census website) Develop a comparative snapshot of your community. Compare and contrast the data by answering the following questions: What do the factors you selected tell you about your community as compared to your state and country? What are two to three main problems your community might be facing? Provide descriptive statistics to support your choices. Why do you think your community may be facing these problems? Consider your population, historical happenings, changes in major employers, or other events. How might this census data be used to help in program development to combat these problems? References: Include a minimum of 5 scholarly resources. You may use additional information from library sources or the Internet and be certain to cite these sources.

Question 25: Business

There are many reasons why a company should pay attention to their reputation as it relates to their future vendor relations and product supply costs and availability. Complete the following: Discuss why it is important for organizations to manage their reputation by answering the following questions: What impact could a poor quality product have on a company? How does reputation help a company to be more competitive? How do you think a company can improve their vendor and customer relations? Summarize 3 examples of what goes into the reputation of a company.

Question 26: Business

Inferential data analysis uses statistical tests to determine whether a pattern you observe is due to chance or due to the program results. Research often uses inferential analysis to see if there is a relationship between an intervention and an outcome, as well as the strength of that relationship. (1) In your role as program manager, you are interested in learning more about what types of inferential data analysis can be used for public administration program evaluation. From the Northcentral Library, locate three articles that utilized inferential data analysis in their studies. Suggested public administration-related publications include but are not limited to Administrative Science Quarterly, Public Administration Review, Journal of Public Administration Research and Theory, Governance, and American Review of Public Administration. From the three articles, develop a literature review summary that evaluates the three studies’ use of inferential data analysis. A key purpose is to understand that data within the field of public administration can be evaluated by diverse inferential data analysis techniques. Length: 3-pages, not including title or reference pages A 1-page bulleted summary for each article (problem, purpose, RQs, hypotheses, research design, inferential statistics used, and findings) For each article, were the selected inferential statistics appropriate? Why or why not? For each article, what other statistical tests might have been used, and how might results be different? References: Include a minimum of 5 scholarly resources. In addition to the three journal articles evaluated, include at least two additional scholarly resources in your references to support your data analysis discussion.

Question 27: Sociology

Approximately 400 words and must include discussion of an additional article. In your reply focus on one or two of the concepts or theories mentioned in the reading summary. Focus on the following types of questions in your reply: how does the contemporary article update the original version of the concept or theory? Does the article show the original concept or theory to be more or less relevant to contemporary sociology? Are there technological changes in our postmodern society which make the theory or concept more or less relevant? You won’t may also express your opinions about the article and any issues that you see were not covered adequately, or that you might disagree with.

SUMMARY:

Webber focuses on domination and legitimacy and he does this by offering a sociological perspective. Weber defines the three “ideal types as rational or legal authority, traditional authority, and charismatic authority. Weber goes on and defines legitimacy as the “the belief system on which valid commands issuing from authority figures are based”. He explains it supplying the justifications for demanding obedience and practice domination rightfully over others. When defining domination it was explained as a group of people obeying a specific command.

The three pure types of authority are rational grounds, traditional grounds and, Charismatic grounds.

CONCEPTS

1) Rational Grounds-Obedience is owed to the legally established impersonal order. This looks to be established by an agreement which means laws are created and passed by the legislatures to guide the citizens of a country. B) This language is different from everyday language because the author uses words that could be mainly understood by those who have invested their time in the authority field. The other side of this is that when we hear legal authority in everyday language we automatically think of the police and the court system. The police departments are public agencies whose purposes are to enforce the criminal law, maintaining order, and providing security services whereas courts operate to seek justice and discover the truth which is very broad and generalized compared to this definition by weber. C) An example that the author uses to explain sociological significance is when he states “He may be part of an association, of a community, of a church, or a citizen of a state”.

2) Traditional grounds- A) authority will be called tradition; if the legitimacy is claimed for it and believed in under the sanctity of age-old rules and powers. B) This language differs from the use in everyday language because, in the traditional authority, the King had the divine right and authority. So, this would be in place during the medieval period under feudalism. There are more tangible and realistic examples of authority in traditional society. For example, the authority and powers could be based on religious institutions such as the Catholic Church. However, in our societies, teachers have authority over students and parents have authority over children, however, it is not an absolute authority like the author mentions that God has over people. Since the era of enlightenment, most of the nations have moderated their traditional authority making them inactive. C) The author mentions “The exercise of power is oriented toward the consideration of how far master and staff can join the view of subjects’ traditional compliance without arousing their resistance. Basically with resistance comes in abuse and overreach of authority. An example here would be a policeman going too far when arresting a citizen and causing harm to the citizen when they did not deserve it, causing public backlash.

3) Charismatic grounds- The term charisma will be applied to a certain quality of an individual personality under which he is considered extraordinary and treated as endowed with the supernatural, superhuman or at least specifically exceptional powers or qualities. B) This definition differs from our use in society because charisma in society is shown through having a big personality, being good in public with large crowds, and having an “IT” factor. For instance, Charismatic authorities arose to overthrow the traditional authority. They claimed to have received a message from God or the supernatural and they could come up with new laws and overturn the existing ones. A perfect example is Jesus because he claimed he could perform miracles such as healings. However, the modern charismatic aspects can be referred to like people who brought some revolution like Mahatma Gandhi, or Martin Luther King who were able to through their charismatic personalities and bring about revolutionary changes like the overthrowing of the British government in India and the establishment of civil rights for African-Americans. The charismatic authority was characterized by the “routinization of charisma” where leadership was transferred to traditional or rational-legal leadership.

This differs from the books’ definition because people in society don’t have superpowers. “These are such as are not accessible to the ordinary person, but are regarded as of divine origin or as exemplary, and based on them the individual concerned is treated as a “Leader”. Even though in society we see charismatic people as leaders, our view differs from this definition because we do not believe that these are divine superpowers, we believe they are just personality traits.

The two theoretical statements that appeared in the essay were

THEORIES

Legitimacy theory

Weber propounded that if accepted by the populace, both traditional and charismatic authority can be legitimate. Marx suggested that a dictatorship of the proletariat would be legitimate as it was acting in the best interests of the masses; likewise, dictators claim to uphold common good without popular approval. Traditional monarchs also claimed to be adhering to the divine right as the best form to determine the common good. Legitimacy usually operates under the established rules and power is exercised through the established constitutional laws thus, this adheres to the widely held beliefs and values of a society. Individuals and organizations strive to operate within the set of rules and beliefs in a community, otherwise their legitimacy would be at stake. Legitimacy theory asserts that entities focus on limiting themselves towards the boundaries of norms in the societies they operate. This is a empirical generalization. I say that because he has no numerical facts to back his claim.

Domination theory

In the theory of domination, Weber assumed that those who have been exposing to domination have some elements of “beliefs” in the system and those who obeyed orders did it voluntarily. But he highlighted some aspects that couldn’t make domination to operate effectively; they include personal interest, customs and idealistic belief especially by those under the authority.

In complex societies, domination is practiced through staff and not like ordinary people (or the masses). The staff must have a positive and affirmative belief in the myths that justify the authority. Generally, the theory of domination requires recognition for it to be recognized and have powers. Empirical finding flaws the social dominance theory, thanks to the inconsistencies noted in the behavioral asymmetry. The behavior of sub-groups in the society within a community correlates with social identity theory. This theory is also like legitimacy an empirical generalization due to the simple fact that it is simply an observation

Instructions!!

Respond to the summary I have written…… Each reply post should be approximately 400 words and must include discussion of an additional article. In your reply focus on one or two of the concepts or theories mentioned in the reading summary. Focus on the following types of questions in your reply: how does the contemporary article update the original version of the concept or theory? Does the article show the original concept or theory to be more or less relevant to contemporary sociology? Are there technological changes in our postmodern society which make the theory or concept more or less relevant? You won’t may also express your opinions about the article and any issues that you see were not covered adequately, or that you might disagree with.

The additional article that I have chosen for you is below please write how this article relates to the summary writer above

Just copy this link and put in URL so that you can see the article and talk about how this relates to the summary

file:///Users/Guest/Downloads/A%20%E2%80%98Historian%20of%20Charisma%E2%80%99%20Explains%20Why%20Oprah%20Could%20Be%20President%20-%20The%20Chronicle.pdf

This is an below is an example of how it should look!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

I have chosen to reply to the summary of The types of legitimate Domination (1925) by Max Weber and particularly to the use of the concept “domination and legitimacy” while examining Weber’s analysis of “Charismatic Authority” as discussed in the student summary and in the original essay itself. I will be using an article from The Chronicle of Higher Education entitled “A ‘Historian of Charisma’ Explains Why Oprah Could Be President,” authored by Steve Kolowich to elaborate on Weber’s work.

Weber discusses the concept of “Domination and Legitimacy” and furthers this topic by elaborating on the three pure types of authority. This includes legal authority on Rational grounds, Traditional grounds, and Charismatic grounds. Rational grounds is synonymous with the notion of legal authority which is largely tied to legal legitimacy in which power is vested in a system that puts power into laws. Furthermore, Weber discusses traditional grounds which he de defines as “resting on an established belief in the sanctity immemorial traditions” (217). Thus, this form of power is accepted because it is tradition and has been practiced for a long period of time. Additionally, Weber describes charismatic grounds which he defines as “resting on devotion to the exceptional sanctity, heroism or exemplary character of an individual (217).

Moreover, The Chronicle of Higher Education entitled “A ‘Historian of Charisma’ Explains Why Oprah Could Be President, emphasizes the idea of Charismatic authority. The historian analyzes Oprah’s chances of being a highly favored presidential candidate due to her charisma. Kolowich furthers this idea by explaining that Oprah’s charisma has caused her extremely high following and success which makes her a strong leader. Weber’s idea of Charismatic Authority coalligns with Kolowich as Weber states that the term ‘charisma’ applies to “an individual personality by virtue that is considered extraordinary” which Kolowich believes Oprah possesses (220). However, Kolowich furthers the meaning of Charismatic authority when he labels Oprah as one since she transcends the tight description of a charismatic leader. Weber mentions that the followers of a charismatic leader “tend to live in a communistic relationship with their leader”, which Kolowich says she (Oprah) has managed to transcend (221). Furthermore, according to Weber, Oprah’s actions of being known to give out lavish gifts to her followers allows her to be labeled as a charismatic authority. However, according to Weber, as soon as she is no longer able to provide for her followers, like most charismatic leaders, she will have her “fall from grace” (216).

Question 28: Finance

Instruction

I need part 4 done (The essay part) and its based off of the information I already wrote in part 3

Part 3. Classify, calculate, and assess a) Liquidity and Turnover management of Current Assets and Liabilities, b) Profitability, and c) Market Value ratios. Please note outcomes as a multiple, percent, or dollar value.

Liquidity and Turnover management of Current Assets and Liabilities

In this section, properly classify which of the above (from Part 2) are the liquidity and turnover ratios. Then, using the data from the Income Statement and Balance Sheet, provide the correct calculation of these four liquidity and turnover ratios and an assessment of the company’s ability to maintain liquidity and the management of current assets and current liabilities.

Include the proper assessment of outcomes as positive or negative trends when all four-ratio outcomes are factored as a group.

Liquidity Ratio’s are the current ratio and the quick ratio. The current ratio for 2015 =. 9695, and the quick ratio for 2015 =. 2779. The turnover ratios are accounts receivable turnover and accounts payable turnover. The AR turnover =72.1889 times and the AP turnover = 6.3078 times. The current ratio of .96 shows that the amount of debt with respect to assets is higher and therefore the company may face difficulty in repaying short-term debt obligations, the same can be said for the company’s quick ratio. The company has shown an efficient credit collection system due to its AR turnover.

Profitability

Given this information below, provide an assessment of the company’s ability to maintain if not improve profitability based on the amounts of Equity, Assets, and levels of profits from Sales. Include the proper assessment of outcomes as positive or negative trends when all four-ratio outcomes are factored as a group.

The profitability ratios are return on equity, return on assets, operating profit margin, and net profit. ROE = 20.03%, ROA = 7.9827%, OPM = 5.5902%, and Net Profit = 3.357%. The company’s ROE seems to be driven by financial leverage, its net profit margin is low and its asset turnover ratio is also not very significant. If in any year, the company has to face an unexpected economic scenario, its ROE can be significantly impacted in a negative way.

Market Value

In this section, use the price per share data, the Income Statement and Balance Sheet to provide the correct calculation these two Market Value ratios; Earnings per Share (EPS) and Price to Earnings (P/E) ratio.

EPS = $1.1645 and P/E = 8.5874 times.

Given the changes of EPS from one year to the next, what is your assessment of the company’s net income theoretically available for payment for investors holding common stock? As an investor to what extent are you more or less confident of the company’s ability to add value to your ownership position?

The company’s net income decreased from one year to the next meaning lower EPS. As an investor, I’m less confident of the company’s ability to add value due to the low and decreasing figures. This shows that the company will have less ability to repay investors holding common stock.

Based on the company’s P/E ratio changes from one year to the next what might this tell us about either investor sentiments of future profits, or stock price/value given the ability to generate income at a set price?

The P/E Ratio also decreased from one year to the next. This might let us know that future profits will be lower and that the ability to generate income might become more difficult for this firm.

Part 4. Overall Analysis

In this section, you will compose an analytical essay in a minimum of 350 words. Based on the above, provide a proper assessment of the company’s most significant negative trend and what corrective actions can be taken to improve results. You should search the Library, your textbook, and the Internet using a variety of criteria to find academic sources that will support your assessment of the trends and actions that could be taken.

Please address items 1 and 2 as the preliminary portion of your assignment. And build on that commentary as the body of your overall assessment.

The most significant concern is…

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The quantitative aspect of this assessment of negative trends is based upon ratios and comparative data…

Followed by:

The corrective actions, research findings on interpreting financial ratio outcomes from Library, textbook, etc., conclusion and references.

Question 29: Other

Assignment 3: Technology Assessment and Government Regulations

Worth 250 points

You are the senior manager of a large healthcare organization. The senior management team must select a Health Information Management System (HIMS) for the organization that will encompass several clinical and administrative departments. You will need to create and deliver a PowerPoint presentation that will persuade your CEO to purchase your chosen HIMS. Your presentation also must describe key aspects of HIMS (electronic medical record), such as implementation, interoperability, productivity, and support challenges. Use the work you did and the feedback you received from the Week 9 discussion when creating your presentation.

Create a ten to twelve (10-12) slide audio PowerPoint presentation with speaker notes (maximum of twenty [20] minutes) in which you:

Justify to the CIO the need to integrate all clinical and administrative departments into a Health Information Management System in your health care organization.
Select the most significant and current HIE, EHR, HIPPA, and HITECH regulations in your state. Next, determine two (2) ways these regulations could impact the integration of HIMS in your health care organization. Include three (3) potential solutions to address these regulation challenges.
Propose three (3) privacy and security measures to help your organization’s health care providers avoid security breaches and data loss, while better allowing them to concentrate on patient care. Next, develop an action plan to protect patient information that complies with HIE, EHR, PHI, and HIPAA legal requirements.
Suggest three (3) key actions to monitor privacy and security violations that may occur after the HIMS implementation in your health care organization. Summarize in one (1) slide your key findings. Narrate each slide, using Kaltura or another device, as if you were actually presenting in front of the audience. For information on how to use Kaltura to record your presentation please view the Kaltura Help Document.
Use at least three (3) current (2015-2019), quality references. Note:Wikipedia and similar websites do not qualify as quality resources. The Strayer University Library is a great resource to locate current, quality resources. Include your references in one slide.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

Format the PowerPoint presentation with headings on each slide with relevant graphics (photographs, graphs, clip art, etc.) to ensure the presentation is visually appealing and readable from 18 feet away. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a title slide containing the assignment title, your name, the professor’s full name, the course title, and the date. The title and reference slides are not included in the required number of slides.
Make use of your speaker notes to clarify and elaborate on the information contained in your slides.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

Propose a Health Information Management Systems (HIMS) and a patient information protection plan for a health care organization.
Propose how patient centric healthcare practices and technology and a HIMS can improve healthcare.
Determine best practices for avoiding HIMS failures and breaches.
Review concepts and theories related to healthcare information technology and systems, including ethical and legal standards, strategic information system planning, and methods for ensuring the security of patient information.

Question 30: Mathematics

If 300 live births occur among 3,500 women of childbearing age, what is the birth rate (per 1,000 women of child bearing age).
For each of the following variables listed below, identify three possible attributes:
Race
Social class
Type of sentence
Prison programs

Using Chart Below

Q.1.The police chief of a major metropolitan police department wants to know how well a new recruit class did on a weapons qualification test. The class consists of 150 students, with 15 being the highest possible score. Calculate the (a) mode, (b) median, (c) mean.

Weapons Score (X)	Frequency (F)
15	37
14	28
13	42
12	22
11	15
10	6

Q1. What are the measures of dispersion?

Q.2. Why is the standard deviation a better measure of dispersion than the range?

Q3. A sample of 12 inmates at a local jail reported the number of crimes they committed in the past five years. Calculate the (a) range (b) interquartile range, (c) variance, and (d) standard deviation for the following data:

*Offender #*	*Crime (X)*
12	8
11	1
10	2
9	2
8	3
7	1
6	12
5	7
4	1
3	1
2	2
1	5

Q4. The jail superintendent is interested in knowing some information about how much time pretrial defendants actually spend in jail. Enter the data into Excel and calculate the (a) variance and (b) standard deviation

*Days in Jail (X)*	*Frequency (f)*
61-100	5
46-60	23
31-45	32
15-30	70
8 -15	45
1_7	25

Question 31: Law

Write 2.5-page paper for a business law class

Candie Cardigan as a representative for CARDWARE has decided to auction her strapless giraffe print dress made of silk, satin with velvet markings. This particular dress was used in a movie filmed in S. Africa. The dress had been show cased among other famous dresses in the Silkadonia Actors Guild Museum. Cassie Cardigan was chosen to act as the auctioneer for World Wide Auction House. The bidding for the dress began at $5,000. Pearl has been looking forward to participating in the auction for this dress for over three months. Pearl raised her auction paddle and bid the initial $5,000. Jade also wanted the giraffe print dress and upped the ante to $5,500. The two battled the bidding to where it appeared that Pearl got the dress for $8,500.00, as Cassie smiled and nodded at Pearl.

Candie and Jade had been friends for years, as they had modeled together growing up as children. Candie quietly told Cassie to sell the dress to Jade. When Pearl presented $8,500 to Cassie, Cassie refused to take her money claiming that the dress was to go to Jade. Cassie further explained that Jade had allegedly had raised her paddle after Pearl’s final bid and showed five fingers meaning that she was bidding $500.00 more over the $8,500.00 bid made by Pearl. In reality, no such action by Jade had taken place.

Pearl now wants to sue for breach of contract. She has come to your office asking for your help. She wants you to request that Candie turn the dress over to her for the $8,500 that she bid. Your supervising attorney Les Agne indicates that you should investigate a cause of action for breach of contract, as well as a cause of action based on specific performance. Be aware of whom the true Plaintiff may be in this potential case and who causes of action may be brought against. Also, Les has scribbled the following notes to help you with organizing your thoughts regarding Specific Performance.

Dear Paralegal:

After you establish a contract exists as a result of the auctioning of the giraffe print dress, you may want to consider the following with regard to specific performance:

You must have a contract in place
The remedy at law must not be adequate (hence damages alone will not provide relief to the party who is seeking specific performance.
The remedy must be enforceable
If one party can bring the action for specific performance, so can the other if the positions were reversed.
If there were any conditions to the contract, all were satisfied.

Be sure to discuss defenses with regard to the contract. In other words, what will

Candie or the Auction House says in response to there being a contract?

Assignment Instructions:

Please write me a memorandum in the following format:

Date:

To: Les Agne, Attorney at law

From: [Your Name]

Re: Potential Causes of Action for Breach of Contract and Specific Performance

Organize your memorandum with an introduction, body, and conclusion.

Question 32: History

Please use this book “GIVE ME LIBERTY! ” BY ERIC FORNER VOLUME 2 and 5th edition. Do not use any outside source.

Instruction

Trace the expansion of the federal government from 1865 to 1940. What major events or movements led to this expansion and what powers did the government gain? In your essay, identify three specific turning points that led to expanded governmental powers. (Suggested length: short intro with thesis statement + one paragraph for each turning point + short conclusion = 5 paragraphs total)

Question 33: Finance

Write 2 pages minimum.

Discuss the main ways in which the Iraq War (2003-2007) impacted the Balance of Payments (BOP) account of the United States – (Be sure to consider both the Current Account and Capital Account components of the BOP).

Question 34: Physics

Consider the following double slit experiment, the distance between the two slits, d, is 0.35 mm and the wavelength of light used is 700nm.

(a) If we consider only interference, using the graph below, determine how many maxima are observed when the viewing screen (at D = 0.875 m) is moved to D = 0.500 m?

Question 35: Other

Instruction

You are the district manager of a luxury watch producer, and sales have been steadily declining. You hold a meeting with your production and sales staff to attempt to identify the reasons for the decline, and the following reasons are offered for the decreased sales: slow economy, so no one is buying watches of any kind; salespeople are not provided adequate resources to properly market the watches; the quality of the watches has declined to the point that people do not want to buy them; the supply chain is unable to keep up with orders, so deliveries are slow, and customers are cancelling orders; the financial manager does not like the marketing department, so we cannot trust the numbers he produces; and the marketing manager should just get rid of the salespeople who are not able to hit the established sales targets. Given this scenario, answer the following questions. Discuss strategies for examining claims for legitimacy or fallacy. It is not necessary to address all six bullet points above, but clearly identify which are being discussed. [Learning Outcome 4.1] Identify any potential fallacies in logic that might inhibit creative thinking. [Learning Outcome 4.2] Develop strategies for creatively overcoming identified fallacies. [Learning Outcome 4.3] Formulate your response to these questions using APA style, and include at least two outside sources; your paper must be a minimum of three pages. The textbook may be used, but since it is part of the course, it will not be counted as one of your two outside sources. Please use the library databases to find academic journals to use as your sources.

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Use the knowledge you have accrued in this unit to write a reflective essay on the following topic:

What, in your opinion, is the importance of disequilibrium and how would the knowledge you have gained about disequilibrium and other key concepts in this unit help you in your career as an entrepreneur?

Length requirement: minimum of 1000 words.

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Turn to Section 2 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For some questions, you will consider how the passage might be revised to improve the expression of ideas. For other questions, you will consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question may be accompanied by one or more graphics (such as a table or graph) that you will consider as you make revising and editing decisions.

Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a passage. Other questions will direct you to a location in a passage or ask you to think about the passage as a whole.

After reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that most effectively improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform to the conventions of standard written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option. Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant portion of the passage as it is.

If you are using assistive technology and are having difficulty accessing these sample questions

Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage and supplementary material.

A Life in Traffic

A subway system is expanded to provide service to a growing suburb. A bike-sharing program is adopted to encourage nonmotorized transportation. 1 To alleviate rush hour traffic jams in a congested downtown area, stoplight timing is coordinated. When any one of these changes 2 occur, it is likely the result of careful analysis conducted by transportation planners.

The work of transportation planners generally includes evaluating current transportation needs, assessing the effectiveness of existing facilities, and improving those facilities or 3 they design new ones. Most transportation planners work in or near cities, 4 but some are employed in rural areas. Say, for example, a large factory is built on the outskirts of a small town. Traffic to and from that location would increase at the beginning and end of work shifts. The transportation 5 planner’s job, might involve conducting a traffic count to determine the daily number of vehicles traveling on the road to the new factory. If analysis of the traffic count indicates that there is more traffic than the 6 current road as it is designed at this time can efficiently accommodate, the transportation planner might recommend widening the road to add another lane.

Transportation planners work closely with a number of community stakeholders, such as government officials and other interested organizations and individuals. 7 Next, representatives from the local public health department might provide input in designing a network of trails and sidewalks to encourage people to walk more. 8 According to the American Heart Association, walking provides numerous benefits related to health and well-being. Members of the Chamber of Commerce might share suggestions about designing transportation and parking facilities to support local businesses.

9 People who pursue careers in transportation planning have a wide variety of educational backgrounds. A two-year degree in transportation technology may be sufficient for some entry-level jobs in the field. Most jobs, however, require at least a bachelor’s degree; majors of transportation planners are 10 varied, including fields such as urban studies, civil engineering, geography, or transportation and logistics management. For many positions in the field, a master’s degree is required.

Transportation planners perform critical work within the broader field of urban and regional planning. As of 2010, there were approximately 40,300 urban and regional planners employed in the United States. The United States Bureau of Labor Statistics forecasts steady job growth in this field, 11 projecting that 16 percent of new jobs in all occupations will be related to urban and regional planning. Population growth and concerns about environmental sustainability are expected to spur the need for transportation planning professionals.

Adapted from United States Bureau of Labor Statistics, Employment Projections Program. “All Occpuations” includes all occupations in the United States economy.

This research assignment requires students to explore background information for their project.

This assignment was provided by an AUS Psychology professor.

Hypothesis Generation and Background Research

1) Generate a hypothesis describing behavior of some group or people in some context

2) Cite 3 empirical Journal articles that are relevant to your hypothesis:

The background research does not need to directly test your hypothesis (in fact, it’s better if it doesn’t), but it should have some implications for your hypothesis.

For each reference, use correct APA style and relevance of study to your hypothesis. Ensure that all references are empirical papers from peer-reviewed journals.

APA style takes the form:

Author, A. A., Author, B. B., & Author, C. C. (YEAR). Title of article. Title of Periodical, Vol, pp-pp.

Lawrie, Z., Sullivan, E. A., Davies, P. S. W., Hill, R. J. (2007). Body change strategies in children: Relations to age and gender. Eating Behaviors, 8,357-363.

Be sure to attend to capitalization, punctuation, and general form (the second line is indented, the journal title and volume number are italicized)

3) Generate a hypothesis predicting behavior

4) Cite 3 empirical Journal articles that are relevant to your hypothesis

The background research does not need to directly test your hypothesis (in fact, it’s better if it doesn’t), but it should have some implications for your hypothesis.

For each reference, 1 point for correct APA style and relevance of study to your hypothesis. Ensure that all references are empirical papers from peer-reviewed journals.

Assignment Notes:

Use APA style, and indicate clearly whether the library has access to the article. Be sure to check both PsycInfo and Journal finder to determine whether the library has either electronic or hardcopy access to each article.

Articles must be directly relevant to your topic and to one another. Be sure you conduct several searches and read, at a minimum, paper abstracts to ensure that articles are related to one another. Sets of articles which are not cohesive will be returned for additional research, and this will slow the process of locating any papers which require interlibrary loan. *DO NOT* simply conduct one search and list the first five articles listed.

This assignment is worth 5% of your paper grade. For the first five articles that you list, you will earn ½ point for proper APA style, and ½ point for relevance to your topic. You will lose ½ point for failing to correctly indicate whether the library has access to an article.

Please list your papers in order of interest/relevance to you as you will only be graded on the first 5 listed (this means that the reference do not need to be in alphabetical order, although they will be in the reference list you include at the end of your paper). If you include more than 5 articles, I can provide feedback on the likely relevance of each additional paper, although you will not earn points for them (in other words, I can help you choose the 5 papers most directly related to your topic).

For an empirical, peer-reviewed article, APA style takes the form:

Author, F. M., Coauthor, F. M., & Collaborator, F. M. (Date). Title of the article in sentence
caps without quotation marks. Name of the Journal, Newspaper, or Other Periodical in
Heading Caps and Italics, Volume in Italics(issue number), page numbers.
doi:12.3456/abcd.123.45.6789

Gilbert, D. T., Pelham, B. W., & Krull, D. S. (1988). On cognitive busyness: When person
perceivers meet persons perceived. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 54
(5), 733-740.

Weber, W., Vander Stoep, A., McCarty, R. L., Weiss, N. S., Biederman, J., &
McClellan, J. (2008). Hypericum perforatum (St. John’s Wort) for attention-
deficit/hyperactivity disorder in children and adolescents. JAMA, 299, 2633-2641.
doi:10.1001/jama.299.22.2633

Text is single spaced, double-space between references. Use a hanging indent. Attend carefully to the punctuation as well as the content. Older papers may not have a DOI (especially if you locate a print copy of the article), but most new articles will have one.

ASSIGNMENT : Architect Profile

Write 1000 word document presenting your selected architect. Start with preliminary research from Course Text Book and References listed on page 2 of syllabus. Minimum requirements are:

o Cover Page: This should include:

o Student Name, Major, & ID Number

o Course Number, Name & Semester

o Architect name

o Architect portrait

o Architect Background: country of origin & practice, education & work experience

o Architect’s philosophy: architectural language, vocabulary, design process & practice, and design issue

o Definition of an architectural movement that best exemplifies your architect’s work

o Quotation by your selected architect that reflects his/her affiliation to a particular architectural movement

o Identification of Built work

o Name of project

o Location

o Dates of design/construction

o Brief description of physical attributes, character & features

o References (Endnotes, Footnotes, or Parenthetical citations)

o Bibliography (use any style consistently)

STEP 1: To pursue preliminary research and make an informed selection, review different sections in your Course text book and References on Reserve in the library (listed on page 2) that discuss the listed architects of your interest.

STEP 2: Locate (and then read) relevant books/ articles on your architect through rigorous library search (conduct thorough research using material in the library as well as the DATABASES that our library subscribes to).

STEP 3: Develop a list of issues (social, economic, political, etc.) that concerned your architect and select representative works by your architect that reflect these concerns and identify the particular approach or “movement/s” pursued by the architect. In this step, you should formulate the origin of your movement, the context in which it took place, the movement’s focus, and provide an overview of its philosophy and primary participants, who were contemporary to your selected architect.

Assignment: Annotated Bibliography

As the authors of your book note, “A working bibliography is a list of the sources you are collecting and evaluating for your research paper” (Arkin & Macheski, 2006, p. 142). You may or may not use all of the sources in your paper but it is helpful to keep a record of all of the sources you consult.

This assignment requires you to present your sources in APA style and then to list the ideas and or points from your sources that you will be using to either support your argument or to explain your topic. The purpose is NOT to summarize your sources but rather to clearly state how information, i.e., direct quotes or paraphrases, will be used by you in your paper.

You must annotate at least four of your sources, but depending on the length of the sources and how much information you take from them, you may need to annotate more. This assignment is to help you organize your sources and the more work you put into this assignment, the less you will have to do for the next one. How long should the annotated bibliography be? This will depend on the length of your sources and how many points you use from each source. You should work towards a minimum of two to three pages.

This assignment must be typed and double-spaced in size 12 New Times Roman Font. Please do not prepare a separate cover sheet.

The expectations of an “A” paper for this assignment are below:

Sources presented in APA style.
Direct quotations properly introduced and referenced.
Paraphrased points properly introduced and referenced.
How the points will be used by the researcher clearly explained, i.e, you have not just summarized the author’s ideas but have told the reader how you think the points will be used in your paper. For example, you tell the reader whether you will use the information to support your argument, explain your topic, or as a point of concession / refutation.
Grammar, spelling, formatting of paper, etc. are appropriate for ENG 204.

Assignment: Tentative Topic Decision & Indentifying Resources

You will now work on your formal research proposals. I have given feedback to those of you who handed in the topic guidelines worksheet and it is now time to TRY and settle on one topic and you need to focus on which side of the argument you are taking. Please complete and hand in this sheet in-class.

The topic for my research project is:____________________________

My point of argument is:_____________________________

I have located the following three print sources for my research:

Author(s): ____________________________

Publication date: ______

Book _____ Article _________ Other (please describe) ___________

Title ______________________

Title of Journal/Newspaper/Magazine (if article) _______________________

Number of pages _______________

Author(s): ____________________________

Publication date: ______

Book _____ Article _________ Other (please describe) ___________

Title ______________________

Title of Journal/Newspaper/Magazine (if article) _______________________

Number of pages _______________

Author(s): ____________________________

Publication date: ______

Book _____ Article _________ Other (please describe) ___________

Title ______________________

Title of Journal/Newspaper/Magazine (if article) _______________________

Number of pages _______________

Is there anything else you want to tell me about your topic? _______________________

Assignment: Explanatory Synthesis

This assignment is worth 10% of your grade. You are required to write an explanatory synthesis essay based on at least two, but no more than four, of your sources related to your research project. You MUST include the sources with the final draft which must be typed in size 12 New Times Roman font and double spaced. This paper should be three or four pages long, not including the reference page. Your reference page must be prepared according to the APA style guidelines.

Please remember that the purpose of an explanatory synthesis “is not to argue a particular point, but rather to present the facts in a reasonably objective manner” (Behrens, et. al, 2007, p. 90, italics in original). You are expected to explain to the reader the connections you have identified about the topic of your choice from the material you have read. The synthesis is an opportunity for you to make sense of the research relevant to your topic by picking your most significant scholarly sources and articulating the relationships amongst and between them. (Please note that a synthesis is not a case of summarizing each source one after the other in separate paragraphs.) It is the next step following on from your annotated bibliography assignment. If possible, pick sources that differ from each other in some significant way (though they do not necessarily have to be completely opposed to each other). Think about what the sources have in common, how they differ, and how they are in conversation with one another. The synthesis will help evaluate the credibility of the available research and establish your own credibility as a researcher. When done correctly, with just a few modifications, this synthesis paper can generally be used in the first half of your research paper.

Your synthesis will be an explanatory or informative one, not an argumentative one. It will not have the same arguable thesis that your research paper will. However, it should have an organizing thesis statement that specifically states the explanatory purpose of the paper. Your introduction needs to create a context for the reader to understand what will follow. Your additional goals for this paper will be to incorporate direct quotations when relevant and to work onorganization and transitions as you move from one idea to the next to cue your reader about their connection.

The grading sheet for this essay is below:

Content (40 points):

Introduction well developed: context established for readers.

Explanatory thesis clear and easy to find in paper.

Purpose well supported with quotes and paraphrases from at least two sources.

Reasonably objective.

Information synthesized not summarized.

Overall coherent and well-developed (no stand alone quotes, out of place information, etc).

Topic well explained based on facts and evident from reliable sources.

Mechanics (10 points):

Grammar, punctuation, spelling, word choice all appropriate

Formatted correctly (title centered, size 12 font, double spaced, page numbers, no spaces between paragraphs)

Proper APA reference page.

In-text citations APA style for direct quotes, summaries and paraphrases.

Question

Indigenous Suicide

You are a counselor in a local community health centre. A member of the local Aboriginal community has approached you because she is worried about her 17-year-old son who has been feeling ‘winyarn’ (sad) for a long time. Over the past month she has noticed a marked change in her son’s behaviour. She says he has been ‘flying off the handle’ over minor frustrations and become aggressive towards her when she has tried to ask him ‘what’s wrong?’ She has contacted you now because he has begun talking about killing himself over the past few days.

Answer the following questions:

How would you go about engaging with this family?
What would you need to consider when assessing his level of risk?
Who would you consult when developing a plan of action?

Research indicates that suicide was a rare occurrence amongst Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Australians in pre-colonial times; however, it has become increasingly prevalent for Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander peoples, since the late 1970s (Silburn et al., 2010). TheAustralian Bureau of Statistics (2007) reports suicide as the sixth leading cause of death for Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Australians, with approximately 3.7 per centof all deaths for these populations due to suicide.

How would you go about engaging with this family?

Research suggests that Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander young people are not only less likely than non-Indigenous young people to engage with mental health professionals or services, they are also likely to engage at a more chronic level and for shorter durations of time (Vicary & Andrews, 2001; Westerman, 2010). Reasons for this include the use of culturally inappropriate processes by professionals when engaging with Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander young people, their families and their communities (Hunter, 2007; Westerman, 2003).

What would you need to consider when assessing his level of risk?

Hunter and colleagues (2006) propose that suicidal behaviour among Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander people is the product of a complex set of risk factors that may be interrelated and cumulative in effect. Silburn and associates (2010) suggest that there are two types of risk factors:

proximal or immediate risk factors, such as the individual’s mental and emotional state, precipitating circumstances or events, previous suicide attempts, substance misuse in the weeks leading up to the individual’s suicidal thoughts or behaviours, and knowing someone who has died by suicide; and
distal or longer-term risk factors, which may have a cumulative effect from early childhood through out the individual’s life.

Whilst acknowledging that risk factors identified in mainstream literature have some relevance for Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander people, Westerman (2003) states that there are social and environmental risk factors that affect Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander people uniquely. The findings of the National Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Social Survey (2002) and the National Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Health Survey(2004-05) identified the following risk factors, as having a significant impact on the social and emotional well being of Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander people:

widespread grief and loss due to the high number of deaths within many communities
unresolved trauma as a result of the removal of children from communities, both past and present (i.e. the Stolen Generations, child protection intervention, and juvenile justice supervision)
identity issues due to cultural dislocation
economic and social disadvantage
ongoing and persistent health problems
incarceration of the individual or a family member

Solution

Indigenous Suicide

The increased suicide rate among the aboriginal youth is an indication of ‘youth crying for help’. The indigenous youth is not open to understanding ‘what is more to life’ and they have closed doors to a ‘therapy culture’. We all live in a ‘therapy culture’. If parents can’t help, then help should be taken from a professional psychotherapist. (Altman, 2008)
There is more to learn and appreciate about the culture of humanity and the way it has developed over the years. Hence, rather than blindly believing in culture, we are better off knowing more about it. Firstly, one should not try to define a culture because it will never define us and secondly, one should not limit their existence by living within the boundaries of a culture. (American Psychiatric Association, 2000)

Question

What are the different transitions associated with the human life stages? What are there association with the different phases of a human life cycle?

Solution

Introduction

When one considers the different transitions associated with the human life stages, many of them are associated with childhood, youth and middle age and are talked about and studied more than the life transitions that happen during old age. One such transition in the last decades of human life is becoming a grandparent. In this essay we are going to look at the elements of this transition and its impact on relationships and concepts of self as well as what the literature has to say about this stage of life.
Many of us dream and prepare for being parents from when we are children and often have an idea of what kind of parent we would like to be. Sometimes reality is the same as our ideas and sometimes parenting turns out to be different, more difficult or more rewarding, but in any case, parenthood is often anticipated and planned more than grandparenthood.

Let us now look at some predictable and unpredictable elements of becoming agrandparent. The first unpredictable element of being a grandparent is that unlike choosing to become a parent, becoming a grandparent depends on the choice made by another individual – a son or daughter, to become a parent.
The first time one hears the news about becoming a grandparent can be a delightful or a stressful event (Cunningham-Burley, 1986). To some prospective grandparents, having grandchildren comes as a sign that old age has arrived and can become a cause of stress. In today’s society, grandparents are increasingly assuming the role of caretakers for their grandchildren (Bert Hayslip Jr, 2005) and the anticipated changes in lifestyle and also the changing perception of themselves as now officially entering old age can be a cause for stress for many people who become grandparents for the first time in a society where youth is valued over old age. (John Bond, 2007)
In relation to the concept of self, of an aged person, grandparenthood is being presented as a way of bringing “agefulness” into old age in a society which values youth over old age. (Gerben J Westerhoff, 2007). While the nature of grandparenting can vary depending on age, socioeconomic factors, sex and the ethnicity of the person involved (Erber, 2011), we live in a society where older people who have to deal with the loss of many of their physical faculties due to ageing are finding it difficult to be accepted for their wider experience of life and the wisdom they bring to various life situations. (John Bond, 2007). In such a scenario, grandparenthood becomes a way of passing on their skills and life experiences as well as being a meaningful contributor to the family and society, inspite of their reduced physical faculties and earning capacity. Thus grandparenthood can lead to an increased concept of self for an aged person, making them feel that they are contributing to family life in a meaningful way.
Research findings show that the stress factor in becoming a grandparent has decreased over the last couple of decades and many grandparents report an increase in their sense of being well connected with becoming a grandparent. (Donald C. Reitzes, 2004) In fact, in the same research many people report more satisfaction in their grandparent identities when compared to their other adult identities (Donald C. Reitzes, 2004). This is a significant finding from which I would like to infer that grandparenting is less stressful than parenting, which could be an area of future study. The increased sense of well being in becoming a grandparent could be because of the less active role of parenting required in becoming a grandparent (Jetse Spray, 1982)
When the expectations and experiences of grandparenthood were compared using sex of grandparents and lineage as criteria, it was found that the experience of grandparenthood was different for men and women. Grandmothers reported more satisfaction in being a grandparent than grandfathers and maternal grandparents were more satisfied with their experience of being grandparents. (Karen Somary, 1998) An interesting work on the influence of grandparents speaks of the role of grandparents as rescuers during family crisis in a society with an increasing number of teenage pregnancies, single parents and working parents. (Szinovácz, 1998)
The study of grandparenthood has changed over the decades to include various dimensions. The developmental gains for children due to the influence of grandparents and the major influence of grandparents on grandchildren’s socialisation as well as their vital role in family life has received a lot of attention in recent years. (Szinovácz, 1998) High levels of youth achievement are expected when there is an incidence of higher education among grandparents combined with high levels of youth-grandparent interaction (Karen Albright, 2004).

For complete solution please download from the link below.

Question

Does reduction of play in childhood hampers a kids psychological stability and balance?

Question

–Assessment of the impact of thinking skills, teaching training course for secondary school teachers based on student classroom assessment scores.

Solution

The impact of ‘thinking skills teaching training course’ for secondary school teachers based on student classroom assessment scores

Introduction

Classroom teaching requires using up to date methods to deal with the students and paying a lot of attention to the students. Maintaining a record of all the students along with their achievement levels also help with the understanding of their learning curve as well as where they need help.

The better half of Saudi Arabia depends on traditional methods of assessing students. Teachers are not approachable after class. In the class the students are taught what the syllabus mandates and certain difficult doubts are cleared. There is less room for the student to approach the teacher with doubts after class or even in the class. The teachers gather very less information about the way students understand the subject except for the exams at the end of the terms. On the other hand, there are a few international schools in Saudi Arabia, which engage with the student assessment systems which need the teacher to mark the all-round activities of a student and a system of cumulative marking is used to grade the student. The teacher gets ample information about the student performance, strengths and weaknesses. The students also get to give a feedback of the teaching styles to their teachers. Hence there are two groups of teachers; one group teaches the students without any prior teacher’s training and another group which teaches the student with teaching expertise. (Bank, 2008)

Purpose of the study

The education system in Saudi Arabia needs some major policy changes regarding the way student assessment is done; except for a few places where international policies are being implemented now. Proper assessment of the students is needed to know the strengths and the weaknesses of the teacher training programs. To improve the student’s performance the teacher training programs need to be designed properly. A teacher also needs to understand their own strengths and weaknesses and if in any way their teaching styles can change the way students perform to the best in class. Similarly, even the teacher needs good training to be able to be successful in teaching the students.

Behavioral economics

The study of situations in which people make choices that do not appear to be economically rational.

Budget constraint

The limited amount of income available to consumers to spend on goods and services.

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Endowment effect

The tendency of people to be unwilling to sell a good they already own even if they are offered a price that is greater than the price they would be willing to pay to buy the good if they didn’t already own it.

Income effect

The change in the quantity demanded of a good that results from the effect of a change in price on consumer purchasing power, holding all other factors constant.

Indifference curve

A curve that shows the combinations of consumption bundles that give the consumer the same utility.

Law of diminishing marginal utility

The principle that consumers experience diminishing additional satisfaction as they consume more of a good or service during a given period of time.

Marginal rate of substitution (MRS)

The rate at which a consumer would be willing to trade off one good for another.

Marginal utility (MU)

The change in total utility a person receives from consuming one additional unit of a good or service.

Network externality

A situation in which the usefulness of a product increases with the number of consumers who use it.

Opportunity cost

The highest-valued alternative that must be given up to engage in an activity.

Substitution effect

The change in the quantity demanded of a good that results from a change in price making the good more or less expensive relative to other goods, holding constant the effect of the price change on consumer purchasing power.

Sunk cost

A cost that has already been paid and cannot be recovered.

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Utility

The enjoyment or satisfaction people receive from consuming goods and services.

Average fixed cost

Fixed cost divided by the quantity of output produced.

Average product of labor

The total output produced by a firm divided by the quantity of workers.

Average total cost

Total cost divided by the quantity of output produced.

Average variable cost

Variable cost divided by the quantity of output produced.

Constant returns to scale

The situation in which a firm’s long-run average costs remain unchanged as it increases output.

Diseconomies of scale

The situation in which a firm’s long-run average costs rise as the firm increases output.

Economies of scale

The situation when a firm’s long-run average costs fall as it increases the quantity of output it produces.

Expansion path

A curve that shows a firm’s cost-minimizing combination of inputs for every level of output.

Explicit cost

A cost that involves spending money.

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Fixed costs

Costs that remain constant as output changes.

Implicit cost

A nonmonetary opportunity cost.

Isocost line

All the combinations of two inputs, such as capital and labor, that have the same total cost.

Isoquant

A curve that shows all the combinations of two inputs, such as capital and labor, that will produce the same level of output.

Law of diminishing returns

The principle that, at some point, adding more of a variable input, such as labor, to the same amount of a fixed input, such as capital, will cause the marginal product of the variable input to decline.

Long run

The period of time in which a firm can vary all its inputs, adopt new technology, and increase or decrease the size of its physical plant.

Long-run average cost curve

A curve that shows the lowest cost at which a firm is able to produce a given quantity of output in the long run, when no inputs are fixed.

Marginal cost

The additional cost to a firm of producing one more unit of a good or service.

Marginal product of labor

The additional output a firm produces as a result of hiring one more worker.

Marginal rate of technical substitution (MRTS)

The rate at which a firm is able to substitute one input for another while keeping the level of output constant.

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Minimum efficient scale

The level of output at which all economies of scale are exhausted.

Opportunity cost

The highest-valued alternative that must be given up to engage in an activity.

Production function

The relationship between the inputs employed by a firm and the maximum output it can produce with those inputs.

Short run

The period of time during which at least one of a firm’s inputs is fixed.

Technological change

A change in the ability of a firm to produce a given level of output with a given quantity of inputs.

Technology

The processes a firm uses to turn inputs into outputs of goods and services.

Total cost

The cost of all the inputs a firm uses in production.

Variable costs

Costs that change as output changes.

Allocative efficiency

A state of the economy in which production is in accordance with consumer preferences; in particular, every good or service is produced up to the point where the last unit provides a marginal benefit to society equal to the marginal cost of producing it.

Average revenue (AR)

Total revenue divided by the quantity of the product sold.

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Economic loss

The situation in which a firm’s total revenue is less than its total cost, including all implicit costs.

Economic profit

A firm’s revenues minus all of its implicit and explicit costs.

Long-run competitive equilibrium

The situation in which the entry and exit of firms has resulted in the typical firm breaking even.

Long-run supply curve

A curve that shows the relationship in the long run between market price and the quantity supplied.

Marginal revenue (MR)

The change in total revenue from selling one more unit of a product.

Perfectly competitive market

A market that meets the conditions of having (1) many buyers and sellers, (2) all firms selling identical products, and (3) no barriers to new firms entering the market.

Price taker

A buyer or seller that is unable to affect the market price.

Productive efficiency

The situation in which a good or service is produced at the lowest possible cost.

Profit

Total revenue minus total cost.

Shutdown point

The minimum point on a firm’s average variable cost curve; if the price falls below this point, the firm shuts down production in the short run.

Brand management

The actions of a firm intended to maintain the differentiation of a product over time.

Marketing

All the activities necessary for a firm to sell a product to a consumer.

Monopolistic competition

A market structure in which barriers to entry are low and many firms compete by selling similar, but not identical, products.

Utility

The enjoyment or satisfaction people receive from consuming goods or services.

Marginal Utility (MU)

The change in total utility a person received from consuming one more additional unit of a good or service.

Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility

The principle that consumers experience diminishing additional satisfaction as they consume more of a good or service during a period of time.

Budget Constraint

The limited amount of income available to consumers to spend on goods and services.

Income Effect

The change in quantity demanded of a good that results from the effect of a change in price on consumer purchasing power, holding all other factors constant.

Substitution Effect

Negative Externality

A situation in which the usefulness of a product increases with the number of consumers who use it.

Behavioral Economics

The study of situations in which people make choices that do not appear to be economically rational.

Opportunity Cost

The highest-valued alternative that must be given up to engage in an activity.

Endowment Effect

Sunk Cost

A cost that has already been paid and cannot be recovered.

Technology

Processes a firm uses to turn inputs into outputs of goods and services.

Technological Change

A change in the ability of a firm to produce a given level of output with a given quantity of inputs.

Short Run

The period of time during which at least one of a firm’s inputs is fixed.

Long Run

The period of time in which a firm can vary all its inputs, adopt new technology, and increase or decrease the size of its physical plant.

Total Cost

The cost of all the inputs a firm uses in a production.

Variable Costs

Costs that change as output changes. *tech and plant sized can change

Fixed Costs

Costs that remain constant as output changes. *tech and plant size usually don’t change

Explicit Cost

A cost that involves spending money.

Implicit Cost

A nonmonetary opportunity cost.

Production Function

The relationship between inputs employed by a firm and the maximum output it can produce with those inputs.

Average Total Cost

Total cost divided by the quantity of output produced.

Marginal Product of Labor

The additional output a firm produces as a result of hiring one more worker.

Law of Diminishing Returns

The principle that, at some point, adding more of a variable input, such as labor, to the same amount of a fixed input, such as capital, will cause marginal product of labor to decline.

Average Product of Labor

The total output produced by a firm divided by the quantity of workers. *the average of the marginal products of labor

Marginal Cost

The change in a firm’s total cost from producing one more unit of a good or service.

Average Fixed Cost

Fixed cost divided by the quantity of output produced.

Average Variable Cost

Variable cost divided by the quantity of output produced.

Long-Run Average Cost Curve

A curve that shows the lowest cost at which a firm is able to produce a given quantity of output in the long run, when no inputs are fixed.

Economies of Scale

The situation when a firm’s long-run average costs fall as it increases the quantity of output it produces.

Constant Returns to Scale

The situation in which a firm’s long-run average costs remain unchanged as it increases output.

Minimum Efficient Scale

The level of output at which all economies of scale are exhausted.

Diseconomies of Scale

The situation in which a firm’s long run-average costs rise as the firm increases output.

Perfectly Competitive Market

1) many buyers and sellers
2) all firms sell identical products
3) no barriers to new firms entering the market

Price Taker

A buyer or seller that is unable to affect the market price.

Profit

Total revenue minus cost.

Average Revenue

Total revenue divided by the quantity of the product sold.

Marginal Revenue

The change in total revenue from selling one more unit of a good.

Sunk Cost

A cost that has already been paid and cannot be recovered.

Shutdown Point

The minimum point of a firm’s average variable cost curve; if the price falls below this point, the firm shuts down production in the short run.

Economic Profit

A firm’s revenues minus costs, implicit and explicit.

Economic Loss

The situation in which a firm’s total revenue is less than its total cost, including all implicit costs.

Long-Run Competitive Equilibrium

The situation in which the entry and exit of firms has resulted in the typical firm breaking even.

Long-Run Supply Curve

A curve that shows the relationship in the long run between market price and the quantity supplied.

Monopolistic Competition

A market structure in which barriers to entry are low and many firm compete by selling similar, but not identical, products.

Brand Management

The actions of a firm intended to maintain the differentiation of a product over time.

Marketing

All the activities necessary for a firm to sell a product to a consumer.

Oligopoly

A market structure in which a small number of interdependent firms compete.

Barrier to Entry

Anything that keeps new firms from entering an industry in which firms are earning economic profits.

Dominant Strategy

A strategy that is best for a firm, no matter what strategies other firms use.

Nash Equilibrium

A situation in which each firm chooses the best strategy, given the strategies chosen by other firms.

Cooperative Equilibrium

An equilibrium in a game in which players cooperate to increase their mutual payoff.

Noncooperative Equilibrium

An equilibrium in a game in which players do not cooperate but pursue their own self-interests.

Prisoner’s Dilemma

A game in which pursuing dominant strategies results in noncooperation that leaves everyone worse off.

Game Theory

The study of how people make decisions in situations in which attaining their goals depends on their interactions with others; in economics, the study of decisions of firms in industries where the profits of a firm depend on its interactions with other firms.

Business Strategy

Actions that a firm takes to achieve a goal, such as maximizing profits.

Payoff Matrix

A table that shows the payoffs that each firm earns from every combination of strategies by the firms.

Price Leadership

A form of implicit collusion in which one firm in an oligopoly announces a price change and the other firms in the industry match the change.

Cartel

A group of firms that collude by agreeing to restrict output to increases prices and profits.

Transaction Costs

The costs in time and other resources that parties incur in the process of agreeing to and carrying out an exchange of goods or services.

Arbitrage

Buying a good at a low price and reselling it in a market for a higher price.

Price Discrimination

Charging different prices to different customers for the same product when the price differences are not due to differences in cost.

Two-Part Tarriff

A situation in which consumers pay one price (or tariff) for the right to buy as much of a related good as they want at a second price.

The Economic Model of Consumer Behavior

The economic model of consumer behavior predicts that consumers will choose to buy the combination of goods and services that makes them as well off as possible from among all the combinations that their budgets allow them to buy.

Utility

The enjoyment or satisfaction people receive from consuming goods and services.

Marginal utility (MU)

The change in total utility a person receives from consuming one additional unit of a good or service.

Law of diminishing marginal utility

The principle that consumers experience diminishing additional satisfaction as they consume more of a good or service during a given period of time.

budget constraint

The limited amount of income available to consumers to spend on goods and services.

Income effect

The change in the quantity demanded of a good that results from the effect of a change in price on consumer purchasing power, holding all other factors constant.

Substitution effect

network externality

A situation in which the usefulness of a product increases with the number of consumers who use it.

behavioral economics

The study of situations in which people make choices that do not appear to be economically rational.

Consumers commonly commit the following three “mistakes” when making decisions:

They take into account monetary costs but ignore nonmonetary opportunity costs.
They fail to ignore sunk costs.
They are unrealistic about their future behavior

endowment effect

sunk cost

A cost that has already been paid and cannot be recovered

Being Unrealistic about Future Behavior

If you are unrealistic about your future behavior, you underestimate the costs of choices that you make today.

marginal utility (mu)

the change in total utility a person receives from consuming one additional unit of a good or service

technology

The processes a firm uses to turn inputs into outputs of goods and services

Technological change

A change in the ability of a firm to produce a given level of output with a given quantity of inputs.

short run

The period of time during which at least one of a firm’s inputs is fixed.

long run

The period of time in which a firm can vary all its inputs, adopt new technology, and increase or decrease the size of its physical plant.

total cost

The cost of all the inputs a firm uses in production
tc=vc+fc

variable cost

Costs that change as output changes.

fixed cost

Costs that remain constant as output changes.

oppurtunity cost

The highest-valued alternative that must be given up to engage in an activity

explicit cost

A cost that involves spending money.

implicit cost

A nonmonetary opportunity cost.

Production function

The relationship between the inputs employed by a firm and the maximum output it can produce with those inputs.

avg total cost

Total cost divided by the quantity of output produced.

marginal product of labor

The additional output a firm produces as a result of hiring one more worker.

law of diminishing returns

average product of labor

The total output produced by a firm divided by the quantity of workers.

marginal cost

The change in a firm’s total cost from producing one more unit of a good or service.
mc=change in total cost/change in quanity

average fixed cost

Fixed cost divided by the quantity of output produced.

average variable cost

Variable cost divided by the quantity of output produced.

long run average cost curve

A curve showing the lowest cost at which a firm is able to produce a given quantity of output in the long run, when no inputs are fixed.

economies of scale

The situation when a firm’s long-run average costs fall as it increases output.

constant returns to scale

The situation when a firm’s long-run average costs remain unchanged as it increases output.

miniumum efficient scale

The level of output at which all economies of scale are exhausted

diseconomies of scale

The situation when a firm’s long-run average costs rise as the firm increases output.

monomolistic competition

A market structure in which barriers to entry are low
and
many firms compete by selling similar, but not identical, products.

marketing

All the activities necessary for a firm to sell a product to a consumer.

brand management

The actions of a firm intended to maintain the differentiation of a product over time.

oligopoly

A market structure in which:
a small number of interdependent firms compete
and
barriers to entry are high.

barrier to entry

Anything that keeps new firms from entering an industry in which firms are earning economic profits.

economies of scale

scale The situation when a firm’s long-run average costs fall as it increases output

government imposed barriers

Government-imposed barriers such as patents, licencing requirements, tariffs, and quotas

ownership of key input

If production of a good requires a particular input, then control of that input can be a barrier to entry.

game theory

The study of how people make decisions in situations in which attaining their goals depends on their interactions with others;
in economics, the study of the decisions of firms in industries where the profits of each firm depend on its interactions with other firms.

payoff matrix

A table that shows the payoffs that each firm earns from every combination of strategies by the firms.

collusion

An agreement among firms to charge the same price or otherwise not to compete.

dominant strategy

A strategy that is the best for a firm, no matter what strategies other firms use.

nash equilibrium

A situation in which each firm chooses the best strategy, given the strategies chosen by other firms.

cooperative equilibrium

An equilibrium in a game in which players cooperate to increase their mutual payoff.

noncooperative equilibrium

An equilibrium in a game in which players do not cooperate but pursue their own self-interest.

prisoners dilema

A game in which pursuing dominant strategies results in noncooperation that leaves everyone worse off.

price leadership

A form of implicit collusion in which one firm in an oligopoly announces a price change and the other firms in the industry match the change.

cartel

A formal organization of producers that agree to coordinate prices and production

perfectly competitive market

A market that meets the conditions of:
many buyers and sellers,
all firms selling identical products, and
no barriers to new firms entering the market

price taker

A buyer or seller that is unable to affect the market price.

profit

Profit Total revenue minus total cost.

average revenue

Total revenue divided by the quantity of the product sold.

marginal revenue

Marginal revenue (MR) The change in total revenue from selling one more unit of a product.

marginal revenue equation

change in total revenue/ change in quantity

profit maximizing level

The profit-maximizing level of output is where the difference between total revenue and total cost is the greatest.

economic loss

The situation in which a firm’s total revenue is less than its total cost, including all implicit costs.

long run competitive equilibrium

The situation in which the entry and exit of firms has resulted in the typical firm breaking even.

monopoly

A firm that is the only seller

of a good or service that does not have a close substitute.

natural monopoly

A situation in which economies of scale are so large that one firm can supply the entire market at a lower average total cost than can two or more firms

Technology

The processes a firm uses to turn inputs into outputs of goods and services.

Technological Change

A Change in the ability of a firm to produce a given level of output with a given quantity of inputs.

Short Run

The period of time during which at least one of a firm’s inputs is fixed.

Long Run

The period of time in which a firm can vary all its inputs,adopt new technology, and increase or decrease the size of its physical plant.

Total Cost

The Cost of all inputs a firm uses in production.

Variable Cost

Costs that change as output changes.

Fixed Cost

Costs that remain constant as output changes.

Opportunity Cost

The highest valued alternative that must be given up to engage in an activity.

Explicit Cost

A cost that involves spending money. I.e Hiring workers or purchasing production equipment.

Implicit Cost

A non-monetary (not involving spending) opportunity cost.I.e A new business owner not collecting a salary in order to push her business forward. its a sacrifice.

Production Function

The relationship between the inputs employed by a firm and the maximum output it can produce with those inputs.

Average Total Cost

Total cost divided by the quantity of output produced.

Marginal Product of Labor

The additional output a firm uses as a result of hiring one more worker.

Law of diminishing returns

The principle that at some point,adding more of a variable input,such as labor,to the same amount of a fixed input,such as capital, will cause the marginal product of the variable input to decline.

Average Product of labor

The total output produced by a firm divided by the quantity of workers.

Marginal Cost

The Change in a firm’s total cost from producing one more unit of a good or service.

Average Fixed Cost

Fixed cost divided by the quantity of output produced.

Average Variable Cost

Variable cost divided by the quantity of output produced

Long Run Average curve

A curve that shows the lowest cost at which a firm is able to produce a given quantity of output in the long run,when no inputs are fixed.

Economies of scale

The situation when a firm’s long run average costs fall as it increases the quantity of output it produces.

Constant return to scale

The situation in which a firm’s Long-run average costs remain unchanged as output increases.

Minimum Efficient Scale

The level of output at which all economies scale are exhausted

Diseconomies of Scale

The situation in which a firm’s long-run average costs rise as the firm increases output.

Utility

The enjoyment or satisfaction people receive from consuming good and services

Marginal Utility

The change in total utility a person receives from consuming one additional unit of a good or service.

Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility

The principle that consumers experience diminishing additional satisfaction as they consume more of a good or service during a given period of ttime

Budget Restraint

The limited amount of income a consumer has to spend on a good or service.

Marginal Utility per Dollar spent

Marginal Utility divided by price

Income Effect

The change in the quantity demanded of a good from the effect of a change in price on consumer purchasing power, holding all other factors constant.

Substitution effect

The change in the quantity demanded of a good that results from a change in price making that good more or less expensive relative to other goods, holding constant the effect of the price change on consumer purchasing power.

Network Externality

A situation in which the usefulness of a product increases with the number of consumers who use it. I.e the more users an IPad has, the more apps being made for it, therefore its more useful.

3 common mistakes made by consumers when making decisions.

1.They take into account monetary cost but ignore nonmonetary opportunity cost.
2.They Fail to ignore sunk cost
3.They are unrealistic about their future behavior

Behavioral Economics

The study of situations in which people make choices that do not appear to be economically rational.

Endowment affect

Sunk Cost

A cost that has already been paid and cannot be recovered. (costs that should be ignored)

Price Taker

A buyer or seller that is unable to affect the market price.

Profit

Total revenue minus total cost.

Average revenue

Total revenue divided by the quantity of product sold.

Marginal Revenue

The change in revenue from selling one more unit of a product.

Economic Profit

Revenue minus all costs (implicit and explicit)

Accounting Profit

Revenue minus explicit cost

True

Firms in a perfectly competitive market earn accounting profit but not economic profit. (True or False)

The cost of raw materials

What is an example of variable cost?

Increase

As long as marginal revenue is greater than marginal cost, profits_________.

The slope of an indifference curve

Marginal rate of substitution is

AVC+AFC

ATC=____+______

Consumer Budget Constraint

The limited income that a consumer has to spend on goods and services.

The Long Run

A Time period long enough for a firm to vary all of its inputs, to adopt new technology and change the size of its physical plant.

Profit

To find ______ we calculate (P x Q)-TC

price exceeds average total cost.

If price = marginal cost at the output produced by a perfectly competitive firm and the firm is earning an economic profit, then

Maximize Profit

In order to _____________ a firm should produce the quantity of output that results in the greatest difference between total revenue and total cost.

False

An explicit cost is a nonmonetary opportunity cost. (true or false)

Total Utility

Which of the following is held constant along bundles on an indifference curve?

lower; higher

In long-run equilibrium, compared to a perfectly competitive market, a monopolistically competitive industry produces a ________ level of output and charges a ________ price.

True

All consumption bundles along a given indifference curve are equally desirable. (true or false)

Less Elastic

Compared to a perfectly competitive firm, the demand curve facing a monopolistically competitive firm is___________ because monopolistically competitive firms produce similar, but not identical, products.

True

The average product of labor is at its maximum when the average product of labor equals the marginal product of labor. (True or False)

The marginal product of labor rises, then falls.

Why does the marginal cost curve has a U shape?

Excess Capacity

It means that firms do not produce the output level that corresponds to the minimum point on their average total cost curves.

Allocative, Productive

____________ efficiency is achieved in the short run and the long run. _____________ efficiency is achieved only in the long run.

Define technology and give examples of technological change

The basic activity of a firm is to use
inputs, such as workers, machines, and natural resources, to produce goods and services. The firm’s
technology is the processes it uses to turn inputs into goods and services. Technological change refers to
a change in the ability of a firm to produce a given level of output with a given quantity of inputs

Distinguish between the economic short run and the economic long run

In the short run, a firm’s technology and the size of its factory, store, or office are fixed. In the long run, a firm is able to adopt
new technology and to increase or decrease the size of its physical plant. Total cost is the cost of all the inputs a firm uses in production. Variable costs are costs that change as output changes. Fixed costs are costs that remain constant as output changes. Opportunity cost is the highest-valued alternative that must be given up to engage in an activity. An explicit cost is a cost that involves spending money. An implicit
cost is a nonmonetary opportunity cost. The relationship between the inputs employed by a firm and the maximum output it can produce with those inputs is called the firm’s production function.

Understand the relationship between the marginal product of labor and the average product of labor

The marginal product of labor is the additional output produced by a firm as a result of hiring one more
worker. average product of labor is the total amount of output produced by a firm divided by the
quantity of workers hired

Explain and illustrate the relationship between marginal cost and average total cost

The marginal cost
of production is the increase in total cost resulting from producing another unit of output. The marginal
cost curve has a U shape because when the marginal product of labor is rising, the marginal cost of output
is falling. When the marginal product of labor is falling, the marginal cost of output is rising. When
marginal cost is less than average total cost, average total cost falls. When marginal cost is greater than
average total cost, average total cost rises.

Graph average total cost, average variable cost, average fixed cost, and marginal cost

Average fixed
cost is equal to total fixed cost divided by the level of output. Average variable cost is equal to total
variable cost divided by the level of output

Understand how firms use the long-run average cost curve in their planning.

The long-run average
cost curve shows the lowest cost at which a firm is able to produce a given level of output in the long run.
For many firms, the long-run average cost curve falls as output expands because of economies of scale.
Minimum efficient scale is the level of output at which all economies of scale have been exhausted.
After economies of scale have been exhausted, firms experience constant returns to scale, where their
long-run average cost curve is flat. At high levels of output, the long-run average cost curve turns up as
the firm experiences diseconomies of scale.

Distinguish between the economic short run and the economic long
run.

Total Cost (TC ) = Fixed Cost (FC ) + Variable Cost ( VC) Total cost is the cost of all the inputs a firm uses in
production. Variable costs are costs that change as output changes. Fixed costs are costs that remain constant as output changes.

explicit cost

is a cost that involves
spending money

implicit cost

nonmonetary opportunity cost

average total cost

total cost divided by the quantity of output produced. The average total cost
curve often has a U shape.

marginal product of labor

additional output a firm produces as a result of hiring one more worker.

law of
diminishing returns.

At some
point, adding more of a variable input, such as labor, to the same amount of a fixed input, such as capital, will cause the marginal product of the variable input to decline

average product of labor

the total output produced by a firm divided by the quantity of workers. When the marginal product of labor is greater than the average product of labor, the average product of
labor must be increasing. When the marginal product of labor is less than the average product of labor, the
average product of labor must be decreasing. The marginal product of labor equals the average product of
labor for the quantity of workers where the average product of labor is at a maximum.

Marginal cost

the change in a firm’s total cost from producing one more unit of a
good or service. The U shape of the average total cost curve is determined by the shape of the marginal
cost curve. MC= change in TC/ change in Q (output)

Average fixed cost

FC/ output

Average Total cost

TC/ output

Average variable cost

total variable cost divided by the quantity of output produce

MC, ATC, AVC curves

All u-shaped.
The MC curve intersects the AVC and ATC curves at their minimum points.
When MC is below AVC or ATC, it causes them to decrease, and when MC is above AVC or ATC, it causes them to increase.
As output increases, the difference between ATC and AVC (this is equal to AFC) gets smaller
because AFC gets smaller and smaller as output increases.

long-run average cost curve

shows the lowest cost at which the firm is able to produce a given
quantity of output in the long run, when no inputs are fixed

Economies of scale

is the situation when a firm’s long-run average total costs fall as it increases output

Constant returns to scale

the situation
when a firm’s long-run average costs remain unchanged as it increases output

Minimum efficient scale

is the level of output at which all economies of scale have been exhausted

Diseconomies of scale

is the
situation when a firm’s long-run average costs rise as it increases output.

Isoquants

curve showing all the combinations of two inputs, such as capital and labor, that will
produce the same level of output. The farther an isoquant is from the origin—the farther to the right on
the graph—the more output the firm is producing

marginal rate of technical substitution (MRTS)

rate at which a firm is able to substitute one input for another while keeping the level of output constant. The slope of an isoquant becomes less steep as one moves downward along the isoquant. This is a consequence of diminishing returns

isocost line.

shows all the combinations of two inputs, such as capital and labor, that have
the same total cost. An isocost line intersects the vertical axis at the maximum amount of an input (for
example, capital) that can be purchased with a given budget, or total cost. The same isocost line intersects
the horizontal axis at the maximum amount of another input (for example, labor) that can be purchased
with the same budget.

slope of isocost line

constant and equals the change in the
quantity of one input (capital) divided by the change in the quantity of the other input (labor). The slope
of an isocost line is equal to the ratio of the price of the input on the horizontal axis divided by the price
of the input on the vertical axis, multiplied by -1. A change in the price of an input causes the slope to
change, which is a rotation of the isocost line. Higher levels of total cost shift the isocost line outward,
and lower levels of cost shift the isocost line inward.

cost-minimizing choice of inputs

determined jointly by available production technology and input
prices. A change in technology affects the position of isoquants and may affect the choice of inputs. If
input prices change, then the position of isocost lines will change and the choice of inputs may also
change.

Moving along an isoquant,

the output is constant while the amounts of two inputs change. The marginal
product of capital (MPK) equals the change in output from using an additional unit of capital. The
marginal product of labor (MPL) equals the change in output from using an additional unit of labor.

Expansion path

A curve that shows a firm’s
cost-minimizing combination of inputs for every
level of output.

Constant returns to scale

…

The processes a firm uses to turn inputs into outputs of goods and services.

Technology

A change in the ability of a firm to produce a given level of output with a given quantity of inputs.

Technological Change

The period of time during which at least one of a firm’s inputs is fixed.

Short Run

The period of time in which a firm can vary all its inputs, adopt new technology, and increase or decrease the size of its physical plant.

Long Run

The cost of all the inputs a firm uses in production.

Total Cost

Costs that change as output changes.

Variable Cost

Costs that remain constant as output changes.

Fixed Cost

Fixed cost + Variable cost

=Total Cost

The highest-valued alternative that must be given up to engage in an activity.

Opportunity cost

A cost that involves spending money.

Explicit cost

A nonmonetary opportunity cost.

Implicit cost

is the difference between the amount paid for capital at the beginning of the year and the amount it could be sold for at the end of the year.

Economic depreciation

The relationship between the inputs employed by a firm and the maximum output it can produce with those inputs.

Production function

The additional output a firm produces as a result of hiring one more worker.

Marginal product of labor

Law of diminishing returns

The total output produced by a firm divided by the quantity of workers.

Average product of labor

The change in a firm’s total cost from producing one more unit of a good or service.

Marginal cost

When the marginal product of labor is ______ , the marginal cost of output is falling.

When the marginal product of labor is ______ , the marginal cost of production is rising.

rising; falling

Fixed cost divided by the quantity of output produced.

Average Fixed Cost

Variable cost divided by the quantity of output produced.

Average Variable Cost

A curve that shows the lowest cost at which a firm is able to produce a given quantity of output in the long run, when no inputs are fixed.

Long-run average cost curve

The situation when a firm’s long-run average costs fall as it increases the quantity of output it produces.

Economies of scale

The situation in which a firm’s long-run average costs remain unchanged as it increases output.

Constant returns to scale

The level of output at which all economies of scale are exhausted.

Minimum efficient scale

The situation in which a firm’s long-run average costs rise as the firm increases output.

Diseconomies of scale

A curve that shows all the combinations of two inputs, such as capital and labor, that will produce the same level of output.

Isoquant

The rate at which a firm is able to substitute one input for another while keeping the level of output constant.

Marginal rate of technical substitution (MRTS)

All the combinations of two inputs, such as capital and labor, that have the same total cost.

Isocost line

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Question 1: Business

Discussion Topic:

Discuss TWO positive economic effects and TWO negative economic effects on the U.S. economy when the U.S. imposes tariffs on importation of foreign goods. – Only ONE discussion post is required. – Discussion must be elaborate and well-written to earn full points — minimum of 1-page length expected.

Question 2: Health Care

1.list four or more of the most important facts, strategies, ideas, or perspectives to keep in mind for future practice. 2. How does this information connect with other courses you’re taking now, have taken previously, or with other life experiences? 3. How can you continue to build skills for tailoring your communication to support diverse types of clients? 4. Describe how your background shaped your health-related attitudes and behaviors and how this might help and hinder your efforts to help others. 5. Pretend you are counseling someone who is very low income and was raised by very low-income parents. Name three hidden rules that might affect their food and nutrition perspectives and describe how would you tailor your communication with them to adjust for those perspectives? 6. Define racial and ethnic health disparity. 7.Outline 3 or more possible causes of health-care provider biases. 8. Name two or more reasons reducing health disparities is important. 9. Name three or more ways clinical dietitians might help reduce health disparities. (see the article and know that this question and the next 2 are on the practical final) 10. Name three or more ways foodservice dietitians might help reduce health disparities. 11. Name three or more ways public health dietitians might help reduce health disparities. 12.Using the case study in the Academy article and assuming you have graduated and are now a nutrition professional, outline three ways you would help James Vaughan. (see the cases study at the end of the article) 13. Warm-Up Question – Module 7: What are the fundamental counseling skills and how do you plan to build skill for applying them? attachment

Question 3: Engineering

Satellite Communications. Refer to the following potential transmitter configurations and calculate the overall reliability of each configuration. There is an additional cross-strapping switch in the second configuration. Does this improve the reliability? First diagram: TWTA R-0.85 EPC R-0.9 SWITCH R=0.99 TWTA R=0.85 R=0.9 Second diagram: TWTA R-0.85 R-0.9 SWITCH R=0.99 SWITCH R-0.99 TWTA R-0.85 はt: R=0.9

Question 4: Statistics

You have been granted with a chance of profit. Someone from your family lent you $100,000 without any interest rate, for one year. You have two options to invest this capital, so that when you pay your debt back next year, the earnings from the investments would be your profit. You can either invest in a government bond, or a risky stock. Return and risk score of the bond and the stock are shown below.

Return

Bond – 3%

Stock – 8%

Risk Score

Bond – 2

Stock – 5

The average risk score of your portfolio cannot exceed 3.2. On the other hand, the same relative asked you to decide your portfolio such that the amount you invested in the bond cannot exceed the amount you invested in stock by more than $40,000.

) Formulate an LP model that solves for the portfolio with maximum return without

exceeding an average risk score of 3.2 and the amount you invest in bonds can be at

most $40,000 more than the amount you invest in stock. (4 points)

) Solve your model using graphical method. (4 points

Question 5: Business

400-500 words.

The internet is a disruptive innovation that has facilitated online retailing. It also, however, has presented challenges to brick-and-mortar retailers. How might retailers such as Nordstrom, Neiman Marcus, or Macy’s change their in-store experience in order to (a) continue to attract a flow of customers into their stores; (b) expand sales using direct selling and store displays of the actual merchandise? If the Internet continues to grow and sales of brick-and-mortar retailers decline, how might the retailers attract, train, and retain high-quality employees if the industry is perceived as declining?

Question 6: Accounting

The trial balance of Bellemy Fashion Center contained the following accounts at November 30, the end of the company’s fiscal year.

BELLEMY FASHION CENTER
Trial Balance
November 30, 2010

Debit Credit
Cash $28,700
Accounts Receivable 33,700
Merchandise Inventory 45,000
Store Supplies 5,500
Store Equipment 85,000
Acc. Depreciation – Store Equipment $18,000
Delivery Equipment 48,000
Acc. Depreciation – Delivery Equipment 6,000
Notes Payable 51,000
Accounts Payable 48,500
Common Stock 90,000
Retained Earnings 8,000
Sales 757,200
Sales Returns and Allowances 4,200
Cost of Goods Sold 495,400
Salaries Expense 140,000
Advertising Expense 26,400
Utilities Expense 14,000
Repair Expense 12,100
Delivery Expense 16,700
Rent Expense 24,000

$978,700
$978,700

Adjustment data:

Store supplies on hand totaled $1,500.
Depreciation is $9,000 on the store equipment and $6,000 on the delivery equipment.
Interest of $11,000 is accrued on notes payable at November 30.
Other data:
Salaries expense is 70% selling and 30% administrative.
Rent expense and utilities expense are 80% selling and 20% administrative.
$30,000 of notes payable are due for payment next year.
Repair expense is 100% administrative.

Journalize the adjusting entries.

Prepare an adjusted trial balance

Prepare a multiple-step income statement and retained earnings statement for the year and a classified balance sheet as of November 30, 2010.
Journalize the closing entries
Prepare a post-closing trial balance

Question 7: Health Care

You are to observe a child between the ages of birth and 24-months old for at least 20 minutes. Take notes on what you see and hear the child doing. Make sure you comment (with examples) on his/her language development, motor development (fine and gross), social/emotional development, and cognitive development. IMPORTANT: Each domain (cognitive, social/emotional, motor, and language) must have its own paragraph with information relevant to the three questions listed below:

Questions to answer when observing the child’s development from the perspective of each of the four domains listed above:

What did s/he do in this domain? 2. What did I expect an infant at this age to do? 3. Is s/he on target developmentally in this domain? What evidence did I observe to support my opinion?

Early in your paper, be sure to include the age and gender of the infant as well as the day/time and location of your observation.

CRITICAL INSTRUCTION: You may NOT observe your own child.

PART TWO: THE PAPER

The paper must be done using Microsoft Office. No exceptions! Do NOT use the “Write Submission” tool inside the Dropbox link.

It must at least 1+1/2 pages in length but no more than 2 pages in length.

Question 8: Sociology

Joseph Kony was the leader of a Ugandan resistance group namely Lord’s Resistance Army – The three theories I have chosen should be defined and explained with clarity – THE THEORIES ARE RATIONAL CHOICE THEORY, Agnew’s Strain Theory AND Merton’s Strain Theory ( Merton’s Typology of Adaptions)

Instruction

-Pick a group or individual involved in a transnational or international crime. Joseph Kony is the individual -The paper must go into depth about the person or group’s actions and directly relate them to 3 criminological theories. You must explain: – Background information on the group/individual (upbringing, location, formation of group, activities individual/group, etc.) – The three theories you have chosen should be defined and explained with clarity – Explain how specific actions taken by the group/individual are explained by each of the three theories you have chosen. – The limitations of each of your theories in their applicability to the individual/group 5 pages, singled spaced, Times New Roman, 12 pt. font, 1 inch margins, APA Format, academic sources (journals)

Question 9: Business

Please perform a Digital Audit of Fox Quilt and its marketing strategy, SEO, SEM, Social Channels, Audit of Website. Basically everything outlined here: https://www.startupgrind.com/blog/the-why-and-how-of-a-digital-marketing-audit/ The company website and detail can be found here: https://www.foxquilt.com/ Please provide the finding in a POWERPOINT Presentation

Question 10: Business

Create a project charter and identify the key constraints of the project (scope, budget, timeline, quality, people resources, etc.).
Using the scenario from this unit, create a spreadsheet that lists all the project risks you see based on what you currently know about the project. List at least 15 risks. For each project risk, provide a:
- Detailed description
- Category (schedule, strategy, people, etc.)

Note: This list will be used in later activities throughout the course.

Your submitted assignment (250 points) must include the following:

A 2-4 page typed document that includes:
- A project charter and identification of key constraints
- At least 15 risks listed in a spreadsheet with a detailed description and the category of each

Question 11: Economics

There are five buyers and five sellers in a perfectly competitive market. Each buyer wishes to purchase one single unit of the good. The willingness to pay displayed by these buyers is presented in the following table:

Buyer 12345 Willingness to Pay $4 $8 $2 $5 $7

Each firm sells also only one unit of the good. The cost of producing that unit for these firms is denoted by the following table:

Seller 12345 Production Cost $7 $2 $3 $5 $4

a) Suppose that the price for this good is set as P = 3. Is there excess demand or supply in this market? Explain.
b) Assumethatincaseofindifferencebothsellersandbuyersproceedtosupplyand demand in this market. What is the equilibrium quantity we will observe in this market and the range of prices that would support that quantity? Explain.
c) Determine the value of the maximum total surplus that we can observe in this market. Explain.

A perfectly competitive market where the laws of demand and supply hold is in equilibrium. Answer the following questions.

c) Suppose finally that less buyers take part in this market. The price elasticity of supply is estimated to be εQs,P = 1/4. What happens to the total revenues earned by sellers? Explain and illustrate the change occurring in those revenues on a graph.
b) Supposenowthatproductioncostsincreaseinthismarket.Thepriceelasticityof demand is still estimated to be εQd,P = 3/2. What happens to the total expenditures incurred by consumers? Explain and illustrate the change occurring in those expenditures on a graph.

Question 12: Linguistics

For each set of data below, choose the cognate from the daughter language which most closely resembles the original form in the parent language based on the general guidelines for applying the comparative method as presented in Chapter 5 and on class handouts. (6 x 3 points each = 18 points)

Example:

Answer: The language A cognate “septam” is closest to the original form in the parent language. Directionality suggests that the initial consonant is s since many languages have s > h, an example of lenition. Further, word-final deletion whereby m > Ø is more phonetically more plausible than word- final consonant insertion; we are given no indication of a morpheme boundary in septam so we assume that this is the bare root). Although the guideline of “majority wins” might suggest we choose a form with a as the first vowel, this guideline is overruled because there is evidence to the contrary in the form of two phonological rules which allow us to derive the forms in Language B and Language C.

Language A	Language B	Language C
septam	sɑpta	hɑpta

Language A	Language B	Language C
ek	eka	ak

Language A	Language B	Language C
rɑdə	radis	ratis

Language A	Language B	Language C
estema	steŋ	steŋa

Language A	Language B	Language C
naqa	na:qa	na:ka

Language A	Language B	Language C
preklis	prellis	prɛllis

Language A	Language B	Language C
ki	či	či

Reconstruct Proto-Language Z, which has daughter languages A, B and C, on the basis of the data below. Provide the proto-form for each set of cognates and give the sound changes which occurred in each daughter language, noting any rule ordering requirements. (11.5 points for proto-forms; 14.5 points for rules)

Data Number	Proto-Form	Language A	Language B	Language C	Gloss
1.	*	sipak	sifah	hibak	hand
2.	*	biraŋ	biraŋ	bilaŋ	foot
3.	*	unus	unus	unuh	knee
4.	*	pusut	fusut	puhud	elbow
5.	*	uvi	ubi	ubi	head
6.	*	tukal	tuhal	tugal	hair
7.	*	rasam	rasam	laham	eye
8.	*	kalup	halup	kalub	nose
9.	*	duŋu	duŋu	duŋu	ear
10.	*	iruk	iduh	iduk	mouth
11.	*	surup	suruf	hulup	tooth
12.	*	baŋit	baŋit	baŋit	tongue
13.	*	dilap	dilaf	dilap	skin
14.	*	puri	fudi	pudi	breast
15.	*	atap	ataf	adap	liver
16.	*	lavu	labu	labu	blood
17.	*	bukas	buhas	bugah	water
18.	*	barak	badak	badag	earth
19.	*	damar	damar	damal	stone
20.	*	arat	arat	alat	river
21.	*	lipit	lifit	libid	mountain
22.	*	nalip	nalip	nalib	sky
23.	*	davak	dabak	dabag	sun

Question 13: English

Paper #1 Guide:(USE THESE AS A TOPIC TO DISCUSS WHEN TYPING THIS PAPER) Why do companies conduct cybersecurity risk assessments? What do they find out from these assessments? Why should companies increase cybersecurity awareness among their employees? How can they do this? What are the benefits of regularly updating applications (apps), of password control, and of VPNs? What are the benefits to a company and to individual employees of creating a culture of cybersecurity, where employees continue to use best practices outside of the office?

Paper #2 Guide: YOU MUST TYPE A PAPER ANSWERING THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS BUT TRANSITION INTO EACH QUESTION; MY MBTI TYPE IS: EXTROVERT; MY HOLLAND TYPE SUGGEST I SHOULD BE IN THE WORK FIELD OF BUILDING What is the difference between a job and a career? How does this relate to your own career plans? What values do you believe are the most important for your overall career satisfaction? What is your MBTI type and how does this relate to your career? What is your Holland type and how does this relate to your career? What skills would you most like to use in your future career? Which of these skills do you need to develop? How will you develop these skills? What areas have you identified for future exploration and research What are your current thoughts about work and career at this point in the class?

Question 14: History

Answer in detail one of the following three questions in a 2,500-3,000 word essay. Be sure to answer each part of the question. If you consult any outside sources, please use footnotes and attach a “Sources Cited” final page to your exam.

In your answer, the first paragraph should sum up your main points and include a one-sentence thesis statement. Your answer should be submitted as a .docx file

What were the most important technological development and the most important strategic change in the U.S. Navy (and Marines) 1890-1945? Why were they the most significant?
Choose just one technological development as well as just one strategic change as the basis for your essay.
In your answer, discuss the changes in technology and strategy that the Navy/Marines went through during this period, making certain to describe how Mahan affected the Navy especially.
Discuss as well the effects that wars and combat had on the Navy/Marines and these issues during this period.
Support your answer with facts: do not just assert.

Question 15: General

4CCS1PPA Programming Practice and Applications

Coursework 3: Predator/Prey Simulation

Michael K ̈olling, Josh Murphy, Jeffery Raphael Questions? programming@kcl.ac.uk

Your task is to extend a predator/prey simulation. You should use the foxes-and-rabbits-handout project (available for download from KEATS) as a basis for your own project, and modify and extend it to make it more interesting. Note that this is slightly different from the book project, so please use the version from KEATS, not from the book projects.

You must replace the Fox and Rabbit classes with different kinds of predator and prey to simulate a different habitat (for example, under water, in a jungle, or in a fantasy world). You may add additional classes to those included in the existing project.

This project is a pair programming task. You must work in pairs. Information about pair pro- gramming is provided separately. We will not accept submissions by individuals.

1 Core tasks

You should aim at completing all core tasks. They are as follows.

Your simulation should have at least five different kinds of acting species. At least two of these should be predators (they eat another species), and at least two of them should not be predators (they may eat plants). Plants can either be assumed to always be available (as in the original project), or they can be simulated (see below).
At least two predators should compete for the same food source.
Some or all of the species should distinguish male and female individuals. For these, the creatures can only propagate when a male and female individual meet. (“Meet” means they need to be within a specified distance to each other, for example in a neighbouring cell.) You will need to experiment with the parameters for breeding probability to create a stable population.
You should keep track of the time of day. At least some creatures should exhibit different behaviour at some time of the day (for example: they may sleep at night and not move during that time).

You should implement the core tasks first before you move on to the extension tasks.

2 Challenge tasks

Once you have finished the core tasks, implement one or more extension tasks. You can either choose from the following suggestions, or invent your own. You will be graded on a maximum of four extensions.

Add plants. Plants grow at a given rate, but they do not move. Some creatures eat plants. They will die if they do not find their food plant.
Add weather. Weather can change, and it influences the behaviour of some simulated aspects. For example, grass may not grow without rain, or predators cannot see well in fog.
Add disease. Some animals are occasionally infected. Infection can spread to other animals when they meet.

If you invent your own extension tasks, check with your class supervisor before implementing them. You can get their comments to ensure they your idea is not too simple or too difficult.

To get full marks on this assignment you must demonstrate exceptional technical aptitude with the challenge tasks you implement.

3 Submission and Deadline

The submission consists of two parts: your code and a report documenting it. The code and report must be submitted before the deadline, by both members of your pair. Both the source code and the report should clearly state the names of both authors.

The Code

You have to submit a Jar of your project to the “Assignment 3: Code Submission” link in the assignment 3 section on the PPA KEATS page, before the due date. The Jar file must contain your source code, i.e., the *.java files. Your code will be assessed for:

Program Correctness —The application meets all of the program specifications, i.e., the student has completed all of the base tasks including following submission instructions (e.g., the student submitted a Jar file of their BlueJ project).
Code Elegance —The application is written in such a way that the code is reusable and efficient (i.e., memory usage and complexity). The application appropriately uses loops and functions to reduce code complexity and/or repeated code. The application does not have hard-coded solutions or poorly designed solutions. A poorly designed solution is overly complicated, utilises excessive amounts of memory or utilises a slower approach to a problem.
Documentation —The application is sufficiently documented. Good documentation/comments should explain what the code does and how it does it. Comments can also be used to highlight nuances in your solution, e.g., a segment of code that only works under certain conditions.
Readability —The application is easy to understand and uses good programming practices.

The report

The report must be submitted to the “Assignment 3: Report Submission” link in the assignment 3 section on the PPA KEATS page, before the deadline. The report should be no more than four pages long. Marking the assignment will involve an interview in your lab class. More detail about the interview will be provided separately. The report must clearly state the names and student numbers of all students who worked on the submission. The report should also contain the following :

A description of your simulation, including the types of species that you are simulating, their behaviour and interactions.
A list and description of all extension tasks you have implemented.
Code limitations/problems, e.g., code segment that uses a hard coded solution.

The report will be marked out of 100. Additional details on how marks are given can be found in the Marking Rubric. Once your submission is marked and written feedback has been returned to you, you will have the opportunity to get additional verbal feedback on your submission from your lab TAs.

4 Deadline

After submitting your work on KEATS, check that (1) your Jar file and report (pdf) has been successfully uploaded and (2) that the Jar file contains all of your source files.

Question 16: Business

Leveraging Search Technologies -Identify an organization that is using at least one online search technology. You may use an organization you know from your personal experience or one that you discover while doing research. Briefly describe the organization, and then answer the following questions: -Of the various types of search technologies, which ones is the organization utilizing? -Why is the organization using these technologies? What are the benefits? -What are some metrics the organization could use to evaluate how effective these technologies are in supporting organizational objectives? Explain. -Identify areas in which the organization could expand or improve upon using the search technology. Explain what they could do and why they should do it.

Instruction

4 – 5 pages not including the following: Title Page Abstract Page Reference Page

Question 17: Health Care

Article Review: Each student is required to submit five (5), typed, one (1) page summary of a professional, peer-reviewed journal article. The article review should address the following topics: • Article Review #1 – One Health • Article Review #2 – Pesticides OR Toxic Metals • Article Review #3 – Radiation OR Water Pollution • Article Review #4 – Air pollution OR Food Safety • Article Review #5 – Solid Waste Management or Occupational Health Only one article review may be submitted on each topic. Recent (published within the last five years) professional peer-reviewed journal articles must be used. Please indicate the topic addressed in the upper right-hand corner of each abstract submitted along with your name and include a complete citation. Grade will be based on content, format, timeliness, citations, and grammar.

Question 18: Business

Peter and Andrew are brothers. Since childhood, they have wanted to convert a barn on their grandfather’s farm into a hunting and fishing lodge that would provide modest but comfortable accommodations for sportspersons using nearby recreational lands. Andrew has suggested that they bring his friend, Paul, into the business, as well. While Peter and Andrew would develop the property, Paul has experience in the hospitality industry and could manage the day-to-day operations. Peter and Andrew would also want to make the lodge available to local church groups for worship retreats. They haven’t yet discussed this with Paul, because they know he is not comfortable with most churches and their positions on social issues. The men are now discussing how to form the new business, and have narrowed their choices to a general partnership or a limited liability company (LLC). What would you advise, and why? Consider and discuss issues such as:

What personal liability will the owners have for the obligations of the business (contracts, debts, lawsuit judgments, etc.)
Should Paul be included as a co-owner, or in some other role? On what do you base that decision?
How would contributions to the new business be valued?
How would profits and losses be distributed?

Refer to the Assignment Instructions folder of the course for general directions and grading rubrics for Discussion Boards, including requirements for word length, scholarly sources, and integration of a Biblical worldview.

Identify your conclusion in the subject line of your post (General Partnership, LLC, etc.). Do not use attachments, as these are cumbersome and inhibit the discussion process.

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Question 1: Finance

Assume that the costs associated with the purchase of EHR software are as follows:

Purchase price: $25,000 per provider

One time implementation fee: $10,000 per provider

Annual maintenance fee: 18% of the purchase price applied after the first year

Estimate the ROI (%) at the end of five years for a group of 15 providers. Assume that the only monetary benefit considered is that each physician will earn $44,000 as incentive (one time only).

Question 2: Psychology

Capstone Quiz

Answer the following multiple choice questions by highlighting the answer. There is one correct answer per question.

Which historical perspective stated that psychologists should study the different components of the mind independently, because to understand how the conscious mind works, we must understand all of its individual parts completely?

Structuralism
Functionalism
Behaviorism
Gestalt
Psychodynamic

Edward Titchener used a method for studying the mind that became popular during the Structuralist period. The method, called _____, required trained participants to report their conscious mental experiences to the investigator. For example, if a person was angry, they would report all of their experiences during the time they were angry.

empiricism
functionalism
contemplation
introspection
conscientiousness

A potential problem with ___________ research is _____________.

longitudinal; cohort differences
cross-sectional; subject attrition
cross-sectional; cohort differences
longitudinal; random assignment
cross-sectional; maturation

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Research by _____________ legitimized psychological science when it became the first psychological research presented as evidence to the United States Supreme Court.

Muzafer Sherif
Irving Janis
Mamie Clark
Phillip Zimbardo
Kurt Lewin

To determine whether changing one variable like education will produce changes in another like income, we must conduct _____________________ research.

survey
correlational
experimental
statistical
basic

Mary is studying the effect of high blood sugar on intelligence test performance. Which of these might be her hypothesis?

People should not eat high sugar foods prior to IQ testing.
High sugar foods increase energy and improve IQ test performance.
People who eat high sugar foods before testing will have lower scores on an IQ test than people who do not.
Roughly 75% of people had lower IQ test scores after eating high sugar snacks right before testing.
Individuals should not be given high sugar snacks prior to IQ testing.

Which of the following research methods would be most effective in demonstrating whether the presence of others improves our performance of a task?

An experiment
A correlational study
A survey
A field study
An historical study

Which of the following psychological studies would you expect to have similar results cross-culturally?

Milgram’s study of obedience to authority
Asch’s conformity study
Study of the symptoms of mental illness
Study of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
Study of parenting styles

According to the APA Ethical Standards, psychologists must inform participants of the nature of the research; and that they are free to participate, decline to participate, or withdraw from the research at any time. These requirements, among others, are necessary to ensure the participants’ ______.

anonymity
risk level
informed consent
debriefing
risk/benefit ratio

Making an ethical decision involves

simply applying a clear and definitive set of guidelines for ethical research
deciding that an ethical decision is effective if it makes you happy
identifying what ethical guidelines are relevant in a situation and what is at stake for all parties involved
maintaining the anonymity of the researchers
maintaining the anonymity of the participants

According to the APA Ethical Standards, who is ultimately responsible for the ethical conduct of research done in psychology?

The Institutional Review Board
The individual researchers
The sponsoring institution, such as the university
The assistants who test the participants
The funding agency

Question 3: Psychology

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words to either prompt 1 or 2:

Prompt 1:

Identify a current social problem. If you had unlimited resources, how would you go about studying that problem?

Prompt 2:

Congratulations! You’ve made it to week 6, which means that you’ve successfully submitted your research proposal. I hope that you all feel a sense of accomplishment as that is no easy task (but you already know this, right?).

For this discussion question, I’d like for all of you to share what you found to be the most challenging part of the proposal and to discuss how you overcame it.

Question 4: Sociology

Question 5: Marketing

Give step by step instructions on creating a sales pipeline. Include different categories of pipeline, how they are measured and levels of involvement for each. 1 or 1 1/2 page without the reference page. APA times new roman #12

Question 6: Sociology

Using the textbook and the South University Online Library, write a 1500-word paper using APA standards that focuses on the following: Interview two different individuals regarding their positions in society. Analyze their responses regarding: Identify each person’s class, race, and gender, supporting your work with the text and/or outside resources. What role has class, race, and gender played in their lives? How do you see these stratifies as playing a role, even if the interviewee is unaware of it? Apply one of the sociological perspectives to the individuals’ lives. Why did you choose this particular perspective? How does it explain each person’s life and life choices? What are some of the benefits and limitations to using interview as a research methodology? Analyze each person’s specific components of culture and relate them to his/her stratified position in society.

Question 7: History

1.After reading the Four Roles in Social Movement handout, identify which of the four roles best describes you and your involvement in social movement/change and why. 250 words 2.after reading the 8 Stages of Successful Social Movements handout, identify how each of these 8 stages will be or have been incorporated into your social movement/change. This should not exceed 2 pages in length. 3.Create a 1 page infographic which will describe how to increase social awareness for your identified movement/change. Explain and evaluate social, political and historical milestones for this social movement/change that reinforce trends as they relate to human services’ role in advocating for individuals, families and communities in need. Make sure your infographic is informative and visually appealing. (SLO 4) 4. Conduct research using scholarly resources Database and/or other outside resources to answer the following questions: Compare and contrast the Mexican American/Chicano Movement, the African Hire an online tutor Spring 2020? https://homeworknest.com/ has all the answers. Online Professional tutoring tailored for college students studying online. 2020 spring revision materials , Timed quizzes, biology quizzes, Us History assignment help. Dissertation, thesis help at cheap prices. Give your online courses grade A boost. Homework nest is the ultimate answer. register today. https://www.homeworknest.com/ and get all types of assignment help today. Our Expert tutors are waiting for you. The cheapest essay writing service in 2020. Ace my Homework is a question asked by many college and university students. we got them all answers at Homework Nest

American Civil Rights Movement, and the Stonewall Movement. Discuss the effectiveness of each movement, its current status, and future goals and initiatives. Additionally, choose one of the movements above and identify strategies to address marginalization and social stratification for the identified population in support of social change and social justice initiatives. (SLO 3) This assignment should include a minimum of 2 related scholarly resources. This essay should not exceed 4 pages in length. 5.Historical Perspective Part 4 will be the historical overview of your Social Movement/Change guided project. In this section, provide a timeline of at least 3 and a maximum of 5 significant events associated with the implementation of the movement/change. Part 5: Annotated Bibliography Begin your annotated bibliography and include three scholarly resources related to your social movement/change. Conduct research from the Springfield College Library Database and/or other outside sources.

Question 8: Education

pick one of the 8 levels of psychosocial development. Upload a PowerPoint containing a movie clip from 20 seconds to 120 second Demonstrating your chosen level of psychosocial development. 3-4 slides only

Question 9: English

https://pdfs.semanticscholar.org/ca94/5980c84bf0d041180f4bcbc53acfec953d86.pdf?_ga=2.181180903.1552378089.1582118538-163449460.1582118538

Read this article .

Answer these two Questions:

1-What is the main topic of this research?why was this worth investigating?

2- how were data analyzed?what finding were produced .

Pleased put the question and answer below it . Keep it very short , as long as you answer no words limit.

Question 10: Health Care

Create a newsletter to the “parents” in your classroom highlighting the important aspects of the health lesson you are preparing to present to their children. IMPORTANT: This newsletter is announcing to the parents the upcoming lesson you are going to give to their children BASED ON THE HEALTH LESSON PLAN YOU CREATED EARLIER IN THIS MODULE. This must be done in Microsoft WORD. Include in your newsletter:

The topic
Why this topic is important enough for you to create a lesson on it and deliver it to their children
The classroom policy that is either being reinforced through the lesson or is being created from the lesson
How you hope the parents will reinforce the policy in their home environment

Create YOUR newsletter using Microsoft WORD. Remember, this newsletter relates to the Health Lesson Plan you have already created!

Question 11: Science

Explain where in the Citric Acid Cycle a hypothetical defect of an enzyme could occur that would decrease the overall ATP production.

Pick a specific enzyme in the citric acid cycle and discuss what would happen if it could not do its job – focusing on atp production. If this enzyme is defective, what happens to the levels of that enzyme’s product(s)? How does this impact the cycle as a whole? Can the cycle continue or does it stop? What happens to etc and at production.

Question 12: Finance

To be completed in excel file with all questions answered with showing work.

Sandomir and Rasia Kolbe

1.Sandomir and Rasia Kolbe, ages fifty eight and fifty seven respectively, and their three grown children, recently attended Sandomir’s father’s funeral in Poland. They realized that they did not know the effect of federal estate tax on their own estate, nor did they have any legal documentation supporting end-of-life medical or financial decisions. So, upon returning home, Rasia called her mother for a recommendation regarding estate planning help. Rasia’s mother suggested an attorney for the legal documents and her own financial planner for other estate planning needs. For the purposes of this problem, assume all family members are citizens of the United States. Financial information for the Kolbe family follows:

Based on the Kolbes’ financial information, the lawyer and the financial planner jointly made the following recommendations:

Recommendation 1: Establish testamentary trusts for both Sandomir and Rasia.

Recommendation 2: Retitle assets in preparation of funding trusts.

Recommendation 3: Transfer life insurance ownership to the three children.

To assist the Kolbes with their estate planning, answer the following questions.

a.What type of trust(s) might be recommended in keeping with the clients’ desires of minimizing estate taxes, maximizing privacy, and easing asset ownership transfers?

b.How might the assets be retitled to ensure that all trusts can be adequately funded?

c.What are some of the challenges associated with transferring ownership of the insurance policies to the children? Describe some of the problems with the current life insurance designations. What other strategies can also be considered to alleviate any potential estate, gift, or income tax issues?

d.Besides completing wills and trust documents, what other legal documents should the Kolbes consider?

Jane and John Williams

2.Assume the following estate planning information for Jane and her spouse John.

a.If Jane were to pass away first, what is her tax liability before the marital deduction?

b.If John were to pass away first, what is his tax liability before the marital deduction?

c.Using the portable estate exemption, how much of their combined estate is taxable today?

d.If Jane and John fail to take advantage of the portable estate exemption by forgetting to file IRS Form 706 at the death of the first spouse, will there be a tax liability this year, assuming the second spouse also passes shortly thereafter? Describe an estate planning strategy that can be used to minimize any estate tax liability in this situation.

Brenda Chatterjee

3.Brenda Chatterjee is wealthy, single, and generous. During the previous year she made the following gifts:

Gift of stock to the local art museum (a 501(c)(3) nonprofit organization): $245,000
College tuition payment for niece: $29,000 made directly to the institution
Medical bills for elderly neighbor: $18,000 paid directly to the hospital
Home down payment gift to daughter: $30,000 paid directly to the mortgage lender
Cash gift to son: $17,000
Use the gift tax rates shown below as a guide to answer the following questions:

a.What is the total amount of taxable gifts in 2018?

b.What is Brenda’s gift tax liability in 2018?

c.Assuming a unified credit of $4,425,800, what alternative does Brenda have in terms of paying the gift tax liability?

Malek and Nelda Goetz

4.Malek and Nelda Goetz live in Nevada. They are working with you to deal with several estate planning questions and concerns. Use your estate planning skills to answer the following questions:

a.Nelda read that it is a good idea to have a power of attorney in place to help deal with incapacitation issues. She is worried, however, that providing someone power over the family’s financial situation now could lead to unnecessary problems and confusion. What type of POA can Malek and Nelda establish that will address her worries? What needs to occur to trigger this type of POA?

b.Malek and Nelda were married in Nevada. In fact, they have lived their entire life in Nevada. If Malek were to pass away, with the family home valued at $500,000 at Malek’s death, what will be Nelda’s new basis in the property? Assume the basis in the home is $100,000.

c.Avoiding probate is a primary concern for Malek. Which of the following assets will be subject to probate?

A personal residence owned JTWROS with a child.
Life insurance proceeds paid to a non-insured beneficiary.
Property titled as tenants in common.
Brokerage account.

d.Malek would like to reduce the value of the family gross estate by transferring ownership of the family’s second home to his daughter; however, he is worried that he and Nelda may need to live in the house in the event they sell their primary residence (the primary residence is under contract for sale). Malek and Nelda should consider establishing what type of trust to deal with this potentiality?

e.Nelda owns a small business with three other individuals. The business is growing and profitable. Nelda would like to establish a buy-sell agreement to ensure business continuity. What type of agreement should she establish, with her business partners, if she hope that each business owner will purchase life insurance on the life of each other business owner?

f.At what age can Malek’s son elect to access assets held in a Section 2503(b) trust (the son is named as the beneficiary)?

Question 13: Psychology

Are you able to do the online quiz? Click on the link below. Use the table below as a resource to complete the Research Multimedia Activity. Send a screen shot of the results to me.

Are you able to do this or no?

https://ecampus.phoenix.edu/secure/aapd/materials/ip/curriculum/social-sciences/psych665/week-1-activity/story.html

Use the table below as a resource to complete the Research Multimedia Activity.

Number	High Quality Research Attributes
1	The research is based on the work of others.
2	The research can be replicated.
3	The research is generalizable to other settings.
4	The research is based on some logical rationale and tied to theory.
5	The research is doable.
6	The research generates new questions or is cyclical in nature.
7	The research is incremental.
8	The research is an apolitical activity that should be undertaken for the betterment of society.

Reference

Salkind, N. J. (2012). Exploring research (8th ed.). Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson.

Question 14: General Question

Part 1 Due Week 7 and worth 100 points Imagine that you are a financial manager researching investments for your client. Think of a friend or a family member as a client. Define her or his characteris

Part 1 Due Week 7 and worth 100 points

Imagine that you are a financial manager researching investments for your client. Think of a friend or a family member as a client. Define her or his characteristics and goals such as an employee or employer, relatively young (less than 40 years) or close to retirement, having some savings/property, a risk taker or risk averter, etc. Next, use Nexis Uni at the Strayer University library, located at Nexis Uni, click on “Company Dossier” to research the stock of any U.S. publicly traded company that you may consider as an investment opportunity for your client. Your investment should align with your client’s investment goals. (Note: Please ensure that you are able to find enough information about this company in order to complete this assignment. You will create an appendix, in which you will insert related information.)

Your final financial research report will be 6 to 8 pages long and be completed in two parts as noted below. This assignment requires you to use at least five quality academic resources and cover the following topics:

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Rationale for choosing the company in which to invest
Ratio analysis
Stock price analysis
Recommendations

Refer to the following resources to assist with completing your assignment:

Stock Selection

Forbes: “Six rules to follow when picking stocks”
CNN Money: “Stocks: Investing in stocks”
The Motley Fool: “13 steps to investing foolishly”
Seeking Alpha: “The Graham And Dodd Method For Valuing Stocks”
Investopedia: “Guide to Stock-Picking Strategies”
Seeking Alpha: “Get Your Smart Beta Here! Dividend Growth Stocks As ‘Strategic Beta’ Investments”

Market and Company Information

S. Securities and Exchange Commission: “Market structure”
Yahoo! Finance
Mergent Online (Note: This resource is also available through the Strayer Learning Resource Center.)
Seeking Alpha (Note: This is also available through the Android or iTunes App store.)
Morningstar (Note: You can create a no-cost Basic Access account.)
Research Hub, located in the left menu of your course in Blackboard

Part 1 Due Week 7 (1 to 2 pages)

Provide a rationale for the stock that you selected, indicating the significant economic, financial, and other factors that led you to consider this stock.
Suggest the primary reasons why the selected stock is a suitable investment for your client. Include a description of your client’s profile.
Just list five resources you’ll use to complete this assignment and begin to build your reference list. Remember you must use at least five quality academic resources for the final assignment.

Part 2 Due Week 9 (6 to 8 pages including #1 and #2 from Part 1)

Include your rationale, primary reasons for stock selection, and client’s profile from Part 1, making any revisions based upon Part 1 feedback if applicable.
Select any five financial ratios that you have learned about in the text. Analyze the past 3 years of the selected financial ratios for the company; you may obtain this information from the company’s financial statements. Determine the company’s financial health. (Note: Suggested ratios include, but are not limited to, current ratio, quick ratio, earnings per share, and price earnings ratio.)
Based on your financial review, determine the risk level of the stock from your investor’s point of view. Indicate key strategies that you may use in order to minimize these perceived risks.
Provide your recommendations of this stock as an investment opportunity. Support your rationale with resources, such as peer-reviewed articles, material from the Strayer University Library, and reviews by market analysts.

Question 15: Physics

PSY 635 Week 4 Quiz

Qualitative Research Quiz

A person through whom a researcher gains access to a group, community, or organization is known as a(n) _____.

A defining feature of _____ is that this method always aims to uncover previously unquestioned assumptions about the nature of the world and reality and to consider the possible consequences of these assumptions.

Discourse analysis is a _____ approach, which means that it works on the premise that the use of language allows people to negotiate meanings and bring concepts into reality.

Using more than one method to verify findings is called _____.

Grounded theory studies often use a sampling strategy that continues to develop throughout the analysis, which is called _____.

A characteristic of _____ is resistance to pre-existing knowledge.

Qualitative researchers use _____ to capture ideas, interpretations, and responses to the data during the study.

Grounded theory uses data collection techniques from another qualitative research method, _____.

The sampling strategy in which the researcher recruits people who are easy to reach is called _____.

The _____ approach to narrative analysis uses rich descriptions of people in their accustomed surroundings.

Question 16: Health Care

Pediatric week 4 Discussion 1

Do you recommend a limited or an involved use of antibiotics in treatment of these diseases and other unconfirmed bacterial illnesses and why? What are the standards regarding the use of antibiotics in pediatric population, and what assessment findings would warrant prescribing an antibiotic for Asthma symptoms?

Do the etiology, diagnosis, and management of a child who is wheezing vary according to the child’s age? Why or why not? Which objective of the clinical findings will guide your diagnosis? Why? When is a chest x-ray indicated in this case?

Question 17: Health Care

Potential Matches:
1 : Foundational science for informatics that looks at how the human mind works
2 : Emerging field of study that focuses upon how information is processed both in the human mind and the computer
3 : Knowledge applied in a practical manner
4 : Field or application that attempts to capture human thought processes and intelligence
5 : Longitudinal record of one’s health and treatment interventions
6 : Foundational science for informatics that looks at the application and use of information and knowledge in organizations and the interface between people, organizations, and information systems
7 : An initiative to improve healthcare quality, efficiency, and effectiveness by making healthcare information available when and where it is needed through technology, standards, interoperability, governance, and cooperation
Answer:
3 : Wisdom
1 : Cognitive science
5 : Electronic health record
7 : National Health Information Infrastructure
2 : Cognitive informatics
6 : Information science

Question 18: Health Care

Question 1

Choose the best definition or example for the informatics key term in the question.
What is Data?

Processed information which places relationships in context

Correct!

Raw fact without meaning in itself

Process which uses information to make decisions electronically

Unit of memory equal to one keystroke

Question 2

Choose the best definition or example for the informatics key term in the question.
What is an Electronic Medical Record?
Correct!

An online record of treatment, typically limited to one episode, whether that might be an emergency room or clinic visit or a hospital stay

Longitudinal record of one’s health and treatment interventions

Using software to sort through data to discover patterns and establish relationships

Web browser-based login accessible data, software, and hardware

Question 3

Choose the best definition or example for the informatics key term in the question.
What is Knowledge Work?
Correct Answer

Process that generates information and knowledge as a product

You Answered

Foundational science for informatics that looks at the application and use of information and knowledge in organizations and the interface between people, organizations, and information systems

Foundational science for informatics that looks at how the human mind works

Process by which clinical data is used to help make decisions and develop predictive analytics

Question 4

Choose the best definition or example for the informatics key term in the question.
What is Health Information Exchange?

An initiative to improve healthcare quality, efficiency, and effectiveness by making healthcare information available when and where it is needed through technology, standards, interoperability, governance, and cooperation

A computer-based program designed to assist clinicians in making clinical decisions

Process by which clinical data is used to make decisions

Correct!

The process of electronic transmission or sharing of healthcare information or an organization that organizes and oversees the transmission process

Question 5

Choose the best definition or example for the informatics key term in the question.
What is an Information System?

Emerging field of study that focuses upon how information is processed both in the human mind and the computer

. Process that generates information and knowledge as a product

Correct!

Question 19: Health Care

NR 531 WEEK 5 OBESITY QUIZ

Question 1

Your 7-year-old patient arrives to clinic complaining of pain in bilateral knees and is diagnosed with Osgood-Schlatter disease. You notice that the patient has a BMI that no longer plots on the CDC BMI graph. What anticipatory guidance will you give the parents of this child?

Diet and nutrition advice, lab testing, motivational interviewing with a 24- hour diet recall along with monthly weight checks

Question 2

Your adult patient has a BMI of 50.1 along with HTN, diabetes and dyslipidemia. What would be the best recommended avenue of weight loss for this patient?

Diet and exercise along with a referral to bariatric management

Question 20: Gender Studies

Respond to the following 4 questions (250 words per question double space 12 font) using the framework of critical media studies. Citations are APA format.

Instruction

Sut Jhally traces the history of advertising from text-based to the image-system that we have today. Briefly outline the key elements of the shift from “rational” text-based advertising to the “emotional” image-based system that we have today. How do contemporary advertisers associate their products with our most cherished emotions? According to Jhally,what is the correlation between buying thins and having a satisfying life? 2. What is the political economy of media and, briefly, why is it important to critical media studies? How does the context of production influence the text? This type of research comes up in Dines and Humez, Kellner, Croteau et al., Jenner, Foster and McChesney, Be as thorough as possible. 3. In Wang’s article on Top Chef, a Vietnamese -American contestant, Hung Huynh excels at French cuisine and is praised for his technical perfection, yet the judges critique him week after week for lacking what? According to the judges, how should Huynh intangible quality? With reference to the stereotype of the “technical buy unfeeling Asian” and the ” perpetually ‘foreign’ status that Asian Americans hold in the U.S. racial imaginary (537), how can they judges’ expectations of Huynh be interpreted as racialized? 4. Drawing on Balance and Hall, outline the following ambivalent figures: the model minority; the slave-figure; the “native” and the “clown”.

Question 21: Business Finance

Identify 2 ways in which human service practice is different in the mental health setting versus the criminal justice setting (you may use any venue in the criminal justice setting for comparison, such as prison, jail, juvenile detention, pretrial diversion, parole, probation, etc.)

Question 22: Mathematics

The table lists the average annual cost of tuition and fees at private 4-year colleges for selected years.

Year Tuition and Fees (in dollars)

1994 11,719

1996 13,994

1998 17,709

2000 16,233

2002 21,116

2004 24,101

2006 32,218

Given any two data points with each consisting of the year and its corresponding tuition and fees, describe in detail how you would find a linear function that models the data shown in the table. Be sure to clearly define and interpret all components involved in your model.
Determine a linear function that models the data, where 0 x= represents 1994, and 1 x= represents 1995, and so on. Use the points ( ) 0,11719 and( ) 12,32218 . Choose two more combinations of points and use them to create two additional linear functions that model the data. Record the three linear functions below.

Function 1:

Function 2:

Function 3:

How would you go about using these functions to predict the average annual cost of tuition and fees for a future year? Suppose you are in the marketing department for a college and you are trying to determine which function to use to encourage future students attend your college. Explore and state the messages that can be sent to prospective students by each function.
Use all three functions to approximate tuition and fees in 2035. State your results below. Next, choose the function you would use to encourage prospective students and explain the reasoning behind your choice.

Function 1:

Function 2:

Function 3:

Function of choice:

Explanation:

Question 23: Other

Hourigan, Settipani, Southam-Gerow, & Kendall (2012) explain, “Childhood anxiety disorders are among the most common childhood disorders” (p.104). Review the case example of Evan in Chapter 7 and based on Evan’s Fear Ladder, what plans would you make to involve Evan’s teachers. What strategies could be used in an educational setting to help Evan overcome his disorder? What instructional or classroom management practices might the teacher need to modify to accommodate Evan’s need?

Question 24: Science

Question 1 (4 points)

According to the National Institute for Health Care Management: Understanding U.S. Health Care Spending article, which of the following are correlated with the rising obesity rates in the U.S.? (Select all that apply)

Question 1 options:

	Increase in other chronic health conditions
	Increase in the determinants of health
	Increase in health spending
	Decrease in provider visits

Question 2 (4 points)

As of 2009, national health expenditures in the U.S. were approximately what percentage of the Gross Domestic Product?

Question 2 options:

	14.9%
	16.0%
	17.6%
	19.2%

Question 3 (4 points)

According to figures from the National Health Expenditure Accounts (NHEA), how much was spent on health care in the U.S. in 2009?

Question 3 options:

	$1.25 trillion
	$2.5 trillion
	$3.75 trillion
	$5.0 trillion

Question 4 (4 points)

Which of the following have contributed to the increases in the cost of health care? (select all that apply)

Question 4 options:

	New medical technology
	Growing rates of obesity
	Perverse provider reimbursement mechanisms (i.e. fee-for-service)
	Expanded insurance coverage
	The practice of defensive medicine

Question 5 (4 points)

Comorbidities require less sophisticated coordination of care.

Question 5 options:

	True
	False

Question 6 (4 points)

According to “Crossing the Quality Chasm,” redesigning the healthcare system involves which of the following:

Question 6 options:

	Evidence-based care
	Effective use of information technology
	Paying higher salaries to clinicians
	All of the above
	None of the above
	Both a and b

Question 7 (4 points)

The Institute of Medicine Committee specified a blueprint for a health care delivery systems in the 21st century that will result in an ideal system if followed.

Question 7 options:

	True
	False

Question 8 (4 points)

According to the Institute of Medicine, Coverage Matters: Insurance and Health Care article, historically, some of the factors that influenced whether someone was uninsured included:

Question 8 options:

	Gender
	Ethnicity
	Marriage status
	All of the above
	None of the above
	Both a and b

Question 9 (4 points)

Historically, most of the uninsured in the U.S. have been illegal immigrants.

Question 9 options:

	True
	False

Question 10 (4 points)

Medicaid fills in the gaps in the availability of health insurance by:

Question 10 options:

	Covering all people below the poverty line
	Covering just low-income children
	Covering certain groups of low-income people
	All of the above

Question 11 (4 points)

According to the Kaiser Family Foundation, which group accounts for the most Medicaid spending?

Question 11 options:

	Children under the age of 19
	Unemployed adults
	Elderly and disabled adults
	Dual-eligibles over the age of 65

Question 12 (4 points)

Meaningful Use sets the specific objectives that eligible professionals and hospitals must achieve to participate in the EHR Incentive Programs.

Question 12 options:

	True
	False

Question 13 (4 points)

Providers who prove compliant with meaningful use regulations will receive what tangible benefit?

Question 13 options:

	A meaningful use compliance certification
	Decreased government regulation
	Government incentive payments
	Acceptance onto the stage 3 rules committee

Question 14 (4 points)

In comparison to the general population, patients receiving Long-Term and Post-Acute Care services typically:

Question 14 options:

	Have a smaller range of conditions
	Have less complex conditions
	Have a wider range of conditions that are more complex
	Have less complex conditions that are wider in range

Question 15 (4 points)

According to the Long-Term and Post-Acute Care (LTPAC) Roundtable Summary Report of Findings (Anderson), what are the two ways to capture data discussed in the article?

Question 15 options:

	ERH and HIE
	EHR and IHE
	HER and HEI
	EHR and HIE

Question 16 (4 points)

The article “Adoption of Electronic Health Records in the United States” stated that there are eight barriers to adoption of Electronic Health Records. Specifically, the article mentions the barrier of “Time” and stated that productivity is initially reduced when caregivers start using the EHR’s. This is due to:

Question 16 options:

	The Lack Curve
	The Learning Curve
	The Boonstra Effect
	The Interconnect Effect

Question 17 (4 points)

The article “Adoption of Electronic Health Records in the United States” discusses government incentives related to reform to adopt information technology in meaningful ways. The ____________ Act includes spending to create a network of Electronic Health Records.

Question 17 options:

	HIPAA
	HITECH
	TECH-Health
	Health Outcomes

Question 18 (4 points)

The article “Adoption of Electronic Health Records in the United States” stated that in order to be considered multifunctional, Electronic Health Records need to have at least two of the following capabilities:

Question 18 options:

	Generation of patient information, generation of patience, order exit management, decision support
	Generation of patient registry, generation of healthy outcomes, order entry management and character support
	Generation of patient information, generation of patient registry and panel information, order entry management and decision support
	Generation of patient information, generation of registry and panel information, order entry management and healthy outcomes

Question 19 (4 points)

The Chief Medical Information Officer is a physician who bridges the process of information management and medical practice. This position is usually seen as:

Question 19 options:

	More administrative than clinical
	Equally administrative and clinical
	More clinical than administrative
	All clinical and no administrative responsibilities–it’s a symbolic position

Question 20 (4 points)

The initiation of the electronic medical record is a new strategy in today’s healthcare environment but actually began as far back as:

Question 20 options:

	1970’s
	1990’s
	1960’s
	2009

Question 21 (4 points)

As described in the Health Affairs article, “Strategic Action in Health Information Technology: Why the Obvious has Taken So Long,” we have come a long way in healthcare IT over the past thirty-five years. However, observers have expressed repeated concerns since it’s inception. Of those concerns the most prevalent is:

Question 21 options:

	The amount of data being collected
	The effects on the physician/patient relationship
	The accuracy of the patient data being collected
	The ability to train users to be proficient in data management

Question 22 (4 points)

The National Committee on Vital and Health Statistics (NCVHS) was established by Congress more than fifty years ago to serve as a public advisory body to HHS on health data, statistics, and national health information policy. They have been extremely influential over the years in establishing standards for health data, health data systems and patient record systems. One of the most important and influential pieces of legislation the NCVHS developed is:

Question 22 options:

	The Affordable Care Act
	The Social Security Act
	Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
	None of the above

Question 23 (4 points)

States have the flexibility to design their own Medicaid programs within federal guidelines.

Question 23 options:

	True
	False

Question 25: Humanities

QUESTION 1

Describe and discuss what cultural issues may impact on you as an ICT professional if your organisation merges with another. Try to think deeply about some of the possible impacts on you and your career path that could result from an organisation merger or restructure.

Write 100-200 words in answer to this.

QUESTION 2

From your readings this week, especially in Part 3 of this week’s seminar, which framework are you going to use to analyze the scenarios in Assignment 1? Choose either MacDonald or White. Provide reasons to support why have you chosen this one.

Write 100-200 words to explain your choice. There is no need for discussion with your classmates of this question.

QUESTION 3

You are faced with a situation you feel may be unethical. How would you set about analyzing the situation? Think carefully about the ethical analysis process, not the potential ethical dilemma. That is to say, try not to get caught up in developing and describing a scenario that is unethical. Rather, your focus is on the procedural aspect of dealing with a situation you feel may be unethical.

What questions do you need to ask yourself to determine whether this is an unethical situation? What facts or data do you need to consider and why? What, or who – might help you in your analysis? Use the Ethical Framework provided by White’s 3-step method to frame your responses to Question 3.

Write 150-250 words, to answer this question.

If you wish, choose a specific example of an unethical situation; either fictional, or that you have actually experienced. Discuss with your classmates the different approaches you each have taken and try to explain why there are differences, but once again, try not to get caught up in describing every detail of the situation but instead get to the heart of what makes it unethical, unprofessional or possibly risky in the context of the professional workplace.

QUESTION 4

Where you are working in your internship, locate your company’s Values statement or Code of Ethics, and ask your supervisor if you can either link to it from the company website in the discussion forum or reproduce it in the forum. If your supervisor refuses permission, or there is no Values statement or Code of Ethics, prepare one for their use based on the reading you have done. You might model it on one you have come across. If you need, look at the Western as a guide.

Write 100-200 words to evaluate the code of ethics or values statement, whichever you are working with, against this week’s readings. Discuss what is good about it, what might be missing and how it could be improved.

Question 26: Humanities

Which of these statements reflect reasons Thomas Paine gave for declaring independence from British rule? Check all that apply.

a.The king was unable to act efficiently due to checks on his power.

b.King George’s reign was colored by abusive uses of power.

c.King George lacked the education to make wise policy decisions.

d.The king was envious of the colonies’ prosperity.

Question 27: Marketing

Question 28: Other

Purpose of Assignment

The purpose of this assignment is to evaluate the inventory section of two companies using basic comparative analysis, and to interpret the data to gain insight about the company’s inventory management.

Assignment Steps

Resources: Financial Accounting: Tools for Business Decision Making

Write a 1,050-word comparative analysis using the financial statements of Amazon.com, Inc. presented in Appendix D, and the financial statements for Wal-Mart Stores, Inc., presented in Appendix E, including the following:

Compute these 2014 values for each company based on the information in the financial statements:
- Inventory turnover (Use cost of sales and inventories)
- Days of inventory

Conclusions concerning the management of the inventory can you draw from this data.

Show work on Excel^®spreadsheet and submit with analysis.

Question 29: Business Finance

As a consultant hired by the Hotel Escargo management team, you have been asked to collect data on the three main areas of focus (check-in, check-out, and hotel offerings) and graph the data to identify any issue occurrences. Use the hotel information provided.(attachment) unit 3 attachmnet.pdf Collect the data, create graphs and/or tables, and describe any work measurement and time study analysis you would do. Then, from this analysis, select one main area of focus and create a fishbone diagram that captures all potential root causes. Provide a brief analysis of descriptive text on the identified items. Also describe how work sampling and time study assist in analysis.

3 to 4 pages, references, own words

Question 30: Political Science

1)Read the news article

https://www.npr.org/2018/06/18/617874348/bureaucra…

2)Write a short commentary on the article regarding bureaucracy.

3)Responding thoughtfully and informally, MLA format. ( 2 paragraphs)

4)Reference Page

MANAGEMENT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

An expectation that team members are responsible for their activities and must report outcomes transparently

Accountability

The implicit and explicit power that a manager or employee has to fulfill an organizational function or role

Authority

The level of individual discretion that an employee has to make decisions

Autonomy

A trusted intermediary that facilitates mutually agreed upon outcomes for two or more parties

Broker

A design structure that relies on senior-level managers to collect information broadly, in order to make decisions on behalf of the entire company

Centralized Organization

A predefined structure order of authority that determines how decisions are made and communicated

Chain of Command

The synchronization of an organization’s functions to ensure efficient use of resources in pursuit of goals and objectives

Coordination

A compendium of policies intended to ensure transparency and fulfillment of duties to stakeholders

Corporate Governance

A design structure that relies on all employees to collect and communicate information, in order to make decisions and recommend changes

Decentralized Structure

When a manager grants power and authority to another team member

Delegation

A design structure that groups together processes and jobs based on functions, products, or customers

Departmentalization

The process through which managers divide labor based on tasks and functions

Differentiation

A design structure that groups processes and jobs based on clearly defined market segments or geography

Divisional Organization

The degree of which policies and procedures determine specific jobs and functions

Formalization

Independent workers that supply organizations with talent for projects or time-bound objectives

Free Agents

A hierarchical structure where employees are managed through clear levels of authority

Functional Organization

A vertically organized structure of power relationships, where the top level holds clear levels of authority.

Unites the different parts of the company, brings units in tune w/ company’s underlying principles, core purposes, goals, and objectives

Hierarchy

Horizontal coordination between functions, departments, and organizational activities

Integration

A design structure that facilitates horizontal integration and collaboration

Matrix Organization

A group of independent companies that organize themselves to appear as a larger entity

Network Organization

A visual document that communicates how a company is organized

Organizational Chart

A highly adaptive structure defined by horizontal integration, distributed decision making, and employees with a high degree of generalization

Organic Organization

The optimum number of direct reports that a person can manage effectively

Span of Control

Focusing a group or individual’s activities based on strengths, aptitudes, or skills

Specialization

A performance context where policies and procedures seek to create uniform results

Standardization

A work arrangement in which an employee is given flexibility in terms of work location; and often hours as well

Telecommuting

A philosophy that each employee is given reports to and is accountable to only one manager

Unity-of-Command Principle

A structure, characterized by hierarchical authority and communication channels

Vertical Organization Structure

A group of employees who work across barriers consisting of time, distance, and organizational boundaries, while being linked together by information and communication technologies

Virtual Team

*What is the opposite of ORGANIC?

Mechanistic

*Example of Vertical Approach

Chief of Police–>Captain–>branches off into three different divisions–>each division branches off into more specific roles

*Authority, Chain of Command, Corporate Governance, Broker, Organization Chart, Network Organization, Unity-of-Command Principle—>These all relate to what approach???

*Vertical approach

*Decentralized Structure, Departmentalization, Functional Organization, Autonomy, Divisional Organization, Matrix Organization—>These are relate to what approach??

*Horizontal approach

*____________ is a system of tasks, reporting relationships, and communication that links people and positions within an organization

Organizational Structure

*____________ describes the ___________ __________ of how an org should ideally work as designed

Organizational chart, formal structure

*1. Division of work
2. Supervisory relationships
3. Span of control
4. Communication channels
5. Major sub units
6. Staff positions
7. Levels of management

7 Parts of an Organizational Chart

*______________ _____________ group people with similar skills into the same department. (Also known as departmentalization)

Functional Structures

*________________ _______________ group together people who work on similar products, work in same geographical region, serve same customers, or perform same process.

Divisional Structures

*Focus/purpose of Functional Structures?

Cost EFFICIENCY

*Focus/purpose of Divisional Structures?

EFFECTIVENESS

Advantages of DIVISIONAL STRUCTURES

Advantages of FUNCTIONAL STRUCTURES

Disadvantages of DIVISIONAL STRUCTURES

*Which type of structure are these DISADVANTAGES of—>
1. Poor communication across departments
2. Poor problem solving for product or service delivery

Disadvantages of FUNCTIONAL STRUCTURES

*What type of decision making is characterized by top management keeping strong control w/ formal authority and formal rules?

Centralized Decision-Making

*What type of decision making is characterized by being distributed throughout the organization using informal authority and informal rules?

Decentralized Decision-Making

*What type of org is characterized by formal authority and mechanistic design?

Vertical/Rigid Organization

*What type of org is characterized by informal authority and organic design?

Horizontal/Adaptive Organization

^Traditionally, organizational power structures were…. democratic, horizontal, autocratic, or collaborative?

Autocratic

To allow the organization to adapt to changing environments

^The degree of integration in an org structure directly corresponds to the degree of ___________ in it. Efficiency, unity, autonomy, or coordination?

Coordination

Standardization of policies and procedures

The number of subordinates that report to a manager

^Which describes a vertical org structure…. Balanced, decentralized, diffuse, hierarchical?

Hierarchical

Ensures that responsibilities to stakeholders are fulfilled

^What the Unity-of-Command Principle prevent…. accountability/transparency, disorganization/confusion, centralization of authority, or ethical breakdowns/lapses?

Disorganization and confusion

^Network organizations allow for…

Independent companies to more easily work with each other

All employees are expected to collect/communicate info

^Departmentalization aims to group processes and jobs based most on…. efficiency, authority, similarity, or productivity?

Similarity

^What type of organization would benefit a company that seeks high levels of collaboration between departments but w/ clear chains of command?…. Bureaucratic, divisional, matrix, or functional?

Matrix

^In a divisional org, decision-making authority is typically ___________ than in a function organization. Less autonomous, more diffuse, more centralized, or less shared?

More diffuse

They allow orgs to more efficiently respond to situations based on the org structure that works

^Accountability depends on ___________. Leadership, transparency, skill, or autonomy?

Transparency

Telecommuting provides a high degree of flexibility

^Free agents are _________ workers. Salaried, permanent, contract, or part-time?

Contract

Use information and communication technology

Which of the following is NOT a part of planning?

Conducting Meetings

PERT is an acronym for what?

Program evaluation and review technique

Which of the following is NOT a part of the PERT chart?

NOTA – PERT includes a most pessimistic time, a most optimistic time, time expected, and a most probable time.

What theory states ” organizational change is inevitable and that organizations and people within the organization have no other choice except following natural law?”

The Mechanistic theory

Which of the following theories argues that the effect of studying something/someone changes the effects of the study.

Hawthorne effect theory

Which of the following theories determines interdependence of variables

The systems theory. The systems theory deals with interdependence instead of independence of variables and their interactions.

Which is the second stage of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?

Safety

When something is measurable in number it is…

Quantitative

Who is considered to be the father of modern management?

Peter Drucker

Who completed a study on the fastest and most efficient way to do a job?

Frank Gilbreth. Frank and Lillian Gillbreth did a study on the most efficient way to do a job.

________________ is a way to show a time needed to complete a long or complicated project.

Gantt chart. A Gantt chart is used to show who will be working on or different stages of a project and the time each step takes.

Which person created the five management functions?

Henry Fayol – 1. Planning 2. Organizing 3. Commanding 4. Coordinating 5. Controlling

LPC stands for…

Least preferred co-worker (Fiedler’s contingency theory)

Which of the following are the levels of management?

Technical, interpersonal and conceptual

Your company needs to hire more people. Using the Affirmative action program who is your priority.

Hire towards the quota determined by your HR department.

Which of the following is considered a pioneer in management theory?

Mary Parker Follet. This woman from the late 1800’s wrote many books on management theory, and human relations. She also worked as a speaker and volunteer social worker.

Which of the following terms illustrates the order of authority in an organization?

Chain of command

In Herzberg’s motivation-hygiene theory, the hygiene refers to what?

Dissatisfiers.

When you find the answer to your problem but settle for something else is an example of the

Bounded rationality model

When you choose the solution that has the greatest benefit for you

Econological model

Which of the following people was associated with the Hawthorne Effect Study?

Elton Mayo. Elton Mayo is also considered the founder of the Human Relations Movement.

If you are an authoritarian, you ascribe to

Theory X

Which of the following is considered the father of strategic planning?

Chester Barnard

Which of the following developed the Acceptance theory?

Chester Barnard

A manager who believes that all people are valuable and want to contribute to their best ability you ascribe to which theory…

Theory Y

Which of the following is NOT a contributor to an employee’s attitude?

Education – generally not considered a contributor to an employee’s attitude.

When someone is producing at standard it is called

Norm

Who created the contingency theory?

Fred Fiedler

What standard is the following ” Giving monetary values to realized sales? ”

Revenue standard

What standard is the following “monetary value for the cost of operations, such as machine-hour-cost, cost of material per unit, cost of labor per unit, cost per unit of sales, etc…

Cost standard

What standard is the following “quantified standards at the operating level. Products produced in numbers, in value, material used in weightage and value, labor employed in house and in value, services rendered in value, etc…

Physical standard

What are Henry Mintzberg’s four classifications of organization?

Simple – complex – stable – dynamic

A good TQM program does NOT include…

A method with alternatives to solutions.

What is NOT a protected Title VII class?

Sexual preference

What is NOT an example of traditional authority?

Secretary

Which of following is responsible for ensuring employee safety?

OSHA

Which of the following is NOT a way to deal with risk?

Deflecting

Which of the following is an example of environmental stress?

Construction noise

Which of the following is an example of Maslow’s first level of needs?

Food

Which is the second stage of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs

Safety needs

When you choose the best action for each situation

Situational leadership

When a supervisor asks for opinions in making decisions

Participative leadership

What is a function of the Worker Unions

Negotiate pay

Which of the following is an example of Maslow’s third level of needs?

Love

What is NOT a part of a training program?

Promotion

Which of the following is an industry commonly known to have line employees?

Automotive

Hands off leadership is also called…

Laissez faire leadership

Which of the following tells employees and others what is the main purpose of the company is…

Mission statement

A policy can be defined as a _________________ action course that serves as a guide for the identified and accepted objectives and goals.

Predefined

A totalitarian leader

Autocratic leadership

The way that people communicate with each other using their bodies…

Body language

Leadership characteristics that inspire employees is called

Charisma

Agreement of members of a group on a decision is called

Consensus

Leaders that use a group ideas to make decisions

Trait

Which is NOT a factor that influences the favorableness of a leader?

Charisma level

A billboard is an example of…

One-way communication

Leaders that give the group total freedom

Laissez-faire

Which of the following is NOT a communication pattern?

Arc

When someone receives too much information and cannot tell what is important from what is not it is called…

Overload

When someone deliberately tampers with a message, leaving out information, it is called…

Omitting

Which of the following is NOT a supervisory function?

Marketing

Which of the following is an example of an extrinsic reward?

Raise

If a plant manager is tasked to reduce costs by 10% this is an example of what kind of goal?

Operational

Which of the following shows the relationship between employees and their peers?

Organizational chart

Which of the following shows alternate paths for decision making?

Decision tree

when a supervisor administers a questionnaire among participants that have never met it is called…

Delphi technique

Which of the following shows timelines for projects?

Gantt chart

Who created Theory X and Theory Y

Douglas McGregor

When two groups of individuals work together to resolve a problem it is called

Negotiation

What is it called when a third party is facilitating negotiations?

Mediation

An employee that works on an assembly line performing the same task again and again is an example of

Job specialization

Two receptionists work at Widget Inc; one in the morning and one in the afternoon. they are an example of….

Job sharing

When a person acts as expected as part of the group they are portraying their…

Role

Who first studied job motions with bricklayers, studying how fewer hand motions made the work faster?

Frank Bilbreth

What is it called when a third party is empowered to resolve a disagreement…

Arbitration

Who was a proponent of bureaucracy?

Max Weber

Which of the following can NOT be discussed in a job interview?

Children

Which of the following was NOT one of Edward Deming’s suggestions?

Decrease the number of employees. Deming believed that most production problems stemmed from inefficient management practices, not employee problems.

The grapevine of the organization is everything BUT…

Formal

What does ERG stand for

Existence Relatedness Growth – The ERG theory is so named for its three levels.

When a supervisor believes that all employees like work it is called….

Theory Y

Which of the following describes the break even point?

Expenses – profits = 0

This scientific study originally tested worker’s output and light, later revealing unintended consequences.

Hawthorne effect

Which of the following types of discrimination does the Civil Rights Act of 1964 NOT ban?

Religion – Race – Nationality – Gender : All of these are addressed by the Civil Rights Act of 1964

Referent power is the same as

Charismatic leadership

Which of the following describes chain of command?

The hierarchy through which decisions are made, responsibility lie, and power flows. The chain of command emphasizes the vertical structure of an organization, or in other words the relationships between leaders and subordinate.

Legitimate power is the same as…

Traditional leadership

What is meant by the statement “you can delegate authority but not responsibility?”

Managers have the right to delegate assignments and projects to other people, but the responsibility will always lie with them.

Regarding sexual harassment which of the following is NOT true

Harasser must be a superior employee

Which of the following is NOT one of the categories of managerial roles?

Conceptual roles.

Who created a system of human needs and motivations

Abraham Maslow

Which of the following describes management information systems?

Programs which are used to help managers work and organize more efficiently

Long term success through customer satisfaction

TQM

Which of the following is NOT a step in the decision making process according to Hebert Simon?

Identify. Identification of the problem occurs in the intelligence stage.

Who was responsible for developing the 14 principles of management.

Henry Fayol

Which of the following does the Upstream Capital Costs Index NOT track

Opportunities. However this is a factor of SWOT analysis.

Which of the following are barriers to making decisions?

Statistics – Lack of statistics – Emotions

An employee knows that if they do well on a presentation they will receive a promotion which they want more than anything else. They believe that there is an 85% chance that they will do well on the presentation. According to Vroom’s Expectancy Thoery, what is their motivation level?

.85

Which of the following is NOT a type of resistance

Biological

What is a correct interpretation of the two factor model in context.

A person becomes happy with their job when they feel responsibility and accomplishment.

The organizational structure where organizations are divided by products or divisions

Product

Who does performance appraisals?

Managers or supervisors. Performance appraisals are used to determine an employee’s efficiency and abilities. It may result in a raise if the employee is doing well, or being fired or sent to additional training if they do poorly.

Who believed that managers make decisions based on their assumptions of human nature?

McGregor

Which of the following is a job description?

A listing of what a job includes such as tasks, duties and responsibilities.

When an interest in the people’s problems affects the outcome, not the changes themselves, it is known as…

Hawthorne effect

What are the six level of management according to Henri Fayol?

Forecasting – Planning – Organizing – Commanding – Coordinating – Controlling

Factor that always stays the same

Constant

Which of the following is NOT one of the three qualities a good manager should possess?

Diagnostic skills are not necessary. However Conceptual – Technical – Interpersonal are important.

Information that is difficult to measure is called

Qualitative

A flat organization is an organization with

A low number ( if any ) of mid level management positions. this way the top level management comes into direct contact with the low level employees.

If you believe that all people are good – you ascribe to this school of thought

Humanistic

Which of the following describes the difference between line and staff positions?

Line positions are directly involved in creating profit, whereas staff positions do the maintenance or supporting jobs. Line positions would be involved in manufacturing the sales, whereas staff positions involve payrolls or other supporting types of jobs.

Standards or principles

Values

Which of the following describes budget?

A plan for how money will be used effectively. A budget helps to organize and track the flow of money in a company.

Which of the following is NOT a factor with job satisfaction?

Vacation location

Which of the following is an open system

A clothing store which operates in a busy mall

An advertisement company

Both of these companies must directly interact and respond to occurrences in the market.

When a person responds to a neutral stimulus __________ _______________is being used.

Classical conditioning

Which theory advocates increasing production by breaking down production into simplified processes?

Taylorism. Taylor encouraged breaking jobs from complex processes into step-by-step patterns of production.

Clayton Alderfer created his ERG theory based on the work of which theorist?

Abraham Maslow. Alderfer wanted to revise Maslow’s hierarchy of needs to match empirical research.

Which of the following acts guarantees the right of workers to form unions?

National Labor Relations Act. The formation of unions also allows workers to engage in collective bargaining.

When you are a secretary and there are seven levels between your role and the CEO, your organization is considered to be.

Tall

Which of the following best describes the glass ceiling

A theoretical barrier which stops women and minorities from advancing in business areas. For example, statistics show that even when women and men have equal qualifications, it is more often the man who receives the job.

The CEO of a major corporation giving a talk show interview is an example of…

Public Relations

Management Theory: Empirical/Case Approach

The experience of past situations guide the present. Find out why an action succeeded or failed by analyzing the basic reasons.

Management Theory: Interpersonal Behavior Approach

Understanding people and relationships. If people were understood perfectly, reaching organizational goals would not be difficult.

Management Theory: Group Behavior Approach

Work in groups rather than in isolation. The study of how behavior patterns in groups affect production.

Management Theory: Cooperative Social Systems Approach

Propounded by Christian Barnard, it is the cooperative interaction of thoughts, ideas, wants, and desires of two or more people.

Management Theory: Sociotechnical Systems Approach

Credited to E.L. Trist, this approach seeks to emphasize the systems aspect of group behavior.

Management Theory: Decision Theory Approach

A manager’s most important function is decision making and therefore decisions should be the central focus. All other functions of a manager are built around decisions.

Management Theory: Systems Approach

Management is a system, which envelops within itself many subsystems, all operating within the total environment.

Management Theory: Mathematical or Management Science Approach

Mathematical models forms part of this theory. Each situation is fraught in terms of available mathematical models and then analyzes the situation thereby arriving at a mathematically correct decision.

Management Theory: Contingency or Situational Approach

Any manager’s performance is directly related to a set of given circumstance or contingency. Some theorist also feel that it takes into account not only situations but also on the behavior.

Management Theory: Managerial Roles Approach

Propounded by Professor Henry Mintzberg. Observing what other managers do, then using such observations as a platform for analyzing and concluding on the basis of such analysis.

Management Theory: Operational Approach

Imparting knowledge from every other field of knowledge such as sociology, mathematics, economics, psychology etc…

Economic Environment

Availability of capital, rate of interest, labor availability and how well things are organized, general price levels, the degree of productivity, the willingness of entrepreneurs and availability of managerial skills.

Technological Environment

How good the available knowledge is used through technology is a factor to reckon with. How to conceive ideas, how to design, how to produce optimally, how to effect efficient distribution and how well marketing is done, are technology oriented.

Social Environment

Value systems unique to particular group of people or society. The value system consists of attitudes, behavior patterns, needs, wants, expectations, level of education, the degree of intelligence, general beliefs, customs and traditions.

Political and Legal Environment

Laws, rules, regulations, governmental policies that affect an organization.

Ethical Environment

Holding on to moral principles of what is right and what is wrong, guided by value systems prevalent in society and generally behaving in a responsible way.

Management Theories

Scientific management theory
(Adam Smith; Frederick W. Taylor; Gilbreths)
Administrative management theory
(Max Weber; Henri Fayol)
Behavioral management theory
(Mary Parker Follett)
Management science theory
Organizational environment theory

Scientific Management Theory

popular theory in the early 1900s, concerned primarily with the “best” method and “right” wage for a job
Adam Smith: found that the performance of the factories in which workers specialized in only one or a few tasks was much greater than the performance of the factory in which each worker performed all pin-making task.
Job specialization and the division of labor

Job Specialization

The process by which a division of labor occurs as different workers specialize in different tasks over time

Job specialization and the division of labor

Separation of activities into distinct tasks and assigning these to different people.

Scientific Management

The systematic study of relationships between people and tasks for the purpose of
redesigning the work progress to increase efficiency.

Scientific management 4 principles

Study the way workers perform their tasks, gather all the informal job knowledge that workers posses, and experiment with ways of improving how tasks are performed.
Codify the new methods of performing tasks into written rules and standard operating procedures
Carefully select workers who posses skills and abilities that match the needs of the task, and train them to perform the task according to the established rules and procedures
Establish a fair or acceptable level of performance for a task, and then develop a pay system that rewards performance above the acceptable level.

Scientific management Problems

Managers frequently implemented only the
increased output side of Taylor’s plan
(Workers did not participate in the increased output;Managers increased the amount of work that each worker has to do)
Simplified jobs were often monotonous and repetitive , and many workers became dissatisfied with their jobs
Workers learned that performance increases often resulted in fewer jobs and layoffs. Workers slowed their pace of work.
Moving conveyor belts controls the pace of work.

Scientific management
Lillian and Frank Gilbreth

Aims
analyze every individual action necessary to perform a particular task and break it into
each of its component actions
find better ways to perform each component action
reorganize each of the component actions so that the action as a whole could be performed more efficiently
Findings
Often the management of work setting became a game between workers an managers: mangers tried to increase performance and workers tried to hide the true potential efficiency.

Administrative management theory

the study of how to create an organizational structure and control system that leads to high efficiency and effectiveness

Principles of Bureaucracy

hierarchical authority, job specialization, formalized rules
Max Weber (1864 – 1920)
a system of organization and administration designed to ensure efficiency and effectiveness

Weber’s principles of bureaucracy

In a bureaucracy, a manager’s formal authority derives from the position he or she holds in the organization
In a bureaucracy, people should occupy positions because of their performance, not because of their social standing or personal contacts
The extent of each position’s formal authority and task responsibilities, and its relationship to other positions in an organization, should be clearly specified
Authority can be exercised effectively in an organization when positions are arranged hierarchically, so employees know whom to report to and who reports to them
Managers must create a well-defined system of
rules, standard operating procedures (SOP), and norms so they can effectively control behavior within an organization

Rules

formal written instructions that specify actions to be taken under different circumstances to achieve specific goals

Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs)

specific sets of written instructions about how to perform a certain aspect of a task

Norms

Unwritten, informal codes of conduct that prescribe how people should act in particular situations and are considered important by most members of a group or an organization

Fayol’s Principles of Management

Division of labor, authority and responsibility, unity of command, line of authority, centralization, unity of direction, equity, order, initiative, discipline, remuneration of personnel, stability of tenure of personnel, subordination of individual interest to the common interest, esprit de corps

Behavioral Management Theory

the study of how managers should behave to motivate employees and encourage them to perform at high levels and be committed to the achievement of organizational goals

Focus of Scientific Management

the relationship between worker and task to increase efficiency

Focus of Administrative Management

to create an organizational structure and control system that leads to efficiency and effectiveness

The focus of of behavioral management

how managers should behave to motivate employees and encourage them to perform at high levels and be committed to the achievement of organizational goals

Mary Parker Follett (1868 – 1933) Concerns

She was concerned that Taylor ignored the
human side of the organization.
Taylor never proposed that managers
should involve workers in analyzing their
jobs to identify better ways to perform.

Human Relations Movement The Hawthorne Studies

a management approach that advocates the idea that supervisors should receive behavioral training to manage subordinates in ways that elicit their cooperation and increase their productivity

Mary Parker Follett (1868 – 1933)
radical propositions:

Authority should go with knowledge. If workers have the relevant knowledge of a task, then they should control the task.
Managers in different departments communicate directly with each other (cross-functioning).
The power is fluid and should flow to the person who can best help the organization achieve its goals (horizontal view of authority)

Elton Mayo (1880 – 1949) –
The Hawthorne Studies

Many factors such as level of illumination, wall
color etc. influence workers behavior and
resulted to increased workers performance.
Just because workers joined increased
management attention their work performance
increased.
Manager’s behavior or leadership approach can
affect workers’ level of performance (Hawthorne
effect)

Implication of the studies The Hawthorne Studies

The studies demonstrated the importance of understanding how the feeling, thoughts and behavior of work-group member and
managers affect performance.
Behavior of managers and workers in the work setting is as important in explaining the level of performance as the technical aspects of the tasks

Theory X and Theory Y (Douglas McGregor)

X: assumes people do not like to work and want to be led
ii. Y: assumes people are willing to work and can be creative
iii. If a manager holds to one or the other approaches – X or Y – then a self-fulfilling
prophecy can occur: people will do what the boss wants them to do

Management Science Theory e.g.

An approach to management that uses rigorous quantitative techniques to help managers make maximum use of organizational resources.
Quantitative management
Operations management
Total quality management (TQM)
Management information systems (MIS)

Quantitative Management

utilizes mathematical techniques, like linear programming, modeling, simulation and chaos theory

Management Information Systems (MIS)

Help managers design systems that provide information that is vital for effective decision making

Operations Management (OM)

Provides managers a set of techniques they can use to analyze any aspect of an organization’s production system to increase efficiency

Total Quality Management (TQM)

Focuses on analyzing an organization’s input, conversion, and output activities to increase product quality.

Organizational environment theory

the set of forces and conditions that operate beyond an organization’s boundaries but affect a manager’s ability to acquire and utilize resources

Open Systems Theory

the assumption that organizations are systems that interact with their environments to obtain esources or inputs and transform them into outputs returned to the environment for consumption

input stage: obtain input from environment
conversion stage: transform input and add value
output stage: release output to environment

Contingency Theory

based on the premise that a leader’s effectiveness is contingent on the extent to which a leader’s style fits or matches characteristics of the situation at hand

Characteristics of environment determine the design of an organizational structure and control systems

mechanistic vs organic structure

mechanistic structure

An organizational structure in which authority is centralized, tasks and rules are clearly specified, and employees are closely supervised.

organic structure

an organizational structure in which authority is decentralized to middle and first-line managers and tasks and roles are left ambiguous to encourage employees to cooperate and respond quickly to the unexpected

Characteristics of management
Organizations

Collections of people who work
together and coordinate their
actions to achieve a wide variety of
goals or desired future outcomes.

Managers

The people responsible for supervising and making the most of an organization’s human and other resources to achieve its goals.

What is management?

The planning, organizing, leading, and controlling of human and other resources to achieve organizational goals effectively and efficiently

Henri Fayol (1841 – 1925)

Mangement consist of five functions:
organizing, commanding, coordinating and controlling

Mary Parker Follett (1868 – 1933)

The art of getting things done through people

Planning

determining organizational goals and a means for achieving them
Deciding which goals the organization will achieve
Deciding what strategies to adopt to attain those
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goals
Deciding how to allocate organizational resources
to pursue the strategies that attain those goals

planning result

Strategy, a cluster of decisions about what goal(s)
to pursue, what actions to take and how to use
resources to achieve goals

Organizing

Structuring working relationships in a way that allows organizational members to work together to achieve oganizational goals
It involves grouping people into departments
according to the kinds of job-specific tasks they
perform
Lays out the lines of authority and responsibility
between individuals and groups
Decide how to organize resources, particulary human resources

organizing result

Organization structure, a formal system of
task and reporting relationships, that coordinates
members to achieve goals

Leading

Articulating a clear vision and energizing and enabling organizational members so they understand the partthey play in achieving organizational goals
Leadership involves manager using their power,
personality, influence, persuasion, and communication skills to coordinate people and groups so their activities and efforts are in harmony
It revolves around encouraging all employees to perform at a high level to help the organization achieve its vision and goals

leading result

Highly motivated and committed workforce

Controlling

Evaluating how well an organization is achieving its
goals and taking action to maintain or improve
performance

Controlling how to?

To exercise control, mangers must decide which
goals to measure and then the must design control
systems that will provide the information necessary to assess performance

Controlling result

the ability to measure performance accurately and regulate organizational efficiency and effectiveness.

Performing managerial tasks: Mintzberg’s typology

Decisional: Interpersonal: Informational:

Decisional Mintzberg’s typology

entrepreneur, disturbance handler, resource allocator, negotiator

Interpersonal Mintzberg’s typology

concerning or involving relationships between people;
Figurehead; leader; liaison

Informational Mintzberg’s typology

monitor, disseminator, spokesperson

Organizational performance

A measure of how efficiently and effectively a manager uses resources to satisfy customers and achieve organizational goals.

efficiency and effectiveness

Efficiency has to do with costs
2. Effectiveness is synonymous with goal
attainment

TERM

Efficiency

DEFINITION

using resources in such a way as to maximize the production of goods and services

A measure of how productively resources are used to achieve a companies goals

doing things right

LOCATION

TERM

Effectiveness

DEFINITION

A measure of the appropriateness of the goals an organization is pursuing and the degree to which the organization achieves those goals.

doing the right things

LOCATION

Middle Managers

implement the policies and plans of the top managers above them and supervise and coordinate the activities of the first-line managers below them

First-line managers (supervisors)

Responsible for the daily supervision of non-managerial employees

Three managerial skills

conceptual, human, technical

Conceptual skills needed by managers include

The ability to understand how parts of the organization work together.

The ability to analyze and diagonise a situation and to distinguish between cause and effect

Human skills needed by managers include

The ability to understand, alter, lead and control the behavior of other individuals and groups

Technical skills needed by managers include

The job-specific knowledge and techniques required to perform an organizational role

core competency

a set of knowledge and skills that make the organization superior to competitors and create value for customers

Building blocks of competitive advantage

efficiency, innovation, quality, responsiveness to customers create a competitive advantage

Scientific Management Theory SMT

popular theory in the early 1900s, concerned primarily with the “best” method and “right” wage for a job

heads of Scientific management theory SMT

Adam Smith; Frederick W. Taylor; Gilbreths

heads of Administrative management theory

Max Weber; Henri Fayol

heads of Behavioral management theory

Mary Parker Follett

Management Science Theory

Emphasizes rigorous quantitative techniques to help managers make maximum use of organizational resources to produce goods and services

What is the global environment?

Set of forces and conditions in the world outside the organization’s boundaries that affect the way it operates and shapes its behavior

-Changes over time
-Presents managers with opportunities and threats

Global organization

An organization that operates and competes in many different countries.
Operating i is uncertain and upredictable
because it is complex and changes constantly.

Task Environment

The set of forces and conditions that originate with suppliers, distributors, customers, and competitors and affect an organization’s ability to obtain inputs and dispose of its outputs because they influence managers daily.

General environment

The wide-ranging global, economic, technological, sociocultural, demographic, political, and legal forces that affect an organization and its task environment.

Suppliers

individuals and organizations that provide an organization with the input resources it needs to produce goods and services

Input Resources

Human: labor and skills
Materials: food and supplies
Facilities: space and equipment
Operational: money, time, utilities, and information

Global outsourcing

The purchase or production of inputs or final products from overseas suppliers to lower costs and improve product quality or design.

Task Environment includes

includes entities that directly affect a firm on a constant basis and include competitors, suppliers, distributers and customers

Distributors

Organizations that help other organizations sell their goods or services to customers

Distributers threats

Powerful distributors can limit access to markets through its control of customers in those
markets.

Customers

Individuals and groups that buy the goods and services an organization produces

Competitors

companies in the same industry that sell similar products or services to customers

Forces in the global environment*

-the organization
-task environment
-general environment

Competitors
Barriers to entry

Factors that make it difficult and costly for an organization to enter a particular task environment of industry.

barriers to entry

Economies of scale (EOS); Brand loyalty; Government regulations

Economies of scale (EOS)

Economies of scale exist if average costs decrease as the size (scale) of the firm increases.
Cost advantages associated with large operations.

Government regulations

Government policies that create barriers to entry and limit imports of goods from companies abroad.

Michael Porter’s Five Forces Model

analyzes an organization, its position in the marketplace, and how information systems could be used to make it more competitive

The task environment
Possible opportunities and threats

Change in nature, number or type of suppliers (supplier as sole source? Supplier’s
input is key?)

General Environment

composed of dimensions in the broader society that influence an industry and the firms within it

Economic Forces (General Environment)

General economic conditions and trends: unemployment, inflation, interest rates, economic growth. This may affect an organization’s growth.

Technological Forces

outcomes of changes in the technology managers use to design, produce, or distribute goods and services

sociocultural forces

Pressures emanating from the social structure of a country or society or from the national culture

social structure

a pattern of organized relationships among groups of people within a society

National culture

the set of values that a society considers important and the norms of behavior that are approved or sanctioned in that society

Demographic forces

Outcomes of change in, or changing attitudes toward, the characteristics of a population, such as age, gender, ethnic origin, race, sexual orientation, and social class

Political and legal forces

Outcomes of changes in laws and regulations, such as deregulation of industries, privatization of organizations, and increased emphasis on environmental protection.

political and legal forces samples

Deregulation, privatization, and the removal of legal barriers to trade and many others are examples.

Brand loyalty

a favorable attitude toward and consistent purchase of a single brand over time
Customers’ preference for the products of organizations currently existing in the task
environment.

Globalization

The set of specific and general forces that work together to integrate and connect economic, political, and social systems across countries,
cultures, or geographical regions so that nations become increasingly independent and similar

Michael Porter’s Five Forces*

Bargaining power of customers, threat of substitutions, bargaining power of suppliers, threat of new entrants, rivalry

The Changing Global Environment

In recent years there has been a marked shift toward a more open global environment in which capital flows more freely as people and companies search for new opportunities to create profit and wealth. This has hastened the process of globalization. Globalization is the set of specific and general forces that work together to integrate and connect economic, political, and social systems across countries, cultures, or geographic regions so that nations become increasingly interdependent and similar. The process of globalization has been furthered by declining barriers to international trade and investment and declining barriers of distance and culture.

Global Environment

The set of global forces and conditions that operates beyond an organization’s boundaries but affects a manager’s ability to acquire and utilize resources.

Global Environment eg

Human capital; Financial capital; Resource capital; Political capital

Human capital (changing global environment)

The flow of people around the world
through immigration, migration and emigration.

Resource capital (changing global environment)

The flow of natural resources, parts, and components between companies and countries, such as metals, minerals, lumber, energy, food
productions,microprocessors and
auto parts.

Political capital (changing global environment)

The flow of power and influence around the world using diplomacy, persuasion, aggression and force of arms to protect the right or access of a country, world region, or political bloc to the other forms of capital.

Free-Trade Doctrine

The idea that if each country specializes in the production of the goods and services that it can produce most efficiently, this will make the best use of global resources

GATT (General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade)

Member countries accept the free-trade doctrine with the goal of the removal of barriers to
the free flow of goods, services and capital between countries.

Effects of free trade on managers(the changing global environment)

opened enormous opportunities for managers to expand the market for their goods and services.

Allowed mangers to buy and sell goods and services globally.

Increased intensity of global competition can result to a more dynamic and complex manager job.

National Culture

the set of shared values and beliefs that affects the perceptions, decisions, and behavior of the people from a particular country
National culture shapes individual behavior by specifying appropriate in and inappropriate behavior and interaction with others

building blocks of national culture

Values and Norms

Values:

Ideas of what a society believes to be good, right, desirable or beautiful. Values are more than a abstract concpets. People argue, fight or even die over values such as freedom or dignity.

Norms:

rules and expectations by which a society guides the behavior of its members Unwritten, informal codes of conduct that prescribes how people should act in particular situations and are considered important by most members of a group or organization

Individualism

A worldview that values individual freedom and self-expression and adherence to the principle that people should be judged by their individual achievements rather than by their social background.

Collectivism

A worldview that values subordination of the individual to the goals of the group and adherence to the principle that people should be judged by their contribution to the group.

Power distance

Degree to which societies accept the idea that inequalities in the power and well-being of their citizens are due to differences in individuals’ physical and intellectual capabilities and heritage

Financial capital (changing global environment)

The flow of money capital across world markets through overseas investments, credit, lending
and aid.

Achievement orientation

A worldview that values assertiveness, performance, success, and competition

Nurturing orientation

A worldview that values the quality of life, warm personal friendships, and services and care for the weak.

Uncertainty avoidance

the degree to which societies are willing to tolerate uncertainty and risk

Low uncertainty avoidance

cultures are easygoing, value diversity, and tolerate differences in personal beliefs and actions

High uncertainty avoidance

societies are more rigid and expect high conformity in their citizens’ beliefs and norms of behavior

Long-term orientation

a worldview that values thrift and persistence in achieving goals

Short-term orientation

A worldview that values personal stability or happiness and living for the present.

Hofstede’s Model

Individualism/collectivism, distance, orientation, avoidance, time orientation

Decision Making Process

the process of making a choice or finding a solution

The process by which managers respond to
opportunities and threats by analyzing options and making determinations about specific organizational goals and course of action.

Decision making is central to being a manager,
and whenever managers engage in planning,
organizing, leading and controlling – their four
principles tasks – they are constantly making
decisions.

THE NATURE OF MANAGERIAL DECISION MAKING

Regardless of the specific decision a manager makes, the decision-making process is either
programmed or nonprogrammed

Programmed Decision Making

Routine, virtually automatic decision making that follows established rules or guidelines.
Rules or guidelines to be applied when certain situations occur.

nonprogrammed decision making

Nonroutine decision making that occurs in response to unusual, unpredictable opportunities and threats

Rules do not exist because the situation is unexpected or uncertain and managers lack the information they would need to develop rules to cover it

nonprogrammed decision making includes:

In the absence of decision rules mangers rely on their intuition or their make reasoned judgments
.

intuition

Feelings, beliefs, and hunches that come readily to mind, require little effort and information gathering and result in on-the-spot decisions.

Reasoned judgment

A decision that requires time and effort and results from careful information gathering, generation of alternatives, and evaluation of alternatives.

Classical Model of Decision Making

A prescriptive model of decision making that assumes the decision maker can identify and evaluate all possible alternatives and their consequences and rationally choose the most appropriate course of action.

Optimum decision

the most appropriate decision in light of what managers believe to be the most desirable consequences for the organization

Classical Model of Decision Making

A prescriptive approach – asserting that managers are logical, rational individuals who make decisions that are in the best interests of the organization – that outlines how managers should make decisions; also known as the rational model.

The administrative model of decision making

An approach to decision making that explains why decision making is inherently uncertain and risky and why managers usually make satisfactory rather than optimum decisions.

why information is incomplete

uncertainty and risk, ambiguous information, time constraints and information costs

Bounded Rationality Decision Making

Cognitive limitations that constrain one’s ability to interpret, process and act on information.

Decision made in the context of the environment- Need to gather enough information relevant to the problem context – may not be able to get all info

risk

The degree of probability that the possible outcomes of a particular course of action will occur.

Degree of uncertainty of return on an asset; in business, the likelihood of loss or reduced profit.

uncertainty

Unpredictability.

The probabilities of alternative outcomes cannot be determined and future outcomes are unknown.

Ambiguous Information

information that can be interpreted in multiple and often conflicting ways

satisfying model

Searching for and choosing an acceptable, or satisfactory, response to problems and opportunities, rather than trying to make
the best decision.

Six Steps in Decision Making

Recognize the need for a decision
2. Generate alternatives
3. Assess alternatives
4. Choose among alternatives
5. Implement the chosen alternative
6. Learn from feedback

Recognize the need for a decision

Sparked by an event such as environment changes.
Managers must first realize that a decision must be made.

generate alternatives

Managers must develop feasible alternative courses of action.

If good alternatives are missed, the resulting decision is poor.
It is hard to develop creative alternatives, so managers need to look for new ideas.

Assess alternatives

consider all possible actions that can be taken to respond to the situation- including those that may seem difficult
What are the advantages and disadvantages of each alternative? Managers should specify
criteria, then evaluate.

Choose among alternatives

Rank the various alternatives and make a decision
Tendency is for managers to ignore critical information, even when available

Managers must be sure all the information available is brought to bear on the problem or issue at hand.

Implement Chosen Alternative

Managers must now carry out the alternative
Often a decision is made and not implemented

learn from feedback

Compare what happened to what was expected to happen. Explore why any expectations for the decision were not met. Derive guidelines that will help in future decision making.
Managers should consider what went right and wrong with the decision and learn for the future.
Without feedback, managers do not learn from experience and will repeat the same mistake over.

General criteria for evaluating possible courses of action

Cognitive Biases and Decision Making

Because of cognitive biases managers are caused by systematic errors.
Heuristics, Systematic errors

Heuristics in problem solving

-“rule of thumb”
– a rule that is generally, but not always, true that we can use to make a judgement in a situation

Rules of thumb that simplify decision making.

Systematic errors

errors that people make over and over and that result in poor decision making

Cognitive Biases and Decision Making

Prior hypothesis bias
Representativeness bias
Illusion of control
Escalating commitment

Managers must become aware of biases and their effects, and they must identify their own personal style of making decisions.

prior hypothesis bias

A cognitive bias resulting from the tendency to base decisions on strong prior beliefs even if evidence shows that those beliefs are wrong.

representativeness bias

A cognitive bias resulting from the tendency to generalize inappropriately from a small sample or from a single vivid event or episode.

Illusion of Control Bias

A source of cognitive bias resulting from the tendency to overestimate one’s own ability to control activities and events.

Escalating Commitment Bias

A source of cognitive bias resulting from the tendency to commit additional resources to a project even if evidence shows that the project is failing.

Group Decision Making

Because of the biases important organizational decisions are made by groups or teams of managers rather than by individuals.

Group Decision Making Advantages

Choices less likely to fall victim to biases.
Able to drawn on the combined skills, competencies and accumulated knowledge of
group members.
Improve ability to generate feasible alternatives.
Manager agree to cooperate
Higher probability that the implementation is successful.

Group decision making Disadvantages

Slow.
To achieve cooperation can be
difficult, due to different
interests and preferences.
Can be undermined by biases.

Groupthink

A pattern of faulty and biased decision making that occurs in groups whose members strive for agreement among themselves at the expense of accurately accessing information relevant to a
decision.

Usually occurs when group members rally around a central manager’s idea, and become blindly commit to the idea without considering alternatives. The group’s influence tends to convince each member that the idea must go forward

Devil’s advocacy and dialectical inquiry

devil’s advocacy:
present solution, critique solution, reassess solution (accept, modify, reject)

dialectical inquiry:
present two solutions, debate between two solutions, reassess (accept a or b, combine a and b)

Organizational learning

The process through which managers seek to improve employees’ desire and ability to understand and manage the organization and its task environment.

Learning organization (management sight)

An organization in which managers try to maximize the ability of individuals and groups to think and behave creatively and thus maximize the potential for organizational learning to take place.

learning organization (definition)

An organization skilled at creating, acquiring, and transferring knowledge, and at modifying its behavior to reflect new knowledge and insights.

Senge’s five principles for creating a learning organization

develop personal mastery
build complex challenging mental models
promote team learning
build shared vision
encourage systems thinking

creativity

The ability to make or bring a new concept or idea into existence; marked by the ability or power to create.

individual creativity

Creativity results when employees have an opportunity to experiment, to take risk, and to make mistakes and learn from them

Group Creativity

Group-solving techniques that promote creative ideas and innovative solutions can be used:
brainstorming, nominal group technique
and the Delphi technique.

brainstorming and nominal group technique

A decision-making technique in which group members write down ideas and solutions, read their suggestions to the whole group, and
discuss and then rank the alternatives.

Useful when an issue is controversial and
when different managers might be expected to champion different courses of action.

Delphi Technique

A decision-making technique in which group members do not meet face-to-face but respond in writing to questions posed by the group leader.

Written approach to creative problem solving.
Group leader writes a statement of the problem to which managers respond.

Questionnaire is sent to managers to generate solutions.

Team of managers summarizes the responses and results are sent back to the participants.

Process is repeated until a consensus is reached.

Entrepreneur

An individual who notices opportunities and decides how to mobilize the resources necessary to produce new and improved goods and services.

social entrepreneur

An individual who pursues initiatives and opportunities and mobilizes resources to address social problems and needs in order to improve society and well-being through creative solutions.

Characteristics of entrepreneurs

open to experience:
they are original thinkers and take risks
internal locus of control:
they take responsibility for their own actions
high self-esteem:
they feel competent and capable.
high need for achievement
they have a strong desire to perform challenging tasks and meet high personal standards of excellence.

Organizational Hierarchy R

Different approaches to selection are generally taken for filling positions at different levels in the organization

Intrapreneur

A manager, scientist, or researcher who works inside an organization and notices opportunities to develop new or improved products and better ways to make them.

Entrepreneurship and management

Frequently, founding entrepreneur lacks the skills, patience, and experience to engage in the difficult and challenging work of management

product champion

A manager who takes “ownership” of a project and provides the leadership and vision that take a product from the idea stage to the final customer.

Skunkworks

a group of intrapreneurs who are deliberately separated from the normal operation of an organization to encourage them to devote all their attention to developing new products

Employee Selection R

Goal is to match people with jobs and the company

properly done, selection can lead to improved productivity

Mismatches (under- or over-qualified persons) will likely lead to ineffective performance and turnover

Selection R

Process of choosing the individual best suited for particular position and organization from a group of applicants
Goal is to properly match people with jobs and organization
Selecting wrong person for any job can be costly

Selection Process Steps R

screening applications and resumes
2. testing and reviewing work samples
3. interviewing candidates
4. checking references and background
5. making a selection

Preliminary Screening R

Removes obviously unqualified individuals
Benefit: Applicant may be qualified for another position with the firm

in employee selection, a review to eliminate those who obviously do not meet the position’s requirements

Review of Applications R

-Essential information is included and presented in a standardized format
-Application form must reflect firm’s informational needs and EEO requirements.
-Preprinted statements are usually included:
Certifies that information provided is accurate
Should state position is employment at will
Gives permission for background check

Review of resumes R

Résumé: Goal-directed summary of a person’s experience, education, and training developed for use in the selection process

Professional/managerial applicants often begin selection process by submitting résumé

Concept of relevancy is crucial in selling the applicant to the company

Résumés and Keywords R

Most large companies now use automated tracking systems

Résumés deviating from required style are ignored

Keywords: Job-related words or phrases used to search databases

Keyword résumé: Adequate description of job seeker’s characteristics and industry-specific experience using keyword terms

Selection Tests R

Reliable and accurate means of selecting qualified candidates

Cost is small in comparison

Identify attitudes and job-related skills that interviews cannot recognize

Potential Problems of Using Selection Tests R

Can do versus will do
Test anxiety
Legal liabilities

Characteristics of Properly Designed Selection Tests 1 R

Standardization: Uniformity of procedures and conditions of administering test

Objectivity: Everyone scoring a test obtains same results

Norms: Frame of reference for comparing applicant’s performance with that of others

Characteristics of Properly Designed Selection Tests 2 R

Reliability: Provides consistent results

Validity: Measures what it is supposed to measure (basic requirement)

Requirement for job relatedness: Must not have adverse impact on minorities, females, and individuals with backgrounds or characteristics protected under law

Test Validation Approaches R

Criterion-related validity: Comparing scores on selection tests to some aspect of job performance

Content validity: Includes certain tasks actually required by job

Construct validity: Measures certain traits or qualities important in performing job

employment tests 1 R

Achievement test: A test of current knowledge and skills

Cognitive Ability test: A test that determines general reasoning ability, memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability

Aptitude test: A test of how well a person can learn or acquire skills or abilities

employment tests 2 R

Cognitive ability
Psychomotor abilities
Personality
Job knowledge
Work-sample
Unique types
genetic
graphoanalysis
polygraphs

Cognitive Ability Tests R

Measures individual’s ability to learn, as well as to perform a job

Form of IQ test

Helpful in identifying job candidates who have extensive knowledge bases

Psychomotor Abilities Tests R

Strength
Coordination
Dexterity
Miniaturization in assembly operations

personality tests R

Self-reported measure of:
Traits
Temperaments
Dispositions
Tap into softer areas, such as leadership, teamwork, and personal assertiveness

measure various aspects of personality, including motives, interests, values, and attitudes

Job Knowledge Tests R

Tests designed to measure a candidate’s knowledge of the duties of the job for which he or she is applying

Are commercially available

work sample testing R

Perform set of tasks representative of job
Job related
Produces high validity
Reduces adverse impact
More acceptable to applicants

Online Assessment R

Organizations increasingly are using the Internet to test applicants
Makes it faster and easier to process applications
Can check job applicants on their alleged
technical abilities

Assessment Centers R

Require candidates to perform activities similar to those on the job
Examples:
In-basket exercises
Management games
Leaderless discussion groups
Mock interviews

Unique Forms of Testing—Genetic Testing R

Tests performed to identify predisposition to inherited diseases, including cancer, heart disease, neurological disorders, and congenital diseases

Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008—Designed to prohibit improper use of genetic information in health insurance and employment

Unique Forms of Testing—Graphoanalysis R

Many people view handwriting analysis in same context as psychic readings or astrology

In Europe, many employers use it to screen and place job applicants

Unique Forms of Testing—
Polygraph Tests R

Can confirm or refute application information

Employee Polygraph Protection Act of 1988 severely limited use in private sector

employment interview R

Goal-oriented conversation where interviewer and applicant exchange information

Continues to be primary method used to evaluate applicants

At this point, candidates are assumed to be qualified

Interview Planning R

Physical location of the interview should be both pleasant and private
Develop a job profile based on job description/specification
Questions should be prepared that relate to the qualities needed

Content of the Interview R

Seek additional job-related information and examples of past job-related behaviors:
Occupational experience
Academic achievement
Interpersonal skills
Personal qualities

Provide information about:
Company
Job
Expectations

Types of Interviews R

structured and unstructured

Behavioral
Situational

unstructured interview R

An interview in which the question-answer sequence is spontaneous, open-ended, and flexible.

Encourages applicant to do much of the talking
Is often time consuming
Potential legal issues

structured interview R

involves asking each applicant the same job-related questions and comparing their responses to a standardized set of answers

Increases reliability and accuracy by reducing subjectivity and inconsistency of unstructured interviews

behavioral interview R

Behavioral questions prompt applicants to relate actual incidents relevant to target job
Look for three main things:
Description of a challenging situation
What the candidate did about it
Measurable results
Example: Describe a situation where you were responsible for motivating others

situational interview R

a structured interview in which the interviewer describes a situation likely to arise on the job, then asks the candidate what he or she would do in that situation

Example: One of your employees has shown a significant decline in productivity. How would you handle it?

Methods of Interviewing 1 R

One-on-one interview: Applicant meets one-on-one with interviewer

Group interview: Several applicants interact in presence of one or more interviewers

Board interview: Several firm representatives interview candidate at same time

Multiple interviews: Applicants typically interviewed one-on-one by peers, subordinates, and supervisors

Methods of Interviewing 2 R

Video Interview: Involves an applicant being interviewed with both individuals being in different locations
Stress interview: Interviewer intentionally creates anxiety

Realistic Job Previews R

Provide both positive and negative job information to applicant in unbiased manner

Convey information about tasks person would perform and behavior required to fit into organization’s culture

Potential Interviewing Problems R

Inappropriate questions
Permitting non-job-related information
Interviewer bias
Interviewer domination
Lack of training
Nonverbal communication

inappropriate questions R

Basic rule: Ask only job-related questions

Interview is a “test,” subject to same validity requirements as any other step in the selection process

Historically, interview has been more vulnerable to charges of discrimination than any other tool used in the selection process

Permitting Non-Job-Related Information R

If candidate begins volunteering personal information not related to job, interviewer should steer conversation back on course

Engaging in friendly chitchat with candidates might be pleasant

In our litigious society, it may be the most dangerous thing interviewer can do

interviewer bias 1 R

Interviewer makes assumptions about interviewee which may be incorrect and lets these biases influence the selection decision

Stereotyping bias: Occurs when interviewer assumes that applicant has certain traits because they are members of a certain class

Positive halo bias: Occurs when interviewer generalizes one positive impression feature of the candidate

interviewer bias 2 R

Horn error bias: Occurs where interviewer’s first impression of candidate creates a negative first impression that exists throughout interview

Contrast bias: Occurs when, for example, interviewer meets with several poorly qualified applicants and then confronts a mediocre candidate

Premature judgment bias: Interviewer makes judgment about candidates in first few minutes of interview

Interview illusion bias: Belief in ability was exaggerated

Interviewer Domination R

Relevant information must flow both ways

Interviewers must learn to be good listeners as well as suppliers of information

Lack of training R

Interview is much more than carrying on conversation with another person

Expense of training employees in interviewing skills can be easily justified

What does “Tell me about yourself” mean to a trained interviewer?

nonverbal communication R

Body language is nonverbal communication in which physical actions, such as gestures and facial expressions, convey thoughts and emotions

Avoid sending inappropriate or unintended nonverbal signals

concluding the interview R

When interviewer has obtained necessary information and answered applicant’s questions, he or she should conclude the interview

Tell applicant he or she will be notified of the selection decision shortly

Management must then determine whether candidate is suitable for the open position and organization

Pre-Employment Screening: Background Checks R

Determine accuracy of information submitted or determine if vital information was not submitted

Principal reason is to hire better workers
Background investigations involve obtaining data from various sources

Intensity of background investigations depends on the nature of the open position

Continuous Background Investigation R

Some employers are screening their employees on an ongoing basis

Financial devastation, marital collapse, or a medical crisis can send a person with a clean record over the edge

Continuous Background Investigation R

…

Background Investigation with Social Networking R

Increasingly being used to conduct background investigations

Use an applicant’s Facebook, LinkedIn, and postings made on an industry blog to find out about individuals they are considering hiring

Hiring Standards to Avoid R

Some standards used in background investigation have potential to violate equal employment opportunity and affirmative action laws
When HR management practices eliminate substantial numbers of minority or women applicants (prima facie evidence), the burden of proof is on the employer to show that the practice is job related
Examples: Criminal conviction and credit checks

Reference Checks R

Information from individuals who know applicant
Provide additional insight into information furnished by applicant
Verify accuracy of information
Possible flaw: Virtually everyone can name three or four individuals willing to make favorable statements
Many state laws shield employers from liability for harm to an ex-employee based on job references.
Two schools of thought:
Don’t tell them anything
Honesty is the best policy

Negligent Hiring R

Liability company incurs when it fails to conduct reasonable investigation of applicant’s background, and then assigns potentially dangerous person to position where he or she can inflict harm
Risk of harm to third parties requires a higher standard of care

Selection Decision R

Most critical step
Person whose qualifications most closely conform to requirements of open position and organization should be selected

Medical Examination R

Americans with Disabilities Act does not prohibit pre-employment medical examinations
Determines point at which they may be administered during selection process
Determines whether applicant is physically capable of performing the work

Notification to Candidates R

Results should be made known to candidates as soon as possible
Delay may result in firm losing prime candidate
Unsuccessful candidates should also be promptly notified

Environmental Factors Affecting the Selection Process R

Other HR functions
Legal considerations
Decision-making speed
Organizational hierarchy
Applicant pool
Type of organization
Probationary period
Organizational fit

Legal Considerations R

Greatly influenced by legislation, executive orders, and court decisions
Guiding principle: Why am I asking this question?
If information is job related, usually asking for the information is appropriate

Speed of Decision Making R

Time available to make the selection decision can have major effect on selection process
Conditions also can impact the needed speed of decision making

Applicant Pool and Selection Ratio R

Applicant pool: Number of qualified applicants recruited for a particular job
Selection ratio: Number of people hired for a particular job compared to number of people in the applicant pool

Type of Organization R

Private sector: Screen applicants with regard to how they can help achieve profit goals
Government civil service systems: Identify qualified applicants through competitive examinations
Not-for-profit organizations: Applicants must be qualified and dedicated to work

Probationary Period R

Period that permits evaluating an employee’s ability based upon performance
May be a substitute for certain phases of the selection process
Must be job related

Organizational Fit R

Management’s perception of the degree to which the prospective employee will fit in with the firm’s culture or value system
Poor fit—The chemistry was just not right

Selection Technology—
Applicant Tracking Systems R

Software application designed to help an enterprise select employees more efficiently
Permits managers to oversee the entire selection process
Compile job applications electronically
Quickly amass candidates
Set up interviews
Get new hires on board

Selection Technology:
Candidate Relationship Management R

Help manage potential and actual applicants in an organized manner
Capability to search the Internet, and then adds and catalogues resumes and other information to the database
Ability to link with other applicant tracking systems and any Web site

Selection in the Global Environment R

Country’s culture plays a major role in determining whether an executive will be successful or not
Majority of firms are deeply rooted in the culture of their home countries

Planning

Identifying and selecting appropriate goals and courses of action; one of the four principal tasks of management.

strategy

A cluster of decisions about what goals to pursue, what actions to take, and how to use resources to achieve goals.

Mission Statement

A broad declaration of an organization’s purpose that identifies the organization’s products and customers and distinguishes the organization from its competitors.

Three Steps in Planning

determining the organization’s mission and goals
2. formulating strategy
3. implementing strategy

To perform the planning task, managers (3):

(1) Establish and discover where an organization is at the present time;
(2) Determine where it should be in the future, its desired future state;
(3) Decide how to move it forward to reach that future state.

Why planning is important

Necessary to give the organization a sense of direction and purpose.
2. Planning is a useful way of getting managers to participate in decision making about the appropriate goals and strategies for an organization.
3. A plan helps coordinate managers of the different functions and divisions of an organization to ensure that they all pull in the same direction and work to achieve its desired future state.
4. A plan can be used as a device for controlling managers within an organization.

An effective plan should have four qualities:

Unity
Continuity
Accuracy
Flexibility

Unity

means that at any time only one central, guiding plan is put into operation to achieve an organizational goal.

Continuity

means that planning is an ongoing process in which managers build and refine previous plans and continually modify plans at all levels – corporate, business, and functional – so they fit together in one broad framework

Accuracy

means that mangers need to make every attempt to collect and use all available information in the planning process.

Flexibility

the planning process should be flexible enough so plans can be altered and changed if the situation changes; managers must not be bound to a static plan.

division

business unit that has its own set of managers and departments and competes in a distinct industry.

Divisional managers

managers who control the planning and strategy for their particular divisions or unit.

Levels and Types of Planning

Corporate Level
Goal setting: Corporate Mission and Goals
Strategy Formulation: Corporate Level Strategy
Strategy Implementation: Design of Corporate structure control

Business Level
Goal setting Divisional Goals
Strategy Formulation: Business Level Strategy
Strategy Implementation: Design of Business Unit Structure Control

Functional Level
Goal setting: Functional Goals
Strategy Formulation: Functional Level Strategy
Strategy Implementation: Design of Functional structure Control

Corporate-level plan

Top management’s decisions pertaining to the organization’s mission, overall strategy, and structure.

Provides a framework for all other planning.

corporate level strategy

A plan that indicates in which industries and national markets an organization intends to compete.

Business-Level Plan

Divisional managers’ decisions pertaining to divisions’ long-term goals, overall strategy, and structure.

business level strategy

a plan that indicates how a division intends to compete against its rivals in an industry

Functional-Level Plan

Functional managers’ decisions pertaining to the goals that they propose to pursue to help the division attain its business-level goals

Functional Strategy

A plan of action to improve the ability of each of an organization’s functions to perform its task-specific activities in ways that add value to an organization’s goods and services.

Time Horizons of Plans

Long-term plans are usually 5 years or more.
Intermediate-term plans are 1 to 5 years.
Short-term plans are less than 1 year.

standing plans

plans developed for activities that occur repeatedly over a period of time

Are used in situations in which programmed decision making is appropriate.

single-use plans

plans that are developed to achieve a set of goals that are unlikely to be repeated in the future

Polices

guidelines used in making consistent decisions

general guides to action

Rules (planning)

formal written instructions that specify actions to be taken under different circumstances to achieve specific goals

formal written specific guides to action

Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs)

specify an exact series of action to follow

Scenario Planning (Contingency Planning)

The generation of multiple forecasts of future conditions followed by an analysis of how to effectively respond to those conditions.

Defining the Business

Who are our customers?
What customer needs are being satisfied?
How are we satisfying customer needs?

Establishing Major Goals

Provides the organization with a sense of direction
Stretches the organization to higher levels of performance.
Goals must be challenging but realistic with a definite period in which they are to be achieved.

Formulating strategy

Step 1: Setting Strategic Goals
Step 2: Analyzing the Organization and the Environment: SWOT Analysis
Step 3: Matching the Organization and Its Environment

The development of a set of corporate, business and functional strategies that allow an organization to accomplish its mission and achieve it goals.

SWOT analysis

a planning tool used to analyze an organization’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats

corporate level strategy

A plan of action to manage the growth and development of an organization so as to maximize its long-run ability to create value

business level strategy

A plan of action to take advantage of favorable opportunities and find ways to counter threats so as to compete effectively in an industry

Functional-level strategy

A plan of action to improve the ability of each of an organization’s functions to perform its task-specific activities in ways that add value to an organization’s goods and services.

Michael Porter’s Five Forces Model

Buyer power
Supplier power
Threat of substitute products or services
Threat of new entrants
Rivalry among existing competitors

Business Level Strategies

low-cost leadership, differentiation and focus.

low-cost strategy

Driving the organization’s costs down below the costs of its rivals.

differentiation strategy

Distinguishing an organization’s products from the products of competitors on dimensions such as product design, quality, or after-sales service.

stuck in the middle

Attempting to simultaneously pursue both a low cost strategy and a differentiation strategy
Difficult to achieve low cost with the added costs of differentiation

focused low-cost strategy

Serving only one segment of the overall market and trying to be the lowest-cost organization serving that segment.

focused differentiation strategy

serving only one segment of the overall market and trying to be the most differentiated organization serving that segment

Principal Corporate-Level Strategies

concentration on a single industry
2. vertical integration
3. diversification
4. international expansion

Concentration in single industry

Organization uses its functional skills to develop new kinds of products or expand its locations.

Appropriate when managers see the need to reduce the size of their organizations to increase performance.

Vertical Integration

A strategy that involves a company expanding its business operations either backward into a new industry that produces inputs (backward vertical integration) or forward into a new industry that uses, distributes, or sells the company’s products
(forward vertical integration).

Diversification

A strategy of expanding a company’s operations into a new industry in order to produce new kinds of valuable goods or services.

related diversification

Strategy of entering a new industry and establishing a new business division that is linked to a company’s existing divisions because they share resources that will improve the competitive position.

unrelated diversification

Firms establish divisions or buy companies in new
industries that are not linked to their current business or industry.

Portfolio strategy: Apportioning resources among divisions to increase returns or spread risks.

Principal corporate-level strategies

concentration on a single industry
2. vertical integration
3. diversification
4. international expansion

International Expansion

Ask the fundamental question of international business: “To what extent do we customize our products for different national cultures, versus standardizing our products worldwide for global efficiency?”

Global Strategy

Undertaking very little customization to suit the specific needs of customers in different countries.

Standardization provides for lower production cost.

Ignores national differences that local competitors can address to their advantage.

Multidomestic strategy

customizing products and marketing strategies to specific national conditions

related diversification

a growth strategy whereby the current target market and/or marketing mix shares something in common with the new opportunity

Synergy

1 + 1 = 3

Possible when the value created by two divisions cooperating is greater than the value that would be created if the two divisions operated separately and independently

Four Ways to Expand Internationally

Importing and exporting
2. Licensing and franchising
3. Strategic alliances, joint ventures
4. Wholly owned foreign subsidiary

Exporting

producing goods in one country and selling them in another

Importing

selling at home products that are made abroad

Licensing

allowing a foreign organization to take charge of manufacturing and distributing a product in its country or world region in return for a negotiated fee

Franchising

selling to a foreign organization the rights to use a brand name and operating know-how in return for a lump-sum payment and a share of the profits

strategic alliance

managers pool resources with those of a foreign company

Organizations agree to share risk and reward

joint venture (strategic alliance)

with a foreign company to share the risks and rewards of starting a new enterprise together in a foreign country

wholly owned foreign subsidiary

managers invest in establishing production operations in a foreign country independent of any local direct involvement

Planning and implementing strategy

Allocate implementation responsibility to the appropriate individuals or groups.
2. Draft detailed action plans for implementation.
3. Establish a timetable for implementation
4. Allocate appropriate resources
5. Hold specific groups or individuals responsible for the attainment of corporate, divisional, and functional goals

Organizational architecture

The organizational structure, control systems, culture, and human resource management systems that together determine how efficiently and effectively organizational resources are used.

Organizing

a management function that includes designing the structure of the organization and creating conditions and systems in which everyone and everything work together to achieve the organization’s goals and objectives

organizational structure

a formal system of task and reporting relationships that coordinates and motivates organizational members so they work together to achieve organizational goals

organizational design

The process by which managers make specific organizing choices that result in a particular kind of organizational structure.

factors affecting organizational structure

organizational environment, strategy, technology, human resources

organizational environment

the set of forces and conditions that operate beyond an organization’s boundaries but affect a manager’s ability to acquire and utilize resources

organizational environment and Organizational Structure

The quicker the environment changes, the more problems face managers.

Structure must be more flexible (i.e., decentralized authority) when environmental change is rapid.

In contrast, if the external environment is stable, resources are readily available, and uncertainty is low, then less coordination and communication among people and functions are needed to obtain resources.

Strategy and Organizational Structure

Different strategies require the use of different structures.

A differentiation strategy needs a flexible structure,
low cost strategy may need a more formal structure.

Increased vertical integration or diversification also requires a more flexible structure.

Technology and Organizational Structure

The combination of (1) skills, (2) knowledge, (3) machines and (4) computers are used to design, make and distribute goods and services.

As a rule, the more complicated the technology that an organization uses, the more difficult it is to regulate or control it because more unexpected even can arise.

Technology can be measured by

Technology can be measured by:

Task variety is the number of new or unexpected
problems or situations that a person or function encounters in performing tasks or jobs.

Task analyzability is the degree to which programmed solutions are available to people or functions to solve the problems they encounter.

High task variety and low analyzability present many unique problems to managers.

Flexible structure works best in these conditions.

Low task variety and high analyzability allow managers to rely on established procedures.

Human resources and Organizational Structure

The more highly skilled its workforce, and the greater the number of employees who work together in groups or teams, the more likely an organization is to use a flexible, decentralized structure and a professional culture based on
values and norms that foster employee autonomy and self-control.

Flexible structures, characterized by decentralized authority and empowered employees, are well suited to the needs of highly skilled people.

Designing Organizational Structure

How to group tasks into individual jobs
2. How to group jobs into functions and divisions
3. How to allocate authority and coordinate functions and divisions

Grouping tasks into jobs: Job Design

The process by which managers decide how to divide tasks into specific jobs

The appropriate division of labor results in an effective and efficient workforce.

job simplification

the process of reducing the number of tasks a worker performs

job enlargement

increasing the number of different tasks in a given job by changing the division of labor

job enrichment

increasing the number of tasks in a particular job and giving workers the authority and control to make meaningful decisions about their work

Job Enrichment factors

(1) Empowering workers to experiment to find new or better ways of doing the job.
(2) Encouraging workers to develop new skills.
(3) Allowing workers to decide how to do the work and giving them the responsibility for deciding how to respond to unexpected
situations.
(4) Allowing workers to monitor and measure their own performance.

Job Characteristics Model

skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy, feedback

skill variety

the degree to which a job requires a variety of different activities

task identity

the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work

task significance

the degree to which a job has a substantial impact on the lives or work of other people

autonomy

independence

Employee has freedom to schedule tasks and carry them out

Feedback

the response to a message that a receiver sends back to a source

Worker gets direct information about how well the job is done

Designing organizational structure: Grouping jobs into functions and divisions:

leads to functional structure

functional structure

An organizational structure composed of all the departments that an organization requires to produce its goods or services.

function

Group of people, working together, who possess similar skills or use the same kind of knowledge, tools, or techniques to perform their jobs.

Functional Structure

Pooling of specialists enhances coordination and control within functions
•Centralized decision making with a cross-functional perspective
•Facilitates career paths in specialized areas

Functional Structure Advantages

Encourages learning from others doing similar jobs.
Easy for managers to monitor and evaluate workers.
Allows managers to create the set of functions they need in order to scan and monitor the competitive environment

Functional Structure Disadvantages

Difficult for departments to communicate with others.
Preoccupation with own department and losing sight of organizational goals.

Types of Divisional Structures

Product
Market
Geographical

Product, market and geographical structures

An organizational structure composed of separate business units within which are the functions that work together to produce a specific product for a specific customer

Product Structure

An organizational structure in which each product line or business is handled by a self-contained division.

product structure Advantages

Allows functional managers to specialize in one product area
Division managers become experts in their area
Removes need for direct supervision of division by corporate managers
Divisional management improves the use of resources

Global Product Structure

Each product division, not the country or regional managers, takes responsibility for deciding where to manufacture its products and how to market them in foreign countries

Geographic Structure

An organizational structure in which each region of a country or area of the world is served by a self-contained division.

Divisions are broken down by geographic location

global geographic structure

Managers locate different divisions in each of the world regions where the organization operates

Generally, occurs when managers are pursuing a multi-domestic strategy.

market structure

An organizational structure in which each kind of customer is served by a self-contained division; also called customer structure.

Market Structure Advantage

Allows managers to be responsive to the needs of their customers and act flexibly in making decisions in response to customers’ changing needs

matrix structure

an organization combines functional and divisional chains of command in a grid so that there are two command structures-vertical and horizontal

Matrix Structure Advantages

-Increases market responsiveness, collaboration & synergies
-Allows more efficient utilization of resources
-Improves flexibility, coordination & communication
-Increases professional development

Matrix Structure Disadvantages

Creates additional organizational complexity
– Can slow decision-making
– Performance appraisals more difficult
– Increases admin costs

Difficult to implement
– Employees have trouble reconciling goals
– Multiple supervisors

product team structure

An organizational structure in which employees are permanently assigned to a cross-functional team and report only to the product team manager or to one of his or her direct subordinates.

authority

Coordinating functions and divisions

the power or right to give orders, make decisions, and enforce obedience.

The power to hold people accountable for their actions and to make decisions concerning the use of organizational resources

hierarchy of authority

Coordinating functions and divisions

An organization’s chain of command, specifying the relative authority of each manager

span of control

Coordinating functions and divisions

the number of subordinates who report directly to a manager

line manager

Coordinating functions and divisions

someone in the direct line or chain of command who has formal authority over people and resources at lower levels

staff managers

Coordinating functions and divisions

use special technical expertise to advise and support line workers

Someone responsible for managing a specialist
function, such as finance or marketing.

minimum chain of command

Coordinating functions and divisions

top managers should always construct a hierarchy with the fewest levels of authority necessary to efficiently and effectively use organizational resources

Tall structures

have narrow spans of control and many hierarchical levels

Tall structures Disadvantages

As hierarchy levels increase, communication gets difficult creating delays in the time being taken to implement decisions.

Communications can also become distorted as it is repeated through the firm.

Can become expensive.

Flat structures

have wide spans of control and few hierarchical levels

Flat structures situation

Structure results in quick communications but can lead to overworked managers

decentralizing authority

giving lower-level managers and non-managerial employees the right to make important decisions about how to use organizational resources

Works best in dynamic, highly competitive environment.

Teams may begin to pursue their own goals at the expense of organizational goals

Can result in a lack of communication among divisions

Centralizing authority

exists in an organization when all or most decisions and orders come from a centralized source, usually the members from the top levels of the organizational structure.

Stable environment favor centralization of authority

Managers should carefully evaluate:

Do the organization have the right number of middle managers?

Can the structure be altered to reduce levels?

Integration and coordinating mechanisms

liasion role
Task forces
Cross functional teams
Integrating roles and departments

liasion role

the interpersonal role managers play when they deal with people outside their units

task force

a temporary team or committee formed to solve a specific short-term problem involving several departments

cross-functional team

a team composed of employees from different functional areas of the organization

integrating roles and departments

senior managers provide members of cross-functional team with relevant information from other teams and from other divisions

organizational culture

The shared set of beliefs, expectations, values, and norms that influence how members of an organization relate to one another and cooperate to achieve organizational goals.

culture is influenced by

org. ethics
characteristic of org. members
employment relationship
organizational structure

Organizational ethics

The moral values, beliefs, and rules that establish the appropriate way for an organization and its members to deal with each other and with people outside the organization.

Adaptive cultures

values and norms help an organization to build momentum and to grow and change as needed to achieve its goals and be effective

Inert cultures

Those that lead to values and norms that fail to motivate or inspire employees
Lead to stagnation and often failure over time