Essays on Sociology Assignments Help

Quiz 1.

Enter your answers in the spaces provided. Save the file using your last name as the beginning of the file name (e.g., ruf_week8_exercises) and submit via “Assignments.” When appropriate, show your work. You can do the work by hand, scan/take a digital picture, and attach that file with your work.

 

 

  1. A researcher plans a study in which a crucial step is offering participants a food reward. It is important that the three food rewards be equal in appeal. Thus, a prestudy was designed in which participants were asked which of the rewards they preferred. Of the 60 participants, 16 preferred cupcakes, 26 preferred candy bars, and 18 favored dried apricots. Do these scores suggest that the different foods are differentially preferred by people in general? (Use the .05 significance level.)
  2. Use the five steps of hypothesis testing.
  3. Sketch the distribution involved.
  4. Explain your findings.

 

Quiz 2.

Team dynamics are made up of many different aspects, and can be quite complex. This assignment allows you to bring together the concepts that you have learned this week to summarize and apply them to your own life.

Write a 350- to 525-word summary on team dynamics. Include the following:

  • Describe factors that contribute to team dynamics.
  • Explain how team dynamics can affect the productivity and effectiveness of a team.
  • Describe how you can apply this information in your own personal or professional life

 

Quiz 3.

Access University of Phoenix Material Films on Demand: Sociology collection: Social Institutions for Instructions.

 

Write a 700- to 1,450-word essay explaining the content of the video based on your assigned sociological theoretical approach.

 

Prepare an introduction that identifies the major social institutions in society and why they are important.

Describe each video and the social institutions they address.

Explain the functionalist, conflict, and interactionist perspectives on the family, religion and education. Which perspective does each film use to discuss the institution? Explain specific examples from the videos from the viewpoint of the designated theoretical approach.

Provide a conclusion that summarizes the main ideas of the essay and describes how these institutions have influenced you.

Format your essay consistent with APA guidelines.

 

Submit your assignment to the Assignments tab

 

Quiz 4.

Socialization and Social Structure Worksheet,

 

  1. In 25 to 50 words each, describe the following perspectives of development of the self:
  2. Cooley’s Looking Glass Self:
  3. Mead’s Role Taking:
  4. Piaget’s Development of Reasoning:
  5. What role does socialization take in personality, morality, emotions, and gender? How do different agents of socialization contribute?
  6. In 20 to 25 words each, describe how socialization occurs in each of the following developmental periods:
  7. Childhood (birth to age 12):
  8. Adolescence (ages 13-17):
  9. Transitional Adulthood (ages 18-29):
  10. The Middle Years (ages 30-65):
  11. The Older Years (ages 65 and above):
  12. Different societies have different social structures. What is social structure? What components contribute to the macrosociological perspective of social structure?

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Liberty University ENGL 101 Mindtap 6 assignment complete solutions correct answers updated

 

  1. Organizing a Paragraph Using Time, Space, or Importance

 

To cohere means “to hold together.” A paragraph coheres when the arrangement of sentences is in a clear, logical order and when the sentences all relate to one another. You can achieve coherence by ordering ideas using order of time, order of space, or order of importance.

To organize ideas in order of importance means to put them in order from most important to least important or from least important to most important. The following paragraph contains ideas arranged in order of importance.

Before running a marathon, a runner must carefully prepare for the race. One important pre-race activity is picking up the race packet, which contains a bib with the runner’s number printed on it. Typically, runners without bibs aren’t allowed to participate, so it’s essential to obtain this beforehand. An even more important pre-race activity is eating a large meal the night before the marathon. Carbohydrates, such as pasta and bread, and proteins, like chicken, will provide much-needed energy during the 26.2 mile run. Finally, the most important way to prepare for a marathon is to get a great night of sleep the night before the race. The mental and physical challenges of running require a well-rested body and mind.

In the paragraph, the writer organizes the preparations for a marathon from least to most important. The writer begins with logistical details of preparation and ends with the final and most important preparation: a good night’s sleep. The writer uses transitional expressions such as “an even more important” and “finally, the most important” to help the reader move from one detail to the next. The following box lists common transitional expressions that show order of importance.

 

Directions: A topic sentence appears in the first row of the table below, but the sentences that follow it are not in proper paragraph order. Choose the best order by selecting the correct number for each sentence.

Important: The writer describes the photo of Georgia O’Keeffe from front to back.

 

Version A

Topic Sentence: In this photograph, Georgia O’Keeffe, her painting, and the desert setting appear in harmony with one another.

She holds a large canvas of a desert arch with a yellow sky beaming through its hollow middle; this yellow sets off O’Keeffe’s profile, making her look as if she is part of the painting that she created.

Looking first at the front of the photo, O’Keeffe’s dark dress contrasts her skin, which has been tanned to almost the same hue as the reddish mesa behind her.

Behind O’Keeffe and her painting, a pale red-colored mesa rises against the blue sky.

Taken together, this photo shows O’Keeffe, her painting, and the desert as distinct elements given life from the same patterns and colors.

 

How does this paragraph order its ideas?

 

Version B

Topic Sentence: Georgia O’Keeffe, the American painter, spent a lifetime learning and exploring art.

After charcoal, O’Keeffe, now a professional artist in New York, began painting close-ups of silky, bright flowers.

Early in her career as an art student in Chicago, O’Keeffe used rough charcoal on smooth white paper for her drawings.

At the end of her career in 1984, O’Keeffe was a widely recognized artist whose work remains internationally known and praised.

All in all, O’Keeffe’s works from all of her artistic stages show an artist who was willing to explore new mediums.

 

How does this paragraph order its ideas?

 

Version C

Topic Sentence: One of the greatest American artists of the twentieth century, Georgia O’Keeffe (1887–1986), spent a lifetime learning and exploring art.

After her formal education as an artist, O’Keeffe had her first show in New York in 1916; in the following decade, O’Keeffe began painting larger close-ups of flowers, a style for which she is widely recognized.

Early on in her schooling, O’Keeffe’s teachers recognized her talent and encouraged her to attend the Art Institute of Chicago, where she mastered the traditional principles of art making.

During the following years (1930s–1950s), O’Keeffe continued to create her own style, focusing on the stark beauty of the New Mexico desert.

By the end of her career in the 1980s, O’Keeffe had proven herself an innovative master of a variety of artistic styles.

 

How does this paragraph order its ideas?

 

  1. Connecting Sentences Using Transitions

 

Transitional words and phrases tell readers how one idea relates to another. Using words and phrases such as howeverfor exampleas a result, and also helps readers to understand your meaning.

Transitional words and phrases are used…

To give more information

additionally, also, as well, first of all (second of all, and so on), for one thing, furthermore, in addition, moreover, next, then

To give an example

for example, for instance, in particular, one such, specifically

To show similarity or agreement

also, as well, equally, likewise, similarly

To show difference or contradiction

although, but, however, in contrast, on the other hand

To show cause or effect

and so, as a result, because, consequently, since, so, therefore

To qualify

maybe, perhaps

 

To show placement

above, across from, below, beside, here, in, next to, outside

To show a temporal (time) relationship

after a while, afterward, at last, at present, briefly, currently, eventually, finally, first (second, third, and so on), gradually, immediately, in the future, later, meanwhile, next, now, recently, soon, suddenly, then

To show importance or emphasis

above all, especially, finally, first, in fact, least, less, most, most importantly, next

To summarize or conclude

all in all, finally, in conclusion, in other words, lastly, to conclude

 

Directions: In each of the blanks below, select the transitional expression from the dropdown menu to indicate a logical relationship between the two sentences it connects. Then answer the question that follows.

 

Version A

In these mountains, there isn’t much oxygen above 11,000 feet.    , trees and bushes aren’t able to grow near the peaks.

 

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the transitional expression in the previous sentence?

 

Wearing a seat belt can help you avoid paying a high fine for breaking the law.       , wearing a seat belt can save your life.

 

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the transitional expression in the previous sentence?

 

Version B

In many ways, The Great Gatsby is a novel about the greed and selfishness of the wealthiest Americans during the Jazz Age.       , it offers readers a glimpse of their irresponsible behavior.

 

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the transitional expression in the previous sentence?

 

Learning disabilities can cause students to experience a variety of challenges.       , some students have difficulty focusing during class.

 

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the transitional expression in the previous sentence?

 

Version C

First, pull the damaged bike tube from the tire.       , find and remove the sharp object that punctured the tire tube. Finally, put a new tube in between the tire and the rim.

 

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the transitional expression in the previous sentence?

 

Everyone wanted to go to Lake Tahoe for the weekend.        , no one had enough gas money to go.

 

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the transitional expression in the previous sentence?

 

  1. Repeating Key Words and Using Synonyms

 

One effective way to create coherence within a paragraph is to repeat key words throughout the paragraph. This helps make the focus of the paragraph clear to the reader. You can use synonyms, or words that have a similar meaning, to avoid using key words too much.

 

Directions: Read the passage below and then answer the questions that follow.

 

Version A

 

Repeating the Story of the Titanic

¹The sinking of the world’s most famous ship in 1912 generated three waves of Titanic mania. ²The first wave happened immediately after the disaster, with newsreels, books, poems, and songs telling stories of suffering and bravery. ³The mid-1950s, in the midst of the cold war, is generally considered to represent the second wave of Titanic fever, when a mist of nostalgia hung over the disaster—a longing for a society in which people behaved according to a strict set of rules. ⁴Thirty years later, in 1985, oceanographer Robert Ballard and French explorer Jean-Louis Michel discovered the wreckage of the Titanic lying roughly two and a half miles below the ocean’s surface. ⁵The world went into a Titanic frenzy again, with the third wave becoming even more intense than those before. ⁶This was followed in 1997 by the release of James Cameron’s blockbuster film, Titanic, starring Kate Winslet and Leonardo DiCaprio as two lovers from vastly different backgrounds who meet on board the doomed ship, which has made over $2 billion worldwide and is one of the most successful movies of all time. ⁷Indeed, the disaster has become such a widely recognized story that the event almost seems to repeat itself on a never-ending loop.

Source: Wilson, Andrew. “Why the Titanic Still Fascinates Us.” Smithsonian.com, www.smithsonianmag.com/history/why-the-titanic-still-fascinates-us.

 

What is the most important key word in this paragraph?

 

Which sentences in the paragraph repeat the key word to create coherence? Check all that apply.

 

Which of the following does the paragraph use as a synonym for the key word “mania”?

 

Version B

 

The Power of Music

¹Many people think of music as a source of entertainment, while others feel it’s just a tune playing in the background. ²However, active listening of anything from a Mozart symphony to a Beatles song has an enormous, positive effect on the brain. ³Engagement with music can improve memory and focus, especially in children, by stimulating the brain. ⁴It also engages parts of the brain that control our emotions. ⁵When you listen to music, the brain releases dopamine, prolactin, and serotonin, which are chemicals that boost your mood. ⁶As a result, people tend to feel an increase in energy and a decrease in stress levels. ⁷Finally, tuning out and turning on your tunes can shift your brain waves from beta to more relaxed alpha and theta states.

Source: ”Music and Health: 11 Ways Playing and Listening to Music Help Both Body and Mind.” Huffington Post. Huffington Post, 11 April 2011. Web. 23 Oct. 2012.

 

What is the most important key word in this paragraph?

 

Which sentences in the paragraph repeat the key word to create coherence? Check all that apply.

 

Which of the following does the paragraph use as a synonym for the key word “music”?

 

Version C

 

Has Gender Equality Been Achieved?

¹For many Americans, equality between the genders is a shared, if not given, value. ²Nevertheless, the statistics show that Americans differ on whether enough has been done to achieve balanced opportunities between men and women. ³A greater number of women than men believe that equality has not been achieved, and the data suggest women are right. ⁴Equality has not been achieved in the workplace, where a women makes 77 cents for every dollar a man makes according to the Department of Labor statistics. ⁵Also, the median annual earning for full-time, year-round women workers in 2010 was $36,931 compared with men’s $47,715. ⁶In addition to the workplace, women also have less of a voice in government. ⁷Women constitute about 51% of the population, but they hold only 17% of the seats in Congress, which suggests that balance has not yet been achieved in this sphere either.

Source: Shannon, Victoria. “Equal Rights for Women? Survey Says: Yes, but…” The New York Times, 1 July 2010, www.nytimes.com/2010/07/01/world/01iht-poll.html?_r=0.

 

What is the most important key word in this paragraph?

 

Which sentences in the paragraph repeat the key word to create coherence? Check all that apply.

 

Which of the following does the paragraph use as a synonym for the key word “equality”?

 

  1. Replacing Proper Nouns with Pronouns

 

Definition: Nouns are people, places, and things. Pronouns are words that can take the place of nouns. Here are three examples:

The noun Allison could be replaced by the pronoun she.

The noun coffee mug could be replaced by the pronoun it.

The nouns girls and boys could be replaced by the pronoun they.

You can use them to connect sentences and avoid unnecessary repetition.

 

Directions: Read each passage and then select the correct answer to the question that follows.

 

Version A

 

¹The uses of the Clydesdale breed of horses have changed significantly in the past century. ²In the past, Clydesdales were never ridden for sport or leisure; now, however, such activity is commonplace. ³Clydesdales often generate publicity for breweries or other businesses by pulling carts with company logos on them. ⁴Because automated farm machinery is now widespread, Clydesdales no longer pull ploughs or other heavy farm equipment. ⁵For example, to better protect delicate ecosystems, the logging industry has recently begun using Clydesdales in timber extraction.

 

In which of the following sentences would it not make sense to replace the proper noun Clydesdales with the pronoun they? Check all that apply.

 

Version B

 

¹At the 2012 London Olympics, Jamaican sprinter Usain Bolt proved to be both a winner and a showman. ²When introduced to the Olympic Stadium crowd, Mr. Bolt gave a stiff-wristed royal wave. ³Mr. Bolt wore a ball cap turned backward and smiled for the cameras when stepping out onto the track for the 200-meter sprint. ⁴Mr. Bolt avenged his losses to teammate Yohan Blake from Jamaica’s Olympic trials, winning the London 200-meter race in 19.32 seconds despite relaxing over the last 15 meters and putting his left index finger to his lips as if to quiet skeptics who predicted he would falter under Olympic pressure. ⁵With teammates Blake and Warren Weir finishing second and third, Mr. Bolt declared himself to be a living legend after becoming the first man ever to win the 100- and 200-meter titles in successive Olympics.

 

In which of the following sentences would it not make sense to replace the proper noun Mr. Bolt with the pronoun he? Check all that apply.

 

Version C

 

¹Landed on the surface of Mars in August 2012, the Mars Science Laboratory is equipped with several fascinating science instruments. ²For example, an imaging device on the Mars Science Laboratory takes extreme close-up pictures of rocks and soil. ³The Mars Science Laboratory also has an instrument that detects radiation and helps assess the planet’s ability to support life. ⁴The Mars Science Laboratory’s most interesting instrument is a laser that vaporizes Martian rocks so their content can be analyzed.

 

In which of the following sentences would it not make sense to replace the proper noun Mars Science Laboratory with the pronoun it? Check all that apply.

 

  1. Ensuring Paragraph Unity: Topic Sentences

 

Version A

 

Which of the following is a topic sentence that can be supported with reasons, details, examples, and explanations?

 

One way to make sure you have a unified paragraph is to write a clear topic sentence that states the subject of the paragraph and the point you want to make about it.

 

Read the following passage and identify the topic sentence. (Hint: It’s not always the first sentence.)

 

It is not always a bad thing to “miss the boat.” Many influential people missed the Titanic, which began and ended its doomed voyage in 1912. For example, J. Pierpont Morgan, the famous banker and founder of General Electric and U.S. Steel, had arranged a personal suite and his own private promenade deck on the ship. It sailed without him, though, because Morgan decided to continue his vacation in France instead of returning to the United States. As a result, the “Napoleon of Wall Street” avoided a watery death. Another famous person who missed the boat was Alfred Vanderbilt, who was an heir to the Vanderbilt shipping and railroad empire. Vanderbilt cancelled his voyage on the Titanic at the last minute to lengthen his European vacation. Unlike J. P. Morgan though, Vanderbilt seems to have been fated to be lost at sea; three years after missing one sinking ship, he died on another—the Lusitania. Coincidentally, the famous inventor Guglielmo Marconi also missed the Titanic, and he was aboard the Lusitania when it went down, but he survived.

Source: Daugherty, Greg. “Seven Famous People Who Missed the Titanic.” Smithsonian, 1 Mar. 2012, www.smithsonianmag.com/history/seven-famous-people-who-missed-the-titanic-101902418/.

 

The topic sentence is:

 

Version B

Which of the following is a topic sentence that can be supported with reasons, details, examples, and explanations?

 

One way to make sure you have a unified paragraph is to write a clear topic sentence that states the subject of the paragraph and the point you want to make about it.

 

Read the following passage and identify the topic sentence. (Hint: It’s not always the first sentence.)

 

Many Americans believe in equality between the genders. However, the data suggest that equality has not been achieved. It has not been achieved in the workplace, where, according to the Department of Labor statistics, a women makes 77 cents for every dollar a man makes. Also, the median annual earning for full-time, year-round women workers in 2010 was $36,931 compared to men’s $47,715. In addition to the workplace, women also have less of a voice in government. Women constitute about 51% of the population, but they hold only 17% of the seats in Congress, which suggests that equality has not yet been achieved in this sphere either.

Source: Shannon, Victoria. “Equal Rights for Women? Survey Says: Yes, but . . . .” The New York Times, 1 July 2010, www.nytimes.com/2010/07/01/world/01iht-poll.html?_r=0.

 

The topic sentence is:

 

Version C

Which of the following is a topic sentence that can be supported with reasons, details, examples, and explanations?

 

One way to make sure you have a unified paragraph is to write a clear topic sentence that states the subject of the paragraph and the point you want to make about it.

 

Read the following passage and identify the topic sentence. (Hint: It’s not always the first sentence.)

 

Many people think of music as a source of entertainment, while others feel it’s just a tune playing in the background. Active listening of anything from a Mozart symphony to a Beatles song has an enormous, positive effect on the brain. Engagement with music can improve memory and focus, especially in children, by stimulating the brain. It also engages parts of the brain that control our emotions. When you listen to music, the brain releases dopamine, prolactin, and serotonin, which are chemicals that boost your mood. As a result, people tend to feel an increase in energy and a decrease in stress levels. Finally, tuning out and turning on your tunes can shift your brain waves from beta to more relaxed alpha and theta states.

Source: Chan, Amanda L. “Music and Health: 11 Ways Playing and Listening to Music Help Both Body and Mind.” The Huffington Post, 15 June 2012, www.huffingtonpost.com/2012/04/09/music-and-health-11-ways-body-mind_n_1413241.html.

 

The topic sentence is:

 

  1. Ensuring Paragraph Unity: Support the Topic Sentence

 

Version A

Read the following topic sentence and then answer the question that follows.

Topic Sentence:

The uses of the Clydesdale breed of horse have changed significantly in the past century.

 

Which of the following sentences do not support the topic sentence? Check all that apply.

 

To be unified, the information in each paragraph must adequately explain, give examples, define, or in some other way support your topic sentence. Therefore, your essay should provide enough supporting information or evidence to back up your topic sentence. Some types of evidence include specific examples or details, personal experience, reference to research, facts, statistics, and testimony from authorities. Without such specific evidence, your reader will not accept your ideas. Also, it is important to remember that length alone does not provide adequate support. If a paragraph is filled with vague generalities or repetitious ideas, it might be long, but it doesn’t fully support the topic sentence.

 

Read the paragraphs and answer the questions that follow. The topic sentences appear in boldface.

 

Body Paragraph 1

Languages all over the world are vanishing; these endangered languages should be brought back to preserve our global linguistic diversity and cultural history. One endangered language that should be preserved for its unique complexity and historical importance is the Navajo language. Navajo is a tough language to learn and is hard to grasp. Without early exposure, most people cannot master it. The U.S. military used Navajo Native Americans in WWII because they were so difficult to understand. These Navajos became code talkers. This makes Navajo both a unique and historically important language that should be preserved.

 

Body Paragraph 1       support the topic sentence effectively.

 

Which revisions would include more supporting information or evidence? Check all that apply.

 

Body Paragraph 2

Moreover, it is not just the unique and complex language of Native Americans that should be preserved. Languages from remote corners of Europe are also dying off. For example, the Scot language is getting less use, and at times, is extinguished, which happened to the Scot language of Cromarty. So, this means that a unique and complex language is lost to us.

Body Paragraph 2       support the topic sentence effectively.

 

Which revisions would include more supporting information or evidence? Check all that apply.

 

Body Paragraph 3

Some speakers of endangered languages aren’t just trying to preserve them; they are also trying to revitalize these important parts of their heritage. For example, the last 25 speakers of Iquito, a language spoken in the Amazon Basin of Peru, are passing down their native tongue after centuries of pressure to assimilate to Spanish. These surviving Iquito speakers are aging—the youngest is 52 years old. Therefore, teaching the language to the next generation cannot wait. So, the indigenous speakers of Iquito and students from the University of Texas at Austin are now working together to preserve the language by creating a dictionary to document it and by teaching it through community classes. This is altering the fate of one of the few indigenous languages from the Amazon Basin still in existence.

Body Paragraph 3       support the topic sentence effectively.

 

Which revisions would include more supporting information or evidence? Check all that apply.

 

Version B

 

Read the following topic sentence and then answer the question that follows.

Topic Sentence:

At the 2012 London Olympics, Jamaican sprinter Usain Bolt proved to be both a winner and a showman.

 

Which of the following sentences do not support the topic sentence? Check all that apply.

 

To be unified, the information in each paragraph must adequately explain, give examples, define, or in some other way support your topic sentence. Therefore, your essay should provide enough supporting information or evidence to back up your topic sentence. Some types of evidence include specific examples or details, personal experience, reference to research, facts, statistics, and testimony from authorities. Without such specific evidence, your reader will not accept your ideas. Also, it is important to remember that length alone does not provide adequate support. If a paragraph is filled with vague generalities or repetitious ideas, it might be long, but it doesn’t fully support the topic sentence.

 

Read the paragraphs and answer the questions that follow. The topic sentences appear in boldface.

 

Body Paragraph 1

DNA sequencing is on the verge of revolutionizing the diagnosis and treatment of diseases—a revolution that spurs many ethical questions. First, DNA sequencing is dramatically changing detection of diseases. Currently, the detection of disease happens after symptoms appear in the tissues, organ, or bone where it originates. But now, some medical researchers are looking toward our DNA.

 

Body Paragraph 1       support the topic sentence effectively.

 

Which revisions would include more supporting information or evidence? Check all that apply.

 

Body Paragraph 2

Although DNA sequencing offers people insight into future medical problems, it also can become a Pandora’s box. Should everyone really have access to knowledge of their future health problems? Many people want to know, but some doctors are reluctant. Doctors worry that people will find out things they might not want to face about their medical fate. Moreover, ethicists believe this could lead down a path where people face discrimination based on the information in their DNA sequence.

 

Body Paragraph 2       support the topic sentence effectively.

 

Which revisions would include more supporting information or evidence? Check all that apply.

 

Body Paragraph 3

However, despite the ethical questions surrounding DNA sequencing, people want it, and, in some cases, they have gotten it with beneficial results. According to an NPR survey, 81.45% of people would have their DNA sequenced if they could afford it. One family, the Wests, could afford DNA sequencing and became the first family to do so. John West, who is the former CEO of a sequencing technology company, explains, “We were interested in getting a look ahead as to what might be in our family’s medical future, and I think we found that it was useful in that regard.” For example, the sequencing revealed that the Wests are prone to blood clots. Now, the Wests know to change their eating habits to avoid blood clots, including consuming more vitamin K.

 

Body Paragraph 3       support the topic sentence effectively.

 

Which revisions would include more supporting information or evidence? Check all that apply.

 

Version C

 

Read the following topic sentence and then answer the question that follows.

Topic Sentence:

The Mars Science Laboratory, which landed on the surface of Mars in August 2012, is equipped with several fascinating science instruments.

 

Which of the following sentences do not support the topic sentence? Check all that apply.

 

To be unified, the information in each paragraph must adequately explain, give examples, define, or in some other way support your topic sentence. Therefore, your essay should provide enough supporting information or evidence to back up your topic sentence. Some types of evidence include specific examples or details, personal experience, reference to research, facts, statistics, and testimony from authorities. Without such specific evidence, your reader will not accept your ideas. Also, it is important to remember that length alone does not provide adequate support. If a paragraph is filled with vague generalities or repetitious ideas, it might be long, but it doesn’t fully support the topic sentence.

 

Read the paragraphs and answer the questions that follow. The topic sentences appear in boldface.

 

Body Paragraph 1

Before changing your diet, you should make sure that you are switching to one based on nutritional research versus popular ideas. One common dieting myth is that some foods have “negative calories,” meaning that digesting the food burns more calories than the food itself contains. In some magazines, I have seen women encouraged to eat such foods. These foods often don’t sound appetizing to eat. Some people eat these foods to lose weight; they think their bodies will use up a greater percentage of calories to digest these than their bodies would use to digest other foods. In fact, some people believe celery burns so many calories that they can actually get thinner by eating it, which must be too good to be true.

 

Body Paragraph 1       support the topic sentence effectively.

 

Which revisions would include more supporting information or evidence? Check all that apply.

 

Body Paragraph 2

Another common myth is that brown foods are better for you. In fact, there are a lot of foods that are brown because of food dye. So, brown foods won’t always make you lose weight. You must be eating the right kinds of brown foods to get the health benefits.

 

Body Paragraph 2       support the topic sentence effectively.

 

Which revisions would include more supporting information or evidence? Check all that apply.

 

Body Paragraph 3

Another common misconception is that cutting carbohydrates is the best way to lose weight. However, new research from the Journal of the American Medical Association suggests otherwise. The best type of diet is neither a low-fat diet nor low-carb diet, but instead a low-glycemic diet. A low–glycemic diet is one where 40% of calories come from carbohydrates, 40% come from fats, and 20% come from proteins. According to Dr. David Ludwig from Boston’s Children’s Hospital, “Our findings suggest that actually trying to restrict either carbs or fat is not the best way [to achieve long-term weight loss] and instead to focus on the quality of fats and the quality of carbs.” For example, instead of going to a diet of all steak and bacon, medical researchers find that people should balance fiber-rich, natural carbohydrates, such as steel-cut oats, with healthy fats and proteins, such as nuts and olive oil. Based on my personal experience, the low-glycemic diet works. I tried a diet of quality fats, carbs, and proteins for six weeks. Unlike when I was on an all-protein diet, I found that the variety of foods helped me to stick with my new nutritional plan. This diet was, by far, the most successful in helping me meet my weight-loss goals.

 

Body Paragraph 3       support the topic sentence effectively.

 

Which revisions would include more supporting information or evidence? Check all that apply.

 

  1. Ensuring Paragraph Unity: Check That All Details Are Relevant

 

A unified paragraph contains only details and explanations that are relevant to the point made in the topic sentence.

 

Read the following paragraph and identify which sentences are not relevant to the topic sentence.

 

Version A

 

(1) Baking a cake relies on some complex chemical reactions to transform all the individual ingredients into something delicious to eat. (2) Flour, eggs, butter, one or more leavening agents, and some sort of flavoring, such as vanilla or chocolate, are all combined in a bowl and then baked in the oven. (3) Many people avoid eating eggs due to health considerations. (4) Chocolate is my favorite flavor. (5) Leavening is the process that makes air bubbles form; this helps the batter to rise when it is heated.

 

Which of the following sentences are not relevant to the topic sentence? Check all that apply.

 

Version B

 

(1) My town holds a 5K road race every year to raise funds for charity. (2) People pay to participate and the money is used to help families in need of assistance. (3) More than 5,000 people ran in the race this year. (4) I am on the track team at Hosmer High School. (5) My sister also runs track, but we don’t go to the same school.

 

Which of the following sentences are not relevant to the topic sentence? Check all that apply.

 

Version C

 

(1) Taking care of a vegetable garden takes a lot of time and money, and the results don’t always seem worth it. (2) I like pumpkins, but I didn’t have enough room to grow them. (3) I bought tomato, pepper, and zucchini plants for about $35. (4) I spent hours planting, watering, and weeding so I wouldn’t have to buy some of the things I like to eat. (5) I don’t eat eggplant, so I didn’t plant any of it. (6) My garden didn’t yield much; by the end of the summer I had three peppers, eight tomatoes, and two zucchinis. (7) I think I would have been better off going to the farmers market and spending $35 on vegetables there.

 

Which of the following sentences are not relevant to the topic sentence? Check all that apply.

 

  1. Ensuring Paragraph Unity: Check That the Details Are Logically Organized

 

To help keep your paragraph unified around one central idea, it’s important to present information clearly and in a logical order. Make sure to include a topic sentence with a main idea, which might be (1) your reason for presenting the topic—why you think it’s important or necessary for the readers to know it—or (2) an argument about the topic itself. Writers often organize body paragraphs in easily recognizable patterns that give readers a sense of logical movement and order. Three examples of common patterns of ordering sentences in a paragraph are order of time, order of space, and order of importance. A writer might arrange details chronologically (beginning with the first step or event and ending with the last step or event). This is order of time. If the subject of the paragraph is a physical object, a writer might choose order of space to describe the object from left to right, top to bottom, or inside to outside. If the writer chooses to start with the most critical details and move toward less essential information later, they are using order of importance.

Read the following paragraph. Then answer the questions

Version A

 

(1) Although the foreclosure crisis has been covered often by the media, many people are still unclear about how the foreclosure process works or how people threatened by foreclosure lose their homes. (2) The first misstep in the process involves the home purchase itself; specifically, buying a home beyond what the buyer can comfortably afford. (3) Some new homes include luxury features, such as granite countertops, hardwood floors, and landscaped gardens. (4) The second misstep involves the loan terms; eager buyers often become trapped by loans with changing interest rates that start out low and increase dramatically a few years later or loans with low monthly payments that require the entire loan amount to be paid as a “balloon payment” at the end of the loan term. (5) The next misstep involves a dramatic change in the homeowner’s financial situation—the homeowner is laid off from work, a family member develops a costly medical condition, or the homeowner gets called to active duty in the military and has not provided for keeping the mortgage payments going. (6) In such circumstances, a smart homeowner can usually seek assistance from lawyers or government and nonprofit agencies that provide advice for individuals facing a financial crisis. (7) However, the fourth misstep that leads to foreclosure is when homeowners postpone seeking assistance until their legal rights have passed, or they walk away from their homes without being able to keep any of their investment. (8) The personal financial crisis of the homeowner moves into the public legal system. (9) The creditor (the agency from which the homeowner borrowed money) demands immediate payment of the entire balance (which is impossible for the homeowner) and then files a lawsuit in a court located near the property. (10) If the homeowner does not file an answer to the creditor’s lawsuit, then the court rewards the creditor with the property. (11) These four missteps that lead to foreclosure explain the often confusing process of how a buyer loses a home. (12) The home, now officially foreclosed, is sold under court supervision.

Source: “Steps That Advocates Can Take to Help Prevent Foreclosure.” National Consumer Law Center, May 2014, www.nclc.org/images/pdf/older_consumers/cc_steps_that_advocates_can_take_to_help_older_homeowners_prevent_foreclosure_may_2014.pdf.

 

What is the topic sentence of this paragraph?

 

Which of the following is also a suitable topic sentence for this paragraph? (Hint: Pick the sentence that best captures the main idea of the paragraph.)

 

Is this paragraph logically organized?

 

Which sentence does not clearly relate to and support the topic sentence?

 

How is the passage organized?

 

What is the purpose of this passage?

 

Which phases appear in the paragraph? Check all that apply.

 

Version B

 

(1) Establishing credit might feel overwhelming, but anyone can accomplish this goal by following a series of steps. (2) First, research why establishing credit is important. (3) Ask your family members or friends how their credit ratings have made an impact on everything from their interest rates on an auto or home loan, to getting a good job, to signing a lease on an apartment. (4) Now that you understand why credit is important, the second step is to open a savings account and a checking account in your name. (5) Your ability to withdraw, deposit, transfer, and save money shows you have financial responsibility, which is reflected in your credit report. (6) After establishing your bank accounts, the third step is to apply for a credit card. (7) Some department stores have coupons that allow you to save 20% on that day’s purchases if you get one of their credit cards. (8) The final step is to use your credit cards and bank accounts wisely. (9) You will establish good credit only if you make your credit card payments on time and don’t bounce checks. (10) If you do so, you will be on your way to having many great financial opportunities in the future.

Source: “Establishing or Rebuilding Credit.” National Foundation for Credit Counseling, www.nfcc.org/consumer-tools/consumer-tips/establishing-or-rebuilding-credit/. Accessed 30 May 2016.

 

Version C

 

(1) Many people pay high interest rates on car loans simply because they are unaware of the easy steps to refinance. (2) First, collect and organize your car documents. (3) You’ll need a copy of your current car loan; the age, make, and model of your vehicle; and the vehicle identification number (VIN). (4) The VIN can be found on the dashboard or in the registration paperwork. (5) Before the VIN was introduced, each manufacturer had a different system for numbering its cars. (6) Next, call your lender for the payoff amount and find out how long until the quote expires (usually five to ten days). (7) Then check your credit to make sure your new lender will receive the most accurate and up-to-date version of your credit report. (8) The fourth step is to shop for the best refinance loan offer and accept a new offer at a lower interest rate. (9) The fifth and final step is to make sure the original car lender has issued a notice stating that the loan was repaid in full. (10) By following these simple steps, a car owner can save hundreds of dollars each year.

Source: “How to Refinance a Car Loan.” ehow, www.ehow.com/how_2082486_refinance-car-loan.html. Accessed 6 July 2016.

 

 

BUSI 330 Quiz 7 Liberty University Complete Answers

Question 1 There are six commonly used techniques to deal with objections: acknowledge and convert the objection; __________; agree and neutralize; accept the objection; denial; and ignore the objection.

Question 2 The most basic of the three sales management functions is

Question 3 Quantitative assessments of sales performance may be based on output­related measures, such as

Question 7 Which salesforce structure is the simplest form of organization?

Question 8 A __________ is the simplest salesforce structure, where the United States, or indeed the globe, is first divided into regions and then each region is divided into districts or territories.

Question 9 As shown in Figure 17­2 above, “A” is the __________ stage in the personal selling process.

Question 10 About __________ percent of U.S. companies now include customer satisfaction as a behavioral measure of salesperson performance.

Question 11 About 60 percent of U.S. companies now include customer satisfaction as a __________ measure of salesperson performance.

Question 12 The most frequently used type of compensation plan for salespeople is a __________.

Question 13 A selling format that assumes that given the appropriate prompts by a salesperson, the prospect will buy is referred to as a __________.

Question 15 A third type of sales objective that is __________, which is typically specific for each salesperson and includes his or her product knowledge, customer service, and selling and communication skills.

Question 16 All of the following are behavioral measures that are used to evaluate salespeople EXCEPT:

Question 17 Three major presentation formats exist: (1) stimulus­response format; (2) formula selling format; and (3) __________.

Question 18 When Jason called the toll­free number to order two children’s books from the Chinaberry catalog, the firm was using __________.

Question 19 An effective sales plan objective should be

Question 20 Which of the following statements regarding the role of salespeople is most accurate?

Question 21 With a __________, a salesperson is paid a fixed fee per week, month, or year.

Question 25 The sales manager told the salesperson, “Your goal is to increase sales volume for the second quarter 5 percent over the sales volume of the first quarter.” The sales manager voiced a(n) __________ sales objective.

Question 26 A __________ explains: (1) to whom a salesperson reports; (2) how a salesperson interacts with other company personnel; (3) the customers to be called on; (4) the specific activities to be carried out; (5) the physical and mental demands of the job; and (6) the types of products and services to be sold.

Question 27 As a MooreChem sales manager, you note that one of your salespeople has exceeded his sales target but is well below his profit goal. The best explanation for this performance is

Question 28 Attributes such as imagination and problem­solving ability, strong work ethic, honesty, intimate product knowledge, effective communication and listening skills, and attentiveness reflected in responsiveness to buyer needs and customer loyalty and follow­up are found in the

Question 30 The primary responsibility of order takers is to

 

 

Quiz 3. Straighterline – SOC 1015. SOPHIA UNIT 5: MILESTONE_INTRO TO SOCIOLOGY_PRACTICE_UNIT 5

SOPHIA_UNIT 5 PRACTICE MILESTONE_INTRO TO SOCIOLOGY Many schools are reconsidering which holidays to observe. This is an example of which of the following functions of schooling? • Social pla cement • Social integration • Socialization • Latent function CONCEPT Functions of Schooling 2 Phil is conducting research on Americans’ use of social media sites and the impact they have on U.S. society. This is an example of studying technology at the __________ . • post-modern level • structural-functional level • macro-level • micro-level CONCEPT Technology 3 Which of the following describes functional illiteracy? • Knowledge of the basic skills required for everyday life • A deficiency in the basic knowledge required for everyday life • Access to resources that meet fundamental educational needs CONCEPT School Problems 4 Which of the following occurs during the early industrial stage of demographic transition theory? • Birth and death rates remain high. • Population grows slowly, or decreases. • Birth rates remain high, while death rates decrease. • Birth and death rates decline. CONCEPT Malthusian Theory and Demographic Transition Theory 5 Industrialization caused many people to move to cities for work. During which period did this significant increase in urban growth occur? • Urban decentralization • Colonial settlement • Metropolitan era CONCEPT US Cities 6 Which of the following statements about social change is FALSE? • Social movements have historically had a major effect on social change. • Inequality is a major influence on social change. • Progress is the same for all people. • The distribution of people can greatly affect social change. CONCEPT Individuals and Modernity 7 The debate over __________ focuses on whether increases in global temperature are caused primarily by human-created greenhouse gas emissions, or by other factors. • global warming • the demographic divide • urbanization • environmental racism CONCEPT Sociological Understanding of the Environment 8 Which type of social movement works to completely change society as a whole? • Redemptive social movement • Alternative social movement • Reformative social movement • Revolutionary social movement CONCEPT Social Movements 9 Chelsea lives in the city, where life is fast-paced, and most of the people she encounters are strangers. Sociologist Ferdinand Tonnies would refer to the kind of environment in which Chelsea lives as an example of __________ . • gesellschaft • gemeinschaft • pre-modernism • community CONCEPT Ferdinand Tonnies 10 Substantial, long-term damage to the natural environment as a result of society’s focus on short-term profit is called __________ . • environmental bankruptcy • I-PAT inequality • environmental racism • environmental deficit CONCEPT Environmental Concepts 11 Sociologists have identified a significant gap in life expectancy between the United States’ richest and poorest communities. This kind of research is an example of __________ . • environmental health • healthcare • social epidemiology • holistic medicine CONCEPT Health 12 Which of the following sociologists argued that the detached nature of urban interaction, along with increased diversity, make urban populations more open to change than rural communities? • Louis Wirth • David Riesman • Ferdinand Tonnies • Georg Simmel CONCEPT Louis Wirth and Urban Ecology 13 John Dewey argued that education should be linked to what is happening in the world and relevant to the learner. This concept is called __________ . • mandatory education • equal opportunity • progressive education • public education CONCEPT Education and Schooling 14 The sociological subfield that analyzes the physical movement of society, as well as the characteristics of population and growth, is called __________ . • demography • globalization • a population pyramid • urban ecology CONCEPT Population Growth 15 How did Jonathan Kozol develop his insights about social inequality and the school system? • He taught at inner-city schools and saw how bad they were, and read about state funding to suburban schools. • He taught at a suburban school, but attended an inner-city school as a student. • He taught at both inner-city and suburban schools, and observed the disparities between them. • He was a great sociologist who conducted interviews with teachers and students. CONCEPT Jane Elliot and Jonathan Kozol 16 According to __________ , social movements develop because of access to resources. • culture theory • resource mobilization theory • deprivation theory • new social movement theory CONCEPT Social Movement Theories 17 Following the agricultural revolution, why were cities so important? • Cities were important centers for religious gatherings. • Cities were important social locations where governments regulated trade. • Cities were important centers of trade. • Cities were important places for slaves who grew crops. CONCEPT Global Population

 

Quiz 4. PHARM 101pharmacology quiz 1

 

  1. The fact that adipose tissue receives a relatively poor blood supply indicates that adipose tissue:
  2. accumulates large amounts of drug.
  3. does not accumulate large amounts of drug. Correct
  4. does not accumulate lipid-soluble drugs.
  5. metabolizes large amounts of drug.

 

  1. A patient is prescribed a drug preparation that contains barbiturates to treat a medical condition. The patient is also being treated with medications for other medical conditions. After a few days of consuming the barbiturate-containing medication, the patient realizes that his other medical conditions have worsened. What is the most likely reason for this occurrence?

Select one:

  1. The barbiturate medication is causing drug overdose.
  2. The previous medications are causing enzyme inhibition and blocking the effects of the barbiturate medication.
  3. The barbiturate medication is causing enzyme induction. Correct
  4. The patient has developed tolerance to both the barbiturate medication and his previous medications.

 

  1. While summarizing the factors that affect IV solutions, it can be concluded that:

Select one:

  1. IV drug solutions must be free of contamination.
  2. IV drug solutions must constitute drugs and solutions that are chemically compatible.
  3. IV drug solutions must be adjusted to a targeted pH range.
  4. all of these are correct. Correct
  5. Which of the following is an important inhibitory neurotransmitter that keeps emotion and behavior under control?

Select one:

  1. Dopamine
  2. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) Correct
  3. Norepinephrine
  4. Serotonin

 

  1. Select the correct number of drops per minute to be administered for a 500-ml Lactated Ringers IV given over 2 hours using an administration set labeled 15 drops per ml.

Select one:

  1. 32.5 drops/min
  2. 62.5 drops/min Correct
  3. 40 drops/min
  4. 75 drops/min

 

  1. The term used to describe the situation that involves multiple drug prescriptions is _____.

Select one:

  1. pharmacotherapy
  2. polypharmacy Correct
  3. therapeutic duplication
  4. monotherapy

 

  1. The main cause of Parkinson’s disease is the accelerated loss of:

Select one:

  1. cholinergic neurons.
  2. dopamine neurons. Correct
  3. serotonin neurons.
  4. norepinephrine neurons.

 

  1. Explain the key difference between barbiturates and nonbarbiturates.

Select one:

  1. Unlike barbiturates, nonbarbiturates are CNS depressants that contain the barbituric acid ring structure in their chemical makeup.
  2. Barbiturates decrease the activity of GABA, and nonbarbiturates increase the activity of GABA.
  3. Unlike nonbarbiturates, barbiturates are CNS depressants that contain the barbituric acid ring structure in their chemical makeup. Correct
  4. None of the above are correct.

 

  1. Implementing a treatment plan that includes mecamylamine is indicative of a diagnosis of _____.

Select one:

  1. smoking addiction
  2. severe hypertension Correct
  3. depression
  4. constipation
  5. Which of the following is an example of a drug derived from a plant?

Select one:

  1. Insulin
  2. Digitalis Correct
  3. Cephalosporin
  4. Estradiol
  5. Which part of a person’s brain is activated when he or she is choking on a piece of steak?

Select one:

  1. Thalamus
  2. Hypothalamus
  3. Pons
  4. Medulla oblongata Correct

 

  1. A patient education program should include educating patients on the effective administration of drugs. How should patients be instructed to take enteric-coated products?

Select one:

  1. On an empty stomach with water
  2. One hour before meals
  3. Two hours after meals
  4. All of these are correct. Correct

 

  1. William is narcoleptic and his physician prescribes amphetamines to treat his medical condition. After a few months of treatment, William’s medical condition improves and the physician reduces the required dosage of amphetamines. However, the reduced dosage produces unpleasant feelings associated with withdrawal symptoms. William doubles the dosage to counter what he perceives as drug tolerance without consulting his physician and begins consuming more than the recommended dosage regularly. This scenario exemplifies _____.

Select one:

  1. enzyme inhibition
  2. drug intolerance
  3. drug addiction Correct
  4. enzyme induction

 

  1. Drugs that bind to specific receptors and produce a drug action are called _____.

 

Select one:

  1. repressors
  2. antagonists
  3. agonists Correct
  4. modulators

 

  1. Which of the following best explains automatism?

Select one:

  1. Drug-induced hangover effect resulting from benzodiazepine use
  2. Drug-induced heightened tolerance resulting from benzodiazepine use
  3. Drug-induced confusion that can lead to barbiturate drug overdose Correct
  4. None of the above

 

  1. Lack of adequate protein intake in elderly people:

Select one:

  1. leads to a lower concentration of plasma proteins. Correct
  2. leads to an increase in the synthesis of drug metabolizing enzymes.
  3. leads to an increase in the rate of drug metabolism.
  4. leads to a decrease in the intensity of drug action.

.

 

  1. Patients undergoing a chemical stress test at a doctor’s office could expect to receive an injection of which neurotransmitter?

Select one:

  1. Epinephrine Correct
  2. Acetylcholine
  3. Serotonin
  4. Dopamine
  5. Analyze the major adrenergic effects of the alpha-adrenergic drug class, and select the main drug effect that the alpha-adrenergic drugs have on the alpha-2 receptors.

Select one:

  1. Negative feedback effect to decrease the release of epinephrine
  2. Negative feedback effect to decrease the release of norepinephrine Correct
  3. Contraction of smooth muscle
  4. Increased blood pressure

 

  1. Identify a consequence of sympathetic stimulation by the use of nicotine products.

Select one:

  1. Heart rate will increase. Correct
  2. Blood pressure will decrease.
  3. GI activity will decrease.
  4. All of these are correct.

 

  1. The phenomenon that occurs upon taking additional doses of acetaminophen for pain when a 100 percent response has been attained is called the _____.

Select one:

  1. ceiling effect Correct
  2. placebo effect
  3. first-pass effect
  4. Purkinje effect

 

  1. Which of the following factors can affect drug metabolism by reducing the efficiency with which organs function?

Select one:

  1. Genetics
  2. Nutritional deficiency
  3. Disease
  4. All of these Correct

 

  1. Within which group of commonly abused drugs does cross-tolerance exist?

Select one:

  1. Marijuana
  2. Phencyclidine
  3. Psychomotor stimulants
  4. Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) Correct

 

  1. Identify a difference between muscarinic receptors and nicotinic-muscle (Nm) receptors.

Select one:

  1. Muscarinic receptors interact and bind with acetylcholine, whereas Nm receptors interact and bind with dopamine.
  2. Muscarinic receptors are located at parasympathetic postganglionic nerve endings, whereas Nm receptors are located at the neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscles. Correct
  3. Muscarinic receptors are cholinergic receptors, whereas Nm receptors are adrenergic receptors.
  4. Muscarinic receptors are blocked by the same class of drugs that block nicotinic-neural receptors, whereas Nm receptors are blocked by the same class of drugs that block alpha and beta receptors.

 

  1. Compare the effects of monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) and tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) on norepinephrine and serotonin.

Select one:

  1. MAOIs increase the levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in the brain, and TCAs decrease the levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in the neuronal nerve endings.
  2. MAOIs increase the levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in the neuronal nerve endings, and TCAs increase the levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in the brain.
  3. Both MAOIs and TCAs increase the levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in the brain. Correct
  4. Both MAOIs and TCAs increase the levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in the neuronal nerve endings.

 

  1. Despite the risks of developing serious adverse effects, a drug that is used to treat partial seizures in patients who do not respond to other drugs is _____.

Select one:

  1. gabapentin (Neurontin)
  2. topiramate (Topamax)
  3. felbamate (Felbatol)
  4. valproic acid (Depakene)

 

Liberty University BUSI 330 Discussion Board Forum 4 thread paper writing solution

Principles of Marketing DB4 thread

You can choose it from many different papers.

Plagiarism Free

 

Note: The Discussion Board Forum assignment this week is taken from chapter 16 of the text, a short chapter detailing Social Media sites. There is no video associated with this assignment.

Social Media is revolutionizing the way we communicate with one another. It also is becoming a medium of choice in the way that companies advertise. Provide a comprehensive response for each of following questions:

• How did social media begin, and how has it found so much favor in such a short period of time?
• Compare and contrast Facebook, Twitter, LinkedIn, and YouTube, describing each in your own words (no citations from the text). Describe and provide an example of each.
• How is a social media chosen and integrated into a marketing plan. How is the effectiveness of the use of social media measured?

“I know, my God, that you examine our hearts and rejoice when you find integrity there.” (1 Chron. 29:17 NLT) Explain our responsibility as Christians to be wholesome, truthful, and with good intent when serving the needs of others in personal or business matters.

Your thread is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Friday of Module/Week 7 and your 2 replies are due by 11:59 PM (ET) on Monday of the same module/week.

Quiz 6. ECON 213 Problem Set ch. 9 Liberty University

 

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

 

The total cost of Mr. Plow, a snow-removal business, is given in the table below. What is the total profit of cleaning five driveways if the price Mr. Plow can charge is $10 per driveway?

The firm is making an economic profit at

The firm is breaking even (making zero profit) at

The firm is experiencing an economic loss at

A firm is experiencing a loss of $5,000 per year. The firm has fixed costs of $8,000 per year

(a) The firm should in the short run.

(b) The firm should in the long run.

Suppose you are the owner of a firm producing jelly beans. Your production costs are shown in the table.

Initially, you produce 100 boxes of jelly beans per time period. Then a new customer calls and places an additional order for jelly beans, requiring you to increase your output to 101 boxes. She offers you $1.75 for the additional box. Should you produce it?

The graph shows the cost curves of a firm in a competitive industry. The market price is $4. In the short run, the firm should

The graph shows the cost curves of a firm in a competitive industry. Assume that all firms in the industry have identical cost curves. The price in this market in the long run is

The graph below shows a particular firm’s marginal revenue (MR), marginal cost (MC), and average total cost (ATC) curves, where the market is competitive. Suppose that a new management team is brought in and that this team is initially less concerned about maximizingprofits than it is simply about making a profit. What range of production quantities will allow the firm to operate while earning a profit? Give your answer by dragging the Qmin to Qmax lines into their correct positions. The output will need to lie somewhere betwen those limits.

A competitive firm maximizes profit at an output level of 500 units, market price is $36.00, and ATC is $36.95. At what range of AVC values for an output level of 500 would the firm choose notto shut down in the short run?

In the short run, profits when a competitive firm shuts down are -$8050, and they are -$600 when the firm continues to produce. This firm will minimize losses in the short run by

What are the firm’s fixed costs?

Suppose that Katy sells egg rolls. The total cost of production, based on the number of egg rolls produced, is shown in the following table.

Suppose that the price is $6. Assuming profit maximization, how many egg rolls will Katy sell?

The graph below shows a particular firm’s marginal revenue (MR), marginal cost (MC), and average total cost (ATC) curves, where the market is competitive. Management wants to adjust the production output quantity to maximize the firm’s profits. What quantity should the firm aim for? Give your answer by dragging the Q line to a new position to mark the quantity at which profit is as large as possible.

The graph below shows the marginal cost (MC), average variable cost (AVC), and average total cost (ATC) curves for a firm in a competitive market. These curves imply a short-run supply curvethat has two distinct parts. One part, not shown, lies along the vertical axis (quantity = 0); this represents a condition of production shutdown. Where is the other part? Use the straight-line tool to draw it.

 

Quiz 7. SOCS 325 MIDTERM EXAM. QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS. GRADED A.1. Question : (TCO 1) Climatologists continue to debate global warming. Which of the following is NOT an argument against the global warming hypothesis? Student Answer: Climate variations are normal, cyclical processes. The sun may be putting out more radiation then in the measurable past. Sunspot activity demonstrates cyclical patterns of activity. Average temperatures world

 

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Accounting Questions – Get Expert Solutions at Homeworknest.com in 5 hours!

Quiz 1.

Analyzing the Airline Industry C 3. Divide into groups. Assume your group is analyzing the fate of the larger airlines, such as United and American. You have the following information: a. Between 1999 and now, the long-term debt, including lease obligations, of the largest airlines more than doubled. b. The price of fuel has increased by one-third. c. Passenger loads are only now getting back to pre-9/11 levels. d. Severe price competition from discount airlines exists. Identify the ratios that you consider most important to consider in assessing the future of the large airlines and discuss the effect of each of the above factors on the ratios. Be prepared to present all or part of your findings in class.

Quiz 2.

Using Investors’ Services C 2. Go to the website for Moody’s Investors Service. Click on “ratings,” which will show revisions of debt ratings issued by Moody’s in the past few days. Choose a rating that has been upgraded or downgraded and read the short press announcement related to it. What reasons does Moody’s give for the change in rating? What is Moody’s assessment of the future of the company or institution? What financial performance measures are mentioned in the article? Summarize your findings and be prepared to share them in class.

 

Quiz 3.

ffect of a One-Time Item on a Loan Decision C 5. Apple a Day, Inc., and Unforgettable Edibles, Inc. are food catering businesses that operate in the same metropolitan area. Their customers include Fortune 500 companies, regional firms, and individuals. The two firms reported similar profit margins for the current year, and both base bonuses for managers on the achievement of a target profit margin and return on equity. Each firm has submitted a loan request to you, a loan officer for City National Bank. They have provided you with the following information:

 

Quiz 4.

Comparison of International Companies’ Operating Cycles C 4. Ratio analysis enables one to compare the performance of companies whose financial statements are presented in different currencies. Selected data from 2006 for two large pharmaceutical companies—one American, Pfizer, Inc., and one Swiss, Roche—are presented next (in millions).15

For each company, calculate the receivable turnover, days’ sales uncollected, inventory turnover, days’ inventory on hand, payables turnover, and days’ payable. Then determine the operating cycle and days of financing required for each company. (Accounts receivable in 2005 were $9,103 for Pfizer and SF7,698 for Roche. Inventories in 2005 were $5,478 for Pfizer and SF5,041 for Roche. Accounts payable in 2005 were $2,073 for Pfizer and SF2,373 for Roche.) Prepare a memo containing your analysis of the operating cycles of these companies.

 

Quiz 5.

Do you think it is acceptable to change the bonus targets for executives during the year if the year turns out to be not as successful as planned? What if an unexpected, world-shaking event occurs and has a negative effect on business, such as 9/11 had on the airline industry? What are three standards of comparison? Which of these might justify changing the bonus targets during the year?

Quiz 6.

Executive Compensation C 1. Executive compensation is often based on meeting certain targets for revenue growth, earnings, earnings per share, return on assets, or other performance measures. But what if performance is not living up to expectations? Some companies are simply changing the targets. For instance, Sun Microsystems’ proxy as quoted in the Wall Street Journal states that “due to economic challenges experienced during the last fiscal year, our earnings per share and revenues are significantly below plan. As such, the Bonus Plan was amended to reduce the target bonus to 50% of the original plan and base the target bonus solely on the third and fourth quarters.”14 Sun Microsystems was not alone. Other companies, such as AT&T Wireless, Estee Lauder, and UST, also lowered targets for executive bonuses.

Quiz 7.

Comprehensive Ratio Analysis of Two Companies P 10. Caitlin Cleary is considering an investment in the common stock of a chain of souvenir stores. She has narrowed her choice to two companies, Dover Corporation and Calais Corporation, whose income statements and balance sheets are presented here. During the year, Dover Corporation paid a total of $50,000 in dividends. The market price per share of its stock is currently $60. In comparison, Calais Corporation paid a total of $114,000 in dividends, and the current market price of its stock is $76 per share. Dover Corporation had net cash flows from operations of $271,500 and net capital expenditures of $625,000. Calais Corporation had net cash flows from operations of $492,500 and net capital expenditures of $1,050,000. Information for prior years is not readily available. Assume that all notes payable are current liabilities and all bonds payable are long-term liabilities and that there is no change in inventory.

Quiz 8.

Compare the two companies by inserting the ratio calculations from 1 through 5 in a table with the following column headings: Ratio, Name, Dover, Calais, and Company with More Favorable Ratio. Indicate in the last column which company had the more favorable ratio in each case.

 

Quiz 9.

James Smith, 45 years old, is new to your practice. This is your first

meeting with him, and you would like to ask him some questions

regarding his medication/health history. During the course of your

conversation you learn that he has a history of coronary heart

disease and is currently taking a baby aspirin each day. He takes

acetaminophen for general aches and pains. He also likes to have a

glass of wine with dinner each night and does not mind a few beers

when he is watching football. During the course of his examination

you and the dentist find two cavities, which are filled that day. Mr.

Smith is experiencing some mild pain after the procedure.

  1. What is the rationale for using acetaminophen instead of an

NSAID to treat Mr. Smith’s pain?

  1. What dose and duration of therapy should be recommended

for Mr. Smith?

  1. At what doses does hepatotoxicity occur with

acetaminophen?

  1. How can Mr. Smith avoid acetaminophen toxicity?
  2. Compare and contrast acetaminophen to aspirin in terms of

pharmacology, adverse effects, and therapeutic effects.

224

  1. What is the role of aspirin in the prevention of heart attack

or stroke?

  1. Are any dental concerns associated with low-dose aspirin

therapy?

  1. Can Mr. Smith take a drug like ibuprofen?
  2. What should be said to Mr. Smith during a counseling

session regarding acetaminophen?

 

Quiz 10.

Kellogg Company has its headquarters in Battle Creek, Michigan. The company manufactures and sells ready-to-eat breakfast cereals and convenience foods including cookies, toaster pastries, and cereal bars.

Selected data from Kellogg Company’s recent annual report follows (dollar amounts in millions).

Current Year Prior Year 2 Years Ago
Sales $14,580 $14,792 $14,197
Gross profit % 34.73 41.26 38.28
Operating profit 1,024 2,837 1,562
Net cash flow less capital expenditures 1,211 1,170 1,225
Net earnings 633 1,808 961

In its annual reports, Kellogg Company has indicated that it plans to achieve sustainability of its operating results with operating principles that emphasize profit-rich, sustainable sales growth, as well as cash flow and return on invested capital. Kellogg believes its steady earnings growth, strong cash flow, and continued investment during a multi-year period demonstrates the strength and flexibility of its business model.

Instructions

  1. Compute the percentage change in sales, operating profit, net cash flow less capital expenditures, and net earnings from year to year for the years presented.
  2. Evaluate Kellogg’s performance. Which trend seems most favorable? Which trend seems least favorable? What are the implications of these trends for Kellogg’s sustainable performance objectives? Explain.

 

 

Quiz 11.

Presented below is income statement information of the Schefter Corporation for the year ended December 31, 2021.

Sales revenue            $492,000                Cost of goods sold                 284,000
Salaries expense           80,000                 Insurance expense                  12,000
Interest revenue             6,000                 Interest expense                       4,000
Advertising expense     10,000                Income tax expense               30,000
Gain on sale of investments 8,000         Depreciation expense            20,000

Prepare the necessary closing entries at December 31, 2021.

 

 

Quiz 12.

Choose the correct.Rouge Company’s $250,000 net income for the quarter ended September 30 included the following after-tax items:
∙ A $20,000 cumulative effect loss resulting from a change in inventory valuation method made
on September 1.
∙ $0 of the $60,000 annual property taxes paid on February 1.
For the quarter ended September 30, the amount of net income that Rouge should report is
a. $235,000
b. $250,000
c. $255,000
d. $270,000

 

Quiz 13.

Analyzing profitability

Sampler Company sells two products, Sigma and Zeta, with a sales mix of 70% and 30%, respectively, Sigma has a contribution margin per unit of $26, and Zeta has a contribution margin per unit of $21. The company sold 700 total units in September. Calculate the total amount each product contributed to the coverage of fixed costs and the total contribution margin for the company.

 

Quiz 14.

 

The following are a series of unrelated situations.

  1. Halen Company’s unadjusted trial balance at December 31, 2020, included the following accounts.
Debit Credit
Accounts receivable $53,000
Allowance for doubtful accounts 4,000
Net sales $1,200,000

Halen Company estimates its bad debt expense to be 7% of gross accounts receivable. Determine its bad debt expense for 2020.

  1. An analysis and aging of Stuart Corp. accounts receivable at December 31, 2020, disclosed the following.
Amounts estimated to be uncollectible $ 180,000
Accounts receivable 1,750,000
Allowance for doubtful accounts (per books)  125,000

What is the net amount expected to be collected of Stuart’s receivables at December 31, 2020?

  1. Shore Co. provides for doubtful accounts based on 4% of gross accounts receivable, The following data are available for 2020.
Credit sales during 2020 $4,400,000
Bad debt expense 57,000
Allowance for doubtful accounts 1/1/20 17,000
Collection of accounts written off in prior years
(customer credit was reestablished)
8,000
Customer accounts written off as uncollectible
during 2020
30,000

What is the balance in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts at December 31, 2020?

  1. At the end of its first year of operations, December 31, 2020, Darden Inc. reported the following information.
Accounts receivable, net of allowance for doubtful accounts $950,000
Customer accounts written off as uncollectible during 2020 24,000
Bad debt expense for 2020 84,000

What should be the balance in accounts receivable at December 31, 2020, before subtracting the allowance for doubtful accounts?

  1. The following accounts were taken from Bullock Inc.’s trial balance at December 31, 2020.
Debit Credit
Net credit sales $750,000
Allowance for doubtful accounts $ 14,000
Accounts receivable  310,000

If doubtful accounts are 3% of accounts receivable, determine the bad debt expense to be reported for 2020.

Instructions

Answer the questions relating to each of the five independent situations as requested.

 

 

Quiz 15.

Journalizing the alternative treatment of deferred revenues

On September 1, 2018, Salem Landscaping collected $24,000 in advance from customers for landscaping services. The service revenue will be earned monthly over the 12-month period ending August 31, 2019.

Requirements

Journalize the entry on September 1 by using the alternative treatment of deferred revenues.

Record the December 31, 2018 adjusting entry.

 

Quiz 16.

Included in Outkast Company’s December 31, 2020, trial balance are the following accounts: Prepaid Rent $5,200, Debt Investments (to be held to maturity until 2023) $56,000, Unearned Fees $17,000, Land (held for investment) $39,000, and Notes Receivable (long-term) $42,000. Prepare the long-term investments section of the balance sheet.

 

Quiz 17.

Product Cost Method of Product Pricing

La Femme Accessories Inc. produces women's handbags. The cost of producing 1,100 handbags is as follows:

Direct materials $14,600
Direct labor 7,400
Factory overhead 6,400
Total manufacturing cost $28,400

The selling and administrative expenses are $28,700. The management desires a profit equal to 14% of invested assets of $498,000.

If required, round your answers to nearest whole number.\

Determine the selling price of handbags. Round your answers to nearest whole value.

Cost $per unit
Markup $per unit
Selling price $per unit

 

 

Quiz 18.

On August 3, Sonar Sales decides to establish a $275 petty cash fund to relieve the burden on Accounting.

(a) Journalize the establishment of this fund.*
(b) On August 11, the petty cash fund has receipts for mail and postage of $124.75, contributions and donations of $53.25, meals and entertainment of $63.85, and $32.75 in the ending cash balance. Journalize the replenishment of the fund.*
(c) On August 12, Sonar Sales decides to increase petty cash to $400. Journalize this transaction.*
*Refer to the Chart of Accounts for exact wording of account titles.

 

 

Quiz 19.

  1. The trend of PepsiCo’s stock price and price/earnings (P/E) ratio for the seven years shown.
  2. PepsiCo’s prospects, including developments likely to affect the company’s future.
  3. Trend Analysis E 7. Using 2006 as the base year, prepare a trend analysis of the following data, and tell whether the situation shown by the trends is favorable or unfavorable. (Round your answers to one decimal place.)

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Quiz 20.

On June 1, Guitar Magazine collected cash of $51,000 on future annual subscriptions starting on July 1.

Requirements

  1. Journalize the transaction to record the collection of cash on June 1.
  2. Journalize the transaction required at December 31, the magazine’s year-end, assuming no revenue earned has been recorded. (Round adjustment to the nearest whole dollar.)

 

 

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Quiz 1.

Administrative assistant

The appraisee is the administrative assistant in the marketing department of a large university business

school. The marketing department is responsible for the preparation of marketing plans, production of marketing information and materials and the arrangement of open days and ‘drop in’ events for potential students. In order to keep informed of what is happening in the sector there is a need to amass a variety of information from a range of sources to ensure that they can keep the business school on track in filling its courses. The administrative assistant is responsible for collecting articles and press comments on the particular business school, as well as relevant business education articles and information from competitors in the a meaningful assessment. Organisations structured in teams may be more able to introduce effective peer assessment and this can be formalised through an open discussion forum. Upward appraisal includes the views of those employees who report to the appraise and can be an important dimension of management development. It operates by inviting assessment by the manager’s employees as part of the performance management process. The assessment can relate to managerial style and effectiveness, rather than the achievement of organisational objectives and is most commonly undertaken through the completion and submission of appraisal process documents or, alternatively, as part of an employee attitude survey. These results are analysed and returned to the manager and can provide a forum for discussion as well as encourage a problemsolving approach to management development. Upward appraisal may be threatening for a manager and uncomfortable for subordinate appraisers. Although comments may or may not be individually identifiable, upward appraisal may be effective in an organisation which has an open and supportive culture and which encourages participation as a legitimate element in employee and management development.

Multi-rater appraisal or 360-degree feedback is a way of limiting the effect of the one-dimensional approach of the top-down schemes and building on the positive aspects of peer and upward appraisal. Multi-rater appraisers include peers, subordinates, internal and external customers and the manager. The aim is to achieve a broader view of employee performance. It can dilute subjectivity, increase customer focus, support team initiatives, decrease the hierarchical approach and provide greater employee involvement. The use of 360-degree feedback may be more suited to contemporary organisational structures, especially flatter structures, where the span of control may be such that it is difficult for managers to appraise the increased number of employees reporting directly to them. An important dimension of 360-degree feedback is it can improve validity and encourage self-awareness, thereby providing the basis for improved performance (Leopold, 2002; Fletcher, 2004; Marchington and Wilkinson, 2008). HE sector. Therefore, she keeps an eye on everything that could be of interest to senior management of the school. The appraisee has to check local and national press as well as keeping a watchful eye on relevant international press. She has to collect these articles and circulate them to senior managers, compile statistics in response to queries from the dean and heads of departments and compile a pack of information for the monthly executive board meeting.

The appraisee, who has been in post for 9 months, began well but recently her manager has the feeling that she is not progressing as expected. The initial enthusiasm that she showed when she joined the

department from university is no longer apparent, although her work rate and the hours she puts into the job are generally above average. She has missed some important articles in the past three months and she has required help from others in the department twice in the past three months, to ensure that the pack was not late for the executive board. However, she has received increasing praise from the dean and the heads of departments who are impressed with the accuracy and timeliness of the statistical reports she produces for them. Assess the performance of the administrative assistant using for following ratings:

1 Outstanding – significantly exceeds the requirements for the job

2 Very Good – above the requirements for the job in all key areas

3 Acceptable – performance in key areas in an acceptable range

4 Improvement needed – performance in some key areas below the acceptable range and needs to improve to meet the job requirements

5 Poor – significantly below the job requirements.

Questions

1 Record your rating and justify your decision by providing supporting evidence. You may make assumptions that are reasonable within the context of this case and your assumptions must also be recorded.

2 What actions must the administrative assistant take to improve her rating? Translate these actions into SMART or CASE objectives.

 

 

Quiz 2.

  1. Do some research on male versus female conflict handling styles. Provide a two- to three-page summary of what you’ve found. Here are two guiding questions: Do women and men handle conflict differently? If so, what are the implications of your findings for supervisors? 2.Develop a paper arguing the pros and cons of the employment-at-will doctrine from the

supervisor’s perspective. After presenting both sides of the issue, select the side you support and describe why.

  1. How can conflict benefit an organization? 2. What is conflict management? 3. When should you avoid conflict? When should you seek compromise? 4. What is a devil’s advocate? How does a devil’s advocate produce conflict in a department? 5. Can an organization be free of politics? Explain. 6. How do you assess another person’s power in an organization?
  2. Identify and describe the characteristics of intercultural conflict. 2. Define interpersonal conflict and its characteristics. 3. Identify five different types of conflict. 4. List the basic principles of nonviolence. 5. Suggest some ways in which cultures differ in their views

toward conflict. 6. Understand how people come by their conflict strategies.

 

1.Explain the importance of “nonmainstream” histories and their relation to cultural identities. Explain why it is necessary to recover nonmainstream histories. 2. Understand the role of narratives in understanding various histories. 3. Understand the importance of history in contemporary intercultural relations. 4. Explain how diasporic histories influence intercultural

interactions.

 

Quiz 3.

Evaluate the role of financial benefits within total reward strategies.

  • Contribute to the development of a flexible benefits approach.
  • Appreciate the complexity of pensions and explain the principal characteristics of state, occupational and personal pensions.
  • Analyze emerging and declining reward trends.

 

 

1.“Supervisors should be concerned with helping their employees cope with both job-related stress and off-the-job stress.” Do you agree or disagree? Discuss.2.Visit OSHA’s website (www.osha.gov). Go to a page that discusses a news release on something OSHA is doing. Provide a two- to three-page summary of the news release, focusing on what OSHA

is intending to do, its effect on workers, and its effect on supervisors.

1.As supervisor, what should Cliff have done when it became apparent Sonja was overstepping her authority during the meeting with Cindy? 2. What steps do you believe Heather should take with Sonja? With Cliff? With Cindy? 3. What are the limitations, if any, to work specialization? 4. How might wider spans of control lead to cost reductions for an organization?

 

 Quiz 4.

Based on your own personal experience and perceptions of individual performance related pay (PRP),

complete the activity below, by circling a number for each statement. If practical, aggregate the results with a sample of students or work colleagues. In any event discuss your responses and findings in small groups – does a consensus emerge?

 

  1. Conduct an Internet search for articles providing data on the pros and cons of using a 360-degree performance appraisal in an organization. Summarize the articles and end the paper with your beliefs on whether 360-degree evaluations should be used in all organizations. 2. Many supervisors say that evaluating an employee’s performance is one of their most difficult

tasks. Why do you think they feel that way?

 

  1. In this study, Buslig and Ocaña found that conflicts that involved one or more of Galician’s prescriptions took longer to resolve than conflicts involving only myths. Why

do you think this is? 2. Buslig and Ocaña also found that female characters are more likely to initiate conflict with their partners than male characters, which is consistent with research in actual interpersonal relationships. Do you think the differences in conflict initiation are due to

gender, or are there other factors that might explain the difference in conflict initiation.

 

 

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Quiz 5.

Your managing director wishes to establish closer integration between business strategy and reward strategy and she wants you to prepare a concise briefing paper in which you articulate the organisational conditions necessary for performancerelated pay to be effective. What would be the content of your briefing?

 

 

If you are a consumer of your own company’s products, what jobs do you use them to get done? Where do you see them falling short of perfectly nailing your jobs, and why? Who is not consuming your products today? How do their jobs differ from those of your current customers?

 

What is the purpose of the uninoculated control tubes used in this test? Because only one uninoculated tube is sufficient to show the green color unchanged, why is it necessary to use two controls? Be specific.

Some microbiologists recommend inoculating a pair of O–F basal media (without carbohydrate) along with the carbohydrate media. Why do you think this is done?

 

 

Quiz 6.

1.What are global money management methods that reduce corporate transaction costs and taxes?

How was the deal between Bucyrus and Reliance threatened by a government agency?  2. What do you think of how Bucyrus’s CEO handled the situation?  3. Do you think governmental agencies will become more involved in business matters? Why or why not? 4. What is the purpose of accounting?

Consider Williams’ three organising principles of social policy – family, nation and work (1989). In what ways did the social evils identified by Beverage undermine the interests of the family, the nation and the workforce? How are they supported by the five outcomes of the Children Act 2004?

 

Assume you are a nurse manager on a unit where a new nursing documentation system is to be implemented

 

Quiz 7.

Getting the Project Team Back on Track

Jesse Cruz looked forward to leading his project team in his senior entrepreneurship capstone class. Professor Williams chose Jesse and four other team leaders from among those who applied for the positions. The teams are to create a plan for a new small business. Members may not change teams, though leaders can “fire” one member if that person seriously undermines the group’s efforts. At the end of the semester, each group will present its plan to a panel of business alumni who will determine which has the best chance of success and deserves the highest grade. Jesse’s team is made up of seven members (including himself). The group performed well on the first teambuilding exercises and case studies Professor Williams assigned in class. Team members were friendly with one another and willing to share their ideas, though Jesse was concerned that one member, Ralph, seemed to dominate group discussions. That initial good will dissipated quickly when the team sat down to figure out which kind of business it wants to create. Ralph and two other group members (Rose and Isaiah) are pushing to create a plan for a recreational marijuana store. They want to take advantage of the fact that voters in their state recently legalized recreational pot sales. Megan, Joyce, and Bernie have serious doubts about the proposal. They point out that the group would be selling a product banned by their university and still in violation of federal law. They worry that this type of business may be too controversial for the alumni evaluators and would lower the group’s grade. Joyce voted against the change in the marijuana law and believes that selling pot is unethical. Megan, Joyce, and Bernie have proposed a variety of alternatives, including a smartphone repair shop and bakery, but can’t seem to agree on one option. Tensions are rising as the group continues to discuss which business to pursue. Jesse’s concerns about Ralph have proven to be well founded. He comes across as a know-it-all. He declared on one occasion that those who disagreed with him were “clueless” because they didn’t understand how profitable a marijuana business could be. Ralph, Rose, and Isaiah appear more interested in having their way than in listening to their counterparts. They don’t seem to recognize how frustrated Megan, Joyce, and Bernie are. In fact, Megan appears to have given up and rarely speaks, checking her cell phone instead. Joyce hasn’t helped matters by accusing the marijuana store supporters (whom she referred to as “potheads”) of being immoral. Up to this point, Jesse has tried to remain neutral, though he has serious doubts about the marijuana business plan. He has focused on summarizing major points from both sides and encouraging members to listen to one another. He brought donuts to the last meeting in hopes of encouraging a warmer atmosphere. Jesse realizes that the group is stuck and that the entire project (as well as the semester grade in this senior-level class) is in danger. Even he as team leader doesn’t want to come to the group’s meetings anymore. While tempted to side with the marijuana business subgroup just to break the deadlock, he recognizes that members of the other subgroup may not complete their parts of the project if this plan is adopted. He needs to determine what to do before the team meets again. Time is running out.

Discussion Probes

  1. What has Jesse done right so far as a leader? What mistakes has he made?
  2. Should Jesse break the deadlock by supporting the marijuana store proposal? Why or why not?
  3. What problems do you note in the interaction between group members?
  4. What skills do members need to develop? What procedures or guidelines should they adopt?
  5. What steps should Jesse take to foster cooperation and address the unproductive and unethical communication patterns in the group?
  6. Should Jesse fire Ralph?
  7. What should be Jesse’s agenda for the next team meeting?

 

 

 

Quiz 8.

  1. Stewart Brand is credited with saying in the very early days of internet development that “Information wants to be free.” What is your interpretation of this saying? Think about it in both monetary and philosophical terms. How is the current digital environment fulfilling Brand’s statement? How is it not?
  2. Freemium-based payment models are becoming more prevalent. What do you think of freemiums? What arguments can consumers make in favor of and against freemium payments? What advantages and disadvantages do they have for the companies that use that payment model?
  3. Most, if not all, “print legacy” media companies have fully embraced digital delivery. Mobile devices provide access to the internet, but they also run apps that have specific functions or provide information for publications. Think about the difference between, for example, reading the New York Times in print form, on its website, and browsing it through its mobile app. What is different about these ways to access the New York Times’s content?

 

 

Quiz 9.

Analyse the skills and competencies that managers need in order to manage the individual redundancy encounter effectively. How can the skills be acquired in this sensitive area of managerial action? Evaluate the effectiveness of the support your organisation offers to employees who are being made redundant.

 

Advise on the termination of a contract of employment in line with relevant legislation. Contribute to the avoidance of successful claims for unfair dismissal. Describe the employment tribunal process in relation to dismissal. Critically review the redundancy policy of your organisation. How fair, effective and workable are the selection criteria identified in the policy?

 

Analyse the effectiveness of alternative selection methods for compulsory redundancy. Contribute to the development of policies for the effective management of redundancy, including the development of the managerial skills needed to handle redundancy effectively. Examine the concept of survivor syndrome and consider action necessary to rebalance the organisation post-redundancy.

Periodic surveys of unfair dismissal applications have identified the following characteristics of claims: The largest source of claims was in the distribution and hotel and catering industries. Most of the claims were from private sector employees, although the public sector share increased significantly between the surveys.

 

 

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Quiz 10.

Attend an employment tribunal which is hearing a claim of unfair dismissal. Write up your experience with reference to the legal framework of dismissal, commenting on whether:

(a) a proper procedure was followed;

(b) the employer acted reasonably in the circumstances;

(c) the employee contributed to the dismissal.

Present an executive summary of the main points to your class.

 

Read Exhibit 18.3 and discuss why the burden of proof is different under criminal and employment law. What implications does this have for the way that dismissals are handled by managers? Are there any cases of condoned dishonest acts in your organisation? How did they come into being? Do they warrant dismissal? How could they be prevented or stopped?

 

 

 

 

 

Quiz 11.

 

Critically evaluate the role of the HR specialist in matters of employee discipline in several organisations and explain any similarities or differences. What are the arguments for having a grievance procedure and what are the key professional and ethical characteristics of an effective grievance procedure?

 

Identify the employee involvement practices used in your organisation. For what reasons do you believe they have been introduced? Are they effective? Should the legal requirement for employers to recognise a trade union if a majority of employees are in favour be retained, abolished or amended? Give reasons for your view.

 

Undertake an analysis of the way in which pay increases are determined within your organisation. If trade unions are recognised, the analysis should cover the levels at which agreements are made, the different bargaining units and agents that are involved, and how the pay of non-union employees is determined. If the organisation is non-union, the analysis should focus on the criteria and means that are used to decide the level of pay increases and the extent to which employees are able to individually negotiate their pay increases.

 

 

Quiz 12.

 

What would you look for in your organisation (or one with which you are familiar) to identify whether it has a well-being strategy? How might this strategy be operationalised and how might its effectiveness be monitored? Using the HSE stress management standards, discuss the main sources of stress for particular jobs in your organisation. What are the implications of these organisational stressors for the individual and for organisational effectiveness and how can management respond effectively?

 

How can the impact of strategic HRD be evaluated? Giving organisational examples explain what information is required and how data should be analysed and findings communicated. Compare and contrast knowledge management and human capital management. What are the similarities and what are the differences?

 

 

For your organisation (or an organisation where you are able to get access) use the HSE four-stage process to critically review the management of violence in the workplace. What conclusions can you draw from your review and what recommendations would you make to ensure compliance with the legislative responsibilities?

 

 

Quiz 13.

Central Bar: workplace violence

Central Bar is an independent bar located in the centre of a large university city in the UK. It is a popular bar with students and is always full and very busy on Friday, Saturday and Sunday nights. Isabella has been working there for three months and despite always being very busy she generally enjoys the work. A couple of weeks ago she felt very threatened when a male customer started to shout abuse at her because he had to wait to get his drinks. She reported this to her manager and told him that she felt frightened by the incident. A few days later another incident happened when a customer pulled her around when she was walking back to the bar, to complain because he had been waiting a long time. Again, she reported this to her manager, expressing her concerns about the situation. The manager said that this was bound to happen in a busy bar and that she should learn to deal with it. Isabella has had little training except on the range of drinks sold, taking and handling money and issues such as time-keeping and general duties. She speaks to her manager and at this meeting she asks to see the risk assessment and the procedures which are in place for the protection of the employees. The manager brings out a health and safety policy which was written two years previously and he talks this through with her. There has been no risk assessment done for over a year and there is no mention of harassment by customers. The manager agrees to review the policy and to meet with employees within two weeks. Two weeks later he shows employees the actions he recommends. These include:

  • A policy on barring customers who threaten employees
  • Clear employee guidelines on refusing drinks to customers who are considered to be a threat
  • The introduction of door staff at certain times of the year when they are very busy
  • CCTV cameras will be installed to allow better visibility of all areas of the bar

Questions

1 Do these actions fulfil the legal requirements of the bar owner?

2 Analyse the actions recommended by the Health and Safety Executive in Managing work-related violence in licensed and retail premises (2008b, www.hse.gov.uk/pubns/indg423.pdf) to manage work related violence and detail the further actions you recommend should be taken to provide a safe and healthy workplace for the Central Bar employees.

 

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Quiz 14.

 

United Biscuits and the stress management standards

United Biscuits decided to manage stress using the management standards in order:

To address the increase in reported ‘stress’ cases during the period 2003–2005.

  • To introduce preventive measures to tackle work-related stress with a view to reducing litigation.
  • To take responsibility and care for the well-being of employees.

 

Apply the legislative framework, and in particular the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974 and the Health and Safety Regulations 1992 (consolidated in ERA 1996 and MHSW Regulations 1999), which implemented EU Directives. Contribute to the creation of an active and positive health and safety Culture.

 

Assess the significance of human resource development (HRD) for individual and organisational performance and change. Evaluate the systematic approach for identifying and responding to learning and development needs. Assess different approaches to HRD strategy formulation

 

 

 

 

Quiz 15.

 

 

 

Health and safety in Cobras department store

A year ago you were appointed by the store director as the competent person responsible for assisting with health and safety in the Cobras department store. The store has a turnover of £30 million per annum and a staffing establishment of around 400. This case relates to the general services, warehousing and maintenance (GSWM) department. There are 50 staff in the GSWM department who undertake work associated with cleaning, general maintenance and repairs, transport and storage of goods and store security. The GSWM working environment contains many hazards and is characterised by significant risks to health and safety.

The GSWM department has traditionally had a poor health and safety record. The demands of supporting customer-focused sales departments have resulted in health and safety concerns being subordinated to operational demands. There is a carefree and fatalistic attitude towards health and safety among the staff, which is evident from high accident, injury and absence rates. Other problems include:

  • unsafe manual handling
  • irregular use of personal protective equipment
  • untidy working areas
  • poor storage of goods.

 

Quiz 16.

Critically evaluate the impact of the following national initiatives as a way of redressing the UK’s skills gap: Train to Gain, Skills Pledge, apprenticeships, raising of the education leaving age.

Recognise that prescriptive legislative approaches have been found wanting and the health and safety focus has shifted to ascribing employee and employer duties and responsibilities.

 

What is the distinction between manager training, manager development and management development? What are the challenges of integrating work-based and off-the-job forms of management development and what can be done to meet the challenges? Explain the perceived tension between the performance imperative and employee health and safety at work.

 

Critically discuss the extent to which the processes in the systematic training cycle are carried out in your organisation. Which stages in the cycle receive most attention and which receive least? What are the limitations of the systematic training cycle as a framework for practice?

 

 

 

 

Quiz 17.

SPS Research: HRD strategy of ‘build not buy’

SPS Research is a leading provider of independent credit ratings, indices, risk evaluation, investment research, data and valuations services. As part of an organisational refocusing process a ‘people strategy’ was launched that gave more responsibility to line managers for HRM and HRD processes. The HR strategy comprised three main strands: a ‘build not buy’ approach to recruitment and development; performance management, and rewards; all of which were linked to the wider business strategy and to a number of organisational performance outcome targets. A number of interrelated policies were needed to achieve these requirements. First, the HR strategy targeted inexperienced yet skilled staff in recruitment and selection processes. Line managers were then encouraged to be actively involved in providing opportunities for their ‘fast track’ development through work-based learning opportunities such as job placement, job design and job rotation of team members and identifying where attendance at formal training courses was necessary. Individual employees were also expected to be responsible for the self-management of their own development and to ensure that they gained maximum benefit from the work-based development opportunities that were provided for them. In this way a ‘build not buy’ HRD approach was adopted. Training, learning and development throughout the organisation was also seen as a fundamental part of HR strategy. A highly experienced HR director led the functional team with the remit of ensuring that line managers’ development was prioritised as a key feature of the support of HRD processes. The incentive for everyone involved in the HR strategy was success in a highly competitive business environment; the perpetuation of an enviable reputation for excellence and the development of hard to copy ‘people capabilities’ able to sustain the competitive advantage that SPS had built up over the years.

Questions

Discuss the extent to which the ‘build not buy’ approach would be effective in your organisation.

What HRD resources would need to be in place?

 

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Quiz 18.

LSC Clothing: four stages of the training cycle

LSC Clothing is a manufacturer of leading brand casual wear employing almost 4000 people across 25 countries with products that can be found in retail outlets across the world. In 2005 concerns were raised by senior managers about inconsistent sales performance within the sales division. It was recognised and accepted within the division that a step change in effectiveness was needed but opinions differed about the nature of the current performance problems. The learning and development team set out to undertake a detailed learning needs analysis process relating to the sales process which incorporated a range of different forms of information from different stakeholders. The use of a systematic diagnostic process meant that the organisation could get a consistent view of the current capability gap. The learning needs analysis process provided the foundation for the learning and development team to develop a tailored training and development programme for the salesforce focused on the basic principles of good selling within the LSC Clothing business model. Four ‘Sales in LSC’ training modules were developed in partnership with sales executives over a period of 12 months. Each module focused on one ‘phase’ of the LSC sales cycle. The initial courses were delivered by a specialist sales training organisation in collaboration with local sales directors from the different country groups. Those who had participated were then responsible for cascading the modules in their own locations. Each of the different modules was scheduled to occur at times when they would be most relevant to the LSC sales cycle to ensure that what had been learned could be applied directly and so become embedded into ongoing sales practices. Effective learning programmes rely on the involvement and support of top managers at all stages of the systematic learning cycle and the learning and development team ensured top level management involvement by asking sales directors to devise and introduce a ‘dashboard of key metrics’; figures that would assess sales effectiveness and sales skills and would feed directly into the training evaluation process. In addition senior managers (not learning and development specialists) conducted a series of telephone interviews with a sample of the sales staff to find out what participants had found useful about the training, which of the tools they were using and how the training process might be improved.

Questions

1 Critically comment on the effectiveness of the LSC Clothing approach.

2 How could the effectiveness of the sales training be evaluated?

 

 

Quiz 19.

The CIPD survey (2008a) of management practice in dealing with employee absence reported the finding that around 27 per cent cite ‘other absences not due to genuine ill health’ as a cause of short-term absence. Clearly, this is a perception and the reality is difficult to verify, but the implication is that a substantial proportion of sick absence is not genuine. Make your own assessment of this finding – is it the case that 27 per cent of absence involves dishonest intent? What does this mean? What can be done about it?

In small groups critically review examples of individual performance objectives; what objective measures would you use to assess performance against these objectives? Critically examine the process for collecting sick absence information in your organisation. How effective is it in capturing accurate, timely and reliable data?

 

The directorate of your organisation is considering the introduction of flexible benefits for all employees and is seeking your advice. What advice would you give, first, about the added-value business advantages of flexible benefits and, second, about the feasibility, design and implementation of an

appropriate flexible benefits scheme?

 

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Quiz 20.

 

 

Managing absence and attendance: comparative strategies

Reducing unplanned leave of absence at a major supermarket

Each employee is to be given three extra days of paid leave each year, but sick pay will not be paid for the first three days of any illness, regardless of whether the illness is genuine or not. Shopping voucher

incentives will be given to employees who have zero unplanned absence in a year. The HR manager has

stated that ‘the aim of the scheme is to reduce absence which affects the level of customer service and increases the pressure on the employees who have to cover extra work. The aim is to encourage employees to plan absence and although we do not want to penalise genuinely ill employees, we do want to discourage employees from taking regular days off.’ The HR manager provides reassurance that the organisation will be sympathetic to reasonable employee requests for time off for family or domestic matters to avoid employees feeling they have to claim to be sick to attend to pressing personal matters. The scheme has the tentative support of USDAW, although they are less happy about the lack of sick pay for the first three days of sick absence.

Managing absence at a UK train operator

Managers are reluctant to appear heavy-handed and want to maintain good relations with the recognized trade union. It was recognised that there were deficits in accurate sick absence data and in management capability to manage sick absence. In particular there was a lack of understanding of the purpose of return-to-work interviews and therefore they were rarely undertaken. Absence management was perceived by line managers, who were intensely financially focused, as not their problem and expected HR to deal with it. The response of the organisation was to ensure the accuracy and reliability of the data, to produce a league table which was made available to managers and employees and to introduce a ‘One of our team is missing’ training programme to raise individual awareness of the impact of sick absence on the rest of the team. Other initiatives included enabling easier access to occupational health professionals, setting up a joint management and trade union ‘Sickness and release group’ to focus on preventive measures and setting targets of a reduction in sick absence from 9 to 7 per cent for on-train employees and from 5 to 4 per cent for station-based employees.

Questions

1 Discuss these two approaches to managing absence and attendance and identify the management challenges associated with them.

2 Evaluate the extent to which each approach is likely to reduce the frequency and/or volume of sick absence.

 

 

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