Tips on how to write an Essay on Family

Question 181 A Blue Glass Face Inlay of King Akhenaten

This is a reading response assignment that requires 2 pages in the Chicago Manual Style. The paper should include a summary and critique. I am not trying to get an A on this assignment. I would like it to look like I wrote it so I’ll need someone to give it about 80% instead of 100%. Another person took the job and left me high and dry after informing them I needed the assignment (8 hours after purchase) ..

Question 182 Document Response

To what extent were Arthur Woodley’s and John Kerry’s experiences in Vietnam consistent with the goals of American policy as described by Kennedy and McNamara? Would Kennedy and McNamara have considered Woodley and Kerry model soldiers? Would Heinl have considered them model soldiers? Explain your answers. (Chapter 29, Reading the American Past)

Question 183 Explain the major aims and identify some of the most important programs associated with the New Deal.

Part I: Short Answer: Answer the following questions in two paragraphs per question. 1. Explain the major aims and identify some of the most important programs associated with the New Deal. 2. Why was the United States so reluctant to get involved in World War II? 3. What was the impact of World War II on American society? 4. Explain the motives and aims of the U.S. policy of “containment.” 5. Describe the “six-pronged” defensive strategy developed during the Truman era. 6. How did U.S. involvement in Guatemala, Cuba, and Iran (in the 1950’s) reflect Eisenhower’s “New Look” in American foreign policy? 7. What key factors contributed to the period of prosperity in the 1950’s? 8. Describe and explain the increase in religious participation in America in the 1950’s. 9. Describe and analyze the aims and key programs in Johnson’s “Great Society.” 10. Briefly explain why it was so difficult for three American presidents–Kennedy, Johnson, and Nixon–to withdraw from Vietnam, even though they all claimed to want to get out. 11. Explain America’s “move to the right” at the end of the 20th century. 12. Explain the Watergate scandal. What events led to it? Why did it lead to Nixon’s resignation? 13. What were the costs and benefits of globalization to the United States in the 1990’s and early 2000’s? 14. What impact did the terrorist attacks on September 11, 2001 have on U.S. foreign and domestic policies? 15. What was Obama’s reform agenda, and what obstacles stood in the way of that agenda? Part II: Essay Answer each in an essay of 4-6 paragraphs. A. Write an essay in which you describe, analyze, and evaluate the struggle for civil rights since World War II. You should have a thesis that reflects your evaluation of the situation during this era, and should support that thesis with numerous details and examples from assigned readings. B. Write an essay in which you explain and analyze the significance of the Vietnam War in American life and history. In doing so, you should have a clear thesis and support that thesis with specific examples from the assigned readings. C. Write an essay in which you describe, how and why has America changed since 1865 in terms of equal rights, economic problems/issues, foreign policy, and/or culture?

Question 184 Civil Rights Matrix

Complete the Civil Rights Matrix by summarizing and stating the significance of each of the “snapshots” in the pursuit of Civil Rights in America. Be sure to use sources contained in the topic/course materials and/or from your instructor to complete the assignment. This assignment uses a scoring guide. Please review the scoring guide prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion. While GCU style format is not required for the body of this assignment, solid academic writing is expected, and in-text citations and references should be presented using GCU documentation guidelines, which can be found in the GCU Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. You are not required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite.

Question 185 The Journey of Man by Dr. Spencer Wells

The Journey of Man by Dr. Spencer Wells This is a YouTube video that provides updated explanations of human development. This primary source documentary includes interactive timelines of the migration of early people that is well detailed and presents a great deal of information on human DNA. Students are to view this documentary in its entirety and answer the following question in Forum discussion. Discuss how does this documentary enhance your understanding of the debate between the ideas of creation and evolution. Provide examples from the documentary to help support your answer.

Question 186 Multicultural Curriculum Design

I need this assignment by 8 am May 1st Items need 2 page report Plus powerpoint including everything I should say in the video I already have selected a a topic and I have an outline! Look at the lesson plan to help you type the 2 page paper Its 2 page report plus I would need you to do a Powerpoint because I have to make a video explaining everything like how I made changes to the originally lesson plan! The powerpoint should tell me everything I need to say on the video. Like, how I demonstrated how I used the revised curriculum. and how I plan to teach the new curriculum to my class. Look below for teach instructions Curriculum Design You will take an existing curriculum unit or a professional development activity and create a new and improved unit or activity that embeds multicultural perspectives. The curriculum activity you choose should be already established and documented (online or via hard copy) because the original will be submitted along with the revised multicultural document. You should clearly identify within the report a minimum of 8-10 examples of Bank’s levels of multicultural curriculum reform. You will be asked to submit on video tape a portion of this unit that you have presented to a class (8-10 minutes) to demonstrate how you used the revised curriculum. All reports need to include an APPENDIX section that includes the following items: 1. Lesson plans 2. Resources 3. Visuals 4. Activities that you would use. Its 2 page report plus I would need you to do a Powerpoint because I have to make a video and the powerpoint just needs to tell me what to say and how I demonstrated how you used the revised curriculum…

Question 187 Consider the various needs of the students in your respective classrooms

Instructions Complete a differentiation chart for your classroom. Consider the various needs of the students in your respective classrooms. Using the course material and readings, show how you can apply the following strategies to your classroom to address the various learning needs within that classroom. (You will probably not have specifics on student interests or styles but you can generically incorporate activities that students can connect their interest and a variety of learning styles to the curricular content. Plan for students who are more visual learners, auditory learners, tactile, kinesthetic and those who require multimodal approaches.) The first column should have the type of differentiation. Then in column 2, state the subject you will use the specific strategy in. The third column, describe how you will use this strategy. In the last column, consider how you will group students for each strategy. Some strategies may be large group, small group, or even one-on-one. Compacting Tiered Assignments Independent Study Contracts Learning Centers Choice boards Adjusting questions (be sure and write comprehension questions according to Bloom’s taxonomy) Flexible Grouping Pre-teaching Re-teaching Response to Intervention Make sure to add a title page, reference page, and in-text citations.

Question 188 Early Childhood Education

Reflecting on the need to communicate the numerous critical and time sensitive issues in Early Childhood Education, what do you: Propose is the most timely and important Suggest is the best method(s) for informing and maintaining informational access to the public and policy makers (identify your audience) on the issue(s) Identify as your strengths to now engage in such work Perceive to still be weakness(es) that may hinder you work. How will you navigate and succeed regardless of said limitation(s). Respond in a professionally written 2-3 page paper

Question 189 What to you were the most surprising myths about the “poor

What changes or trends have you observed or reviewed in your readings that might confirm the growing diversity of young children who attend early childhood programs? How have individuals in you community responded to these changes? Identify the best methods for educating ELL students to high achievement levels. What to you were the most surprising myths about the “poor”?

Question 190 Describe the affects of poverty on brain development

Describe the affects of poverty on brain development? What are the basic tenets in the promotion of resiliency? Why are the early years particularly important for all children in the areas of longterm learning and developmental outcomes?

Question 191 community engagement

The book review you write should be academic (likely with references to a few other sources – 3 is fine) and it should include some description of the book, an analysis of the content and an overall evaluation of how and why the book contributes to the field or participatory learning, research, theory, facilitation, and community engagement. You might also consider doing some of the required course reading in advance and then use some of that reading to compare the text with other topics that are related. For example, I suggest reading the first two chapters in Pedagogy of the Oppressed by Paulo Friere as they apply to all of the books considered as texts. Finally, what do you consider strengths and weaknesses in the book, key learnings, and what does the book say or not say about participation, popular education, dialogue or other key concepts in participatory realms of thinking and doing (or ideas linked to community engagement and adult learning). More generally, the book review is a critique of why you would or would not recommend this book based on the content, writing, theory and ideas presented. Reviews should explain and critique why the book is or is not significant in the given topic. The review will be evaluated based on the above criteria, clarity of writing style, proper formatting, grammar, use of APA style, and your critical analysis of the content. Proofread carefully. The review should be 1000-1250 words max. (12 pt font in times new roman with 1 inch margins). Use APA style (6th Ed). All instructions I received from my prof. Plz check carefully and I attached book too for your review. If your review will be good, I will offer you my others assignments too

Question 192 How does the current research and thinking about race labels impact how you think about and define race, skin color differences, and racism

How does the current research and thinking about race labels impact how you think about and define race, skin color differences, and racism? Identify examples of institutional racism. Discuss the implications of instructional racism on children’s development on family functioning and on society in general.

Question 193 Education

  1. Specifically, discuss the emotional impact on the parent(s) when children develop proficiency that they themselves do not have. 2. Specifically, how will you minimize the barrier of parent’s limited English proficiency? (Remember not every ELL parent speaks Spanish. Therefore, a Spanish interpreter is not a solve all solution and is difficult to find interpreters in all languages) 3. Specifically, how will you minimize the barrier of a parent’s limited educational background? 4. Specifically, how will you minimize the mismatch between school culture and home culture? 5. Specifically, how will you work to minimize the logistical issue barriers (work hours, transportation, etc) to maximize parent involvement?

Question 194 High Quality Preschool experiences have the potential of closing the achievement gap for at risk children when they include what components

  1. High Quality Preschool experiences have the potential of closing the achievement gap for at risk children when they include what components? 2. Describe the messages that media (television, movies, magazines, newspapers, Internet) convey about people living with limited incomes or within the poverty threshold. Identify at least five specific examples examples which demonstrate those messages. 3. What is the importance of resiliency? Give an example of how you have been resilient?

Question 195 Lesson Plan Analysis

【Actually this EDUCATION assignment is due July.4. It is a bit urgent. Take this order if you are confident to complete it on time in a satisfactory quality.】 ————————————————————————– This assignment has Part I and Part II. Part I is a 2-page lesson plan, using the provided template. Part II is an analytic paper that should be 1,000 words (+/-10%) not including references. 【Detailed Instructions for this assignment are in the attachment files, which I will provide you in our message box for convenience. 】 Read them carefully

Question 196 create a Newletter

Parent Newsletter: Based on the classroom you observed, develop a newsletter for that parent population. The newsletter should cover the current learning objectives and/or activities taking place in the class or camp, inform parents about how to help with the class or camp, reminders about what their child needs to do or bring, and upcoming events such as field trips or splash days. The newsletter must include information about how to contact the teacher with questions or in an emergency (phone, email, or text), increase family awareness of the daily routines and activities of the class, and how to request a parent-teacher conference, or if there is already a schedule for conferences established. Be creative and welcoming, design your newsletter in the way you think parents would be interested in reading it and that gives them suggestions for increasing their involvement/engagement with the class. Use the material from the readings about communicating with families as you develop the newsletter to make it relevant. The Parent Newsletter should be developed with correct spelling and format, using pictures or graphics to make it appealing, and most importantly,provide timely and relevant information for families who are the intended audience. After you have edited and spell checked your newsletter, save it as a PDF and submit to the Dropbox for this assignment.

Question 197 Family Involvement Plan

Family Involvement Plan: This portion of the project focuses on the generation of two reports. The first report will establish ways to assist the family in developing or maintaining a high and comfortable level of involvement in their current early childhood care/education setting. The second report will create a school/childcare plan that promotes additional involvement opportunities for all families involved in the setting. You will use your Family Interview report to assist you in developing these two plans. Each plan is to be three -five pages and provide detailed and descriptive information that specifies what the family should do and what the child care/education setting should do for all families. The purpose of both reports is to use the strategies learned in your course readings and from the interview to create an applied project that assists families and child care settings alike.

Question 199 What is Inclusive Teaching

  1. What is Inclusive Teaching? 2. How do Personal Identity and Otherness work together? How do Personal Identify and Otherness work in isolation? 3. How do educator’s experiences affect inclusion? How will your personal biases affect your role as a teacher?

Question 200 Talking With Parents Talking with parents about the struggles their child is having in class can be a difficult task for teachers and childcare professionals

Talking With Parents Talking with parents about the struggles their child is having in class can be a difficult task for teachers and childcare professionals. According to Powell and Driver (2013), “teachers and school staff can talk with parents about the possibility of their child needing to undergo an evaluation for ADHD, but the official diagnosis must come from a medical professional or clinician (i.e., medical doctor, psychiatrist, or psychologist)” (Section 5.5). Reflect on what this statement means to you. How can you talk with parents about this subject without sounding as if you are diagnosing? What advice can you provide to parents who come to you with concerns about their child without implying that a disability is present? I need this assignment done by tomorrow

Question 201 Problems Students Face

Topic: Problems that students face Type: Documented persuasive essay Purpose: To convince the reader to believe as the author does using documented evidence Sources: 7 Quoted 5 non internet 3 different magazine or journal sources Length: 3 pages 1 Bibliography page

Question 202 What new understandings have you considered in terms of knowledge about learning differences

Course Reflection Write a one- to two-page reflection that addresses the following: a.How has your own image of children with learning disabilities been affected during this class? b.What new understandings have you considered in terms of knowledge about learning differences? c.How do you see this class affecting how you will plan and implement curricula for young children? d.What is one topic you might like to research and gain new information on based on your learning in class?

Question 203 children must develop strong self-regulation skills

Regardless of a child’s unique qualities, one thing remains the same; to improve learning and behavior, children must develop strong self-regulation skills. Read the article from the National Association for the Education of Young Children (NAEYC), “Developing Young Children’s Self-Regulation Through Everyday Experiences (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site..” The marshmallow experiment is a famous test conducted by Walter Mischel at Stanford University and discussed by Daniel Goleman in his popular work. In the 1960s, a group of four-year-olds were given a marshmallow and promised another only if they could wait 20 minutes before eating the first one. Some children could wait and others could not. The researchers then followed the progress of each child into adolescence, and demonstrated that those with the ability to wait were better adjusted and more dependable (determined via surveys of their parents and teachers), and scored an average of 210 points higher on the Scholastic Aptitude Test. Read the American Psychological Association (APA) article, “Delaying Gratification (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site..” Reflect on the information in the NAEYC article, the article, and your text and explain how toddlers with better self-regulation skills are less likely to demonstrate behavior problems in preschool. Explain why these self-regulation skills are so important and how you will promote the learning of self-regulation. How will you deliberately teach self-regulation as part of everyday experience? Share an example of your own self-regulation skills that you can model for others.

Question 204 Biopoem

Part1: http://www.readwritethink.org/files/resources/lesson_images/lesson398/biopoem.pdf you have a informed perspective on Jefferson’s beliefs about education. Using information from the textbook and/or your own additional research, complete this assignment. Part 2:

Question 205 Leadership Styles

* It’s not letting me change the date, but I would need this today. You will watch two video clips this week; (1) The leadership style of General Patton from the 1970 Academy Award winning film Patton and (2) The leadership style of Colonel Lawrence Chamberlain in Gettysburg as he begins his leadership for the Union Army just prior to the Battle of Gettysburg. Patton video: Please analyze some of the transactional leadership skills of this heroic World War II leader to our quest of enhancing student learning in today’s schools. Consider Patton’s leadership strengths that could prove helpful in causing positive change in classrooms today, as well as aspects of Patton’s leadership that would not be effective or recommended in leading students today. Chamberlain video: One of Chamberlain’s first roles as a leader is to transform 120 mutineers into a fighting army. In this segment from the famed film titled Gettysburg, you will observe a revered transformational leader in action who helped change the course of American history. In a 3-4-page paper, identify the leadership style depicted in each of the video clips you viewed this week and compare/contrast the efforts made by the video leaders to develop a shared vision, establish a working relationship, and enlist others in the effort before them. Make relevant applications of these strengths to your leadership today in the classroom. In addition, please describe your thoughts about the benefits and/or disadvantages of adopting a transformational leadership style versus a transactional one. Cite information you have gleaned from your text readings. Include an APA appropriate reference page (view your APA handbook or online resources for assistance). Paper must follow APA 6th edition writing style.

Question 206 expanding

use the details from my Circle of Viewpoints document to write a post from the perspective of Thomas Jefferson, as if I was an actor portraying him in the discussion board.

Question 207 Reading Assignment

Based on Attached file- 1. Provide an Abstract of the reading between 90-100 Words; 2. Two (2) issues for discussion of your choosing based on the reading; 3. Two (2) concepts that you did not know what they meant (or that were unclear to you) with your best definition/explanation of them. 4. The reading assignment should be two and half pages

Question 208 Analyze ‘Man on the Street’ Interview Responses

take you away from the computer and into the streets (not literally). Find six people in your circle of acquaintances, colleagues, or friends, and then ask them the following questions: What kind of change have you experienced in an organization? In what way did the leaders in your organization prepare you for the change? (please be as specific as possible) How was the change communicated to the organization (i.e., suddenly, carefully planned communication)? Was there buy-in from the organization’s employees? Explain how you felt during the change. Describe your feelings after the change. What one thing would you do differently if you were leading the change? Once you have gathered the responses, analyze the answers, and then summarize your findings in a table structured in a comprehensible way that will help you convey your findings to readers. Next, create a PowerPoint, 12 powerpoint slides. Five scholarly resources, APA format. Example format inculded

Question 209 BBC Documentary Questions Assignment

Please change wording of answers for questions 6 and beyond. Respond to questions that have not been answers using same format. To answer these questions, expert must watch this documentary: http://www.dailymotion.com/video/x40jndd Lastly, write a 3-paragraph with a reflection of the documentary. NOTE: ANSWERS MUST BE DESCRIPTIVE AND WRITTEN IN FULL SENTENCES. ALL ANSWERS AND REFLECTION MUST BE AT THE UNIVERSITY LEVEL, EXPRESS CLEARLY, AND HAVE CORRECT GRAMMAR.

Question 210 Resume and Cover Letter

Using the recommendations and models presented on the websites www.susanireland.com and www.best-interview-strategies.com, develop (or update) your resume so that it is ready for your school counseling position search process. In addition to your resume, prepare a form cover letter that will serve as the template for your job search. Keep in mind that this letter will need to be modified depending on the school districts and schools to which you are applying. This document should be 4 pages in length. Job post for a cover letter: https://www.glassdoor.com/job-listing/counselor-teacherjobs-JV_IC1131270_KO0,9_KE10,21.htm?jl=2212370944

100+ Research Paper Questions and Topics for History Class

Compare and contrast the reasons why the Western Roman Empire ended in ​476 and the Eastern Roman Empire

Use twelve point type and double space. Have a cover page with the title of your review, the course number and section, your name, date submitted, your tutor’s name and the word count. Use Chicago style footnotes. Write an essay in formal academic English (800-1000 words) on ONE of these topics:

How did the environments of six Physiographic regions of Canada

Assignment Format: All assignment are to be in 12 point font with a cover page with an assignment title, your name, course code Hist 112 DE, assignment number, word count and tutor’s name (Prof. Howard Hisdal) on the bottom. Use Chicago style footnoting and include a bibliography even if the only book you used was the textbook. Send in assignments as Microsoft Word attachments.

Development of racial thinking from Europe to the Americans

Directions: 1. Listen to podcast/radio show on “The Invention of Race” at https://www.wnyc.org/story/invention-race/ A summary of the show is “Compiled by Award-winning producer John Biewen from the “Seeing White” series. The Invention of Race traces the development of racial and racist ideas from the ancient world – when there was no notion of race – up to the founding of the United States as, fundamentally, a nation of and for white people.” 2. Create a timeline of the development of racial thinking from Europe to the Americas (up to the founding of the United States). Your timeline should include the date, and a few words on each event/law/action/etc. you chose that played a role in constructing race. Your timeline should reflect the evolution of understanding or thinking about race over time.

Lois Banner’s Steel Engraving Lady

Questions: 1. How did society view women in the Romantic period? 2. What were beauty ideals of the Romantic era? How did the steel engraving lady play into the concept of Romantic beauty ideals? 3. How did the popular clothing and silhouette of this period support society’s views on attaining ideal Romantic era beauty? 4. What were some of the ways women in this period tried to achieve ideal Romantic beauty? 5. Pick a picture from current fashion magazine today, attach it to your assignment book. Can you find any similarities to Romantic beauty ideals as discussed in the reading “Steel Engraving Lady” in the current fashion image that you chose?

Historical letter writing paper

two pages of letter style paper. Analyze the primary source documents by Samuel Seabury and Thomas Paine. Imagine that somehow the two had read each other’s works and had the chance to write to each other about independence and government. You will write two letters: one from Seabury to Paine and another from Paine to Seabury. What would have been their perspectives on government? What would they have said to each other?

Digital Source Analysis

write a short (400-500 word) dialogue between Adam Smith and Karl Marx in which they analyze the opening scenes of the movie. In the dialogue that you write, you should have each theorist draw upon their own writings to answer the following questions: 1. How would each analyze the conditions in the factory and the labor that the Little Tramp performs? 2. How would each explain the interactions between the Little Tramp and his co-workers? 3. How would each explain the “feeding machine” scene? 4. Why does the main character (the Little Tramp) have a nervous breakdown? 5. What is the remedy? (or, What would bring about a better future for the Little Tramp?) Please note that the dialogue should be written as a dialogue (like in a play). For example Karl Marx: Statement Adam Smith: Response to statement

History of civilization II

  1. To what extent did the age of European expansion impact the Chinese? Who benefited more from this seaborne interaction? Explain, with examples. 2. Compare and contrast the governmental systems of British and Spanish colonies in the Americas. Why were the British colonists of North America more inclined toward independence than their Spanish American counterparts? Explain, with examples.

Primary Source 2 assignment WWI

Read Article and do three paragraphs on it based on this link https://worldwar1letters.wordpress.com/2009/06/ no longer than 450 words, but no shorter than 300. P1- Should provide the title of the source, a very brief summary of the text and say what students hope to critique-argue in P2. Students need to provide an argument-thesis driven statement. A summary alone is neither desirable nor enough to thoroughly complete the assignment. P2- Should be an analytical paragraph that provides (at least) one example from the text to support the author’s claim…ie. The slave’s story provides insight into the cruelty of the system, “insert quotation from text here.” Using direct quotations provides clarity and helps to support the author’s claims. P3- Should summarize briefly what was covered in P1 and P2 and also say something about the significance of this document for the study of world history and how it shows global interconnectivity. (How is the world connected?) Do not throw this paragraph away, put as much effort into it as P1 and P2.

Iron Jawed Angels

What to do: In this discussion, I would like you to write a post that touches on some of the following topics relating to Iron Jawed Angels (below). Make sure to incorporate specific details from the film AND specific details from lecture and readings to help back up your ideas. Anacronism: Can you think of a few examples in the film where the filmmaker took license with history? For example, where did they put in modern details, attitudes, or sensibilities to make the film resonate with a 21st century audience? (Anacronism = something, a word, object or an event, that is mistakenly paced in a time where is does not belong). We are not looking for obscure inaccuracies, just major ones that might be important when critiquing the overall value of the film. The whole story? Do you think that someone watching this movie will get an accurate depiction of how the 19th Amendment was won? Explain to reason for your answer with specific details from readings and lecture to show your knowledge . How does “Iron Jawed Angels” compare to our textbook and lecture accounts of the road to suffrage (1848-1920)? The merit of the film? What do you think is the greatest merit of the film? Are the anachronisms and limited chosen narrative outweighed by the film’s overall value? Provide specific examples to explain your answer.

Film as history. Whether we historians like it or not, many Americans get most of their ‘history’ from Hollywood films (and TV shows). These films may be inaccurate, biased toward modern sensibilities, or politically motivated. Are there dangers or advantages of using popular films to learn history? Provide specific examples to explain your answer. Discussion Directions: NOTE: This post needs to be your own work. This means: Resist the temptation to google “Iron Jawed Angels + Anachronism.” If you write some obscure details about the inaccuracy of number of stars on the American flag or incorrect door handles being used or how the wrist watches were from the wrong time period, I will be pretty sure that you looked up that information online (or else you will need to prove to me how you came to be so knowledgeable in the subject of historic door handles…). Please only use our readings and lectures this week as the basis for your discussion. Do not go online looking for additional information. One of your goals is to demonstrate that you have completed this week’s assigned materials. Also you will have to watch this lecture and give evidences from it. This is the link: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=VBsAeAz0yBQ&feature=youtu.be

Be Unrealistic and the Best of Will Smith MOTIVATION

Watch the entire “BE UNREALISTIC” (Ft. Will Smith) video: Be Unrealistic and the Best of Will Smith MOTIVATION – #MentorMeWill (Links to an external site.) Links to an external site. Be Unrealistic and the Best of Will Smith MOTIVATION – #MentorMeWill TWO PARAGRAPHS (more 350 words per paragraph) respond to the following questions (after watching the entire video). First, notice that Will Smith tells stories about his life, and what lesson he learned from that experience. Second, write a SUMMARY of some of the key points that Will Smith makes in the video. Then, select ONE STATEMENT he makes that is the most significant one. Why was it picked and explain. NO HEADER OR FOOTER, NO RESEARCH, IT IS JUST AN OPINION PAPER, A SINGLE SHEET.

How did industrialization and economic growth affect the social and the natural environments of the Western Hemisphere countries

What major political challenges faced the new nations of the Western Hemisphere in the nineteenth century, and how well did they deal with those problems?* How did industrialization and economic growth affect the social and the natural environments of the Western Hemisphere countries?*

How was Rome influenced politically, economically and culturally by this contact

500 word discussion I will provide links for the topic Discussion topic: Rome was a city. Roman History is the story of a city that encompassed the known world. A new world order came into being that lasted for a thousand years. Its main components were: Roman law, Roman ethics, Roman practicality, Roman finance, Roman rule, Roman military strength, Roman science. Seeing it in perspective, Rome as a city conquered other great city-cultures. Choose ONE of the following and respond to it in 500 words after opening a new thread in DiscussionRome came into contact, early in her History, with neighboring cultures such as the Etruscans and the Greeks of southern Italy. How was Rome influenced politically, economically and culturally by this contact? Roman writers believed that Rome became a world power out of necessity. Since early in her expansion, Rome came to be in a state of perpetual war. Are there modern parallels to be drawn from contemporary powers that dwell in a state of perpetual war? Who gained the most from Rome’s war based economy and war inspired politics? Who gains in today’s states from their war based economy and war inspired politics?

 Two Letters from Slaves to Their Former Masters

ONE paragraph (350 words minimum) based on the information read. MUST start by giving the author, title of document, and when the document was written in order to clearly cite the source of information. Who is the author (race, nationality, position)? What is the document about (summary)? What does this show about the event and time period? What was learned from reading of this story/document? MSUT use ONE DIRECT QUOTE from the document. Post TITLE of document.

Reaction paper history 2

watch these movies and write a reaction paper. First paragraph – Identifications. Second Paragraph – Analysis. Third Paragraph – Reaction. For movie analysis, analyze the historical accuracy of the film. What did they get right? What did they get wrong? How historically accurate is the film? please see the attached files

Analytical Writing Assignment

REQUIREMENTS: 12 Font, 350 words, single page, correctly identified the author, title and date of document, and information about the author, summary the document accurately, describing the main points that the author is making about the issue at hand, a direct quote from the document that will be provide is a MUST. Accurate details MUST describe the importance of the document relevant to the major issues of the time period..Again, will provide document to complete assignment.

Winston Churchill, “The Iron Curtain

Read EWC Document 29.7, Winston Churchill, “The Iron Curtain,” and write a paragraph responding to the prompt at the end. (follow the link in the Canvas Module for Week 12 to access the document) Your response to the prompt should be about a paragraph in length but no longer than a page. It should begin with an introductory sentence that responds directly and completely to the prompt. This sentence establishes your main point (that is, your argument or thesis). In about four to six additional sentences, you should present evidence to support your thesis. Present at least two pieces of concrete evidence drawn from Document 29.7. You must cite any material paraphrased from the source document with a simple parenthetical citation. You must enclose any material taken word-for-word from the source document in quotation marks and cite it with a simple parenthetical citation. See the following examples: In this famous speech, British Prime Minister Winston Church warned that the Soviet Union controlled eastern European countries liberated from Nazi Germany after the end of World War II.

(EWC 29.7, Winston Churchill, “The Iron Curtain”) In this speech, British Prime Minister Winston Churchill famously warned that “an iron curtain has descended across” Europe, and that the Soviet Union exercised an “increasing measure of control” on the countries behind it. (EWC 29.7, Winston Churchill, “The Iron Curtain”) Be sure to analyze the evidence you present by explaining why it means what you think it means. Conclude your paragraph by restating your main point (that is, your argument/thesis/direct response to the prompt) and perhaps reflecting on the broader significance of the document you’ve read. Type your response in MS Word or any similar word processing software. Proofread your essay carefully to eliminate errors in grammar, punctuation, and usage. Save the file and then upload it to Canvas. Your work will be compared with the turnitin.com database to detect plagiarism by searching for similarities with internet sources and/or the work of other students around the world.

Analytical Assignment

12 Font, 350 words, single page, writing pertains to the document that will be provided, which will require author’s name, title of document, and when the document was written in order to clearly cite the source of information. Who is the author (race, nationality, position)? What was the document about (summary)? What does this show about the event and time period? What was learned from the document? MUST use a direct quote from the document. DRAFT needed 2 days prior to due date. No research or citations needed.

Reaction paper / HIS / movies

watch these movies and write a reaction paper. First paragraph – Identifications. Second Paragraph – Analysis. Third Paragraph – Reaction. For movie analysis, analyze the historical accuracy of the film. What did they get right? What did they get wrong? How historically accurate is the film? please see the attached files

Reaction paper

watch these movies and write a reaction paper. First paragraph – Identifications. Second Paragraph – Analysis. Third Paragraph – Reaction. For movie analysis, analyze the historical accuracy of the film. What did they get right? What did they get wrong? How historically accurate is the film? please see the attached files

James Davidson, Courtesans and Fishcakes.

Intro: Ø Introduce the author Ø Introduce the book (Title, What is it about?) .Ø State author’s thesis and summarize content/arguments. III. Body: Ø Each paragraph should address different parts of the book or different arguments presented in the book. Ø This may also be in the form of arguments made about different time periods or stages within a time period. Ø Use key parts of the book (quotations/paraphrasing) to demonstrate how the author supports his or her thesis. Ø You may add your assessment (analysis/view on the author’s arguments) within each paragraph or in separate paragraphs Ø Make sure to evaluate the author’s arguments in terms of whether or not they are convincing, well researched, and logical. If the author’s work could contribute to the public’s understanding of the topic you may comment on that as well.

Ø If you choose to disagree with the author you should do so strictly on academic grounds–i.e. use a reason-based argument to counter her or his argument. IV. Conclusion Ø Evaluation of the author’s success or failure to substantiate his or her thesis with evidence and argumentation Ø Evaluation of the book’s contribution to history, the public’s knowledge of the subject, “readability” and style. Format: *Review should be 4-5 pages double-spaced; stapled at the top left hand corner at a 45-degree angle *Font 12, Times New Roman *One-inch margins on both sides *You may use Chicago, APA, or MLA style for footnotes or endnotes (Ask in the library if you don’t know what to do) *Do not enclose your paper in any type of folder *Make sure to save copies of your paper in multiple locations.

Portfolio Reflection

In this module, we’ve learned a great deal about the value of history, how learning from the past may help provide definition to our present world perspective and how studying and learning from our ancient ancestors can potentially contribute in shaping our own future. Throughout this course, we have examined various civilizations and in each one we’ve learned about a myriad of aspects that helped influence our ancestors’ capacity to act responsibly and determine their roles or abilities to contribute to society. For this reflection, you will answer the question: “What can I, as an historian of the ancient world, learn and apply from the history of my ancient ancestors to my own role in contributing to and acting responsibly for the betterment of society?” In order to answer this question effectively for your reflection you must: Pick one common theme/criteria topic (from the list below) that you think significantly influenced an individual from the ancient world to act responsibly and contribute towards society. o Technology o Politics/Bureaucracy o Law/Ethics o Arts/Sciences o Economy/Business o Education o Military/Police o Religion/Morals & Traditions Explain how at least one specific example (one individual) from at least three different civilizations covered throughout this course supports your selected theme/criteria.

(So, your essay will talk about 3 different people – each from a different civilization that we discussed.) Support each of your examples with evidence from the articles in the M13 learning module about why we study history. In total, you must reference at least three of the articles in the learning activities, Support each of your examples with evidence from the module where we discussed their civilization (So, you will reference at least 3 learning modules in your paper.) Connect how understanding the history of your ancient ancestors in the context of your selected theme/ criteria has influenced your sense of responsibility and contributing role towards the betterment of society. In other words, what have you learned from their experiences that can help you act more responsibly today? Lastly, make sure you provide proper internal citations and a properly formatted bibliography This is going into your portfolio so be sure to make sure that you have fixed all grammatical and formatting issues before submission. For your bibliography, it does NOT have to be annotated. The only sources you’ll be using will be from your readings, so you MUST include internal citations and a full, properly MLA formatted bibliography with your paper, but you don’t need to annotated the sources in your bib. Your paper must be 2-3 pages in length (NOT including your bibliography) and follow MLA guidelines (double-spaced, 12pt. Times New Roman font, one-inch margins).

Applicant Cover Letter

To Apply: Applicants will need to submit a one-page cover letter (single-spaced) describing their motives and intent for applying for this position and interning at Pitt Community College (parent company for the newspaper). This letter should: 1) Indicate the applicant’s views concerning the value of studying history and the past. Does this internship (this course) have any value beyond fulfilling an educational requirement? Cover letters should also highlight any personal attributes, interests, and personal experiences that qualify the applicant for this position. 2) Demonstrate the applicant’s understanding of primary and secondary historical sources, the differences between these sources, and their ability to apply these sources critically to the past in order to create analytic interpretations of the past. 3) To show a final understanding of primary and secondary sources and your ability to perform as a historical journalist, conclude your cover letter by explaining the type of sources (primary/secondary) you will be creating for your readers when authoring news stories for AHL.

Is American History Learner a primary or secondary source? We will be looking specifically at the thoughtfulness to your answer of this question when evaluating applications. Be sure to review the syllabus and Internet Course Tutorial before forming your position on this question. You’ll need to have a good handle on what the course is trying to achieve to best answer this question. Submitting Application Applications should be uploaded through the Applicant Cover Letter link in the Summer Internship Module. Please make sure to submit applications by the due date indicated in Applicant Cover Letter link. Upon submission, intern applicants will be required to participate in a survey related to AHL as a source. (MANDATORY) Ensuring Success: Applicants’ cover letters will be assessed on three criteria. First, cover letters need to comprehensively fulfill cover letter requirements outlined above in the “To Apply” section. Second, submissions will be assessed based on the effective use of provided materials in preparing your application. The meat of your analysis should be based on the “What is History and How Do We Practice It?” lesson. (We’ll be looking to see who shows a strong understanding of the materials provided.) Third, cover letters must be composed and submitted in a standardized and professional cover letter format stipulated in the examples provided in the “Applicant Resources” section of the module.

Thomas Nast Obituary

Obituary Format and Objectives: Formatting: Obituaries need to be a minimum of one page, double-spaced and written in size 12 Times New Roman font. American History Learner is committed to journalistic integrity and accuracy. Journalists will need to note any sources that were used in completing this assignment. Objectives: Brief description of the individual’s age, location, and cause of death. Basic description of the individual’s major professional/personal achievements. What should this person be most remembered (legacy) for historically? Obituary needs to place this discussion of the individual in a historic context by describing some of the premier social, political, economic, or cultural events defining the period the individual lived. Integration of primary and secondary sources in your historical analysis. At American History Learner our focus is on historical and journalistic integrity. Obituaries need not glamorize or patronize individuals. Your obituary needs to be professional, unbiased, and note both accomplishments and offer valid criticisms when necessary. Provide an appropriate and creative title for this piece. Our research department has compiled some basic resources you may be interested in consulting when writing your first assignment.

See Module 2 Resources. Notes on Success: Management will be looking closely at your first piece for American History Learner. We will assess the effectiveness of your obituary based on some of the following criteria: historical accuracy, meeting of obituary goals, demonstration of understanding of historical significance and context of the individual, style and grammar, commitment/genuineness/inventiveness, and originality and journalistic integrity. While you have a series of provided readings on Nast that will serve as the research basis of your assignment, it is a good idea to first read the general historical concepts in your textbook that this assignment is built upon. The following portions of your textbook are all historically relevant to this study: Here’s a list of the readings that would be a helpful backdrop when considering the historical context of Thomas Nast. Reconstruction: Chapter 16 Introduction and parts 16.1, 16.3 Industrialization and Urbanization: Chapter 18 Introduction and 18.3 Chapter 19 Introduction and parts 19.1, 19.3, and 19.4 Needless to say, American History Learner is committed to academic and journalistic integrity. Any violation of our parent company, Pitt CC’s academic integrity and plagiarism policy, will result in automatic termination. See your employee handbook and Internet Course Tutorial for a more specific elaboration of AHL’s standards. Please provide an appropriate, creative title with your submission.

Critical Race Theory

Critical responses must identify the main objectives/points of the articles/videos. What do the authors commonly agree upon and/or state as their central focus? How are these articles and videos “speaking” to one another or, are divergent ideas presented? Additionally, students must analyze central points made by authors to develop their own thesis and construct their own claims.

 How vital was slavery to the Atlantic economy in the eighteenth century

  1. How vital was slavery to the Atlantic economy in the eighteenth century? Provide specific evidence from the textbook to support your response. The author podcast is also a good resource. http://www.wwnorton.com/college/history/give-me-liberty3-brief/ch/04/podcast.aspx (due 6/6/19) 5.Discuss the ways in which both supporters and opponents of independence used the concepts of ‘freedom’ and ‘slavery’ during the American Revolution. Be sure to consider the perspectives of both free and enslaved peoples. Chapter 5 Podcast http://www.wwnorton.com/college/history/give-me-liberty3-brief/ch/05/podcast.aspx (due 6/7/19) 6.Read the documents located on pages 248 and 249. In one essay address the questions at the end of page 249. Chapter 6 author podcast http://www.wwnorton.com/college/history/give-me-liberty3-brief/ch/06/podcast.aspx (due 6/10/19)

Explain Hume, Kant, Blyden and Crummell’s negative views of African/Black people

Do not use the internet or web resources to respond to this discussion board question(s). Use Yefru’s work and the readings on eLearn to participate in this discussion. Be sure that you review the discussion board requirements on your syllabus for full credit. Be original in your thinking as well. So, as you are composing your posts, be sure to write your post in your own words, your own voice, while placing quotations around a sentence or two that you may lift from the text to support your opinion. But remember that your opinion is taken from your clear and concise understanding of the critical ideas from the readings. #1. Explain Hume, Kant, Blyden and Crummell’s negative views of African/Black people. How are their ideas similar or different to one another? Be sure to know that Kant and Hume were white philosophers and Blyden and Crummell were African Americans who lived during the 1800s; evidence the sources from eLearn. However, all responses must be written in your OWN words. #2. Why is Dr. Yefru having this conversation about Hume, Kant. Blyden and Crummell in his introductory chapter? Sit with this question a bit. This is an introductory course to the discipline of Africana studies where we promote African-centered critical thinking (which we will discuss next week.) Why is this discussion important for Yefru? What does Yefru think about the ideas of Hume, Kant, Blyden and Crummell?

Miss education of the negro

NOTE: YOU HAVE TO USE THE Mis-education of the Negro AND THREE OUTSIDE READINGS OF YOUR CHOICE FROM THOSE ASSIGNED IN CLASS TO COMPOSE YOUR PRECISE. KEYS TO COMPOSING A HIGH QUALITY PRECIS (1) Please identify a common theme covered in the book and the articles (race, gender or class etc). (2) Upon identifying this theme which is present in the works, organize your information to address the questions associated with the assignment in paragraph form (see the syllabus). Your discussion will first start with the book and through the common theme incorporate the outside readings. (3) Proofread your essay and make sure it follows the formatting guidelines and cites the relevant materials in the proper way. PLEASE FIND THE CHICAGO STYLE GUIDE ATTACHED TO THIS MESSAGE WHICH SPECIFICALLY APPLIES TO YOUR BIBLIOGRAPHY AND FOOTNOTES. ***Also, an example paper is attached.***

What were the goals of the major parties in Reconstruction

Part I: Short Answer Answer EACH in a paragraph (or two) per question. 1. What were the goals of the major parties in Reconstruction? What problems made reconstruction so difficult? 2. What were the main forms of white resistance to the efforts of reconstructionists? What were the black codes? What effect did they have? 3. What were the various meanings of freedom that emerged after emancipation among freed blacks? How was this resisted by white southerners? 4. What was involved in the “redeeming” of the South? How and why did this occur? Why did white supremacy become the foundation of southern politics in the 1870’s? 5. What were the main ways Indians resisted attempts to annihilate them (and their culture)? 6. Explain “Social Darwinism” and “laissez-faire” economics (particularly as they related to the “Gilded Age”). 7. Identify the following and explain how each acquired his fortune (both in terms of industry and tactics): Jay Gould, Andrew Carnegie, and John D. Rockefeller. 8. What role did the federal government play in the growth and profitability of the railroads (including in response to strikes)? 9. What were the various positions people took on the currency (or “free silver”) debate(s) in the Gilded Age and why did they take these various positions? 10. Explain “bossism.” What were it’s advantages and disadvantages?

11. Explain the spoils system. How did it eventually end and why did its demise lead to the increase in the influence of business in politics? 12. Why was there an increase in lynchings at the end of the 19th century? 13. Explain the role of women in politics in the last decades of the nineteenth century. What causes did they endorse, what obstacles did they face, and what role did the “cult of domesticity” play in their tactics/power? 14. Compare the roles played in policy and public life by the Republican and Democratic parties during Reconstruction and during the Gilded Age. What causes did they support and what kinds of voters and support did each attract during each of these periods? 15. Explain the nature of migration and immigration during the last half of the 19th-century. 16. Explain the goals and programs of both the Farmers Alliance and the People’s Party (Populist Party). 17. What were the main issues motivating the labor unions during the Gilded Age, how did they try to achieve them, and why were they unsuccessful? 18. Identify each of the following and explain why they were important: Homestead lockout, Cripple Creek miners’ strike, Pullman boycott, and Coxey’s army. 19. Identify and explain each of the following: Monroe Doctrine, Open Door policy, and yellow journalism. 20. How did the U.S. come to control Cuba, the Philippines, Puerto Rico, and Guam?

21. Why, and in what ways, did the situation of Black Americans actually worsen during the Progressive Era? Explain the case of Plessy v. Ferguson. 22. Explain the contrasting views of Booker T. Washington and W.E.B. Dubois. 23. Explain the ideology of the Progressives, both in terms of the “social gospel” and in terms of their understanding of Darwinism. (Illustrate with examples of actions they undertook.) 24. Compare the following: anarchists, socialists, and progressives. 25. Explain Roosevelt’s “square deal” and describe his actions as both reformer and conservationist. 26. How did Wilsons’ progressivism differ from Roosevelt’s? How did Wilson’s progressive agenda change during his presidency? 27. Explain Wilson’s notion of “national determination” and explain why it was problematic. 28. Explain how and why dissent was suppressed during World War I and comment on its possible effects. 29. In what sense, and why, had American culture drastically changed after World War I? 30. Describe and explain the “Great Migrations” of Black Americans and Mexicans during the early 20th century.

31. What were the causes of the economic crisis (1928-1932) that led to the Great Depression? Part II: Essay Answer these in seperate essays of 4-6 paragraphs. A. Develop an essay in which you explain the nature of the struggle between labor and management/ownership in U.S. history from the Civil War to 1932. In arguing for your interpretation choose three important examples from the history of this period to support your claims. B. Develop an essay in which you explain the nature of the struggle for women’s rights during this period (1865-1932). In arguing for your interpretation choose three important examples from the history of this period to support your claims. C. In what sense might we consider the United States an imperialist country during the post-Civil War era up to the end of Word War I? In arguing for your interpretation choose three important examples from the history of this period to support your claims.

The limits of power

This is a book review on The Limits of Power: The End of American Exceptionalism. Here is the instructions by my teacher: II. Intro: Ø Introduce the author Ø Introduce the book (Title, What is it about?). Ø State author’s thesis and summarize content/arguments. III. Body: Ø Each paragraph should address different parts of the book or different arguments presented in the book. Ø This may also be in the form of arguments made about different time periods or stages within a time period. Ø Use key parts of the book (quotations/paraphrasing) to demonstrate how the author supports his or her thesis. Ø You may add your assessment (analysis/view on the author’s arguments) within each paragraph or in separate paragraphs Ø Make sure to evaluate the author’s arguments in terms of whether or not they are convincing, well researched, and logical. If the author’s work could contribute to the public’s understanding of the topic you may comment on that as well. Ø If you choose to disagree with the author you should do so strictly on academic grounds–i.e. use a reason-based argument to counter her or his argument. IV. Conclusion Ø Evaluation of the author’s success or failure to substantiate his or her thesis with evidence and argumentation Ø Evaluation of book’s contribution to history, the public’s knowledge of the subject, “readability” and style. Format: *Review should be 5 pages double-spaced; stapled at the top left hand corner at a 45-degree angle *Font 12, Times New Roman *One-inch margins on both sides *You may use Chicago, APA, or MLA style for footnotes or endnotes (Ask in the library if you don’t know what to do) *Do not enclose your paper in any type of folder *Make sure to save copies of your paper in multiple locations Biographical Sketch: Andrew J. Bacevich, Sr. (born 1947 in Normal, Illinois) is a professor of international relations at Boston University and a retired career officer in the United States Army.

He is a former director of Boston University’s Center for International Relations (from 1998 to 2005), and author of several books, including American Empire: The Realities and Consequences of US Diplomacy (2002), The New American Militarism: How Americans are Seduced by War (2005) and The Limits of Power: The End of American Exceptionalism (2008). He has been “a persistent, vocal critic of the US occupation of Iraq, calling the conflict a catastrophic failure.”[1] In March 2007, he described George W. Bush’s endorsement of such “preventive wars” as “immoral, illicit, and imprudent.”[1][2] His son, also an Army officer, died fighting in the Iraq War in May 2007.[1]

The Impact of Globalization on Conflict

Think about the previous examination of China. For this project, your job is to write the content for a new page of this course titled India and Globalization. After reading your page, other students should be able to do the following: Identify positive effects of globalization on India Identify negative effects of globalization on India Compare modern U.S. relations with India to relations with China Your pages should include commentary with your thoughts on the following question: Why does the U.S. have a better chance of maintaining long-term strong relations with India than it does with China? Include a picture with a caption to go on your page. You may find images using the Google image search function with key words such as: India, Globalization, industry, economy, and trade Include a list of four more websites or articles that you read to support the information on your page. (You should not include the websites below.) Use the The CIA Country Factbook to review data about India’s people and its economy, and then use the rest of the links to examine globalization’s effects on India. BBC News: Is globalisation a force for good in India? Economy Watch: Globalization in India Effects of Globalization on Indian Industry Use a search engine to find more information about globalization’s effect on India by searching with the following key words: “globalization, India, trade, economy, media, effect”

 RECENT ACCOUNTING QUESTIONS

                                       

Homeworknest.com – Get Solutions to Accounting homework

QUESTION 1

Jean Marsh Jean Marsh owns a small business making and selling children’s toys. The following trial balance was extracted from her books on 31 December 2020. DR$ CR $ 15,000 2,000 90,000 3,400 6,100 18,000 800 18,500 16,900 10,400 Capital Drawings Sales Inventory at 1 January 2020: Raw materials Finished goods Purchases of raw materials Carriage inwards Factory wages Office salaries J Marsh: salary and expenses General expenses: Factory Office Lighting Rent Insurance Advertising Bad debts Discount received Carriage outwards Plant and machinery, at cost less depreciation Car, at cost less depreciation Bank Cash in hand Accounts receivable and accounts payable 1,200 750 2,500 3,750 950 1,400 650 1,600 375 9,100 4,200 3,600 325 7,700 112,600 6,000 112,600 You are given the following additional information: 1. Inventory on 31 December 2020: Raw materials $2,900. Finished goods $8,200 there was no work in progress. 2. Depreciation for the year is to be charged as follows: Plant and machinery $1,500. Car $500. 3. On 31 December 2020 insurance paid in advance was $150 and office general expenses unpaid were $75. 4. Lighting and rent are to be apportioned: 4/5 factory; 1/5 office. Insurance is to be apportioned: 4 Factory; 4 offices. 5. Jean is a business salesperson and her salary and expenses are to be treated as selling expenses. She has sole use of the business car. Required: For the year ended 31 December 2020 prepare: (a) the manufacturing account showing prime cost and factory cost of production. (b) The trading account section of the Statement of Profit or Loss. (c) The profit or loss account section of the Statement of Profit or Loss distinguishes between administrative and selling costs. (d) A Statement of Financial Position as of 31 December 2020.

QUESTION 2

Mlangozi Limited sells plumbing fixtures on terms of 2/10 net 30. Its financial statements for the last three years are as follows: 2018 Sh.?000? 2019 Sh.?000? 2020 Sh.?000? Cash 30000 20000 5000 Accounts receivable 200000 260000 290000 Inventory 400000 480000 600000 Net fixed asset 800000 800000 800000 Accounts payable 230000 300000 380000 Accruals 200000 210000 225000 Bank loan, short term 100000 100000 140000 Long term debt 300000 300000 300000 Common stock 100000 100000 100000 Retained earnings 500000 550000 550000 Additional information: Sales 4000000 4300000 3800000 Cost of goods 3200000 3600000 3300000 sold Net profit 300000 200000 100000 Required:

  1. a) For each of the three years, analyze the company’s trends in profitability, liquidity, and efficiency (12 Marks)
  2. b) comment on the factors that may have caused the changes in profitability and liquidity from the above analysis (3 Marks)

QUESTION 3

Serra do Mar Corporation manufactures and distributes leisure clothing. Selected transactions completed by the Serra do Mar during the current fiscal year are as follows: 8. Split the common stock 3 for 1 and reduced the par from $18 to $6 per share. After the split, there were 600,000 common shares outstanding. Mar. 20. Declared semiannual dividends of $1 on 20,000 shares of preferred stock and $0.14 on the 600,000 shares of $10 par common stock to stockholders of record on March 31, payable on April 20. Jan. Apr. 20. Paid the cash dividends. May 8. Purchased 50,000 shares of the corporation’s own common stock at $48, recording the stock at cost. Actions: Organization, Capital Stock Transactions, and Dividends Aug. 2. Sold 30,000 shares of treasury stock at $56, receiving cash. Sept. 15. Declared semiannual dividends of $1 on the preferred stock and $0.07 on the common stock (before the stock dividend). In addition, a 1% common stock dividend was declared on the common stock outstanding, to be capitalized at the fair market value of the common stock, which is estimated at $52. Oct. 15. Paid the cash dividends and issued the certificates for the con on the stock dividend. Instructions T? Journalize the transactions.

QUESTION 4

Discuss the effect of the intercompany sale of the building Khap Corporation acquired an 80 percent interest in Khun Corporation in 2014. On January 1, 2016, Khap sold a building with a five-year remaining useful life to Khun for $150,000 cash. The building’s book value was $100,000. Khun still owns the building on December 31, 2016.

REQUIRED

  1. How and in what amount will the sale of the building affect Khap’s income from Khun and net income for 2016, and the balance of Khap’s Investment in the Khun account on December 31, 2016?
  2. How will the consolidated financial statement of Khap Corporation and Subsidiary for 2016 be affected by the intercompany sale of the building?
  3. How and in what amount will the sale of the building affect Khap’s income from Khun and net income for 2017 and the balance of Khap’s Investment in Khun account on December 31, 2017, if Khun still owns the building in 2017?
  4. If Khun sold the building back to Khap at the same price and date, how and in what amount will the sale of the building affect Khap’s income from Khun and net income for 2016 and the balance of Khap’s Investment in Khun’s account at December 31, 2016?

 

QUESTION 5

The Glass Co. has a firm commitment dated April 1 to purchase cocoa with delivery on June 15. The commitment is for 1,000 metric tons of cocoa at P700 per ton. In order to hedge against decreases in the spot prices of cocoa, the company designated an option as a hedge against changes in the fair value of the commitment. The put option was acquired on April 1 for a premium of P1, 000 and has a strike price of P700 per ton. The option has a notional amount of 1,000 tons and an expiration date of June 15. Spot prices per ton and the value of the option at selected dates are as follows: April 1 April 30 May 31 June 15 Spot price per ton P701 P696 P697 P695 Fair value of option P1,000 P4,300 P3,500 P5,000 The change in the option’s time value will be excluded from an assessment of hedge effectiveness or split accounting is used. What is the gain or (loss) on firm commitment (hedged item) on May 31, gain or (loss) on option contract on May 31, gain or (loss) on firm commitment (hedged item) on June 15, and gain or loss on option contract on June 15, respectively?

 

 

QUESTION 6

2-38 Labor cost, overtime, and idle time. Jim Anderson works in the production department of Midwest Steelworks as a machine operator Jim, a long-time employee of Midwest, is paid on an hourly basis at a rate of $20 per hour. Jim works five-hour shifts per week Monday-Friday (40 hours). Any time Jim works over and above these 40 hours is considered overtime for which he is paid at a rate of time and a half 1830 per hour). If the overtime falls on weekends, Jim is paid at a rate of double time ($40 per hour), Jim is also paid an additional $20 per hour for any holidays worked, even if it is part of his regular 40 hours Jim is paid his regular wages even if the machines are down (not operating due to regular machine maintenance, slow order periods, or unexpected mechanical problems. These hours are considered “idle time.” During December Jim worked the following hours: Week 1 Week 2 Week 3 Week 4 Hours worked including machine downtime 44 3.5 43 6.4 48 5.8 46 2 60 CHAPTER 2 AN INTRODUCTION TO COST TERMS AND PURPOSES Included in the total hours worked are two company holidays Christmas Eve and Christmas Day during Week 4. All overtime worked by Jim was Monday-Friday, except for the hours worked in Week 3. All of the Week 3 overtime hours were worked on a Saturday Required 1. Calculate {n} direct manufacturing labor, (b) idle time, (c) overtime and holiday premium, and (d) total earnings for Jim in December 2 Is idle time and overtime premium a direct or indirect cost of the products that Jim worked on in December? Explain

QUESTION 7

Company XYZ is looking for a Finance/Accounting intern. The student filling this position will handle a wide range of important duties.

Responsibilities
*Assist with month-end financial reports
*Post journal entries
*Help with accounts receivable, payable, and bank statement reconciliation
*Assist with audits
*Balance sheet reconciliation
*Work with the finance team on yearly forecasting efforts*Manage the monthly tracking of our physical inventory
*Support the payment processing team
*Data entry
*Credit checks

Requirements
Applicants should be Business, Finance, Economics or Accounting majors, proficient in Microsoft Office applications. Attention to detail, the ability to multi-task and excellent communication skills are all essential to this position.

Majors
Business, Finance, Economics, Accounting

   QUESTION 8

Which of the following basic elements of financial statements is more associated with the balance sheet than the income statement?

A) Equity.

B) Revenue.

C) Gains.

D) Expenses.

D) Expenses.

 

 

 

Online course help for Devry university

In this age of digital technology, online reviews have become an important force for attracting customers. Online reviews simply refer to evaluations that have been made by the customers and posted on diverse platforms about a product or service. And these reviews are very important, especially for tutors who offer online class help. Statistics show that around 92% of customers review or read online reviews before contacting a business. Also, 71% of customers will rely on the positive reviews of a business before taking any action. Further statistics indicate that 86% of buyers or potential buyers hesitate to purchase a product or a service that has negative reviews. Personally, before purchasing anything online including ordering a meal, I ensure that I check the customer reviews. In this case, my purchasing behavior is significantly determined by the reviews provided by previous customers. So for online class helpers reviews are very critical for building a positive reputation, credibility, and trust. They make it easier for potential customers to decide on whether to purchase the service or not. This is because they attest to the company’s reliability and quality. They also help give a snapshot of what worse or best could happen. So in this article, I will look at why people write online reviews, why these reviews are important and how to proliferate positive online reviews.

Why do people write online reviews?

  • To help other people or potential customers– There is an adage that goes ‘sharing is caring.’ This saying also applies in the case of online reviews. People write reviews to help other people make a decision or experience the same feeling as them. For instance, if a customer was satisfied by a service provided by an online tutor, he or she may want others to benefit from similar services from the tutor. In this case, the customer would want others to enjoy the same excellent service provided.
  • As a way of saying thank you– Some customers like leaving testimonials about a service received or a product they purchased. This mainly happens when they are happy with the service or product. And so to them, writing a positive review is a way of expressing their gratitude. The review is a materialized thank-you note. For online tutors, this is usually the main wish. Positive online class helper’s reviews are a goldmine.
  • To help companies improve their services and products– Some companies do ask their customers to provide a review after purchase of their product or service. Regardless of the nature of these reviews, they help a business improve on its provisions. For example, negative reviews might be a wake-up call for companies to improve on their products or services. For instance, if a company specializes in providing fast foods, obviously not every customer will be pleased with the food delivered or prepared. Some may provide a negative rating about the food. So, the business owner should consider these negative reviews to improve the food quality. Also, a business without negative reviews is very suspicious. No product or service is flawless.
  • To be heard- Some people also write opinions for them to be heard. These are often people who are seeking public attention or who are celebrities. Celebrities in particular command a lot of public attention. Others provide their opinions so that they can only be respected by the masses. These are people who are eager and willing to share their thoughts and experiences about the company. All they want is people who can embrace their comments and engage with them positively so that they can feel heard and appreciated. So some of the online class helpers reviews are opinions from people seeking public attention.

Why these online reviews are important

  • Reviews improve on customer engagement– Not only do reviews influence the consumer’s decisions but also allow companies to engage with them. These reviews provide companies with a platform to build their relationships with their customers. Studies have further shown that reviews are tools for companies to establish an emotional connection with their customers. And emotional connection according to statistics provides companies with 23% more revenue than companies that do not engage with their customers emotionally.
  • Reviews speak volumes about your brand’s trustworthiness- Moreover; studies have shown that a customer is more likely to leave a review after a bad or negative experience than a customer who has experienced a positive one. These bad reviews have a critical role to play when it comes to brand trust. This is because customers tend to trust online reviews than they trust their family and friend recommendations. So if a company has a mixture of bad and good reviews, it shows that that company is authentic. So when clients are looking at online class helpers reviews, they look at how bad and good reviews are fair. Too many good reviews depict that the service provider is flawless which might not be the case.
  • Reviews stimulate more reviews– when a company starts receiving reviews; it encourages other potential clients and visitors to provide their reviews too. The reviews have a domino effect when it comes to providing feedback. When a new client comes and sees the reviews provided by others, he or she will be motivated and gain the confidence to submit their review. So in the process, the business will have a lot of reviews to look into and evaluate. If used positively, these reviews can be used to attract more customers.

How to proliferate positive online reviews

  • Give customers incentives to provide reviews– As a business owner; you can decide to give your customers something small to prompt them to provide reviews about your business. For instance, you can give them vouchers, discounts, and coupons for submitting a review. It is important to note that you are not asking them to provide positive reviews. Communicate to them that you will reward them for providing feedback that is connected to their shopping experience. Also, communicate to them the significance of the gathered feedback.
  • Engage with customers more– You can also improve your engagement practices with your customers. Do not only thank them for shopping at your business or leveraging your services but also acknowledge their constructive feedback. Ask them for additional information using various social media platforms and tools. For example when a client provides negative feedback in an online class helpers reviews section, inquire from them what went wrong, what they think could be done next time, what they would like to see more and what actions you can take to restore their brand trust. By engaging directly with the client, a business owner or service provider can easily build brand loyalty.

Parting shot

Regardless of the business, you do or the service you provide, the reality is that online reviews directly impact your brand reputation and profits. To safeguard this brand reputation, business owners need to control what their clients see online about them or their products and services. If you require assistance in boosting positive online reviews as an online tutor please contact HomeworkNest.Com. Also if you are not sure how your reviews are impacting your business, you can contact them for help. They will do everything ethical to help you increase your positive online reviews.

 

 

 

 

Get Expert Solutions to Accounting Questions at Homeworknest.com in 2hours!

Accounting Questions – Get Expert Solutions at Homeworknest.com in 5 hours!

Quiz 1.

Analyzing the Airline Industry C 3. Divide into groups. Assume your group is analyzing the fate of the larger airlines, such as United and American. You have the following information: a. Between 1999 and now, the long-term debt, including lease obligations, of the largest airlines more than doubled. b. The price of fuel has increased by one-third. c. Passenger loads are only now getting back to pre-9/11 levels. d. Severe price competition from discount airlines exists. Identify the ratios that you consider most important to consider in assessing the future of the large airlines and discuss the effect of each of the above factors on the ratios. Be prepared to present all or part of your findings in class.

Quiz 2.

Using Investors’ Services C 2. Go to the website for Moody’s Investors Service. Click on “ratings,” which will show revisions of debt ratings issued by Moody’s in the past few days. Choose a rating that has been upgraded or downgraded and read the short press announcement related to it. What reasons does Moody’s give for the change in rating? What is Moody’s assessment of the future of the company or institution? What financial performance measures are mentioned in the article? Summarize your findings and be prepared to share them in class.

 

Quiz 3.

ffect of a One-Time Item on a Loan Decision C 5. Apple a Day, Inc., and Unforgettable Edibles, Inc. are food catering businesses that operate in the same metropolitan area. Their customers include Fortune 500 companies, regional firms, and individuals. The two firms reported similar profit margins for the current year, and both base bonuses for managers on the achievement of a target profit margin and return on equity. Each firm has submitted a loan request to you, a loan officer for City National Bank. They have provided you with the following information:

 

Quiz 4.

Comparison of International Companies’ Operating Cycles C 4. Ratio analysis enables one to compare the performance of companies whose financial statements are presented in different currencies. Selected data from 2006 for two large pharmaceutical companies—one American, Pfizer, Inc., and one Swiss, Roche—are presented next (in millions).15

For each company, calculate the receivable turnover, days’ sales uncollected, inventory turnover, days’ inventory on hand, payables turnover, and days’ payable. Then determine the operating cycle and days of financing required for each company. (Accounts receivable in 2005 were $9,103 for Pfizer and SF7,698 for Roche. Inventories in 2005 were $5,478 for Pfizer and SF5,041 for Roche. Accounts payable in 2005 were $2,073 for Pfizer and SF2,373 for Roche.) Prepare a memo containing your analysis of the operating cycles of these companies.

 

Quiz 5.

Do you think it is acceptable to change the bonus targets for executives during the year if the year turns out to be not as successful as planned? What if an unexpected, world-shaking event occurs and has a negative effect on business, such as 9/11 had on the airline industry? What are three standards of comparison? Which of these might justify changing the bonus targets during the year?

Quiz 6.

Executive Compensation C 1. Executive compensation is often based on meeting certain targets for revenue growth, earnings, earnings per share, return on assets, or other performance measures. But what if performance is not living up to expectations? Some companies are simply changing the targets. For instance, Sun Microsystems’ proxy as quoted in the Wall Street Journal states that “due to economic challenges experienced during the last fiscal year, our earnings per share and revenues are significantly below plan. As such, the Bonus Plan was amended to reduce the target bonus to 50% of the original plan and base the target bonus solely on the third and fourth quarters.”14 Sun Microsystems was not alone. Other companies, such as AT&T Wireless, Estee Lauder, and UST, also lowered targets for executive bonuses.

Quiz 7.

Comprehensive Ratio Analysis of Two Companies P 10. Caitlin Cleary is considering an investment in the common stock of a chain of souvenir stores. She has narrowed her choice to two companies, Dover Corporation and Calais Corporation, whose income statements and balance sheets are presented here. During the year, Dover Corporation paid a total of $50,000 in dividends. The market price per share of its stock is currently $60. In comparison, Calais Corporation paid a total of $114,000 in dividends, and the current market price of its stock is $76 per share. Dover Corporation had net cash flows from operations of $271,500 and net capital expenditures of $625,000. Calais Corporation had net cash flows from operations of $492,500 and net capital expenditures of $1,050,000. Information for prior years is not readily available. Assume that all notes payable are current liabilities and all bonds payable are long-term liabilities and that there is no change in inventory.

Quiz 8.

Compare the two companies by inserting the ratio calculations from 1 through 5 in a table with the following column headings: Ratio, Name, Dover, Calais, and Company with More Favorable Ratio. Indicate in the last column which company had the more favorable ratio in each case.

 

Quiz 9.

James Smith, 45 years old, is new to your practice. This is your first

meeting with him, and you would like to ask him some questions

regarding his medication/health history. During the course of your

conversation you learn that he has a history of coronary heart

disease and is currently taking a baby aspirin each day. He takes

acetaminophen for general aches and pains. He also likes to have a

glass of wine with dinner each night and does not mind a few beers

when he is watching football. During the course of his examination

you and the dentist find two cavities, which are filled that day. Mr.

Smith is experiencing some mild pain after the procedure.

  1. What is the rationale for using acetaminophen instead of an

NSAID to treat Mr. Smith’s pain?

  1. What dose and duration of therapy should be recommended

for Mr. Smith?

  1. At what doses does hepatotoxicity occur with

acetaminophen?

  1. How can Mr. Smith avoid acetaminophen toxicity?
  2. Compare and contrast acetaminophen to aspirin in terms of

pharmacology, adverse effects, and therapeutic effects.

224

  1. What is the role of aspirin in the prevention of heart attack

or stroke?

  1. Are any dental concerns associated with low-dose aspirin

therapy?

  1. Can Mr. Smith take a drug like ibuprofen?
  2. What should be said to Mr. Smith during a counseling

session regarding acetaminophen?

 

Quiz 10.

Kellogg Company has its headquarters in Battle Creek, Michigan. The company manufactures and sells ready-to-eat breakfast cereals and convenience foods including cookies, toaster pastries, and cereal bars.

Selected data from Kellogg Company’s recent annual report follows (dollar amounts in millions).

Current Year Prior Year 2 Years Ago
Sales $14,580 $14,792 $14,197
Gross profit % 34.73 41.26 38.28
Operating profit 1,024 2,837 1,562
Net cash flow less capital expenditures 1,211 1,170 1,225
Net earnings 633 1,808 961

In its annual reports, Kellogg Company has indicated that it plans to achieve sustainability of its operating results with operating principles that emphasize profit-rich, sustainable sales growth, as well as cash flow and return on invested capital. Kellogg believes its steady earnings growth, strong cash flow, and continued investment during a multi-year period demonstrates the strength and flexibility of its business model.

Instructions

  1. Compute the percentage change in sales, operating profit, net cash flow less capital expenditures, and net earnings from year to year for the years presented.
  2. Evaluate Kellogg’s performance. Which trend seems most favorable? Which trend seems least favorable? What are the implications of these trends for Kellogg’s sustainable performance objectives? Explain.

 

 

Quiz 11.

Presented below is income statement information of the Schefter Corporation for the year ended December 31, 2021.

Sales revenue            $492,000                Cost of goods sold                 284,000
Salaries expense           80,000                 Insurance expense                  12,000
Interest revenue             6,000                 Interest expense                       4,000
Advertising expense     10,000                Income tax expense               30,000
Gain on sale of investments 8,000         Depreciation expense            20,000

Prepare the necessary closing entries at December 31, 2021.

 

 

Quiz 12.

Choose the correct.Rouge Company’s $250,000 net income for the quarter ended September 30 included the following after-tax items:
∙ A $20,000 cumulative effect loss resulting from a change in inventory valuation method made
on September 1.
∙ $0 of the $60,000 annual property taxes paid on February 1.
For the quarter ended September 30, the amount of net income that Rouge should report is
a. $235,000
b. $250,000
c. $255,000
d. $270,000

 

Quiz 13.

Analyzing profitability

Sampler Company sells two products, Sigma and Zeta, with a sales mix of 70% and 30%, respectively, Sigma has a contribution margin per unit of $26, and Zeta has a contribution margin per unit of $21. The company sold 700 total units in September. Calculate the total amount each product contributed to the coverage of fixed costs and the total contribution margin for the company.

 

Quiz 14.

 

The following are a series of unrelated situations.

  1. Halen Company’s unadjusted trial balance at December 31, 2020, included the following accounts.
Debit Credit
Accounts receivable $53,000
Allowance for doubtful accounts 4,000
Net sales $1,200,000

Halen Company estimates its bad debt expense to be 7% of gross accounts receivable. Determine its bad debt expense for 2020.

  1. An analysis and aging of Stuart Corp. accounts receivable at December 31, 2020, disclosed the following.
Amounts estimated to be uncollectible $ 180,000
Accounts receivable 1,750,000
Allowance for doubtful accounts (per books)  125,000

What is the net amount expected to be collected of Stuart’s receivables at December 31, 2020?

  1. Shore Co. provides for doubtful accounts based on 4% of gross accounts receivable, The following data are available for 2020.
Credit sales during 2020 $4,400,000
Bad debt expense 57,000
Allowance for doubtful accounts 1/1/20 17,000
Collection of accounts written off in prior years
(customer credit was reestablished)
8,000
Customer accounts written off as uncollectible
during 2020
30,000

What is the balance in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts at December 31, 2020?

  1. At the end of its first year of operations, December 31, 2020, Darden Inc. reported the following information.
Accounts receivable, net of allowance for doubtful accounts $950,000
Customer accounts written off as uncollectible during 2020 24,000
Bad debt expense for 2020 84,000

What should be the balance in accounts receivable at December 31, 2020, before subtracting the allowance for doubtful accounts?

  1. The following accounts were taken from Bullock Inc.’s trial balance at December 31, 2020.
Debit Credit
Net credit sales $750,000
Allowance for doubtful accounts $ 14,000
Accounts receivable  310,000

If doubtful accounts are 3% of accounts receivable, determine the bad debt expense to be reported for 2020.

Instructions

Answer the questions relating to each of the five independent situations as requested.

 

 

Quiz 15.

Journalizing the alternative treatment of deferred revenues

On September 1, 2018, Salem Landscaping collected $24,000 in advance from customers for landscaping services. The service revenue will be earned monthly over the 12-month period ending August 31, 2019.

Requirements

Journalize the entry on September 1 by using the alternative treatment of deferred revenues.

Record the December 31, 2018 adjusting entry.

 

Quiz 16.

Included in Outkast Company’s December 31, 2020, trial balance are the following accounts: Prepaid Rent $5,200, Debt Investments (to be held to maturity until 2023) $56,000, Unearned Fees $17,000, Land (held for investment) $39,000, and Notes Receivable (long-term) $42,000. Prepare the long-term investments section of the balance sheet.

 

Quiz 17.

Product Cost Method of Product Pricing

La Femme Accessories Inc. produces women's handbags. The cost of producing 1,100 handbags is as follows:

Direct materials $14,600
Direct labor 7,400
Factory overhead 6,400
Total manufacturing cost $28,400

The selling and administrative expenses are $28,700. The management desires a profit equal to 14% of invested assets of $498,000.

If required, round your answers to nearest whole number.\

Determine the selling price of handbags. Round your answers to nearest whole value.

Cost $per unit
Markup $per unit
Selling price $per unit

 

 

Quiz 18.

On August 3, Sonar Sales decides to establish a $275 petty cash fund to relieve the burden on Accounting.

(a) Journalize the establishment of this fund.*
(b) On August 11, the petty cash fund has receipts for mail and postage of $124.75, contributions and donations of $53.25, meals and entertainment of $63.85, and $32.75 in the ending cash balance. Journalize the replenishment of the fund.*
(c) On August 12, Sonar Sales decides to increase petty cash to $400. Journalize this transaction.*
*Refer to the Chart of Accounts for exact wording of account titles.

 

 

Quiz 19.

  1. The trend of PepsiCo’s stock price and price/earnings (P/E) ratio for the seven years shown.
  2. PepsiCo’s prospects, including developments likely to affect the company’s future.
  3. Trend Analysis E 7. Using 2006 as the base year, prepare a trend analysis of the following data, and tell whether the situation shown by the trends is favorable or unfavorable. (Round your answers to one decimal place.)

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Quiz 20.

On June 1, Guitar Magazine collected cash of $51,000 on future annual subscriptions starting on July 1.

Requirements

  1. Journalize the transaction to record the collection of cash on June 1.
  2. Journalize the transaction required at December 31, the magazine’s year-end, assuming no revenue earned has been recorded. (Round adjustment to the nearest whole dollar.)

 

 

Philosophy Psychology Homework Help US Canada and Australia

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CHSUG 1001 Introduction to Community & Human ServicesAssessment Two: Essay

Weighting: 40% of your overall grade for this course

Due date: Sunday 14th June at 11:55pm

Word count: 2000 words (+/- 10%)

Submit: Submit your assignment in Word or PDF format through the Turnitin link on Moodle

Write an essay on the following topic:

Analyse the impact of neoliberalism on the community and human services in Australia.  Focus your response on one field of practice.

You are required to write an academic essay on the topic listed above.  Your essay should follow an essay structure and should flow in a clear and logical manner.  You should write the essay in your own words and ensure that you acknowledge any direct quotations appropriately.

You need to support your response with appropriate evidence from academic sources (minimum of 8) and ensure that you reference these sources appropriately in APA format.

You should ensure that you meet the word length limit and proofread your work carefully.  You should also ensure that you follow the Fed Uni Guide to Lay-out and Appearance to format and present your essay.

You will receive feedback from your LREP to assist you in completing your essay.

Note: Fields of practice could include mental health, child protection, disability services, refugee settlement services, aged care, etc.  You are free to choose any field of practice within the community and human services.  Check your course materials and reading from week 2 to assist you in choosing a field of practice.

One of the most popular questions that I often come across is “Where can I get someone to help me solve my tough psychology and philosophy college assignments?” or “Which is the best and affordable website for homework help where tutors give discounts throughout the year?” Well the answer is simple – https://www.homeworknest.com/. I have tried it and can testify without hesitation. Last time I was facing it rough on coming up with my PHD thesis ideas and research and Homework Nest Tutors came in hand. You see, College life is not a walk in the park especially for those who double it with a day job to keep their bills on check. You can find the best ElantSolutions for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. You can also find the best Varsity Tutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. I will also add that you can find the best TransTutors for psychology and philosophy college assignments at Homework Nest. All Homework and assignments are handled in minutes. In conclusion, the Best Known Website for Helping with College Homework for students is Homework Nest. If your homework deadline fast approaching and you do not have time? I used Homework Nest (https://www.homeworknest.com/) to Ace My Homework and Got As in my Final Exams. Hey, all the tutors are verified!

 

 

You will be marked following the marking guide below.

MARKING GUIDE – ESSAY

Criteria Marks
Addressing the essay topic, 8 marks

This relates to your ability to address all aspects of the essay topic, the level of detail of your essay, and the clarity of your contention.

 

Addresses all parts of the essay topic clearly and comprehensively

 

6.5 – 8
Addresses all parts of the essay topic clearly and with a good level of detail

 

5.5 – 6
Addresses all parts of the essay topic but could have improved clarity and detail

 

4.5 – 5
Addresses most parts of the essay question but needs a clearer contention and/or greater detail

 

4.0
Does not satisfactorily address the essay question

 

0  – 3.5
Understanding of topic, 8 marks

This relates to how well you show your understanding of the course materials related to the essay topic and apply this to your chosen field of practice

 

Shows comprehensive knowledge of the topic and exemplary ability to apply this to the chosen field

 

6.5 – 8
Shows strong knowledge of the topic and very good ability to apply this to the chosen field

 

5.5 – 6
Shows good knowledge of the topic and uses some examples from the chosen field

 

4.5 – 5
Shows some knowledge of the topic but needs to improve level of detail and/or application to a field

 

4.0
Does not show satisfactory knowledge of the essay topic

 

0  – 3.5
Depth of analysis, 8 marks

This relates to the depth of your analysis, including your ability to consider multiple perspectives and make connections

 

Deeply analyses the topic by integrating multiple perspectives and forming connections between ideas

 

6.5 – 8
Shows a good level of depth in analysis by considering multiple perspectives

 

5.5 – 6
Shows a satisfactory level of depth in analysis – could include a broader range of perspectives

 

4.5 – 5
Describes/explains the topic without adequate analysis – needs to consider multiple perspectives

 

4.0
Does not show satisfactory depth

 

0  – 3.5
Strength of justification, 8 marks

This relates to your ability to justify your analysis, including your use of appropriate supporting evidence

 

Shows comprehensive justification and extensive use of high-quality academic evidence

 

6.5 – 8
Shows very good justification and uses high-quality academic supporting evidence

 

5.5 – 6
Shows good justification and makes use of academic evidence – but could improve quality/quantity

 

4.5 – 5
Shows satisfactory justification and limited use of academic evidence (6-8 sources)

 

4.0
Does not show satisfactory justification and does not use sufficient academic evidence (<6 sources)

 

0  – 3.5
Essay structure, 2 marks

This relates to your ability to structure your essay appropriately (including introduction, conclusion, clear flow of paragraphs & use of topic sentences)

 

Excellent essay structure and flow

 

1.75 – 2
Very good essay structure.  Minor improvements needed to improve flow

 

1.5
Good essay structure including an intro, conclusion and paragraphs.  Work on flow & topic sentences 1.25
Satisfactory essay structure.  Introduction, conclusion and/or paragraphs need greater clarity and flow

 

1.0
Structure of essay was not satisfactory.  Introduction, conclusion and/or clear paragraphs not included

 

0 – 0.75
Written expression, 2 marks

This relates to your ability to write in your own words (paraphrase) in academic language with excellent spelling and grammar.

 

Excellent academic written expression in students own words

 

1.75 – 2
Very good written expression in students own words.  Minor spelling/grammatical errors

 

1.5
Good written expression.  Mostly written in students own words. Some spelling/grammatical errors

 

1.25
Satisfactory written expression.  Academic language, paraphrasing and spelling/grammar need work

 

1.0
Written expression is not satisfactory

 

0 – 0.75
Referencing, 2 marks

This relates to your ability to correctly use APA format for your in-text citations and reference list

 

Reference list and in-text citations are all correct for all sources

 

1.75 – 2
Reference list and in-text citations are all correct for most sources

 

1.5
Reference list and in-text citations are mostly correct for most sources

 

1.25
Reference list and in-text citations are included for all sources but contain many errors

 

1.0
Reference list and in-text citations are not included or are not correct

 

0 – 0.75
Presentation, 2 marks

This relates to your ability to correctly present your assignment through use of appropriate font, lay-out, spacing, and cover sheet – as outlined in the Fed Uni Guide to Lay-out and Appearance.

 

Excellent presentation of essay

 

1.75 – 2
Very good presentation of essay.  Minor errors in use of font, spacing or lay-out

 

1.5
Good presentation.  Make adjustments to font, spacing, and/or lay-out as per Fed Uni guide

 

1.25
Satisfactory presentation.  Use appropriate and consistent font, spacing, and lay-out as per Fed Uni guide

 

1.0
Presentation of essay is not satisfactory.  Presentation makes essay difficult to read and comprehend.

 

0 – 0.75
TOTAL MARKS /40

 

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  1. What do you think of the dominance of the Roman Church in the Middle Ages? Any positive and/or negative impacts?
  2. Some argued that in a modern society where science has been made popular and the vast of public are well educated, it is meaningless even ridiculous to hold any religious belief. What do you think about such view?
  3. The Catholic criticised the Protestants that their protestation1,ruined a once uniform kingdom by creating thousands of scattered kingdoms,2,ruined a wholehearted belief of God among nations by tearing it into pieces ofdifferent versions of belief,3,ruined the single dominance of Popeship by establishing thousands of tyranniesby local monarchies, and4,was more intolerant to their own fellow protestants than what the Roman Popedid in the past centuries.What do you think of such criticism of Protestants?
  4. Which aspect(s) of the Enlightenment movement impress you most? Why?

5.What do you think of the slogan of ‘universal human happiness as the highest goal’? What are its positive and negative impacts?

6.Do you think the core values upheld by the Enlightenment movement in conflict with the Christian belief?

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  • It’s an exam with just 5 questions.1.How did the event at the Lotus Eaters’ Island relate to the average Greek’s life? (What was the meaning for the listener?)2. What does the episode of Calypso reveal about the life of Greek men during this time3.How did Penelope keep the suitors at bay for so long? 4. What was Penelope’s final trick to see if Odysseus was really her husband? Based on two articles from 2003 or later, select two contemporary change leadership models. Compare them. Explain why they would be appropriate for today and chaotic, fast-paced global environment. In 200- 250 words with 3 references.

 

 

Leadership What are three leadership styles? Compare and contrast the three. When would it be advisable to display democracy when working in small groups? When would it be necessary to be an autocratic leader? Name a situation and explain what can happen if someone in authority cannot be flexible should a need arise?

write the answer in an essay with 2 PAGES

MLA style

NO plargisim

 

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5) How are your two philosophers coming along? Take time to finalize your search for the two and write your faculty member a paragraph in which you announce their names and the one area of political thought for comparison. In a sentence or two, explain what draws you to this focus.

 

********DO NOT TALK ABOUT Aristotle/Socriates********

**********DO NOT WRITE ABOUT Augustine.Arias*******

 

APA format, with intext citation

 

 

6) Please answer the following Critical Review Questions from Chapter Nine.

Chapter Nine –

  1. A strong emotional attachment and loyalty to a charismatic leader can have both beneficial and detrimental effects on followers. Explain both types of effective followers.
  2. Explain the importance of effective communications skills for charismatic and transformational leaders.
  3. Servant leadership emphasizes being able to serve and lead. In your opinion, is this contradictory or doable. Explain!
  4. Do you believe everyone has the same capability to become a servant leader, or are some people by their nature more inclined to be a servant leaders? Explain!
  5. Describe a charismatic or transformational leader you have known.

Your submission should be a minimum of two full pages of analysis.

Please use this reference;

 

 

Lussier, R. & Achua, C. (2015). Leadership: Theory, Application, & Skill development.      New York, NY: Cengage Learning.

 

7) In what ways do you think this treatment approach will affect terminations? Describe at least two other factors that influence a client&#39;s termination experience, and also two factors that influence a counselor&#39;s experience of a client&#39;s termination. Post should be at least 300 words.

 

8) Resource: Review “The Principle of Selection,” Ch. 7 of Oxford History of Art: Twentieth-Century American Art, and the Week Four Electronic Reserve Readings

Write a 200- to 350-word summary responding to the following:

  • What did both Warhol and Rauschenberg have in common in regards to their art work?
  • How were their subjects a reflection of the era in which they were created?
  • What list of found objects and imagery would you use if you were creating an art work about your daily experience?

 

 

9) 1. Briefly describe an organization you know well and discuss how the six types of knowledge provided below are expressed in that organization, Select two and discuss how you have experienced them in your own life. Embrained Embodied Encultured Embedded Encoded Commodified 2. Compare and contrast tacit, explicit, and codified knowledge. Share a situation in which you used each type or believe each was used on you. Describe the experience and how you think understanding was realized by you (how you learned what you learned). 3. Evaluate the advantages and disadvantages of using formal IPR to commercialize an innovation. Determine any barriers a start-up entrepreneur is likely to experience.

 

10) Please write one page about the following with two comments which I will use to respond to other students:  What might be holding you back from taking a giant step into leadership or management at a higher level in which you currently are serving? Are you afraid of stress or stressful situations? How do you deal with the day-to-day stressors of the corporate environment? Do you have empathy on your followers when deadlines are demanding and timelines are tight? What advice do you have for those who don’t have a good grip on the daily grind of work?

 

11)  you must complete an essay (no more than 500 words) on the following: Describe the importance of leadership and provide examples of your leadership style and leadership that you demonstrate in your school, communities or work.

 

12)  you must complete an essay (no more than 500 words) on the following: Describe the importance of leadership and provide examples of your leadership style and leadership that you demonstrate in your school, communities or work.

 

13) Describe the importance of leadership and provide examples of your leadership style and leadership that you demonstrate in your school, communities or work.(no more than 500 words)

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14) The quality of an individual’s leadership is measured, in part, by his or her influence on followers. For this class discussion, you will use your personal experience and the information you read to discuss how leadership influences subordinate behavior and performance.

 

Please respond to all of the following prompts in the class discussion section of your online course:

 

Apply a leadership theory to a manager or supervisor you have, or had in the past, to explain his/her performance as a leader.Using Fiedler&#39;s leadership theory as a basis for your answer, explain whether most successful managers are relationship-oriented or task-oriented.As more companies become increasingly reliant on virtual teams and teleworkers, how must an individual’s leadership style change to accommodate those types of workers?

 

15) I want to answer theses 11 questions from this lecture that is uploaded in this website:

 

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=bRS152iNglE

 

Please, do not try to answer them from another sources. You will find all of the answers when listen to the licture that is about 36 minutes

 

 

 

Here are the questions:

 

  1. Why did the Jews need their own country?

 

  1. What role did American President Harry S. Truman play?

 

  1. How did Zionists groups respond to the growing crisis for the Jews?

 

  1. How did the British react to Zionist activities and President Truman’s pressures?

 

  1. What was the United Nations?

 

  1. How did the United Nations get involved in the crisis over Palestine?

 

  1. What happened when the Jews in Palestine declared the creation of a State of Israel on 14 May 1948?

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  1. What patterns emerged after the Israeli War of Independence?

 

  1. What is the legacy of older forms of antisemitism today?

 

  1. What new forms of antisemitism exist today?

 

  1. How does the legacy of the Hebrew religion and antisemitism remain integral to how we understand ourselves in the US, Europe and the Middle East?

 

16) Create and video a role-play activity that demonstrates two of the following leadership styles: 1. Trait; 2. Style; 3. Situational; 4. Transformational. The following scenario may provide you with some ideas for a role-play activity: A reading in the approved, state adopted 3rd grade language arts book is a poem which is a rhyming witches’ spell. A group of parents decide to picket the school. How will leaders (principal and superintendent) with different styles manage this situation?

17) 1. What”are”your”objectives”for”the”internship?””How”will”the”internship”meet”your”objectives?”

 

  1. What”are”your”career”aims”and”objectives,”both”immediate”and”long”range?””How”will”this”

internship”support”these”objectives?” ”

 

18) Write an essay describing the four nonroutine cognitive skills as set out by Robert Reich. For each skill, describe a business situation in which the ability to perform that skill is essential. Be sure to explain how each skill is applied and why it is important in the situation.

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19)

  • Share one or two specific examples of how you will use the concepts or strategies presented in this class to contribute to your academic and career success
  • Which activities or assignments did you find most valuable in helping you recognize or develop skills you will use in the future?
  • What are the skills you would like to learn more about or continue to develop

 

 

20) Read the case and then answer the following questions.

Surface tension
The tech giant
s decision to make its own tablet computer is a bold gamble

“WITHIN five years, I predict it will be the most popular form of PC sold in America.” When Bill Gates spoke at a trade show in 2002, the then chairman of Microsoft left nobody in doubt that what his firm called the “tablet PC” would one day take the world of personal computing by storm. His sense that an upheaval was coming was spot on, but his timing wasn’t. Only when Apple launched its wildly popular iPad in 2010 did computing tablets at last take off. Now Microsoft is scrambling to gain a foothold in one of the hottest markets in the IT industry.

On June 18th 2012, Microsoft unveiled Surface, a tablet that will bear Microsoft’s name and is supposed to be a showcase for its new Windows 8 operating system, due to be rolled out in the autumn. The new device will be available in two models: a basic version with a processor designed by ARM (which also powers the iPad) and a souped-up one with an Intel chip for business

users. Both models boast some innovative features, notably a built-in stand and a cover that doubles as a keyboard.

Microsoft’s decision to make its own tablet is another sign of how much the company is being buffeted by shifts that are transforming the world of IT. Just as momentous as the rise of social networking is the rapid growth of mobile computing (see Figure 1). This has softened sales of Windows-based PCs, the foundation of Microsoft’s fortunes. And it has boosted rivals such as Apple and Google, whose respective mobile operating systems, iOS and Android, power most smartphones and tablets.

A related threat to Microsoft’s business is the “consumerisation” of IT. Growing numbers of employees are now demanding to use their own phones and tablets at work. In many cases, companies are caving in. As a result, iPads and Android-based tablets are spreading rapidly through offices and factories – the heartland of Windows-based PCs.

Critics point out that Microsoft’s track record in hardware is mixed. Although it has produced hits such as the Xbox game console, it has also had some deeply embarrassing misses, including Zune, a portable music player that has failed to rival Apple’s iPod.

Microsoft entered into video games and game consoles in 2001. The launch of Xbox 360 in 2005 has proved extraordinary and also particularly interesting. The rationale behind its market entry into the video games industry comes with a good reason. It was designed primarily to keep their potential competitor, Sony, in check. Although Sony operated in a different industry, Microsoft recognized that Sony could emerge as its rival.

Microsoft’s Zune was launched in November 2006 and Microsoft believed that it could compete with the Apple iPod, which had been in the market since 2001 and dominated the multimedia player and music download business around the world. The Wall Street Journal reported that revenue from the Zune player was $85 million during the 2008 holiday season compared to $185 million in the same period in 2007. Apple’s iPod revenue during the last quarter of 2008 was $3.37 billion. Microsoft, which had access to as much hardware development expertise as any company in the world and the capital to support a massive marketing budget for new products, failed completely in its attempt to get a large part of the iPod market.

For the Surface, analysts worried that consumers may be confused by the two versions of the tablet, which will have very different price points. Microsoft has just indicated that the expensive model is likely to cost the same as thin laptops, which sells for around $1,000, whereas the cheaper version will be priced to compete with comparative ARM-based tablets, probably at around $500. Comparatively, the cheapest iPad with a high- resolution screen costs $499.

Another concern is that by making its own device, Microsoft risks alienating other firms that are working on Windows 8 tablets, such as Dell and HP. But the company’s main aim may be to show how its new operating system can best be used, thus setting a standard that other device makers will strive to exceed – and perhaps produce a Windows 8 iPad-killer.

If that is indeed the aim, Microsoft appears to have missed a key lesson from Apple. One reason why the iPad has been so successful is that it blends beautiful hardware with an amazing range of software. Microsoft has attractive assets, in particular Skype (an internet calling service), its alliance with Barnes & Noble (a big online bookseller) and its Xbox ecosystem. Yet other than the firm’s Office suite of productivity tools, none of these was shown at this week’s launch. “Microsoft has missed an opportunity to highlight things that can inspire people,” said Sarah Rotman Epps of Forrester, a research firm. Perhaps when its tablet hits the market later this year, the company will have found ways to bring more of these to the surface.

Microsoft has reaffirmed the strategy of having its own hardware devices recently. In September 2013, Microsoft agreed to acquire the handset business of Nokia for about US$ 7.2 billion. Thus, Microsoft will not only be making tablets but mobile phones as well. In a letter to all Microsoft employees, CEO Steve Ballmer, reiterated that “The form and delivery of our value will shift to devices and services versus packaged software.” In November, Microsoft launched the second generation of the tablets and an updated version of Windows. The device strategy is here to stay.

Unlike earlier ventures into devices, like the Zune music player and the game console Xbox, the motivation for getting into the hardware side of business in relation to mobile phones and tablets seems to be the strengthening of the Windows platform but the opening up of a new source of revenue is still in doubt.

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Question A :

Explain the differences between diversification and vertical integration strategies in relation to the scope of business.

Question B :

Would you classify the following strategic moves of Microsoft as diversification or vertical integration strategy? Why?
A) Launching of the portable music player Zune
B) Launching of the Xbox game console
C) Launching of the Surface tablet.

Question C :

What are the major potential benefits and risks of Microsoft’s strategic shift from selling ‘packaged software’ (i.e. Windows operating system) to launching ‘devices and services’ (i.e. tablets and mobile phones)?

 

21) Why look at art?

How would you explain the importance of looking at art? What skills does it develop? When you have come in contact with various types of art?

 

22)

  1. Evaluate the three parts of the message receiving process.
  2. Compare two common approaches to getting feedback, and explain why they do not work.
  3. In your opinion, can a leader maintain a personal friendship with some members of his/her work group or team without creating the perception of in-groups in his/her work unit? In your opinion, explain the impact of such a relationship to one of the stages of the dyadic theory.
  4. What should a leader do to dispel any notion or misconception that there are in-groups and out-groups in his/her work unit? Explain. Evaluate the two types of relationships under the vertical dyadic linkage model.
  5. What do you say to those who argue that tactics used by followers to get noticed by their leader (such as impression management, ingratiation, and self-promotion) are shameful and self-serving and should be avoided? Explain and offer your opinion of the link to developing high-quality LMX relationships.

 

  1. Critical analysis of leadership theory and style maintains

**Select one or more:*
a. leadership should come from the ranks
b. leadership is most effective when there are contingent rewards and corrective coaching
c. leadership should be defined by the structure of the organization
d. leadership skills make a manager the most powerful entity

  1. Positive psychologists refer to positivity and success as a measure of

**Select one or more:
a. identifying and fixing problems
b. languishing and exceeding potentials
c. counterproductive behaviors and preventing them in the workplace
d. higher managerial performance, both in terms of decision making and interpersonal tasks

  1. Organizational change involves

**Select one or more:
a. behavior modification across the organization and leadership that scans for environmental resistance
b. learning capabilities across management teams and a survey of all stakeholders for support
c. behaviors that should be altered and aligned with current procedures
d. actions that are amended to provide shifts in the direction an organization to takes to implement improvement.

 

24) Explain the meaning of dualism and dual societies. Do you think that the concept of dualism adequately portrays the development picture in most developing countries? Explain your answer.

 

25) Australian Indigenous Contemporary Perspectives

  • Assessment Description/Focus: Community Case Study Report
  • Value:50 %
  • Length:1,500 words (the word limit does not include the report’s Contents Page)
  • Reference Style:CDU Harvard Reference Style. Provide at least 12-13 references in the reference list. For detailed information please visit

https://www.cdu.edu.au/sites/default/files/Harvard-Referencing_ALLSP1.pdf

http://libguides.cdu.edu.au/cdureferencing/harvard

  • Task:Community case study Report

You may choose one of the networks/institutions/organisations that you identified as sites for information in relation to Indigenous knowledges/perspectives provided below and explore its activities in relation to the protection, maintenance and promotion of Indigenous knowledges and perspectives.

Networks/Organisations/Institutions:

Local – Larrakia Nation Aboriginal Corporation (LNAC); Northern Land Council (NLC); Central Land

Council (CLC); Garma Festival of Traditional Cultures; Kimberley Land Council (KLC); Torres Strait

Regional Authority (TSRA)

National – National Congress of Australia’s First Nations Peoples; Lowitja Institute; National

Indigenous Research and Knowledges Networks (NIRAKN); Assembly of First Nations; Australian

Institute of Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Studies (AIATSIS); Poche Indigenous Health Network

International – Indigenous Peoples’ Council on Biocolonialism (IPCB); Indigenous Work Group for

Indigenous Affairs (IWGIA); International Alliance of Indigenous and Tribal Peoples of the Tropic

Forests; Centre for World Indigenous Studies (CWIS); World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO)

This assessment will include:

  1. an explanation of what the study is about.
  2. a brief background of the network/institution/organisation in relation to the nature of how its active social engagement in policy and advocacy reflects broader Indigenous contemporary perspectives.
  3. a highlight of ethics and protocols in accessing and utilising Indigenous knowledges – For example researching and working in Indigenous contexts.
  4. how issues of Indigenous human, cultural and intellectual property rights are addressed – refer to and outline relevant guidelines, protocols and laws that protect human, cultural, and intellectual property and copyrights when working in Indigenous contexts.
  • Preparation:

For ideas to assist with this assessment, you may read a case study on an Indigenous organisation, Kimberley Land Council’s intellectual property and traditional policy by Forster & Janke (2015). Refer to the link below

https://learn-ap-southeast-2-prod-fleet01-xythos.s3.ap-southeast-2.amazonaws.com/5b2b431b0cadd/5551382?response-cache-control=private%2C%20max-age%3D21600&response-content-disposition=inline%3B%20filename%2A%3DUTF-8%27%27Forster%2520and%2520Janke%25202015%2520ILB2015V008N18_017.pdf&response-content-type=application%2Fpdf&X-Amz-Algorithm=AWS4-HMAC-SHA256&X-Amz-Date=20200520T090000Z&X-Amz-SignedHeaders=host&X-Amz-Expires=21600&X-Amz-Credential=AKIAIW5OVFIUOTV36DNA%2F20200520%2Fap-southeast-2%2Fs3%2Faws4_request&X-Amz-Signature=ce623865236c3afa9c0777897d862efc115aa5711308437907942b890312de5f

References:

  1. Foster, P and Janke, T 2015, “Keeping cultural knowledge with Indigenous research protocols: A case study on the Kimberley land council’s intellectual property and traditional knowledge policy”, Indigenous Law Bulletin, vol. 8, no. 18, pp. 17-20.

In addition to this reading, you Must look at the following references in relation to ‘Practising ethical and cultural protocols in Indigenous contexts’ for your case study report:

  1. Aguirre, BV & Tualima, H 2017, Protect and promote your culture; A practical guide to intellectual property for Indigenous people and local community,World Intellectual Property Organisation, https://www.wipo.int/edocs/pubdocs/en/wipo_pub_1048.pdf
  2. Janke, T 2010, Who owns story,Australian Institute of Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Studies,https://aiatsis.gov.au/sites/default/files/docs/asp/who-owns-story.pdf
  3. Janke, T 2009, Writing up indigenous research,http://docs.wixstatic.com/ugd/7bf9b4_a05f0ce9808346daa4601f975b652f0b.pdf
  4. Janke, T 1998, Our culture: our future report on Australian Indigenous cultural and intellectual property rights,http://docs.wixstatic.com/ugd/7bf9b4_2740d8cff7d24320b70f8a34015f9a53.pdf
  5. World Intellectual Property Organisation n.d., What is intellectual property?, https://www.wipo.int/edocs/pubdocs/en/intproperty/450/wipo_pub_450.pdf

LINKS:

http://docs.wixstatic.com/ugd/7bf9b4_a05f0ce9808346daa4601f975b652f0b.pdf

https://www.adcq.qld.gov.au/__data/assets/pdf_file/0003/2289/2011-Mabo-Oration-booklet-tagged.pdf

http://www.wipo.int/export/sites/www/tk/en/databases/creative_heritage/docs/terry_janke_icip.pdf

https://search.informit.com.au/fullText;dn=338099393895770;res=IELIND

  • Presentation:Give your study a title, and you must present it in a Formal Report format. Please read the file attached to it for detailed Requirement about this report.
  • Assessment Criteria
  1. Correct presentation format – Report (5%)
  2. Clearly and concisely construct an argument (15%)
  3. Demonstrate critical engagement with the topic (15%)
  4. Use of correct sentence structure, spelling, and grammar (10%)
  5. Correct use of CDU Harvard Referencing Style – in-text and reference list (5%)

 

26) Q9: Provide an understanding of the complexities of case
management in the following areas:
a. Family structure
b. Dynamics
c. Communication
d. Decision making
MR FER
Q10: Identify at least two relevant Mental Health / AOD related information in each
of the following areas:
? Organisation and regulatory standards
? Policy and procedures
? Legislation and statutory mandates
MR FER
Q11: Please provide the requirements for making a referral process to another service
where needs have been identified.
MR FER
Q12. Explain the principles and practices for the following:
a. Planning complex service inputs
b. Working across multiple services
MR FER
Q13: How can we as Case Managers in the mental health or AOD sector,
a. Understand the impact of service duplication
b. Recognise the issues faced by clients, their families and carers accessing multiple
services?
MR FER
Q14. What are the requirements of evidence – based practices? MR FER
Q15. Describe how a Case Manager recognises at least two indicators of imminence of
self-harm or harm to other.

 

27) In approaching this case study, you are to take on the fictional position of one of the following: a) a defence activist, b) a prosecutorial activist, c) a police activist, d) a court activist, or e) a victim activist. Taking on this position, you are to analyse one of the following contemporary criminal justice cases from your chosen perspective: – The conviction of George Pell – The conviction of Borce Ristevski – The over-representation of people with acquired brain injury in the CJS – The over-representation of Indigenous Australians in the CJS In undertaking your case study, you are to provide an overview of your chosen case (who, what, when, where), and outline various criminal justice issues from your activist position. Provide recommendations as to how the issues you identify can be properly addressed. Use evidence and examples to support your claims.

Attachments:

 

28) . How many Brahma worlds (Form planes) are there? Name the Brahma world where the beings born there have no mind. Write down the name of the 2S Rupavacara Vipaka Citta. (2nd Fine material Resultant Consciousness) in English or Pali 6. Decline one of the following in all cases 1. Loka 2. Canda 3. Dhamma Or Give the Pali terms for the following:
1. Child 2. Town 3. Tree 4. Village 5. Doctrine 6. Sun 7. Moon 8. Boy 9. King 10. Farmer

Attachments:

 

29) You are required to write an academic essay on the topic listed above. Your essay should follow an essay structure and should flow in a clear and logical manner. You should write the essay in your own words and ensure that you acknowledge any direct quotations appropriately.
You need to support your response with appropriate evidence from academic sources (minimum of 8) and ensure that you reference these sources appropriately in APA format.
You should ensure that you meet the word length limit and proofread your work carefully. You should also ensure that you follow the Fed Uni Guide to Lay-out and Appearance to format and present your essay.

Attachments:

 

30) ASW3101 Assessment 2 – Professional Social Work Report (35% weighting of unit assessment)

Template

PART A – SOCIAL WORK ASSESSMENT PLAN, 1000 WORDS max.(70%)

Students are to write a response to Questions 1-5 below and then complete the Table.

*Please note that the first section of the table, called ‘Personal Information’ is already completed.

  1. Briefly explain the purpose/s of completing an assessment in social work practice with reference to readings?
  2. a) What are the primary issues of concern in this case study?b) Drawing on your understanding of human development, the effects of trauma and social work practice theory, explain why you think these are of primary concern?
  3. Identify and explain each of the social work theories you would use to complete this assessment? (Linking your understanding of the theory with reference material and readings)
  4. Identify the assessment and interpersonal skills you would choose to complete this assessment with the client in the case scenario, and provide at least two examples of how you would use them?
  5. Identify one of your personal values or beliefs and discuss how this may be challenged while engaged with this scenario and propose how you would address this challenge, mindful of social work ethics

Assessment Report – Marina Heights Community Health Service

Personal Information
Name of client Trudi Ying
Contact details Mobile phone: 0400 123 678 Work 6231 1111

Address: 1 Banks Avenue, Green Valley, Victoria 4500.

Date of birth 1.6.1990
Source of referral Marina Heights Home Care Service
Reason for referral Has been diagnosed with ongoing social phobia following recovery form workplace accident
Presenting Issue Concerns about Ms Ying’s capacity to.
Current financial situation Ms Ying’s financial situation is now under strain.
Employment/education Ms Ying is currently unemployed and not able to look for employment
Does the client identify as Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander? No
Background Information
Describe client’s relationships with family members or significant others
Current Situation
Physical health & wellbeing
Mental health & wellbeing
Traumatic events
Spirituality & religion
Strengths
Vulnerabilities/challenges
Client’s concerns about current situation
Client’s expressed wishes or goals
Conclusions & Summary

(Assessment of situation)

Recommendations

(Initial plan for intervention)

PART B – WRITING A CASENOTE

Students are to write a casenote using the template below and case study provided. It is expected that students will use the Casenote guide provided in class to complete this task. 400 words max. (30%)

Casenote – Marina Heights Community Health Service

Name of client:
Address & contact details of client
Presenting problem:
Referral source: Self/ other:

If other please name:

Reason for referral
Date of client interview:
Outline client’s key concerns
Outline other concerns, if any
What goals have been identified to address concerns? Goal 1 Goal 2 Goal 3
What actions or strategies are proposed to achieve the identified goals? Action/strategy Action/strategy Action/strategy
Agreed date and time of next appointment /contact with client
Date of casenote: Worker name:

 

31) Purpose

Our course has explored of a wide variety of people and styles involved in sex, dance, entertainment and art. And there are so many other innovators/innovations we haven’t considered. Who, where or what style in these fields are are you interested in knowing more about?

For this assignment, select a person, place or style NOT covered in this course and explain/justify your choice in terms of history, sex, dance, entertainment and/or art. Make the case for your choice to possibly be included in this course in the future.

Task

  1. Select and research your topic.
  2. Explain how your topic connects to each of these areas: history, sex, dance, entertainment and/or art. Use at least one slide per above mentioned area. Use at least one video in your presentation. Creativity combined with visual impact will be part of the grade. Judicious use of images (photos, drawings, etc.) that clarify and/or illuminate is encouraged. The numbers of images used is not the point; be selective.
  3. Compile your sources in a bibliography, using the citation style (Links to an external site.) of your choice, for the end of the presentation.
  4. Create a presentation using your choice of software: PowerPoint (Links to an external site.), Prezi (Links to an external site.), Google Slides (Links to an external site.), or Keynote (Links to an external site.) or video editing software (iMovie (Links to an external site.) or Windows Movie Maker (Links to an external site.)). (Note that the links to the software lead to instructions on their use.) You are responsible for choosing and using the software without assistance from the instructor. Your submitted file must open easily on a basic, current computer connected to the Internet without any add-ons, extensions, conversions, updates, etc. The file type should be either .ppt or .pdf, or the URL of your video uploaded to YouTube.If you use the .pdf file type, know that transitions and videos will not run/display. Make sure any privacy settings allow easy and free access. If you have ANY questions about software, do not contact the instructor — contact the IT help desk at 702-895-0777 or ithelp@unlv.edu.
    • Maximum: 10 slides or 1.5 minutes for videos
    • The attached sample .ppt is solely for illustrative purposes. Do not use it if you make a PowerPoint!
    • Check your presentation several times to ensure it functions correctly — you may want to email the file or link to yourself and open it on another computer — and does not have any watermark or any extraneous slides.

</pstyle=”margin-top:>

Attachments:

 

33) Overview
The purpose of this assignment is to investigate a dataset that has been produced as a result of the survey you conducted on Climate Change. You now need to interrogate the dataset in order to answer questions posed by your client, the Australian Government. Ultimately, you will need to analyse the data, interpret the results, and then draw appropriate conclusions.
Scenario
The Australian Government has previously commissioned you, Ellyse Perry (Chief Analyst at Survey House), to develop a survey to help them gauge the views of the Australian public regarding “Climate Change”. Now, in order to implement possible Climate Change policy initiatives, the Government, through their representative Daisy Pearce (Manager, Public Relations in the Prime Minister’s Office), wants you to interpret the data gathered from your survey and then answer several questions.
Daisy does not have an analytics background, so it’s important that you utilise “plain, easy to understand language” in your answers. If you believe you need to include any technical terms, then you must explain these in a clear and succinct manner.

Attachments:

 

 

 

34) 1. Describe the concept of Aboriginal and/or Torres Strait Islander cultural safety (20-50 words). 2. Describe how cultural safety is related to cultural awareness (20-50 words) 3. Describe how cultural safety is related to cultural competence (20-50 words)

Attachments:

 

35) 1 Provide an outline of the cost-benefits analysis method.
2 Describe each of the following types of innovation:
? Incremental innovation
? Disruptive innovation
? Architectural innovation
? Radical innovation
3 Describe Schumpeter’s theory of innovation including the five types of innovations described in the theory.
4 List the basic elements of the concept of creativity
5 List the five organisational learning principles.
6 List three quality management and continuous improvement theories.

Attachments:

 

36) Imagine you are leading the introduction of a beginning teacher mentoring program at an educational institution. Your task is to lead the development of mentors, so they have the skills and knowledge to mentor beginning teacher effectively. As part of this task you are asked to DESIGN two resources:
1. An 8-10 slide PowerPoint (PPT) introducing mentoring of beginning teachers to the mentors and mentees. The PPT should include: a. A definition and the benefits of mentoring b. Key considerations for mentoring beginning teachers c. An example of an effective mentoring session (this may be an excerpt from a transcript, YouTube clip, recorded example) with a analysis of why it is effective d. Some useful professional readings for mentors and mentees e. Speaking notes on each slide which include key points that would be discussed when presenting the slide f. Reference list

 

37) Summarise the neurophysiological evidence for the right hemisphere differing from the left hemisphere in holistic processing, with special reference to facial recognition

Attachments:

 

 

38) Topic: Discuss and critically evaluate the role of anxiety in academic
procrastination.
Word Limit: 1500 words. There is no 10% leeway on this limit. In- text
references are included in the word count, but not the reference list.
The literature review must also have a separate title page (with author byline)
and abstract (preferably no longer than 100 words).

 

 

39) Create a research question using the General Social Survey dataset that can be answered using categorical analysis.

  1. What is your research question?
  2. What is the null hypothesis for your question?
  3. What research design would align with this question?
  4. What dependent variable was used and how is it measured?
  5. What independent variable is used and how is it measured?
  6. If you found significance, what is the strength of the effect?
  7. Explain your results for a lay audience and further explain what the answer is to your research question.

Be sure to support your Main Post and Response Post with reference to the week’s Learning Resources and other scholarly evidence in APA Style.

 

 

41)

Create a research question using the General Social Survey dataset that can be answered using categorical analysis.

  1. What is your research question?
  2. What is the null hypothesis for your question?
  3. What research design would align with this question?
  4. What dependent variable was used and how is it measured?
  5. What independent variable is used and how is it measured?
  6. If you found significance, what is the strength of the effect?
  7. Explain your results for a lay audience and further explain what the answer is to your research question.

Be sure to support your Main Post and Response Post with reference to the week’s Learning Resources and other scholarly evidence in APA Style.

 

42) 1. Create an abstract class DiscountPolicy. It should have a single abstract method computeDiscount that will return the discount for the purchase of a given number of a single item. The method has two parameters, count and itemCost. 2. Derive a class BulkDiscount from DiscountPolicy, as described in the previous exercise. It should have a constructor that has two parameters, minimum and percent. It should define the method computeDiscount so that if the quantity purchased of an item is more than minimum, the discount is percent percent. 3. Derive a class BuyNItemsGetOneFree from DiscountPolicy, as described in Exercise 1. The class should have a constructor that has a single parameter n. In addition, the class should define the method computeDiscount so that every nth item is free. For example, the following table gives the discount for the purchase of various counts of an item that costs $10, when n is 3: count 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 Discount 0 0 10 10 10 20 204. Derive a class CombinedDiscount from DiscountPolicy, as described in Exercise 1. It should have a constructor that has two parameters of type DiscountPolicy. It should define the method computeDiscount to return the maximum value returned by computeDiscount for each of its two private discount policies. The two discount policies are described in Exercises 2 and 3. 5. Define DiscountPolicy as an interface instead of the abstract class described in Exercise 1.

 

43) Task Description

Write a research proposal for an original empirical study. The proposal is intended to build on the Research Proposal Part 1. Proposal Part 2 must:

  • be on a topic relevant to the program of study in which you are currently enrolled, and
  • involve data collected from or about human research subjects.

The proposal must contain:

  • introduction including brief review of literature
  • aim and research question
  • description and justification of research methods (including design, sampling, data collection, and analysis)
  • discussion of research ethics
  • timeline and budget, and
  • description and justification of limitations

You are permitted to make adjustments to the research question and literature review you submitted in Part 1. However, given time constraints, students are strongly discouraged from selecting an entirely new topic.

You may use this research proposal as a foundation for subsequent study (e.g. a dissertation or independent study). If you plan to do so, please consult with the relevant convenor or academic supervisor to ensure the proposal you develop is suitable for this purpose.

In preparing this assignment, students are strongly encouraged to consider:

  • Course content (especially Topic 7)
  • Marking criteria sheet
  • Feedback from the teaching team on their blog post and Proposal Part 1

Criteria & Marking:

  • Logical, specific, and answerable research question supported by literature review (15 marks)
  • Methods are described, justified, and answer the research question (35 marks)
  • Ethical issues are described and addressed (20 marks)
  • Resources and activities covered in budget and timeline. Limitations are described and justified. (15 marks)
  • Academic standards of writing and referencing (15 marks)

 

44) Assignment
For this assignment, you will research assessment options for the offender population that you are writing about in your Signature Assignment.

Find three peer-reviewed journal articles that address common conditions and assessment measurements used with this population. Prepare an annotation for each article.

After you have completed the annotations, prepare a 1-page summary that includes the following:

  • An overview of the population and the condition that is being assessed
  • A listing and brief description of assessment instruments or methods utilized with this population
  • A description of any validity reliability concerns with the instruments
  • Recommendations regarding the assessment practices and tools one might utilize when assessing this population

 

45) 1. Complex visual processing, such as visuospatial processing, happens in which part of the brain?

 

46) 1. Create an art work or digital timeline of Rizal’s first travels abroad 2. The timeline should cover the period starting from his departure from the Philippines on May 3, 1882 until the printing of his novel, Noli Me Tangere in 1887 3. Create an art work (e.g. drawing, sketch, etc.) or use MSWord, Powerpoint or any appropriate computer program for your work. 4. Design the timeline with the correct information and use the appropriate images and/or graphics.

 

 

47) An essential characteristic of a profession is the need for its members to abide by a code of
ethics.” ACS Code of Ethics – 2014.
ICT professions require standard ethical behaviours in working environments. Australian
Computer Society has outlined the Code of Ethics of certified ICT professions. This Code of
Professional Conduct (the Code) has six core ethical values and provides the associated
requirements for professional conduct in ICT job roles. ACS requires its members to abide by
these values, and act with responsibility and integrity in all of their professional dealings.
The learning outcomes covered by this task include:
• Describe the practices used in real-world research including legal, commercial and ethical frameworks.
• Make decisions based on social, cultural and ethical issues, and understand the values
expounded in professional practices in diverse contexts.
The Task
In this assessment, you are required to:
• Read the six core ‘ACS code of Ethics’ and its associated requirements
• Read the ‘ACS Code of Professional Conduct Case Studies’
• Search for a real life case scenario where there was a dilemma of ethical value in ICT
industry or profession.
• Provide the following information about the incident of interest:
o Description of the incident
o Must also include the references to the sources of information
o What was the ethical issue?
o What ICT profession or activity was involved?
o What ACS code of Ethics and their associated requirements can be applied to
the situation? Refer to the ACS code of Ethics document provided.

Attachments:

 

 

48) Create a research question using the General Social Survey dataset that can be answered by multiple regression.

Choose a categorical variable to dummy code as one of your predictor variables.

Estimate a multiple regression model that answers your research question. Post your response to the following:

  1. What is your research question?
  2. Interpret the coefficients for the model, specifically commenting on the dummy variable.
  3. Run diagnostics for the regression model. Does the model meet all of the assumptions? Be sure and comment on what assumptions were not met and the possible implications. Is there any possible remedy for one the assumption violations?

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49) Students are to select a character from a film / novel / TV show where the character has suffered
loss and grief (either they have lost someone significant to them or a significant part / aspect of
themselves).
Students are to simulate the first two sessions of this client coming to therapy. You do not need to
describe these sessions word for word, but please reflect upon what would the therapist aim to
achieve in these two sessions, and how might a client and therapist work through the first few
sessions.
In your response you need to include the following:
a) Describe the presenting issues for the client.
b) Describe how you would engage and connect to this client.
c) Explain your thoughts and ideas around contracting and case planning; what are your goals
and objectives for the client and the therapy process?
d) What theoretical ideas might inform and support your therapeutic process?
e) What interventions would you consider using (please provide rationales)?
f) What obstacles can you anticipate / might arise?
g) How would you potentially work to overcome these?
h) What strategies for self-care might you employ?
Analysis of this client’s grief and loss experience forms part of your written analysis.
In your written response you need to demonstrate your understanding of the theories studied this
term and the realistic process clients go through in this context. More important than demonstration
of skill and technique is your demonstrated ability to reflect, analyse and critique and provide your
rationale

50) Social Work Agency Assignment, student scholars will “view themselves as learners and engage those with whom they work as informants 2.1.4(4) Students will be scheduled to give an oral presentation about his/her agency. Students may use note cards, PowerPoint or other medians to support the presentations. This will essentially be a group oral presentation and will be evaluated as such. Any handouts that the student wishes to include will be distributed at the end of the presentation. The presentation should be only be (10) minutes (groups will be stopped if over the allotted time) long and must include but not be limited to the following. 1. A history of the agency and/or program 2. The purposes, functions, goals and types of services provided by the agency/program 3. A description of the clientele of the agency/program, areas of diversity/difference and strengths perspectives 4. The primary problems presented by the clients that the agency/program serves 5. How the agency/program is funded 6. Your impression and explanation of the Social Worker’s understanding of the scope of the services available to them through the specific agency/program setting 7. The interviewees’ knowledge and perception of the role of social work ethics within the agency/program

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51) 6. Identify the main energy and raw material inputs needed to manufacture this product and the stage(s) in the production process where the majority of energy and materials inputs are consumed. (2 marks- Marking Criteria: Understand concepts) 7. Identify the main causes of unsustainability over the product’s lifecycle (production, distribution, consumption and disposal stages). (3 marks- Marking Criteria: Apply theory, Understand concepts, Analyse and interpret information) 8. By applying the principle of the ‘waste=food model’ or the ‘waste management hierarchy’ provide one recommendation to reduce the volume of waste or pollutants discharged in the production, distribution or consumption of this product. (4 marks- Marking Criteria: Apply theory, Creativity) 9. By applying the principle of the cradle to cradle design protocol, suggest one key improvement to the design of this product and explain how your idea will reduce the unsustainability of the product. (4 marks- Marking Criteria: Apply theory, Creativity) 10. Identify this organisation’s key stakeholder groups and their specific expectations of the organisation. (4 marks- Marking Criteria: Understand concepts, Depth of research) 11. Describe one major corporate social responsibility (CSR) issue which confronts this organisation. (3 marks- Marking Criteria: Understand concepts, Depth of research, Referencing)

 

 

  1. Criminal Justice Theory
  2. Why do girls break the law? How do their reasons for law-breaking differ from males? What changes are necessary in policy and practice to adequately prevent and respond to girls’ lawbreaking?
  3. Shaw and McKay are known for their Social Disorganization Theory. It is a theory to explain differences in levels of offending across neighborhoods. Over the years, the theory has been expanded upon and further developed. Using the concepts of Social Disorganization Theory, explain how and why a particular neighborhood (Neighborhood A) may have a higher rate of juvenile delinquency than a second neighborhood (Neighborhood B).
  4. How have biological explanations of delinquency been regarded in criminology? What is the state of the field today with regards to biology and crime?
  5. Trace the evolution or development of anomie or strain theories from their origin to their modern variations. Be sure to name each theory and theorist(s) and discuss the similarities and differences between the theories.
  6. All I need to know, including the behaviors that meet our society’s standard of conduct, I learned in Kindergarten. I have also come to understand that people can, later on in their life, learn to engage in criminal behavior in the same way they learn to play golf, drive a car, perform appendicitis surgery, or write a scholarly article. The acquisition, execution, and continued involvement in all types of behavior including those that are defined as a crime is learned. The learning process can be through observation, apprenticeship, and positive reinforcement. Discuss and assess the validity of the claims above. Identify and review the several theoretical versions that underpin these claims.
  7. One of the most consistent and strongest relationships in the field of delinquency theory is that associating with delinquent peers is highly correlated with delinquency. Discuss the theoretical and empirical literature concerning delinquent peers and delinquency.

 

 

53) Select two contrasting theories used by social workers, as discussed in class. I would like to discuss • Pychodynamic theory • Cognitive-Behaviourist theory (i) Describe each theory (about 600 words total) (ii) Critically examine their cultural and epistemological assumptions (about 800 words) (iii) Discuss the implications of this for social work practice (about 600 words) In writing this assignment you may use the first person if you wish (e.g. ”I think . . .”, ”My experience of . . .) etc Marking Criteria: You will be assessed on how well you understand the theories you have selected (10 marks) How well you analyse them in terms of epistemological and cultural assumptions (20 marks) How well you can relate these to social work practice (20 marks).

 

54) Does Professor Gordon’s evaluation of de Tocqueville’s words coincide with your own? If there are differences in interpretation, examine those differences carefully. Examine how and why your interpretation might differ? What does this infer about your own instinctual reaction to the term “American exceptionalism”? Do you agree with your classmates’ interpretations? Hypothesize about the similarities and differences in your responses and why they are similar/different.

http://www.visionandvalues.org/2011/04/the-roots-of-tocqueville-s-american-exceptionalism/

 

 

55) Adult Development and Aging Life is characterized by transformations; every aspect of the human being changes along the whole lifespan during both development and aging. As people get older, major challenges impact on their ability to engage in everyday tasks. The assignment about

Later Life And Aging.

  • Please type papers. Your paper should be about 2 pages long.
  • Assignments should be submitted on the Moodle before the due date. Zero mark will be awarded to answers that are copied and submitted late.
  • Due Date: 30/04/2020.
  • No emailed assignmentswill be accepted.

 

56) choose one question below to answer. The research essay shall go beyond a mere recollection of knowledge, and shall show the reflection and critical evaluation of the chose topic. All sources from someone else’s work shall be precisely referenced in footnotes. A bibliography is required to be provided at the end of the essay.

  1. What do you think of the dominance of the Roman Church in the Middle Ages? Any positive and/or negative impacts?
  2. Some argued that in a modern society where science has been made popular and the vast of public are well educated, it is meaningless even ridiculous to hold any religious belief. What do you think about such view?
  3. The Catholic criticised the Protestants that their protestation1,ruined a once uniform kingdom by creating thousands of scattered kingdoms,2,ruined a wholehearted belief of God among nations by tearing it into pieces ofdifferent versions of belief,3,ruined the single dominance of Popeship by establishing thousands of tyranniesby local monarchies, and4,was more intolerant to their own fellow protestants than what the Roman Popedid in the past centuries.What do you think of such criticism of Protestants?
  4. Which aspect(s) of the Enlightenment movement impress you most? Why?

5.What do you think of the slogan of ‘universal human happiness as the highest goal’? What are its positive and negative impacts?

6.Do you think the core values upheld by the Enlightenment movement in conflict with the Christian belief?

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57) For this assessment, source a journal article of your choice on recent research about a current social
issue. The study should have been conducted within the last 5 years. The assessment asks you to
critique the paper by discussing the component parts.
In answering this assessment, students should first briefly describe the paper, including:
1. the stated rationale and background for the study
2. the aims and objectives of the study
3. an overview of the research methods used, including the techniques for sampling, data
collection and data analysis.
Then, after the above description of the paper, conduct a critical assessment of the methods
used. This should include a critical discussion of the following areas:
1. the overall research design
2. the way key concepts were defined and measured
3. the sampling process
4. the data collection methods
5. the way the data was analysed
6. the approach to interpretation of results
7. ethical issues
In your assessment, discuss the strengths and weaknesses of the methodological approach
showing what could have been done differently and why. Issues of validity and reliability should
also be mentioned.

 

58) 1.What does it mean to say that an individual is an “information literate person”?

2.Cite examples from your experience, as to how the information literacy component of this course (i.e. UGRC 136) has positively affected your: (i) Academic endeavours(ii) Socio-political life.

 

 

59) Task overview: 1. Choose 1 problem solving theory, i.e. task centred practice OR crisis intervention 2. Choose 1 psychological theory, i.e. cognitive behavioural therapy OR attachment 3. Analyse the case study from the perspective of the 2 theories you have selected. You need to: 1. Describe the main arguments of each theory (approx. 250 words per theory) 2. Explain why you selected that specific theory; why it is helpful in understanding the case study? (approx. 150 words per theory) 3. Identify 2 key principles from each of the theories (4 in total) 4. Apply the 4 principles to aspects of the case study; how do they inform your understanding of the case study? How would they shape your practice? (approx. 250 words per principle) 4. Draw an eco-map and genogram that represent the case study (approx. 50 words) 5. Using the principle of stress, explain why systems theory is helpful in understanding the case study (approx. 350 words) Please use sub-headings and include a brief introduction and conclusion (i.e. 150 words each). The word limit is 2500 words. 10% variance is allowed. It is acceptable to write in first person and use personal pronouns such as “I” or “my” in this assessment. This assessment must be supported by at least 10 academic references. You will need to use topic materials and undertake wider research. APA referencing conventions must be used. Please see the Marking ruberic (in Topic central in FLO) for more information on the assessment criteria. Please submit via the Assessment link in Topic central in FLO.

 

  1. 60) Make recommendations for the design choice.
  2. Explain whether you think that this is the appropriate correlation or bivariate regression to use for the research question. Why or why not?
  3. As a lay reader, were you able to understand the results and their implications? Why or why not?

 

61) Once your group has chosen its PBL topic, each member of the group will contribute to and share the research. Then each individual will report on the group’s findings using the Report structure and template provided. 1. Read/watch the suggested resources that have been provided to you. As you read/watch, take notes. It is recommended that you use the Cornell notes structure. 2. Complete further research, as needed, to help you complement the resources that have been provided. 3. Begin to plan your report using the documents called PBL Report structure guidance for students and Report structure and template. (You will find these in the LMS). 4. As you complete your initial planning, take note of remaining gaps in your research. 5. Complete remaining research and start to plan your report. 6. Consult with your teacher, as needed, during the research and planning stages. 7. Write a first draft of your report; don’t forget to include citations and a reference list. 8. Proof-read and edit and get some peer feedback on the first draft of your report. 9. Submit your draft report to your teacher, via Turn It In, for feedback. 10. Use the feedback from your teacher, and peers, to review and edit your report. 11. Complete a final proof-read and edit of your report before the final submission. Reminders/Tips for the report process: • While the Report structure might be a new skill and text type that you are learning, you can still use the TEEL structure for your paragraphs. • It is advised that group members help one another with the peer drafting of the report. This will allow you to talk with each other about the research and help you to prepare for the group components of the Project (Part B).

Attachments:

 

  1. “Summarisethe neurophysiological evidence for the right hemisphere differing from the left hemisphere in holistic processing, with special reference to facial recognition.”

Attachments:

 

 

  1. • Evidence of understanding of the guiding principles and theories of case management and use of these.
    • Clearly identify and justify your choice of approach utilising principles and theories of case management.
    • Discuss the strengths and limitations of a case management approach within a multidisclinary setting.
    • Discuss how case management principles and approaches might influence your practice as a social worker
    • Correct grammar, punctuation and spelling
    • Referencing using APA (6th edition) conventions

Attachments:

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64) How do anthropologists define religion? Do you agree with anthropologists that there is a universality to religion?
2-3 paragraphs

 

65) Question 1 Outline the different ways in which crime can be defined. What do these different definitions tell us about the nature of crime(750 words) Question 2 Outline the role that discretion plays in the early stages of the criminal justice process (investigation, charge, pre-trial). Reflect on the ways in which earlier discretionary decisions impact upon later outcomes for accused people. (750 words) Reference List; Minimum of 5. This assessment is 1,500 words long, so your answer for each questions should be about 750 words in length (therefore totalling 1,500). The assessment is worth 40% in total, so each question will be worth 20%. Resources: To answer these questions, you should use the following material: 1) key readings, 2) lecture material, 3) workshop Key Reading: 1. Australia Criminal Justice by Findlay M, Odgers S, & Yeo S 5TH edn. Book Chapters: An Introduction to Australia criminal justice, Criminal Responsibility, Police investigation, Expanding Crimes investigation, Pre-trial and Trial. 2. The construction and deconstruction of crime by Muncie J, in key reading in sociology, by Newburn T, Cullompton: Willian, 2009 pp 11-16

Attachments:

 

 

69) To complete the task, students should follow these steps:
1. Identify the key components of the question you have chosen. What is it asking you to do? What are the key words or concepts and theories that it refers to?
2. Consider what information is needed to successfully answer the question. As a start, think about the online weekly modules or set readings that are most relevant and review those materials. Bear in mind you will need to go beyond these (and you need to focus on published materials in your essay, so the set readings should be given preference over lecture pods/online materials).
3. Begin researching your chosen topic. Use the library databases to identify other academic sources. If you are not sure how to do this seek some support from library staff.
4. Take notes on the readings you complete, being sure to distinguish between your summaries/paraphrasing and any direct quotes. (Be sure to review the guides to referencing in vUWS if you are not clear on this).
5. Having obtained relevant information to answer the question, draft an essay plan that considers how you might structure your essay. Resources on essay planning are available in vUWS.
6. Commence drafting your essay. Keep coming back to your essay plan to check that you are still on track as you do so.
7. Re-read and refine your essay. As you do so, ask yourself: ’does this answer the question’? ’Are the points I am making, and the significance of them clear’? ’Are the connections between points, particularly between paragraphs, clear’?
8. Check your essay for spelling and/or grammatical errors.
9 Minimum of 5 reference required.

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70) Sociology 100: Social Structures
Spring 2020
Socio-ME-ology Guidelines (Unessay Project)
Throughout the term you will be asked to use your “sociological imagination” to
understand your own lived experiences through the lens of the socio-structural topics
discussed in class. You will use this knowledge to develop a socio-ME-ology (i.e., a
sociology of self), which is your end of term socio-ME-ology unessay project.
Using these guidelines to inform your approach, you will work on a multi-medium project
(e.g., photography, film, art, music, written word) that expresses your sociology of self,
and on the final day of class you will submit your project to the instructor, as well as
share your experiences and explain your Socio-ME-ology unessay project to the class
through a short presentation.

 

71) For this Module 2 Assessment, you will examine a scenario that includes an inter-group conflict. In this scenario, you are recognized as an authority in cross-cultural psychology and asked to serve as a consultant to help resolve the conflict. You will be asked to write up your recommendations in a 5–6 page paper not including your title and reference page.

Reference

Darley, J.M. & Latané, B. (1968). Bystander interview in emergencies: Diffusion of responsibility. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 8(4), 377-383.

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To Prepare:

Review the following:

Scenario: Culture, Psychology, and Community

Imagine an international organization has approached you to help resolve an inter-group conflict. You are an authority in cross-cultural psychology and have been asked to serve as a consultant based on a recent violent conflict involving a refugee community in your town and a local community organization. In the days, weeks, and months leading up to the violent conflict, there were incidents of discrimination and debates regarding the different views and practices people held about work, family, schools, and religious practice. Among the controversies has been the role of women’s participation in political, educational, and community groups.

Assignment:(6 pages excluding title page and reference page):

Part 1: Developing an Understanding(2 pages)

  • Based on the scenario, explain how you can help integrate the two diverse communities so that there is increased understanding and appreciation of each group by the other group. (Note: Make sure to include in your explanation the different views and practices of cultural groups as well as the role of women.)
  • Based on your knowledge of culture and psychology, provide three possible suggestions/solutions that will help the community as a whole. In your suggestions make sure to include an explanation regarding group think and individualism vs. collectivism.

Part 2: Socio-Emotional, Cognitive, and Behavioral Aspects(2 pages)

  • Based on your explanations in Part 1, how do your suggestions/solutions impact the socio-emotional, cognitive, and behavior aspects of the scenario and why?

Part 3: Gender, Cultural Values and Dimensions, and Group Dynamics(2 pages)

  • Explain the impact of gender, cultural values and dimensions, and group dynamics in the scenario.
  • Further explain any implications that may arise from when working between and within groups.

Support your Assignment by citing all resources in APA style, including those in the Learning Resources.

 

72)

How has the birth control pill altered sexuality and feminine gender expectations?

  • A definition of population control and examples.
  • A description of how population control could help or harm a society (examples)
  • Your thoughts on the “One Child” policy. Would it work in the US?

 

73) Describe the experience in your memory in as much detail as you can. What happened? What things did you see? What sounds do you remember hearing? What do you remember touching, smelling, tasting? How did you feel physically? How did you feel, emotionally?
Paragraph 2: Describe the contribution of the hippocampus to your memory. What input did the hippocampus get from the senses, sight, sound, smell, touch, taste, movement? How was your body feeling at the time? What was the mood? How did the hippocampus make this memory? Tell about episodic memories that were made.
Paragraph 3: Describe the contribution of the amygdala to your memory. What feelings were input? Tell about the emotional memory that was made.

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74) Write a 3- to 5-paragraph critique of the article. In your critique, include responses to the following:

  • Which is the research design used by the authors?
  • Why did the authors use this t test?
  • Do you think it’s the most appropriate choice? Why or why not?
  • Did the authors display the data?
  • Do the results stand alone? Why or why not?
  • Did the authors report effect size? If yes, is this meaningful?

Be sure to support your Main Post and Response Post with reference to the week’s Learning Resources and other scholarly evidence in APA Style.

 

75) The Vaccine War The Crisis Situation The crisis is the controversy arising from the partial recommendation of vaccines. Conventionally, vaccines are generally associated with the prevention of severe health conditions; however, when professionals inform the public the practice is not effective in controlling certain circumstances, a point of confusion arises. The choice of this crisis situation was essential to learn some of the exceptions regarding the application of vaccines. Summary The video presents the case of the outbreak of measles; therefore, it was a time when people expected guidance from the healthcare professionals to guide them on reactive and preventive measures. They recommended the application of vaccines for the children. They further reported that immunization might not be adequate for disorders such as autism (Frontline, 2010). This led to the aspects of war over vaccines to rage on. The situation prompted the need for scientific establishment against populist coalitions of celebrities, parents, and activists. The benefit of Anthropological Perspective to Examining the Crisis Situation Examining the crisis can be better undertaken using the anthropological perspective. The approach can be used to analyze and understand the criteria of human behaviors as a result of the case (Khasnabish, 2014)). This will further help determine the influence behind the activist interventions, which resulted as reactive measures.

 

 

76) Critical Response Assignment – Media View of Child Maltreatment – 50 Points

This assignment is to prompt reflection, thinking and class discussion.  Bring in one media story that relates to any aspect of child abuse or neglect.  Be prepared to discuss your media piece according to the following questions:

  • What impact does the article have on the reader/viewer/consumer?
  • What values are reflected in the language of the story, video clip, article or other media resource?
  • What is the reporter&#39;s view of the people involved?  Does the reporter appeal to the reader to adopt a specific view?  Does the reporter offer any solutions?
  • What impression of child maltreatment do the media portray in this type of story, video clip, article or other media reference?

Suggested length of the paper :  1- 2 pages.

 

78) 1. Briefly describe an organization you know well and discuss how the six types of knowledge provided below are expressed in that organization, Select two and discuss how you have experienced them in your own life. Embrained Embodied Encultured Embedded Encoded Commodified 2. Compare and contrast tacit, explicit, and codified knowledge. Share a situation in which you used each type or believe each was used on you. Describe the experience and how you think understanding was realized by you (how you learned what you learned). 3. Evaluate the advantages and disadvantages of using formal IPR to commercialize an innovation. Determine any barriers a start-up entrepreneur is likely to experience.

 

79) Below are the instructions for the PP presentation:

Assignment Details: Computer Ethics PowerPoint

Review your initial post from this week’s discussion activity on computer ethics. Use Microsoft PowerPoint to create a presentation based on your initial computer ethics discussion and associated research. T

Your presentation Should:

  • Identify the key points you want to highlight.
  • Contain a minimum of three slides in the body of the presentation.
    • Each slide in the body of the presentation should have no more than three bullet points.
    • Each slide must include animation.
  • Include graphics, audio, video or embedded links as needed to support and enhance your topics.

In addition:

  • Create a title slide that that includes a Title of PowerPoint, Students Name, Course Number & Title, Instructor&#39;s Name, and Date, in that order.
  • Create a reference slide that identifies all sources used within the presentation (including graphics or other multimedia)
  • Format your references according to APA style as outline in the and use in-text citations where necessary throughout the body of your presentation.

Below is my initial post:

 

The article I chose was digital dilemmas: Values, ethics and information technology.

What is information technology (IT)? This is the study or use of systems (dealing with computers and telecommunications) for storing, retrieving, and sending information. These are the things we do everyday when we use the computer. Anything that we send or retrieve some how is always being stored even if its not being physically done by the person using this unique instrument. This article talks about the the ways this system is used and the different ares of life its used. One that I picked up on in my reading was SST which is self service technologies. This system allows us the opportunity to have personal freedom and become more self sufficient, this is good for doing online applications and applying for things via the internet. But some of the ethical issues with this is that you can&#39;t tell if information is true until you do a face to face meeting. This is an issue that isn&#39;t just personal but also happens in large companies well as the government.

 

Reference: Canadian Public Administration. Jan2014, vol.57 issue2,p295-317.23p, Kernaghan,Kenneth

 

79) Essay report  of 500word  on Healthcare

3 sources that will be use in the report

1 academic journal article and  the 2 other frome acadimc websites or books

 

4pages

page 1 the  titel

page 2 and 3 full pages of essay

page 4 reference

=4 on healthcare

 

80) In a five-slide Powerpoint describe modernist architecture in reference to history.

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Accounting Assignments Help US Canada Australia

 

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Cost-volume-profit (CVP) analysis examines the behavior of total revenues, total costs, and…

Cost-volume-profit (CVP) analysis examines the behavior of total revenues, total costs, and operating income as
changes occur in the units sold, selling price, variable cost per unit, or fixed costs of a product.
3-2 Describe the assumptions underlying CVP analysis.
The assumptions underlying the CVP analysis outlined in Chapter 3 are
1. Changes in the level of revenues and costs arise only because of changes in the number of product (or
service) units sold.
2. Total costs can be separated into a fixed component that does not vary with the units sold and a variable
component that changes with the number of units sold.
3. When represented graphically, the behaviors of total revenues and total costs are linear (represented as a
straight line) in relation to number of units sold within a relevant range and time period.
4. The selling price, variable cost per unit, and fixed costs are known and constant

 

Following is a list of information for Robert and Amy Pax for the tax year 2019. Robert and Amy…

Following is a list of information for Robert and Amy Pax for the tax year 2019. Robert and Amy are married and have three children, Alice, Bryson, and Carl. They live at 500 Main Street, Phoenix, AZ 85021. Robert is a counselor working for a company called Healthy U. Amy works part-time as a pharmacy tech at Walgreens. Here are their social security numbers and birthdates:


View complete question »

Name Social Security Number Birthdate
Robert 123-56-3214 1/15/1988
Amy 564-52-6363 2/23/1990
Alice 558-99-3336 5/5/2013
Bryson 120-33-4566

 

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Sampras Ltd issued $20 million of convertible notes on 1 July 2020. The notes have a life of 6…

Task One
It is stated under AASB 2 ‘Share based payment’ that companies must value and record as an expense
any options granted to employees in exchange for their services. Previously Australian companies
recorded share-based payments in the notes to the financial statements, arguing that share-based
payments did not cost the company anything.
Required
a) Explain the reasoning that led to the development of AASB 2 ‘Share based payment’.
b) Discuss briefly the possible economic implications of AASB 2.
(10 marks)
Task Two
Sampras Ltd issued $20 million of convertible notes on 1 July 2020. The notes have a life of 6 years
and a face value of $20 each. Annual interest of 5% is payable at the end of each year. The notes
were issued at their face value and each note can be converted into one ordinary share in Sampras
Ltd at any time over their lives. Organisations with a similar risk profile to Sampras Ltd have issued
debt with similar terms but without the option to convert at the rate of 7% per annum.

 

 

You have been engaged by the ABC Pte Ltd (‘ABC’ or ‘the company’) to determine the fair market…

You have been engaged by the ABC Pte Ltd (‘ABC’ or ‘the company’) to determine the fair
market value of 100% issued shares of the company as at 31 December 2018 (‘valuation
date’). The purpose of the valuation is to assist the company in its deliberation of the
prospective sale of the equity stakes to new strategic investor. The deliverable for this
valuation engagement will be in the form of a valuation report, documenting the entire
valuation process, to be issued to the company.

 

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Provide one example where information is relevant but not faithfully represented…

Week 1 The fundamental qualitative characteristics that financial information must possess to be useful to the primary users of general purpose financial reports—identified in the Conceptual Framework are ‘relevance’ and ‘faithful representation’.
Required: a) Provide one example where information is relevant but not faithfully represented. (3 marks, maximum 100 words) b) Provide one example where information is not relevant but is faithfully represented. (3 marks, maximum 100 words) c) Provide one example where information is relevant and faithfully represented. (4 marks, maximum 150 words)
Week 2 a) What is a social contract and how does it relate to organisational legitimacy? (6 marks, maximum 300 words) b) Explain two ways organisations can use corporate disclosure policy to maintain or regain organisational legitimacy? (4 marks, maximum 200 words)
Week 3 Diamond Ltd acquired an item of polishing equipment on 1 July 2015 for $440,000. The equipment is expected to have a useful life of 10 years and the straight-line method of depreciation is to be used. It has salvage value of $40,000. On 1 July 2017, the equipment is deemed to have a fair value of $424,000 and revaluation is undertaken in accordance with the Diamond Ltd policy of measuring property, plant and equipment at fair value. The asset is still usable for next 8 years but the salvage value is determined to be zero. The asset is sold for $356,000 on 1 July 2019.
Required: Provide the journal entries necessary at the following dates to account for the above transactions and events. (Ignore narrations). Show your working. (10 marks) • 01/07/2015 • 01/07/2017 • 01/07/2019
Week 4 Snowy Ltd acquires Pax Ltd on 1 July 2018 for $5,000,000 being the fair value of the consideration transferred. At that date, Pax Ltd’s net identifiable assets have a fair value of $4,400,000. Goodwill of $600,000 is therefore the difference between the aggregate of the consideration transferred and the net identifiable assets acquired.
The fair value of the net identifiable assets of Pax Limited are determined as follows: ($000) Patent rights 200 Machinery 1,000 Buildings 1,500 Land 2,300 5,000 Less: Bank loan 600 Net assets 4,400 At the end of the reporting period of 30 June 2019, the management of Snowy Ltd determines that the recoverable amount of the cash-generating unit, which is considered to be Pax Ltd, totals $4,500,000. The carrying amount of the net identifiable assets of Pax Ltd, excluding goodwill, is unchanged and remains at $4,400,000.
Required: a) Prepare the journal entry to account for any impairment of goodwill. (6 marks) b) Assume instead that at the end of the reporting period the management of Snowy Ltd determines that the recoverable amount of the cash-generating unit, which is considered to be Pax Ltd, totals $4,200,000. Determine the impairment of goodwill amount. (No journal entries required) (4 marks)
Week 5 On 1 July 2019, Fisher Ltd decides to lease a cargo ship from XFinance Ltd. The term of the lease is 20 years. The implicit interest rate in the lease is 10 per cent. The fair value of the cargo ship at the commencement of the lease is $2,215,560. The lease is non-cancellable, and requires a lease payment of $300,000 on inception of the lease (on 1 July 2019) and lease payments of $250,000 on 30 June each year (starting 30 June 2020). Included within the $250,000 lease payments is an amount of $25,000 representing payment to the lessor for the insurance and maintenance of the cargo ship. There is no residual payment required. Annuity factor, n=20; r = 10% is 8.5136.
Required: a) Prove that the interest rate implicit in the lease is 10 per cent. (2 marks) b) Provide the entries for the lease in the books of Fisher Ltd as at 1 July 2019, and 30 June 2020. (4 marks) c) Provide the entries for the lease in the books of XFinance Ltd as at 1 July 2019, and 30 June 2020.

 

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James Burden is considering buying shares in a company, Saturday Night Live Ltd (SNL)….

James Burden is considering buying shares in a company, Saturday Night Live Ltd (SNL).
After purchasing 1,000 shares of SNL, James received a letter (via email) from the company
secretary advising him of a forthcoming annual general meeting (AGM). As a new
shareholder of SNL, James has plenty of questions to SNL’s company secretary.
James rings and asks SNL’s company secretary to explain to him what is meant by the terms
‘member’ and ‘shareholder’, and the different ways in which a person may become a member.
He also asks to explain who may be eligible to become a member, and how many members
a company is permitted to have. Finally, James asks: how does a person cease to be a
member of a company?
1. Pretend that you are the company secretary and provide advice to James
regarding his questions above. Use relevant sections of the Corporations Act
2001 and/or case laws to support your answer (5 marks)
At the company’s annual general meeting, James bumps into the company secretary. James
had observed that the notice he had received advising him of his company’s annual general
meeting had stated that it would commence ‘at 1 pm’. Yet, on the day, the annual general
meeting had not commenced until 1.10 pm because the chair had been delayed in traffic
while trying to reach the meeting’s venue. James surmised that this delay in starting the
meeting could constitute a procedural irregularity that could only be rectified by his company
conducting the whole annual general meeting again.
2. Pretend that you are the company secretary and provide advice to James
regarding his question on procedural irregularity. Use relevant sections of the
Corporations Act 2001 and/or case laws to support your answer (3 marks)

 

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Australia Food Ltd is a company with several branches across Victoria and NSW. The Company…

Australia Food Ltd is a company with several branches across Victoria and NSW. The Company
produces various food products including meats and milks. You work as a management accountant in
this company.
Your manager has asked one of your colleagues in the management accounting department to
prepare a comparative profit or loss report for the current and previous month. The manager wants
the report to cover only meat production in Victoria’s branches. Your colleague suggests that since
the company has different branches and products, financial statements should cover all of the
company’s activities. He also suggested that the report should be prepared for a financial year in
accordance with accounting standards.
Using your knowledge of financial and managerial accounting, general and specific purpose financial
reports and various users of accounting information, advise your colleague as to the approach they
should adopt to meet the manager’s requirements and ensure the information correctly reflects the
department’s operations.
Your answer needs to be in your own words and correctly referenced to receive full marks.

 

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Use of Budgeting as a management technique for managing resources….

You are required to conduct a literature search and discussion in this assignment.
You are to choose a peer reviewed journal article (from any country) on the:
-Use of Budgeting as a management technique for managing resources.
The article should be published between 2010 – 2020. Choose your article only after you have accessed
several relevant articles, and then choose the best articles that will answer the assignment question below.
Required: Critically evaluate the relevance and challenges of budgeting systems by answering the 5 questions
below:
Questions:
1. Briefly discuss the budgeting process. (5 marks)
2. Based on your selected journal article, discuss citing examples whether the budgeting process satisfies
the purpose of planning, controlling and evaluating performance. (5 marks)
3. The two widely used practices in preparing budgets are ‘top down’ budgeting and ‘bottom up’
budgeting. Identify and explain the practice adopted by the organisation discussed in your selected journal article and further explain the behavioural implications of adopted practice. (5 marks)
4. Based on your literature findings (above), critically evaluate the comment that ‘traditional budgeting
practices are constraint on creativity, and the time and energy spent on budget formulation is better spent elsewhere’.
5. Based on your literature findings (above), would you recommend budgeting for contemporary organisations for planning and control purpose? Explain (5 marks)

 

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Examine conceptual issues and the sources of authority for the accounting requirements which…

  1. Examine conceptual issues and the sources of authority for the accounting requirements which
    apply to reporting by Australian companies and corporate groups, including Company Law,
    International and Australian Accounting Standards, and Stock Exchange requirements;
    2. Critically analyse and interpret the financial statements and other disclosures produced by
    Australian companies and corporate groups;
    3. Apply Australian Accounting Standards and Corporate Legislation to the financial reporting
    processes of a range of corporate forms including companies and joint ventures;
    4. Evaluate financial accounting problems and select appropriate accounting strategies for the
    accounting entity;
    5. Prepare accounting reports for companies and other corporate forms that meet the compliance
    requirements of the professional and legal bodies in Australia;
    6. Make judgments about appropriate use of accounting standards and accurately apply appropriate
    treatments and communicate these outcomes to a diverse range of stakeholders.

 

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Strategic alliance and cooperative partnerships provide one way to gain some of the benefits…

Strategic alliance and cooperative partnerships provide one way to gain some of the benefits
offered by vertical integration, outsourcing and horizontal mergers and acquisitions while
minimizing the associated problems, it is a formal agreement between two or more separate
companies in which they agree to work collaboratively towards some strategically relevant
objectives. E.g.
? The Delta Airlines/Northwest Airlines merger
? Shell oil company and Pemex (Mexico’s state-owned petroleum company)
? Renault-Nissan-Mitsubishi Alliance
1. Determine how to capture the benefits and minimize the drawbacks of strategic
alliances and partnership to extend the scope of operations via international expansion
and diversification strategies.
2. Discuss the role of centralized and decentralized decision making in striking the right
balance between rewards and punishment in an ethical and unethical strategic alliance?
3. Identify the key features of a company’s corporate culture that can influence the
merger and acquisition?

 

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Electro Company manufactures an innovative automobile transmission for electric cars….

Electro Company manufactures an innovative automobile transmission for electric cars. Management predicts that ending finished goods inventory for the first quarter will be 71,400 units. The following unit sales of the transmissions are expected during the rest of the year: second quarter, 357,000 units; third quarter, 347,000 units; and fourth quarter, 260,500 units. Company policy calls for the ending finished goods inventory of a quarter to equal 20% of the next quarter’s budgeted sales.
Propare a production budget for both the second and third quarters that shows the number of transmissions to manufacture.

 

Journalize each transaction in a two-column journal, referring to the following chartof accounts… 1 answer below »

  1. Journalize each transaction in a two-column journal, referring to the following chartof accounts in selecting the accounts to be debited and credited. (Do not insert theaccount numbers in the journal at this time.) 11 Cash 31 Emily Page, Capital 12 Accounts Receivable 32 Emily Page, Drawing 14 Supplies 41 Fees Earned 15 Prepaid Rent 51 Salary Expense 16 Prepaid Insurance 52 Rent Expense 18 Office Equipment 53 Supplies Expense 19 Accumulated Depreciation 54 Depreciation Expense 21 Accounts Payable 55 Insurance Expense 22 Salaries Payable 59 Miscellaneous Expense 23 Unearned Fees 2. Post the journal to a ledger of four-column accounts. 3. Prepare an unadjusted trial balance. 4. At the end of June, the following adjustment data were assembled. Analyze and use these data to complete parts (5) and (6). a. Insurance expired during June is $200. b. Supplies on hand on June 30 are $650. c. Depreciation of office equipment for June is $250. d. Accrued receptionist salary on June 30 is $220. e. Rent expired during June is $2,000. f. Unearned fees on June 30 are $1,875. 5. Enter the unadjusted trial balance on an end-of-period spreadsheet (work sheet) and complete the spreadsheet. 6. Journalize and post the adjusting entries. 7. Prepare an adjusted trial balance. 8. Prepare an income statement, a statement of owner’s equity, and a balance sheet. 9. Prepare and post the closing entries. (Income Summary is account #33 in the chart of accounts.) Indicate closed accounts by inserting a line in both the Balance columns opposite the closing entry. 10. Prepare a post-closing trial balance.

 

On 1st July 2017 Utensilite Ltd acquired a 3rd Motor Vehicle for $45,000 paying cash of $12,500…

On 1st July 2017 Utensilite Ltd acquired a 3rd Motor Vehicle for $45,000 paying cash of
$12,500 and negotiating a loan for the balance. The estimated life of the vehicle was
12 years and residual value $3,000. The vehicle was to be depreciated at the rate of
30% using the declining balance method.
Depreciation is recorded on 30th June each year.
On 30th September, 2017 and 30th September, 2018 all three vehicles were serviced
at a cost of $5,400.
On 31st March, 2019 Vehicle No 1 is sold to Extratta Traders because for $8,000.
You are required to:
a. Prepare an extract from the Balance Sheet dated 30th June, 2017 to show the
Motor Vehicles account; 3 marks
b. Record all the journal entries that took place from 1st July 2017 to 30th June
2019 (ignore GST and show all calculations). 17 marks
c. If revenue for the financial year 2018 was $61,500, prepare an extract from the
Profit and Loss Statement at 30th June 2018 indicating associated
expenses for motor vehicles for the year. 3 marks
d. Prepare an extract from the Balance Sheet dated 30th June, 2019 to show the
Motor Vehicles account. 3 marks
B. Why would Utensilite choose the two methods of depreciation it has? What is
the impact of each method on Profit figures over the life of the asset? Describe
two other depreciation methods that could have been used to depreciate the
motor vehicles. Which of the four methods do you believe is most appropriate
for motor vehicles and why?

 

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Using the information presented below, prepare an income statement, owner’s equity and balance…

Using the information presented below, prepare an income statement, owner’s equity and balance sheet from the adjusted trial balance of Hanson Storage. Ms. Hanson’s capital account balance of $40,340 consists of a $30,340 beginning-year balance plus a $10,000 investment during the current year.

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What is internal control? Why is internal control important in organization?…

  1. QUESTIONS1. What is internal control? Why is internal control important in organization?2. What are the four basic purposes of internal control? Give an example of each one? B. EXERCISE1. The California State University (CSU) system is the largest four-year higher education system in the United States. In 2004, all twenty-three CSU campuses adopted People Soft, an enterprise resource planning system, for managing finances, personnel records and other important functions. The project was referred to as the Common Management System (CMS). Considering Brown’s taxonomy of risk, identify five risks the CSU and its management took by making the PeopleSoft decision.2. The following is a question in which one is expected to evaluate internal controls. The Art Appreciation Society operates a museum for the benefit and enjoyment of the community. During hours when the museum is open to the public, two clerks who are positioned at the entrance collect a $5 admission fee from each nonmember patron. Members of the Art Appreciation Society are permitted to enter free of charge upon presentation of their members hip cards. At the end of each day one of the clerks delivers the proceeds to the treasurer. The treasurer counts the cash in the presence of the clerk and places it in a safe. Each Friday afternoon the treasurer and one of the clerks deliver all cash held in the safe to the bank, and receive an authenticated deposit slip which provides the basis for the weekly entry in the cash receipts journal. The Board of Directors of the Art Appreciation Society has identified a need to improve their system of internal control over cash admission fees. The Board had determined that the cost of installing turnstiles, sales booths, or otherwise altering the physical layout of the museum will greatly exceed any benefits that may be derived. However, the Board has agreed that the sale of admission tickets must be an integral part of its improvement efforts. Smith has been asked by the Board of Directors of the Art Appreciation Society to review the internal control over cash admission fees and provide suggestions for improvement. Required Indicate weaknesses in the existing system of internal control over cash admission fees, which Smith should identify, and recommend one improvement for each of the weaknesses identified.

 

Calculate the acquisition cost of the Gizmo Machine that will be used as the base for future…

Required:
a) Calculate the acquisition cost of the Gizmo Machine that will be used as the base for future
depreciation charge. (3 marks)
b) Provide the journal entries that would appear in Tea Tree Bay Ltd’s books to account for the
acquisition of the Gizmo Machine. (5 marks)
c) Will the maintenance cost be included in the acquisition cost of the machine? Justify your answer.
(2 marks, maximum 100 words)
Week 2
a) What factors should be considered in determining the issue price of a debenture. (2 marks)
b) On 1 July 2018 Bombo Ltd issues $2 million in six-year debentures that pay interest each six
months at a coupon rate of 8 per cent. At the time of issuing the securities, the market requires a
rate of return of 6 per cent. Interest expense is determined using the effective-interest method.
Required:
(i) Determine the issue price of the debenture. (2 marks)
(ii) Provide the journal entries at: (6 marks)
1 July 2018, 30 June 2019, & 30 June 2020.

 

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Alex Kingsford is a mechanical engineer working for ABC Engineering in Melbourne….

Alex Kingsford is a mechanical engineer working for ABC Engineering in Melbourne. Alex owns a property in Dandenong, Victorian where he and his family are residing. He also runs a home-based food catering business, preparing food for local residents and school canteens. Catering business is well-structured. Alex works 15 days a month and earns a substantial income from the catering services business. He is travelling from ABC Engineering workshop to his home-based business by car or sometimes Uber. When he lodged his tax return in July 2019, he has requested a deduction for a substantial amount of travelling expenses between the ABC Engineering workshop and home-based food business.
Alex is now seeking your advice. With reference to relevant legislation and case law discuss whether Alex’s travelling expenses between the ABC Engineering workshop and his home-based catering business is an allowable deduction.
Assignment Structure should be as the following (students’ responses involves calculations, and students must refer to the relevant legislation and/or cases whenever required according to the questions).

 

Calculate the acquisition cost of the Gizmo Machine that will be used as the base for future…

Required:
a) Calculate the acquisition cost of the Gizmo Machine that will be used as the base for future
depreciation charge. (3 marks)
b) Provide the journal entries that would appear in Tea Tree Bay Ltd’s books to account for the
acquisition of the Gizmo Machine. (5 marks)
c) Will the maintenance cost be included in the acquisition cost of the machine? Justify your answer.
(2 marks, maximum 100 words)
Week 2
a) What factors should be considered in determining the issue price of a debenture. (2 marks)
b) On 1 July 2018 Bombo Ltd issues $2 million in six-year debentures that pay interest each six
months at a coupon rate of 8 per cent. At the time of issuing the securities, the market requires a
rate of return of 6 per cent. Interest expense is determined using the effective-interest method.
Required:
(i) Determine the issue price of the debenture. (2 marks)
(ii) Provide the journal entries at: (6 marks)
1 July 2018, 30 June 2019, & 30 June 2020.

Alex Kingsford is a mechanical engineer working for ABC Engineering in Melbourne….

Alex Kingsford is a mechanical engineer working for ABC Engineering in Melbourne. Alex owns a property in Dandenong, Victorian where he and his family are residing. He also runs a home-based food catering business, preparing food for local residents and school canteens. Catering business is well-structured. Alex works 15 days a month and earns a substantial income from the catering services business. He is travelling from ABC Engineering workshop to his home-based business by car or sometimes Uber. When he lodged his tax return in July 2019, he has requested a deduction for a substantial amount of travelling expenses between the ABC Engineering workshop and home-based food business.
Alex is now seeking your advice. With reference to relevant legislation and case law discuss whether Alex’s travelling expenses between the ABC Engineering workshop and his home-based catering business is an allowable deduction.
Assignment Structure should be as the following (students’ responses involves calculations, and students must refer to the relevant legislation and/or cases whenever required according to the questions).

 

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Using the variables listed in the table above, Describe each variable. -State for each variable…

Task 1: Variable List 1. Using the variables listed in the table above, Describe each variable. 2. State for each variable whether it is qualitative or quantitative; if it is qualitative, state whether it is nominal or ordinal, and if it is quantitative, state whether it is discrete or continuous. Task 2: Histogram 3. Create a histogram showing the distribution of salaries. Find the 5-number summary of the distribution of salaries. Comment upon the shape of the distribution: is it symmetric? If it is not, is it positively or negatively skewed? Are there any outliers present? If so, are they of particular interest? State which central measure would be best to use to describe the centre of this distribution, and the reason(s) why.

Attachments:

 

Collect the latest annual report of an ASX listed company for the last 2 financial years….

Collect the latest annual report of an ASX listed company for the last 2 financial years. Please read the financial
statements (balance sheet, income statement, cash flow statement) and notes attached to financial
statements on income tax issues very carefully. Please remember some aspects of your firm’s treatment of its
tax – can be a very complicated area, particularly for some firms. Based on your understanding of the topic
“accounting for income tax” and based on your reading of the collected annual reports, do the following tasks.
i Briefly explain the concepts of accounting profit, taxable profit, temporary difference, taxable temporary
difference, deductible temporary difference, deferred tax assets and deferred tax liability.
ii Briefly explain the recognition criteria of deferred tax assets and deferred tax liability.
iii What is your firm’s tax expense in its latest financial statements?
iv Is this figure the same as the company tax rate times your firm’s accounting income? Explain why this is,
or is not, the case for your firm highlighting the reasons for differences.
v Identify the deferred tax assets/liabilities that is reported in the balance sheet articulating the possible
reasons why they have been recorded.
vi Is there any current tax assets or income tax payable recorded by your company? Why is the income tax
payable not the same as income tax expense?
vii Is the income tax expense shown in the income statement same as the income tax paid shown in the cash
flow statement? If not, why is the difference?
viii Briefly explain the concepts of temporary difference and permanent difference. Identify any permanent
differences that your company may have.
ix What do you find interesting, confusing, surprising or difficult to understand about the treatment of tax
in your firm’s financial statements? What new insights, if any, have you gained about how companies
account for income tax as a result of examining your firm’s tax expense in its accounts?

 

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In accordance with the Australian government’s Budget Paper No. 2 Budget Measures 2015-2016,…

Part A (70 marks)
In accordance with the Australian government’s Budget Paper No. 2 Budget Measures
2015-2016, the Income Tax Rates Amendment (Working Holiday Maker Reform) Act 2017
(the ‘WHMR Act’) was passed. The WHMR Act proposed changes to tax rules for working
holiday makers on 417 and 462 visas (‘backpackers’) as a means of raising revenue. This,
with other proposed legislative amendments concerning working holiday makers, has been
referred to in the media as the ‘Backpacker Tax’.
Choose and read ONE of the following cases.
Clemens and Commissioner of Taxation [2015] AATA 124 (6 March 2015); or
Jaczenko and Commissioner of Taxation [2015] AATA 125 (6 March 2015);or
Koustrup and Commissioner of Taxation [2015] AATA 126 (6 March 2015)
Task
Answer the following questions
1. What issues are being considered in your chosen case, and what decision
(conclusion) is reached? (20 marks)
2. Would the decision in your chosen case support the need for a change to the
residency rules for backpackers in Australia? Give reasons (20 marks)
3. How does the WHMR Act treat income earned by ‘backpackers’ in Australia? (10
marks)
4. Is this different to the way income earned by ‘backpackers’ was treated prior to the
introduction of the WHMR Act? If so, how? (20 marks)

 

Hill and Hult (2019) include a set of 20 cases to fill strategically aligned objectives for the…

Hill and Hult (2019) include a set of 20 cases to fill strategically aligned objectives for the core features of
international business strategy. They argue that: “(s)everal of these cases focus on company and country
scenarios related to China, Germany, Mexico, Myanmar, Russia, Venezuela, and prominent other markets.”
(p609) These cases cover a range of international companies including Apple, Dominos, Ford, General Motors,
Microsoft, Philips Siemens, Skype and Volkswagen. As well, these cases in general relates to several unit learning
outcomes including differing elements of international business – related theories, national differences, the
global trade and investment environment, the strategy and structure of international business, and international
business functions.
Required:
This Group Assignment is comprised of two parts.
Part A: Written Report on Two Cases (15%) [this part must be submitted via Turnitin by 5:00pm Friday 24
January 2020] – Expected length – Total 2000 words (i.e., 1000 words for each case)
First, you, as a group, are required to select two out of twenty cases as included at the end of the text by Hill
and Hult (2019 – pp608 – 634). The selection of these two cases will be determined by the coordinator of the
unit and will be allocated in Week 4 during Semester 3, 2019.
Second, you are required to:
a. Summarise and elaborate the respective case scenarios;
b. Answer and critically evaluate the set questions in each case; and
c. Demonstrate applicable theories and issues of international business relates to the selected case.
Third, as well, you are required to provide your reflections and conclusions using contemporary aspects of
international business relating to the case.
The expectation is that you are required to use academic and professional authentic references in analysing
the case and writing the report. Please go through unit outline for guidelines about Turnitin submission and
referencing style.
The Group Assignment develops students’ theoretical and technical skills in international business theory and
strategy as well as their written communication skills. You are required to form a group by Week 4 with no
more than THREE members of your class. Each member is fully responsible for the discussion, preparation,
composition and submission of the integrated case analysis in group. Failure by a student to attend,
contribute, and submit the assignment will result in the said student receiving a zero (0) mark weighting for
this assessment task. You must attach a completed, signed coversheet and a self and peer contribution
evaluation form with your written assignment.

Attachments:

 

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Michael operates his own business selling pool equipment and materials as well as servicing…

Michael operates his own business selling pool equipment and materials as well as servicing swimming pools. During the year
ended 30 June 2019 Michael received $915,000 in cash for sales of equipment andmaterials and for pool services. Wages of
$275,000 were paid to his staff. This included an amount of $50,000 paid to his brother. The work of the brother could have been
done by an unrelated person for $10,000. On 1 June 2019, Michael paid $4,530 to his lawyer to complete the winding up of a
business he had operated at a loss in earlier years. One of Michael’s customers bought some pool materials for $600 on credit
on 21 June 2018 but could not pay the account which was issued on the same day because he went bankrupt in November 2018.
Michael wrote off the debt on 1 July 2019. During the year ended 30 June 2019 Michael paid rates and taxes of $5,270 on a
vacant block of land. Michael was thinking of putting a holiday house on the block of land.
Michael made an interest free loan of $500,000 on 1 January 2019 to one of his employees. The employee used the loan for two
purposes: 30% for the purchase of an investment property and 70% to pay off his home mortgage. On 1 March 2019 Michael
paid the life Insurance premium for one of his employees in the amount of $25,000.
Michael bought a rental property on 4 July 2018 for $1,000,000. He borrowed $750,000 of this money on the same day from
the bank to buy the property. The term of the loan was 4 years. The property was leased on 4 July 2018. He received rent in
cash from his tenants during the year ended 30 June 2019 in the amount of $95,000. On 1 July 2018 Michael paid the bank a loan
application fee of $1,570

 

Wayland Custom Woodworking is a firm that manufactures custom cabinets and woodwork for business…

Wayland Custom Woodworking is a firm that manufactures custom cabinets and woodwork for business and residential customers Students will nave the opportunity to establish payroll records and to complete a month of payroll information for Wayland. Wayland Custom Woodworking is located at 1716 Nichol Street. Logan. Utah. 84321. phone number 435-555-9877. The owner is Mark Wayland. Wayland’s EN is 91-7444533. and the Utah Employer Account Number Is 999.92904 Wayland has determined it will pay their employees on a semimonthly basis. Federal income tax should be computed using the percentage method.
For Pan 2 of this project, you will complete payroll for the last month (December) of the fourth Quarter (Q4) of 2018. which consists of the final two pay periods of the year. Then file the annual tax forms for Wayland as well as prepare each employee’s Form W-2 In Part 2.
The SUTA (Ur) rate for Wayland Custom Woodworking is 2.6 percent on the first $34,300. The state withholding rate is 4.95 percent for all Income levels and marital statuses.

 

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Amandeep born in India and migrated to Australia. He lives in Australia permanently. He still…

Amandeep born in India and migrated to Australia. He lives in Australia permanently. He still holds
Indian passport. Amandeep works with the New Zealand Princess Cruises tours and most of the
income year is in New Zealand. He signed an employment contract for this position in the company’s
Australian office in Sydney. Amandeep has two kids that are living with his wife Sandeep in Sydney.
Three years ago, Amandeep purchased a unit apartment in Sydney. Amandeep and his wife holding
dividend yielding shares in an Indian public company called Hindustan Unilever. Amandeep and
Sandeep have an Australian bank account as well. Amandeep’s employer pays his salary to this bank
account every fortnight.
Biannually Amandeep receives a holiday package from his employer, New Zealand Princess Cruises
tours and he is using this package with his family traveling in Australia interstates or moves to India to
visit his in laws.
Required:
With reference to the relevant laws, discuss whether Amandeep is an Australian resident for tax
purposes and also critically discuss whether Amandeep needs to pay income tax on his salary and
investment income explained above. (10 marks, maximum 400 words)

 

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Lendlease is an international property and infrastructure Company. It is currently the…

Lendlease is an international property and infrastructure Company. It is currently the
fifth largest in Australia.
The 2019 integrated annual report for the Company is provided on the subject Moodle shell.
Using the 2019 Report, compare the financial results of the Company between 2018 and
2019. You should use any financial information provided in the 2019 reports (including
ratios, and narratives) to conclude on the improvements or not in financial position and
profitability. You discussion should focus on reasons for this.
What other information would you need to make an assessment of Lendlease?
Word Limit 1100 words, Marks = 45
Question 2.
The 2019 integrated annual report is the fourth for Lendlease. Explain what is an
integrated report, and how Lendlease is Managing and Measuring Value.
What is your opinion of the Sustainability achievements of Lendlease?

 

Consider the judgement delivered on 30 October 2019 by Justice Logan in the Federal…

Consider the judgement delivered on 30 October 2019 by Justice Logan in the Federal
Court of Australia decision Addy v Commissioner of Taxation [2019] FCA 1768.
(Hint: you may either read the decision or read at least one of the several
commentaries available online)
Task
Answer the following questions
1. What are the possible consequences of this decision for ‘backpackers’ who have
already paid tax in accordance with WHMR Act? Give reasons.(20 marks)
2. How has the Australian Tax Office (ATO) responded to the decision in Addy v
Commissioner of Taxation? (10 marks)

Santa Ana Services was formed on May 1, 2014. The following transactions took place during the…

Santa Ana Services was formed on May 1, 2014. The following transactions took place during the first month.

Transactions on May 1:

  1. Don Humes invested $40,000 cash in the company, as its sole owner.
  2. Hired two employees to work in the warehouse. They will each be paid a salary of $3,050 per month.
  3. Signed a 2-year rental agreement on a warehouse; paid $24,000 cash in advance for the first year.
  4. Purchased furniture and equipment costing $30,000. A cash payment of $10,000 was made immediately; the remainder will be paid in 6 months.
  5. Paid $1,800 cash for a one-year insurance policy on the furniture and equipment.

Transactions during the remainder of the month:

  1. Purchased basic office supplies for $500 cash.
  2. Purchased more office supplies for $1,500 on account.
  3. Total revenues earned were $20,000—$8,000 cash and $12,000 on account.
  4. Paid $400 to suppliers for accounts payable due.
  5. Received $3,000 from customers in payment of accounts receivable.
  6. Received utility bills in the amount of $350, to be paid next month.
  7. Paid the monthly salaries of the two employees, totalling $6,100.

Instructions

 

 

Alice J. and Bruce M. Jones are married taxpayers who file a joint return. Alice’s birthday is…

Alice J. and Bruce M. Jones are married taxpayers who file a joint return. Alice’s birthday is September 21, 1961, and Bruce’s is June 27, 1960. Bruce is the office manager for Ames Dental Clinic. Alice is the CPA at Lehman, York & Hunter CPA, LP. The Jones provide over half of the support of their two children, Cynthia (born January 25, 1994, Social Security number (017-44-9126) and John (born February 7, 1995, Social Security number (017-27-4148), who live with them. Both children are full-time students and live with the Jones except when they are away at college. Cynthia is in her third year of college, and earned $8,750 from a summer internship in 2019, and John is in his first year of college and he earned $6,500 from a part-time job in 2019. In 2019, the Jones’ paid $4,500 for Cynthia’s college tuition and $7,500 for John’s college tuition. The Jones also provided all the support for their 26-year-old son Ryan who recently graduated from law school but cannot find employment. Ryan lives in DC. According to Mr. Jones on July 01, 2019, he and his wife exchanged their two-family house in Westchester County (378 Pinebrook Blvd, New Rochelle, NY), which they rented entirely from January 01, 2005 to July 01, 2019, for a four family rental property located at 581 Atlantic Avenue, Brooklyn, NY. At the time of the exchange, the FMV of the two-family house was $900,000, and the adjusted basis was $275,000. The four-family house had an adjusted basis of $600,000 and a FMV of $800,000. The two-family home was subject to a $100,000 mortgage, which the buyer assumed. The Jones also owned and rented a two-unit commercial retail building located at 1560 Avenue A, New York NY, which they purchased on December 01, 2018 and placed in service on January 01, 2019. Information for all three of the rental properties is listed below. In March 2019, Bruce decided to start his own business; a retail bicycle shop to be located in NYC near Central Park called “Bruce’s Bikes.” On April 20, 2019, Bruce signed a 10-year lease at a monthly rental rate of $10,000, effective May 01, 2019, for retail space on 110th Street and CPW. The lease provided that Bruce was responsible for the costs of improving the retail space for its intended use. The terms of the lease also provided that the first three months were rent-free so that Bruce could complete the construction needed to operate a retail bike shop. When Bruce executed the lease he paid the landlord $30,000 as a security deposit. On May 01, 2019, Bruce paid a contractor $225,000 to provide all construction work relating to the build-out, which included electrical, plumbing, and carpentry. On June 01, 2019, Bruce purchased the following assets for the business:

Attachments:

 

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Pick a company and discuss how it an collaborate with key suppliers -Discuss how management…

Assignment In recent years, successful companies have begun to focus on managing cross-company processes with suppliers to reduce costs, increase speed, and improve quality. In tis print advertisement J.D. Edwards, a producer of ERP software systems notes that companies must ‘collaborate or die’. Required: a) Pick a company and discuss how it an collaborate with key suppliers b) Discuss how management accounting information can play a role in different stages of collaboration Limit: 4-6 pages Instructions: Format: A4 paper, corner stapled; no folders accepted; typewritten in 1½ spacing; pages must be numbered. A completed assignment cover sheet must be attached to the front of your assignment. Style Guide: Assignments should be closely checked for errors of typing, spelling, grammar, etc. Where you use specific material from any source, you must provide reference to the specific quotation, and all sources consulted must be included in a bibliography at the end of your assignment. Penalties for late lodgement: A maximum penalty of 10 per cent of the mark allocated to this assignment will be deducted for each day that the assignment is late

 

You are required to summarise, IN YOUR OWN WORDS, the requirements and the key highlights…

You are required to summarise, IN YOUR OWN WORDS, the requirements and the key highlights
of ANY ONE of the following pronouncements published by AUASB:
• Framework for Assurance Engagements
• ASQC 1: Auditing Standard ASQC 1 Quality Control for Firms that Perform Audits and
Reviews of Financial Reports and Other Financial Information, Other Assurance
Engagements and Related Services Engagements
• ASA 220: Quality Control for an Audit of a Financial Report and Other Historical
Financial Information
• ASA 315: Identifying and Assessing the Risks of Material Misstatement through
Understanding the Entity and Its Environment
The maximum length for the essay is 1,000 words. You should address all the key requirements in
the essay, followed by a Reference List.

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Debates on whether the converged International Financial Reporting Standards have resulted in…

Debates on whether the converged International Financial Reporting Standards have resulted in harmonised international accounting practices across countries have been growing over the last ten years. Study based in emerging economies, such as China (He et al., 2012), Romania (Albu et al., 2014), India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh (Ali et al., 2006), South Pacific Island countries (Chand, 2005), United Arab Emeritus (Irvine, 2008), and Turkey (Misirlioglu et al., 2013), have consistently reported the challenge of effectively implementing IFRS in those countries due to country-specific contextual issues. Nobes (2015) also reported challenging issues in implanting IFRS in developed countries.
Assignment questions
1. Prepare a report critically arguing why having a single set of accounting standards (i.e. IFRS) for a world-wise use is inherently problematic.
2. Review literature explaining the contextual issues of implementing IFRS in emerging economies and in developed countries.
3. Critique whether adoption and use of IFRS will lead to improved financial reporting quality.

 

Online Educational Systems’ (Online) has developed a package to deliver integrated curriculum…

Question 1 (2 marks) ‘Online Educational Systems’ (Online) has developed a package to deliver integrated curriculum and face to face group learning, for all levels of students around the world, due to the Covid-19 pandemic. Online has asked you to research customer preferences and to recommend a pricing policy. There are limited price differences relating to the timing of classes in the Northern Hemisphere. However, for Southern Hemisphere classes running a class at or below 45 students (normal class size is 50) costs significantly more for Online to run the class. Required (200 words): a. In addition to customer preferences, what information would you like to gather before recommending a pricing policy? Explain why each item you list is relevant. b. Explain why it is important to understand customer preferences before investing in the infrastructure to run the system. c. Is the need to consider customer preferences different for this organisation than for another type of organisation? Why or why not? Question 2 (3 marks) Given you are constrained to your house due to Covid-19 you have decided to try and launch your own small business. Required (200 words): a. Design a small business and document 1 key product. Name your business and product. List a maximum of 10 costs that will be involved in selling your product and explain why they are either a variable or fixed cost. b. Estimate a reasonable selling price per unit for your product and estimate a value for each of the costs you listed in part a. c. Workout your Breakeven point, showing all calculations. d. Assume you require a profit of $25,000, calculate your new breakeven point, showing all calculations. e. Define and calculate the ‘Margin of Safety’, in both units and dollars, assuming you sell 75,000 units. Ensure you include all calculations.

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Direct professional labour budget for the months of May and June:…

Direct professional labour budget for the months of May and June:
May June
Budgeted hours 6 000 8 000
One-hour visits (hrs x 0.2 x 1) 1 200 1 600
Half-hour visits (hrs x 0.8 x .5) 2 400 3 200
Total direct professional labour 3 600 4 800
Hourly wage rate for dentists $200 $200
Total direct professional labour cost $720 000 $960 000

 

Winnie T. P. Bear runs a small ceramic honey pot store at “The Woods” shopping precinct….

Winnie T. P. Bear runs a small ceramic honey pot store at “The Woods” shopping
precinct. The business, called the “Hunny Pots”, sells two types of pots, Large and
Small.
The Business has registered for GST and has an ABN 40 741 258 639. It pays GST
quarterly to the Australian Tax Office.
Accounting system
The company has financial year end 30 June and prepares adjusting entries at the
end of the each month. The firm uses the following journals to maintain its accounting
records
? Sales Journal: to record all credit sales of inventory
? Purchased Journal: to record credit purchases of inventory
? Cash Receipts Journal: to records all cash receipts
? Cash Payments Journal: to records all cash payment
? General Journal: to record all transactions other than the above
The company maintains a general ledger for each account. Subsidiary ledgers are
used to record separate details that Accounts Receivable and Accounts Payable.
The company uses a perpetual inventory recording system.
Goods and services tax (GST)
The company is registered for GST and therefore is required to pay GST on its
purchases and collect GST on its sales. All prices include GST unless specifically
excluded
Unadjusted Trial Balance and Chart of Accounts
The unadjusted Trial Balance as at 29 February 2020 and a Chart of Accounts is
presented on the next page.
Accounting Procedures
The transactions are recorded by you, the accountant for Hunny Pots on a daily basis
in the appropriate journal. Transactions are posted daily from the General Journal.
Transactions are also posted daily to the Accounts Receivable and Accounts Payable
subsidiary ledgers. Total of the Special Journals are posted to the appropriate
accounts at the end of the account period.

 

o demonstrate an in-depth understanding of, and engagement with, contemporary taxation issues…

o demonstrate an in-depth understanding of, and engagement with, contemporary taxation issues related to the materials covered in this course. In the contemporary discussion forum participation, students will be required to contribute informative responses during the specified period, demonstrating engagement and interaction with contemporary tax issues. In considering the development of your responses, you will need consider what each of the articles are concerned about and what the relevance to the tax system is. For example, is the topic about some event that has occurred to a particular taxpayer(s) or perhaps there is a particular kind of activity that needs considering? Determine what the relevant tax issues might be, in terms of the topics we have been covering in this course. There is no mandatory word limit, however a good guide is to consider a paragraph or two, per post.

Please note that weeks do not necessarily corelate perfectly with topics and therefore I do not generally reference/align content or assessments to particular weeks. Moreover, although we have provided a structure to scaffold learning by splitting the syllabus into topics, there are a lot over cross overs and interactions between topics. As such, I would ensure you are familiar with how things fit together.

 

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For example, if you are a foreign resident (topic 2) who undertakes some kind of activities in Australia, then your tax rates will differ (topic 1) to tax residents. You will include only Australian sourced income (topic 2), and you will need to consider whether the activities are amount to assessable income (topic 3), or perhaps are captured by capital provisions (topic 4), or neither,  and if so whether any expenditure may be deductible (topics 6,7), and so on.

 

We generally assign topics 1-9 to Assessment 1.

 

Marking Criteria  Short Description  Mark
1. Relevant Contribution. Demonstrated ability to prepare and contribute relevant posts to the discussion forum topic(s). 2.5
2. Synthesis and Analysis. Ability to synthesise material in order to raise issues or construct a persuasive and substantive response. 2.5
3. Interaction and Engagement. Ability to engage in a reflective discourse. The extent of engagement with students, in terms of interaction, insight and direction offered. 2.5
4. Presentation and Referencing. The extent of appropriate organisation and structure; legal terminology and writing skills.

 

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10-15 slides PowerPoint assignment. please you must put speakers note on each slides so i can read.

 

Instruction

In this week’s Discussion, you discussed specific metrics companies should use when evaluating their employee turnover and retention rates. However, there may be some additional qualitative data points you didn’t consider. These data points are often collected through ways such as exit interviews, employee satisfaction surveys and 1-year retention metrics. When evaluating this case study, look for ways to include these data points. Instruction Global Protech’s executive team is concerned about the company’s high turnover and they want to take steps to improve their retention rates. Maia, the HR director at Global Protech, has asked you to provide the executive team with a presentation on the specific turnover and retention metrics for the company and a recommendation on how the company can improve its retention rates. To complete this Assignment, you are tasked with using Global Protech’s HR intranet site, the Learning Resources for this week, and other resources you have found in the Library or online to address the following in a minimum 10-slide PowerPoint presentation, including detailed speaker notes. Using the Global Protech Turnover Calculations (Excel document), identify the variations in turnover by the three-position types listed. Considering the positions with the highest turnover rates, identify the reasons why employees are leaving. Hint: Be sure to use Global Protech’s HR intranet to find additional information to help identify why employees are leaving. Using the turnover metrics above, develop a retention incentive/benefit recommendation for the executive team. Calculate the specific cost per employee of your recommended retention incentive/benefit, and then show the return on investment of the program. https://mym.cdn.laureate-media.com/2dett4d/Walden/MHRM/PROG/Global_ProTech/index.html USE POINT POWER MUST USE SPEAKER NOTES INCLUDE…….BELOW ARE MORE RESOURCE ATTACHED IS FORMULA. https://www.huffpost.com/entry/how-much-does-employee-turnover-really-cost_b_587fbaf9e4b0474ad4874fb7 https://www.forbes.com/sites/billconerly/2018/08/12/companies-need-to-know-the-dollar-cost-of-employee-turnover/#3b6bf83ed590 https://smallbusiness.chron.com/negative-impacts-high-turnover-rate-20269.html https://sts.shrm.org/STS/default.aspx?wa=wsignin1.0&wtrealm=https%3a%2f%2fwww.shrm.org%2f_trust%2f&wctx=https%3a%2f%2fwww.shrm.org%2f_layouts%2f15%2fauthenticate.aspx%3fsource%3d%252fresourcesandtools%252ftools-and-samples%252ftoolkits%252fpages%252fmanagingforemployeeretention.aspx https://search-proquest-com.ezp.waldenulibrary.org/docvie

 

 

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Question 1:     Mathematics

 

Math 111 – S2020 –  Covering Week 14 –  Weekly Assignment

Directions:  Complete the following problems justifying all answers by showing all work.  Answers must be found by using Calculus, not by looking at a graph unless directed to do so.   All work must be in your handwriting and all work must be labeled as to which problem it is answering.   Your final answer must be circled.

 

Remember, you must show each step you take towards the solution of the problem.  Your best bet would be to follow the steps for solving problems and indicating which step you are following.

 

( 5 points) Explain the relationship between  and its antiderivative.  Give examples.

 

 

(5 points) Using the knowledge that  , explain why the indefinite integral must have the  “added at the end.  Explain why the definite integral does not need ” added at the end.

 

Two students are studying on campus.  Zach is in the Math Help Room in Pfahler and John is at the library.  Zach texts John that he’s hungry.  John realizes he also wants food and suggests they both take a break to get dinner at Wismer.  Zach agrees and they leave their study spots at the same time.  Note the diagram below… We are assuming that Pfahler, the library, and Wismer are in a straight line:

 

Given Zach travels with the velocity      and John travels with velocity    where t is time in seconds and length is measured in feet….

(6 points) Give the position function of each student given that John is 600 feet closer to Wismer than Zach.  In other words,  and

 

( 6 points) If Wismer is 1000 ft away from Pfahler how many minutes does it take Zach to get to Wismer?  How long does it take John to get there?

 

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( 8 points) Graph the function , paste the graph here and shade the area bounded by  and the x-axis.  Determine the area bound by by  and the x-axis.

 

 

 

Below the blue diagonal line represents the function

 

 

(  6 points)

  1. Compute the area of each yellow triangle using the formula and sum them.
  2. Evaluate the definite integral    to find the area bound by  and the x-axis.
  3. Are the value from A and B the same? Why or why not.

 

For the curve described by this expression answer the following questions:

( 9  points) Find the equation(s) of all lines tangent to the curve at .  Give line in slope-intercept form.  If there is more than one line, please indicate to which point the line corresponds.

 

( 5 points) Find the equation(s) of all lines normal to the function at . Give line in slope-intercept form.  If there is more than one line, please indicate to which point the line corresponds.

 

( 9 points) Does this curve have a horizontal tangent(s)?   If so, give the x-value(s) at which it/they occur.  Be sure to justify your work.

 

( 6 points) Does this curve have a vertical tangent(s)?  If so, give the x-value(s) at which it/they occur.  Be sure to justify your work.

For  on the interval   using 5 partitions:

( 10 points) Sketch the curve and determine which Riemann sum would underestimate the area between f(x) and the x-axis on this interval.  Which will overestimate?  Justify your answer with a drawing or actual values.  You should be able to answer the question with just a drawing.

 

( 5 points) What can you do to increase the accuracy of the area calculation when using Riemann sums?

 

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Question 2:     Finance

 

One question in section A and Two questions from section B.

Please note the word count limits noted at the beginning of each section.

Your answers need to be in the form of Word and/or Excel files.

Case Study – Background

Stockpile PLC is an independent UK cinema chain with 8 cinemas across the country, the majority of which are on the south coast of England. The market is fairly competitive with large national chains owning the majority of the UK market.

Three of the eight cinemas in the group (Isle of Wight, Bournemouth and Portsmouth) have a retail store within them in addition to the food and beverage offerings. These stores sell movie memorabilia and prices range from 99p to over £2,000.

You are employed as one of the Senior Finance Managers within Stockpile PLC’s Head Office in Portsmouth and given the recent requirements in the UK to close cinemas temporarily, you have been asked to carry out a number of research tasks from home.

The Financial Controller would like you to respond to ONE question in section A and TWO questions in section B.

Section A can be submitted as an Excel spreadsheet, or equivalent. This section has no word count.

Section B needs to be presented in a report format limiting yourself to 1,500 words in total for this section. How you chose to allocate these words is up to you, however every question is of equal weighting. This report needs to be addressed to your line manager, Owen Klopp, the Financial Controller.

As a number of questions (3-6) require research, you are expected to cite your reference sources and provide a bibliography. This will not count towards the overall word count.

There is no need to introduce or conclude your work outside of the questions asked.

Section A Worth 25% of total marks

[Answer ONE of the following TWO questions. Both questions are weighted equally. There is no word count limit for Section A]

Question 1 – Accounts preparation

The trial balance for the Southampton branch for the year ended 29th February 2020 is as follows:

Share capital: £1 Ordinary shares Share premium
General Reserve
Retained earnings as at 1/3/2019 Inventory as at 1/3/2019

Sales Revenue Purchases Administrative expenses Distribution expenses

Plant and machinery: cost
Plant and machinery: accumulated depreciation
Vehicles: cost

Vehicles: accumulated depreciation Returns outwards
8 % Debenture
Debenture Interest paid

Dividends paid
Returns inwards
Bad Debt expense
Salesmen’s salaries Administrative wages and salaries Directors’ remuneration

Trade receivables
Provision for doubtful debts (1/3/2019) Cash at bank
Trade payables

£000 £000

1,400 200 80 304

328
4,820

2,640 100 140 1,440

440 580

280 120 120

5 280 140 80 320 316 180 1,280

56 623

632 £8,452 £8,452

/Question 1 continued……

 

Question 1 continued

The following additional information is supplied:

(i) Depreciation of plant and machinery at 10% straight-line to be charged to cost of sales

(ii)

Depreciation of vehicles at 20% straight-line to be charged to distribution costs

  • (iii)  Provide for auditors remuneration
  • (iv)  Income tax expense
  • (v)  Accrue for debenture interest unpaid
  • (vi)  Closing inventory was valued at

£4,000 £106,000

£112,000

  • (vii)  Based on past experience, the provision for doubtful debts is to be increased to 5% of trade receivables and allocated to administrative expenses.
  • (viii)  Transfer to General Reserve £50,000
  • (ix)  On 1st September 2019 Stockpile plc had issued 400,000 Ordinary shares at full market price of £1.50 per share.
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Required:

  • (a)  Prepare an Income Statement, Statement of Financial Position and Statement of Changes in Equity as at 29th February 2020 for the Southampton branch, that comply with the Companies Act 2006 and IAS1.
    (21 Marks)
  • (b)  Calculate the basic earnings per share for the year ended 29th February 2020.
    (4 Marks) [Total 25 Marks]

Question 2 – Consolidated group accounts

One of your junior staff is studying towards their ACCA exams and due to the recent provision to work from home they are now studying entirely online. Unfortunately, their education provider’s website has crashed and they are unable to get the answer to the following revision question:

Requirement:

Prepare the consolidated statement of financial position for the Zazu group as at 31st December 2019, so enabling your colleague to check their answer.

[Total 25 marks]

Consolidation question :

On 1st October 2012 Zazu PLC purchased 2,100,000 of the 3,000,000 £1 ordinary shares in Petersfield Ltd, paying £8,900,000 in cash; at the date of acquisition the Retained Earnings of Petersfield Ltd were £3,800,000 and there was no General Reserve.

The summarized Statement of Financial Position of the two companies for the year ended 31st December 2019 are as follows:

Non-current Assets

Property, plant and equipment
210,000 £1 shares in Petersfield Ltd at cost

Current Assets

Inventories
Trade Receivables Bank

Current Liabilities

Trade Payables

Net Current assets

Equity

Share Capital £1 ordinary Share Premium
Retained Earnings General Reserve

Zazu PLC £’000

21,000 8,900 29,900

10,000 3,000 2,000

15,000

8,000

7,000 36,900

10,000 1,000 25,900

36,900

Petersfield Ltd

£’000

8,500 8,500

6,000 1,500 500 8,000

3,500

4,500 13,000

3,000

8,000

2,000 13,000

The fair value of the land owned by Petersfield Ltd was £2,800,000 above book value. No adjustment has been made for this revaluation.
Petersfield Ltd sold goods to Zazu PLC during the year at an invoice price of £5,000,000. The goods had originally cost Petersfield Ltd £3,800,000. A quarter of these goods remained in stock at the year-end.

At 31st December 2019 Zazu PLC owed £900,000 to Petersfield Ltd for goods purchased for resale. This amount is shown as a trade payable in the Statement of Financial Position of Zazu PLC and as a trade receivable in the accounts of Petersfield Ltd.

An impairment test at 31st December 2019 on the consolidated goodwill indicated that it should be written down to £2,000,000. No other assets were impaired.

No dividends were paid by either of the companies in the relevant years, nor were there any changes in share capital.

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Required:

Prepare the consolidated statement of financial position for the Zazu group as at 31st December 2019.

[End of Section A]

[Total 25 Marks]

Section B Worth 75% of total marks

[Answer TWO of the following FOUR questions. All questions are weighted equally in section B and the word count for section B is 1,500 words]

The following scenario relates to ALL section B questions:

Question 3 – Taxation

One of Stockpile PLC’s rivals have been in the press recently in relation to a tax avoidance scheme.

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Requirement:

As a result of your competitor’s actions, Owen would like you to investigate and report back on the impact that the adoption of a tax avoidance scheme will have on a company. Owen specifically wants to know:

  1. a) What is their motivation for adopting a tax avoidance scheme?
    b) What happens to a company once they are found guilty of tax avoidance?

Your work should discuss both positive and negative effects on a business and you can bring in real life examples to substantiate your points.

Question 4 – Statement of Cash Flows

Your team has just received the draft Statement of Cash Flows for each cinema in the group up to the end of February 2020. You have been allocated the Isle of Wight cinema to review and their statement is over the page.

Requirement:

Within your report to Owen Klopp, please discuss your thoughts on the Statement of Cash Flow below, highlighting any key entries you notice, both positive and negative, for the company.

You will need to expand your answers to highlight the implications of these entries and what further information you would need to develop your understanding.

/Question 4 continued……

Question 4 continued

Statement of Cash Flows Year ended 29th February 2020
Isle of Wight branch

Cash flows from operating activities

Profit before tax
Adjustments for:
Depreciation
Interest expense
Operating profit before working capital changes (Increase) / decrease in trade and other receivables (Increase) / decrease in inventory

Increase / (decrease) in trade and other payables Cash generated from operations
Interest paid
Interest received

Income taxes paid
Net cash from operating activities

Cash flows from investing activities

Purchase of plant and machinery Purchase of a leasehold property Sale of plant and machinery
Net cash from investing activities

Cash flows from financing activities

Proceeds from the sale of ordinary share capital Bank loan repaid
Dividends paid
Net cash used in financing activities

Net increase in cash and cash equivalents
Cash and cash equivalents at the beginning of the period
Cash and cash equivalents at the end of the period

£’000

1,023

232 60 1,315 187 (420) 260 1,342 (10) 135 (280)

1,187

(301) (800) 201

(900)

456 (120) (750)

(414)

(127) 92

(35)

£’000

Section B continued……

Question 5 – Internal Controls

One of your team needs to review the internal controls of the Brighton cinema as this branch only joined the group in January 2020. The Brighton cinema is the third largest branch in the group with a £2million annual turnover. It employs 60 staff, both full and part-time, including 1 Manager (Ben Skrtel) and 1 Deputy Manager (Trent Oxlade).

The Brighton cinema is in the process of setting up a memorabilia store onsite which is due to open later this year. The current offering includes popcorn, ice cream and both alcoholic and soft beverages. Everything is scanned through a till system other than the ice cream sales, as there have been issues since 2018 with the till terminals at this stand. The sales are 95% on card payments.

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Cinema ticket sales are taken both online via the company website and in person using the terminals in the lobby. Between Friday night and Sunday evening the entrance is manned by a member of staff who checks the tickets of those entering the cinema.

The payroll and accounting records are completed by Ben on a weekly basis. Staff are registered onto the payroll system after working for the company for 3 months. Ben finds the whole payroll system particularly laborious, and knows at certain points of the year he needs extra staff for a few weeks.

Once registered, staff get a name badge, uniform and their own user name for the till. Until this point, uniform is borrowed, random name badges are supplied and a temporary log on is issued for the till system.

Requirement

As you cannot visit the cinema at the present time and observe how it operates, Owen has asked that you outline how the following areas could be at risk if they are not protected and suggest, with examples, what control activities could be put in place to help with any of the above?

 

Who can write an admission essay for my new college

Question 6 – Accounting regulations

Part of your role is to mentor junior staff. A number of them have asked for some guidance on the advantages and disadvantages of using accounting standards in financial reporting.

Research and present your thoughts on this, offering examples wherever possible. Your work should be presented in clear, and fully explained manner as this will ultimately be sent out to junior staff with very little knowledge in this area.

[End of Section B]

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Question 3:     Mathematics

 

What critical value t* would you use for a confidence interval for the population mean in each of the following situations? Match the critical value with the correct interval.

A 95% confidence interval based on n = 10 randomly selected observations
A 99% confidence interval from an SRS of 20 observations
A 90% confidence interval based on a random sample of 77 individuals
A 95% confidence interval from an SRS of 30 observations
A 95% confidence interval with
A. 2.262
B. 2.861
C. 1.671
D. 2.045
E. 2.571
F. 2.205
G. 1.665

 

A local newspaper in a large city wants to assess support for the construction of a highway by-pass around the central business district to reduce downtown traffic. They survey a random sample of 1152 city residents and find that 543 of them support the bypass. Use StatCrunch to construct and interpret a 95% confidence interval to estimate the proportion of residents who support construction of the bypass.

Include the State, Calculate, and Conlude.

.

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About 130,000 high school students took the AP Statistics exam in 2010. The free-response section of the exam consisted of five open-ended problems and an investigative task. Each free-response question is scored on a 0 to 4 scale (with 4 being the best).  For one of the problems, a random sample of 30 student papers yielded the scores that are graphed in the dot plot of part (a) in the previous problem. The mean score for this sample is X = 1.267 and the sample standard deviation is S = 1.23. Construct and interpret a 99% confidence interval to estimate the mean score on this question.

Show the three step process

 

At the Chrysler manufacturing plant, there is a part that is supposed to weigh precisely 19 pounds. The engineers take a sample of parts and want to know if they meet the weight specifications.  State the null and alternative hypothesis.

 

Suppose the present success rate in treating a certain type of lung cancer is 0.75. A research group hopes to demonstrate that the success rate of a new treatment of this cancer is better.  State the null and alternative hypotheses.

 

 

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For his second semester project in Statistics, Zenon decided to investigate whether students at his school prefer name-brand potato chips to generic potato chips. He randomly selected 50 students and had each student try both types of chips, in random order. Overall, 32 of the 50 ( p-hat = 0.64) students preferred the name-brand chips. Zenon performed a significance test using the hypotheses

 

Where p = the true proportion of students at his school who prefer name-brand chips. The resulting P-value was 0.0239. What conclusion would you make at each of the following significance levels?

 

 

 

According to the National Campaign to Prevent Teen and Unplanned Pregnancy, 20% of teens aged 13 to 19 say that they have electronically sent or posted sexually suggestive images of themselves.8 The counselor at a large high school worries that the actual figure might be higher at her school. To find out, she administers an anonymous survey to a random sample of 250 of the school’s 2800 students. All 250 respond, and 60 admit to sending or posting sexual images. Carry out a significance test at the α = 0.05 significance level. What conclusion should the counselor draw?

 

Check the conditions to do a one sample test for proportions.

State your hypotheses.

Determine the test statistic (z) and the p-value of the test

State your conclusions in context.

 

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A classic rock radio station claims to play an average of 50 minutes of music every hour. However, it seems that every time you turn to this station, there is a commercial playing. To investigate their claim, you randomly select 12 different hours during the next week and record what the radio station plays in each of the 12 hours. Assume the population of music played each hour follows an approximately Normal Distribution. Here are the numbers of minutes of music in each of these hours along with the sample mean and sample standard deviation.

 

Do the data provide convincing evidence that the average number of minutes of music played every hour is less than 50 minutes? Let x = 0.05. Assume the conditions to do a one sample t-test for means are met.

State your hypotheses

Determine the t test statistic and the p-value of the test.

State your conclusions.

For question number 9, choose the possible error that could be made, based on YOUR conclusion, and what this would mean in context to the problem

a. Type I Error
b. Type II Error
c. We said that the radio station does not play 50 minutes of music each hour, when in fact, they do.
d. We said that the radio station does play 50 minutes of music each hour, when in fact, they do not.

A college student organization wants to start a nightclub for students under the age of 21. To assess support for this proposal, they will select an SRS of students and ask each respondent if he or she would patronize this type of establishment. What sample size is required to obtain a 92% confidence interval with an approximate margin of error of 4%?

 

The critical value at 90% confidence is
Since no other information is given, P should be set equal to
The value of 1-P should be set equal to
The organization must select an SRS of at least
A. 1.645
B. 0.50
C. 0.50
D. 423
E. 1.96
F. 1.976
G. .25
H. .75
I. 466
J. 1692

 

 

Question 4:     Chemistry

 

Name: _____________________ Date: ___________ Section: __________

 

Charles’ Law

Procedure Summary

 

Type a summary of the experimental procedure below, in your own words.

 

 

 

Name: _____________________ Date: ___________ Section: __________

 

CHARLES’ LAW

Pre-Lab Questions

 

  • The following data was plotted on the graph below. Based on this graph, predict a value for Absolute Zero and type it in the space provided.

 

Temperature of Air (oC)

(x-axis)

Volume of Air (mL)

(y-axis)

100 140
20 110
4 105

 

 

Based upon this graph, Absolute Zero = _________oC

 

 

  • Based upon the graph in question 1, how does a decrease in temperature affect the volume of the gas (the pressure and amount of gas is held constant)?

 

Answer:

 

  • Charles’ Law allows the prediction of gas volumes at different temperatures. What would the volume of a gas be at 38.3oC if it started at a volume of 45.7mL and a temperature of -58.5 oC?

Remember that temperatures must be in Kelvin when performing Gas Law calculations.

 

Answer:

 

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  • Using the raw data from question 3 as an example, explain why temperature must always be converted to Kelvin when using gas law equations.

 

Answer:

 

  • Charles’ Law applies when gases are behaving as Ideal Gases. Can you assume that the gas will behave ideally during this experiment? Explain.

 

Answer:

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CHARLES’ LAW

Experimental Data

 

 

1.                  Experimental Procedure – Part 1 (Tap Water)

15) A student measured the temperature of the tap water bath, and found it to be 25.0 °C.

 

18) The student poured the tap water from the Erlenmeyer flask into a graduated cylinder and found the volume of the water to be 25 mL.

 

2.                  Experimental Procedure – Part 2 (Ice-Water)

15) A student measured the temperature of the ice-water bath, and found it to be 13.0 °C.

 

18) The student poured the ice-water from the Erlenmeyer flask into a graduated cylinder and found the volume of the water to be 33 mL.

 

3.                  Experimental Procedure – Part 3 (Boiling Water)

23 g) The student poured the combined contents of the Erlenmeyer flask and small glass tube into a graduated cylinder and found the total volume of the water to be 141 mL.

 

26) The student read the Barometric Pressure of the room, and found it to be 738.6 torr. Consulting the CRC Handbook, the student determined that the temperature of boiling water at that pressure is 99.203 °C.

 

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Instructions

Use the data provided to complete the data table on the next page.

In the Charles’ Law folder of the Lab Community, open the Excel file labeled “Charles Law Graphing”. Plot a graph of the Volume of Air versus Temperature by inputting the data from your data page into the table on the Excel spreadsheet (do not enter units). You must enter three sets of data (t1 vs. v1, t2 vs. v2 and t3 vs.v3). Save your graph to submit with your lab report.

NOTE: Be sure to use the Volume of Air and NOT the Volume of Water when plotting the graph.

From the extrapolated line on the graph, obtain a value for Absolute Zero in °C (the point where your line crosses the x-axis). Record your experimental value for Absolute Zero on the data page.

Name: _____________________ Date: ___________ Section: __________

 

 

CHARLES’ LAW

Experimental Data and Results

 

Refer to the Experimental Data provided, and enter it into the table.

Data Table

Temperature (°C) Volume of Water (mL) Volume of Air (mL)

(Total Volume of flask – Volume of water)

Part 1

(t1, v1)

Part 2

(t2, v2)

Part 3

(t3, v3)

 

Temperature of Boiling water:

 

Total Volume of Flask:

 

 

Barometric Pressure: _____________ torr

 

 

Prediction of Absolute Zero as determined from the graph:

 

Absolute Zero: _____________ oC

 

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Question 5:     Other

 

Recommendation Report

Associated Textbook Chapter: Chapter 18

 

Assignment: Write a Recommendation Report that includes a title page, abstract, executive summary, introduction, methods, results, conclusions, recommendations, and reference list. You can use the same topic as your Proposal assignment, or you may select a new topic. There is no minimum word count or number of sources, but this should be a research-based document. You may write either a Recommendation Report or Feasibility Report, depending upon your topic and the type of research you collect.

  • Recommendation Reports are used to make suggestions about the best course of action. Essentially a problem is studied, possible solutions are offered, and then the best course of action is recommended.
  • Feasibility Reports are written when management is unsure whether something can be done. This report helps to determine whether the company or organization should move forward with a project.

Whether you choose the Recommendation Report or the Feasibility Report, the basic pattern of layout is the same. You will include the following:

  • Front Matter that orients the reader to the subject. Provides summary for the reader, helps the reader to navigate the report, and helps readers decide whether to read the document. For this assignment, you should have a title page, abstract, and executive summary.
  • Body that provides the most comprehensive account of the project, from its inception of the problem or opportunity that motivated it to the methods and the most important findings. For this assignment, you should have an introduction, methods, results, conclusions, and recommendations.
  • Back Matter that presents the supplementary information, such as more detailed explanations than are provided in the body that enables readers to consult the secondary sources used. For this assignment, you are required to include a list of references and any appendixes that are appropriate.
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Readers:
Your audience for the Recommendation Report is the person(s) responsible for asking you to carry out the research study. They are the decision makers; they are the ones who can approve or deny the project. Your report will be written in response to their specific needs.

Context of Use:
The Recommendation Report represents the final assignment you will complete this semester. It is intended to be comprehensive in nature, so that your reader can easily understand the decision that has to be made based on the research you conducted.   While the timeline for this project has been shortened to reflect the nature of our course, in the workplace, one can work for many weeks or even months on a Recommendation Report.

Assessment:
Your report will be graded based upon the following three areas: Content; Organization, Design, and Audience Awareness; and Revision and Editing.

Content (50 points)

  • Introduction clearly defines the research question(s) and presents contextual information in a way the reader can understand.
  • Methodology clearly identifies the research conducted and justifies the validity of the research methods.
  • Results section demonstrates that writer carried out research necessary in order to gather information necessary for addressing the research questions.
  • Discussion of results demonstrates careful reflection and assessment of the research conducted as it pertains to the stated research questions.
  • Writer presents conclusions that successfully wraps up the study, presenting a feasible choice or recommends a particular course of action.

Organization, Design, and Audience Awareness (30 points)

  • Report contains excellent front and back matter that provides a title page, list of graphics (if appropriate) Works Cited, and necessary Appendices (if appropriate).
  • Report is well-organized with headings that help move a reader through the document.
  • Major divisions are clear visually.
  • All graphics are correctly cited if they are borrowed.

Revision & Editing (20 points)

  • No misspellings or typos are present.
  • Writer uses complete sentences.
  • Work is writer’s original text.
  • Grammar and punctuation are correct

 

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Question 6:     History

 

World History 1, Write a 250-page discussion post on Medieval Weaponry from the 5th-12th Century. APA

 

Question 7:     Law

 

Labor and Employment Law

Spring 2020

At Home Final Examination

IR 4320

 

 

Write a well-reasoned essay in response to each of the items below.

 

This is an open-book exam. You may consult any written materials that you wish, but it is not necessary to consult any materials not on the syllabus.  You may not discuss the examination or any of the issues raised by the examination with anyone, whether orally or in writing, until after you have received your grade.

 

The College Wide Policy on Academic Integrity applies to all work you do for this class, including this examination.

 

 

 

I.

 

The Novel Corona Virus (“COVID-19”) is a recently discovered health hazard. It poses a particularly severe danger to those persons, such as grocery store workers, who are required to report to work during the worst stages of the pandemic. Explain the procedures that the Occupational Safety and Health Administration and the Secretary of Labor could use in response to this health hazard in order to assure safe and healthful working conditions for American workers both in the coming weeks and in the coming years.

 

 

 

II.

 

The population of Central City is 20% African-American and 55% female.  In order to be accepted into the Central City Police Academy an applicant must be at least 5’8” tall, must have at least two years of college, and must score at least 80% on a written examination.  Over the last twenty years, the average Police Academy class has been 5% African-American and 15% female.

 

The EEOC brought an action against Central City in federal court alleging that the city’s requirements for Police Academy applicants violate Title VII of the Civil Rights Act.  The City moved to dismiss the complaint, and the District Court agreed with the City.  The EEOC then appealed that decision to the Circuit Court of Appeals.

 

  1. Write an argument on behalf of the EEOC to convince the Court of Appeals that Central City has violated Title VII of the Civil Rights Act; and

 

  1. Write an argument on behalf of Central City to convince the Court of Appeals that Central City has not violated Title VII of the Civil Rights Act.

 

 

III.

 

Alice works as a mail room employee for the accounting firm of Quinn and Ingram.  Alice’s job requires her to climb dozens of flights of stairs in the course of a day as she brings mail to and from various offices in the firm’s three-story building. Alice has developed arthritis in her knees and is now able to climb only four or five flights of stairs in the course of a workday. Alice asked her employer to install an elevator in the building so that she will be able to do her job going forward. The elevator would cost $70,000 to install on all three floors. When Quinn and Ingram refused her request Alice, after receiving a right to sue letter from the EEOC, commenced an action in the US District Court for the Eastern District of New York pursuant to the Americans with Disabilities Act.

 

Write an essay setting forth the arguments that Quinn and Ingram can make as to why Alice’s claim has no merit.

 

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Question 8:     Computer Science

 

Instruction

The Lo Shu Magic Square is a grid with 3 rows and 3 columns shown below. The Lo Shu Magic Square has the following properties: • The grid contains the numbers 1 – 9 exactly. Each number 1 – 9 must not be used more than once. So, if you were to add up the numbers used, the sum would always come out to 45. • The sum of each row, each column and each diagonal all add up to the same number, i.e. 15 in this example. This is shown below: Write a program that simulates a magic square using 3 one dimensional parallel arrays of integer type. Each one the arrays corresponds to a row of the magic square. The program asks the user to enter the values of the magic square row by row and informs the user if the grid is a magic square or not. See the sample outputs for more clarification. Project Specifications Input for this project: • Values of the grid (row by row) Output for this project: • Whether or not the grid is magic square • Programmer’s full name • Project number • Project due date

 

Question 9:     General

 

The lecture notes (below) discussed Dr. Albert Ellis Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy. Make sure to review this material. Also, if you have not already done so make sure to listen to the brief audio recording of Ellis describing his theory.

Here is the link: Albert Ellis – Theory and Practice of REBT Therapy

Now, after having reflected on this model answer the following question:

1)Do you agree with Dr. Ellis that one’s thoughts have a direct bearing on their feelings and behaviors? Why or why not? Make sure that you provide enough detail to support your answer.

Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy-Albert Ellis

Combining cognitive therapy and behavioral techniques.

Albert Ellis developed Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy. He believed that people were often irrational (illogical) in how they thought about the events of their lives. He developed the ABC model. It helps you understand what he meant. It is described below.

 

A                                  B                                               C

Adversity            Beliefs About A             Consequences Of Our Beliefs

(events)            (Our thoughts)                (how we feel and behave)

 

Common Example: We get cut off in traffic. We immediately become angry and scream at the other driver. (This never happens in real life—right?)

Here, A is getting cut off in traffic. B is our beliefs about or interpretation of getting cut off (e.g., “That no good $%@–how dare he cut me off”). C is the anger and screaming.

So, in this model, A does not cause C. B causes C—how one thought about the event. Think about it—how could a car cutting someone off cause someone to become enraged? That’s just a random life event. It has to be how one thought about the event. Someone else might not even be bothered by such an event—their thoughts might be something along the lines as: “He cut me off—no biggie—I aint’ going let that bring me down.” Here is a link to a brief audio recording in which Ellis discusses this idea: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=kxrjAbhTmNQ

Now, the main thing to understand is the idea that we are often irrational in how we interpret the events of our lives. Look again at the statement above. First, calling a person that you do not know a terrible name is illogical. They might be the nicest human being in the world! Second, stating “How dare he” suggests that one is somehow better than others (I guess that could be true) and that nothing like this should ever happen to oneself. See the issue?

Finally, did you watch the exposure therapy video? At the beginning of the video they showed how they were working on changing the patient’s thoughts (a Cognitive intervention). The patient’s exposure therapy was a Behavioral intervention.

 

Question 10:   Other

 

Instruction

I like playing basketball, I plan on and want to go pro. I have a daughter that I center my life around, I would say that I am outgoing, passionate, care for others and very competitive. I am the ifest in my family to make it to college and plan on being the first to graduate. I hope I can become the best dad to my daughter. in the next 6 months I will continue working out trying to be the best i can be at basketball and spend as much time as i can with my daughter. This answers some of the questions that are asked in the layout of the paper.

 

 

Final paper instructions UNIV/IDS 333:

Part I

Introduction:

The people that are happiest in their life choices know who they are at their core. They have a sense of self. They know who they are and why. Maslow’s pyramid gives us a foundation for self, as do many other theorists. Self-concept leads to, or unfortunately from, self-confidence and a sense of purpose and understanding our place in this world. Personally, I believe this is more important than ever due to technology and the social and economic pressures of life. It is too easy to lose or temporarily misplace our sense of who we are. Identity is a complicated construct. Research self, and the importance of understanding our identity.  I am giving you  quite a bit of latitude here, this need not be heavy journal articles, but rather articles that speak to you for any number of reasons.  Include the sources in a bibliography. Once the research is complete think about all the self-assessments from the class. Then….

Define your own self-image.   Using all the assessment from this class and other information you have gathered about yourself through your own life experience answer the following questions in depth. You are in fact being asked to synthesize this class and your life experiences to date into a solid reflection paper that may help you select a pathway forward from this point in time and in your personal journey.

What is your idea of your own self-image? (Be sure to include personality, emotionality, and values in this answer) Minimum three paragraphs

Who are you at your core?  (The central or most important part of something. What are the core elements that you have developed and want to keep developing? The essence of you. Include values and beliefs in this answer) Minimum two to three paragraphs

What are your hopes? {Hope is defined as the following: a feeling of expectation and desire for a certain thing to happen.}

synonyms: aspiration, desire, wish, expectation, ambition, aim, goal, plan, design;

archaic a feeling of trust.}

What are your dreams? {A series of thoughts, images, and sensations or to contemplate the possibility of doing something or that something might be the case.}

Synonyms: to think, conceive, contemplate, consider. Hopes and dreams are different.  Minimum two paragraphs

What have you done so far in your life? Use the accomplishment sheets and the resume prep here, but also look at what you would want to change? Why? Length should reflect experience to date

What do you want to do in your life?  Articulate your goals not just in one area of your life, but in multiple areas of your life. Financial, Spiritual, Professional, Personal, and any others that are important and relevant to you. Paragraph for each area, feel free to add your own areas

While this may seem like B. S. it really is not. These are not necessarily easy questions to answer. If you take this seriously it requires you to take a hard look at yourself. You began this class with a poem and a logo about yourself, you were asked to explore everything from motivational theory to human resource law.  Take all this to the next step.  Integrate the knowledge gained here and from other sources and write a reflection paper answering all these questions.

 

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Part II

 

Action Plan:

What steps will you take in the next six months to help you stay on a positive path or get back to a better path? You may use bullets

Who will you have help you with this process? (You do not have to name names you can indicate the individuals roles in your life)

What time will you carve out for yourself? When will you structure time for quiet contemplation and reflection? (I cannot stress the importance of this enough) once again you may use bullets

Where will you be one year from now? This is referred to as manifesting positive events in your life, it is also called the power of thought, some even use the term quantum thought, regardless if what we call it, envision and write down your world a year from now.

What are the big steps in your five year plan? Complete the attached form and upload with your reflection paper as one document.

Part III

Go do something nice for yourself.

 

 

Question 11:   Religious Studies

 

Instruction

What is eternal life and does it exist? How have various religions interpreted the relationship between life and death from a philosophical perspective? What do you believe? Do your beliefs relate to any of the philosophical themes raised in class? What is the nature of free will, and how is free will perceived in various religious traditions? Choose at least two different religious traditions to compare and contrast the understandings of free will. Nietzsche famously stated that “God is dead.” What did he mean by this and do you think it is true? Is morality static or circumstantial? If it is static, how does it remain so? If it is circumstantial, why do you think morality is allowed to change? Which would you prefer? Explain. Choose only one and write about it

 

Question 12:               Finance

 

FINA 8002: Finance For IT (Investment) BIS Year 4 Final Assignment Semester 2 2020

Section 1: 55 marks in total.

BIG PLC is currently evaluating a large capital investment project named “Project Remote”. The company typically evaluates such projects using Capital Budgeting and the Net Present Value investment appraisal method. Your boss – the company’s chief financial officer – has asked you to perform a detailed capital budgeting investment appraisal analysis on Project Remote to help determine if the project is viable. BIG PLC has carefully built its capital reserves over the years but its reserves are limited nonetheless and Project Remote would use up a significant portion of the firm’s cash resources.

Project Remote would, if accepted, be a significant departure in terms of the type of work that BIG PLC normally does. Head management are very bullish about the opportunity the project presents. The chief executive officer has recently commented: “we’ve got good people, we learn quickly, if you can succeed in one line of work you will find that skills are transferable, let’s do it!”

BIG PLC is experiencing a period of rapid growth and this shows no sign of slowing down. The company is currently approaching full capacity. The HR manager feels that additional flexible labour is available and that BIG PLC will shortly ramp up on recruiting additional staff – albeit on temporary contracts.

In order to be able to capture and priorities new projects the current project managers have been asked to test the waters with regard to “pushing out or extending” current customer deadlines. BIG PLC has a great reputation for on-time project delivery and the company CEO wants to leverage some of the goodwill built up with existing customers to facilitate the acquisition of new investment opportunities such as Project Remote.

BIG PLC has recently noted a spike in staff turnover rates. Whereas the company is growing quickly management have been keen to re-invest surplus profits for projects such as Project Remote. Even though the company has posted record profit announcements for the last two years staff pay and bonus schemes have remained static. Many staff have complained of longer working hours and a more stressful work environment due to mounting workloads and tight looming deadlines. Management have moved to address this issue by stating that they will shortly review current remuneration packages and bonus schemes.

The assistant accountant has provided you with the latest cash flows and cost estimates relating to Project Remote and these can be seen in the table and bullet points below:

Year 1 Year 2 Year 3
Sales & Revenues from the project: €1,800,000 €2,900,000 €2,400,000
Cost of Sales & Service relating to the project: €350,000 €390,000 €280,000

 

  • BIG PLC uses both debt and equity financing. As of recently the company funds itself 40% of the time with equity financing and 60% of the time with debt. The assistant accountant has calculated the most recent cost of equity as 10% and the current cost of debt as 5%. The company typically renegotiates its loans every 3 years. The company is due to next renegotiate its loans in one year’s time. The Financial controller is confident she can reduce BIG PLC’s cost of capital by increasing their level of gearing (borrowing). She has recently stated – “debt is so cheap right now and is likely to become even cheaper, equity financing is twice as expensive as debt currently – I can save us a lot of money – we won’t be issuing any more shares any time soon – I’m getting our weighted average cost of capital down as low as I can by using cheap debt financing, our projects will be worth more, that’s good for us, good for our management bonus schemes and good for our shareholders, it’s all positives, a real no-brainer”
  • The company estimates that the project will require an immediate investment (Year Zero) of €2,400,000 in order to begin. This initial investment has been categorized as a capital investment in fixed assets. These fixed assets are to be depreciated using the straight-line method of depreciation at a rate of €700,000 per annum. The asset qualifies in full for capital allowances (i.e. tax allowable depreciation charges). You may apply a balancing allowance or balancing charge in year 3 as appropriate. You may assume that the asset will not be sold at the end of Year 3 (i.e. no scrap value will be received).
  • The project will not cause any increase in General Fixed Overheads at Company HQ (Headquarters). HQ would like to allocate €200,000 of their general costs per annum to the project as part of BIG PLC’s internal performance management scheme.
  • Thus far, BIG PLC has incurred legal and consultancy fees of €200,000. This is for legal and consultancy work already done regarding the project and these fees are non-refundable in the event of the project not proceeding. Half of this €200,000 amount is yet to be paid and these costs are due to for payment at the beginning of year 1. Future legal fees, should the project continue, are estimated at €80,000 per annum.
  • Additional labour will be required if this project goes ahead. These additional labour costs have been estimated at €24,000 for year one but will fall by 10% in year 2 and by 10% again in year 3.
  • Merchandising items worth €9,000 were ordered for the project. These have been paid for already and cannot now be returned for a refund should the project be cancelled.
  • If the project does proceed BIG PLC will need to recall some office space that they are currently renting out to a third party for an annual rate of €35,000 per annum.
  • The project, if it is accepted, will incur expenses of €30,000 in year one, these expenses are expected to rise by 5% in Year 2 and then rise again by a further 5% in Year 3.
  • Management estimate that they would need to dedicate 25% of their time to this project as it is a “significant departure” from the firm’s typical business. Management salaries amount to €500,000 per annum and will not be affected by the project.
  • The company pays tax one year in arrears at a rate of 5% on Accounting Profits.

Required:

Provide a concise quantitative (25 marks) and qualitative (25 marks) analysis of BIG PLCs prospective investment in Project Remote.

Finally give a consensus recommendation, based on your findings as to whether you think the company should pursue the project or not (5 marks).

(55 marks in total for Section 1)

 

 

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Question 13:   Business Finance

 

M-M theory (1958) what could possibly be the most important theory for the structure of capital, through which it explains the effect of the capital structure for the value of companies that the firm’s value and cost of capital are autonomous of the capital structure decision and as such debt is irrelevant in determining a company’s cost of capital.
Assess and make a critical review of Modigliani and Miller’s Theory and the dominating literature that is pro and against this theory, aiming to identify the theory’s importance and contribute to the field modern finances.

 

Question 14:               Finance

 

Antarctic, Inc. was founded by Joseph and Jessie Lee. They equally own the company and each has 50,000 shares of stock. The company manufactures and installs cooling systems. The company has experienced spectacular growth because of rapid technological development.

Last year, Antarctic, Inc. had an EPS of $4.90 and paid a dividend to Joseph and Jessie of $80,000 each. The company also had a return on equity of 18 percent. The Lees believe that 14 percent is an appropriate required return for the company.

Joseph and Jessie are interested to know the value of their holdings in the company. They hired Janet Wang, a financial consultant, to conduct an analysis for them. Below is the information collected by Janet about their main competitors:

Antarctic, Inc.’s negative earnings per share were the result of an accounting write-off last year. Without the write-off, earnings per share for the company would have been $.54.

QUESTIONS

  • Assume the company continues with its current growth rate, calculate the company’s current stock price.

Janet has examined the financial statements of Antarctic, Inc. and those of its competitors. Although Antarctic, Inc. currently has a technological advantage, Janet understands that other companies are investigating methods to improve efficiency of the cooling systems. Janet believes that the company’s technological advantage will only last for the next five years. After that period, the company’s growth will likely slow down to industry average. She also believes that the required return used by the company is too high and the industry average required return is more appropriate. Using this assumption, what is the estimated stock price of the company?

 

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Question 15:   Engineering

 

A buck-boost chopper circuit operating at 8 kHz supplies 100 W power at 25 V to the single-phase bridge inverter. The input voltage to the DC to DC converter is constant at 15 V.

  1. a) find the value of L required for continuous current if the duty cycle is 0.5.
  2. b) if the switching frequency is reduced to 1 kHz while keeping the turn-on time and the value of inductance same as the values in part (a), find the new duty cycle.

 

Question 16:               Mathematics

 

Suppose that two competing television channels, channel 1 and channel 2, each have 50% of the viewer market at some initial point in time. Assume that over each one-year period channel 1 captures 10% of channel 2’s share, and channel 2 captures 20% of channel 1’s share.

Let X_{n} be the channel that a customer watch at year n. At the initial time n= 0, P(X_{0}= 1) = P(X_{0}=1) = 0.5.

  1. Given that at the initial time, the customer watch Channel 1, find the probability that he/she will watch Channel 1 in year 3
  2. Given that at the initial time, the customer watch Channel 1, find the probability that he/she will watch Channel 1 in year 10, 20, 30
  3. What can you tell about the probability P(X_n = 1|X_0 = 1) and P(X_n = 1| X_0 = 1) when n goes to infinite.
  4. Find P(X_1 = 1), P(X_2=1), P(X_3) =1
  5. Discuss about the behavior of P(X_n =1) when n goes to infinite

 

Question 17:   Computer Science

 

Assignment 3 Question

 

Further Background

 

Refer to background information provided in Assessments 1 and 2 regarding My Housing project.

 

Complete the Following

 

Please refer to the marking guide when preparing your response to see what criteria and standards will be used to assess your work and your progress.

 

Agile Methodologies

 

Compare and contrast Unified Process (UP) and Scrum. Then recommend either Unified Process or Scrum you will use for the proposed system and briefly describe why.

 

Plan and Monitor Project

 

Planning and monitoring project activities are important part of system development. Review all possible system functions that you identifed in assignment 1 and 2, and complete the following tasks. You are not required to explain these tasks, just draw a table for each task with some relevant parameters. Please note, as this is not a complete project, if information is not given you should assume reasonably.

  • Estimate the development cost and the time required to complete My Housing project.
  • Develop a work breakdown structure (WBS) for the My Housing project’s first iteration.
  • Prepare a detailed work schedule for the first iteration.

RATIONALE

This assessment task will assess the following learning outcome/s:

  • be able to evaluate development requirements and prepare a feasibility proposal based on multi-disciplinary (financial, human resource, technological) analyses.
  • be able to formulate and justify system requirement models based on evaluation of given situations.
  • be able to assemble the components of a requirements model using the tools and techniques of object oriented or structured systems modelling.

 

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MARKING CRITERIA AND STANdards

CRITERIA STANDARDS
High Distinction Distinction Credit Pass Fail
Compare and contrast Unified Process (UP) and Scrum. Then recommend either Unified Process or Scrum you will use for the proposed system and briefly describe why.

 

6 marks

Response clearly states the differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with strong justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (5.10-6.00) Response clearly states the differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with some justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (4.50-5.09) Response lists the major differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with little justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (3.90-4.49) Response lists some differences between Unified Process and Scrum methodologies with limited justification about which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (3.00-3.89) Response just describes both methodologies no comparison and no justification about

which methodology is suitable for the proposed system. (0.00-2.99)

Estimate the development cost and the time required to complete My Housing project.

Develop a work breakdown structure (WBS) for the My Housing project’s first iteration.

Prepare a detailed work schedule for the first iteration.

6 marks

Table provides accurate estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project.

Table provides accurate work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities.

Table provides accurate work schedule using all possible use cases.

(5.10-6.00)

Table provides mostly accurate estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project.

Table provides mostly accurate work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities.

Table provides mostly accurate work schedule using all possible use cases.

(4.50-5.09)

Table provides some estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project.

Table provides some work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities.

Table provides some work schedule using all possible use cases.

(3.90-4.49)

Table provides some estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project. Minor errors.

Table provides some work breakdown structure (WBS) using all project activities. Minor errors.

Table provides some work schedule using all possible use cases. Minor errors.

(3.00-3.89)

Table used to estimation for development cost and the time required to complete the project is wrong.

Table used to develop work breakdown structure (WBS) is wrong.

Table used to estimate work schedule is wrong.

(0.00-2.99)

Presentation and clarity (accuracy, spelling, grammar, punctuation, figures)

2 Marks

Fluent writing style appropriate to the assignment with accurate grammar and spelling, and high-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.70-2.00) Mostly fluent writing style appropriate to assignment with accurate grammar and spelling, and good-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.50-1.69) Mostly fluent writing style appropriate to the assignment with mostly accurate grammar and spelling. Minor omissions only. Some-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.30-1.49) Writing style not always fluent or well organized and grammar and spelling contain errors. Poor-quality figures drawn using some tools and figures have some captions. (1.00-1.29) Writing style not fluent or well-organized, and many grammatical and spelling mistakes. Very bad quality figures, copied from others work, no captions. (0.00-0.99)
Referencing and Citation

1 Marks

Referencing is mainly accurate and according to the APA standard. All references are cited in the text. (0.85-1.00) Referencing is mainly accurate and according to the APA standard. Most of the references are cited in the text. (0.75-0.84) Some attempt at referencing and according to the APA standard. Few references are cited in the text. (0.65-0.74) Attempt at referencing but not exactly according to APA standard and only few references are cited in the text. (0.50-0.64) Referencing is absent/ unsystematic. (0.00-0.49)

PRESENTATION

Your answer should be approx. 4 pages, Times New Roman Size 12 (title page and references are not part of page count). You should use your own words and avoid lengthy quotations.

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REQUIREMENTS

If any references are required, ensure to use APA referencing to acknowledge the sources that you have used in preparing your assessment. Please refer to the CSU referencing guide http://student.csu.edu.au/study/referencing-at-csu. In addition a very useful tool for you to use that demonstrates how to correctly use in text referencing and the correct way to cite the reference in your reference list can be found at https://apps.csu.edu.au/reftool/apa-6

 

Question 18:               Business

 

Identify and discuss interventions/approaches that can be adopted by the healthcare industry to enhance the quality of life

 

Question 19:               General Question

MN 551 Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam (Latest)

MN 551 Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam (Latest)

 

Question 20:               General Question

ATI Pharmacology Exam Latest 2020

ATI Pharmacology Exam Latest 2020

 

Question 21:               General Question

South University NSG 6420 Week 10 Final Exam Latest 2020

South University NSG 6420 Week 10 Final Exam Latest 2020

 

Question 22:               History

 

Answer the following essay in about 600-700 words.  (40 points).  Make sure your organize your essay into paragraphs with a well-stated opening and closing paragraph.

  1. There are forces that are pulling the world together in the 21st century and forces that are pulling it apart. What forces are pulling the world together in the 21st century?  How do these forces compare with those pulling it apart?  Discuss these two questions and apply two lessons learned from the period of history studied this term.

 

Question 23:               Statistics

1.

A scientist is conducting a study on the effect of eating chocolate and overall mood. They believe that gender is a significant factor.  The participants are divided by gender.  Then, within each group, participants are randomly assigned to consume either chocolate or a placebo and then rate their mood for the day. This experiment will run for two weeks.

Which type of experimental design does this situation describe?

 

2.

To compare the teaching methodologies of two of its eighth-grade math teachers, a school decides to compare student test scores from the two classes throughout the year.

Which type of statistical study is the school conducting?

 

3.

Peter randomly draws a card from a deck of 24. The odds in favor of his drawing a spade from the cards are 1:3.

What is the probability ratio for Peter to draw a spade?

 

4.

Select the correct statement regarding experiments.

A researcher can carefully control the explanatory variables and observe human responses.

5.

A trainer is studying the effects of vitamin D on his athletes. He has realized that there are many potential confounding factors, such as gender and age. To limit the effect of these confounding variables, he decided to first group two athletes together based on these variables (for example, two 21-year-old males). Then he randomly assigned one person to receive the vitamin D and the other to receive a sugar pill.

What type of experimental design does this situation demonstrate?

 

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6.

Amanda is the owner of a small chain of dental offices. She sent out the yearly satisfaction survey to 600 randomly selected patients and received 544 surveys back. When looking through the results, she noticed that the downtown dental office staff had 84% of clients reporting satisfaction with services, while the uptown dental office staff had 76% of clients reporting satisfaction with services.

Which of the following sets shows Amanda’s null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis?

 

7.

Which of these statements best defines a stratified random sample?

 

8.

What is the probability of drawing a red card or a queen from a standard deck of 52 cards?

 

9

Ryan is playing a multiplication game with a pile of 26 cards, each with a number on them. Each turn, he flips over two of the cards, and has to multiply the numbers.

How many possible outcomes are there on Ryan’s first turn flipping two cards?

 

10.

The average number of road accidents that occur on a particular stretch of road during a month is 7.

What is the probability of observing exactly three accidents on this stretch of road next month?

 

 

 

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Question 24:   Music

 

According to the film, Alex Lora: Rock and Roll Made in Mexico, how was the view of the Mexican government towards Rock n’ Roll during the ’60s?

Question 1 options:

 

  1. A)

The Rock and Roll was banned in Mexico, and they were persecuted.

 

  1. B)

The government persecuted the groups that played “Refried” songs.

 

  1. C)

“Rhythm and blues” was the only genre that was permitted.

 

  1. D)

It became very popular and everyone liked it.

Question 2 (2 points)

 

According to the film, Comparers, how did the women learn the mariachi tradition of music?

Question 2 options:

 

  1. A)

They taught themselves.

 

  1. B)

They learned in school.

 

  1. C)

They learned by imitating successful musicians.

 

  1. D)

All of the above.

Question 3 (2 points)

 

According to the film Comparers, what main obstacle did the mariacheras have to overcome during their journey to become professional mariachis?

Question 3 options:

 

  1. A)

None of the above

 

  1. B)

Machismo

 

  1. C)

It was difficult for them to learn the music

 

  1. D)

Some of them did not want to become professional mariachis but society pushed them into it.

Question 4 (2 points)

 

According to the film, El Corrido Mexicano, the song, ” Somos Más Americanos, by popular band Los Tigres del Norte, addresses what important issue, among others?

Question 4 options:

 

  1. A)

immigration

 

  1. B)

drug dealing

 

  1. C)

social diseases

 

  1. D)

religion

Question 5 (2 points)

 

According to the film, Sing and Don’t Cry: The Mariachis, why is the Venezuelan mariachi ensemble’s participation in the event significant to the larger genre of mariachi music?

Question 5 options:

 

  1. A)

It demonstrates the economic reliability of Venezuela from an international perspective.

 

  1. B)

It shows the international appeal of the mariachi musical tradition.

 

  1. C)

It represents the similarities between mariachi and folk music from Venezuela.

 

  1. D)

It points to the lax immigration laws of Mexico.

Section V: Listening

Section I: Identifying Terms and Concepts Fundamental to Music and Dance—Matching (14 points)

Question 6 (6 points)

 

Match the element of music to its description.

Question 6 options:

Bottom of Form

1.Dynamics

 

  1. Form

 

  1. Texture

 

  1. Pitch

 

  1. Timbre

 

4.Rhythm

1.

Volume and articulation of sounds

2.

Underlying organizational structure of the sounds

3.

Frequency of the tone

4.

Duration of sounds and silences and organization of such

5.

Phonic structure or relationships between the sounds

6.

Tone or aural color

Question 7 (4 points)

 

Match the element of dance to its description.

Question 7 options:

  1. Refers to the dancer him/herself

 

3.Use of floor patterns, direction, level, and shape

 

4.Amount of force expended in a given movement

 

2.Speed of movements and manipulation of rhythmic patterns

1.

Body

2.

Time

3.

Space

4.

Effort

Question 8 (4 points)

 

Match the classification with the way in which its instruments produce sound.

Question 8 options:

Membranophones

 

. Idiophones

 

. Chordophones

 

1.Aerophones

 

Vibrations of air columns

 

Vibrations of stretched skins, organic or synthetic

 

Vibrations of strings

 

Vibrations of instrument body

Section III: Text/Lecture–Multiple Choice (16 points)

Choose the correct answer in response to the question/prompt.

Question 9 (1 point)

 

Which of the following is an example of participatory performance?

Question 9 options:

 

  1. A)

A piano solo

 

  1. B)

An opera

 

  1. C)

An open drum circle

 

  1. D)

A staged rock concert

Question 10 (1 point)

 

The reference to a despedida in the final chapter should call to mind this custom:

Question 10 options:

 

  1. A)

a sung reference to ancestral tradition.

 

  1. B)

the sung farewell in a corrido.

 

  1. C)

a statement of protest in popular song.

 

  1. D)

the practice of participatory singing.

Question 11 (1 point)

 

What is the Spanish term for “mixture” used in reference to racial blending and, later, syncretism of cultural features?

Question 11 options:

 

  1. A)

Diaspora

 

  1. B)

Essentialization

 

  1. C)

Stereotype

 

  1. D)

Mestizaje

Question 12 (1 point)

 

José Pablo Moncayo’s Huapango:

Question 12 options:

 

  1. A)

rejects the spirit of nationalism that shaped the opening decades of the 20th century.

 

  1. B)

is only played by symphonic orchestras and never played outside of Mexico.

 

  1. C)

was intended for performance by rural musicians.

 

  1. D)

has become a beloved symbol of Mexican identity.

Question 13 (1 point)

 

What is the six-beat pattern with varying accentuation, sometimes felt in two and other times in three, common in various Latin musics called?

Question 13 options:

 

  1. A)

Triple meter

 

  1. B)

Compound meter

 

  1. C)

Huapango

 

  1. D)

Sesquiáltera

Question 14 (1 point)

 

Which of the following is another name for the dance music called, waila?

Question 14 options:

 

  1. A)

Tecnobanda

 

  1. B)

Quebredita

 

  1. C)

Chicken scratch

 

  1. D)

Tex-Mex

Question 15 (1 point)

 

Why do practitioners of Danza Azteca take issue with Danza de los Concheros?

Question 15 options:

 

  1. A)

The attire donned by the dancers utilizes materials taken from endangered animals.

 

  1. B)

Aztec ceremonies do not provide space for both groups, so competition between them has become intense.

 

  1. C)

The representation of women is misogynistic and further oppresses women in modern society.

 

  1. D)

Use of the concha represents European influence on indigenous practices.

Question 16 (1 point)

 

One of the earliest and most famous stars of rocanrol was:

Question 16 options:

 

  1. A)

Gloría Rios

 

  1. B)

Amparo Ochoa

 

  1. C)

Judith Reyes

 

  1. D)

Julieta Venegas

Question 17 (1 point)

 

Which of the following was the singer-actor who became the idealized representative of the handsome, heroic rancher?

Question 17 options:

 

  1. A)

Emilio Zapata

 

  1. B)

Jorge Negrete

 

  1. C)

Agustín Lara

 

  1. D)

José

Question 18 (1 point)

The guitar and other stringed instruments didn’t exist prior to European contact and belong to this category.

Question 18 options:

 

  1. A)

Idiophone

 

  1. B)

Membranophone

 

  1. C)

Aerophone

 

  1. D)

Chordophone

Question 19 (1 point)

 

Which of the following is a guitar-like instrument with six double courses associated with conjuntos norteños?

Question 19 options:

 

  1. A)

Bajo sexto

 

  1. B)

Mandolin

 

  1. C)

Guitarrón

 

  1. D)

Vihuela

Question 20 (1 point)

 

Villancicos were one of the most important genres of music to develop in vice-regal Mexico and offered a vehicle for:

Question 20 options:

 

  1. A)

inserting popular music styles into the formal liturgy.

 

  1. B)

giving space to women composers.

 

  1. C)

sharing new instruments imported from Germany, like the accordion.

 

  1. D)

teaching the congregation high Latin.

Question 21 (1 point)

 

Which of the following is a Spanish genre of musical theater characterized by a mixture of sung and spoken dialogue?

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Question 21 options:

 

  1. A)

Kunqu

 

  1. B)

Zarzuela

 

  1. C)

Opera

 

  1. D)

Noh

Question 22 (1 point)

 

What is the foot-stomping heard in Mexican son that creates rhythmic accents called?

Question 22 options:

 

  1. A)

Zapateado

 

  1. B)

Ceili

 

  1. C)

Baile

 

  1. D)

Flamenco

Question 23 (1 point)

 

Independence Day in Mexico is:

Question 23 options:

 

  1. A)

May 5th.

 

  1. B)

April 15th.

 

  1. C)

September 16th.

 

  1. D)

December 25th.

Question 24 (1 point)

 

The mega-genre of Mexican dance song, called son, is defined by which three dimensions?

Question 24 options:

 

  1. A)

Music, verse, and instrumentation

 

  1. B)

Verse, instrumentation, and choreography

 

  1. C)

Music, verse, and choreography

 

  1. D)

Music, instrumentation, and choreography

Section IV: Text/Lecture–True-False (15 points)

Select T (true) or F (false) for the following statements.

 

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Question 25 (1 point)

 

All societies have music, but music is not a universal language.

Question 25 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 26 (1 point)

 

Another term for “traditional” music is “folk” music.

Question 26 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 27 (1 point)

 

The beginning of the nationalist movement in Mexican classical music began with the establishment of the Orquesta Sinfónica Nacional in 1928 and ended with the death of composer Silvestre Revueltas in 1940.

Question 27 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 28 (1 point)

 

Classical music is distinct in that it requires very specialized training to understand and perform and is typically based upon a theoretical system, like notation.

Question 28 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 29 (1 point)

 

Banda is a broad style of Mexican dance music popularized by the wind bands of Sinaloa.

Question 29 options:

 

True

 

False

 

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Question 30 (1 point)

 

Popular music refers to music mostly from the 1980s-1990s, especially music that includes electric guitar, bass, and keyboards.

Question 30 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 31 (1 point)

 

Canto nuevo (a.k.a. nueva canción and nueva trova) was a song movement easily identified by the women who invariably fronted the bands to represent the gender equality for which it was striving.

Question 31 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 32 (1 point)

 

A song structured in verse form with different text, but the same melody is known as strophic.

Question 32 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 33 (1 point)

 

Flor silvestre (1943) is a film that provides a social critique of the Mexican Revolution in its music and narrative.

Question 33 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 34 (1 point)

 

The huéhuetl (single-headed drum with carved wooden base) is categorized as an idiophone.

Question 34 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 35 (1 point)

 

Francisco “Pancho” Villa (1878-1923) was a major leader during the Mexican Revolution.

Question 35 options:

 

True

 

False

 

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Question 36 (1 point)

 

The romance is a poetically conceived ballad song and ancestor to the modern corrido.

Question 36 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 37 (1 point)

 

The Porfiriato was a period of social degradation and oppression of freedom, but with a lot of economic and infrastructure improvements in Mexico.

Question 37 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 38 (1 point)

 

Son istmeño is well known for its characteristic instrument, the pinkillu.

Question 38 options:

 

True

 

False

Question 39 (1 point)

 

Porfirio Diaz is most well-known for his rallying cry for Mexican independence, “death to the gachupines.”

Question 39 options:

 

True

 

False

 

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Question 25:               Business

 

Assignment Overview

The Case Assignments for this course are tightly coordinated with the SLP and the TD. In the SLP, you will be working with a virtual team comprising several of your classmates. In the Case, you will be considering the more conceptual topics that will guide you in structuring your team and its work. Your task is to apply what you learn from preparing the Cases to the way you build your team. The exception is Module 4, where the Case involves an assessment of your team and the SLP an action plan for improvement and learning. The goal is that by the end of the course you will have had a chance to learn and practice what current management “gurus” are telling us about how to work in virtual teams, and will be in a position to analyze how effective these practices are.

Case Assignment

Arguably the trickiest part of building and maintaining an effective virtual team is the task of balancing “togetherness” and “apartness.” Some insight was given to this question in the background reading. Now read an additional piece, which expands on this theme:

Mapping out the creative process and work design approach. Retrieved from http://media.wiley.com/product_data/excerpt/46/07879711/0787971146.pdf

After considering the material in this reading as well as the background readings and any other research material you choose to use, reflect on how a virtual team best addresses the balance between togetherness and apartness. Specifically, you will want to think about how the work in virtual teams is designed as well as how leadership is handled.  For example:

  • What are the options for work design and leadership of virtual teams?
  • How do task requirements and team characteristics affect the choices of work design and leadership (such as rotating, etc.)? Be specific and give examples if appropriate.
  • Make an assessment of the effectiveness of the structures/practices covered by the readings in this module for virtual teaming. (In other words, do they work, or are the authors of the readings hopelessly out of touch with reality?)

Assignment Expectations

Your paper (which should be from 4 to 5 pages), will be evaluated using the following five (5) criteria:

  • Assignment-Driven Criteria (Precision and Breadth): Does the paper fully address all assignment expectations? Are the concepts behind the assignment addressed accurately and precisely using sound logic? Does the paper meet minimum length requirements?
  • Critical Thinking (Critical Thinking and Depth): Does the paper demonstrate graduate-level analysis, in which information derived from multiple sources, expert opinions, and assumptions has been critically evaluated and synthesized in the formulation of a logical set of conclusions? Does the paper address the topic with sufficient depth of discussion and analysis?
  • Business Writing (Clarity and Organization): Is the paper well written (clear, developed logically, and well organized)? Are the grammar, spelling, and vocabulary appropriate for graduate-level work? Are section headings included in all papers? Are paraphrasing and synthesis of concepts the primary means of responding to the assignment, or is justification/support instead conveyed through excessive use of direct quotations?
  • Effective Use of Information (Information Literacy and References): Does the paper demonstrate that the student has read, understood and can apply the background materials for the module? If required, has the student demonstrated effective research, as evidenced by student’s use of relevant and quality (library?) sources? Do additional sources used in paper provide strong support for conclusions drawn, and do they help in shaping the overall paper?
  • Citing Sources: Does the student demonstrate understanding of APA Style of referencing, by inclusion of proper end references and in-text citations (for paraphrased text and direct quotations) as appropriate? Have all sources (e.g., references used from the Background page, the assignment readings, and outside research) been included, and are these properly cited? Have all end references been included within the body of the paper as in-text citations?

Turn in your 4- to 5-page essay by the end of the module.

 

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Question 26:               Business

 

Amazon.com Business Combinations and Financial Results Analysis

worth 120 points

Search the Internet for acquisitions and equity investments made by Amazon.com during the last five (5) years. Review the 10-K of Amazon.com located at http://www.sec.gov/cgi-bin/browse-edgar?company=&match=&CIK=AMZN&filenum=&State=&Country=&SIC=&owner=exclude&Find=Find+Companies&action=getcompany.

Write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:

Examine how at least three (3) growth strategy alternatives utilized by Amazon.com in the global and domestic retail markets influenced profitability and indicate if the strategies were successful.
Assess the financial value of the acquisitions and investments made by Amazon.com, and the influence of the acquisitions and investments on profitability during the accounting period.
Analyze the effect of the equity investments and impairments resulting from the acquisitions and investments by Amazon.com on the financial statements and indicate whether the strategy was a creatable one. Provide support for your rationale.
Create an argument that growth in the European market can have a significant impact on current earnings and profit for Amazon.com. Provide support for your rationale.
Use at least two (2) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar websites do not qualify as academic resources. You have access to Strayer University’s Online Library at https://research.strayer.edu or iCampus University Library Research page at https://icampus.strayer.edu/library/research.

 

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Question 27:               Business

 


For this assignment, use the same company you researched in Assignment 1 (Wegmans Food Markets)

Write a two to three (2-3) page paper in which you:

  1. Compare the difference between job satisfaction and organizational commitment. Determine which is more strongly related to performance for your selected company.
  2. Apply motivational theory and performance management principles to evaluate the company as a potential employer.
  3. Use at least three (3) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and similar websites do not qualify as academic resources.

 

 

Question 28:               Economics

 

The demand for 3D televisions (TVs) would fall if 3D TVs are normal goods and:

 

  • Question 2

10 out of 10 points

 

 

What would explain the price of petrol being much higher in 2012 than it was in 2011, yet roughly the same amount of petrol was bought in both years?

 

 

  • Question 3

0 out of 10 points

 

 

Businesses feel that slowly rising general prices are good for business because:

 

Question 4

10 out of 10 points

 

If the price of wood suddenly increases, which of the following would be a likely explanation?

 

  • Question 5

10 out of 10 points

 

 

If the demand for a good increases when there is high unemployment, we can conclude that the commodity is:

 

 

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  • Question 6

10 out of 10 points

 

 

If the price of petrol doubles while consumer income is constant:

 

 

  • Question 7

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

If the price of luxury cars falls, the most likely outcome, ceteris paribus, will be that the:

 

Question 8

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

An advance in technology increases supply:

 

 

 

  • Question 9

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

Health Clubs typically experience an increase in one-year memberships in January, but many new customers cancel their memberships before the end of the year. Which of the following is the best explanation for this behavior?

 

  • Question 10

0 out of 10 points

 

 

 

The substitution effect of a price change refers to the:

 

 

 

  • Question 1

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

An advance in technology increases supply:

 

 

 

 

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  • Question 2

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

The substitution effect of a price change refers to the:

 

 

 

  • Question 3

10 out of 10 points

  • Question 4

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

If wages of workers in the car manufacturing industry rise, and the wage rises are not due to increases in worker productivity, then the market:

 

  • Question 5

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

What would explain the price of petrol being much higher in 2012 than it was in 2011, yet roughly the same amount of petrol was bought in both years?

 

 

  • Question 6

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

The demand for 3D televisions (TVs) would fall if 3D TVs are normal goods and:

 

  • Question 7

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

Assume that the prices of airline tickets (assuming airline tickets are normal goods) have fallen in recent months. Over this same period, assume that the price of jet fuel has risen and consumer incomes have fallen. Which of the following best explains the falling prices of airline tickets?

 

 

  • Question 8

10 out of 10 points

 

If the price of petrol doubles while consumer income is constant:

 

  • Question 9

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

Businesses feel that slowly rising general prices are good for business because:

 

 

  • Question 10

10 out of 10 points

 

 

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If the demand for a good increases when there is high unemployment, we can conclude that the commodity is:

 

 

Question 3

0 out of 10 points

 

 

 

An increase in the demand for bananas will not be caused by:

 

 

Question 10

10 out of 10 points

 

 

 

Soon after the price of beef increases, the price of chicken increases also because:

 

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Question 29:               Psychology

 

  1. Researchers (Dexter et al., 1998) wanted to know what impact, if any, the consumption of violent movies has on attitudes toward women. Participants at a large, Midwestern university viewed either (a) a slasher film daily for 1 week, (b) Three slasher films in 1 week, or (c) a George Pierrot adventure travelogue. Slasher films feature the slicing and dicing of young women’s bodies (e.g., The Texas Chain Saw Massacre, 1974). In the week following the film viewing, all participants were escorted to the campus law school where they were asked to observe law students try a rape case in a mock trial; participants’ task was to evaluate the performance of all parties to the trial. A Likert-style questionnaire (1=not at all; 9=extremely) completed by participants included evaluations of the respective attorneys, the defendant, and the accuser. Examples were:
  • How sympathetic is she/he?
  • How attractive is she/he?
  • How intelligent is she/he?
  • How likeable is she/he?

 

Reference:

 

Dexter, H. R., Penrod, S., Linz, D., & Saunders, D. (1998). Attributing responsibility to female victims after exposure to sexually violent films: The effects of victim-observer similarity, situational relevance, and mass media induced emotional arousal. Journal of Applied Social Psychology, 27(24), 2149-2171.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

 

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If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. d)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

 

 

  1. A pair of psychologists are interested in the effects of mood in helping (based on Isen & Levin, 1972). They give participants free tickets to a happy movie. They then have a confederate drop papers in front of the people who just got out of the movie, and people who are only walking by and have not just seen a happy movie for free. The researchers watch to see if the participants help pick up the dropped papers.

 

Reference:

Isen, A. M., & Levin, P. F. (1972). Effect of feeling good on helping: Cookies and kindness. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 21(3), 384–388.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. d)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

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  1. Researchers are interested in personal experiences of Indian adolescent girls with regard to gender discrimination and how they feel about the discrimination (Sarkar, 2003). All of the participants used in this study are female. Participants are interviewed with a set of semi-structured, open ended questions in an individual setting and in focus groups.

 

Reference:

 

Sarkar, S. (2010). Cross-cultural examination of psychological well-being in India and Sri Lanka. Paper accepted and to be presented as a part of the Symposium “Exploring psychological well-being in culturally diverse populations: Methodological innovations”, chaired by B. K. Nastasi at the American Psychological Association’s 112th annual convention (August 2010, San Diego).

 

  1. a)    What is the qualitative research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

.

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. d)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

 

  1. Researchers (Reifman, Larrick, & Fein, 1991) were interested in the factors causing aggression. They looked at an entire baseball season’s worth of news reports. For each game, they recorded the temperature of the locale and the number of batters who were hit by pitched balls.

 

Reference:

Reifman, A. S., Larrick, R. P., & Fein, S. (1991). Temper and temperature on the diamond: The heat-aggression relationship in major league baseball. Personality and Social Psychology Bulletin, 17(5), 580–585.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. e)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

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  1. Researchers are interested in influences on self-esteem. Half of the participants used in this study are male and half are female. Participants are given a set of anagram problems to solve in a 5-minute period. Half are randomly assigned to receive very easy anagrams and half are given difficult ones. After completing as many of the anagrams as they can, participants are given a questionnaire labeled “Thoughts and Feelings Questionnaire” that is really a measure of self-esteem.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. f)     What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

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Question 30:               Psychology

 

  1. Researchers (Dexter et al., 1998) wanted to know what impact, if any, the consumption of violent movies has on attitudes toward women. Participants at a large, Midwestern university viewed either (a) a slasher film daily for 1 week, (b) Three slasher films in 1 week, or (c) a George Pierrot adventure travelogue. Slasher films feature the slicing and dicing of young women’s bodies (e.g., The Texas Chain Saw Massacre, 1974). In the week following the film viewing, all participants were escorted to the campus law school where they were asked to observe law students try a rape case in a mock trial; participants’ task was to evaluate the performance of all parties to the trial. A Likert-style questionnaire (1=not at all; 9=extremely) completed by participants included evaluations of the respective attorneys, the defendant, and the accuser. Examples were:
  • How sympathetic is she/he?
  • How attractive is she/he?
  • How intelligent is she/he?
  • How likeable is she/he?

 

Reference:

 

Dexter, H. R., Penrod, S., Linz, D., & Saunders, D. (1998). Attributing responsibility to female victims after exposure to sexually violent films: The effects of victim-observer similarity, situational relevance, and mass media induced emotional arousal. Journal of Applied Social Psychology, 27(24), 2149-2171.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

 

 

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. d)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

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  1. A pair of psychologists are interested in the effects of mood in helping (based on Isen & Levin, 1972). They give participants free tickets to a happy movie. They then have a confederate drop papers in front of the people who just got out of the movie, and people who are only walking by and have not just seen a happy movie for free. The researchers watch to see if the participants help pick up the dropped papers.

 

Reference:

Isen, A. M., & Levin, P. F. (1972). Effect of feeling good on helping: Cookies and kindness. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 21(3), 384–388.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. d)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

 

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  1. Researchers are interested in personal experiences of Indian adolescent girls with regard to gender discrimination and how they feel about the discrimination (Sarkar, 2003). All of the participants used in this study are female. Participants are interviewed with a set of semi-structured, open ended questions in an individual setting and in focus groups.

 

Reference:

 

Sarkar, S. (2010). Cross-cultural examination of psychological well-being in India and Sri Lanka. Paper accepted and to be presented as a part of the Symposium “Exploring psychological well-being in culturally diverse populations: Methodological innovations”, chaired by B. K. Nastasi at the American Psychological Association’s 112th annual convention (August 2010, San Diego).

 

  1. a)    What is the qualitative research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

.

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. d)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

 

  1. Researchers (Reifman, Larrick, & Fein, 1991) were interested in the factors causing aggression. They looked at an entire baseball season’s worth of news reports. For each game, they recorded the temperature of the locale and the number of batters who were hit by pitched balls.

 

Reference:

Reifman, A. S., Larrick, R. P., & Fein, S. (1991). Temper and temperature on the diamond: The heat-aggression relationship in major league baseball. Personality and Social Psychology Bulletin, 17(5), 580–585.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. e)    What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

 

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  1. Researchers are interested in influences on self-esteem. Half of the participants used in this study are male and half are female. Participants are given a set of anagram problems to solve in a 5-minute period. Half are randomly assigned to receive very easy anagrams and half are given difficult ones. After completing as many of the anagrams as they can, participants are given a questionnaire labeled “Thoughts and Feelings Questionnaire” that is really a measure of self-esteem.

 

  1. a)    What is the research method employed in this study?

(Highlight the correct answer)

 

  1. Observational
  2. Correlational
  3. Experimental
  4. Phenomenological
  5. Case Study

 

 

If a quantitative study,

  1. b)    What are the independent and dependent variables in this study?

 

 

  1. c)    What is the hypothesis for this study?

 

 

If a qualitative study,

  1. f)     What is the concept or phenomenon of interest being explored?

 

 

Question 31:               Psychology

 

SS360 Abnormal Psychology Final Exam

  1. Which of the following is NOT one of the typical minor side effects of antipsychotic medications?

 

Grogginess

 

Blurred vision

 

Headaches

 

Dryness of the mouth

 

  1. The main deficit of amnestic disorder is an inability to

 

transfer information into long-term memory.

 

remember significant events from the distant past.

 

perform basic mathematical calculations.

 

remember one’s own name.

 

  1. One of the major differences between dementia caused by Alzheimer’s disease and dementia caused by depression is that the Alzheimer’s type of dementia:

 

is generally reversible

 

is not reversible

 

involves a slow increase in symptoms

 

leads to a rapid decline in abilities

  1. Tardive dyskinesia, a condition that can occur in patients who take antipsychotic medications:

 

can result from short term use

 

can result from low doses

 

occurs in less than 2% of patients

 

may often be irreversible

  1. Which of the following is the persecutory type of psychotic delusion?

 

A familiar person is actually a double.

 

You are a famous or important person.

 

People are out to get you.

 

A body part has changed in some impossible way.

 

  1.  Most models of developmental psychology suggest that normal childhood development progresses as a series of steps, with each new achievement building on prior development. Given this model, select any childhood developmental disorder and describe how it can influence current and future deficits for the individuals
  2. Which of the following is(are) the primary issue(s) in mental health law today?

 

The rights of mentally ill individuals

 

The rights of society to be protected

 

both of these

 

neither of these

  1. Several years ago, Mary was arrested for participating in a crime. Since then she has been confined in a psychiatric hospital. Mary is periodically evaluated to see if she is still mentally ill. When it is determined that she is no longer mentally ill, Mary will be released. From your knowledge of mental health and the law, you would correctly state that the original verdict in Mary’s case was:

 

NGRI

 

GBMI

 

both of these

 

neither of these

  1. In which of the following disorders are hallucinations and delusions NOT part of the symptom pattern?

 

schizotypal personality disorder

 

schizoaffective disorder

 

schizophreniform disorder

 

brief psychotic disorder

  1. One of the subtypes of schizophrenia is termed residual. Which of the following individuals would be diagnosed with this condition?

 

Mr. S. is actively hallucinating and has delusions of persecution.

 

Miss L. has had an episode of schizophrenia but has no active symptoms at this time.

 

Mrs. R. has never had an episode of schizophrenia but acts in a very bizarre manner.

 

Mt. F. is at risk for developing schizophrenia because of his family history.

  1. Which of the following occurs when drugs are administered to schizophrenic patients?

 

drugs that increase dopamine (agonists) cause an increase in schizophrenic behavior

 

drugs that decrease dopamine (antagonists) decrease schizophrenic behavior

 

both of these statements are correct

 

neither of these statements are correct

  1. Which best describes the way attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) develops as children grow into adulthood?

 

children tend to outgrow ADHD

 

ADHD tends to evolve into more severe forms of pathology

 

symptoms remain relatively stable throughout the lifespan for most individuals

 

manifestations of ADHD tend to change over time, but problems often persist

  1. Jena is a 14-year-old autistic girl who seems compelled to run around touching each door every time she comes home. If she is prevented from touching each door, Jean has a tantrum. This is an example of:

 

restricted behavior pattern

 

social impairment

 

ritualistic behavior

 

maintenance of sameness

  1. Callie has been diagnosed with schizoaffective disorder. This means that in addition to schizophrenic symptoms, she also has symptoms of:

 

an anxiety disorder

 

a mood disorder

 

a split personality

 

obsessive-compulsive disorder

  1. The inattention symptom of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder is characterized by:

 

careless mistakes

 

fidgeting

 

not waiting one’s turn to answer questions

 

all of these

  1. If Jane’s dementia is caused by a process that has damaged her brain’s dopamine pathways, it can be assumed that this condition is related to:

 

head trauma

 

Parkinson’s disease

 

Huntington’s disease

 

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Alzheimer’s disease

  1. Which of the following is most likely to occur in the paranoid type of schizophrenia?

 

Disorganized speech

 

Poor prognosis when compared to the other subtypes of schizophrenia

 

Limited cognitive skills and flat affect

 

Hallucinations and thematic or systematized delusions

  1. According to the authors of your textbook, the periodic changes in the laws regarding civil commitment are a sign of a:

 

society that has no idea of what to do with this issue

 

hospital system that is ineffective in treating uncooperative patients

 

healthy system responding to the limits of previous decisions

 

prior mistake that has now been successfully corrected

  1. Which of the following was used for a definitive diagnosis of Alzheimer’s type dementia in the past?

 

psychological testing

 

mental status exam

 

autopsy

 

reported observations of the patient by family members

  1. Describe the “positive” and “negative” symptoms of schizophrenia. Explain what is meant by these terms and how they are related to prognosis and outcome.
  2. The risk of violence among mentally ill patients increases if specific symptoms such as __________ are present.

 

hallucinations

 

delusions

 

both a and b

 

neither a nor b

  1. Which of the following is accurate in regard to the long-term outlook for schizophrenia patients?

 

About 50% of persons diagnosed with the disorder eventually recover.

 

Recovery is possible only if the person stays on medication

 

Recovery is possible only if the patient receives psychotherapy.

 

Complete recovery from schizophrenia is rare.

  1. Mr. Smith (age 72) is brought to the hospital emergency room. Mr. Smith’s son explains that his father woke up this morning and was “not himself.” Mr. Smith appears confused, agitated, and a bit frightened. He does not know his own name and cannot recognize his son. Mr. Smith’s son reports that his father had been completely fine with no symptoms prior to that morning. Mr. Smith appears to be suffering from :

 

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dementia

 

Alzheimer’s

 

delirium

 

amnesic disorder

  1. In regard to dementia, the cognitive reserve hypothesis suggests that:

 

skills acquired through formal education help compensate for the early symptoms of dementia

 

the more synapses one develops throughout life, the more neuronal death required before the person becomes impaired

 

individuals with Alzheimer’s type dementia never had reserve neurons

 

Alzheimer’s type dementia is caused by a lack of formal education

  1. If an individual is diagnosed as psychotic, it usually means that the person has

 

hallucinations.

 

delusions.

 

both of these

 

neither of these

  1. One major difference that is useful in the diagnosis of dementia or delirium is that:

 

dementia symptoms develop slowly over time; delirium symptoms develop quickly

 

dementia symptoms are usually associated with underlying medical conditions; delirium is usually the result of other factors

 

the initial symptoms of dementia are generally more severe than the symptoms of delirium

 

the symptoms of dementia involve memory but the symptoms of delirium are more likely to involve expressive language

  1. Which of the following statements accurately describes the outcome of the policy known as deinstitutionalization?

 

Previously hospitalized patients received adequate care in most communities.

 

Funding for community mental health centers was sufficient to provide care for previously hospitalized patients.

 

Deinstitutionalization is considered a failure because patient care deteriorated.

 

None of the above

  1. Results of research showing that auditory hallucinations are localized in the expressive speech area of the brain suggest:

 

these hallucinations are produced by the auditory nerve in the ear as well as the speech area of the brain

 

people who are hallucinating think the voices of other people are actually their own

 

a person who is hallucinating is actually listening to is/her own thoughts

 

these hallucinations are related to the disorganized speech that occurs in schizophrenia

  1. Which of the following statements is true?

 

A cold, dominant, and rejecting mother causes schizophrenia.

 

A communication style that produces conflicting messages causes schizophrenia.

 

High expressed emotion in a family is a good predictor of relapse among patients with chronic schizophrenia.

 

None of these

  1. The hypothesis that attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) may be influenced by toxins, food additives, or diet:

 

is based on well controlled studies

 

is not well understood or studied, but generally effective as a treatment

 

appears true for a small subset of individuals diagnosed with ADHD

 

has no scientific evidence

 

 

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  1. Alvin is a ten-year-old boy diagnosed with a mathematics disorder. His treatment plan will most likely involve:

 

teaching him different strategies to compensate for areas where he has difficulty

 

stimulant medication

 

developing an educational plan that exempts him from mathematics requirements

 

placing him in a school for learning disordered children

  1. The familial communication style called expressed emotion (EE) sometimes used to predict relapse in schizophrenia patients includes all of the following EXCEPT:

 

over-involvement

 

criticism

 

emotional distance

 

Hostility

  1. Although not classified as developmental disorders, many, if not most, psychological disorders can be considered developmental because they:

 

appear early in life and change over a the lifespan

 

have a genetic component

 

lack biological causes and are influenced by learning

 

are unique to children

  1. Most autistic individuals develop symptoms of the disorder:

 

at birth

 

by age one

 

by age three

 

by teen years

  1. At various times individuals have been arrested for stalking celebrities who they believed were in love with them. This condition is called _____ delusion.

 

jealous

 

erotomanic

 

somatic

 

persecutory

  1. The famous case of the Genain sisters, identical quadruplets all diagnosed with schizophrenia, points out that siblings raised in the same household may experience their environment very differently, a concept called:

 

variable home structure

 

 

unshared environment

 

 

environmental phenomenon

 

 

unique perceptive interpretation

 

 

 

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  1. Monte is a 3-year-old boy recently diagnosed with autism. He appears completely unresponsive to his parents and shows no indication of any language development. Monte seems uninterested in communication of any kind and has significant rituals such as lining up his toys and realigning them every few minutes. He becomes hysterical if anyone interrupts his ritualistic activity. On an IQ assessment designed for very young children, Monte’s score was extremely low. His prognosis is poor primarily because of:

 

 

 

Question 32:   Psychology

 

Psych 328 Midterm

Which of the following is not thought to contribute to the onset of puberty?

the presence of sexually mature partners in the environment

 

whether the individual is healthy enough to begin reproduction

 

the development of primary sex characteristics

 

whether there are nutritional resources available to support a pregnancy

 

 

 

.

Which of the following statements suggests that rising levels of the protein leptin is an important signal that tells the body it is ready for puberty?

Production of pubic hair relates to increased sex drive.

 

Excessive thinness can delay onset of puberty.

 

Poorer adolescents tend to go through puberty earlier than non-poor adolescents.

 

Excessive exercise promotes early physical development.

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #13
Which of the following is not part of the feedback loop in the endocrine system?

gonads

 

hypothalamus

 

pituitary gland

 

thyroid hormones

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #14
Ten-year-old Luna’s budding feelings of sexual attraction are most likely explained:

by maturation of the adrenal glands through the process called adrenarche.

 

by maturation of the gonads through a process called menarche.

 

as rising levels of leptin instruct her hypothalamus to set the hormonal changes of puberty in motion.

 

as increases in sex hormones activate her HPG axis.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #15
The hormonally induced increase in the rate of growth in height and weight is referred to as:

the adolescent growth spurt.

 

epiphyses.

 

secular trend.

 

delayed phase preference.

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #16
The simultaneous release of growth hormones, thyroid hormones, and _________ stimulates rapid acceleration in height and weight during puberty.

pituitary glands

 

estrogens

 

androgens

 

thyroid glands

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #17
.

At the time of peak height velocity, adolescents grow at about the same rate as:

newborns.

 

infants.

 

toddlers.

 

elementary schoolchildren.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #18
The adolescent growth spurt:

generally begins two years earlier for girls than for boys.

 

generally begins two years earlier for boys than for girls.

 

is slower in the early adolescent years, then speeds up around age 15 for boys and girls.

 

proceeds along a smooth and rapid course over the teen years.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #19
.

Which of the following is not characteristic of changes in skeletal structure during puberty?

One marker that indicates the termination in growth in height is epiphysis.

 

Bones become more porous and more likely to break.

 

Height gains are attributable more to increases in torso length than leg length.

 

The growth sequence generally begins with the extremities, and then proceeds to the arms and legs, then to the torso and shoulders.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #20
.

Who is at the greatest risk of developing body dissatisfaction?

Callie, an early-maturing, affluent White girl who compares herself to her friends

 

Miranda, a late-maturing Black girl

 

John, an early-maturing Black male who compares himself to his friends

 

Mike, a late-maturing White male who feels he is not muscular enough

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #21
One reason for the difference in the body shapes of the sexes is:

the timing of the growth spurt.

 

that females tend to be more “left-brained” and males more “right-brained.”

 

differences in the size of the hypothalamus.

 

the difference in the amount and distribution of body fat.

 

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #22
Although both sexes experience changes in muscle tissue and body fat, the ratio of muscle to body fat is:

greater in boys than girls.

 

greater in girls than boys.

 

about the same in both genders.

 

greater in early-maturing girls than in late-maturing boys.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #23
Which of the following girls would probably be least susceptible to feelings of body dissatisfaction due to the rapid increase in body fat in early adolescence?

Suzy, an early mature

 

Lilly, someone who began dating early

 

Diane, someone from a relatively affluent family

 

Beth, a Black adolescent girl

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #24
The rapid increase in body fat that adolescent girls experience:

leads to a majority of adolescent girls dieting unnecessarily.

 

leads to an increase in healthy eating patterns among adolescent girls.

 

increases vulnerability to feelings of body dissatisfaction for Black adolescent girls.

 

is seen by the Centers for Disease Control as a major risk factor for obesity among adolescent girls.

 

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #25
According to the textbook, the sex difference in athletic performance during early adolescence results from all of the following except:

self-confidence.

 

body fat.

 

hormones.

 

diet and exercise.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #26
All of the following are reasons that males have greater gains in strength than females during early adolescence, except:

increased production of androgens among females.

 

strong societal pressures on girls to decrease their physical activity in adolescence.

 

inadequate nutrition among adolescent girls.

 

sex differences in body fat.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #27
Which of the following sex characteristics is the first to develop in boys?

production of sperm

 

appearance of facial hair

 

growth of testes and scrotum

 

growth of penis

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #28
Which of the following is probably true for Ashley, an early-maturing girl who was short and stocky as a child?

After puberty, she will be shorter and heavier than her late-maturing peers.

 

After puberty, she will be shorter and thinner than her late-maturing peers.

 

After puberty, she will be taller and heavier than her late-maturing peers.

 

After puberty, she will be taller and thinner than her late-maturing peers.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #29
The first ejaculation of seminal fluid that occurs is:

biologically predetermined.

 

genetically inherited.

 

often determined culturally.

 

a major embarrassment for most boys.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #30
The first sign of puberty in girls is generally:

growth of breasts.

 

underarm hair.

 

menarche.

 

acne.

 

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #31
Molly’s breasts are beginning to develop, she is beginning to grow pubic hair, her skin is becoming more oily, and her body is growing rapidly. These changes are brought about by the secretion of _____ by the _____.

estrogen only; testes

 

androgens only; ovaries

 

estrogen and androgens; ovaries

 

estrogen and androgens; testes

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #32
Which of the following female sex characteristics is usually the last to develop?

menarche

 

regular ovulation

 

development of the nipples of the breasts

 

growth of pubic hair

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #33
Which of the following statements about puberty in girls is false?

Regular ovulation and the ability to carry a baby to term usually follow menarche by several years.

 

The development of the areola and nipple are far better indicators of sexual maturation than is breast size.

 

Menarche occurs very early in the process of sexual development.

 

The changes in the nipple and areola occur regardless of the size to which the breast finally develops.

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #34
Which of the following statements about the timing and tempo of sexual maturation is true?

In the United States, and in all other countries, menarche typically occurs around age 12.

 

The duration of puberty varies widely, from 1.5 to 6 years in girls and 2 to 5 years in boys.

 

Adolescents who begin puberty early are also those who complete it early.

 

Adolescents who begin puberty earlier usually grow to be taller adults.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #35
Sarah is a junior high student anticipating and preparing for puberty. She wants to know when puberty will start and how long it will take until she looks and is considered an adult. What would you tell her?

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is highly variable and is influenced by both genetic and environmental factors.

 

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is highly predictive. She will begin the puberty process around 12.5 years of age and it will take four years until it is completed.

 

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is highly controllable.

 

The timing of puberty, as well as the rate with which it occurs, is predetermined by your DNA.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #36
Based on research addressing ethnic differences in the timing and rate of pubertal maturation, which American girl would be expected to be the earliest to mature?

Brandy, a middle-income Black adolescent

 

Miranda, a middle-income Mexican adolescent

 

Emily, a middle-income White adolescent

 

Kimberly, a middle-income Asian adolescent

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #37
Which of the following can delay the onset of puberty?

stress

 

nutritional deficiencies

 

excessive exercise

 

All of the above

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #38
Differences in the timing and rate of puberty among individuals growing up in the same general environment are largely caused by:

hormonal factors.

 

genetic factors.

 

environmental factors.

 

None of the above

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #39
Which of the following factors have not been found to influence the onset of maturation?

father absence

 

good nutrition

 

family conflict

 

peer pressure

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #40
According to the textbook, Julie, a seventeen-year-old living in a college dormitory, has noticed that her menstrual periods have begun to synchronize with _____, which is compelling evidence that social relationships can affect biological functioning.

the time her female roommate menstruates

 

her most stressful days of the month

 

days she feels most sexually aroused

 

her biological sister living in a different city

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #41
Over the past century, the onset of puberty has been coming at an earlier age. This has been referred to as the:

cross-sectional trend.

 

endocrine trend.

 

menarche trend.

 

secular trend.

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #42
Puberty began for Nancy when she was 9 years old. Her mother began puberty at 11 years. For her grandmother, the onset was at 13 years of age. These changes in the age of onset of puberty over time are referred to as:

cross-sectional trend.

 

secular trend.

 

longitudinal trend.

 

physiologic trend.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #43
Professor Kendall has been researching adolescent maturation around the world. Which of the following is she likely to determine has the smallest role in determining group differences in pubertal maturation?

nutrition.

 

sanitation.

 

infectious diseases.

 

genetics.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #44
The biological changes that take place during puberty can cause changes in adolescents’ behavior in all of the following ways, except:

directly.

 

by affecting the adolescent’s self-image.

 

by affecting the reactions of others to the adolescent.

 

All of these are ways in which biological changes occurring in puberty can cause changes in adolescents’ behavior.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #45
Dr. Davis is interested in how puberty affects adjustment. He studies a group of 100 junior high school students over the course of three years. He is conducting what kind of study?

longitudinal

 

cross-sectional

 

cross-sequential

 

secular

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #46
A research design in which subjects of different ages are assessed simultaneously is called a:

longitudinal study.

 

cross-sectional study.

 

cross-sequential study.

 

correlational study.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #47
Which of the following statements about hormonal changes of puberty is true?

Hormonal changes affect the brain in ways that increase adolescents’ desire for sensation-seeking activities.

 

Hormonal changes of puberty make adolescent more risk averse.

 

Hormonal changes of puberty make adolescents more introverted.

 

Hormonal changes affect the brain in ways that decrease adolescents’ desire for rewarding activities.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #48
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Which of the following statements about adolescent mood swings is false?

The effect of hormones on adolescent mood swings is strongest early in puberty.

 

Adolescents’ moods fluctuate during the course of the day more than the moods of adults.

 

Adolescent mood swings parallel their changes in activities.

 

Hormones play a greater role in the development of depression than do stressful life events.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #49
Which of the following plays the greatest role in the development of depression?

rapid increases in hormones

 

early maturation

 

stressful life events

 

the delayed phase preference

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #50
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Studies show that adolescent mood swings are most closely related to changes in:

hormone levels.

 

family relationships.

 

nutrition.

 

activities.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #51
52.

Which of the following statements about the impact of hormones on behavior is false?

Adolescents’ moods fluctuate more during than day than the moods of adults.

 

The direct relation between adolescent moodiness and hormonal changes of puberty is extremely strong.

 

The relation between hormonal changes and adolescent mood is strongest during early puberty.

 

Rapid increase in hormones may be associated with increased irritability, impulsivity, aggression, and depression.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #52
53.

Given a choice, Mike would prefer to stay up until 1:00 a.m. and sleep until 10:00 a.m. This pattern is called the:

secular trend.

 

delayed phase preference.

 

longitudinal design.

 

adolescent growth spurt.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #53
54.

Which of the following does not contribute to changes in sleep patterns during adolescence?

later secretion of melatonin

 

mood fluctuations throughout the day

 

television, computers, and artificial light sources

 

early school starting times

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #54
55.

The delayed phase preference suggests that:

adolescents should not be taught sex education until high school.

 

school should be held year-round.

 

school should begin later in the morning.

 

school should begin earlier in the morning.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #55
56.

Researchers have found that, with regard to adolescent sleep patterns:

adolescents today are getting more sleep than adolescents 30 years ago.

 

the reason that high schools begin classes earlier than middle schools or junior high schools is that adolescents are more alert during the morning hours than later in the day.

 

getting inadequate sleep is associated with poorer mental health and lower grades for adolescents.

 

although most adolescents do not get sufficient sleep during the week, they are able to make up for the deficit by sleeping later on weekends.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #56
57.

Which of the following statements about puberty’s impact on family relationships is true?

Puberty appears to increase distance between parents and children.

 

Other species do not experience distance during the pubertal transition.

 

Distancing effect of puberty on adolescent-parent relationships is consistently observed in minority families.

 

Puberty does not interfere with family relations.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #57
58.

According to the textbook, when compared to their less mature peers, adolescents who are physically mature are:

less likely to have problems with their parents.

 

more likely to be involved in cross-sex activities such as going out on dates.

 

more likely to have platonic relationships with opposite sex peers.

 

less likely to be depressed.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #58
59.

Which of the following girls will experience the greatest menstrual discomfort?

Sarita, who is prepared for the physical changes

 

Alison, who is a late mature

 

Loryn, who has a negative attitude toward menarche

 

Janet, who is unpopular among her classmates

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #59
60.

Studies have shown that prepubertal girls who expect menstruation to be uncomfortable report:
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milder menstrual symptoms than their peers.

 

more severe menstrual symptoms than their peers.

 

about the same level of menstrual symptoms as their peers.

 

experiencing menarche sooner than their peers.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #60
61.

Which of the following conditions is most likely to produce the most favorable and easiest adjustment to menarche?

when the girl’s mother prepares her by describing the unpleasant aspects of menarche

 

when the girl reaches menarche early

 

when menarche occurs before the girl has been told about the physical changes which will occur

 

when the girl knows the facts about the physical changes her body will undergo

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #61
62.

When adolescents in the United States begin to experience specific pubertal events, which of the following is most likely to occur?

 

 

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A girl’s mother will be the first person the girl tells that she has begun to menstruate.

 

A girl’s best friend will be the first person the girl tells that she has begun to menstruate.

 

A girl is likely not to tell anyone that she is menstruating for the first several months after she begins.

 

A boy will tell his friends about his first ejaculation soon after it occurs.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #62
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63.

Suzanne and Greg are the first members of their class to begin the pubertal transition. Based on what you know about early-maturing adolescents, Suzanne and Greg are more likely to:

become involved in illegal activities.

 

do better in school.

 

be ostracized by their classmates.

 

get along with their parents.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #63
64.

Which of the following characteristics is not associated with being an early-maturing boy?

fewer problem behaviors

 

greater popularity

 

a more positive self-concept

 

greater confidence in one’s self

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #64
65.

Mike, an early maturer, is more likely to __________ than Bob, a late maturer.

experience pseudomaturity

 

suffer greater consequences if bullied by peers

 

experiment with drugs and alcohol

 

All of the above

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #65
66.

Early-maturing boys are:

likely to have low self-esteem.

 

often expected to be more mature than they are.

 

better prepared to deal with changes of adolescence.

 

more childish than their later-maturing peers.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #66
67.

Avram is considered a late-maturing boy. A year after pubertal onset, we would expect Avram to show all of the following advantages over his early-maturing peers, except:

greater athletic ability.

 

more intellectual curiosity.

 

greater exploratory behavior.

 

higher levels of social initiative.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #67
68.

During puberty, individuals who mature early are likely to experience which of the following?

more intellectual curiosity

 

less frequent temper tantrums

 

less depression

 

more frequent and more intense temper tantrums

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #68
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69.

Which of the following characteristics is not typically associated with being an early-maturing girl?

feelings of awkwardness and self-consciousness

 

being less popular, especially with boys

 

being more likely to become involved in juvenile delinquency

 

being less likely to pursue advanced education and a demanding career

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #69
70.

In America, early-maturing girls are more likely than their late-maturing peers to:

be unpopular.

 

have a more negative self-image.

 

succeed in school.

 

perceive themselves as attractive.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #70
71.

Which of the following was not offered by the textbook as an explanation for the sex differences in the impact of early and late maturation?

the cultural desirability of thin body types

 

the developmental readiness hypothesis

 

the maturational deviance hypothesis

 

genetic makeup

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #71
72.

Nadia is an early-maturing girl. Compared to her late-maturing peers, which of the following statements is most likely to be true for Nadia?
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Nadia is less likely to suffer from social anxiety.

 

Nadia is less likely to be popular with girls.

 

Nadia is more likely to be popular with the boys.

 

Nadia is less likely to be the victim of rumors and gossip.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #72
73.

The impact of early maturation on problem behaviors or depression is worse when:

adolescents have many stressful life events.

 

have harsh or inconsistent parents.

 

live in disadvantaged neighborhoods.

 

All of the above.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #73
74.

Generalizing from the textbook, the children who are most likely to think of themselves as being “off schedule” with respect to their physical development are girls who mature _____ and boys who mature _____.

late; early

 

early; late

 

late; late

 

early; early

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #74
75.

Follow-up studies of Swedish women who had been early maturers found that as adults they were:

unable to develop coping skills.

 

less likely to continue their education beyond high school.

 

more likely to continue their education beyond high school.

 

indistinguishable from those who had been late maturers.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #75
76.

The _____ is the minimal amount of energy one uses when resting.

basal metabolism rate

 

delayed phase preference

 

secular trend

 

feedback loop

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #76
77.

Which of the following statements about the secular trend is true?

There is currently no evidence that boys have followed the secular trend.

 

Evidence for the secular trend in boys can be found in reports from European children’s choirs.

 

Experts agree that the secular trend (for boys and girls) has indeed continued in recent years.

 

Scientists believe that the secular trend is caused by chemicals in the food supply.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #77
78.

Which of the following is true about obesity?

To be considered obese, a person’s body mass index must fall at or above the 95th percentile for their age and gender.

 

Forty percent of American adolescents are obese.

 

The rate of obesity has quadrupled worldwide since 2005.

 

Obesity is solely caused by a low basal metabolic rate.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #78
79.

Which group is most at risk for obesity?

late-maturing Black girls

 

early-maturing Black girls

 

early-maturing White boys

 

early-maturing White girls

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #79
80.

According to the textbook, in general, the amount of time individuals spend in moderate-to-vigorous physical activity:

increases from childhood to adolescence.

 

 

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decreases from childhood to adolescence.

 

remains the same from childhood to adolescence.

 

is directly related to socioeconomic status.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #80
81.

Rosy believes that “fat is beautiful” and has a steady diet of fried chicken, French fries, and cheeseburgers. Tanya believes that “thin is in” and uses vomiting and laxatives as a way to keep her weight down. Both girls exhibit what psychologists call:

disordered eating.

 

bulimia.

 

anorexia nervosa.

 

normal adolescent eating patterns.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #81
82.

Which of the following is not associated with disordered eating in the United States?

poor interpersonal relationships

 

depression

 

alcohol and tobacco use

 

All of the following are associated with disordered eating.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #82
83.

Theresa has been known to go on eating binges and then purge immediately afterward. Theresa is probably suffering from:

anorexia nervosa.

 

bulimia.

 

binge eating disorder

 

obesity.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #83
84.

Karen has been known to exercise excessively, count calories, and diet obsessively. She is currently depriving herself of food even though she is 20 pounds underweight. Karen is probably suffering from:

anorexia nervosa.

 

bulimia.

 

binge eating disorder.

 

deprivation syndrome.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #84
85.

The potentially fatal disorder in which young women actually starve themselves is called:

bulimia.

 

anorexia nervosa.

 

obesity nervosa.

 

purging.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #85
86.

Which of the following statements about obesity is not true?

Adolescent obesity epidemic will cost the United States more than $250 billion.

 

Adolescent obesity has been especially dramatic among Black females.

 

Adolescent obesity is limited to the United States.

 

Obesity is the most serious health problem of American adolescents.

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #86
87.

Who of the following is likely to gain excess weight during adolescence?

Mary, who gets inadequate sleep on school nights but sleeps in on the weekends

 

Kevin, who gets insufficient physical inactivity, but lives near recreational facilities

 

Tony whose friends are relatively overweight

 

All of these adolescents are likely to gain excessive weight during puberty.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #87
88.

Non-White adolescents are relatively more likely than White adolescents to experience all of the following, except:

to be murdered.

 

to be physically inactive.

 

suffer from chronic illness.

 

anorexia nervosa.

 

 

 

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Steinberg – Chapter 01 #88
89.

Who most closely resembles the profile of someone who has binge eating disorder?

Steve, a wrestler who nearly starves himself so he can stay in his weight bracket

 

Carla, a gymnast who binges on junk food but makes herself vomit after each meal

 

Howard, a football player who believes he is overweight and exercises twice a day, seven days a week

 

Sherri, a volleyball player who binges on junk food but does not engage in any other weight loss behaviors

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #89
90.

Of the following, the biggest threat to adolescents’ health is:

infectious disease.

 

chronic illness.

 

cardiovascular disease.

 

risky behaviors.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #90
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91.

Which of the following is not associated with the “new morbidity and mortality” of adolescence?

accidents

 

suicide

 

homicide

 

cancer

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #91
92.

Which of the following statements about health in adolescence is not true?

Adolescents have low rates of disabling or chronic illness.

 

Adolescents have high rates of accidents, homicide, and suicide.

 

The majority of health problems during adolescence are preventable.

 

The new approach to adolescent health care is a return to traditional medicine.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #92
93.

The most virulent threats to adolescent health come from all of the following, except:

unhealthy behaviors, such as drug use.

 

chronic disabilities, such as cancer.

 

violence inflicted by themselves or by others.

 

risky activities, such as unprotected sexual intercourse.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #93
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94.

Current efforts aimed at encouraging healthy behaviors among adolescents involve all of the following, except:

changing the contexts in which adolescents live.

 

increasing adolescents’ knowledge and understanding of health enhancing behaviors.

 

encouraging adolescents to sign contracts promising to abstain from unhealthy behaviors.

 

encouraging health care professionals to do more screening for risky health practices.

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #94
95.

Which adolescent is at highest risk for suicide?

Black males

 

Hispanic females

 

White females

 

American Indian/Alaskan Native males

 

 

Steinberg – Chapter 01 #95
96.

According to the textbook, the prevalence of adolescent smoking is a direct function of:

the number of retail outlets selling tobacco in their immediate neighborhood.

 

the amount of people smoking in the neighborhood.

 

whether biologic

 

 

 

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Question 33:   Education

 

Assignment 2, Motivation & Performance Management Motivation and Performance Management

Compare the difference between job satisfaction and organizational commitment. Determine which is more strongly related to performance for your selected company.

Job Dissatisfaction

Organizational Commitment

Apply motivational theory and performance management principles to evaluate the company as a potential employer.

 

 

Question 34:               Health Care

 

NSG 6001 FINAL EXAM 2020 / NSG6001 FINAL EXAM 2020 (LATEST): SOUTH UNIVERSITY

 

Question 35:               Health Care

 

NURS 6670 MIDTERM EXAM |LATEST-2020: WALDEN UNIVERSITY

 

Question 36:               Health Care

 

NURS 6521N week 10 advanced pharmacology quiz

  • Question 1

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is assigned to a patient who is at 32 weeks’ gestation and is receiving terbutaline (Brethine) IV for 24 hours to control preterm labor. Which of the following nursing actions will the nurse take to decrease the risk of hypotension and promote circulation to the fetus?

 

 

 

  • Question 2

1 out of 1 points

A 51-year-old female patient has been receiving doxorubicin (Adriamycin) for metastatic breast cancer. Her medical record indicates she has cardiomyopathy and a cumulative dose of 300 mg/m2 of doxorubicin. Which of the following measures would help limit the severity of the cardiomyopathy in this patient?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 3

1 out of 1 points

A 38-year-old pregnant patient admits to the nurse that she is an alcoholic and has been consuming alcohol during her pregnancy. The nurse knows that using alcohol during pregnancy may result in a child who presents with

 

 

 

 

  • Question 4

1 out of 1 points

On the advice of her sister, a 52-year-old woman has visited her nurse practitioner to discuss the potential benefits of hormone replacement therapy in controlling the symptoms of menopause. Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate?

 

 

 

 

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  • Question 5

1 out of 1 points

The nurse practitioner has recommended that a breast-feeding woman take her prescribed medications just before her infant takes his longest nap of the day. The woman does not understand and asks the nurse to explain. The nurse will tell the woman that the recommendation was made to

 

 

 

 

  • Question 6

1 out of 1 points

A 59-year-old man with a recent history of erectile dysfunction has been assessed and prescribed sildenafil (Viagra). When providing patient education to this man, the nurse should tell him which of the following?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 7

1 out of 1 points

A patient is pregnant and is at 7 weeks’ gestation. She has type 1 diabetes and has been taking insulin since she was 13 years old. She asks the nurse if the insulin will be harmful to her baby. The best response to the patient by the nurse would be

 

 

 

 

  • Question 8

0 out of 1 points

A nurse is working in a women’s hospital where she is caring for a new mother who is experiencing postpartum urinary retention. Bethanechol (Urecholine) has been ordered. The nurse will observe for which of the following?

 

 

 

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  • Question 9

1 out of 1 points

A 20-year-old woman has been prescribed estrogen. As with all women taking estrogen, the nurse will carefully monitor the patient for which of the following?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 10

1 out of 1 points

A male patient with a medical background tells the nurse that he is not satisfied with the oral synthetic testosterone that has been prescribed for him and he would like to try a natural form of oral testosterone. Which of the following would be an appropriate response by the nurse?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 11

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is performing patient education for a woman who has just been prescribed a bisphosphonate. Which of the following diagnostic and history findings would have prompted the woman’s care provider to prescribe a bisphosphonate?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 12

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is working with a 16-year-old pregnant teen and assessing for behavior that may put the baby at risk. The most important assessment the nurse can make is

 

 

 

 

  • Question 13

1 out of 1 points

A woman who is in the second trimester of her first pregnancy has been experiencing frequent headaches and has sought advice from her nurse practitioner about safe treatment options. What analgesic can the nurse most safely recommend?

 

Where Can I pay for College Algebra and Math Homework Help

 

 

  • Question 14

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is providing patient education to a 50-year-old woman who is taking methotrexate (MTX) for breast cancer. The nurse will instruct the patient to avoid which of the following drugs?

 

 

 

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  • Question 15

1 out of 1 points

A postmenopausal patient is prescribed bisphosphonates to treat osteoporosis. The nurse will instruct the patient to take the drug

 

 

 

  • Question 16

1 out of 1 points

A 71-year-old man has just been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). Which of the following complaints by this patient most likely indicated a need for this drug?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 17

1 out of 1 points

A female patient is taking oral cyclophosphamide therapy for breast cancer. Because of possible adverse effects of the drug, the nurse will instruct the patient to do which of the following?

 

 

 

 

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  • Question 18

1 out of 1 points

A male patient is experiencing climacteric symptoms secondary to androgen deficiency. His physician has prescribed testosterone. The nursing assessment reveals that the patient has had a myocardial infarction. The combination of testosterone therapy and a history of myocardial infarction would place that patient at a significantly higher risk of

 

 

 

 

  • Question 19

1 out of 1 points

A 73-year-old woman has osteoporosis and is prescribed alendronate. She takes calcium and vitamin D supplements, drinks lots of water, and has just quit smoking. The nurse should advise the patient to also

 

 

 

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  • Question 20

1 out of 1 points

A female patient has been prescribed estrogen therapy. Which of the following will the nurse advise the patient is a common adverse effect of estrogen therapy?

 

 

 

  • Question 21

1 out of 1 points

A 68-year-old man is being treated for benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and began treatment with finasteride (Proscar) 3 months ago. When planning the care of this patient, what desired outcome should the nurse prioritize?

 

 

 

 

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  • Question 22

1 out of 1 points

Alprostadil (Caverject), a drug used to treat erectile dysfunction, has been prescribed to a 42-year-old patient. When providing education to the patient and his wife, the nurse should inform the wife about which of the following adverse effects?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 23

0 out of 1 points

A patient is being discharged from the hospital and will be taking oxybutynin (Ditropan) for overactive bladder. The nurse will instruct the patient that she will be taking a medication

 

 

 

 

  • Question 24

1 out of 1 points

A 29-year-old pregnant patient is extremely upset about having to take medication for a pre-existing medical condition. She is consumed with fear that her baby will be born with a physical deformity or a congenital anomaly but knows that she has to take the medication. She talks constantly about this and is unable to sleep most nights. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient is?

 

 

 

 

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  • Question 25

0 out of 1 points

A nurse is instructing a 19-year-old female patient on the use of fluconazole for candida vaginitis. A teaching priority will be to

 

 

 

  • Question 26

1 out of 1 points

A 36-year-old woman with a history of dysmenorrhea has begun treatment with progesterone, which she will be receiving by the intramuscular route. The nurse participating in the woman’s care should prioritize which of the following potential nursing diagnoses?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 27

1 out of 1 points

The nurse recognizes that the potential for teratogenic drug effects is not static throughout the prenatal and postnatal periods. The potential for teratogenic effects is highest during

 

 

 

 

  • Question 28

1 out of 1 points

A man is prescribed ciprofloxacin to treat a sexually transmitted infection. The nurse will instruct the patient to

 

 

 

 

  • Question 29

1 out of 1 points

A nurse is explaining to a pregnant 21-year-old college student why she cannot continue to take ibuprofen (Advil) for her headaches. The nurse draws a picture depicting drug molecules crossing the placental membrane and entering into the fetal circulation. The nurse tells the patient that the main reason this happens is because

 

 

 

 

  • Question 30

1 out of 1 points

A 36-year-old patient comes to the clinic and tells the nurse that she suspects that she is pregnant. During the initial assessment, the nurse learns that the patient is currently taking medications for diabetes, hypertension, and a seizure disorder. The nurse would be most concerned about which of the following medications?

 

 

 

  • Question 31

1 out of 1 points

A pregnant patient who has diabetes has been admitted to the hospital to begin labor. Since the patient has diabetes, the physician has decided to use oxytocin (Pitocin) to initiate labor contractions. When talking to the patient about the adverse effects of the drug, the nurse should understand that the most common adverse effects of the drug include

 

 

 

 

  • Question 32

1 out of 1 points

A 54-year-old woman with a history of osteoporosis has been prescribed ciprofloxacin for recurrent cystitis. Because of the patient’s history, the nurse would be sure to discuss with the woman the use of

 

 

 

 

  • Question 33

1 out of 1 points

A woman is receiving prolonged drug therapy during her complicated pregnancy, and it may pose a risk to both the mother and the fetus. The primary care physician has made dosage adjustments to minimize adverse effects and prevent toxicity. The nurse should make sure

 

 

 

 

  • Question 34

1 out of 1 points

A 56-year-old woman will soon begin treatment of her overactive bladder with tolterodine (Detrol). What patient teaching should the nurse provide to this woman?

 

 

 

 

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  • Question 35

0 out of 1 points

A male patient is trying to decide if he should use finasteride (Proscar) to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). When providing information about the drug, the nurse will include which of the following as a risk associated with finasteride therapy?

 

 

 

  • Question 36

1 out of 1 points

A pregnant patient asks the nurse what over-the-counter medication she can take for recurring headaches. The nurse should recommend

 

 

 

 

  • Question 37

1 out of 1 points

The nurse has established peripheral IV access and begun an infusion of magnesium sulfate on a 29-year-old antepartum patient who is 35 weeks pregnant. Which of the following assessment findings most likely prompted the patient’s physician to order magnesium sulfate for this patient?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 38

1 out of 1 points

Alendronate (Fosamax) is prescribed for a 67-year-old postmenopausal woman. In order to help prevent gastrointestinal distress, the nurse will advise the patient to

 

 

 

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  • Question 39

1 out of 1 points

A man has a demonstrated history of androgen deficiency and the consequences of this health problem include an inability to maintain an erection. Which of the following medications would best address this patient’s erectile dysfunction (ED)?

 

 

 

 

  • Question 40

1 out of 1 points

After 6 months of unsuccessfully trying to conceive, a 31-year-old woman and her husband have sought a referral to a fertility specialist in order to explore their options. A nurse at the clinic should recognize that the woman may benefit from

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

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 Question 37:  Other

 

Microsoft Word Resume

INSTRUCTIONS

For the Word piece of your Final project, use Word to create a resume for yourself.

Include your name and contact information, as well as information about your education, work history, and skills. You can, at your option, include a Goal at the beginning. (Be sure to include your proficiency in Microsoft Office!) Your resume should be professional, visually appealing, at least one full page and no more than two pages long.

Plan your layout:

  • ·  Look at resume designs and choose a few that you like.
  • ·  Given the design and layout tools in Word (columns, tabs, tables, etc.) decide how you will

construct your design.

Create a new blank document:

  • ·  Do NOT use a resume templates or other pre-formatted document.
  • ·  Create a NEW BLANK DOCUMENT in MS Word and save the file as
  • ·  Display your rulers and turn on the show/hide button. You can toggle show/hide on and off to

view your document as you work.

Use all of the following Word features:

  • ·  Header/Footer (e.g., name, page numbering)
  • ·  Custom Tab Stops
  • ·  Styles: Use Heading 1 at the start of each section (education, work history & skills); Modify the

formatting of the Heading 1 style to complement your design.

  • ·  Custom Font (use no more than two fonts), Font Size, Font Color, and Font Styles
  • ·  Custom Line and Paragraph Spacing

Additionally, use at least three of these features:

  • ·  Custom Margins
  • ·  WordArt
  • ·  Paragraph Shading
  • ·  Font Effects (e.g., superscript, subscript, small caps, all caps)
  • ·  Insert and format an image
  • ·  A Word table (can be a traditional table or used for alignment)
  • ·  Columns

Submission:

  • ·  Print your document
  • ·  Staple these instructions on top of your printed resume.
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  •  Submit your resume in My Lab IT as a .docx file and also as a .pdf file.

Scoring Rubric

Score Item 12 8 4 0
Content Content is well chosen and well written Contains a mix of relevant and irrelevant content Most of the content is poorly chosen or poorly written Very little relevant content is included in the resume
Overall Look Resume content is well- organized and aesthetically pleasing Resume content looks somewhat cluttered and unprofessional Resume content looks very cluttered and unprofessional Little to no effort was made on the appearance of resume content
Header/Footer Appropriate content is included in the header or footer; the style matches the rest of the document. Appropriate content is included in the header or footer, but the style does not match the rest of the document Poorly chosen or awkwardly positioned content is included in the header or footer Content is not included in the header or footer
Tab Stops Custom tab stops are used to make the content of paragraphs more readable Custom tab stops are included, but do not make the content more readable Custom tab stops make the content less readable Custom tab stops are not applied
Styles Styles are applied to words or paragraphs to make the content more readable and visually appealing Styles are applied, but do not make the content more readable or visually appealing Styles make the content less readable Styles are not applied
Font Choices Font choices make the content more readable and visually appealing Font choices do not make the content more readable or visually appealing Font choices make the content less readable Custom fonts and font styles are not included
Paragraph and Line Spacing Custom spacing makes the content more readable and visually appealing Custom spacing is applied, but does not make the content more readable Custom spacing makes the content less readable Custom spacing is not included
Other Features Used at least three other features to add visual appeal and professionalism Used two other features to add visual appeal and professionalism Used one other feature to add visual appeal and professionalism Did not use any other features

 

 

 

 

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Question 38:               Biology

 

 

 

 

  1. Please indicate which of the following is a Phenotype or Genotype

Freckles dusted across the cheeks and nose

The movement of sodium by the sodium/potassium pump

Homozygous recessive allele inherited from each parent

True breeding parents in a monohybrid cross

Blood clots formed due to a defect in the ant thrombin gene

 

 

 

  1. Why is it necessary for the male and female gametes of sexually reproducing animals to contain a haploid number of chromosomes?

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Explain Where in the cell cycle do genetic mutations often occur, and what specific process is occurring during that phase that could lead to mistakes?

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Please complete the statement “Wild type” refers to the phenotype that is

 

________________________

 

 

 

 

 

  1. In humans brown eye color (B) is dominant to blue eye color (b). A brown- eyed man marries a blue-eyed woman and they have three children, two of whom are brown-eyed and one of whom is blue-eyed. What is the genotype of the first brown-eyed child?

 

 

 

 

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  1. Use the letters “G and g” to show the genotypes of the two parents that are participating in a cross that would produce a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio among the offspring?

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Two brothers are born of the same parents. One of the boys has all of the features of albinism, while the other brother has normal pigmentation. Neither parent exhibits symptoms of albinism. Please use the appropriate terms to describe the genotypes of the parents?

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. List all possible gametes from an individual with the genotype, AABb?

 

 

 

 

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  1. Which of the following statements are FALSE?
  2. An individual who shows a recessive phenotype must have a parent that shows the

recessive phenotype

  1. If an individual shows a dominant phenotype, at least one parent must show a

dominant phenotype

  1. Heterozygous individuals always show the dominant phenotype
  2. All offspring from crosses of true breeding-parents show the same phenotype

 

 

  1. Which of the following crosses represents a cross between 2 true-breeding individuals?
  2. BB X Bb
  3. Bb x bb
  4. BB X bb
  5. Bb x Bb

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Assuming both parents in the following pedigree are true-breeding, why do all of the individuals in the F1 generation have white phenotypes?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Because the F1 genotypes are homozygous
  2. Because the white phenotype is dominant over black
  3. Because both parents passed on white alleles

 

 

 

 

  1. In watermelons, solid green color (G) is dominant to stripes (g), and round shape (R) is dominant to an oblong shape (r). If you cross a watermelon that is homozygous dominant for color and heterozygous for shape with a watermelon that is heterozygous for both traits, what percentage of the offspring will be solid green and oblong?

 

 

 

 

 

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  1. An open (unfilled or unshaded) circle in a pedigree represents a _______ the trait in question.
  2. male with
  3. male without
  4. female with
  5. female without

 

 

 

14   The figure to the left is a common way to depict all possible outcomes of a cross between two individuals.

 

What is the name of this graphic device?

 

Does this depict a monohybrid cross or dihybrid cross?

 

 

 

  1. The following pedigree represents the inheritance of full lips in a family

 

What is the genotype of the individual indicated by the solid arrow? (Use “L” and “l” to represent alleles.

 

 

Are full lips due to a dominant allele or a recessive allele?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Suzy and Bobby are married and have one child. Both parents are healthy, but their son has the recessive disorder, cystic fibrosis. Which of the following pedigrees (A, B, C, D) CORRECTLY depicts their family?

 

 

 

 

  1. When conducting a test cross what phenotype is being expressed by the individual that is being tested?

 

 

 

  1. Suppose one person in 100 is a carrier of a fatal recessive mutation, such that babies homozygous recessive for the mutation die soon after birth. In a population where there 1,000,000 births per year, how many babies per year will be born with the lethal homozygous condition?

 

 

 

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  1. A mutation that is due to a dominant allele causes guinea pigs to lose their body hair. A breeder is trying to establish a colony of mutant “hairless” guinea pigs to sell to pet stores. He has a male mutant guinea pig that he wants to use for the breeding. However, due to an error in record keeping, he is uncertain of the mutant male’s genotype. He decides to mate a true-breeding normal guinea pig with the mutant male and notices that 100% of the offspring (F1 generation) have the hairless mutant phenotype.

 

The cross that was conducted is often used by breeders to determine the genotype of an individual that shows the dominant trait. What is the name of this specific cross?

 

 

The hairless mutation is dominant and it occurs because there was a deletion of the 3 bases that are bolded in the coding sequence of the gene – 5’ CATTGGTA 3’.  The deletion or removal of the bases is a mistake or error that occurs during which phase of the cell cycle?

 

 

The mutation in the above coding sequence causes the protein that is responsible for hair follicle stimulation in guinea pigs to be non-functional. This protein is made and secreted by skin or epidermal cells. What organelle would produce this protein

 

 

 

 

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Question 39:               Biology

 

 

 

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ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Introduction to Biological Anthropology

Final Exam Review Guide

The first exam will cover material from Larsen Chapters 6 – 8, 10 -12 in your textbook, information from Palomar tutorials, and videos. Be aware that this is a study guide; meaning to guide you in studying for the exam. That being said, it does not cover all of the information that may be on the exam. This exam will not simply ask you to recite definitions, but rather require you to make connections between concepts and demonstrate your knowledge of these concepts in context. In other words, can you apply what you know?

Ch. 6 and 7-Primate Characteristics/Taxonomy/Social Behavior

Define: nocturnal binocular vision

dental formula terrestrial estrus
sexual swelling

arboreal brachiation altruism stereoscopic vision sexual dimorphism

diurnal natal coat quadrupedal

allomothering
ischial callosities
vertical cling and leaping (VCL)

  • Why study primates?
  • What are the characteristics of primates?

o Skeletal structure (including characteristics of the joints, spine, hands, feet) o Vision
o What senses do primate rely on?
o Diet (types of teeth)

o Role of canines in sexual selection and sexual dimorphism

  • What are the different types of primate locomotion? What are the characteristics of

each?

  • Know the characteristics of each taxonomic groups and what types of primates

belong to each.

o Strepsirhine vs Haplorhine
o Platyrrhine vs Catarrhine
o Colobine vs Cercopithecine
o Cercopithecoids vs Hominoids

▪ For hominoids know: Hylobatidae and Hominidae

  • How are primates adapted to living in the trees?
  • Why do primates have long growth and development?
  • What are the primate residence patterns?
  • What are the reproductive strategies of male and female primates?
  • What is the importance of grooming?
  • How are apes and humans similar to each other? What characteristics to we share

with the other apes?

o

  • Do primates demonstrate culture? Examples?
  • What is the basic primate social unit?
  • How do primates communicate?
  • What types of foods do primates eat?

o What is a folivore, frugivore, insectivore, omnivore?

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

  • Which sex has the highest burden when it comes to parental investment? Why?
  • Primates are characterized by adaptations for life in trees and for eating a broad diet.

What are examples of primate adaptations for life in the trees and examples of primate

adaptations for eating a wide variety of foods?

  • Discuss the primate parental investment in terms of natural selection. What are the

most important aspects of primate parenting and what is their value to socialization?

  • Compare and contrast male and female primates in terms of reproductive strategies and

competition.
o What is infanticide? Who are the perpetrators? Benefits?

  • Describe the range of primate residence patterns. Relate social grouping to food and reproduction
  • What are cooperative behaviors in primates?

o What are the benefits?

o Examples?
o Grooming
o Kin Selection o Mutualism

  • What are the costs and benefits of living in a group?
  • How do primates acquire food?
  • How do primates communicate?

Chapter 10: Roots of Humanity

    • What is a hominin?
    • Why did hominins emerge?
    • Patchy Forest Hypothesis
    • Provisioning Hypothesis
    • What is bipedalism?
    • What are the anatomical characteristics of a human biped?
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o Position of the foramen magnum o Shape of spine
o Shape of pelvis
o Characteristics of the foot

  • What are the costs and benefits of bipedalism?
  • What are the anatomical differences between apes and humans in regard to the

o Cranium and face

o Dentition

  • What is honing and non-honing chewing?
  • What are the anatomical features of Australopithecines?
  • What are the anatomical features of the robust Australopithecines (Sometimes

assigned to the genus Paranthropus?
o What is a sagittal crest? Why do they have it? How do these traits differ from

other Australopithecines?

o What is their diet?

  • For the following hominins, know the date, location, anatomical features, and other cultural features

o Ardipithecus ramidus
o Australopithecus afarensis o Australopithecus garhi
o Australopithecus africanus

2

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Chapters 11- 12: Genus Homo

  • Homo hablis
    o What are its characteristics? How are similar/different from

Australopithecines?

  • Oldowan Tool Industry

o Which hominin is associated with this tool industry?
o What are the characteristics of these tools?
o What do they tell us about hominin culture and intelligence?

  • Homo naledi
  • Homo erectus

o What is a sagittal keel?
o When was this hominin present? When did they leave Africa? o What is the Acheulean tool industry?
o What type of shelter did they live in?
o What is persistence hunting?
o What are the costs and benefits of a larger brain?
o What are the benefits of fire and cooking food?

 

 

 

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  • What are archaic Homo sapiens?
  • Homo neanderthalensis? (What environment are they adapted for?)

o Are they closely related to humans?
o Mousterian Tool Industry/Culture (How are these tools different from Oldowan

and Acheulean? What types of tools are these? o Burial

o Subsistence strategies (What food did they eat? How did they get it?) o Evidence supporting speech

▪ Anatomical evidence

▪ FOXP2 gene
o What are the anatomical characteristics? How are these characteristics

adaptive to their environment?
▪ Crural index
▪ Bergmann’s Rule and Allen’s Rule

  • Homo sapiens (Modern Humans)
    o Complete Replacement Model (“Out of Africa”), Regional Continuity Model

(Multiregional Evolution), Assimilation Model
o What are anatomical traits of modern humans?

▪ How do these compare to Neandertals?
o What are the tool techniques of the Upper Paleolithic?

▪ What are blade flakes?
▪ What is punch flaking?
▪ What is pressure flaking?

o What tools are made out of bone?
o What are some tools of the upper Paleolithic?
o Why are these tool making techniques significant?
o What evidence has been discovered that modern humans made art?

▪ What is parietal art?

▪ What is portable art?
o Genetic evidence for archaic and modern humans?

▪ Why is this siginificant? • Homo floresiensis

o Why is it nicknamed the Hobbit?

3

 

 

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ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Hominin Charts
• (This is not an assignment, but a tool to help you prepare for the exam)

Australopithecines (gracile) Date(s) Location(s) Key Features
Ardipithecus ramidus
Australopithecus afarensis
Australopithecus garhi
Australopithecus africanus

 

Australopithecines (robust) Date(s) Location(s) Key Features
Paranthropus aethiopicus
Paranthropus boisei
Paranthropus robustus

 

Homo Date(s) Location(s) Key Features
Homo habilis
Homo erectus

4

ANTH 100/S. Black Spring 2019

Homo floresiensis
Homo neanderthalensis
Homo sapiens

5

 

 

Question 40:               Finance

 

Investors often pay a higher price for growth stocks and accept more price volatility as they expect at these stocks will increase in value in the future”. Discuss with regards to investment in different types of funds. [Support your answer with examples based in Mauritius and international markets]

[20 marks] Word limit: 2500

 

 

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Question 41:               Finance

 

The Stock Exchange of Mauritius (SEM) has come a long way from its modest early
development in 1989 and has been able to embark on a number of initiatives over its 30 year
existence. Today, it is one of the leading exchanges in Africa. Discuss the main challenges
and opportunities for investors and other stakeholders in the Mauritian Stock Market.
[30 marks]
Word limit: 300

 

 

 

 

Question 1:     Health Care

NURSING 4: PSYCHIA-COMPREHENSIVE

 

Substance abuse

  1. Nurse Rob has observed a co-worker arriving to work drunk at least three times in the past month. Which action by Nurse Rob would best ensure client safety and obtain necessary assistance for the co-worker?
  2. Ignore the coworker’s behavior, and frequently assess the clients assigned to the co-worker.
    B. Make general statements about safety issues at the next staff meeting.
    C. Report the coworker’s behavior to the appropriate supervisor.
    D. Warn the co-worker that this practice is unsafe.
  3. Elsa is being treated in a chemical dependency unit. She tells the nurse that she only uses drugs when under stress and therefore does not have a substance problem. Which defense mechanism is the client using?
  4. Compensation
    B. Denial
    C. Suppression
    D. Undoing
  5. Nurse Tara is teaching a community group about substance abuse. She explains that a genetic component has been implicated in which of the following commonly abused substances?
  6. Alcohol
    B. Barbiturates
    C. Heroin
    D. Marijuana
  7. Nurse Julie recommends that the family of a client with substance-related disorder attend a support group, such as Al-Anon and Alateen. The purpose of these groups is to help family members understand the problem and to:
  8. Change the problem behaviors of the abuser.
    B. Learn how to assist the abuser in getting help.
    C. Maintain focus on changing their own behaviors.
    D. Prevent substance problems in vulnerable family members.
  9. Ryan who is a chronic alcohol abuser is being assessed by Nurse Gina. Which problems are related to thiamin deficiency?
  10. Cardiovascular symptoms, such as decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
    B. CNS symptoms, such as ataxia and peripheral neuropathy
    C. Gastrointestinal symptoms, such as nausea and vomiting
    D. Respiratory symptoms, such as cough and sore throat
  11. Nurse Wilma is teaching a client about disulfiram (Antabuse), which the client is taking to deter his use of alcohol. She explains that using alcohol when taking this medication can result in:
  12. Abdominal cramps and diarrhea.
    B. Drowsiness and decreased respiration.
    C. Flushing, vomiting, and dizziness.
    D. Increased pulse and blood pressure.
  13. The nurse administers bromocriptine (Parlodel) to Bryan who is undergoing detoxification for amphetamine abuse. The rationale for this medication is to:
  14. Aid in GABA inhibition.
    B. Prevent norepinephrine excess.
    C. Restore depleted dopamine levels.
    D. Treat psychotic symptoms.
  15. Which medication is commonly used in treatment programs for heroinabusers to produce a non-euphoric state and to replace heroin use?
  16. Diazepam
    B. Carbamazepine
    C. Clonidine
    D. Methadone
  17. Nurse Christine is teaching an adolescent health class about the dangers of inhalant abuse; the nurse warns about the possibility of:
  18. Contracting an infectious disease, such as hepatitis or AIDS
    B. Recurrent flashback events
    C. Psychological dependence after initial use
    D. Sudden death from cardiac or respiratory depression
  19. The newly hired nurse at Nurseslabs Medical Center is assessing a client who abuses barbiturates and benzodiazepine. The nurse would observe for evidence of which withdrawal symptoms?
  20. Anxiety, tremors, and tachycardia
    B. Respiratory depression, stupor, and bradycardia
    C. Muscle aches, cramps, and lacrimation
    D. Paranoia, depression, and agitation
  21. The community nurse practicing primary prevention of alcohol abuse would target which groups for educational efforts?
  22. Adolescents in their late teens and young adults in their early twenties
    B. Elderly men who live in retirement communities
    C. Women working in careers outside the home
    D. Women working in the home
  23. Johnette is reviewing her lessons in Pharmacology. She is aware that the general classification of drugs belonging to the opioid category is analgesic and:
  24. Depressant.
    B. Hallucinogenic.
    C. Stimulant.
    D. Tranquilizing.
  25. When a client abuses a CNS depressant, withdrawal symptoms will be caused by which of the following?
  26. Acetylcholine excess
    B. Dopamine depletion
    C. Serotonin inhibition
    D. Norepinephrine rebound
  27. Kendall, the sister of a client with a substance-related disorder, tells the nurse she calls out sick for her sister Kylie occasionally when the latter has too much to drink and cannot work. This behavior can be described as:
  28. Caretaking.
    B. Codependent.
    C. Helpful.
    D. Supportive.
  29. During an initial assessment of a client admitted to a substance abuse unit for detoxification and treatment, the nurse asks questions to determine patterns of use of substances. Which of the following questions are most appropriate at this time? Select all that apply.
  30. How long have you used substances?
    B. How often do you use substances?
    C. How do you get substances into your body?
    D. Do you feel bad or guilty about your use of substances?
    E. How much of each substance do you use?
    F. Have you ever felt you should cut down substance use?
    G. What substances do you use?

2

  1. Flumazenil (Romazicon) has been ordered for a male client who has overdosed on oxazepam (Serax). Before administering the medication, nurse Gina should be prepared for which common adverse effect?
  2. Seizures
    B. Shivering
    C. Anxiety
    D. Chest pain
  3. Nurse Tamara is caring for a client diagnosed with bulimia. The most appropriate initial goal for a client diagnosed with bulimia is to:
  4. Avoid shopping for large amounts of food
    B. Control eating impulses
    C. Identify anxiety-causing situations
    D. Eat only three meals per day
  5. A female client who’s at high risk for suicide needs close supervision. To best ensure the client’s safety, Nurse Mary should:
  6. Check the client frequently at irregular intervals throughout the night
    B. Assure the client that the nurse will hold in confidence anything the client says
    C. Repeatedly discuss previous suicide attempts with the client
    D. Disregard decreased communication by the client because this is common with suicidal clients
  7. Which of the following drugs should Nurse Mary prepare to administer to a client with a toxic acetaminophen (Tylenol) level?
  8. Deferoxamine mesylate (Desferal)
    B. Succimer (Chemet)
    C. Flumazenil (Romazicon)
    D. Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

 

 

 

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  1. A male client is admitted to the substance abuse unit for alcohol detoxification. Which of the following medications is Nurse Alice most likely to administer to reduce the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?
  2. Naloxone (Narcan)
    B. Haloperidol (Haldol)
    C. Magnesium sulfate
    D. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
  3. During postprandial monitoring, a female client with bulimia nervosa tells the nurse, “You can sit with me, but you’re just wasting your time. After you had sat with me yesterday, I was still able to purge. Today, my goal is to do it twice.” What is the nurse’s best response?
  4. “I trust you not to purge.”
    B. “How are you purging and when do you do it?”
    C. “Don’t worry. I won’t allow you to purge today.”
    D. “I know it’s important for you to feel in control, but I’ll monitor you for 90 minutes after you eat.”
  5. A male client admitted to the psychiatric unit for treatment of substance abuse says to the nurse, “It felt so wonderful to get high.” Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
  6. “If you continue to talk like that, I’m going to stop speaking to you.”
    B. “You told me you got fired from your last job for missing too many days after taking drugs all night.”
    C. “Tell me more about how it felt to get high.”
    D. “Don’t you know it’s illegal to use drugs?”
  7. For a female client with anorexia nervosa, Nurse Jimmy is aware that which goal takes the highest priority?
  8. The client will establish adequate daily nutritional intake
    B. The client will make a contract with the nurse that sets a target weight
    C. The client will identify self-perceptions about body size as unrealistic
    D. The client will verbalize the possible physiological consequences of self-starvation
  9. When interviewing the parents of an injured child, which of the following is the strongest indicator that child abuse may be a problem?
  10. The injury isn’t consistent with the history or the child’s age
    B. The mother and father tell different stories regarding what happened
    C. The family is poor
    D. The parents are argumentative and demanding with emergency department personnel
  11. For a female client with anorexia nervosa, nurse Rose plans to include the parents in therapy sessions along with the client. What fact should the nurse remember to be typical of parents of clients with anorexia nervosa?
  12. They tend to overprotect their children
    B. They usually have a history of substance abuse
    C. They maintain emotional distance from their children
    D. They alternate between loving and rejecting their children
  13. In the emergency department, a client with facial lacerations states that her husband beat her with a shoe. After the health care team repairs her lacerations, she waits to be seen by the crisis intake nurse, who will evaluate the continued threat of violence. Suddenly the client’s husband arrives, shouting that he wants to “finish the job.” What is the first priority of the health care worker who witnesses this scene?
  14. Remaining with the client and staying calm
    B. Calling a security guard and another staff member for assistance
    C. Telling the client’s husband that he must leave at once
    D. Determining why the husband feels so angry
  15. Nurse Mary is caring for a client with bulimia. Strict management of dietary intake is necessary. Which intervention is also important?
  16. Fill out the client’s menu and make sure she eats at least half of what is on her tray.
    B. Let the client eat her meals in private. Then engage her in social activities for at least 2 hours after each meal
    C. Let the client choose her own food. If she eats everything she orders, then stay with her for 1 hour after each meal
    D. Let the client eat food brought in by the family if she chooses, but she should keep a strict calorie count.
  17. Nurse Mary is assigned to care for a suicidal client. Initially, which is the nurse’s highest care priority?
  18. Assessing the client’s home environment and relationships outside the hospital
    B. Exploring the nurse’s own feelings about suicide
    C. Discussing the future with the client
    D. Referring the client to a clergyperson to discuss the moral implications of suicide

 

 

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  1. A 24-year old client with anorexia nervosa tells the nurse, “When I look in the mirror, I hate what I see. I look so fat and ugly.” Which strategy should the nurse use to deal with the client’s distorted perceptions and feelings?
  2. Avoid discussing the client’s perceptions and feelings
    B. Focus discussions on food and weight
    C. Avoid discussing unrealistic cultural standards regarding weight
    D. Provide objective data and feedback regarding the client’s weight and attractiveness
  3. Nurse Alice is caring for a client being treated for alcoholism. Before initiating therapy with disulfiram (Antabuse), the nurse teaches the client that he must read labels carefully on which of the following products?
  4. Carbonated beverages
    B. Aftershave lotion
    C. Toothpaste
    D. Cheese
  5. Nurse Harry is developing a plan of care for a client with anorexia nervosa. Which action should the nurse include in the plan?
  6. Restrict visits with the family until the client begins to eat
    B. Provide privacy during meals
    C. Set up a strict eating plan for the client
    D. Encourage the client to exercise, which will reduce her anxiety
  7. Nurse Taylor is aware that the victims of domestic violence should be assessed for what important information?
  8. Reasons they stay in the abusive relationship (for example, lack of financial autonomy and isolation)
    B. Readiness to leave the perpetrator and knowledge of resources
    C. Use of drugs or alcohol
    D. History of previous victimization
  9. A male client is hospitalized with fractures of the right femur and right humerus sustained in a motorcycle accident. Police suspect the client was intoxicated at the time of the accident. Laboratory tests reveal a blood alcohol level of 0.2% (200 mg/dl). The client later admits to drinking heavily for years. During hospitalization, the client periodically complains of tingling and numbness in the hands and feet. Nurse Gian realizes that these symptoms probably result from:
  10. Acetate accumulation
    B. Thiamine deficiency
    C. Triglyceride buildup.
    D. A below-normal serum potassium level
  11. A parent brings a preschooler to the emergency department for treatment of a dislocated shoulder, which allegedly happened when the child fell down the stairs. Which action should make the nurse suspect that the child was abused?
  12. The child cries uncontrollably throughout the examination
    B. The child pulls away from contact with the physician.
    C. The child doesn’t cry when the shoulder is examined
    D. The child doesn’t make eye contact with the nurse.
  13. When planning care for a client who has ingested phencyclidine (PCP), nurse Wayne is aware that the following is the highest priority?
  14. Client’s physical needs
    B. Client’s safety needs
    C. Client’s psychosocial needs
    D. Client’s medical needs
  15. The nurse is aware that the outcome criteria would be appropriate for a child diagnosed with oppositional defiant disorder?
  16. Accept responsibility for own behaviors
    B. Be able to verbalize own needs and assert rights.
    C. Set firm and consistent limits with the client
    D. Allow the child to establish his own limits and boundaries
  17. A male client is found sitting on the floor of the bathroom in the day treatment clinic with moderate lacerations on both wrists. Surrounded by broken glass, he sits staring blankly at his bleeding wrists while staff members call for an ambulance. How should Nurse Anuktakanuk approach her initially?
  18. Enter the room quietly and move beside him to assess his injuries
    B. Call for staff back-up before entering the room and restraining him
    C. Move as much glass away from him as possible and sit next to him quietly
    D. Approach him slowly while speaking in a calm voice, calling him name, and telling him that the nurse is here to help him

 

 

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  1. A female client with anorexia nervosa describes herself as “a whale.” However, the nurse’s assessment reveals that the client is 5′ 8″ (1.7 m) tall and weighs only 90 lb (40.8 kg). Considering the client’s unrealistic body image, which intervention should nurse Angel be included in the plan of care?
  2. Asking the client to compare her figure with magazine photographs of women her age
    B. Assigning the client to group therapy in which participants provide realistic feedback about her weight
    C. Confronting the client about her actual appearance during one-on-one sessions, scheduled during each shift
    D. Telling the client of the nurse’s concern for her health and desire to help her make decisions to keep her healthy
  3. Eighteen hours after undergoing an emergency appendectomy, a client with a reported history of social drinking displays these vital signs: temperature, 101.6° F (38.7° C); heart rate, 126 beats/minute; respiratory rate, 24 breaths/minute; and blood pressure, 140/96 mm Hg. The client exhibits gross hand tremors and is screaming for someone to kill the bugs in the bed. Nurse Melinda should suspect:
  4. A postoperative infection
    B. Alcohol withdrawal
    C. Acute sepsis.
    D. Pneumonia.
  5. Clonidine (Catapres) can be used to treat conditions other than hypertension. Nurse Sally is aware that the following conditions might the drug be administered?
  6. Phencyclidine (PCP) intoxication
    B. Alcohol withdrawal
    C. Opiate withdrawal
    D. Cocaine withdrawal
  7. A male client with a history of cocaine addiction is admitted to the coronary care unit for evaluation of substernal chest pain. The electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a 1-mm ST-segment elevation the anteroseptal leads and T-wave inversion in leads V3 to V5. Considering the client’s history of drug abuse, nurse Greg expects the physician to prescribe:
  8. Lidocaine (Xylocaine).
    B. Procainamide (Pronestyl).
    C. Nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid IV).
    D. Epinephrine.
  9. A 14-year-old client was brought to the clinic by her mother. Her mother expresses concern about her daughter’s weight loss and constant dieting. Nurse Kris conducts a health history interview. Which of the following comments indicates that the client may be suffering from anorexia nervosa?
  10. “I like the way I look. I just need to keep my weight down because I’m a cheerleader.”
    B. “I don’t like the food my mother cooks. I eat plenty of fast food when I’m out with my friends.”
    C. “I just can’t seem to get down to the weight I want to be. I’m so fat compared to other girls.”
    D. “I do diet around my periods; otherwise, I just get so bloated.”
  11. Nurse Fey is aware that the drug of choice for treating Tourette syndrome?
  12. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
    B. Fluvoxamine (Luvox)
    C. Haloperidol (Haldol)
    D. Paroxetine (Paxil)
  13. A male client tells the nurse he was involved in a car accident while he was intoxicated. What would be the most therapeutic response from nurse Julia?
  14. “Why didn’t you get someone else to drive you?”
    B. “Tell me how you feel about the accident.”
    C. “You should know better than to drink and drive.”
    D. “I recommend that you attend an Alcoholics Anonymous meeting.”
  15. A male adult client voluntarily admits himself to the substance abuse unit. He confesses that he drinks one (1) qt or more of vodka each day and uses cocaine occasionally. Later that afternoon, he begins to show signs of alcohol withdrawal. What are some early signs of this condition?
  16. Vomiting, diarrhea, and bradycardia
    B. Dehydration, temperature above 101° F (38.3° C), and pruritus
    C. Hypertension, diaphoresis, and seizures
    D. Diaphoresis, tremors, and nervousness
  17. When monitoring a female client recently admitted for treatment of cocaine addiction, nurse Aaron notes sudden increases in the arterial blood pressure and heart rate. To correct these problems, the nurse expects the physician to prescribe:
  18. Norepinephrine (Levophed) and Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
    B. Nifedipine (Procardia) and Lidocaine.
    C. Nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid IV) and Esmolol (Brevibloc)
    D. Nifedipine and Esmolol
  19. A 25 –year old client experiencing alcohol withdrawal is upset about going through detoxification. Which of the following goals is a priority?
  20. The client will commit to a drug-free lifestyle
    B. The client will work with the nurse to remain safe
    C. The client will drink plenty of fluids daily
    D. The client will make a personal inventory of strength
  21. A male client is admitted to a psychiatric facility by court order for evaluation for antisocial personality disorder. This client has a long history of initiating fights and abusing animals and recently was arrested for setting a neighbor’s dog on fire. When evaluating this client for the potential for violence, nurse Perry should assess for which behavioral clues?
  22. A rigid posture, restlessness, and glaring
    B. Depression and physical withdrawal
    C. Silence and noncompliance
    D. Hypervigilance and talk of past violent acts
  23. A male client is brought to the psychiatric clinic by family members, who tell the admitting nurse that the client repeatedly drives while intoxicated despite their pleas to stop. During an interview with the nurse Linda, which statement by the client most strongly supports a diagnosis of psychoactive substance abuse?
  24. “I’m not addicted to alcohol. In fact, I can drink more than I used to without being affected.”
    B. “I only spend half of my paycheck at the bar.”
    C. “I just drink to relax after work.”
    D. “I know I’ve been arrested three times for drinking and driving, but the police are just trying to hassle me.”
  25. A female client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Initial nursing assessment reveals that the client’s wrists are scratched from a recent suicide attempt. Based on this finding, the nurse Lenny should formulate a nursing diagnosis of:
  26. Ineffective individual coping related to feelings of guilt.
    B. Situational low self-esteem related to feelings of loss of control
    C. Risk for violence: Self-directed related to impulsive mutilating acts
    D. Risk for violence: Directed toward others related to verbal threats

 

 

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  1. A male client recently admitted to the hospital with sharp, substernal chest pain suddenly complains of palpitations. Nurse Ryan notes a rise in the client’s arterial blood pressure and a heart rate of 144 beats/minute. On further questioning, the client admits to having used cocaine recently after previously denying use of the drug. The nurse concludes that the client is at high risk for which complication of cocaine use?
  2. Coronary artery spasm
    B. Brady arrhythmias
    C. Neurobehavioral deficits
    D. Panic disorder
  3. A male client is being admitted to the substance abuse unit for alcohol detoxification. As part of the intake interview, the nurse asks him when he had his last alcoholic drink. He says that he had his last drink six (6) hours before admission. Based on this response, nurse Lorena should expect early withdrawal symptoms to:
  4. Begin after seven (7) days
    B. Not occur at all because the time period for their occurrence has passed
    C. Begin anytime within the next one (1) to two (2) days
    D. Begin within two (2) to seven (7) days
  5. Nurse Helen is assigned to care for a client with anorexia nervosa. Initially, which nursing intervention is most appropriate for this client?
  6. Providing one-on-one supervision during meals and for one (1) hour afterward
    B. Letting the client eat with other clients to create a normal mealtime atmosphere
    C. Trying to persuade the client to eat and thus restore nutritional balance
    D. Giving the client as much time to eat as desired
  7. A female client begins to experience alcoholic hallucinosis. Nurse Joy is aware that the best nursing intervention at this time?
  8. Keeping the client restrained in bed
    B. Checking the client’s blood pressure every 15 minutes and offering juices
    C. Providing a quiet environment and administering medication as needed and prescribed
    D. Restraining the client and measuring blood pressure every 30 minutes
  9. Nurse Bella is aware that assessment finding is most consistent with early alcohol withdrawal?
  10. Heart rate of 120 to 140 beats/minute
    B. Heart rate of 50 to 60 beats/minute
    C. Blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg
    D. Blood pressure of 140/80 mmHg
  11. Nurse Amy is aware that the client is at highest risk for suicide?
  12. One who appears depressed frequently thinks of dying and gives away all personal possessions
    B. One who plans a violent death and has the means readily available
    C. One who tells others that he or she might do something if life doesn’t get better soon
    D. One who talks about wanting to die
  13. Nurse Penny is aware that the following medical conditions is commonly found in clients with bulimia nervosa?
  14. Allergies
    B. Cancer
    C. Diabetes mellitus
    D. Hepatitis A
  15. Kellan, a high school student is referred to the school nurse for suspected substance abuse. Following the nurse’s assessment and interventions, what would be the most desirable outcome?
  16. The student discusses conflicts over drug use
    B. The student accepts a referral to a substance abuse counselor
    C. The student agrees to inform his parents of the problem
    D. The student reports increased comfort with making choice
  17. A male client who reportedly consumes one (1) qt of vodka daily is admitted for alcohol detoxification. To try to prevent alcohol withdrawal symptoms, Dr. Smith is most likely to prescribe which drug?
  18. Clozapine (Clozaril)
    B. Thiothixene (Navane)
    C. Lorazepam (Ativan)
    D. Lithium carbonate (Eskalith)
  19. A male client is being treated for alcoholism. After a family meeting, the client’s spouse asks the nurse about ways to help the family deal with the effects of alcoholism. Nurse Lily should suggest that the family join which organization?
  20. Al-Anon
    B. Make Today Count
    C. Emotions Anonymous
    D. Alcoholics Anonymous
  21. A female client is admitted to the psychiatric clinic for treatment of anorexia nervosa. To promote the client’s physical health, nurse Tair should plan to:
  22. Severely restrict the client’s physical activities
    B. Weigh the client daily, after the evening meal
    C. Monitor vital signs, serum electrolyte levels, and acid-base balance
    D. Instruct the client to keep an accurate record of food and fluid intake
  23. Kevin is remanded by the courts for psychiatric treatment. His police record, which dates to his early teenage years, includes delinquency, running away, auto theft, and vandalism. He dropped out of school at age 16 and has been living on his own since then. His history suggests maladaptive coping, which is associated with:
  24. Antisocial personality disorder
    B. Borderline personality disorder
    C. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
    D. Narcissistic personality disorder
  25. Macoy and Helen seek emergency crisis intervention because he slapped her repeatedly the night before. The husband indicates that his childhood was marred by an abusive relationship with his father. When intervening with this couple, nurse Gerry knows they are at risk for repeated violence because the husband:
  26. Has only moderate impulse control
    B. Denies feelings of jealousy or possessiveness
    C. Has learned violence as an acceptable behavior
    D. Feels secure in his relationship with his wife
  27. A client whose husband just left her has a recurrence of anorexia nervosa. Nurse Vic caring for her realizes that this exacerbation of anorexia nervosa results from the client’s effort to:
  28. Manipulate her husband
    B. Gain control of one part of her life
    C. Commit suicide
    D. Live up to her mother’s expectations

 

 

 

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  1. A male client has approached the nurse asking for advice on how to deal with his alcohol addiction. Nurse Sally should tell the client that the only effective treatment for alcoholism is:
  2. Psychotherapy
    B. Total abstinence
    C. Alcoholics Anonymous (AA)
    D. Aversion therap

3

Paranoid schizo, schizo

  1. A psychotic client reports to the evening nurse that the day nurse put something suspicious in his water with his medication. The nurse replies, “You’re worried about your medication?” The nurse’s communication is:
  2. an example of presenting reality.
    B. reinforcing the client’s delusions.
    C. focusing on emotional content.
    D. a nontherapeutic technique called mind reading.
  3. A client is admitted to the inpatient unit of the mental health center with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. He’s shouting that the government of France is trying to assassinate him. Which of the following responses is most appropriate?
  4. “I think you’re wrong. France is a friendly country and an ally of the United States. Their government wouldn’t try to kill you.”
    B. “I find it hard to believe that a foreign government or anyone else is trying to hurt you. You must feel frightened by this.”
    C. “You’re wrong. Nobody is trying to kill you.”
    D. “A foreign government is trying to kill you? Please tell me more about it.”
  5. A client receiving haloperidol (Haldol) complains of a stiff jaw and difficulty swallowing. The nurse’s first action is to:
  6. reassure the client and administer as needed lorazepam (Ativan) I.M.
    B. administer as needed dose of benztropine (Cogentin) I.M. as ordered.
    C. administer as needed dose of benztropine (Cogentin) by mouth as ordered.
    D. administer as needed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) by mouth.
  7. The nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia who experiences auditory hallucinations. The client appears to be listening to someone who isn’t visible. He gestures, shouts angrily, and stops shouting in mid-sentence. Which nursing intervention is the most appropriate?
  8. Approach the client and touch him to get his attention.
    B. Encourage the client to go to his room where he’ll experience fewer distractions.
    C. Acknowledge that the client is hearing voices but make it clear that the nurse doesn’t hear these voices.
    D. Ask the client to describe what the voices are saying.
  9. A client with paranoid schizophrenia has been experiencing auditory hallucinations for many years. One approach that has proven to be effective for hallucinating clients is to:
  10. take an as-needed dose of psychotropic medication whenever they hear voices.
    B. practice saying “Go away” or “Stop” when they hear voices.
    C. sing loudly to drown out the voices and provide a distraction.
    D. go to their room until the voices go away.
  11. A client with catatonic schizophrenia is mute, can’t perform activities of daily living, and stares out the window for hours. What is the nurse’s first priority?
  12. Assist the client with feeding.
    B. Assist the client with showering.
    C. Reassure the client about safety.
    D. Encourage socialization with peers.
  13. A client tells the nurse that the television newscaster is sending a secret message to her. The nurse suspects the client is experiencing:
  14. a delusion.
    B. flight of ideas.
    C. ideas of reference.
    D. a hallucination.
  15. The nurse knows that the physician has ordered the liquid form of the drug chlorpromazine (Thorazine) rather than the tablet form because the liquid:
  16. has a more predictable onset of action.
    B. produces fewer anticholinergic effects.
    C. produces fewer drug interactions.
    D. has a longer duration of action.
  17. A client who has been hospitalized with disorganized type schizophreniafor 8 years can’t complete activities of daily living (ADLs) without staff direction and assistance. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Self-care deficient: Dressing/grooming related to inability to function without assistance. What is an appropriate goal for this client?
  18. “Client will be able to complete ADLs independently within 1 month.”
    B. “Client will be able to complete ADLs with only verbal encouragement within 1 month.”
    C. “Client will be able to complete ADLs with assistance in organizing grooming items and clothing within 1 month.”
    D. “Client will be able to complete ADLs with complete assistance within 1 month.”
  19. The nurse is planning care for a client admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. Which nursing diagnosis should receive the highest priority?
  20. Risk for violence toward self or others
    B. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements
    C. Ineffective family coping
    D. Impaired verbal communication
  21. The nurse is preparing for the discharge of a client who has been hospitalized for paranoid schizophrenia. The client’s husband expresses concern over whether his wife will continue to take her daily prescribed medication. The nurse should inform him that:
  22. his concern is valid but his wife is an adult and has the right to make her own decisions.
    B. he can easily mix the medication in his wife’s food if she stops taking it.
    C. his wife can be given a long-acting medication that is administered every 1 to 4 weeks.
    D. his wife knows she must take her medication as prescribed to avoid future hospitalizations.

 

 

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  1. Benztropine (Cogentin) is used to treat the extrapyramidal effects induced by antipsychotics. This drug exerts its effect by:
  2. decreasing the anxiety causing muscle rigidity.
    B. blocking the cholinergic activity in the central nervous system (CNS).
    C. increasing the level of acetylcholine in the CNS.
    D. increasing norepinephrine in the CNS.
  3. A dopamine receptor agonist such as bromocriptine (Parlodel) relieves muscle rigidity caused by antipsychotic medication by:
  4. Blocking dopamine receptors in the central nervous system (CNS).
    B. Blocking acetylcholine in the CNS.
    C. Activating norepinephrine in the CNS.
    D. Activating dopamine receptors in the CNS.
  5. Most antipsychotic medications exert which of following effects on the central nervous system (CNS)?
  6. Stimulate the CNS by blocking postsynaptic dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin receptors.
    B. Sedate the CNS by stimulating serotonin at the synaptic cleft.
    C. Depress the CNS by blocking the postsynaptic transmission of dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine.
    D. Depress the CNS by stimulating the release of acetylcholine.
  7. A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit of a local hospital with chronic undifferentiated schizophrenia. During the next several days, the client is seen laughing, yelling, and talking to herself. This behavior is characteristic of:
  8. delusion.
    B. looseness of association.
    C. illusion.
    D. hallucination.
  9. Which of the following medications would the nurse expect the physician to order to reverse a dystonic reaction?
  10. prochlorperazine (Compazine)
    B. diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
    C. haloperidol (Haldol)
    D. midazolam (Versed)
  11. A schizophrenic client states, “I hear the voice of King Tut.” Which response by the nurse would be most therapeutic?
  12. “I don’t hear the voice, but I know you hear what sounds like a voice.”
    B. “You shouldn’t focus on that voice.”
    C. “Don’t worry about the voice as long as it doesn’t belong to anyone real.”
    D. “King Tut has been dead for years.”
  13. A client has been receiving chlorpromazine (Thorazine), an antipsychotic, to treat his psychosis. Which findings should alert the nurse that the client is experiencing pseudoparkinsonism?
  14. Restlessness, difficulty sitting still, and pacing
    B. Involuntary rolling of the eyes
    C. Tremors, shuffling gait, and masklike face
    D. Extremity and neck spasms, facial grimacing, and jerky movements
  15. For several years, a client with chronic schizophrenia has received 10 mg of fluphenazine hydrochloride (Prolixin) by mouth four times per day. Now the client has a temperature of 102° F (38.9° C), a heart rate of 120 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 20 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 210/140 mm Hg. Because the client also is confused and incontinent, the nurse suspects malignant neuroleptic syndrome. What steps should the nurse take?
  16. Give the next dose of fluphenazine, call the physician, and monitor vital signs.
    B. Withhold the next dose of fluphenazine, call the physician, and monitor vital signs.
    C. Give the next dose of fluphenazine and restrict the client to the room to decrease stimulation.
    D. Withhold the next dose of fluphenazine, administer an antipyretic agent, and increase the client’s fluid intake.
  17. A schizophrenic client with delusions tells the nurse, “There is a man wearing a red coat who’s out to get me.” The client exhibits increasing anxiety when focusing on the delusions. Which of the following would be the best response?
  18. “This subject seems to be troubling you. Let’s walk to the activity room.”
    B. “Describe the man who’s out to get you. What does he look like?”
    C. “There is no reason to be afraid of that man. This hospital is very secure.”
    D. “There is no need to be concerned with a man who isn’t even real.”
  19. Important teaching for women in their childbearing years who are receiving antipsychotic medications includes which of the following?
  20. Occurrence of increased libido due to medication adverse effects
    B. Increased incidence of dysmenorrhea while taking the drug
    C. Continuing previous use of contraception during periods of amenorrhea
    D. Instruction that amenorrhea is irreversible

 

 

 

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  1. A client is admitted to a psychiatric facility with a diagnosis of chronic schizophrenia. The history indicates that the client has been taking neuroleptic medication for many years. Assessment reveals unusual movements of the tongue, neck, and arms. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
  2. Tardive dyskinesia
    B. Dystonia
    C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
    D. Akathisia
  3. What medication would probably be ordered for the acutely aggressive schizophrenic client?
  4. chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
    B. haloperidol (Haldol)
    C. lithium carbonate (Lithonate)
    D. amitriptyline (Elavil)
  5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of schizotypal personality disorder. Which signs would this client exhibit during social situations?
  6. Aggressive behavior
    B. Paranoid thoughts
    C. Emotional affect
    D. Independence needs
  7. During the initial interview, a client with schizophrenia suddenly turns to the empty chair beside him and whispers, “Now just leave. I told you to stay home. There isn’t enough work here for both of us!” What is the nurse’s best initial response?
  8. “When people are under stress, they may see things or hear things that others don’t. Is that what just happened?”
    B. “I’m having a difficult time hearing you. Please look at me when you talk.”
    C. “There is no one else in the room. What are you doing?”
    D. “Who are you talking to? Are you hallucinating?”
  9. The definition of nihilistic delusions is:
  10. a false belief about the functioning of the body.
    B. belief that the body is deformed or defective in a specific way.
    C. false ideas about the self, others, or the world
    D. the inability to carry out motor activities.
  11. A client who’s taking antipsychotic medication develops a very high temperature, severe muscle rigidity, tachycardia, and rapid deterioration in mental status. The nurse suspects what complication of antipsychotic therapy?
  12. Agranulocytosis
    B. Extrapyramidal effects
    C. Anticholinergic effects
    D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)
  13. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Impaired social interaction related to disorganized thinking for a client with schizotypal personality disorder. Based on this nursing diagnosis, which nursing intervention takes highest priority?
  14. Helping the client to participate in social interactions
    B. Establishing a one-on-one relationship with the client
    C. Exploring the effects of the client’s behavior on social interactions
    D. Developing a schedule for the client’s participation in social interactions
  15. A client with schizophrenia hears a voice telling him he is evil and must die. The nurse understands that the client is experiencing:
  16. a delusion.
    B. flight of ideas.
    C. ideas of reference.
    D. a hallucination.
  17. A client with delusional thinking shows a lack of interest in eating at meal times. She states that she is unworthy of eating and that her children will die if she eats. Which nursing action would be most appropriate for this client?
  18. Telling the client that she may become sick and die unless she eats
    B. Paying special attention to the client’s rituals and emotions associated with meals
    C. Restricting the client’s access to food except at specified meal and snack times
    D. Encouraging the client to express her feelings at meal times
  19. Which of the following groups of characteristics would the nurse expect to see in the client with schizophrenia?
  20. Loose associations, grandiose delusions, and auditory hallucinations
    B. Periods of hyperactivity and irritability alternating with depression
    C. Delusions of jealousy and persecution, paranoia, and mistrust
    D. Sadness, apathy, feelings of worthlessness, anorexia, and weight loss
  21. The nurse must administer a medication to reverse or prevent Parkinson-type symptoms in a client receiving an antipsychotic. The medication the client will likely receive is:
  22. Benztropine (Cogentin).
    B. diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
    C. propranolol (Inderal).
    D. haloperidol (Haldol).
  23. A client is receiving haloperidol (Haldol) to reduce psychotic symptoms. As he watches television with other clients, the nurse notes that he has trouble sitting still. He seems restless, constantly moving his hands and feet and changing position. When the nurse asks what is wrong, he says he feels jittery. How should the nurse manage this situation?
  24. Ask the client to sit still or leave the room because he is distracting the other clients.
    B. Ask the client if he is nervous or anxious about something.
    C. Give an as needed dose of a prescribed anticholinergic agent to control akathisia.
    D. Administer an as needed dose of haloperidol to decrease agitation.
  25. A man is brought to the hospital by his wife, who states that for the past week her husband has refused all meals and accused her of trying to poison him. During the initial interview, the client’s speech, only partly comprehensible, reveals that his thoughts are controlled by delusions that he is possessed by the devil. The physician diagnoses paranoid schizophrenia. Schizophrenia is best described as a disorder characterized by:
  26. disturbed relationships related to an inability to communicate and think clearly.
    B. severe mood swings and periods of low to high activity.
    C. multiple personalities, one of which is more destructive than the others.
    D. auditory and tactile hallucinations.
  27. A client has a history of chronic undifferentiated schizophrenia. Because she has a history of noncompliance with antipsychotic therapy, she’ll receive fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin Decanoate) injections every 4 weeks. Before discharge, what should the nurse include in her teaching plan?
  28. Asking the physician for droperidol (Inapsine) to control any extrapyramidal symptoms that occur
    B. Sitting up for a few minutes before standing to minimize orthostatic hypotension
    C. Notifying the physician if her thoughts don’t normalize within 1 week
    D. Expecting symptoms of tardive dyskinesia to occur and to be transient
  29. A client with chronic schizophrenia who takes

 

 

 

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Question 2:     Heath Care

 

  1. A client with major depression is having a disturbed sleep pattern. Which of the following nursing interventions will help the client to get maximum sleep during the night?

 

  1. A)           Acknowledge the client’s feeling of despair.
  2. B)            Encourage active exercise before bedtime.
  3. C)            Encourage the client to go to bed early.
  4. D)           Keep the client busy during the day.

 

 

  1. A client with bipolar disorder is having a disturbed thought process. Which of the following nursing interventions can help the client to be oriented and accurately perceive circumstances surrounding admission?

 

  1. A)           Provide ample information.
  2. B)            Support the client when in delusion.
  3. C)            Reduce distracting stimuli.
  4. D)           Offer a large-muscle activity

 

 

  1. Which of the following nursing interventions should a nurse perform when caring for a female client with mood disorder who is prescribed lithium?

 

  1. A)           Instruct to resume regular activities such as driving.
  2. B)            Administer lithium before meals.
  3. C)            Withhold if serum level is less than 1.5 mEq.
  4. D)           Instruct to avoid breastfeeding.

 

  1. During the assessment of a client with mood disorder, the nurse observes that the client experiences hallucinations and delusions. Which of the following forms of depressive disorders does the client experience?

 

  1. A)           Reactive depression
  2. B)            Mania
  3. C)            Psychotic depression
  4. D)           Seasonal affective disorder (SAD)

 

 

  1. Which of the following is an example of subacute symptoms that may be observed in the older adult who may be depressed?

 

  1. A)           Weight gain
  2. B)            Lack of energy
  3. C)            Memory loss
  4. D)           Increased sleep

 

 

  1. What clinical manifestation should the nurse periodically monitor for while a client is being administered valproic acid?

 

  1. A)           Hepatotoxicity
  2. B)            Hypertensive crisis
  3. C)            Orthostatic hypotension
  4. D)           Hyperalertness

 

 

  1. Which of the following mood disorders has alternating sad and elated mood, resembling bipolar disorder, but less extreme mood shifts?

 

  1. A)           Euthymia
  2. B)            Dysthymia
  3. C)            Cyclothymia
  4. D)           Psychotic depression

 

 

  1. Administering an MAOI with food containing tyramine may develop a potentially fatal condition known as which of the following?

 

  1. A)           Psychosis
  2. B)            Serotonin syndrome
  3. C)            Hypertensive crisis
  4. D)           Hallucinations

 

 

 

 

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  1. Anticonvulsants enhance which neurotransmitter in clients diagnosed with bipolar disorder?

 

  1. A)           Serotonin
  2. B)            Dopamine
  3. C)            GABA
  4. D)           Acetylcholine

 

 

  1. Which type of therapy is facilitated by a bond that developed between the therapist and the client?

 

  1. A)           Behavioral therapy
  2. B)            Supportive psychotherapy
  3. C)            Interpersonal psychotherapy
  4. D)           Cognitive therapy

 

 

  1. The nurse is caring for a client who states he is not feeling very well. When asking the client for specific symptoms, the client is vague with details but does state feeling better when the sun is shining. With this information, the nurse would document which disorder as a possibility?

 

  1. A)           Major depression
  2. B)            Seasonal affective disorder
  3. C)            Bipolar disorder
  4. D)           Reactive depression

 

 

 

 

  1. The nurse has been working with a client who has difficulty controlling mood. The client continues to experience anger outbursts, which make it difficult to maintain employment. When explaining this dysfunction to the client’s family members, which area of the brain does the nurse identify as being the site for mood generation?

 

  1. A)           The central nervous system
  2. B)            The autonomic nervous system
  3. C)            The limbic system
  4. D)           The peripheral nervous system

 

  1. A nurse is counseling a client diagnosed with depression. When asked questions, the client responds with words of self-blame and self-pity. When the nurse uses the monoamine hypothesis, which chemical is thought to be elevated?

 

  1. A)           Serotonin
  2. B)            Norepinephrine
  3. C)            Epinephrine
  4. D)             Dopamine
  5. The nurse is caring for the client newly placed on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor. When instructing the client on the action of the medication, which statement relating to the fluctuation of serotonin is correct?

 

  1. A)           Serotonin will be suppressed in the brain slowing the transmission of impulses.

 

  1. B)            Serotonin will remain within the brain enhancing chemical messages instead of being metabolized.

 

  1. C)            Serotonin production will be increased within the brain speeding transmission of impulses.

 

  1. D)           Serotonin activity will fluctuate according to the body’s hormone release.

 

  1. The nurse is providing education via phone to a client who called stating that the newly prescribed imipramine (Tofranil) is not working as depression is still a problem. Which question is most important to ask first?

 

  1. A)           “Are you feeling worse since taking the medication?”
  2. B)            “How long have you been taking the medication?”
  3. C)            “What time of day are you taking the medication?”
  4. D)           “What dosage of medication are you taking?”

 

 

 

 

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Page 6

 

  1. A patient with major depression has been place on phenelzine (Nardil). The nurse is instructing on dietary practices. Which food selection would be omitted from the diet?
  2. A)           Fruit salad
  3. B)            Lobster
  4. C)            Pork medallions
  5. D)           Spinach and feta salad

 

 

  1. A nurse is caring for a newly admitted client to the emergency department. The nurse obtains the following vital signs: temperature, 101.6° F; pulse rate, 92 beats/minute; respiratory rate, 28 breaths/minute; and blood pressure, 160/100 mm Hg. The client appears disheveled and disoriented. Upon physical assessment, the nurse notes restlessness and muscle spasms with rigidity. Which documented finding in the health history is evaluated as a potential causative factor?

 

  1. A)           Mixing antibiotics with psychotherapeutic medications
  2. B)            Changing from one psychotherapeutic to another
  3. C)            Initiating psychotherapeutic drug therapy
  4. D)           Combining dairy products with psychotherapeutics

 

The nurse is caring for a middle-aged client prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor. Which side effect of medication therapy leads to the most common cause of noncompliance?

 

  1. A)           Hypertension
  2. B)            Dizziness
  3. C)            Hallucinations
  4. D)           Sexual dysfunction

 

 

  1. The nurse is employed in a pediatric mental health clinic. Which statement, made by the client, is an indication of a clinical effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors?

 

  1. A)           “I have gained 25 lb in the last year.”
  2. B)            “I feel that I am so sleepy all of the time.”
  3. C)            “No one cares about me. I just want to die.”
  4. D)           “I have a difficult time concentrating.”

 

 

  1. The nurse is instructing a client in treatment options often provided to resolve clinical depression. Which option does the nurse instruct as producing a brief, generalized seizure?

 

  1. A)           Vagal nerve stimulation
  2. B)            Electroconvulsive therapy
  3. C)            Deep brain stimulation
  4. D)           Transcranial magnetic stimulation

Page 8

 

 

 

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  1. The nurse is caring for a client who has selected transcranial magnetic stimulation to treat depression. For which side effect would the nurse provide preprocedural instructions?

 

  1. A)           Headache
  2. B)            Blurred vision
  3. C)            Hearing loss
  4. D)           Vertigo

 

 

  1. Which nursing consideration is most important when administering medications to a suicidal client?

 

  1. A)           Do not leave any syringe unattended.
  2. B)            Watch the client place all pills in the mouth.
  3. C)            View the inside of the mouth to make sure that all medications are swallowed.

 

  1. D)           Remove all medications and medication administration equipment from client area.

 

 

  1. The nurse is admitting a client to a mental health clinic following a recent suicide attempt and hospitalization. In assessing the client’s status, which question is best?

 

  1. A)           “How are you currently feeling?”
  2. B)            “What made you decide to harm yourself?”
  3. C)            “Do you have a suicide plan or feel like ending your life?”
  4. D)           “What method did you choose for your suicide attempt?”

 

 

  1. Which of the following nursing diagnosis is of highest priority when caring for a client who is depressed and considers suicide?

 

  1. A)           Hopelessness
  2. B)            Risk for Injury
  3. C)            Disturbed Sleep Pattern
  4. D)           Ineffective Coping

 

  1. Which of the following observations is helpful in determining a client’s mood? Select all that apply.

 

  1. A)           Client appearance
  2. B)            Body language
  3. C)            Speech
  4. D)           Energy level
  5. E)            Work history

 

 

 

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  1. The nurse is providing instruction to a community class who experience occasional depression regarding why humans feel better when the sun is shining. Which gland and hormone would the nurse stress is responsible?

 

  1. A)           Thyroid gland and thyroxin
  2. B)            Pineal gland and melatonin
  3. C)            Pancreas and insulin
  4. D)           Pituitary gland and oxytocin

 

 

  1. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with seasonal affective disorder. When caring for the client, at which time of the year does the nurse limit nursing interventions due to an uplifting of mood?

 

  1. A)           September/October
  2. B)            February/March
  3. C)            April/May
  4. D)           December/January

 

 

  1. When caring for a geriatric client diagnosed with bipolar disorder, which manifestation of the disease is anticipated?

 

  1. A)           The disease remits as the client ages.
  2. B)            The disease increases as the client ages.
  3. C)            The depression increases as the client ages.
  4. D)           The manic phase increases as the client ages.

 

 

  1. The nurse is caring for a client on long-standing lithium therapy for a bipolar disorder. Which component of drug therapy administration would require follow-up?

 

  1. A)           A lab result showing serum lithium level of 1 mEq
  2. B)            Client states, “I use salt on my potato salad.”
  3. C)            Client states, “I take my medication each morning.”
  4. D)           Client states, “I only take lithium after breastfeeding.”

 

 

 

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  1. The nurse is completing a medication history for a client diagnosed with bipolar. When assessing the medications, which medication classification is noted as an adjunct to lithium therapy?

 

  1. A)           Antidiabetics
  2. B)            Antihypertensives
  3. C)            Anticonvulsants
  4. D)           Antianginals

.

 

 

  1. The nurse is completing a plan of care for a client on lithium therapy to manage bipolar symptoms. Which nursing interventions will be included? Select all that apply.

 

  1. A)           Monitor for symptoms of nausea, vomiting, muscle weakness, and lack of coordination.

 

  1. B)            Increase fluid intake to 3000 mL/day.
  2. C)            Limit sodium intake daily.
  3. D)           Monitor kidney and liver functioning.
  4. E)            Instruct client that it may take up to 6 weeks to reach therapeutic level.
  5. F)             Monitor intake and output

 

 

  1. The nurse is assessing a client’s affect while discussing common issues such as the weather and family. The client appears sad with a slow speech pattern. The nurse considers that this may be a sign of depression but understands that the physician will want to rule out which medical condition first?

 

  1. A)           Mania
  2. B)            Hypothyroidism
  3. C)            A pituitary deficiency
  4. D)           A cerebral vascular accident

 

  1. When providing a clinical reference guide to a client on MAOI drug therapy, which over-the-counter medications should be highlighted to avoid?

 

  1. A)           Cold and allergy medications
  2. B)            Antiulcer medications
  3. C)            Multivitamins
  4. D)           Laxatives

 

  1. Which of the following nursing instructions is most helpful to a client experiencing mild seasonal affective disorder symptoms?

 

  1. A)           Use sunglasses when exposed to sunlight.
  2. B)            Install skylights.
  3. C)            Sleep in a darkened room.
  4. D)           Stay indoors during the winter time.

 

 

  1. The nurse is caring for a client with a disturbance in thought process who is disoriented and aggressive. Which of the following nursing actions may produce further agitation?
  2. A)           Speaking in slow, brief sentences
  3. B)            Presenting the reality of the situation
  4. C)            Allowing the client freedom in a confined area
  5. D)           Being present without speaking

 

 

 

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Question 3:     Health Care

 

Exam 7 2018, questions and answers

Fundamentals in clinical techniques (Rasmussen College)

RN Fundamentals Online Practice

A nurse is caring for a client who requires a 24-hr urine collection. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

  1. “I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine.”
  2. “I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago.”
  3. “I flushed what I urinated at 7:00 a.m. and have save all urine since.”
  4. “I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly.”

 

 

A nurse is assessing a client who has been on bed rest for the past month. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the client has developed thrombophlebitis?

 

  1. Bladder distention
  2. Decreased blood pressure
  3. Calf swelling
  4. Diminished bowel sounds
  5. Calf swelling

 

A nurse manager is overseeing the care on a unit. Which of the following situations should the nurse manager identify as a violation of HIPAA guidelines?

  1. A nurse who is caring for a client reviews the client’s medical chart with the nursing student who is working with the nurse
  2. A nurse asks a nurse from another unit to assist with her documentation
  3. A nurse who is caring for a client returns a call to the client’s durable power of attorney for health care designee to discuss the client’s care
  4. A nurse discusses a client’s status with the physical therapist that is caring for the client at the client’s bedside

A nurse is caring for a client who requires bed rest and has a prescription for antiembolic stockings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

 

  1. Apply the stockings so the creases are on the side of the leg
  2. Apply the stockings while the client’s legs are in a dependent position
  3. Remove the stockings at least once per shift
  4. Remove the stockings while the client is sitting in a reclining chair

 

A nurse is administering IV fluid to an older adult client. The nurse should perform which priority assessment to monitor for adverse effects?

 

  1. Auscultate lung sounds
  2. Measure urine output
  3. Monitor blood pressure readings
  4. Monitor serum electrolyte levels
  5. Auscultate lung sounds

 

A nurse is assessing a client’s readiness to learn about insulin administration. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to learn?

 

  1. “I can concentrate best in the morning.”
  2. “It is difficult to read the instructions because my glasses are at home.”
  3. “I’m wondering why I need to learn this.”
  4. “You will have to talk to my wife about this.”

 

A nurse is performing a Romberg’s test during the physical assessment of a client. Which of the following techniques should the nurse use?

 

  1. Touch the face with a cotton ball
  2. Apply the vibrating tuning fork to the client’s forehead
  3. Have the client stand with her arms at her side and her feet together
  4. Perform direct percussion over the area of the kidneys

 

A nurse is planning an education session for an older adult client who has just learned that she has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following strategies should the nurse plan to use with this client?

 

  1. Allow extra time for the client to respond to questions
  2. Expect the client to have difficulty understanding the information
  3. Avoid references to the client’s past experiences
  4. Keep the learning session in private and one-on-one

 

 

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A nurse is teaching an older adult client who is at risk for osteoporosis about beginning a program of regular physical activity. Which of the following types of activity should the nurse recommend?

 

  1. Walking briskly
  2. Riding a bicycle
  3. Performing isometric exercises
  4. Engaging in high-impact aerobics

 

A nurse is assessing an adult client who has been immobile for the past 3 weeks. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings requires further intervention?

 

  1. Erythema on pressure points
  2. Lower-extremity pulse strength 2+
  3. Fluid intake of 3,000 mL of fluid per day
  4. A bowel movement every other day

 

A nurse is preparing to administer 0.5 mL of oral single-dose liquid medication to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

 

  1. Gently shake the container of medication prior to administration
  2. Transfer the medication to a medicine cup
  3. Place the client in a semi-Fowler’s position prior to medication administration
  4. Verify the dosage by measuring the liquid before administration

 

A nurse is responding to a call light and finds a client lying on the bathroom floor. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

 

  1. Check the client for injuries
  2. Move hazardous objects away from the client
  3. Notify the provider
  4. Ask the client to describe how she felt prior to the fall

 

A nurse is caring for a client who is expressing anger over his diagnosis of colorectal cancer. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

 

  1. Discuss the risk factors for colon cancer
  2. Focus teaching on what the client will need to do in the future to manage his illness
  3. Provide the client with written information about the phases of loss and grief
  4. Reassure the client that this is an expected response to grief

 

 

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A nurse in a clinic is caring for a middle adult client who states, “The doctor says that, since I am at an average risk for colon cancer, I should have a routine screening. What does that involve?” Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

 

  1. “I’ll get a blood sample from you and send it for a screening test.”
  2. “Beginning at age 600, you should have a colonoscopy.”
  3. “You should have a fecal occult blood test every year.”
  4. “The recommendation is to have a sigmoidoscopy every 10 years.”

 

A nurse manager is preparing to review medication documentation with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statement should the nurse manager plan to include in the teaching?

 

  1. “Use the complete name of the medication magnesium sulfate.”
  2. “Delete the space between the numerical dose and the unit of measure.”
  3. “Write the letter U when noting the dosage of insulin.:
  4. “Use the abbreviation SC when indicting an injection.”

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

 

  1. Place the client in a room with negative-pressure airflow
  2. Wear gloves when assisting the client with oral care
  3. Limit each visitor to 2 hr increments
  4. Wear a surgical mask when providing client care
  5. Use antimicrobial sanitizer for hand hygiene

 

A charge nurse is discussing the responsibility of nurses caring for clients who have a Clostridium difficile infection. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

 

 

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  1. Assign the client to a room with a negative air-flow system
  2. Use alcohol-based hand sanitizer when leaving the client’s room
  3. Clean contaminated surface in the client’s room with a phenol solution
  4. Have family members wear a gown and gloves when visiting

 

A nurse in a surgical suite notes documentation on a client’s medical record that he has a latex allergy. In preparation for the client’s medical record that he has a latex allergy. In preparation for the client’s procedure, which of the following precautions should the nurse take?

 

  1. Ensure sterilization of non-disposable items with ethylene oxide
  2. Wrap monitoring cords with stockinette and tape them in case

 

  1. Cleanse latex ports on IV tubing with chlorhexidine before injecting medication
  2. Wear hypoallergenic later gloves that contain powder

 

 

A nurse is caring for a client who is reporting difficulty falling asleep. Which of the following measures should the nurse recommend?

 

  1. Drink a cup of hot cocoa before bedtime
  2. Exercise 1 hr before going to bed
  3. Use progressive relaxation techniques at bedtime
  4. Reflect on the day’s activities before going to bed

 

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for 5 units of regular insulin and 10 units of NPH insulin to mix together and administer subcutaneously. Determine the correct order of steps for this procedure.

 

 

A nurse is reviewing practice guidelines with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include that is within the RN scope of practice?

 

  1. Insert an implanted port
  2. Close a laceration with sutures
  3. Place an endotracheal tube
  4. Initiate an enteral feeding through a gastrostomy tube

 

A nurse is caring for a client who requires an NG tube for stomach decompression. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when inserting the NG tube?

 

  1. Position the client with the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees prior to insertion of the NG tube
  2. Remove the NG tube if the client begins to gag or choke
  3. Apply suction to the NG tube prior to insertion
  4. Have the client take sips of water to promote insertion of the NG tube into the esophagus

 

 

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A nurse is assessing an older adult client’s risk for falls. Which of the following assessments should the nurse use to identify the client’s safety needs? (Select all that apply.)

 

  1. Lacrimal apparatus
  2. Pupil clarity
  3. Appearance of bulbar conjunctivae
  4. Visual fields
  5. Visual acuity

 

A nurse is evaluating a client’s use of a cane. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as an indication of correct use?

 

  1. The top of the cane is parallel to the client’s waist
  2. When walking, the client moves the cane 46cm (18 in) forward
  3. The client holds the cane on the stronger side of her body.
  4. The client moves her stronger limb forward with the cane

 

A nurse is admitting a client who has varicella. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?

 

  1. Airborne
  2. Droplet
  3. Contact
  4. Protective environment

 

A nurse is preparing to administer multiple medications to a client who has an enteral feeding tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

 

  1. Dissolve each medication in 5 mL of sterile water
  2. Draw up medications together in the same syringe
  3. Push the syringe plunger gently when feeling resistance
  4. Flush the tube with 15 mL of sterile water

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for wound irrigation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

 

  1. Wear sterile gloves when removing the old dressing
  2. Warm the irrigation solution to 40.5 degrees Celsius (105 degrees Fahrenheit)
  3. Cleanse the wound from the center outward
  4. Use a 20 mL syringe to irrigate the wound

 

 

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A nurse is providing care to four clients. Which of the following situations requires the nurse to complete an incident report?

 

  1. A nurse tied a client’s restraint straps to the moveable part of the bed frame
  2. An assistive personnel placed a surgical mask on a client who has tuberculosis before transporting her to radiology
  3. A nurse administers a medication to a client 30 minutes before the dose is due
  4. A client who has an IV infusion pump receives an additional 250 mL of IV fluid

 

 

A nurse is caring for a client receiving fluid through a peripheral IV catheter. Which of the following findings at the IV site should the nurse identify as infiltration?

 

  1. Purulent exudate
  2. Warmth
  3. Skin blanching
  4. Bleeding

 

 

A nurse is preparing a change-of-shit report. Which of the following tools or documents should the nurse use to communicate continuity of care?

 

  1. Critical pathway
  2. Situation, background, assessment, and recommendation (SBAR)
  3. Transfer report
  4. Medication administration record (MAR)

 

A nurse is admitting a client who has an abdominal wound with a large amount of purulent drainage. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse indicate?

 

  1. Protective environment
  2. Airborne precautions
  3. Droplet precaution
  4. Contact precautions

 

A nurse is caring for a client who is having difficulty breathing. The client is lying in bed with a nasal cannula delivering oxygen. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take first?

 

  1. Suction the client’s airway
  2. Administer a bronchodilator
  3. Increase the humidity in the client’s room
  4. Assist the client to an upright position

 

 

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A nurse is reviewing a client’s fluid and electrolyte status which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

 

  1. BUN 15 mg/dL
  2. Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
  3. Sodium 143 mEq/L
  4. Potassium 5.4 mEq/L

 

 

A nurse is lifting a bedside cabinet to move it closer to a client who is sitting in a chair. To prevent self- injury, which of the following actions should the nurse take when lifting the object?

 

  1. Bend at the waist
  2. Keep his feet close together
  3. Use his back muscles for lifting
  4. Stand close to the cabinet when lifting

 

 

A nurse is reviewing a client’s medication prescription, which reads, “digoxin 0.25 by mouth every day.” Which of the following components of the prescription should the nurse question?

 

  1. The medication
  2. The route
  3. The dose
  4. The frequency

 

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has had his diet prescription changed to a mechanical soft diet. Which of the following food items should the nurse remove from the client’s breakfast tray?

 

  1. Tomato juice
  2. Banana slices
  3. Pancakes
  4. Fried egg

 

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has terminal liver cancer. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is experiencing spiritual distress?

 

  1. “What could I have done to deserve this illness?”
  2. “I blame medical science for not curing me.”
  3. “Where is my daughter at a time like this?”
  4. “Will I ever begin to feel in charge of my life again?”

 

 

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A nurse is caring for a client who is refusing a blood transfusion for religious reasons. The client’s partner wants the client to have the blood transfusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

 

  1. Ask the client to consider a direct donation
  2. Withhold the blood transfusion
  3. Request a consultation with the ethics committee D.. Ask the client’s family to intervene

 

 

A nurse is reviewing protocol in preparation for suctioning secretions from a client who has a new tracheostomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

 

  1. Use a resuscitation bag with 80% oxygen prior to the procedure
  2. Select a suction catheter that is half the size of the lumen
  3. Place the end of the suction catheter in water-soluble lubricant
  4. Adjust the wall suction apparatus to a pressure of 170 mmHg

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has limited mobility in his lower extremities. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent skin breakdown?

 

  1. Place the client in high-Fowler’s position
  2. Increase the client’s intake of carbohydrates
  3. Massage reddened areas with unscented lotion
  4. Have the client use a trapeze bar when changing position

 

 

 

A nurse is talking with the partner of an older adult male client who has dementia. The client’s partner expresses frustration about finding time to manage household responsibilities while caring for his partner. The nurse should identify that he is going through which of the following types of role- performance stress?

 

  1. Role ambiguity
  2. Sick role
  3. Role overload
  4. Role conflict

 

  1. Role overload

 

A nurse in a long-term care facility is planning to perform hygiene care for a new resident. Which of the following assessment questions is the nurse’s priority before beginning this procedure?

 

  1. “When do you usually bathe, in the morning or in the evening?”
  2. “Do you prefer a bath or a shower?”
  3. “At what temperature do you prefer your bath water?”
  4. “Are you able to help with your hygiene care?”

 

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has herpes zoster and asks the nurse about the use of complementary and alternative therapies for pain control. The nurse should inform the client that his condition is a contraindication for which of the following therapies?

 

  1. Biofeedback
  2. Aloe
  3. Feverfew
  4. Acupuncture

 

 

 

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A nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client who will require oxygen therapy at home. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands how to manage this therapy at home?

 

  1. “I’ll make sure that, when my friend comes by, she smokes at least 6 feet away from my oxygen.
  2. “I’ll use a woolen blanket if I get chilly while I’m using my oxygen.
  3. “I’ll check the wires and cables on my TV to make sure they are in good working order.
  4. “I’ll lay my oxygen tank down on the floor when the grandchildren visit so they don’t knock it over.

 

 

A nurse is preparing to administer an injection of an opioid medication to a client. The nurse draws out 1 mL of the medication from a 2 mL vial. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

 

  1. Ask another nurse to observe the medication wastage
  2. Notify the pharmacy when wasting the medication
  3. Lock the remaining medication in the controlled substances cabinet
  4. Dispose of the vial with the remaining medication in a sharps container

 

A nurse is caring for a client who is terminally ill. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client’s family member is coping effectively with the situation?

 

  1. “We are not worried. We still have hope that everything will be okay.”
  2. “This is a difficult time, but we are helping each other through this.”
  3. “After he comes home, we can plan our family reunion.”
  4. “We do not need to talk about funeral arrangements at this time.”

 

A nurse is planning care to improve self-feeding for a client who has vision loss. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

 

  1. Tell the client which food should eat first.
  2. Provide small-handle utensils for the client.
  3. Thicken liquids on the client’s tray
  4. Use a clock pattern to describe food on the client’s plate

 

A nurse is preparing to transfer a client who has right-sided weakness from the bed to a chair. In what order should the nurse take the following actions to assist the client?

 

 

 

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A nurse is caring for a client who reports pain. When documenting the quality of the client’s pain on an initial pain assessment, the nurse should record which of the following client statements?

  1. “I’m having mild pain.”
  2. “The pain is like a dull ache in my stomach.”
  3. “I notice that the pain gets worse after I eat.”
  4. “The pain makes me feel nauseous.”

 

 

A nurse is caring for a client who asks about the purpose of advance directives. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

 

  1. “They allow the court to overrule an adult client’s refusal of medical treatment.”
  2. “They indicate the form of treatment the client is willing to accept in the event of serious illness.”
  3. “They permit a client to withhold medical information from health care personnel.”
  4. “They allow health care personnel in the emergency department to stabilize a client’s condition.”

 

A nurse is completing an admission assessment for a client who reports vomiting and diarrhea for the past 3 days. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?

 

  1. Neck vein distention
  2. Urine specific gravity 1.010
  3. Rapid heart rate
  4. Blood pressure 144/82 mmHg

 

 

 

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A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and refuses to use an incentive spirometer following major abdominal surgery. Which of the following is the nurse’s priority action?

  1. Request that a respiratory therapist discuss the technique for incentive spirometry
  2. Determine the reasons why the client is refusing to use the incentive spirometer
  3. Document the client’s refusal to participate in health restorative activities
  4. Administer a pain medication to the client

 

A nurse is caring for a client who has an NG tube and is receiving intermittent feedings through an open system. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

 

  1. Rinse the feeding bag with water between feedings
  2. Tell the client to keep the head of the bed elevated at least 30 degrees
  3. Make sure the enteral formula is at room temperature
  4. Wipe the top of the formula can with alcohol

 

A nurse is administering an otic medication to an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure that the medication reaches the inner ear?

 

  1. Press gently on the tragus of the client’s ear
  2. Pack a small piece of cotton deep into the ear canal
  3. Move the client’s auricle down and back toward her head
  4. Tilt the client’s head back for 5 minutes

 

A nurse is using an open irrigation technique to irrigate a client’s indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  1. Place the client in a side-lying position
  2. Instill 15 mL of irrigation fluid into the catheter with each flush
  3. Subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client’s urine output
  4. Perform the irrigation using a 20 mL syringe

 

 

A nurse is planning to insert a peripheral IV catheter for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

 

  1. Insert the catheter at a 45-degree angle
  2. Place the client’s arm in a dependent position
  3. Shave excess hair from the insertion site
  4. Initiate IV therapy in the veins of the hand

 

 

A nurse is assisting a client who is postoperative with the use of an incentive spirometer. Into which of the following positions should the nurse place the client?

 

  1. Side-lying
  2. Supine
  3. Semi-Fowler’s
  4. Trendelenburg

 

 

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Question 4:     Health Care

 

1)      A nurse is caring for a patient who has a terminal illness and is approaching death. The patient is short of breath and has noisy respirations from secretions in their airway. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  1. a)      Turn the patient every 2 hr
  2. i)        The nurse should turn the pt at least once every 2 hr to break up the secretions in the pt’s lungs and prevent noisy respirations
  3. b)      Administer an antiemetic every 6 hr
  4. i)        The nurse should admin antiemetics for pts experiencing nausea or vomiting. However, this is not the correct action to take when assisting a pt who’s experiencing respiratory difficulty at the end  of life
  5. c)      Hold oral care
  6. i)        The nurse should provide frequent oral care in order to keep the pt’s mouth moist and provide comfort
  7. d)     Increase the room’s temperature
  8. i)        Keeping the air temperature cool by allowing air to circulate with the use of a fan or opening windows is more comfortable for a pt who is dying and will decrease air hunger

 

2)      A nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent the spread of infection?

  1. a)      Carry a patient’s soiled linens out of the room in a mesh linen bag
  2. i)        The nurse should place soiled linens in a fluid-resistant bag to reduce the risk of infection transmission
  3. b)      Place a patient who has tuberculosis in a room with negative pressure airflow
  4. i)        A pt who has tb req’s airborn precautions, which include placing the pt in a room that has negative pressure airflow to reduce the risk of infection transmission
  5. c)      Provide disposable plates and utensils for a patient who is HIV positive
  6. i)        Ppl transmit HIV mainly by blood and sexual activity; therefore, a pt who is HIV+ does not req disposable plates and utensils. Standard precautions are sufficient
  7. d)     Dispose of a patient’s blood saturated dressing in a trash bag inside a second trash bag
  8. i)        The nurse should dispose of items that have a large amount of blood in a biohazard bag that is impervious to micro-organisms

 

3)      A nurse is using an open irrigation technique to irrigate a client’s indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  1. a)      Place the client in a side lying position
  2. i)         The nurse should place the client in a supine or dorsal recumbent position for maximal access to the catheter
  3. b)      Instill 15 mL of irrigation fluid into the catheter with each flush
  4. i)        Open irrigation technique requires instilling 30-40 mL of irrigation fluid
  5. c)      Subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client’s urine output
  6. i)        The nurse should calculate the fluid used for irrigation and subtract it from the clients total urinary output
  7. d)     Perform the irrigation using a 20 mL syringe
  8. i)        The nurse should use a 30- 50 mL syringe to perform open irrigation

 

4)      A home health nurse is performing a follow-up visit for a client who has a gastrostomy tube through which they receive intermittent feedings and medications. The client has recently developed diarrhea. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a possible cause of the diarrhea?

  1. a)      The client is receiving formula at room temperature
  2. i)        Cold formula can cause gastric cramping; therefore, room temperature formula is appropriate and is likely not because of the clients diarrhea
  3. b)      The feedings in fuse at a slow, continuous drip over 8 hr each night
  4. i)        Diarrhea is more likely to develop with rapid installation of enteral formula
  5. c)      The clients caregiver washes out the feeding bag with warm water once every 24 hr
  6. i)        Feeding bags should be washed out after each feeding and replaced with a new feeding back every 24 hr to prevent bacterial contamination. The nurse should reinforce this information with the clients caregiver to avoid future contamination
  7. d)     The clients caregiver flushes the tubing with water before and after administering medications
  8. i)        It is correct to flush the tubing with water before and after administering medications to prevent clogging of the tube

 

 

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5)      A nurse is initiating a protective environment for a client who has had an allogeneic stem cell transplant. Which of the following precautions should the nurse plan for this client?

  1. a)      Make sure the client’s room has at least six air exchanges per hour
  2. i)        A protective environment requires at least 12 air exchanges per hour
  3. b)      Make sure the client wears a mask when outside her room if there is construction in the area
  4. i)        And allogeneic stem cell transplant compromises the client’s immune system, greatly increasing the risk for infection. The client will need protection from breathing in any pathogens in the environment.
  5. c)      Place the client in a private room with negative pressure airflow
  6. i)        The nurse should place the client in a private room that provides positive pressure airflow
  7. d)     Wear an N95 respirator when it giving the client direct care
  8. i)        The nurse should wear an N 95 respirator mask when caring for clients who require airborne precautions, not a protective environment

 

 

6)      A nurse is admitting a client who has an abdominal wound with a large amount of purulent drainage. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?

  1. a)      Protective environment
  2. i)        Client to have a compromised immune system require a protective environment
  3. b)      Airborne precautions
  4. i)        Airborne precautions or a requirement for clients who have infections that spread via droplet nuclei that are smaller than 5 microns in diameter, including tuberculosis and measles
  5. c)      Droplets precautions
  6. i)        Droplet precautions or a requirement for clients who have infections that spread via droplet nuclei that are larger than 5 microns in diameter, including rubella, meningococcal  pneumonia, and a streptococcal pharyngitis
  7. d)     Contact precautions
  8. i)        Major wound infections required contact precautions, which means the nurse should admit the client to a private room. All caregivers should wear a gown and gloves during direct contact with this client

 

7)      A nurse is teaching a client and his family how to care for the clients tracheostomy at home. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

  1. a)      Remove the outer cannula cautiously for routine cleaning
  2. i)        The outer cannula stabilizes the airway; therefore, the client should never remove it for cleaning
  3. b)      Use a tracheostomy covers when outdoors
  4. i)        Tracheostomy covers protect the client’s airway from cold air, dust and other airborne particles
  5. c)      Use sterile technique when performing tracheostomy care at home
  6. i)        In the home environment, medical a sepsis with clean technique is appropriate
  7. d)     Cleaned irritated skin with full strength hydrogen peroxide
  8. i)        Hydrogen peroxide can irritated skin; therefore, the nurse should instruct the client and family to use 0.9% sodium chloride irrigation to cleanse the site and prevent further irritation

 

8)      A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and is exhibiting signs of hemorrhagic shock. The nurse notifies the surgeon, who tells the nurse to continue to measure the client’s vital signs every 15 min and to report back in 1 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

  1. a)      Document the provider’s statement in the medical record
  2. i)        The nurse should document the provider’s directions in the medical record for later reference; however, another action is the nurse’s priority
  3. b)      Complete an incident report
  4. i)        The nurse should prepare an incident report detailing the delay in treatment for later review and action for prevention of future occurrences; however, another action is the nurse’s priority
  5. c)      Consult the facility’s risk manager
  6. i)        The nurse should discuss the situation with the facility’s risk management dept to help determine the need for preventative actions; however, another actions is the nurse’s priority
  7. d)     Notify the nursing manager
  8. i)        The greatest risk to the client is not receiving timely intervention for a deterioration in physiological status; therefore, the next action the nurse should take is to activate the chain of command to ensure that the client receives the necessary care

 

9)      A client who is postoperative is verbalizing pain as a 2 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the preoperative teaching she received about pain management?

  1. a)      “I think I should take my pain medication more often, since it is not controlling my pain”
  2. i)        As a 2 on a scale of 0 to 10, this client’s pain is mild. Additional analgesic medication is unnecessary at this time
  3. b)      “Breathing faster will help me keep my mind off the pain.”
  4. i)        Rapid breathing can lead to hyperventilation, while slow, focused, breathing helps induce relaxation, which can help with managing pain
  5. c)      “It might help me to listen to music while I’m lying in bed.”
  6. i)        Listening to music is an effective nonpharmacological intervention for the management of mild pain
  7. d)     “I don’t want to walk today because I have some pain.”
  8. i)        Postoperative clients need to ambulate even if they are having mild pain

 

10)  A nurse is assessing a client’s readiness to learn about insulin self-administration. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to learn?

  1. a)      “I can concentrate best in the morning.”
  2. i)        The pt’s statement indicates a readiness to learn bc he’s verbalizing the best time for him to learn
  3. b)      “It is difficult to read the instructions because my glasses are at home.”
  4. i)        The pt’s statement indicates the pt is not ready to learn. The pt has to have the tools he needs to learn and comprehend the info
  5. c)      “I’m wondering why I need to learn this.”
  6. i)        The pts statement indicates a reluctance to learn information he thinks he might not need to know
  7. d)     “You will have to talk to my wife about this.”
  8. i)        With this statement, the pt is redirecting the nurse’s attempt to teach toward someone else, indicating that he is not ready to learn

 

 

11)  A nurse is planning strategies to manage time effectively for client care. Which of the following strategies should the nurse implement?

  1. a)      Comine client care tasks when caring for multiple clients
  2. i)        The nurse should complete the tasks for one pt before beginning the tasks for another client to reduce fragmentation of care and avoid potential errors
  3. b)      Wait until the end of the shift to document client care
  4. i)        Documentation should be completed in a timely manner after care is performed to reduce errors and unsafe client care. Performing documentation at the end of the shift tis not effective time management
  5. c)      Use the planning step of the nursing process to prioritize client care delivery
  6. i)        Setting up a list of goals and tasks to perform for pts can help the nurse set care priorities and plan tasks accordingly. The priority to do list is an efficient tool for optimal time management
  7. d)     Allow for interruptions in tasks to discuss client care issue with colleagues
  8. i)        An important principle of time management is controlling interruptions to reduce errors and loss of care delivery time

 

12)  A nurse is caring for a client who asks about the purpose of advance directives. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

  1. a)      “They allow the court to overrule and adult client’s refusal of medical treatment.”
  2. i)        A court can only overrule an adult pt’s refusal of medical treatment if the pt is legally incompetent
  3. b)      “They indicate the form of treatment a client is willing to accept in the event of a serious illness”
  4. i)        Advanced directives include a living will, which permits pts to direct the treatment they will receive in the even of a medical emergency or serious illness
  5. c)      “They permit a client to withhold medical information from health care personnel”
  6. i)        The Americans with Disabilities Act, not advance directives, protects the privacy of a pt who chooses not to disclose a medical disability
  7. d)     “They allow health care personnel in the emergency department to stabilize a client’s condition.”
  8. i)        The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act, not advance directives, directs emergency personnel to provide screening and stabilizing care before discharging or transferring pts to another facility

 

13)  A nurse is preparing to administer an injection of an opioid medication to a client. The nurse draws out 1 mL of the medication from a 2 mL vial. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  1. a)      Ask another nurse to observe the medication wastage
  2. i)        A second nurse must witness the disposal of any portion of a dose of a controlled substance
  3. b)      Notify the pharmacy when wasting the medication
  4. i)        Pharmacies do not req notification of the disposal of a portion of a dose of a controlled substance
  5. c)      Lock the remaining  medication in the controlled substances cabinet
  6. i)        The nurse should not lock the remaining  controlled substance in the cabinet bc this is a violation of the Controlled Substances Act
  7. d)     Dispose of the vial with the remaining medication in the sharps container
  8. i)        The nurse should not dispose of the remaining controlled sub in the sharps bc this is a violation of the Controlled Substances Act

 

14)  A nurse is caring for a pt who has a terminal illness and is at the end of life. The nurse should recognize that which of the following statements by the pt’s partner indicates effective coping?

  1. a)      “I am not worried bc I still have hope that he will be okay”
  2. i)        This statement reflects false hope and possible denial of the terminal nature of the pt’s illness. Denial involves the blocking of painful thoughts or feelings that induce anxiety
  3. b)      “I am relying on support from our family during this time”
  4. i)        This statement indicates effective coping bc the partner is relying on others in the family for support during a time of crisis
  5. c)      “We can plan our family reunion once he recovers and comes home”
  6. i)        This statement reflects false hope and possibly denial of the terminal nature of the pt’s illness. Denial involves the blocking of painful thoughts or feelings that induce anxiety
  7. d)     “We don’t see any reason to start discussing funeral arrangements right now”
  8. i)        This statement reflects potential false hope about and possible denial of the terminal nature of the pt’s illness. It also indicates the partner’s potential inability or unwillingness to address unpleasant or challenging issues related to the pt’s health

 

 

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15)  A nurse is planning to insert a peripheral IV catheter for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

  1. a)      Insert the catheter at 45* angle
  2. i)        Generally, the nurse should insert the catheter at a 10*-30* angle. However, for an older adult client, an angle or 10*-50* is preferable because weins are closer to the skin surface as aging diminishes subcutaneous tissue
  3. b)      Place the client’s arm in a dependent position
  4. i)         The nurse should the pt’s arm in a dependent position bc the veins will dilate due to gravity
  5. c)      Shave excess hair from the insertion site
  6. i)        The nurse should clip excess hair from the iv insertion site and avoid shaving the area bc shaving can cause breaks and cuts in the skin that could place the pt at risk for infection
  7. d)     Initiate iv therapy in the veins of the hand
  8. i)        The nurse should avoid using the fragile veins of an older adult’s hands bc the loss of subq tissue can allow those veins to roll away from the needle. Also, having an IV catheter in the pt’s hand can interfere w the pt’s performance of activities of daily living and can diminish an older adult’s sense of independence and mobility.

 

16)  A nurse is caring for a pt who has dementia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take to minimize the risk for injury to the pt.

  1. a)      Use a bed exit alarm system
  2. i)        The nurse should identify that a pt who has dementia requires assistance when exiting their bed and might be unable to remember to ask for help. The pt’s condition places them at a risk for falling; therefore, a bed alarm system can alert staff members that the pt is trying to get out of bed and requires assistance
  3. b)      Raise four side rails while the pt is in bed
  4. i)        Raising four side rails when the pt is in bed is form of restrain and increases the risk for falls and injury
  5. c)      Apply one soft wrist restraint
  6. i)        Applying one soft restraint is a physical restraint requiring a prescription. Other forms of distraction or intervention to maintain pt safety should be attempted for pts who have dementia
  7. d)     Dim the lights in the pt’s room
  8. i)        Dimming the lights in the room for a pt who has dementia can reduce visibility and increase the risk for injury

 

 

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17)  A nurse is caring for a pt who is postoperative following a knee arthroplasty and requires the use of thigh length sequential compression sleeves. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  1. a)      Assist the pt into a prone position
  2. i)        The nurse should place the pt in a dorsal recumbent or semi Fowler’s position to facilitate application of sleeves
  3. b)      Place a sleeve over the top of each leg w the opening at the knee
  4. i)        The nurse should place the sleeve under each leg w the opening at the knee and then wrap the sleeve around the leg so that it is secure
  5. c)      Make sure two fingers can fit under the sleeves
  6. i)        The nurse should ensure that there is enough space for two fingers to fit under the sleeve bc any less space bt the sleeves and the legs can inhibit circulation when the sleeves inflate
  7. d)     Set the ankle pressure at 65 mm Hg
  8. i)        The nurse should set the ankle pressure bt 35-55 Hg to achieve a therapeutic effect while also preventing damage to the pt’s skin and circulatory impairment

 

18)  A nurse is caring for a pt who has a sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

  1. a)      Numbness of the extremities
  2. i)        Numbness of the extremities is manifestation of hyperkalemia
  3. b)      Bradycardia
  4. i)        Tachycardia is a manifestation of hyponatremia along with hypovolemia
  5. c)      Positive Chvostek’s sign
  6. i)        A positive Chvostek’s sign is a manifestation of hypomagnesemia and hypocalcemia
  7. d)     Abdominal cramping
  8. i)        The pt has hyponatremia, which is a low sodium level. Manifestations include abdominal cramping, weakness, confusion, lethargy, headache, and nausea

 

19)  A nurse is auscultating the anterior chest of a pt who was newly admitted to a medical-surgical unit. Listen to the audio clip of what the nurse auscultates through the stethoscope and identify the type of breath sounds (click on the audio button to listen to the clip).

  1. a)      Crackles
  2. i)        Unlike these breath sounds, crackles (also called rales) are discontinuous sounds heard primarily during inhalation and resulting from air bubbling through fluid or mucus in the airways
  3. b)      Rhonchi
  4. i)        Rhonchi are dry, low pitched, snore like noises produced in the throat or bronchial tube due to partial obstruction, such as by secretions
  5. c)      Friction rub
  6. i)        Friction rub is a scratching or squeaking sound that persists throughout the respiratory cycle
  7. d)     Normal breath sounds
  8. i)        These are normal Broncho vesicular breath sounds, characteristically of moderate intensity and sounding like blowing as air moves through the larger airways on inspiration and expiration

 

 

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20)  A nurse is talking with an older adult pt who is contemplating retirement. The pt states, “I keep thinking about how much I enjoy my job. I’m not sure I want to retire.” Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

  1. a)      “You would have so much more time to spend w your family”
  2. i)        This response is nontherapeutic bc the nurse is minimizing the pt’s feelings and making assumptions about the pt’s relationships
  3. b)      “You should consider getting a part time job or doing volunteer work.”
  4. i)        This response is nontherapeutic bc the nurse is minimizing the pt’s feelings and offering personal advice
  5. c)      “Let’s talk about how the change in your job status will affect you”
  6. i)        The response is therapeutic bc the nurse is encouraging the pt to verbalize feelings about the life transition of retirement
  7. d)     “Why wouldn’t you want to retire and relax?”
  8. i)        This response is nontherapeutic bc the nurse is asking a “why” question, which can provoke a defensive response from the pt

 

21)  A nurse is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a pt who is postoperative and has fluid volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the nurse identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?

  1. a)      Increase in hematocrit
  2. i)        Fluid volume deficit causes an increase in hematocrit level due to depletion of extracellular fluid. With correction of the imbalance, the hematocrit level should decrease
  3. b)      Increase in respiratory rate
  4. i)        Fluid volume causes an increase in respiratory rate. With correction of the imbalance, the respiratory rate should return to the expected range
  5. c)      Decrease in heart rate
  6. i)        Fluid volume deficit causes an increase in respiratory rate. With correction of the imbalance, the respiratory rate should return to the expected range.
  7. d)     Decrease in capillary refill time
  8. i)        Fluid volume deficit slows capillary refill. With correction of the imbalance, capillary refill time should return to the expected range

 

 

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22)  A nurse is caring for a pt who is postoperative and refuses to use an incentive spirometer following major abdominal surgery. Which of the following actions is the nurse’s priority?

  1. a)      Request that a respiratory therapist discuss the technique for incentive spirometry with the pt.
  2. i)        The nurse can request that another team member discuss the use of the incentive spirometer w the pt to encourage the pt to use it; however, this is not the priority action for the nurse to take.
  3. b)      Determine the reasons why the pt is refusing to use the incentive spirometer
    i)     The 1staction the nurse should take when using the nursing process is to assess the client; therefore the priority action for the nurse to take is to determine why the pt is refusing the treatment
  4. c)      Document the pt’s refusal to participate in health restorative activities
  5. i)        If other interventions to promote the pt’s use of the incentive spirometer are unsuccessful, the nurse must document the pt’s refusal; however, this is not the priority action for the nurse to take.
  6. d)     Administer a pain medication to the client
  7. i)        Pain or incisional complication might make the pt refuse spirometry; however, administering medication is not the priority action for the nurse to take.

 

23)  A nurse is talking w the partner of a pt who has a dementia. The pt’s partner expresses frustration about finding time to manage household responsibilities while caring for their partner. The nurse should identify that the partner is experiencing which of the following types of role-performance stress?

  1. a)      Role ambiguity
  2. i)        Role ambiguity occurs when people are unclear about the expectations of their role in a given situation
  3. b)      Sick role
  4. i)        Sick role refers to the expectations placed on the individual who has the alteration in health, rather than the caregiver
  5. c)      Role overload
  6. i)        The partner’s expression of frustration is an example of role overload, which refers to having more responsibilities within a role than one person can manage
  7. d)     Role conflict
  8. i)        Role conflict develops when a person must assume multiple roles that have opposing expectations

 

 

 

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24)  A nurse is assessing four adult patients. Which of the following physical assessment techniques should the nurse use?

  1. a)      Use the face, legs, activity, and consolability (FLACC) pain rating scale for a pt who is experiencing pain
  2. i)        The nurse should use an age appropriate pain-rating scale, such as the visual analog or numerical scale, when assessing the pain level of an adult. The FLACC pain rating scale is used for pts ages from 2 mo’s to 7 yrs
  3. b)      Ensure the bladder of the blood pressure cuff surrounds 80% of the pt’s arm
  4. i)        The nurse should use a blood pressure cuff w a bladder that surrounds 80% of pt’s arm circumference to give an accurate reading
  5. c)      Obtain an apical heart rate by auscultating at the third intercostal space left of the sternum
  6. i)        The nurse should place the stethoscope at the point of maximal impulse, which is at the 5thintercostal space at the midclavicular line left of the sternum
  7. d)     Palpate the pt’s abdomen before auscultating bowel sounds
  8. i)        When assessing an adult client’s abdomen, the nurse should auscultate bowel sounds before performing palpation in order not to change the character of the sounds

 

25)  A nurse is admitting a pt who is having an exacerbation of heart failure. In planning this pt’s care, when should the nurse initiate discharge planning?

  1. a)      During the admission process
  2. i)        Discharge planning should begin as soon as the pt is undergoing the admission process. The nurse should begin to assess the pt’s needs and plan for care both during and after the pt’s time in the facility
  3. b)      As soon as the pt’s condition is stable
  4. i)        Although it is appropriate to defer pt teaching until the pt is stable and receptive to learning, the initation of discharge planning does not depend on the pt’s physiological stability.
  5. c)      During the initial team conference
  6. i)        Team conferences facilitate discharge planning, but they are not essential for initiating the planning process
  7. d)     After consulting with the pt’s family
  8. i)        The nurse should only consult with the pt’s family if the pt gives the nurse permission to share that information. In the case of a pt who has an exacerbation of heart failure, delating discharge planning until this time could result in overlooking essential care needs.

 

26)  A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a pt who will be using a walker. Which of the following pt statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

  1. a)      “I can place an extension cord across my living room to plug in my television”
  2. i)        Extension cords should be securely fastened to the floor and should be run along the edge of the wall, if possible, to avoid the risk for tripping
  3. b)      “I will hire someone to trim the tree that hangs low over the stairs of my front porch”
  4. i)        Clearing stairs of any object that could cause the pt to trip or require them to bend over while walking will decrease the risk for falls.
  5. c)      “I will place my alarm clock on my bedroom dresser across the room”
  6. i)        Frequently used items like an alarm clock, glasses, or disposable tissues should be placed within reach, such as on the pt’s night stand. This helps to prevent the pt from needing to get up and potentially falling in the night.
  7. d)     “I will replace the old throw rug in my kitchen with a new one”
  8. i)        Using throw rugs increases the pt’s risk for falls bc they create a tripping and slipping hazard for the pt

 

27)  A nurse is performing a skin assessment for a pt who expresses concern about skin cancer. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a potential indication of a skin malignancy?

  1. a)      A lesion with uniform pigmentation
  2. i)        Variations in pigmentation are a possible indication of a skin malignancy. A lesion with uniform pigmentation is not an expected indication of a skin malignancy.
  3. b)      New appearance of petechiae
  4. i)        Petechiae are capillaries that have burst under the skin and appear as small spots on the skin. Although they can be indications of other conditions, petechiae are not an expected indication of a skin malignancy.
  5. c)      A mole with an asymmetrical appearance
  6. i)        An uneven or asymmetrical shape is a potential indication of a skin malignancy. This is manifested when part of a lesion or mole looks different from the other part.
  7. d)     The presence of a papule
  8. i)        Papules are solid elevations that are palpable in the skin and are less than 1 cm (0.39 in) in size. The are not an expected indication of a skin malignancy

 

 

 

 

 

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28)  A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a pt about self-administering heparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

  1. a)      Insert the needle at a 15* angle
  2. i)        The nurse should instruct the pt to insert the needle at a 45* to 90* angle to administer the medication into the sub tissue
  3. b)      Aspirate for blood return prior to administration
  4. i)        The nurse should instruct the pt not to aspirate for blood return bc this can cause tissue damage and bruising
  5. c)      Administering the medication into the abdomen
  6. i)        The nurse should instruct the pt to administer the medication into the abdomen at least 5.08 cm (2 in) from the umbilicus. The pt should pinch or spread the skin at the injection site to administer the medication into the sub tissue.
  7. d)     Massage the site following the injection
  8. i)        The nurse should instruct the pt not to massage the site bc this can cause tissue damage and bruising

 

29)   A nurse is reviewing evidence-based practice principles about administration of oxygen therapy with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?

  1. a)      Regulate the flow rate by aligning the rate with top of the ball inside the flow meter
  2. i)        The nurse should regulate the oxygen flow rate by aligning the rate on the flow meter w the middle of the silver ball inside the meter
  3. b)      Regulate oxygen via nasal cannula at a flow rate of no more than 6 L/min
  4. i)        Evidence-based practice supports a flow rate of 1 to 6 L/min via nasal cannula. Rates above 6 L/ min have a drying effect and force pts to swallow air excessively without increasing their fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2)
  5. c)      Make sure the reservoir bag of a partial rebreathing mask remains deflated
  6. i)        The reservoir bag should inflate by one-third to one-half with inspiration. If it remains deflated, it indicates that pts are breathing in too much of the carbon dioxide they exhale
  7. d)     Use petroleum jelly to lubricate the pt’s nares, face, and lips
  8. i)        Evidence-based practice supports the use of water soluble lubricant to protect the pt’s skin from the drying effect of oxygen

 

30)  A nurse is preparing a change of shift report. Which of the following tools or documents should the nurse use to communicate continuity of care?

  1. a)      Critical pathway
  2. i)        A critical pathway is an extraprofessional approach to planning all phases of pt care
  3. b)      Situation, background, assessment, and recommendation (SBAR)
  4. i)        SBAR is a communication tool nurses use to relate a pt’s status during a change of shift report
  5. c)      Transfer report
  6. i)        The nurse should use a transfer report when the cpt is moving from one health care area or facility to another
  7. d)     Medication administration record (MAR)
  8. i)        The nurse should use the MAR to document medication administration

 

31)  A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously to a pt. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  1. a)      Administer the medication with the needle at a 45* angle
  2. i)        The nurse should insert the needle at 45* to 90* angle for a sub injection
  3. b)      Administer the medication into the pt’s nondominant arm
  4. i)        The nurse should administer enoxaparin into the abdomen, at least 5 cm (2 in) from the umbilicus
  5. c)      Pull the pt’s skin laterally or downward prior to administration
  6. i)        The z-track technique involves displacing the skin laterally or downward prior to administration of an IM injection
  7. d)     Massage the injection site after administration
  8. i)        The nurse should not massage the injection site following the injection of an anticoagulant due to the risk for bruising

 

32)  A nurse is evaluating a pt’s use of cane. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as an indication of correct use?

  1. a)      The top of the cane is parallel to the pt’s waist
  2. i)        The top of the cane should be parallel to the client’s greater trochanter
  3. b)      When walking, the pt moves the can 46 cm (18 in) forward
  4. i)        To maintain balance, the pt should advance the cane about 15 to 30 cm (6 to 12 in) at a time
  5. c)      The pt holds the cane on the stronger side of her body
  6. i)        The pt should hold the cane on the stronger side of her body to increase support and maintain alignment
  7. d)     The pt moves her stronger limb forward with one cane
  8. i)        The pt should move her weaker leg forward with the cane. The divides the pt’s body weight between the cane and stronger leg

 

 

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33)  A nurse is assessing a pt who reports increased pain following physical therapy. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask when assessing the quality of the pt’s pain?

  1. a)      “Is your pain constant or intermittent?”
  2. i)        Asking the pt whether the pain is constant or intermittent determines the onset, duration, and pattern of the pain.
  3. b)      “What would you rate your pain on a scale of 0-10?”
  4. i)        Asking the pt to rate the pain using the pain scale determines the intensity of the pain
  5. c)      “Does the pain radiate?”
  6. i)        Asking the pt whether the pain radiates determines the pain’s location
  7. d)     “Is your pain sharp or dull?”
  8. i)        Asking the pt whether the pain is sharp, dull, crushing, throbbing, aching, burning, electric-like, or shooting helps determine the quality of the pain

 

34)  A nurse is performing a home safety assessment for a pt who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which of the following observations should the nurse identify as proper safety protocol?

  1. a)      The pt uses a wool blanket on their bed
  2. i)        The pt should use a cotton blanket instead of wool blanket to avoid generating static electricity that could ignite the oxygen
  3. b)      The pt uses nonacetone nail polish remover
  4. i)        The pt should use nonflammable materials, such as nonacetone nail polish remover, while using supplemental oxygen
  5. c)      The pt stores an extra oxygen tank on its side under their bed
  6. i)        The pt should store extra oxygen tanks in upright position to maintain safety
  7. d)     The pt has a weekly inspection checklist for oxygen equipment
  8. i)        The pt or caregiver should inspect oxygen equipment daily

 

35)  A nurse is preparing to apply a dressing for a pt who has a stage 2 pressure injury. Which of the following types of dressing should the nurse use?

  1. a)      Alginate
  2. i)        Alginate dressings are used to treat stage 3 and 4 pressure injuries to absorb drainage. Alginate forms a soft gel when it comes in contact with drainage
  3. b)      Guaze
  4. i)        Moistened gauze promotes healing in stage 4 or unstageable pressure injuries by causing debridement and allowing granulation of the wound bed
  5. c)      Transparent
  6. i)        Transparent dressings promote healing in stage 1 pressure injuries by preventing further friction and shearing
  7. d)     Hydrocolloid
  8. i)        Hydrocolloid dressings promote healing in stage 2 pressure injuries by creating a moist wound be

 

36)  A nurse is caring for a pt who has a respiratory infection. Which of the following techniques should the nurse use when performing nasotracheal suctioning for the pt?

  1. a)      Insert the suction catheter while the pt is swallowing
  2. i)        The nurse should insert the suction catheter while the pt is inhaling to avoid inserting the catheter into the esophagus
  3. b)      Apply intermittent suction when withdrawing the catheter
  4. i)        The nurse should apply intermittent suction during the withdrawal of the catheter to prevent injury to the mucosa. However, suctioning continuously for more t

 

 

 

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Question 5:     Health Care

 

A&P – Chapter 7 MC Questions

1)    Which of the following bones is NOT part of the axial skeleton? a) Hyoid
b) Ribs
c) Vertebrae d) Carpals e) Sternum

2)    Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?
a)    Tarsals
b)    Tibia
c)    Sphenoid
d)    Scapula
e)    Clavicle

3)    Which of the following types of bone is the femur? a) Long bone
b) Short bone c) Flat bone

  1. d) Irregular bone e) Sesamoid bone

4)    Which following types of bone is the occipital bone? a) Long bone
b) Short bone c) Flat bone

  1. d) Irregular bone e) Sesamoid bone

5)    Which following types of bones comprise the ankles and wrists? a) Long bone
b) Sutural bone c) Irregular bone d) Sesamoid bone e) Short bone

6)    An opening or hole in a bone through which blood vessels, nerves and ligaments pass is called

  1. a
    a) fissure. b) foramen. c) fossa. d) meatus. e) sulcus.7) In the diagram, which bone is the flat b
  2. a)    A
    b)    B
    c)    C
    d)    D
    e)    E

8)    How many named bones are found in the adult human skeleton? a) 200
b) 206 c) 212 d) 227 e) 250

9) In the diagram, which bone is the short bone?

  1. a)    A
    b)    B
    c)    C
    d)    D
    e)    E

10)    Which gender shows the coccyx pointed inferiorly? a) Females
b) Males
c) Both genders
d) The coccyx does not point inferiorly in either gender

11) In the diagram, where is the ethmoid bone?

  1. a)    A
    b)    B
    c)    C
    d)    D
    e)    E

12)    Which of the vertebrae listed below would be the largest and strongest vertebra in adult humans?
a) C5 b) L4 c) T4 d) C7 e) T12

13) In the diagram, where is the lacrimal bone?

  1. a)    E
    b)    F
    c)    G
    d)    H
    e)    I

14)    What bone marking found on the second cervical vertebra projects superiorly into the anterior portion of the vertebral foramen of the atlas?
a) Primary projection b) Ocular process c) Odontoid process d) Cervical projection e) Cervix

15) In the diagram, where is the zygomatic bone?
G
b)    H
c)    I
d)    J
e)    None of these answer choices are correct.

16)    The primary function of the transverse and spinal processes of vertebrae is a) attachment site for muscles.
b) calcium storage.
c) to support the body of the vertebrae. d) to hold the hyoid in place.

  1. e) to create a passageway for the spinal cord17) In the diagram, where is the temporal bone?
  2. a)    A
    b)    B
    c)    C
    d)    G
    e)    None of the selections are correct

18)    The two primary curves of the adult vertebral column are the a) thoracic and sacral curves.
b) lumbar and sacral curves. c) cervical and lumbar curves. d) cervical and thoracic curves. e) cervical and sacral curves.

19) In the diagram, where is the vomer?
a)    D
b)    E
c)    F
d)    I
e)    J

20)    What is the purpose of the nucleus pulposus region of intervertebral discs? a) To compress the vertebral bones
b) To help absorb vertical shock to the spinal column c) Calcium storage
d) Spinal fluid reservoir e) Muscle attachment

21) In the diagram, which bone is considered the keystone of the cranial floor?
a)    E
b)    B
c)    G
d)    H
e)    I

22)    Ribs that have costal cartilage that attaches directly to the sternum are called a) floating ribs.
b) vertebrochondral ribs. c) false ribs.
d) true ribs.
e) separated ribs.

 

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23) In the diagram, where is the ethmoid bone?
a)    J
b)    K
c)    G
d)    H
e)    I

24)    Joe was found dead. His hyoid bone was broken. What was the most likely cause of death? a) Natural causes
b) Cardiac arrest c) Gunshot
d) Strangulation e) Choking

25) In the diagram, where is the mastoid process?
a)    J
b)    K
c)    G
d)    H
e)    I

26)    The hyoid bone is suspended by ligaments and muscle that extend from the _______ of the temporal bone.
a) mastoid process b) styloid process c) occipital condyle d) zygomatic process e) superior nuchal line

27) In the diagram, where is the palatine bone?
a)    A
b)    B
c)    C
d)    D
e)    E

28)    Which bone of the axial skeleton does NOT articulate with any other bone? a) Vertebrae
b) Ethmoid c) Sternum d) Hyoid e) Ilium

29) In the diagram, where is the nasal bone?

  1. a)    A
    b)    B
    c)    C
    d)    D
    e)    E

30)    This facial bone articulates with teeth. a) Lacrimal
b) Palatine c) Vomer d) Maxillae e) Nasal

 

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31) Where is the mandibular notch in the diagram?
a)    A
b)    B
c)    E
d)    F
e)    None of these answer choices are correct.

32) Where is the coronoid process in the diagram?
a)    A
b)    B
c)    E
d)    F
e)    None of these answer choices are correct.

33) This fontanel usually closes within 18 to 24 months after birth.

  1. a)    A
    b)    B
    c)    C
    d)    D
    e)    Both A and C

34)    A prominent ridge or elongated projection on a bone is called a a) crest.
b) trochanter. c) sulcus. d) fossa.
e) tubercle.

35) This is largest fontanel in size at birth.

  1. a)    A
    b)    B
    c)    C
    d)    D
    e)    Both A and D36) Where is the spinous process in the diagram?
  2. a)    B
    b)    C
    c)    D
    d)    E
    e)    F

37)    The tube-like passageway found in the temporal bone that allows sound waves to reach the eardrum is an example of which of the following bone surface markings?
a) fissure. b) foramen. c) fossa. d) meatus. e) sulcus.

 

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38)    Which of the cervical vertebrae contain a unique process that is responsible for the ability to move your head from side to side signifying “no”?
a)    A
b)    B
c)    C
d)    D
e)    E

39)    Which of the following is NOT a facial bone? a) Parietal
b) Nasal c) Maxillae d) Zygomatic e) Palatine

40)    Which of the cervical vertebrae are responsible for permitting the movement of the head seen when saying “yes”?
a)    A
b)    B
c)    C
d)    D
e)    E

41)    Which of the following bones is NOT visible from the anterior view of the skull? a) Parietal
b) Frontal c) Mandible d) Occipital e) Maxilla

42) Where is the vertebral body?

  1. a)    C
    b)    D
    c)    H
    d)    I
    e)    J

43)    These cranial bones contain the organs of hearing and balance, and articulate with the mandible.
a) Frontal b) Temporal c) Parietal d) Occipital e) Nasal

44) Where is the clavicular notch?

  1. a)    A
    b)    C
    c)    D
    d)    B
    e)    F

 

 

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45)    Which cranial bone is called the “keystone” of the cranial floor because it articulates with every other cranial bone?
a) Occipital b) Frontal c) Ethmoid d) Nasal e) Sphenoid

46) Where is the sternal angle?
a)    A
b)    C
c)    D
d)    E
e)    F

47)    This cranial bone is anterior to the sphenoid and posterior to the nasal bones. It contains foramina for the olfactory cranial nerve.
a) Ethmoid b) Frontal c) Palatine d) Maxilla e) Temporal

 

 

 

 Question 6:    Biology

 

(10 pts) Gene Model Checker:

Take a screenshot of your passed gene model checker page for your report (including both the left and right sides of the screen).

Explain any excused failures

 

 

(10 pts) Dot Plot

Take a screen shot of your dot plot and paste it into your report.

Discuss any problems with your gene model that you have noticed from the dot plot

 

 

(10 pts) Protein Alignment

take a screenshot of the sequence alignment. You may need to scroll down, and break it up into several screen shots to obtain the entire alignment.

does the overall length of your predicted sequence match well to the D. melanogaster orthologue? Are there large gaps (——-) in the alignment? If there are gaps, do these gaps map to a boundary between exons or in the middle of the exon? What can this mean?

 

 

(10 pts) GEP UCSC Genome Browser verification

Take of screen shot of the genome browser for your custom gene model and paste it in your report. Take three screen shots: one for the whole gene model (Custom Gene Model), one screenshot for the beginning of the gene and another for the end the gene.  Annotate (with an arrow) on the gene the START CODON and THE END CODON.

 

 

(10 pts) Conclusions

What do you conclude about your gene in terms of

Number of exons related to its orthologue in melanogaster

The identity and similarity related to its orthologue in melanogaster

Did the gene diverge from its orthologue in melanogaster?

How useful was the melanogaster gene model in figuring out the gene model for your isoform in the D. ananassae contig?

 

 

 

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Question 7:     Chemistry

 

How many grams of Cu(NO3)2 includes 96.0 g of oxygen (O) atoms?

 

Question 8:     Physics

 

An electromagnet of flux equal to 8Wb increases uniformly to 25Wb in a period of 5s. Calculate the voltage induced in a coil having 10 turns and is stationary in the magnetic field.

 

Question 9:     Psychology

 

Mental& Behavioral Health In Adolescents

 

  • What topic and research question did you pursue?
  • How is your research question relevant to your passions and interests in psychology and to your purpose?
  • Reflecting on the Library Research Knowledge Assessment, what skill areas were recommended for improvement and what skill areas did you do well on?
  • What strategies did you use to locate relevant articles?
  • Did you find Boolean commands (for example, AND, OR) confusing? What tips would you give others for learning these commands?
  • What insights did you gather about your research question?
  • What conclusions did you come to about the role of research in your future career vision?

 

 

 

 

 

 

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Question 10:   Statistics

 

Mid Semester Assignment

 

This assignment is to be your own work, though you may discuss the general concepts of the questions (e.g. which formulae are relevant etc.) with other students. Please read the following conditions and sign below to indicate you have followed them.

 

Conditions of Assessment

By signing below, you certify that:

The answers submitted are your own original work, and that all material drawn from other sources have been fully acknowledged where required.

No part of this assessment was written for you, provided to you by a third party, or was completed as a result of a third party assisting you

You have taken proper and reasonable care to prevent this work from being copied by another student.

You understand that plagiarism is the presentation of the work, idea or creation of another person as though it is your own, and is a serious academic offence. You have read and understood the policy on Academic Conduct and the University Charter of Student Rights.

Name Signature Student Number

 

  1. This test counts for 20% of your final mark for STAT1520. 2. Total Marks = 100.
    3. Where appropriate, working with reasons should be given.

Tick this box if you would like to scrap your test 1 mark and make this assignment worth 25% and test 2 worth 15%.

 

  1. (20 marks) The daily demand D for vegetarian pies at a bakery ranges between 0 and 5 and has the probability distribution given below.

(a)  What is the mean and variance of the demand for vegetarian pies each day? [5 marks]

(b)  All baking is done at the start of the day so there is no chance to make more during the day, however the bakery has to throw away any unsold pies at the end of the day.

If the bakery sells vegetarian pies at $4 per pie and they cost $1 each to produce, what is the mean and variance in the profit from vegetarian pies each day, if they make 5 vegetarian pies? [5 marks]

(c)  The bakery could make less than 5 pies at the start of the day to reduce wastage but that could possibly leave unfulfilled demand (assume in this question that the only veg- etarian option the bakery makes is these vegetarian pies and so if a customer wants a vegetarian pie and one is not available then they will walk away from the shop and not buy anything).

What is the optimal number of pies (between 1 and 5) to make at the start of the day

in order to maximize expected profit?

[10 marks]

3

  1. (14 marks) An optometrist sells frames in 3 price levels: $75 per frame, $150 per frame and $250 per frame. Customers purchase 1, 2 or 3 pairs of frames (we will assume that when a customer purchases multiple pairs of frames that they purchase all types from the same level). If X = the number of pairs of frames that a customer buys and Y = the price level at which the customer buys the frames, then the joint distribution of random variables X and Y is given in the table below.

y 75 150 250 pX(x) x

1 2 3

pY (y)

(a) Calculate E(X) and interpret it in the context of this question

 

(b) Calculate E(Y ) and interpret it in the context of this question (c) Calculate E(XY ) and interpret it in the context of this question

 

 

 

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(d) Calculate Cov(X, Y ) and interpret it in the context of this question (e) Are the random variables X and Y independent? Justify your answer.

 

[3 marks] [3 marks] [3 marks] [3 marks] [2 marks]

0.2

0.1 0.05

0.1 0 0.3 0.2

0 0.05

 

  1. (20 marks) Let X be the weight of flour (in g) contained in a 1kg bag of flour made by a certain company and assume X ∼ U (980, 1030).

 

(a)  Draw the graph of the pdf of X.

(b)  What is the mean and variance of X?

(c)  What is the probability that the bag of flour has less than 1kg of flour in it?

[4 marks] [2 marks] [2 marks]

(d)  If I take 20 bags of flour from the production line today, what is the probability that more than 10 of them will weigh less than 1kg? (Assume the weight of each of them follows the same distribution as above.) [4 marks]

(e)  The owner of this factory feels that the probability of a bag of flour weighing less than 1kg is too high, and adjusts the flour dispensing machine to try and reduce this probability. She randomly selects 15 bags of flour from the next day’s production and 3 of them are found to weigh less than 1kg. Conduct a hypothesis test to decide if there is enough evidence that she has reduced the probability of a bag of flour containing less than 1kg.

[8 marks]

 

Note: Parts (d) and (e) require you to use the probability from part (c), if for some reason you could not get an answer for part (c) perhaps pretend the answer to part (c) was 0.5. That is not correct but you will get follow on marks.

 

  1. (37 marks) Your client is planning to invest some money with your investment company. The client narrows their options down to 2 investment strategies X and Y , and from past experience the annual percentage returns are as follows: X ∼ N(3,12) and Y ∼ N(5,32).

 

(a)  For each investment strategy, calculate the probability of a negative return. [4 marks]

 

(b)  For each investment strategy, calculate the probability of return greater than 5.5%. [4 marks]

 

(c)  Describe the advice you might give to your client about these two investments depending on whether they were risk averse or a risk taker. [2 marks]

 

(d)  Find k such that P(X > k) = P(Y > k) Do not simply solve this by trial and error, you need to show working out as to how your proved this. [4 marks]

 

(e)  Assume that within the same year Cor(X,Y) = 2 and that X and Y are bivariate 3

normal. Remember X and Y being bivariate normal just means that sums of X and Y will still follow a normal distribution. Then answer the following questions:

 

(i)  If your client invests half of their money in each investment type, what are the mean and variance of their annual return? [6 marks]

(ii)  If your client invest a fraction k of their money in investment type X and the rest in Y (ie 0 ≤ k ≤ 1), what are the mean and variance of their annual return in terms of k? [5 marks]

(iii)  If your client invest a fraction k of their money in investment type X and the rest in Y (ie 0 ≤ k ≤ 1), what value of k makes the probability of their investment achieving a negative return equal to 1%. [6 marks]

 

Note: this is a very difficult question and will require working with a quadratic function. Just do your best.

 

 

(f) If the client was investing the money for 10 years in investment type Y , one way to think

about this would be that the return in the first year is Y1 ∼ N(5,3) and the return in

the 2nd year is Y2 ∼ N(5,3), …, and finally the return in the 10th year is Y10 ∼ N(5,3)

We could then define the average return as AY = Y1+Y2+…+Y10 , assuming the returns are 10

 

independent from year to year calculate the distribution of this average return for AY . Would you change your advice for the risk averse and risk taking clients that you had in

 

(c) regarding investment Y if their investment was for 10 years? [6 marks] Note: The geometric average would probably be a better indicator of average return

but that is beyond the scope of this course.

 

  1. (9 marks) The number of teachers who call in sick on a any given day at a particular school follows a Poisson distribution with a mean of 1.

 

(a)  What is the probability that exactly 1 teacher will call in sick on a given day?
[1 mark]

 

(b)  What is the probability that more than 3 teachers will call in sick on a given day? [1 mark]

 

(c)  If there are 5 schools in a local district and the number of staff calling in sick followed the same distribution as above and we assume that each school is independent of any other school, what distribution does the total number of teachers who call in sick across all schools follow? [2 marks]

 

(d)  When teachers call in sick, the school either rearranges existing teacher’s timetables to cover or has to call in casual relief staff, or a combination of both. The following table shows the expenses incurred by a single school according to the number of teachers who call in sick.

 

Number sick teachers 0−1 2−3 4 5+ Cost to School $0 $400 $600 $1000

 

What is the expected daily cost due to sick teachers in a school? [5 marks]

 

 

 

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Question 11:   Psychology

 

Instruction

For the Final Project, you will select a person for whom you will complete a diagnostic battery. The person and his/her history should be connected to some legal issue, be it criminal, civil, or juvenile. The person can be a public figure or a fictional character from a book, a movie, or a TV show who is related to the legal process. As you progress through the reading and assignments in the remaining weeks, think about how you might want to develop your Final Project. The Learning Resources, the Discussions, and the Application Assignments all will assist you in completing each section of the Final Project. Your Final Project will contain the following sections: Introduction of the person or the character you are diagnosing Background of the person and presenting information, including the legal issue he or she has encountered Data collection methods (testing, interviews, observation, etc.) Diagnosis Related psychosocial and family issues Related career and vocational issues Proposed treatment and intervention options Continuing assessment and proposed follow-up Potential legal and ethical issues

 

 

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Question 12:               Business

 

Research the firm advertising the position (https://jobs.netflix.com/jobs/871897). What business and industry are they in? What is their product or service? Find the firm’s 10K information and review section 1. What are the key factors driving their business? What information is relevant regarding customers, competitors, sales, goals, staff, turnover, organizational structure, etc.? Is the firm doing well? Are there recent newsworthy issues regarding this firm or industry? What are trade publications, newspapers, industry publications, and social media saying about the firm/industry overall? Research the compensation package typical of this job for this industry

 

 

Question 13:               Business

 

Comment on one of the following two questions: 1) Considering the emerging technologies (AI, Bitcoin, Block chain, High Frequency Trading, etc.) that impact financial decision making, how would you go about recommending any or all of these tools into your company/division/agency? 2) Note that these technologies are all still emerging and with the exception of high frequency trading, none of them is fully implemented on a widespread basis. What are the constraints? What are the major concerns? For example, what would prevent you from dumping your bank account and working entirely with Bitcoin? Would you be comfortable banking at an institution that replaced human tellers with Alexa?

 

 

 

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Question 14:                Statistics

 

 

Assignment #4

  1. A researcher hypothesizes that juveniles will have a greater number of police contacts than will adults. Identify the type of hypothesis and whether a one –tailed or two-tailed test is warranted.
  2. A statement of no difference is known as what type of hypothesis?
  3. If a researcher fails to reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is false, the researcher committed what type of error?
  4. A researcher hypothesizes a difference in disciplinary infractions between a sample of inmates who participated in an anger management program and the population of inmates who did not participate in the program. Write the research and null hypotheses in both text and notational form.

 

Assignment 3

  1.     1. Imagine that we survey a group of student workers at in Hannah Hall and find that the average hourly wage is $14.25 with a standard deviation of $1.80.
  2.      a.What is the z-scores for an employee who makes $15.00 per hour?
  3.     what is the z-scores for an employee who makes $13.50 per hour?
  4.     c.  What is the z-scores for an employee who makes $17.50 per hour?

 

  1.     2. Imagine that we survey a group of fire fighters and find that the average annual family income is $67,525. We also find that the standard deviation for these communities is $6,330.
  2. What is the z-scores for a community with a median income of $36,000?
  3. What is the z-scores for a community with a median income of $60,000?

 

  1.    3.      Use the table below to answer the questions below:  
Column A

Z score

Column B

Area Between the mean and Z

Column C

Area beyond the Z score

.12 .0478 .4522
1.40 .4192 .0808
1.41 .4207 .0793
1.42 .4222 .0778
1.43 .4236 .0762
1.44 .4251 .0749
1.45 .4265 .0735
1.46 .4279 .0721
1.47 .4292 .0708
1.48 .4306 .0694
1.49 .4319 .0681

 

  1. What is the probability of obtaining a score between z = 1.40 and the mean?
  2. What is the probability of obtaining a score beyond z = 1.48 and the mean?
  3. What is the probability of obtaining a score between z = 1.40 and the mean?
  4. What is the probability of obtaining a score beyond z = .12 and the mean?

The following students are enrolled in a course in a criminal justice class. They are listed along with their year in school and whether they are majoring in criminal justice. Use the information to answer the following questions below:

Student Year Criminal Justice Major
1 Sophmore  Yes
2 Senior  No
3 Junior  Yes
4 Freshman  No
5 Freshman  Yes
6 Sophmore  Yes
7 Sophmore  Yes
8 Junior  No
9 Sophmore  Yes
10 Sophmore  No

 

  1. What is the probability of selecting at random from this class
  2. a sophomore?
  3. a student majoring in sociology?
  4. a freshman or a sophomore?
  5. not a freshman?

 

  1. What is the probability of any given score falling within the following range?
  2. ±1σ from the mean

b.±2σ from the mean

c.±3σ from the mean

  1. Suppose probation officer caseloads have a mean of 115 offenders and a standard deviations of 10. Assuming caseload sizes are normally distributed, determine
  2. the probability that a particular probation officer has a caseload between 90 and 105.
  3. the probability that a particular probation officer has a caseload larger than 135.
  4. the probability that four probation officers have a caseload larger than 135.

 

 

 

 

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Question 15:               Sociology

 

Write an essay over the chapters 8-10. The book is Titled Clothing Poverty: Brooks, A. (2015). Clothing poverty: The hidden world of fast fashion and second-hand clothes.(so that you can locate the book online.)

Mini essays are your chance to analyze and reflect on the topic via your readings. Create a clear thesis statement and craft your essay around supporting and explaining this thesis.

For this essay, you should draw evidence primarily from the book Clothing Poverty.

Your essay should be approximately 600-900 words and should demonstrate that you have completed the book and have engaged in thoughtful consideration of the themes contained within. Essays do not need a title page. They should be single spaced, 12-point font, with a reference list and in-text citations. Students should use APA style for citations (Links to an external site.).

Please upload your essay as a Word doc/docx.

If you are unsure of how to cite something for your reference list, please check Purdue OWL here: https://owl.purdue.edu/owl/research_and_citation/apa_style/apa_formatting_and_style_guide/reference_list_basic_rules.html

Choose a theme from the book Clothing Poverty: The Hidden World of Fast Fashion and Second-hand Clothes.

Please read the three chapters and select a theme based on the readings.

Please use12 font, times new roman, and APA format. Use in text citations as well.

 

 

Question 16:               History

Which of these two ancient mysteries—King Tut and the Pyramids of Giza—interests you the most? Why?

  • Share two reasons why you find your choice interesting.
  • What is it about these two mysteries that have captivated us for centuries?

Question 17:               General Question

 

NSG 6430 Final Exam (2020): South University Graded A Score 100%

NSG 6430 Final Exam (2020): South University Graded A Score 100%

 

Question 18:               History

 

Answer the following essay in about 600-700 words.  (40 points).  Make sure your organize your essay into paragraphs with a well-stated opening and closing paragraph.

 

There are forces that are pulling the world together in the 21st century and forces that are pulling it apart. What forces are pulling the world together in the 21st century?  How do these forces compare with those pulling it apart?  Discuss these two questions and apply two lessons learned from the period of history studied this term.

 

Question 19:               Mathematics

 

MATH225N Week 8 Final Exam Question and Answers (2 Latest Versions, 2020) : Chamberlain College of Nursing (Already graded A)

 

Question 20:               Nursing

 

As the school nurse working in a college health clinic, you see many opportunities to promote health. Maria is a 40-year-old Hispanic who is in her second year of nursing school. She complains of a 14-pound weight gain since starting school and is afraid of what this will do to both her appearance and health if the trend continues. After conducting her history, you learn that she is an excellent cook and she and her family love to eat foods that reflect their Hispanic heritage. She is married with two school-age children. She attends class a total of 15 hours per week, plus she must be present for 12 hours of labs and clinical. She maintains the household essentially by herself and does all the shopping, cooking, cleaning, and chauffeuring of the children. She states that she is lucky to get 6 hours of sleep per night, but that is okay with her. She lives 1 hour from campus and commutes each day. Using Healthy People 2020 (Links to an external site.) Links to an external site. and your text as a guide, answer the following questions.

  1. What additional information would you like to gather from Maria?
  2. What are Maria’s real and potential health risks?
  3. Why is Maria’s culture important when obtaining the health assessment?
  4. Pick one of Maria’s health risks. What would be one reasonable short-term goal for this risk?
  5. What nursing interventions would you incorporate into Maria’s plan of care to assist her with meeting your chosen goal? Please provide rationale for your selections.

 

Question 21:               Biology

 

  • Why Study Biology?
  • What is Life?
  • What About?
  • How do we ask and answer questions Scientifically?
  • Role of Experiments
  • Experimental Design
  • Experimental Problems
  • Higher Levels of Organization
  • Scientific Names
  • Categories of Biological Classification
  • Three Domains with Six Kingdoms
  • 1 Eularyotic Domain with 4 Kingdoms
  • Fungi
  • Plants
  • Animals
  • Animal Cell Features
  • History of Microscopes & Cells
  • Cell Theory
  • Plasma Membrane: Fluid Mosaic Model
  • Components of Nucleus

 

 

Question 22:               Accounting

 

1c. A basic difference between microeconomics and macroeconomics is:

 

2c. The distinction between positive and normative economics is that:    

 

9d. If the price of computers increases from $1,000 to 1,500, what will happen to the computer market?     

                                                                                                               

10b. In an effort to support family orange growing businesses, the government sets a maximum price of $6 for a gallon of orange juice. The current market price for orange juice is $7 for a gallon. The government’s action will have what effect on the orange juice market?                                                                                                                                  

11d. Producer surplus is the                                    

                                                                    

12e. An improvement in the technology used in the production of automobiles and a decrease in the input costs of production will most likely cause the price and quantity of automobiles to change in which of the following ways?       

                                        

13c. A decrease in the price of silicon chips (used in computers) and a decrease in tariffs for a computer parts will affect the domestic computer price and quantity in which of the

 

14e. All of the following might reasonably be expected to shift the demand curve for beef to a new position except            

                                                                                                 

15c. Changes in demand are caused by:     

                                                                     

16a. In an effort to support family orange growing business, the government sets a minimum price of $6 for a gallon of orange juice. The current market price for orange juice is $5 for a gallon. The government‘s actions will have what effect on the orange juice market?                                                                                                                                             

 17d. A firm increases the price of its product and finds that its total revenue increases. Which of the following best describes why this happened?      

                                    

18d. If a firm faces a relatively inelastic demand for its product and the price of the product drops, the firm can expect that             

                                                                                         

19b. Using the above graph, if the market for frankfurters is left unregulated, the market

 

20d. If the government were to establish an effective price ceiling as indicated in the graph, the market price and quantity sold would be:          

                                                                      

21e. If the government were to establish an effective price ceiling as indicated in the graph, the result would be a                 

                                                                                       

22e. If there were no government interference in this market, and the market equilibrium price and quantity were to prevail, the consumer surplus would be the area       

                           

23d. If there were no government interference in this market and the market equilibrium price and quantity were to prevail, the producer surplus would be the area           

                

24d. If the price of lunch at a school cafeteria increases and the cafeteria’s revenue increases, the elasticity of demand for a school lunch must be            

                                                

25c. Assuming that good A and good B currently sell at the same price. Good A is more elastic than good B. Both goods A and B experience a 10% increase in price, then:      

       

26a. In the long run, a perfectly competitive firm will achieve all BUT which of the following:          

                                                                                                                          

 

 

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27e. On the graph above, what is the area of total revenue at the profit-maximizing price?         

 

28c. On the graph above, what is the area of total cost at the profit-maximizing quantity?     

 

29c.  The area of deadweight loss or welfare loss to society at the profit-maximizing price and quantity is:                                                                                                                           

  1. The monopoly maximizes total revenue at quantity:    

                                                        

31c. Frictional unemployment is   

                                                                                                  

33b. Investment spurs growth of potential output because it increases       

                                      

34a. Technological improvement causes                                                         

                             

                 

36c. Suppose that the government increases spending by $100 billion. If everything else stays constant and the marginal propensity to consume is 0.8, the value of equilibrium output increases by        

                                                                                                                          

37a. If the economy is currently on the intermediate section of the SRAS curve, when aggregate demand increases,      

                                                                                              

38c. An expansionary fiscal policy would be the one that     

                                                              

39e. Aggregate demand reflects the willingness and capability of which of the following to purchase a quantity of goods and services at any price level?

 

40d. An increase in the price level will        

                                                                                      

41a. If $100 billion were added to an economy through government spending and the marginal propensity to save is 25, what would be the maximum increase in output in the economy?                                                                                                                                             

                        

43e. If firms entering an industry that is monopolistically competitive, we would expect       

      

44c. To decrease the money supply, the FED can               

                                                        

45a. In the short run, combining an expansionary fiscal policy with a tight money policy is most likely to cause                 

                                                                                                            

                                                                                                                                  

47c. In the short run, how will an increase in aggregate demand most likely affect the overall price level and real GDP?               

                                                                                         

49b. When inflation rises quickly:

 

 

 

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50d. Use this information to answer the next question. All numbers are in millions.                

What is the unemployment rate for the nation?                                                                           

 

Question 23:   Accounting

1)    The financial system is primarily a means by which    1)
A)    funds are transferred from savers to borrowers.
B)    the government puts into operation its plans for the economy.
C)    business firms distribute their goods.
D)    money is put into circulation.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
2)    Which of the following is NOT a financial asset?    2)
A)    Wells Fargo Bank    B) a home mortgage loan
C) a certificate of deposit    D) a bond issued by Google
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 2
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
3)    If you buy a bond issued by Intel, the bond is a(n):    3)
A)    liability to both you and Intel.    B) asset to both you and Intel.
C) liability to you and an asset to Intel.    D) liability to Intel and an asset to you.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
4)    Which of the following forms the largest share of household holdings of financial assets?    4)
A)    corporate equities    B) life insurance
C) bank deposits    D) pension funds reserves
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 9
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
5)    Which of the following is NOT a key financial service provided by the financial system?
A)    profitability    B) risk sharing    C) information    D) liquidity
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 12-­‐13 Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

6)    Economists define risk as
A)    the difference between the return on common stock and the return on corporate bonds.
B)    the chance that the value of financial assets will change from what you expect.
C)    the difference between the interest rate borrowers pay and the interest rate lenders receive.
D)    the ease with which an asset can be exchanged for other assets or for goods and services.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 12
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
7)    Economists define liquidity as
A)    the ease with which an asset can be exchanged for money.
B)    the fraction the asset makes up of an investor’ʹs portfolio.
C)    the difference between the return on the asset and the return on a long-­‐term U.S. Treasury bond.
D)    the difference between the total demand for an asset and the total supply of the asset.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
8)    Which of the following assets is the most liquid?
A)    computer    B) U.S. Treasury bond
C) washing machine    D) money market mutual fund
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
9)    By providing and communicating information, the financial system
A)    reduces the difference between the return on three-­‐month U.S. Treasury bills and the return on thirty-­‐year U.S. Treasury bonds.
B)    relieves individual savers from the necessity of searching out individual borrowers.
C)    guarantees investors a reasonable return on their money.
D)    eliminates the risk in investing in the stock market.
Diff:  2  Page  Ref:  13-­‐14  Topic:
financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
10)    Financial securities that represent partial ownership of a corporation are known as
A)    bonds.    B) dividends.    C) stocks.    D) coupons.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 3

 

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Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
11)    Securitization is the process of    11)
A)    issuing stocks to finance capital spending.
B)    converting loans into securities.
C)    issuing bonds to finance purchases of equipment and structures.
D)    reducing risk by decreasing corporate debt loads.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
12)    If a bank grants you a mortgage, the mortgage is
A)    an asset to you as well as an asset to the bank. B)a liability to you as well as a liability to the bank.
C)    a liability to you, but an asset to the bank. D) an asset to you, but a liability to the bank.

Diff: 2    Page Ref: 4 Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

13)    Financial markets    13)
A)    act as go-­‐between by holding a portfolio of assets and issuing claims based on that portfolio to savers.
B)    channel funds indirectly between borrowers and lenders.
C)    channel funds directly from lenders to borrowers.
D)    generally provide lenders with lower returns than do financial intermediaries.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 4 Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

14)    If you purchase a Treasury bond, the Treasury bond is    14)
A)    a liability to you, but an asset to the U.S. government.
B)    a liability to you as well as a liability to the U.S. government.
C)    an asset to you as well as an asset to the U.S. government.
D)    an asset to you, but a liability to the U.S. government.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial assets
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

15)    Which president said, “ʺProsperity is just around the corner”ʺ?
A)    Franklin Delano Roosevelt near the start of the Great Depression
B)    George W. Bush near the start of the Great Recession
C)    Herbert Hoover near the start of the Great Depression
D)    Barack Obama near the start of the Great Recession
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 1
Topic: financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

16)    Funds flow from lenders to borrowers
A)    primarily through government agencies.
B)    indirectly through financial intermediaries.
C)    indirectly through financial markets.
D)    directly through financial intermediaries.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
17)    Which of the following is NOT a financial intermediary?
A)    Vanguard Total Stock Market Index Fund
B)    Bank of America
C)    NASDAQ
D)    Allstate Insurance Company
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
18)    Which of the following is NOT a financial intermediary?
A)    bank    B) stock exchange
C) mutual fund    D) insurance company
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
19)    The main role of financial intermediaries is to
A)    provide advice to consumers on how they should handle their finances.
B)    provide funds to the federal government to cover the budget deficit.
C)    help ensure that there is enough money in circulation.
D)    borrow funds from savers and lend them to borrowers.

20)    Financial intermediaries
A)    include the New York and American Stock exchanges.
B)    directly issue claims on individual borrowers to savers.
C)    include banks and other depository institutions.
D)    are owned and operated by the federal government.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 4
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

21)    A “ʺprimary market”ʺ is a market
A)    in which newly issued claims are sold by savers to borrowers.
B)    for debt by large or “ʺprimary”ʺ corporations.
C)    in which newly issued claims are sold to buyers by borrowers.
D)    for government securities.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 9
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
22)    A bank lending depositors’ʹ money to a local business and a pension fund investing contributions in shares of a company are similar financial activities in that
A)    both involve a reduction in the overall level of liquidity in the financial system.
B)    both involve in an increase in the overall level of risk in the financial system.
C)    both involve the use of financial markets.
D)    both involve funds being channeled from savers to borrowers through financial intermediaries.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4, 8 Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
23)    The leading federal regulatory body for financial markets in the United States is the A) Securities and Exchange Commission.    B) Federal Financial Market Bureau.
C) Investors Protection Agency.    D) Federal Bureau of Investigation.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 10

Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
24)    Economists define money as 24)
A)    cash in circulation.
B)    bonds issued by large corporations.
C)    anything that people are willing to accept in payment for goods and services or to pay off debts.
D)    deposits in commercial banks.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 3

Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

25)    The Federal Reserve System    25)
A)    is headed by the Secretary of the Treasury.
B)    is the central bank of the United States.
C)    is in charge of managing the New York Stock Exchange.

  1. D)    is responsible for conducting fiscal policy for the United States.
    Diff: 1    Page Ref: 11
    Topic: Federal Reserve
    Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

26)    Monetary policy refers to the government’s    26)
A)    plans for retiring the national debt.
B)    management of the money supply and interest rates to achieve macroeconomic objectives.

  1. C)    decisions on how much money to collect in taxes.
    D)    decisions on how much money to spend.
    Diff: 1    Page Ref: 11 Topic: Federal Reserve
    Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

 

 

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27)    Diversification refers to the    27)
A)    difference between the liquidity of an asset and its risk.
B)    difficulty of converting investments in common stocks into investments in bonds.
C)    difficulty of selling common stocks in a weak market.
D)    splitting of wealth into many assets.

28)    The purpose of diversification is to
A)    increase the liquidity of a financial portfolio.
B)    reduce tax liability.
C)    reduce risk.
D)    reduce the brokerage fees involved in managing a financial portfolio.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
29)    The financial system provides risk sharing by allowing A) borrowers to obtain funds either directly or indirectly.
B)    savers to earn interest tax-­‐free.
C)    savers to hold many assets.
D)    borrowers to convert liabilities into assets.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
30)    Liquidity
A)    was declining for many financial assets during the 1990s.
B)    is a characteristic of money, and of no other asset.
C)    is the ease with which an asset can be exchanged for money.
D)    is the best available measure of the riskiness of an asset.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
31)    Which of the following assets is the least liquid?
A)    treasury bond    B) stock
C) money market mutual fund    D) house
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 13
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
32)    Increased liquidity in recent decades has reduced interest rates on which of the following assets (holding constant all other things that affect interest rates)?
A)    bonds issued by state governments    B) business loans
C) U.S. government bonds    D) bonds issued by large corporations

33)    The financial system performs the role of communicating information by    33)
A)    incorporating all available information into the prices of financial assets.
B)    constantly increasing the liquidity of most assets.
C)    providing to investors for a nominal charge all government reports available about a particular company.
D)    constantly reducing the riskiness of most assets.

34)    The distinguishing feature of a well-­‐functioning financial market is the
A)    continual reduction in the riskiness of most assets.
B)    increased ease of converting common stocks into bonds.
C)    continual increase in the liquidity of most assets.
D)    incorporation of available information into asset prices.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 14
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
35)    In the United States, monetary policy is carried out by
A)    the Federal Reserve System.
B)    Congress and the President acting together.
C)    the President.
D)    Congress.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 11
Topic: Federal Reserve
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

 

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36)    In the United States, the lender of last resort is
A)    Fannie Mae.
B)    Securities and Exchange Commission.
C)    the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
D)    the Federal Reserve.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 11 Topic: Federal Reserve
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
37)    A decline in bank lending has the most significant effect on
A)    large businesses.    B) federal government.
C) small businesses.    D) state governments.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 6
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

38)    What made the recession of 2007-­‐2009 different than any other recession since the Great Depression?
A)    it was accompanied by a financial crisis
B)    the Fed failed to reduce interest rates
C)    the impact was primarily limited to the financial sector
D)    the government did not implement a fiscal stimulus
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 1
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
39)    All of the following took place during the economic crisis that began in 2007 EXCEPT:
A)    there was a devastating decline in the production of goods and services throughout the economy
B)    large portions of the U.S. economy were cut off from the funds they needed to thrive
C)    the financial system was disrupted
D)    unlike households, most businesses still had easy access to funds
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 1
Topic: financial system
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
40)    Owners of small firms in countries with weak banking systems have to rely on funds from all of the following EXCEPT:
A)    the savings of relatives and friends
B)    their own savings
C)    global investors
D)    local lenders who charge high interest rates

41)    All of the following accurately describe microlending EXCEPT:
A)    it involves small loans
B)    lending is primarily undertaken by the government
C)    many economists think it has aided economic growth in many low-­‐income countries
D)    the borrowers are people who are attempting to start or expand a small business

Diff: 1    Page Ref: 6 Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

42)    Which of the following does NOT describe the relationship between banks and small business during the 2000s (prior to the financial crisis)?
A)    Many small businesses were receiving loans from regional and national banks.
B)    Fewer small businesses received loans as banks shifted their focus to mortgages.
C)    More banks became convinced that it would be profitable to loosen their loan guidelines to make more borrowers eligible to receive credit.
D)    Banks typically applied fixed guidelines for granting loans, leaving little room for personal judgment.

Diff: 2    Page Ref: 7 Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
43)    The process by which investment banks guarantee a certain price to a firm issuing stocks or bonds is known as:
A)    securitization    B) underwriting
C) proprietary trading    D) microlending
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 8
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
44)    Investment banks do NOT engage in which of the following?
A)    securitization    B) proprietary trading
C) underwriting    D) lending to households
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 8
Topic: financial institutions
Objective: Identify the key components of the financial  system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
45)    All of the following represent returns to savers EXCEPT:
A)    coupon payments on bonds    B) interest on deposits
C) dividends on stocks    D) fees on loans

46)    Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac both    50)
A)    help regulate the banking system.
B)    reduce access to funds for mortgages by purchasing existing mortgages.
C)    sell bonds to investors and use the funds to purchase mortgages.
D)    directly lend funds to people seeking mortgages.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 15 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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51)    All of the following are examples of risky mortgages that became more common in the 2000s EXCEPT
A)    alt-­‐A mortgages.
B)    mortgages requiring down payments of at least 20%.
C)    adjustable-­‐rate mortgages with low rates for a few years and then higher rates in later years.
D)    subprime mortgages.

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
52)    Which of the following best describes a “ʺbubble”ʺ?
A)    when bond prices rise more quickly than stock prices B)an unsustainable increase in the price of a class of assets

  1. C)    when the price of an asset reaches a new high D) rapid increases in inflation

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

53)    All of the following were significant changes in the mortgage market in the 2000s EXCEPT
A)    lenders loosened lending standards.
B)    borrowers tended to increase the amount of their down payments.
C)    mortgage-­‐backed securities became more popular with investors.
D)    investment banks became significant participants in the secondary mortgage market.
Diff:  2  Page  Ref:  15-­‐16  Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
54)    Which type of borrowers were least likely to default in their mortgage at the beginning of the financial crisis?
A)    those with fixed-­‐rate mortgages who made large down payments
B)    those with adjustable-­‐rate mortgages
C)    subprime borrowers
D)    those with alt-­‐A loans
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
55)    The Troubled Asset Relief Program (TARP) allowed    55)
A)    the Fed to make loans to banks as the lender of last resort.
B)    the Treasury to inject funds into commercial banks in return for stock in the banks.

 

 

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  1. C)    the Fed to provide funds to commercial banks in return for stock.
    D)    the Treasury to insure bank deposits at major U.S. banks.
    Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic:
    financial crisis
    Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

56)    Which firm did the Treasury allow to fail during the financial crisis?    56)
A)    J.P. Morgan    B) American International Group (AIG)
C) Bear Stearns    D) Lehman Brothers
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

57)    Alt-­‐A borrowers were those who
A)    borrowed using “ʺinterest-­‐only”ʺ mortgages.
B)    did not provide documentation of their income when applying for a mortgage.
C)    chose adjustable-­‐rate mortgages instead of fixed-­‐rate mortgages.
D)    used mortgages to purchase apartments.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 16 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
58)    The financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 worsened after the failure of which firm?
A)    American International Group (AIG)    B) General Motors
C) Bear Stearns    D) Lehman Brothers
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic:
financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking
59)    At the beginning of the financial crisis, banks were hurt by all of the following EXCEPT
A)    declines in the value of mortgage-­‐backed securities.
B)    holding too many Treasury bonds.
C)    defaults on mortgages by those with subprime mortgages.
D)    not being repaid on loans to real estate developers.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

 

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60)    Borrowers who stated but did not document their incomes are referred to as:    60)
A)    alt A    B) securitized    C) adjustable    D) subprime
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 16
Topic: financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

61)    The Fed and Treasury took action to restore the flow of funds from savers to borrowers in order to    61)
encourage all of the following EXCEPT:
A)    increase the likelihood of purchases of houses
B)    allow firms to finance purchases of structures and equipment
C)    increase the return to savers
D)    enable households to purchase durable goods
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18 Topic: financial crisis
Objective: Provide an overview of the financial crisis of 2007-­‐2009 AACSB: Reflective Thinking

Chapter 2

1)    An important reason why economies at an early stage of development tend to operate inefficiently    1) is
A)    they tend to have authoritarian governments that stifle innovation.
B)    they tend to be dominated by the agricultural sector, where productivity is usually low.
C)    the high transactions costs associated with barter.
D)    they tend to be plagued by superstitious beliefs that stifle innovation.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

2)    By “ʺspecialization”ʺ economists mean a situation where 2)
A)    goods are traded directly for goods and money is not used.
B)    individuals produce the goods or services for which they have relatively the best ability.
C)    individuals who produce goods do not also produce services and individuals who produce services do not also produce goods.
D)    individuals are assigned to occupations on the basis of tests that gauge their relative abilities.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 26
Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system

 

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AACSB: Reflective Thinking

3)    The most important economic benefit from specialization is  that it    3)
A)    eliminates the need for financial markets.
B)    makes it possible for an economy to begin using money.
C)    makes barter possible.
D)    leads to an increase in the standard of living in an economy.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 26
Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
4)    When an economy relies on specialization,    4)
A)    each individual in the economy produces the goods or services for which he or she has relatively the best ability.
B)    the economy will usually be heavily agricultural.
C)    each individual will be assigned by the government to produce that good or service the government believes the economy should specialize in. D) the economy will generally produce only one product.

Diff: 2    Page Ref: 26 Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

5)    Fundamentally, to reap the benefits of specialization, an economy must    5)
A)    have an extensive system of higher education.
B)    develop ways for individuals to trade goods with one another.
C)    be heavily agricultural.
D)    be heavily industrial.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 26
Topic: specialization
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
6)    Barter is    6)
A)    the basis for economic specialization.
B)    the main system of exchange in the United States today.
C)    another name for money.
D)    an exchange of goods and services directly for goods and services.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
7)    Under a system of barter    7)

A)    currency is accepted for purchases, but personal checks are not.
B)    goods may be traded for money, but money may not be traded for goods.
C)    each individual trades output directly with another.
D)    only agricultural goods may be traded.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

 

 

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8)    Which of the following is an example of a barter transaction? 8)
A)    An individual pays her electric bill with a check.
B)    An individual provides three light bulbs to her neighbor in exchange for two gallons of milk.
C)    An individual pays her electric bill with currency.
D)    An individual deposits three twenty-­‐dollar bills in her checking account.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
9)    In a barter system individuals    9)
A)    will almost invariably specialize.
B)    find it impossible to specialize.
C)    find it difficult to specialize, but may be able to do so.
D)    must be entirely self-­‐sufficient.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

10)    A system of barter has substantial transactions costs because 10)
A)    the uncertainties of trade result in high legal fees being incurred to draw up binding contracts.
B)    taxes under such a system are generally a large fraction of the value of output.
C)    the uncertainties of trade result in high insurance premiums.
D)    traders must spend considerable time searching for trading partners.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

11)    Under a barter system
A)    each good has a single price.
C) no prices for goods exist.

  1. B)    prices for goods are very stable.
    D)    each good has many prices.Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic: barter
    Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

12)    How many prices would there be in a barter economy with 100 goods? 12)
A) 100    B) 1,000 C) 10,000    D) 4,950

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

13)    The problem of a double coincidence of wants refers to13)
A)    poorly-­‐managed companies producing what consumers want only by coincidence.
B)    the likelihood that needs will not be the same as wants.
C)    the insatiability of wants in a free market economy.
D)    the necessity in a barter system of each trading partner wanting what the other has to trade.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

14)    Andy can’t make a deal with Danny. Andy has a Alex Rodriguez baseball card and would like to trade it to Danny for Danny’ʹs Albert Pujols card, but Danny doesn’ʹt want a Alex Rodriquez card.   Andy’ʹs   problem   illustrates   the   drawback   to   a   barter   system   known   as   A)   the specialization problem.
B)    the transactions problem.
C)    the many prices problem.
D)    the double coincidence of wants problem.
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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15)    Which of the following is NOT a significant cost that a barter system imposes on an economy?
A)    Many prices must be maintained for each good.
B)    The costs arising from the problem of finding two people who each want what the other produces.
C)    Specialization of labor is hindered.
D)    Only agricultural goods may be traded.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
16)    Which of the following is the most efficient means of trade?
A)    government rationing
B)    barter
C)    money
D)    the combination of barter with some government rationing
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
17)    In Moscow in 1989, what were taxi drivers using as a medium of exchange?
A)    Marlboro cigarettes    B) Russian rubles
C) gold coins    D) caviar

Diff: 1 Page Ref: 26 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

18)    Money eliminates the need for
A)    people to have a double coincidence of wants.
B)    specialization.
C)    the market system.
D)    any government role in the economy.
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
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19)    Using a good as a medium of exchange confers the benefit that    19)
A)    the need for specialization is reduced.
B)    the need for a double coincidence of wants is greatly increased.
C)    the need to quote so many prices in trade is reduced.
D)    transactions costs are increased, but they now may be paid in money terms.

Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

20)    Commodity money can best be described as    20)
A)    standardized goods like gold that trade in a financial market
B)    a good used as money that also has value independent of its use as money C) the form of money used in a barter system
D) money used to purchase agricultural products
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

21)    Which of the following is NOT a problem with barter? 21)
A)    the commodity money having value for other uses besides money B) each good has multiple prices C) high transactions costs
D) lack of standardization of products exchanged
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

22)    The introduction of money to an economy results in:    22)
A)    a more efficient barter system    B) higher productivity
C) increased specialization    D) higher incomes
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 26 Topic:
barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking
23)    Money can BEST be described as:    23)
A)    anything that is generally accepted as payment for goods and services or in the settlement of debts.
B)    any form of wealth possessed by consumers
C)    commodities that have intrinsic value
D)    paper that can be used to purchase goods and services
Diff: 1 Page Ref: 24 Topic: barter
Objective: Analyze the inefficiencies of a barter system AACSB: Reflective Thinking

24)    Money is a medium of exchange in that    26)

A)    it must maintain most of its value over time.
B)    other assets may be better or worse in facilitating exchange than money.
C)    currency may be exchanged for gold at any national bank.
D)    money is generally accepted for buying and selling goods and services.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

27)    Money as a medium of exchange refers only to
A)    checks at commercial banks.
B)    currency.
C)    anything that is generally accepted as payment for goods and services.
D)    gold coins.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money  AACSB: Reflective Thinking
28)    When economists refer to the role of money as a unit of account, they mean that
A)    money gives traders a way of measuring value in the economy.
B)    most accounting systems reflect that goods are purchased with currency.
C)    most accounting systems reflect that goods are purchased with checks.
D)    money makes it possible for specialization to take place.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money  AACSB: Reflective Thinking

 

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29)    When economists refer to the role of money as a store of value, they mean that
A)    the value of money falls only when the quantity of money in circulation falls.
B)    the value of money falls only when the quantity of money in circulation rises.
C)    money never loses its value, unlike other assets.
D)    money allows value to be stored easily.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 27
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money  AACSB: Reflective Thinking
30)    An asset is
A)    the same thing as a liability.    B) money, as opposed to stock or bonds.

  1. C) anything that never declines in value.    D) a thing of value that can be owned.

Diff: 1    Page Ref: 28 Topic: functions of money

Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

31)    The attribute that distinguishes money from other assets is that only money    31)
A)    may be used as collateral for a bank loan.
B)    serves as a medium of exchange.
C)    is counted in determining the size of an individual’ʹs wealth.
D)    retains its value during times of inflation.
Diff: 1    Page Ref: 28
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money AACSB: Reflective Thinking

32)    Wealth is
A)    equal to income.
B)    a flow variable.
C)    the sum of the value of assets.
D)    the sum of the value of assets minus value of liabilities.
Diff: 2    Page Ref: 28
Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money  AACSB: Reflective Thinking
33)    The difference between money and income is that whereas income is an individual’ʹs
A)    stock   of   all   assets,   money   is   an   individual’s   stock   of   currency   and   currency substitutes. B) stock of currency and currency substitutes, money is an individual’ʹs stock of all assets.
C)    flow of earnings over a period of time, money is an individual’ʹs stock of all assets.
D)    flow of earnings over a period of time, money is an individual’ʹs stock of currency and currency substitutes.

Diff: 2    Page Ref: 28 Topic: functions of money
Objective: Discuss the four key functions of money  AACSB: Reflective Thinking

 

 

 

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Question 24:               Economics

 

  1. Real wages in the United States in the long run:
    A. show no discernible relationship to output per worker.
    B. have increased at about the same rate as increases in output per worker.
    C. have increased slower than increases in output per worker.
    D. have increased faster than increases in output per worker.
  2. The long-run trend of real wages:
    A. cannot be determined from available data on nominal wages and the price level.
    B. has been downward because the price level has risen faster than nominal wages.
    C. has been upward.
    D. has been downward because labor’s share of the domestic income has fallen.
  3. If the nominal wages of carpenters rose by 5 percent in 2010 and the price level increased by 3 percent, then the real wages of carpenters:
    A. decreased by 2 percent.
    B. increased by 2 percent.
    C. increased by 3 percent.
    D. increased by 8 percent.
  4. Over the long run, real earnings per worker can increase only at about the same rate as the economy’s rate of growth of:
    A. total output.
    B. stock of capital.
    C. output per worker.
    D. international trade.
  5. Increases in the productivity of labor result partly from:
    A. the law of diminishing returns.
    B. improvements in technology.
    C. reductions in wage rates.
    D. increases in the quantity of labor.

 

 

 

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  1. The real wage will rise if the nominal wage:
    A. falls more rapidly than the general price level.
    B. increases at the same rate as labor productivity.
    C. increases more rapidly than the general price level.
    D. falls at the same rate as the general price level.
  2. The productivity and real wages of workers in industrially advanced economies have risen historically partly because:
    A. workers have acquired less education and training over time.
    B. workers have been able to use larger quantities of capital equipment.
    C. over time the capital equipment used by workers has deteriorated in quality.
    D. the supply of labor has increased.
  3. If the nominal wage rises by 4 percent, and the price level rises by 7 percent, the real wage will:
    A. be unaffected.
    B. rise by 3 percent.
    C. fall by 3 percent.
    D. rise by 11 percent.
  4. If the nominal wage rises by 6 percent, and the price level falls by 2 percent, the real wage will:
    A. be unaffected.
    B. rise by 4 percent.
    C. fall by 4 percent.
    D. rise by 8 percent.
  5. Marginal revenue product (MRP) of labor refers to the:
    A. increase in total revenue resulting from the sale of an additional unit of output.
    B. amount by which a firm’s total resource cost increases when it employs one more unit of labor.
    C. increase in total revenue resulting from the hire of one more unit of labor.
    D. price at which additional units of labor can be employed in a monopsonized labor market.
  6. Marginal resource cost refers to the:
    A. increase in total revenue resulting from the sale of the extra output of one more worker.
    B. price at which additional units of a resource can be hired in an imperfectly competitive resource market.
    C. increase in total cost resulting from the production of one more unit of output.
    D. amount by which a firm’s total resource cost increases as the result of hiring one more unit of the resource.

 

 

 

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  1. If a firm is hiring a certain type of labor under purely competitive conditions:
    A. its labor demand curve will be perfectly elastic at the market-determined wage rate.
    B. the labor supply curve will lie above the marginal labor cost curve.
    C. the labor supply and marginal labor (resource) cost curves will coincide and be upsloping.
    D. the labor supply and marginal labor (resource) cost curves will coincide and be perfectly elastic.
  2. The market supply curve for labor is upsloping because:
    A. of diminishing returns.
    B. of the opportunity cost of labor in housekeeping, leisure, or alternative employments.
    C. of declining MRC.
    D. each employer is a “wage taker.”
  3. A firm operating in a purely competitive resource market faces a resource supply curve that is:
    A. perfectly inelastic.
    B. perfectly elastic.
    C. highly inelastic.
    D. highly elastic.
  4. A firm that is hiring labor in a purely competitive labor market and selling its product in a purely competitive product market will maximize its profit by hiring labor until:
    A. marginal revenue product is zero.
    B. marginal revenue product exceeds marginal resource (labor) cost by the greatest amount.
    C. marginal resource cost is zero.
    D. marginal revenue product equals marginal resource (labor) cost.
  5. A profit-maximizing firm will:
    A. expand employment if marginal revenue product exceeds marginal resource cost.
    B. reduce employment if marginal revenue product exceeds marginal resource cost.
    C. expand employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
    D. reduce employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
  6. A profit-maximizing firm will:
    A. expand employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
    B. reduce employment if marginal revenue product equals marginal resource cost.
    C. reduce employment if marginal revenue product is less than marginal resource cost.
    D. expand employment if marginal revenue product is less than marginal resource cost.

 

  1. A firm hiring labor in a perfectly competitive labor market faces a:
    A. downsloping labor supply curve and upsloping labor demand curve.
    B. upsloping labor supply curve and downsloping labor demand curve.
    C. upsloping labor supply curve and horizontal labor demand curve.
    D. horizontal labor supply curve and downsloping labor demand curve.

 

 

 

 

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  1. Refer to the above data. If there is neither a union nor a minimum wage, we can conclude that this firm:
    A. “purchases” labor in purely competitive labor market.
    B. is a monopsonist.
    C. faces a perfectly inelastic labor supply curve.
    D. has a perfectly elastic labor demand curve.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. In maximizing its profit, this firm will employ:
    A. 2 units of labor.
    B. 3 units of labor.
    C. 4 units of labor.
    D. 5 units of labor.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. At the profit maximizing level of employment, this firm’s total labor cost will be:
    A. $16.
    B. $30.
    C. $24.
    D. $32.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. At the profit maximizing level of employment, this firm’s total revenue will be:
    A. $16.
    B. $32.
    C. $24.
    D. $30.

 

 

  1. Refer to the above diagrams. The firm:
    A. is a monopsonist in the hiring of labor.
    B. must be selling its product in an imperfectly competitive market.
    C. is a “wage taker.”
    D. must pay a higher marginal resource cost for each successive worker.

 

  1. Refer to the above diagrams. The firm:
    A. has a principal-agent problem.
    B. has a constant marginal resource cost of $5.
    C. has a marginal resource cost that exceeds the wage rate for each worker.
    D. will fail to maximize profits if it hires 5 workers.

 

  1. Refer to the above diagrams. The profit-maximizing firm’s total wage cost:
    A. is 0abc.
    B. is 0Wbc.
    C. is Wab.
    D. cannot be determined.

 

  1. Refer to the above diagrams. The profit-maximizing firm’s total revenue:
    A. is 0abc.
    B. is 0Wbc.
    C. is Wab.
    D. cannot be determined.

 

  1. Refer to the above diagrams. At the profit-maximizing level of employment for this firm, the amount available to pay to nonlabor resources:
    A. is 0abc.
    B. is 0Wbc.
    C. is Wab.
    D. cannot be determined.

 

  1. The individual firm in a purely competitive labor market faces:
    A. a perfectly elastic labor supply curve and a downsloping labor demand curve.
    B. a perfectly elastic labor demand curve and an upsloping labor supply curve.
    C. labor demand and labor supply curves both of which are perfectly elastic.
    D. a downsloping labor demand curve and an upsloping labor supply curve.

 

 

 

 

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  1. Refer to the above data. This firm’s product price is:
    A. $2.
    B. $3.
    C. $4.
    D. $16.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. The marginal revenue product of the second worker is:
    A. $16.
    B. $32.
    C. $8.
    D. $4.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. The marginal revenue product of the fourth worker is:
    A. $8.
    B. $52.
    C. $2.
    D. $4.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. We can conclude from the information given that this firm is a:
    A. pure monopolist.
    B. discriminating monopolist.
    C. monopolistic competitor.
    D. pure competitor.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. If the market wage rate is $8, this firm will employ:
    A. 2 workers.
    B. 3 workers.
    C. 4 workers.
    D. 5 workers.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. If the market wage rate is $8 and the firm hires its profit-maximizing number of workers, the firm’s total wage bill (payment) will be:
    A. $16.
    B. $24.
    C. $32.
    D. $48.

 

  1. Refer to the above data. If the market wage rate is $8 and the firm hires its profit-maximizing number of workers, the firm’s total revenue will exceed its total wage payment by:
    A. $20.
    B. $16.
    C. $12.
    D. $8.

 

 

 

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  1. Refer to the above data. If this firm can hire as few or many workers as it wants at $8, it is:
    A. hiring labor in a monopsony labor market.
    B. hiring labor in a purely competitive labor market.
    C. selling its product in a monopolized product market.
    D. selling its product in a purely competitive product market.

 

 

 

  1. Refer to the above list. The outcome in a purely competitive labor market is shown by:
    A. 1.
    B. 2.
    C. 3.
    D. 4.

 

  1. Refer to the above list. The outcome in a monopsony labor market is shown by:
    A. 1.
    B. 2.
    C. 3.
    D. 4.

 

  1. The labor supply curve facing a purely competitive employer is __________ whereas the labor supply curve facing a monopsonist is _________.
    A. upsloping; horizontal
    B. downsloping; vertical
    C. vertical; upsloping
    D. horizontal; upsloping

 

  1. The economic term for a firm that is the sole buyer in a market is:
    A. monopsonist.
    B. monopolist.
    C. bilateral competitor.
    D. bilateral monopolist.

 

  1. In a monopsonistic labor market the employer will maximize profits by employing workers up to that point at which:
    A. the difference between the wage rate and marginal resource (labor) cost is at a maximum.
    B. marginal revenue product equals marginal resource (labor) cost.
    C. the wage rate equals marginal revenue product.
    D. the wage rate equals marginal resource (labor) cost.

 

 

  1. A firm can hire six workers at a wage rate of $8 per hour but must pay $9 per hour to all of its employees to attract a seventh worker. The marginal wage cost of the seventh worker is:
    A. $9.
    B. $10.
    C. $15.
    D. $21.

 

 

 

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  1. Suppose the MRP of a firm’s twelfth worker is $22 and the worker’s marginal wage cost is $16. We can say with certainty that the firm:
    A. is hiring labor in a competitive labor market at a wage rate of $16.
    B. is hiring labor in a monopsonistic labor market.
    C. will find it profitable to hire fewer workers.
    D. will find it profitable to hire more workers.

 

  1. In monopsony:
    A. each firm employs a small portion of the total supply of labor.
    B. the work force is highly mobile.
    C. the wage rate paid by the employer varies directly with the number of workers employed.
    D. the employer is a “wage taker.”

 

  1. Which of the following is most likely to be an example of monopsony?
    A. The market for fast-food workers in a large summer resort town.
    B. The market for card dealers in Las Vegas.
    C. The market for major league baseball umpires.
    D. The market for retail sales clerks in a major city.

 

  1. If a firm faces an upsloping labor supply curve (and there is no union or minimum wage), its:
    A. MRC curve is also upsloping.
    B. MRC curve is perfectly elastic.
    C. MRP curve is perfectly inelastic.
    D. MRP curve is also upsloping.

 

  1. A monopsonist’s wage cost in hiring an additional worker is the:
    A. worker’s wage rate.
    B. worker’s wage rate plus the wage increases paid to all workers already employed.
    C. worker’s wage rate adjusted for the lower price that must be charged for the extra output.
    D. marginal wage cost less the wage rate.

 

  1. A monopsonistic employer:
    A. has a perfectly elastic labor supply curve.
    B. is necessarily a monopolist in the product market.
    C. confronts a marginal resource (labor) cost that is greater than the wage rate.
    D. confronts a marginal resource (labor) cost that is less than the wage rate.

 

 

 

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  1. Other things equal, the monopsonistic employer will pay a:
    A. lower wage rate and hire fewer workers than will a purely competitive employer.
    B. higher wage rate but hire fewer workers than will a purely competitive employer.
    C. lower wage rate but hire a larger number of workers than will a purely competitive employer.
    D. higher wage rate and hire a larger number of workers than will a purely competitive employer.

 

  1. A monopsonistic employer in an unorganized (nonunion) labor market will:
    A. pay a wage rate less than labor’s MRP.
    B. pay the same wage rate but hire fewer workers than if the market was purely competitive.
    C. hire the number of workers indicated by the intersection of the MRC and the labor supply curves.
    D. pay a wage rate in excess of labor’s MRP.

 

  1. As compared to a purely competitive labor market, in a nonunionized monopsonistic labor market wages:
    A. and employment will both be lower.
    B. will be higher, but employment will be lower.
    C. will be lower, but employment will be higher.
    D. and employment will both be higher.

 

  1. “Player drafts” of professional athletes:
    A. increase the competitiveness of the labor market for professional athletes.
    B. reduce the profitability of professional sports franchises.
    C. promote monopsony in the hire of professional athletes.
    D. increase salaries of professional athletes.

 

  1. Which of the following is not correct?
    A. Other things equal, a monopsonist will pay a lower wage rate than will a firm hiring labor competitively.
    B. A monopsonistic employer will pay workers a wage rate equal to their MRP.
    C. A purely competitive seller will pay workers a wage rate equal to their MRP.
    D. An imperfectly competitive seller will employ additional workers as long as the MRP of additional workers exceeds their MRC.

 

 

 

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  1. A monopsonistic employer’s marginal resource (labor) cost curve:
    A. is always more elastic than the labor supply curve.
    B. coincides with the labor supply curve.
    C. lies below the labor supply curve because the higher wage paid to an additional worker must also be paid to all other employed workers.
    D. lies above the labor supply curve because the higher wage paid to an additional worker must also be paid to all other employed workers.

 

  1. The critical feature of a monopsonistic labor market is that the employer:
    A. has a perfectly elastic demand curve for labor.
    B. can hire any number of workers it chooses at the going wage rate.
    C. faces an upsloping labor supply curve.
    D. faces a perfectly inelastic labor supply curve.

 

  1. If a firm is a monopsonist in the hiring of both labor and capital, it will obtain the profit-maximizing quantities of labor and capital when:
    A. MRPL/PL = MRPC/PC = 1.
    B. MRPL/MRCL = MRPC/MRCC = 1.
    C. the MRP of labor equals the MRP of capital.
    D. the MRC of labor equals the MRC of capital.

 

  1. If a firm is hiring variable resources D and F in imperfectly competitive input markets, it will maximize profits by employing D and F in such quantifies that:
    A. MRPD/MRCD = MRPF/MRCF = 1.
    B. MRPD/MRCD = MRPF/MRCF.
    C. MRPD/PD = MRPF/PF = 1.
    D. MRPD/PD = MRPF/PF.

 

Answer the question on the basis of the following supply information facing a single firm in a particular labor market:
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  1. Refer to the above information. This labor supply curve demonstrates that:
    A. the firm is selling its output under imperfectly competitive conditions.
    B. the firm is selling its output under purely competitive conditions.
    C. higher wage rates must be paid to successive workers to overcome their higher opportunity costs.
    D. the firm is hiring labor under purely competitive conditions.

 

  1. Refer to the above information. The marginal resource (labor) cost of the third worker is:
    A. $15.
    B. $25.
    C. $35.
    D. $45.

 

  1. Empirical studies suggest that, other things equal, the smaller the number of hospitals in a city, the lower are nurses’ wages. This is evidence that:
    A. the labor markets of nurses are purely competitive.
    B. hospitals may possess some degree of monopsony power.
    C. the minimum wage does not apply to nurses.
    D. labor unions have been ineffective in increasing the wages of nurses.

 

 

 

 

  1. If the above diagram were relevant to an individual firm, we could conclude that the firm is:
    A. a pure competitor in the hire of labor.
    B. a monopsonist in the hire of labor.
    C. selling its product in an imperfectly competitive market.
    D. selling its product in a purely competitive market.

 

 

 

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  1. Refer to the above diagram. The MRC curve lies above the labor supply curve because:
    A. any number of workers can be hired at the going equilibrium wage rate.
    B. the firm must lower product price to increase its sales.
    C. the higher wage needed to attract additional workers must also be paid to the workers already employed.
    D. there is an inverse relationship between wage rate and the amount of labor employed.

 

  1. Refer to the above diagram. Assuming no union or relevant minimum wage, the firm represented will hire:
    A. Q2 workers and pay a W4 wage rate.
    B. Q2 workers and pay a W1 wage rate.
    C. Q3 workers and pay a W2 wage rate.
    D. Q4 workers and pay a W1 wage rate.

 

 

  1. Refer to the above diagram. An industrial (inclusive) union could increase employment in this labor market:
    A. by negotiating any wage rate between W1 and W4.
    B. by negotiating a wage rate greater than W4.
    C. only if it accepted a wage rate below W1.
    D. only if it could shift the labor demand curve rightward.

 

  1. Refer to the above diagram. An industrial union could maximize employment by negotiating a wage rate of:
    A. W4.
    B. W3.
    C. W2.
    D. W1.

 

  1. Which of the following tactics is most associated with the demand-enhancement union model?
    A. Reducing the price of inputs that are substitutes for union workers.
    B. Lobbying for increases in public expenditures on the product it is producing.
    C. Restricting the number of workers allowed to work in the industry.
    D. Increasing the price of products that are complements for the one it is producing.

 

  1. Inclusive unionism is practiced mostly by:
    A. professional and semiprofessional employees.
    B. small unions comprised of skilled workers, such as the bricklayers.
    C. industrial unions.
    D. craft unions.

 

 

 

 

  1. Refer to the above diagram. If this labor market is purely competitive, the wage rate and level of employment respectively will be:
    A. D and E.
    B. C and E.
    C. B and G.
    D. B and F.

 

  1. Refer to the above diagram. If this labor market is monopsonistic, the wage rate and level of employment respectively will be:
    A. D and E.
    B. C and F.
    C. B and F.
    D. A and F.
  2. Refer to the above diagram. Assume that an inclusive union is formed to bargain with the monopsonistic employer of the previous question. To what level can this union increase the wage rate without causing the number of jobs to decline below that which the monopsonist would otherwise have provided?
    A. D minus A
    B. D
    C. C
    D. B

 

  1. Refer to the above diagram. If an inclusive union seeks to maximize the number of jobs available for its members, what wage rate will it seek to impose on the monopsonist?
    A. D minus A
    B. F
    C. C
    D. B

 

  1. A craft union attempts to increase wage rates by:
    A. equating the MRP and the MRC curves.
    B. shifting the labor supply curve to the left.
    C. shifting the labor supply curve to the right.
    D. shifting the MRP curve to the right.

 

 

 

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  1. Occupational licensing has much the same effect as:
    A. inclusive unionism.
    B. exclusive unionism.
    C. bilateral monopoly.
    D. monopsony.

 

  1. Occupational licensing:
    A. functions essentially the same as inclusive unionism.
    B. attracts large numbers of workers and therefore depresses wages.
    C. often restricts occupational entry and raises the incomes of license holders.
    D. has been declared illegal in the majority of states.

 

  1. If an exclusive union is successful in restricting the supply of labor, the:
    A. wage rate will rise.
    B. quantity of labor demanded will rise.
    C. number of job opportunities in the firm or industry will increase.
    D. demand for labor curve will shift leftward.

 

  1. If an industrial union is formed to bargain with a monopsonistic employer, then in this labor market:
    A. the resulting wage rate will necessarily be above the competitive level.
    B. employment may either increase or decrease.
    C. employment will increase.
    D. employment will decrease.

 

  1. The electricians’ union is a good example of:
    A. exclusive unionism.
    B. an industrial union.
    C. how unions can simultaneously increase wage rates and employment by increasing the demand for labor.
    D. inclusive unionism.

 

  1. Labor unions may attempt to raise wage rates by:
    A. increasing the supply of labor.
    B. forcing employers, under the threat of a strike, to pay above-equilibrium wage rates.
    C. decreasing the demand for labor.
    D. increasing the price of complementary resources.

 

 

 

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  1. Construction workers frequently sponsor political lobbying in support of greater public spending on highways and public buildings. One reason for this is to:
    A. restrict the supply of construction workers.
    B. increase the elasticity of demand for construction workers.
    C. increase the demand for construction workers.
    D. increase the price of substitute inputs.

 

 

  1. Craft unions:
    A. attempt to organize workers at all skill levels in a firm or industry.
    B. have been declared illegal by Federal legislation.
    C. only organize workers who have a particular skill.
    D. attempt to increase the supply of their particular type of labor.

 

  1. Labor unions are restrained in their wage demands because:
    A. legislation limits annual increases in nominal wages to 6 percent.
    B. the labor demand curve is downsloping.
    C. marginal wage cost curves lie above labor supply curves in most labor markets.
    D. most unions deal with monopsonists who have superior bargaining power.

 

  1. In a labor market characterized by bilateral monopoly the wage rate will:
    A. be logically indeterminate.
    B. be established at the level desired by the union.
    C. be established at the level desired by the employer.
    D. always be established at the competitive level.

 

 

 

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  1. If a single large employer bargains with an inclusive union, the resulting labor market model can best be described as:
    A. a cartel.
    B. countervailing power.
    C. a bilateral monopoly.
    D. an internal labor market.

 

  1. Bilateral monopoly occurs where:
    A. a monopsonistic employer bargains with an inclusive union.
    B. a monopsonistic employer bargains with an exclusive union.
    C. a craft union bargains with a purely competitive employer.
    D. an industrial union bargains with a purely competitive employer.

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If this were a purely competitive labor market, the equilibrium wage rate and level of employment would be:
    A. $5 and 3 respectively.
    B. $6 and 4 respectively.
    C. $7 and 5 respectively.
    D. $8 and 3 respectively.

 

  1. Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If this were a monopsonistic labor market, the equilibrium wage rate and level of employment would be:
    A. $5 and 3 respectively.
    B. $6 and 4 respectively.
    C. $7 and 5 respectively.
    D. $8 and 3 respectively.

 

 

  1. Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If an inclusive union was formed and was able to get the monopsonist to agree to a $7 wage rate, then the monopsonist would:
    A. reduce employment from 5 to 3 workers.
    B. reduce employment from 5 to 2 workers.
    C. increase employment from 3 to 5 workers.
    D. not alter its level of employment.

 

  1. Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. If an inclusive union was able to get the monopsonist to pay a $6 wage rate, then:
    A. the supply curve would be perfectly elastic for the first four workers, but the MRC curve would be unaffected.
    B. the supply curve would be perfectly elastic for all workers and the MRC curve would coincide with it.
    C. the supply curve would be perfectly elastic for the first four workers and the MRC would be $6 for the first four workers.
    D. eight workers would be hired.

 

 

 

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  1. Refer to the above labor market diagram where D is the labor demand curve, S is the labor supply curve, and MRC is the marginal resource (labor) cost curve. An inclusive union could increase the level of employment above that which the monopsonist would provide if it could get the monopsonist to agree to any wage rate:
    A. below $7.
    B. between $5 and $8.
    C. above $5.
    D. above $8.

 

  1. Minimum-wage legislation is less likely to have adverse effects on employment when the:
    A. affected labor market is monopsonistic.
    B. economy has high unemployment.
    C. derived demand for labor is shifting to the left.
    D. affected labor market is perfectly competitive.

 

 

  1. Critics of minimum-wage legislation argue that it:
    A. keeps inefficient producers in business.
    B. reduces employment.
    C. undermines incentives to work.
    D. is deflationary.

 

 

 

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  1. Many economists are critical of the minimum wage because they believe that it:
    A. hurts the efforts of labor unions.
    B. reduces the number of available job opportunities.
    C. conflicts with policies designed to equalize the distribution of income.
    D. causes labor shortages in affected markets.

 

  1. Unions might support a higher minimum wage because:
    A. their constitutions obligate them to do so.
    B. they feel a higher minimum wage will lower labor’s tax payments for welfare programs.
    C. a higher minimum wage makes less-skilled workers less substitutable for union workers.
    D. the minimum wage is better targeted than are alternative income-maintenance programs.

 

 

  1. If all workers are homogeneous, all jobs are equally attractive to workers, and labor markets are perfectly competitive:
    A. compensating differences would cause wage differentials.
    B. noncompeting groups of workers would result in wage differentials.
    C. all workers would receive the same wage rate.
    D. worker mobility would occur such that wage differentials would widen.

 

  1. Wage differentials may result from all the following except:
    A. differences in the nonmonetary aspects of various occupations.
    B. differences in the education and skills of workers.
    C. geographic and sociological immobilities of workers.
    D. the tendency of qualified workers to move from lower pay jobs to higher pay jobs.

 

  1. Suppose all workers are identical, but working for Ajax is more pleasant than working for Acme. In all other nonwage aspects the two firms offer the same job characteristics. We would expect:
    A. wage rates at Ajax to be higher than at Acme.
    B. wage rates at Ajax to be lower than at Acme.
    C. wage rates at Ajax and Acme to be the same.
    D. workers at Ajax would have to be monitored more closely than at Acme.

 

  1. Noncompeting groups of workers are the result of:
    A. differences in the age-earnings profiles of workers.
    B. differences in the “job tastes” of workers.
    C. differences in the innate and acquired abilities of workers.
    D. geographic immobilities.

 

  1. Compensating differences in wages:
    A. compensate workers for differences in their human capital.
    B. are wage differences that compensate for differences in the desirability of jobs.
    C. describe the tendency for the wages of all occupations to adjust to the median level.
    D. do not exist if jobs have different nonmonetary characteristics.

 

  1. Compensating differences in wages pay workers for:
    A. differences in worker training and skills.
    B. differences in the nonmonetary characteristics of jobs.
    C. geographic immobilities.
    D. discrimination in hiring and firing.

 

 

 

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  1. The idea of compensating differences is used:
    A. by inclusive unions as an argument in bargaining for wage rate increases.
    B. to justify the application of minimum wages to low-wage labor markets.
    C. to explain the divergence between wage rates and marginal resource cost.
    D. to explain wage rate differences based on differing nonmonetary aspects of jobs.

 

 

  1. The concept of investment in human capital indicates that:
    A. union workers are better educated and more productive than nonunion workers.
    B. expenditures on education can be explained in essentially the same way as expenditures on machinery and equipment.
    C. worker productivity correlates negatively with annual earnings.
    D. the level of education is unrelated to the level of one’s income.

 

  1. Data on education and earnings reveal:
    A. negative age-earnings profiles for male workers.
    B. no relationship between the two.
    C. a positive relationship between the two.
    D. a negative relationship between the two.

 

  1. According to age-earnings data,
    A. lower educated workers have similar earnings at age 65 as higher educated workers.
    B. investments in education result in higher earnings.
    C. high earnings are due to motivation and innate ability, rather than education.
    D. there is no clear relationship between education and worker productivity.

 

 

  1. Economists regard expenditures on education as investments because:
    A. they are subject to tax deductions at the same rate as are expenditures on machinery and equipment.
    B. education is economically beneficial at the same time it is being acquired.
    C. such expenditures are current costs that are intended to enhance future earnings.
    D. they differ from expenditures on health and worker mobility.

 

  1. Which of the following involves the creation of human capital?
    A. the XYZ Corporation upgrades the machinery on its assembly line
    B. Jones receives apprenticeship training as a carpenter
    C. Smith buys 30 shares of common stock
    D. a retired person decides to reenter the labor force

 

  1. Human capital is best defined as:
    A. the productive skills and knowledge that workers acquire from education and training.
    B. the substitution of labor for machinery in the production process.
    C. any piece of machinery that must be combined with labor to be productive.
    D. the exchange of money for real assets.

 

 

 

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  1. Which of the following is a market imperfection that might explain persistent wage differentials within an occupation?
    A. movement of labor from lower-wage to higher-wage jobs
    B. readily available information about job opportunities and pay
    C. principal-agent problems
    D. discrimination

 

  1. Which of the following is a market imperfection that might explain persistent wage differentials within an occupation?
    A. geographical immobility of workers
    B. readily available information about job opportunities and pay
    C. principal-agent problems
    D. compensating wage differentials

 

  1. Which of the following is not an example of a market imperfection that might explain persistent wage differentials within an occupation?
    A. geographic immobility of workers
    B. discrimination
    C. noncompeting groups
    D. poor information about job opportunities and pay

 

  1. Jack and Jill have identical skills and training but Jill earns higher wages in her job. Which of the following reasons would best explain why Jill earns more than Jack?
    A. Jack has a chronic illness and would lose health care coverage if he changed jobs.
    B. Jill suffers from gender discrimination in the workplace.
    C. Jack has better access to information about available jobs in his field.
    D. Jill is reluctant to move to a new city because she wants to live near family.

 

 

 

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  1. In the context of labor markets, shirking refers to:
    A. the nonmonetary disadvantages of certain jobs.
    B. the neglecting or evading of work.
    C. the elimination of monitoring costs.
    D. any scheme where pay is directly related to worker output.

 

  1. Traveling sales representative Harold Hill only calls on clients four days a week rather than the five days expected by his employer. This is an example of:
    A. equalizing differences.
    B. a nonmonetary job disadvantage.
    C. shirking.
    D. the free-rider problem.

 

  1. The idea of efficiency wages is that:
    A. the wages of each type of labor must be proportionate to their marginal products.
    B. the wages of each type of labor must be equal to their marginal products.
    C. firms might get greater work effort by paying above-equilibrium wage rates.
    D. workers are more diligent when paid below-equilibrium wages.

 

  1. Paying an above-equilibrium wage rate might reduce unit labor costs by:
    A. permitting the firm to attract lower-quality labor.
    B. increasing the cost to workers of being fired for shirking.
    C. increasing voluntary worker turnover.
    D. increasing the supply of labor.

 

  1. Compensation paid in proportion to the number of units of personal output best describes:
    A. royalties.
    B. profit-sharing.
    C. bonuses.
    D. piece rates.

 

  1. A firm might choose to pay its employees a wage higher than that which would clear the market because:
    A. the higher wage raises the opportunity cost of shirking.
    B. the higher wage may shift the labor demand curve to the left.
    C. the firm will have higher turnover, allowing “new blood” to invigorate older workers who have a greater tendency to shirk.
    D. this policy reduces the proportion of experienced to inexperienced workers, resulting in a lower overall wage bill.

 

  1. For the firm, the major goal of profit sharing plans is to:
    A. force workers to incur some of the business risk.
    B. overcome the monopsony problem of having to pay higher wages to attract additional workers.
    C. overcome the principal-agent problem by better aligning the workers’ interests with those of the firm.
    D. reduce total compensation payments.

 

  1. Stock options as a form of payment are designed to:
    A. evade the equal-pay-for-equal work provisions of the Federal antidiscrimination law.
    B. boost the overall earnings of minimum wage workers.
    C. offset monopsony.
    D. address the principal-agent problem.

 

  1. One of the potential negative side-effects of pay in the form of sales commissions is:
    A. a greater incentive for sales people to engage in unethical or fraudulent sales practices that may eventually cause legal problems for the firm.
    B. increased volatility of sales revenue for the firm.
    C. the potential that pay levels may get so high that they will increase a firm’s marginal wage cost more than its marginal revenue product.
    D. an increased likelihood of shirking by workers.

 

 

 

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Question25:    Psychology

 

The early perspective called Gestalt psychology has evolved into the current perspective called _______________.
Choose one answer.
a. behavioral psychology
b. psychoanalysis
c. social psychology
d. cognitive psychology

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 2
Marks: 1
John B. Watson believed that psychology should involve the study of _________.
Choose one answer.
a. the brain
b. consciousness
c. behavior
d. the mind  ect
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 3
Marks: 1
Each of the following is a common ethical guideline suggested by the American Psychological Association EXCEPT __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. parents of infant participants must be informed about the study
b. investigators must debrief participants
c. participants may withdraw at any time
d. debriefing may be omitted when young children are involved
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 4
Marks: 1
According to present research on psychologists, thirty-four percent are in the ________________ subfield of psychology.
Choose one answer.
a. Industrial/Organizational
b. Clinical
c. Developmental
d. Counseling

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 5
Marks: 1
The placebo effect means _______________________.
Choose one answer.
a. the expectations of the participants influence their behavior
b. all conditions in an experiment are the same
c. that there is no control group
d. experimenter bias causes the subjects to act strangely

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 6
Marks: 1
A researcher stops people at the mall and asks them questions about their attitudes toward gun control. Which research technique is being used?
Choose one answer.
a. case study
b. survey
c. experiment
d. naturalistic observation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.

 

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Question 7
Marks: 1
Sallie noticed that when her alarm clock goes off in the morning her dog, Ruffles, is standing by her bed salivating. Every morning when Sallie wakes to the alarm, she immediately rolls out of bed and feeds Ruffles who very much enjoys his canned dog food. It is likely that ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to sleep next to her bed
b. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to enjoy canned dog food
c. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to salivate to the sound of her alarm clock
d. Sallie has conditioned Ruffles to salivate over canned dog food

Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 8
Marks: 1
Self-actualization was part of which of the following perspectives?
Choose one answer.
a. humanism
b. cognitive perspective
c. behaviorism
d. functionalism

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 9
Marks: 1
Pavlov’s research demonstrated that ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. involuntary reaction (sound of a bell) could occur in response to an unrelated stimulus (food)
b. an unrelated stimulus (food) could occur in response to an unrelated stimulus (barking)
c. an unrelated stimulus (salivation) could occur in response to an involuntary reaction (sound of a bell)
d. involuntary reaction (salivation) could occur in response to an unrelated stimulus (sound of a bell)

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 10
Marks: 1
What did Sigmund Freud consider as the key to understanding the nervous disorders he observed?
Choose one answer.
a. external consequences
b. free will
c. brain physiology
d. unconscious mind

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 11
Marks: 1
The steps or procedures an experimenter must use to control or measure the variables in a study is called the ________________.
Choose one answer.
a. hypothesis
b. double-blind study
c. theory
d. operational definition

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 12
Marks: 1
A variable that the experimenter manipulates is called a  _____________.
Choose one answer.
a. independent variable
b. dependent variable
c. control condition
d. coefficient of correlation

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 13
Marks: 1
Jane Goodall’s research with chimpanzees and gorillas can best be described as __________.
Choose one answer.
a. participant observation
b. a case study
c. experimentation
d. naturalistic observation
ect
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 14
Marks: 1
______________________ is an experiment in which participants do not know if they are in the experimental or the control group but the experimenters do know which participants are part of which group.
Choose one answer.
a. Correlational research
b. The double-blind study
c. The single-blind study
d. Field research
ect
Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 15
Marks: 1
Which of the following is  concerning random assignment?
Choose one answer.
a. The best formula for random assignment is birth dates.
b. In random assignment each participant is assigned alphabetically to each condition.
c. Random assignment can only be determined after an experiment is over.
d. In random assignment each participant has an equal chance for each condition.

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 16
Marks: 1

 

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Ken is planning on studying the influence of intelligence on the ability to recall events from the 1960s. If Ken does not account for variables such as age that could also influence one’s ability to recall these events, age could be considered a  __________________.
Choose one answer.
a. dependent variable
b. random variable
c. independent variable
d. confounding variable

Marks for this submission: 1/1.
Question 17
Marks: 1
A correlation coefficient shows that alcohol consumption and driving accidents are indeed related. As a result, a researcher could predict _____________ if the direction of the relationship is known.
Choose one answer.
a. the number of arrests a person has will go up or down based on the type of car an individual drives
b. the number of arrests will increase the fewer