100+ Research Paper Questions and Topics for History Class

Compare and contrast the reasons why the Western Roman Empire ended in ​476 and the Eastern Roman Empire

Use twelve point type and double space. Have a cover page with the title of your review, the course number and section, your name, date submitted, your tutor’s name and the word count. Use Chicago style footnotes. Write an essay in formal academic English (800-1000 words) on ONE of these topics:

How did the environments of six Physiographic regions of Canada

Assignment Format: All assignment are to be in 12 point font with a cover page with an assignment title, your name, course code Hist 112 DE, assignment number, word count and tutor’s name (Prof. Howard Hisdal) on the bottom. Use Chicago style footnoting and include a bibliography even if the only book you used was the textbook. Send in assignments as Microsoft Word attachments.

Development of racial thinking from Europe to the Americans

Directions: 1. Listen to podcast/radio show on “The Invention of Race” at https://www.wnyc.org/story/invention-race/ A summary of the show is “Compiled by Award-winning producer John Biewen from the “Seeing White” series. The Invention of Race traces the development of racial and racist ideas from the ancient world – when there was no notion of race – up to the founding of the United States as, fundamentally, a nation of and for white people.” 2. Create a timeline of the development of racial thinking from Europe to the Americas (up to the founding of the United States). Your timeline should include the date, and a few words on each event/law/action/etc. you chose that played a role in constructing race. Your timeline should reflect the evolution of understanding or thinking about race over time.

Lois Banner’s Steel Engraving Lady

Questions: 1. How did society view women in the Romantic period? 2. What were beauty ideals of the Romantic era? How did the steel engraving lady play into the concept of Romantic beauty ideals? 3. How did the popular clothing and silhouette of this period support society’s views on attaining ideal Romantic era beauty? 4. What were some of the ways women in this period tried to achieve ideal Romantic beauty? 5. Pick a picture from current fashion magazine today, attach it to your assignment book. Can you find any similarities to Romantic beauty ideals as discussed in the reading “Steel Engraving Lady” in the current fashion image that you chose?

Historical letter writing paper

two pages of letter style paper. Analyze the primary source documents by Samuel Seabury and Thomas Paine. Imagine that somehow the two had read each other’s works and had the chance to write to each other about independence and government. You will write two letters: one from Seabury to Paine and another from Paine to Seabury. What would have been their perspectives on government? What would they have said to each other?

Digital Source Analysis

write a short (400-500 word) dialogue between Adam Smith and Karl Marx in which they analyze the opening scenes of the movie. In the dialogue that you write, you should have each theorist draw upon their own writings to answer the following questions: 1. How would each analyze the conditions in the factory and the labor that the Little Tramp performs? 2. How would each explain the interactions between the Little Tramp and his co-workers? 3. How would each explain the “feeding machine” scene? 4. Why does the main character (the Little Tramp) have a nervous breakdown? 5. What is the remedy? (or, What would bring about a better future for the Little Tramp?) Please note that the dialogue should be written as a dialogue (like in a play). For example Karl Marx: Statement Adam Smith: Response to statement

History of civilization II

  1. To what extent did the age of European expansion impact the Chinese? Who benefited more from this seaborne interaction? Explain, with examples. 2. Compare and contrast the governmental systems of British and Spanish colonies in the Americas. Why were the British colonists of North America more inclined toward independence than their Spanish American counterparts? Explain, with examples.

Primary Source 2 assignment WWI

Read Article and do three paragraphs on it based on this link https://worldwar1letters.wordpress.com/2009/06/ no longer than 450 words, but no shorter than 300. P1- Should provide the title of the source, a very brief summary of the text and say what students hope to critique-argue in P2. Students need to provide an argument-thesis driven statement. A summary alone is neither desirable nor enough to thoroughly complete the assignment. P2- Should be an analytical paragraph that provides (at least) one example from the text to support the author’s claim…ie. The slave’s story provides insight into the cruelty of the system, “insert quotation from text here.” Using direct quotations provides clarity and helps to support the author’s claims. P3- Should summarize briefly what was covered in P1 and P2 and also say something about the significance of this document for the study of world history and how it shows global interconnectivity. (How is the world connected?) Do not throw this paragraph away, put as much effort into it as P1 and P2.

Iron Jawed Angels

What to do: In this discussion, I would like you to write a post that touches on some of the following topics relating to Iron Jawed Angels (below). Make sure to incorporate specific details from the film AND specific details from lecture and readings to help back up your ideas. Anacronism: Can you think of a few examples in the film where the filmmaker took license with history? For example, where did they put in modern details, attitudes, or sensibilities to make the film resonate with a 21st century audience? (Anacronism = something, a word, object or an event, that is mistakenly paced in a time where is does not belong). We are not looking for obscure inaccuracies, just major ones that might be important when critiquing the overall value of the film. The whole story? Do you think that someone watching this movie will get an accurate depiction of how the 19th Amendment was won? Explain to reason for your answer with specific details from readings and lecture to show your knowledge . How does “Iron Jawed Angels” compare to our textbook and lecture accounts of the road to suffrage (1848-1920)? The merit of the film? What do you think is the greatest merit of the film? Are the anachronisms and limited chosen narrative outweighed by the film’s overall value? Provide specific examples to explain your answer.

Film as history. Whether we historians like it or not, many Americans get most of their ‘history’ from Hollywood films (and TV shows). These films may be inaccurate, biased toward modern sensibilities, or politically motivated. Are there dangers or advantages of using popular films to learn history? Provide specific examples to explain your answer. Discussion Directions: NOTE: This post needs to be your own work. This means: Resist the temptation to google “Iron Jawed Angels + Anachronism.” If you write some obscure details about the inaccuracy of number of stars on the American flag or incorrect door handles being used or how the wrist watches were from the wrong time period, I will be pretty sure that you looked up that information online (or else you will need to prove to me how you came to be so knowledgeable in the subject of historic door handles…). Please only use our readings and lectures this week as the basis for your discussion. Do not go online looking for additional information. One of your goals is to demonstrate that you have completed this week’s assigned materials. Also you will have to watch this lecture and give evidences from it. This is the link: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=VBsAeAz0yBQ&feature=youtu.be

Be Unrealistic and the Best of Will Smith MOTIVATION

Watch the entire “BE UNREALISTIC” (Ft. Will Smith) video: Be Unrealistic and the Best of Will Smith MOTIVATION – #MentorMeWill (Links to an external site.) Links to an external site. Be Unrealistic and the Best of Will Smith MOTIVATION – #MentorMeWill TWO PARAGRAPHS (more 350 words per paragraph) respond to the following questions (after watching the entire video). First, notice that Will Smith tells stories about his life, and what lesson he learned from that experience. Second, write a SUMMARY of some of the key points that Will Smith makes in the video. Then, select ONE STATEMENT he makes that is the most significant one. Why was it picked and explain. NO HEADER OR FOOTER, NO RESEARCH, IT IS JUST AN OPINION PAPER, A SINGLE SHEET.

How did industrialization and economic growth affect the social and the natural environments of the Western Hemisphere countries

What major political challenges faced the new nations of the Western Hemisphere in the nineteenth century, and how well did they deal with those problems?* How did industrialization and economic growth affect the social and the natural environments of the Western Hemisphere countries?*

How was Rome influenced politically, economically and culturally by this contact

500 word discussion I will provide links for the topic Discussion topic: Rome was a city. Roman History is the story of a city that encompassed the known world. A new world order came into being that lasted for a thousand years. Its main components were: Roman law, Roman ethics, Roman practicality, Roman finance, Roman rule, Roman military strength, Roman science. Seeing it in perspective, Rome as a city conquered other great city-cultures. Choose ONE of the following and respond to it in 500 words after opening a new thread in DiscussionRome came into contact, early in her History, with neighboring cultures such as the Etruscans and the Greeks of southern Italy. How was Rome influenced politically, economically and culturally by this contact? Roman writers believed that Rome became a world power out of necessity. Since early in her expansion, Rome came to be in a state of perpetual war. Are there modern parallels to be drawn from contemporary powers that dwell in a state of perpetual war? Who gained the most from Rome’s war based economy and war inspired politics? Who gains in today’s states from their war based economy and war inspired politics?

 Two Letters from Slaves to Their Former Masters

ONE paragraph (350 words minimum) based on the information read. MUST start by giving the author, title of document, and when the document was written in order to clearly cite the source of information. Who is the author (race, nationality, position)? What is the document about (summary)? What does this show about the event and time period? What was learned from reading of this story/document? MSUT use ONE DIRECT QUOTE from the document. Post TITLE of document.

Reaction paper history 2

watch these movies and write a reaction paper. First paragraph – Identifications. Second Paragraph – Analysis. Third Paragraph – Reaction. For movie analysis, analyze the historical accuracy of the film. What did they get right? What did they get wrong? How historically accurate is the film? please see the attached files

Analytical Writing Assignment

REQUIREMENTS: 12 Font, 350 words, single page, correctly identified the author, title and date of document, and information about the author, summary the document accurately, describing the main points that the author is making about the issue at hand, a direct quote from the document that will be provide is a MUST. Accurate details MUST describe the importance of the document relevant to the major issues of the time period..Again, will provide document to complete assignment.

Winston Churchill, “The Iron Curtain

Read EWC Document 29.7, Winston Churchill, “The Iron Curtain,” and write a paragraph responding to the prompt at the end. (follow the link in the Canvas Module for Week 12 to access the document) Your response to the prompt should be about a paragraph in length but no longer than a page. It should begin with an introductory sentence that responds directly and completely to the prompt. This sentence establishes your main point (that is, your argument or thesis). In about four to six additional sentences, you should present evidence to support your thesis. Present at least two pieces of concrete evidence drawn from Document 29.7. You must cite any material paraphrased from the source document with a simple parenthetical citation. You must enclose any material taken word-for-word from the source document in quotation marks and cite it with a simple parenthetical citation. See the following examples: In this famous speech, British Prime Minister Winston Church warned that the Soviet Union controlled eastern European countries liberated from Nazi Germany after the end of World War II.

(EWC 29.7, Winston Churchill, “The Iron Curtain”) In this speech, British Prime Minister Winston Churchill famously warned that “an iron curtain has descended across” Europe, and that the Soviet Union exercised an “increasing measure of control” on the countries behind it. (EWC 29.7, Winston Churchill, “The Iron Curtain”) Be sure to analyze the evidence you present by explaining why it means what you think it means. Conclude your paragraph by restating your main point (that is, your argument/thesis/direct response to the prompt) and perhaps reflecting on the broader significance of the document you’ve read. Type your response in MS Word or any similar word processing software. Proofread your essay carefully to eliminate errors in grammar, punctuation, and usage. Save the file and then upload it to Canvas. Your work will be compared with the turnitin.com database to detect plagiarism by searching for similarities with internet sources and/or the work of other students around the world.

Analytical Assignment

12 Font, 350 words, single page, writing pertains to the document that will be provided, which will require author’s name, title of document, and when the document was written in order to clearly cite the source of information. Who is the author (race, nationality, position)? What was the document about (summary)? What does this show about the event and time period? What was learned from the document? MUST use a direct quote from the document. DRAFT needed 2 days prior to due date. No research or citations needed.

Reaction paper / HIS / movies

watch these movies and write a reaction paper. First paragraph – Identifications. Second Paragraph – Analysis. Third Paragraph – Reaction. For movie analysis, analyze the historical accuracy of the film. What did they get right? What did they get wrong? How historically accurate is the film? please see the attached files

Reaction paper

watch these movies and write a reaction paper. First paragraph – Identifications. Second Paragraph – Analysis. Third Paragraph – Reaction. For movie analysis, analyze the historical accuracy of the film. What did they get right? What did they get wrong? How historically accurate is the film? please see the attached files

James Davidson, Courtesans and Fishcakes.

Intro: Ø Introduce the author Ø Introduce the book (Title, What is it about?) .Ø State author’s thesis and summarize content/arguments. III. Body: Ø Each paragraph should address different parts of the book or different arguments presented in the book. Ø This may also be in the form of arguments made about different time periods or stages within a time period. Ø Use key parts of the book (quotations/paraphrasing) to demonstrate how the author supports his or her thesis. Ø You may add your assessment (analysis/view on the author’s arguments) within each paragraph or in separate paragraphs Ø Make sure to evaluate the author’s arguments in terms of whether or not they are convincing, well researched, and logical. If the author’s work could contribute to the public’s understanding of the topic you may comment on that as well.

Ø If you choose to disagree with the author you should do so strictly on academic grounds–i.e. use a reason-based argument to counter her or his argument. IV. Conclusion Ø Evaluation of the author’s success or failure to substantiate his or her thesis with evidence and argumentation Ø Evaluation of the book’s contribution to history, the public’s knowledge of the subject, “readability” and style. Format: *Review should be 4-5 pages double-spaced; stapled at the top left hand corner at a 45-degree angle *Font 12, Times New Roman *One-inch margins on both sides *You may use Chicago, APA, or MLA style for footnotes or endnotes (Ask in the library if you don’t know what to do) *Do not enclose your paper in any type of folder *Make sure to save copies of your paper in multiple locations.

Portfolio Reflection

In this module, we’ve learned a great deal about the value of history, how learning from the past may help provide definition to our present world perspective and how studying and learning from our ancient ancestors can potentially contribute in shaping our own future. Throughout this course, we have examined various civilizations and in each one we’ve learned about a myriad of aspects that helped influence our ancestors’ capacity to act responsibly and determine their roles or abilities to contribute to society. For this reflection, you will answer the question: “What can I, as an historian of the ancient world, learn and apply from the history of my ancient ancestors to my own role in contributing to and acting responsibly for the betterment of society?” In order to answer this question effectively for your reflection you must: Pick one common theme/criteria topic (from the list below) that you think significantly influenced an individual from the ancient world to act responsibly and contribute towards society. o Technology o Politics/Bureaucracy o Law/Ethics o Arts/Sciences o Economy/Business o Education o Military/Police o Religion/Morals & Traditions Explain how at least one specific example (one individual) from at least three different civilizations covered throughout this course supports your selected theme/criteria.

(So, your essay will talk about 3 different people – each from a different civilization that we discussed.) Support each of your examples with evidence from the articles in the M13 learning module about why we study history. In total, you must reference at least three of the articles in the learning activities, Support each of your examples with evidence from the module where we discussed their civilization (So, you will reference at least 3 learning modules in your paper.) Connect how understanding the history of your ancient ancestors in the context of your selected theme/ criteria has influenced your sense of responsibility and contributing role towards the betterment of society. In other words, what have you learned from their experiences that can help you act more responsibly today? Lastly, make sure you provide proper internal citations and a properly formatted bibliography This is going into your portfolio so be sure to make sure that you have fixed all grammatical and formatting issues before submission. For your bibliography, it does NOT have to be annotated. The only sources you’ll be using will be from your readings, so you MUST include internal citations and a full, properly MLA formatted bibliography with your paper, but you don’t need to annotated the sources in your bib. Your paper must be 2-3 pages in length (NOT including your bibliography) and follow MLA guidelines (double-spaced, 12pt. Times New Roman font, one-inch margins).

Applicant Cover Letter

To Apply: Applicants will need to submit a one-page cover letter (single-spaced) describing their motives and intent for applying for this position and interning at Pitt Community College (parent company for the newspaper). This letter should: 1) Indicate the applicant’s views concerning the value of studying history and the past. Does this internship (this course) have any value beyond fulfilling an educational requirement? Cover letters should also highlight any personal attributes, interests, and personal experiences that qualify the applicant for this position. 2) Demonstrate the applicant’s understanding of primary and secondary historical sources, the differences between these sources, and their ability to apply these sources critically to the past in order to create analytic interpretations of the past. 3) To show a final understanding of primary and secondary sources and your ability to perform as a historical journalist, conclude your cover letter by explaining the type of sources (primary/secondary) you will be creating for your readers when authoring news stories for AHL.

Is American History Learner a primary or secondary source? We will be looking specifically at the thoughtfulness to your answer of this question when evaluating applications. Be sure to review the syllabus and Internet Course Tutorial before forming your position on this question. You’ll need to have a good handle on what the course is trying to achieve to best answer this question. Submitting Application Applications should be uploaded through the Applicant Cover Letter link in the Summer Internship Module. Please make sure to submit applications by the due date indicated in Applicant Cover Letter link. Upon submission, intern applicants will be required to participate in a survey related to AHL as a source. (MANDATORY) Ensuring Success: Applicants’ cover letters will be assessed on three criteria. First, cover letters need to comprehensively fulfill cover letter requirements outlined above in the “To Apply” section. Second, submissions will be assessed based on the effective use of provided materials in preparing your application. The meat of your analysis should be based on the “What is History and How Do We Practice It?” lesson. (We’ll be looking to see who shows a strong understanding of the materials provided.) Third, cover letters must be composed and submitted in a standardized and professional cover letter format stipulated in the examples provided in the “Applicant Resources” section of the module.

Thomas Nast Obituary

Obituary Format and Objectives: Formatting: Obituaries need to be a minimum of one page, double-spaced and written in size 12 Times New Roman font. American History Learner is committed to journalistic integrity and accuracy. Journalists will need to note any sources that were used in completing this assignment. Objectives: Brief description of the individual’s age, location, and cause of death. Basic description of the individual’s major professional/personal achievements. What should this person be most remembered (legacy) for historically? Obituary needs to place this discussion of the individual in a historic context by describing some of the premier social, political, economic, or cultural events defining the period the individual lived. Integration of primary and secondary sources in your historical analysis. At American History Learner our focus is on historical and journalistic integrity. Obituaries need not glamorize or patronize individuals. Your obituary needs to be professional, unbiased, and note both accomplishments and offer valid criticisms when necessary. Provide an appropriate and creative title for this piece. Our research department has compiled some basic resources you may be interested in consulting when writing your first assignment.

See Module 2 Resources. Notes on Success: Management will be looking closely at your first piece for American History Learner. We will assess the effectiveness of your obituary based on some of the following criteria: historical accuracy, meeting of obituary goals, demonstration of understanding of historical significance and context of the individual, style and grammar, commitment/genuineness/inventiveness, and originality and journalistic integrity. While you have a series of provided readings on Nast that will serve as the research basis of your assignment, it is a good idea to first read the general historical concepts in your textbook that this assignment is built upon. The following portions of your textbook are all historically relevant to this study: Here’s a list of the readings that would be a helpful backdrop when considering the historical context of Thomas Nast. Reconstruction: Chapter 16 Introduction and parts 16.1, 16.3 Industrialization and Urbanization: Chapter 18 Introduction and 18.3 Chapter 19 Introduction and parts 19.1, 19.3, and 19.4 Needless to say, American History Learner is committed to academic and journalistic integrity. Any violation of our parent company, Pitt CC’s academic integrity and plagiarism policy, will result in automatic termination. See your employee handbook and Internet Course Tutorial for a more specific elaboration of AHL’s standards. Please provide an appropriate, creative title with your submission.

Critical Race Theory

Critical responses must identify the main objectives/points of the articles/videos. What do the authors commonly agree upon and/or state as their central focus? How are these articles and videos “speaking” to one another or, are divergent ideas presented? Additionally, students must analyze central points made by authors to develop their own thesis and construct their own claims.

 How vital was slavery to the Atlantic economy in the eighteenth century

  1. How vital was slavery to the Atlantic economy in the eighteenth century? Provide specific evidence from the textbook to support your response. The author podcast is also a good resource. http://www.wwnorton.com/college/history/give-me-liberty3-brief/ch/04/podcast.aspx (due 6/6/19) 5.Discuss the ways in which both supporters and opponents of independence used the concepts of ‘freedom’ and ‘slavery’ during the American Revolution. Be sure to consider the perspectives of both free and enslaved peoples. Chapter 5 Podcast http://www.wwnorton.com/college/history/give-me-liberty3-brief/ch/05/podcast.aspx (due 6/7/19) 6.Read the documents located on pages 248 and 249. In one essay address the questions at the end of page 249. Chapter 6 author podcast http://www.wwnorton.com/college/history/give-me-liberty3-brief/ch/06/podcast.aspx (due 6/10/19)

Explain Hume, Kant, Blyden and Crummell’s negative views of African/Black people

Do not use the internet or web resources to respond to this discussion board question(s). Use Yefru’s work and the readings on eLearn to participate in this discussion. Be sure that you review the discussion board requirements on your syllabus for full credit. Be original in your thinking as well. So, as you are composing your posts, be sure to write your post in your own words, your own voice, while placing quotations around a sentence or two that you may lift from the text to support your opinion. But remember that your opinion is taken from your clear and concise understanding of the critical ideas from the readings. #1. Explain Hume, Kant, Blyden and Crummell’s negative views of African/Black people. How are their ideas similar or different to one another? Be sure to know that Kant and Hume were white philosophers and Blyden and Crummell were African Americans who lived during the 1800s; evidence the sources from eLearn. However, all responses must be written in your OWN words. #2. Why is Dr. Yefru having this conversation about Hume, Kant. Blyden and Crummell in his introductory chapter? Sit with this question a bit. This is an introductory course to the discipline of Africana studies where we promote African-centered critical thinking (which we will discuss next week.) Why is this discussion important for Yefru? What does Yefru think about the ideas of Hume, Kant, Blyden and Crummell?

Miss education of the negro

NOTE: YOU HAVE TO USE THE Mis-education of the Negro AND THREE OUTSIDE READINGS OF YOUR CHOICE FROM THOSE ASSIGNED IN CLASS TO COMPOSE YOUR PRECISE. KEYS TO COMPOSING A HIGH QUALITY PRECIS (1) Please identify a common theme covered in the book and the articles (race, gender or class etc). (2) Upon identifying this theme which is present in the works, organize your information to address the questions associated with the assignment in paragraph form (see the syllabus). Your discussion will first start with the book and through the common theme incorporate the outside readings. (3) Proofread your essay and make sure it follows the formatting guidelines and cites the relevant materials in the proper way. PLEASE FIND THE CHICAGO STYLE GUIDE ATTACHED TO THIS MESSAGE WHICH SPECIFICALLY APPLIES TO YOUR BIBLIOGRAPHY AND FOOTNOTES. ***Also, an example paper is attached.***

What were the goals of the major parties in Reconstruction

Part I: Short Answer Answer EACH in a paragraph (or two) per question. 1. What were the goals of the major parties in Reconstruction? What problems made reconstruction so difficult? 2. What were the main forms of white resistance to the efforts of reconstructionists? What were the black codes? What effect did they have? 3. What were the various meanings of freedom that emerged after emancipation among freed blacks? How was this resisted by white southerners? 4. What was involved in the “redeeming” of the South? How and why did this occur? Why did white supremacy become the foundation of southern politics in the 1870’s? 5. What were the main ways Indians resisted attempts to annihilate them (and their culture)? 6. Explain “Social Darwinism” and “laissez-faire” economics (particularly as they related to the “Gilded Age”). 7. Identify the following and explain how each acquired his fortune (both in terms of industry and tactics): Jay Gould, Andrew Carnegie, and John D. Rockefeller. 8. What role did the federal government play in the growth and profitability of the railroads (including in response to strikes)? 9. What were the various positions people took on the currency (or “free silver”) debate(s) in the Gilded Age and why did they take these various positions? 10. Explain “bossism.” What were it’s advantages and disadvantages?

11. Explain the spoils system. How did it eventually end and why did its demise lead to the increase in the influence of business in politics? 12. Why was there an increase in lynchings at the end of the 19th century? 13. Explain the role of women in politics in the last decades of the nineteenth century. What causes did they endorse, what obstacles did they face, and what role did the “cult of domesticity” play in their tactics/power? 14. Compare the roles played in policy and public life by the Republican and Democratic parties during Reconstruction and during the Gilded Age. What causes did they support and what kinds of voters and support did each attract during each of these periods? 15. Explain the nature of migration and immigration during the last half of the 19th-century. 16. Explain the goals and programs of both the Farmers Alliance and the People’s Party (Populist Party). 17. What were the main issues motivating the labor unions during the Gilded Age, how did they try to achieve them, and why were they unsuccessful? 18. Identify each of the following and explain why they were important: Homestead lockout, Cripple Creek miners’ strike, Pullman boycott, and Coxey’s army. 19. Identify and explain each of the following: Monroe Doctrine, Open Door policy, and yellow journalism. 20. How did the U.S. come to control Cuba, the Philippines, Puerto Rico, and Guam?

21. Why, and in what ways, did the situation of Black Americans actually worsen during the Progressive Era? Explain the case of Plessy v. Ferguson. 22. Explain the contrasting views of Booker T. Washington and W.E.B. Dubois. 23. Explain the ideology of the Progressives, both in terms of the “social gospel” and in terms of their understanding of Darwinism. (Illustrate with examples of actions they undertook.) 24. Compare the following: anarchists, socialists, and progressives. 25. Explain Roosevelt’s “square deal” and describe his actions as both reformer and conservationist. 26. How did Wilsons’ progressivism differ from Roosevelt’s? How did Wilson’s progressive agenda change during his presidency? 27. Explain Wilson’s notion of “national determination” and explain why it was problematic. 28. Explain how and why dissent was suppressed during World War I and comment on its possible effects. 29. In what sense, and why, had American culture drastically changed after World War I? 30. Describe and explain the “Great Migrations” of Black Americans and Mexicans during the early 20th century.

31. What were the causes of the economic crisis (1928-1932) that led to the Great Depression? Part II: Essay Answer these in seperate essays of 4-6 paragraphs. A. Develop an essay in which you explain the nature of the struggle between labor and management/ownership in U.S. history from the Civil War to 1932. In arguing for your interpretation choose three important examples from the history of this period to support your claims. B. Develop an essay in which you explain the nature of the struggle for women’s rights during this period (1865-1932). In arguing for your interpretation choose three important examples from the history of this period to support your claims. C. In what sense might we consider the United States an imperialist country during the post-Civil War era up to the end of Word War I? In arguing for your interpretation choose three important examples from the history of this period to support your claims.

The limits of power

This is a book review on The Limits of Power: The End of American Exceptionalism. Here is the instructions by my teacher: II. Intro: Ø Introduce the author Ø Introduce the book (Title, What is it about?). Ø State author’s thesis and summarize content/arguments. III. Body: Ø Each paragraph should address different parts of the book or different arguments presented in the book. Ø This may also be in the form of arguments made about different time periods or stages within a time period. Ø Use key parts of the book (quotations/paraphrasing) to demonstrate how the author supports his or her thesis. Ø You may add your assessment (analysis/view on the author’s arguments) within each paragraph or in separate paragraphs Ø Make sure to evaluate the author’s arguments in terms of whether or not they are convincing, well researched, and logical. If the author’s work could contribute to the public’s understanding of the topic you may comment on that as well. Ø If you choose to disagree with the author you should do so strictly on academic grounds–i.e. use a reason-based argument to counter her or his argument. IV. Conclusion Ø Evaluation of the author’s success or failure to substantiate his or her thesis with evidence and argumentation Ø Evaluation of book’s contribution to history, the public’s knowledge of the subject, “readability” and style. Format: *Review should be 5 pages double-spaced; stapled at the top left hand corner at a 45-degree angle *Font 12, Times New Roman *One-inch margins on both sides *You may use Chicago, APA, or MLA style for footnotes or endnotes (Ask in the library if you don’t know what to do) *Do not enclose your paper in any type of folder *Make sure to save copies of your paper in multiple locations Biographical Sketch: Andrew J. Bacevich, Sr. (born 1947 in Normal, Illinois) is a professor of international relations at Boston University and a retired career officer in the United States Army.

He is a former director of Boston University’s Center for International Relations (from 1998 to 2005), and author of several books, including American Empire: The Realities and Consequences of US Diplomacy (2002), The New American Militarism: How Americans are Seduced by War (2005) and The Limits of Power: The End of American Exceptionalism (2008). He has been “a persistent, vocal critic of the US occupation of Iraq, calling the conflict a catastrophic failure.”[1] In March 2007, he described George W. Bush’s endorsement of such “preventive wars” as “immoral, illicit, and imprudent.”[1][2] His son, also an Army officer, died fighting in the Iraq War in May 2007.[1]

The Impact of Globalization on Conflict

Think about the previous examination of China. For this project, your job is to write the content for a new page of this course titled India and Globalization. After reading your page, other students should be able to do the following: Identify positive effects of globalization on India Identify negative effects of globalization on India Compare modern U.S. relations with India to relations with China Your pages should include commentary with your thoughts on the following question: Why does the U.S. have a better chance of maintaining long-term strong relations with India than it does with China? Include a picture with a caption to go on your page. You may find images using the Google image search function with key words such as: India, Globalization, industry, economy, and trade Include a list of four more websites or articles that you read to support the information on your page. (You should not include the websites below.) Use the The CIA Country Factbook to review data about India’s people and its economy, and then use the rest of the links to examine globalization’s effects on India. BBC News: Is globalisation a force for good in India? Economy Watch: Globalization in India Effects of Globalization on Indian Industry Use a search engine to find more information about globalization’s effect on India by searching with the following key words: “globalization, India, trade, economy, media, effect”

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QUESTION 1

Rift Valley University, Burayu Campus
Department of Business Management
For First Year MBA students, 2021/22 Academic year

QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS FOR MANAGEMENT DECISIONS (MBA 641)
Group Assignment 30%
Instruction: Answer the following questions according to the given instruction (3 points each)

  1. A company is involved in the production of two items (X and Y). The resources need to produce X and Y are twofold, namely machine time for automatic processing and craftsman time for hand finishing. The table below gives the number of minutes required for each item:

Machine time Craftsman time
Item X 13 20
Item Y 19 29
The company has 40 hours of machine time available in the next working week but only 35 hours of craftsman time. Machine time is priced at £10 per hour worked and craftsman time is costed at £2 per hour worked. Both machine and craftsman idle times incur no costs. The revenue received for each item produced (all production is sold) is £20 for X and £30 for Y. The company has a specific contract to produce 10 items of X per week for a particular customer.
Formulate the problem of deciding how much to produce per week as a linear program.

  1. Answer the questions related to the model below:

max. 3 x1 + 2 x2
st 2 x1 + 2 x2 = 5
x1 + x2 = 4
x1 + 2 x2 = 4
x1, x2 = 0

  1. Use the graphical solution technique to find the optimal solution to the model.
  2. Use the simplex algorithm to find the optimal solution to the model.
  3. For which objective function coefficient value ranges of x1 and x2 do the solution remain optimal?
  4. Find the dual of the model.
  1. Use the revised simplex algorithm manually to solve the following problem. min 5x1 + 2x2 + 4x3

s.t. 3x1 + x2 + 2x3 = 4 6x1 + 3x2 + 5x3 = 10 x1, x2, x3 = 0

  1. Addis Ababa Police Station employs 30 police officers. Each officer works 5 days per week. The crime rate fluctuates with the day of the week, so the number of the police officers required each day depends on which day of the week it is: Monday, 18; Tuesday, 24; Wednesday, 25; Thursday, 16; Friday, 21; Saturday, 28; Sunday, 18. The Police Station wants to schedule police officers to minimize the number whose days off are not consecutive. Formulate an LP that will accomplish this goal.
  1. A shoe company forecasts the following demands during the next three months: 200, 260, 240. It costs

$7 to produce a pair of shoes with regular time labor (RT) and $11 with overtime labor (OT). During each month regular production is limited to 200 pairs of shoes, and overtime production is limited to 100 pairs. It costs $1 per month to hold a pair of shoes in inventory. Formulate a balanced transportation problem to minimize the total cost of meeting the next three months of demand on time (Do not try to solve it!).

  1. Recall that the optimal solution for the Power problem was z=$1,020 and the optimal tableau was:
UI/vj City 1
6
City 2
6
City 3
10
City 4
2
Supply
8 6 10 9
Plant 1 0 10 25 35
9 12 13 7
Plant 2 3 45 5 50
14 9 16 5
Plant 3 3 10 30 40
Demand 45 20 30 30
  1. For what range of values of the cost of shipping 1 million kWh of electricity from plant 3 to city 3 will the current basis remain optimal?
  2. Suppose we increase both s3 and d3 by 3. Find the new value of the cost and new values of the decision variables.
  1. Nicole Kidman, Jennifer Lopez, Catherine Zeta-Jones, and Cameron Diaz are marooned on a desert island with Brad Pitt, Antonio Banderas, Robin Williams, and Tom Cruise. The “compatibility measures” in the table given below indicate how much happiness each couple would experience if they spent all their time together. Determine the partner for each person.
NK JL CZJ CD
BP 7 5 8 2
AB 7 8 9 4
RW 3 5 7 9
TC 5 7 6 9
  1. A company is taking bids on four construction jobs. Three people have placed bids on the jobs. Their bids (in thousands of dollars) are given in the table (a * indicates that the person did not bid on the given job). Person 1 can do only one job, but persons 2 and 3 can each do as many as two jobs.
  1. built an assignment table to determine the minimum cost assignment of persons to jobs,
  2. use the Hungarian method to find the assignment of persons to jobs.
Job
Person 1 2 3 4
1 50 46 42 40
2 51 48 44 *
3 * 47 45 45
  1. Consider the following transportation table for a minimization problem.

1 2 3 4 Supply 1
2
3
Demand

100 60
60

3 4 3 3
6 5 9 4
3 2 1 2

70
90
40 20

  1. A basic feasible solution for the given transportation is given as BV: {x11, x13, x21, x24, x32, x33}. Find the values of the basic variables. Prove that this solution is not optimal.
  2. Find the optimal solution using the transportation simplex method starting from the basic feasible solution given in part a.
  3. Find the range of values of the c24 (the cost related to x24i) for which the current basis remains optimal.
  1. Critically and objectively explain by giving examples the role of game theory in managerial decision-making.

NB. Date of submission 15/04/2022… submitted in hard copy only
Adapted and set by Getachew Gobena (Asst. Prof.)
QUESTION1,
Answer to Question #56576 – Math – Other
A company is involved in the production of two items (X and Y). The resources need to produce X and Y are twofold, namely machine time for automatic processing and craftsman time for hand finishing. The table below gives the number of minutes required for each item:
Machine time Craftsman time
Item X 13 20
Item Y 19 29
The company has 40 hours of machine time available in the next working week but only 35 hours of craftsman time. Machine time is costed at £10 per hour worked and craftsman time is costed at £2 per hour worked. Both machine and craftsman idle times incur no costs. The revenue received for each item produced (all production is sold) is £20 for X and £30 for Y. The company has a specific contract to produce 10 items of X per week for a particular customer. Formulate the problem of deciding how much to produce per week as a linear program hence make the decision.
Solution
Let ?? be the number of items of ??, ?? be the number of items of ??.
Then the LP is
maximize
20?? + 30?? – 10(??????h?????? ???????? ????????????) – 2(?????????????????? ???????? ????????????)
subject to:
13?? + 19?? = 40(60) ??????h?????? ????????
20?? + 29?? = 35(60) ?????????????????? ????????
?? = 10 ????????????????
??, ?? = 0
so that the objective function becomes
maximize
20?? + 30?? – 10(13?? + 19??) – 2(20?? + 29??)
60 60
i.e. maximize
17.1667?? + 25.8667??
subject to:
13?? + 19?? = 2400
20?? + 29?? = 2100
?? = 10
??, ?? = 0
It is plain from the diagram below that the maximum occurs at the intersection of ?? = 10 and
20?? + 29?? = 2100.
Solving simultaneously, rather than by reading values off the graph, we have that ?? = 10 and ?? = 65.52
with the value of the objective function being £1866.5.

QUESTION 2

Question 1. Which sequence can serve as the best template for modeling the E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase structure? Give a reason for the same. Use the parameters like score, identity, similarity, query • coverage, E-value, etc. to make the choice.
Question 2. Show the alignment of the chosen template with your query protein. Is there any region of the query that is not being covered by the template? If yes, mention the residue numbers. Use the graphical summary on the results page to check if any other sequence can serve as a template for the uncovered region or not

QUESTION 3

12
M1L1 Fluids, Density, and Pressure
Name: Section:
Date:
The assessment quantity of helium gas at 0°C used to inflate balloons has a volume of 4.0 m3 and a volume of 0.712 kg. The gas is at atmospheric pressure. What is its density?

  1. Rewrite the equation= m / V to solve for the a) mass and b) volume.

Learning Module on Fluid Mechanics 13

  1. A rectangular brass plate is 3.15 in length, 6.0 cm wide, and 0.015 m thick.
    1. Calculate the volume of the plate in cubic centimeters.
    2. Calculate the plate’s mass in grams and kilograms.
  1. What pressure will Vangie feel if she is submerged under saltwater with a depth of 235 cm? Vangie weighs 78 kilograms.

Learning Module on Fluid Mechanics
14

  1. A mattress of a waterbed is 2.0 m long, 25 in wide, and 30 cm deep. Find the following:
    1. the mass of the water in the mattress
    2. the pressure exerted by the waterbed on the floor while the bed rests in its normal position.
    3. the pressure of the waterbed exerted on the floor if the bed is supported by four legs and each leg has a radius of 3.0 cm.

Learning Module on Fluid Mechanics

Attachments:

QUESTION 4

Leo wants to paint a mural that covers a wall with an area of 300 square feet. The height of the wall is 1/3 of its length. What are the length and the height of the wall?

 QUESTION 5

Basic body color for horses is influenced by several genes, one of which has several different alleles. Two of this alleles-the chestnut (dark brown) allele and a diluting (pale cream) allele (often incorrectly called ‘albino’)-display incomplete dominance. A horse heterozygous for these two alleles is a palomino (golden body colorbody-color with flaxen mane and tail). Is it possible to produce a herd of pure-breeding palomino horses? Why or why not? Work the Punnett’s square for mating a palomino to a palomino and predict the phenotypic ratio among their offspring.

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A farmer has 1000 acre of land on which he can grow corn, wheat and
soya beans. Each acre of corn cost Rs. 100 for preparation, requires 7
man days of work and yields a profit of Rs. 30. An acre of wheat cost Rs.
120 for preparation, requires 10 man days of work and yields a profit of
Rs. 40. An acre of soya beans cost Rs. 70 to prepare, requires 8 man days
of work and yields a profit of Rs, 200. If the farmer has Rs. 1, 00,000 for
preparation and count on 8000man days of work, how many acres
should be allocated to each crop to maximize profit. (Use Simplex
Method)
Discuss the profitability of different alternatives

Question 2: Chemistry

Calculate the density of a proton, given that the mass of a proton is 1.0073 amu and the diameter of a proton is 1.72×10−15 m.

Question 3: Chemistry

An atom has a diameter of 2.50 Å and the nucleus of that atom has a diameter of 4.50×10−5 Å. Determine the fraction of the volume of the atom that is taken up by the nucleus. Assume the atom and the nucleus are a sphere.

Question 1:     General Question

 

NURS 6501 Week 10 Quiz (2018): Advanced Pathophysiology -Walden University (Already graded A)

 

Question 1: Health Care

 

HEA-306: MEN’S HEALTH

 

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Required Internet Resources

 

 

 

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Written Assignment 1: Health Risk Assessment

The purpose of this activity is to reflect on and identify your potential risk factors for diseases and identify strategies that promote healthy lifestyles. While many of these health risks are the same for women, the focus of this course is men’s health. Therefore, women taking this course should ask a male to complete the assessment.

 

  1. Review the variables and complete the Sample Health Risk Assessment.

 

  1. Write a 3–5 page paper addressing the areas identified in the grading rubric below for this activity.
Grading Criteria Points Allocated Points Earned
  1. Describe your total HRA score and the total score for each category (e.g., physical activity, nutrition, general health).
10
  1. Discuss results.

●       What do you think the overall score means for you? Did it surprise you?

●       Which category score was the highest and which one was the lowest? Did that surprise you?

20
  1. Describe 3 positive behaviors you identified. How can they be enhanced? Provide at least 2 web resources with information to support your answer.
30
  1. Describe 3 behaviors you identified that could use improvement. How can they be improved? Provide at least 2 web resources with information to support your answer.
30
APA, Grammar, and Organization:

●      Uses correct spelling, grammar, and sentence structure.

●      Correct use of APA style.

10
Total  /100

 

Discussion Forum 5: Health Risk Assessment Findings

Complete your Sample Health Risk Assessment Written Assignment and discuss your findings in Discussion Forum 5.

 

  • Based on what you have learned, do you think this assessment includes the most important variables/risk factors of health? If not, which variables / risk factors are not included?
  • Do you see any benefit to using a tool like this? Why or why not?
  • Did you identify any strategies to reduce health risk that you had not considered before?

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Question 2: Health Care

 

Module 10: Critical Thinking Critical Thinking Assignment (105 points) Draft a response plan as a part of the World Health Organization’s strategic planning proposal for natural disasters or disease outbreak specific to the Eastern Mediterranean Region to protect pilgrims during the Hajj. Research a disease or natural disaster in which the WHO seeks to advise the KSA on how to react. Also, as you draft your response plan, consider the policy requirements that are in place for Health Conditions for Travelers to Saudi Arabia for the Pilgrimage to Mecca (Hajj). Draft a 5-6 page policy, not including the cover and reference pages, using the readings, research, and your knowledge of healthcare consumerism influencing marketing. Your paper should analyze the following substantive requirements: Describe what natural disaster or disease you are planning to mitigate through the response plan. Examine the global and regional organizations that could aid in this situation. Assess the humanitarian challenges that should be considered. Provide specific information regarding the implementation of this policy. Recommend how to monitor to continually monitor the implementation to ensure its success. Your report should meet the following structural requirements: Be five to six pages in length, not including the cover or reference pages. Be formatted according to Saudi Electronic University and APA writing guidelines. Provide support for your statements with in-text citations from a minimum of six scholarly articles. Two of these sources may be from the class readings, textbook, or lectures, but four must be external. Utilize headings to organize the content in your work.

 

 

 

 

 

Question 3: Health Care

 

 

Quantitative or Qualitative Critique

Student Name

NSG 3036

Date

 

 

 

 

 

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Qualitative (Individual) Critique

Questions

  1. Is the specific qualitative approach named and described? What is it? (Houser ch 15).
  2. Does the phenomenon lend itself to study by qualitative methods or would a quantitative approach have been more appropriate? Why/ why not?
  3. Does the study focus on the subjective nature of human experience? Explain.
  4. Does the researcher clearly describe how participants were selected? How was the sample size determined? Describe.
  5. Is the data collection and recording process fully presented? If so, how?
  6. Is it clear how researcher bias in data collection was avoided? Explain. (Houser p. 394).
  7. Is the data analysis method consistent with the purpose and approach of the study? Why/why not?
  8. Are the study findings clearly presented and study limitations acknowledged? If so, how?
  9. Will the study findings have significance for nursing? Why/why not?
  10. APA citation for the article:

 

Each item and the citation are worth 10 points each for a total of 100 points.

Total Grade =

 

 

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Quantitative (Individual) Critique

Questions

  1. Is the design clearly identified and described in the research report? What is the design?
  2. Is the design appropriate to test the study hypothesis(es) or answer the research question(s)? Why/ why not?
  3. Did the study use an experimental or nonexperimental design? Was the most appropriate type of experimental design used? Explain your reasoning. (Houser pp. 41-43).
  4. What means were used to control for threats to internal validity? External validity? (Houser p. 243).
  5. Was assignment of subjects to the experimental and control group clearly described? If so, how? (Houser chapter 7).
  6. Does the research design allow the researcher to draw a cause-and-effect relationship between the variables? Describe.
  7. Are the study findings clearly presented and study limitations acknowledged? If so, how?
  8. What means were used to control for extraneous variables, such as subject characteristics? Please explain.
  9. Will the study findings have significance for nursing? Why/why not?
  10. APA citation for the article:

 

Each item and the citation are worth 10 points each for a total of 100 points

 

Instructions

This is an assignment for TWO SEPARATE Critiques using TWO SEPARATE studies

  • Paper must be typed and citation in APA format.
  • Type the answer directly below the question.
  • Only utilize the articles that were approved by Dr. Ramjohn
  • Cover page follows APA format.
  • One paper is completed for the qualitative study
  • One paper is completed for the qualitative study
  • Each paper is to be turned in as a hard copy bound in the following format from front to back: cover page, critique of the paper, reference page and article attached.
  • If you fail to turn a paper in on time 10 points will be deducted automatically.

 

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Question 4: Religious Studies

 

Jewish History

Part 1: Common Holy Days in Jewish Religious Traditions

Complete the table below with information about Jewish holy days. Identify at least seven Jewish religious holy days and place each holy day in the correct season (time of year). Provide a brief explanation of each holy day you identified.

Note: An example has been provided. You may add additional rows or move the text fields to different locations within the table as needed.

Fall

(September – November)

Winter

(December – February)

Spring

(March – May)

Summer

(June – August)

 Enter text. Example:

Hanukkah

Hanukkah is an 8 day-long Festival of Lights. It is a celebration of the victory of the Maccabees over the armies of Syria, as well as the rededication of the Temple in Jerusalem.

Enter text. Enter text.
Enter text. Enter text. Enter text. Enter text.

Part 2: Major Sects of Judaism

Select three major sects of Judaism to compare and contrast. Identify them in the table below.

Sect of Judaism Enter text.
Sect of Judaism Enter text.
Sect of Judaism Enter text.

In the table below, list at least two similarities and two differences among the sects of Judaism you selected.

Similarities Differences
Enter text. Enter text.

Part 3: Summary

Write a 525- to 700-word summary that includes the following:

  • A description of the life and importance of one key person in Jewish history
  • An explanation of one key event in the history of Judaism that is connected to that person
  • A description of any rituals, symbols, or sacred texts in Judaism associated with this event or person
  • Brief explanation of Jewish ethics
Summary
Enter text.

Include references formatted according to APA guidelines. You may find helpful resources for formatting citations in the Center for Writing Excellence in the University Library.

References
Enter text.

 

 

Question 5: Other

 

Explain merit pay. Address what level of risk is associated with the employees. Your response should be a minimum of 75 words. 2. Discuss how performance appraisals should be conducted. Your response should be a minimum of 75 words. 3. Evaluate how performance appraisals are used in pay-for-performance plans. Your response should be a minimum of 75 words. 4. Explain whether or not pay-for-performance affects employee behavior. Your response should be a minimum of 75 words.

 

Question 6: Law

 

Liberty University – CJUS 330 Ch.15-Study Questions / CJUS 330 chapter 15 Study Questions/ CJUS 330 Questions

How much deference (or conversely, scrutiny) an appellate court will afford to the decisions of a judge, jury, or administrative agency in an appeal is referred to as the ____________.

  1. deferential standard
  2. appellate standard
  3. principle or review
  4. standard of review

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Which court is responsible for hearing cases for which there are automatic reviews?

  1. trial court
  2. intermediate court of appeals
  3. state court of last resort
  4. federal circuit court

 

If a defendant loses an appeal, what is the first step to take in order to file a subsequent appeal?

  1. File a notice of appeal.
  2. File a petition for a writ of certiorari.
  3. File a writ of habeas corpus.
  4. File a motion for appeal.

 

Which of the following statements is true?

  1. Criminal appeals always involve questions of fact decided by a judge or jury.
  2. In contrast to the highly deferential appellate review of factual issues, questions of law are reviewed without deference on appeal.
  3. Appellate courts are willing to second-guess findings of fact made in lower courts.
  4. Many appeals are “routine,” which means they have the likelihood of succeeding.

 

____________ errors are defects that seriously affect substantial rights.

  1. Substantial
  2. Reversible
  3. Plain
  4. Grievous

 

If a defendant convicted in a U.S. circuit court files for an appeal, which type of court has jurisdiction?

  1. U.S. Supreme Court
  2. intermediate courts of appeals
  3. state courts of last resort
  4. U.S. circuit courts

 

Which of the following are opinions written “by the court” without attribution to a specific judicial author?

  1. dissenting opinion
  2. concurring opinion
  3. plurality opinion
  4. per curium opinion

 

 

 

During trial, attorneys must make timely objections to the judge’s rulings on points of law or the objections will be deemed waived. This is known as which of the following?

  1. mandatory objection rule
  2. contemporaneous objection rule
  3. appellate objection rule
  4. interlocutory objection rule

 

The ____________ consists of the materials that advance to the appellate court.

  1. writ of certiorari
  2. standards of review
  3. appellate court record
  4. notice of appeal

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A defendant who makes a guilty plea on a felony charge, therefore accepting the sentence recommended by the prosecutor, subsequently requests an appeal. The appeal is based upon the failure of the court to inquire as to whether the plea was voluntary. In this example, the error is subject to which type of test?

  1. classic trial errors rule
  2. reversible error rule
  3. plain error rule
  4. harmless error rule

 

Losing parties at trial have the discretion to file an appeal except in what type of cases?

  1. felony cases
  2. civil cases
  3. misdemeanor cases
  4. capital punishment cases

 

How does the role of the appellate court differ from the trial court?

  1. It retries cases sent from the lower court.
  2. It focuses on the evidence and how it was obtained.
  3. It focuses on how decisions were made in the trial court.
  4. It reexamines the facts presented during the trial.

 

The leading causes of ____________ include mistaken identifications, improper forensic evidence, false confessions, unreliable informants, tunnel vision and misconduct by justice professionals, and inadequate defense representation.

  1. appeals
  2. wrongful convictions
  3. hung juries
  4. postconviction reviews

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Why do criminal appeals rarely succeed?

  1. The appellate court reversal often produces only minor victories for many criminal defendants.
  2. If the appellate court reverses and remands the case to the lower court for a new trial, many defendants will be convicted a second time.
  3. The appellate standards of review often find that no reversible error was committed during the trial court proceedings.
  4. The appellate courts are reluctant to overturn decisions by the lower courts because of time and cost constraints.

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Which court is seen as more conservative with rulings that cut back on abortion rights, condoned mandatory drug testing, and permitted capital punishment for juveniles and developmentally impaired persons who were convicted of murder?

  1. the Warren Court
  2. the Burger Court
  3. the Rehnquist Court
  4. the Roberts Court

 

What was the purpose of the Antiterrorism and Effective Death Penalty Act of 1996?

  1. It restricted the time periods and the number of habeas corpus petitions prisoners file.
  2. It restricted courts from hearing habeas corpus petitions from convicted terrorists.
  3. It restricted courts from pursuing all terrorism cases as death penalty cases.
  4. It increased penalties for those convicted of domestic terrorism

 

What does it mean when a case is reversed and remanded?

  1. The case is overturned and sent back to the lower court for further hearing.
  2. The case is overturned and terminated.
  3. The case is returned to the lower court for a retrial.
  4. The case is affirmed and returned to the lower court for further hearing.

 

What are the two primary functions of appeal?

  1. judicial oversight and checks on prosecution
  2. error correction and policy formation
  3. error correction and process oversight
  4. crime control philosophy enforcement and compliance

 

Which of the following is NOT one of the ways in which postconviction differs from appeals?

  1. They may be filed only by those actually in custody.
  2. They may raise only constitutional defects, not technical ones.
  3. They may be somewhat broader than appeals.
  4. Many state court systems limit postconviction remedies.

 

The U.S. Supreme Court and most state high courts of last resort have largely ____________.

  1. discretionary appellate jurisdiction
  2. mandatory appellate jurisdiction
  3. limited appellate jurisdiction
  4. constitutional appellate jurisdiction

 

Which of the following has led to an increase in the broader range of criminal cases being appealed?

  1. relaxation of appellate court rules
  2. increase in the penalties for crimes
  3. increase in meritorious issues of broader concern
  4. public awareness of trial rules

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How do state courts of last resort and the U.S. Supreme Court help set justice policy?

  1. By utilizing the political associations that come with the appointment of the judges.
  2. By exercising caution as to how they word their opinions.
  3. Through their exercise of their discretionary appellate jurisdiction.
  4. Through their exercise of their experience in handling difficult questions of law.

 

Which of the following terms refers to the movement in the state supreme courts to reinvigorate state constitutions as sources of individual rights over and above the rights granted by the U.S. Constitution?

  1. new judicial federalism
  2. rights-generous doctrine
  3. state constitutional reformation
  4. restorative representation

 

Postconviction reviews are termed collateral attacks because they are attempts to ____________.

  1. avoid the effects of a prior court decision by bringing a different action in new court proceedings
  2. overturn prior court decision by bringing in new evidence
  3. affirm prior court decisions by bringing a different action in new court proceedings
  4. change the way the process was handled in the lower court

 

A defendant has been acquitted by a jury of charges filed against him by the state. The prosecution subsequently discovers incriminating evidence that was not presented during the trial. The prosecutor decides to recharge the individual with the crime. However, the court denies the motion for a new trial. Under what rules is the judge basing the denial?

  1. Fifth Amendment protection against double jeopardy
  2. Fifth and Fourteenth Amendment violation of due process
  3. Fourth Amendment protection against admissibility of illegally obtained evidence
  4. Eighth Amendment protection against cruel and unusual punishment

 

 

Question 7: General Question

 

NSG 5002 Week 4 Quiz / NSG5002 Week 4 Quiz / NSG 5002 Quiz 4 (2019): South University (Already graded A)

 

Question 8: General Question

 

NSG 5003 Week 3 Knowledge Check Quiz (Latest): Advanced Pathophysiology: South University

 

Question 9: General Question

 

Liberty BIOL 101 Quiz 4 Latest Version

 

Question 10:        General Question

 

Liberty University CSTU 101 Quiz 4 Latest

 

Question 11:        Business

 

  1. Imagine you are the HR manager of a healthcare organization with 250 employees. You have been asked, as the HR manager, to determine the skills required for the new IT system that will be implemented in the purchasing department. The new system will impact all non-supervisory employees. Implementation of the new system has an aggressive timeline and the needs analysis will require effective techniques to uncover skill gaps and provide training as needed. In addition to the time constraint, there have also been performance issues in the purchasing department related to relationships with pharmaceutical organizations. So organizational leadership would like for you to assess whether or not current employees can be trained to effectively utilize the new IT system and improve external relationships, and whether or not new positions need to be added to support the IT system implementation.

 

Create a report that details training and recruitment processes at the organization.

 

Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word report that includes the following components:

  • Summary of your suggested needs analysis process
  • Recommendations for how to address organizational constraints related to time and performance
  • Linkages between performance, training, recruitment and needs assessment
  • Options for the needs analysis
  • Recommend the best option for the needs analysis, including your rationale for selecting this option
  • Your recommendations for training and recruitment

 

Cite any outside sources according to APA formatting guidelines.

 

 

Question 12:        Other

 

Lab Report: Elasticity

Answer the questions below. When you are finished, submit this assignment to your teacher by the due date for full credit.

Total score: ____ of 27 points

(Score for Question 1: ___ of 3 points)

Write the goal of the lab or the question you tried to answer.

Answer:

Type your answer here.

(Score for Question 2: ___ of 3 points)

Which observations, experiences, or lesson materials helped you form a hypothesis?

Answer:

Type your answer here.

(Score for Question 3: ___ of 3 points)

State your hypothesis.

Answer:

Type your answer here.

(Score for Question 4: ___ of 6 points)

Use the data from your experiment to complete this data table.

TCype of Rubber Band Original Length

(cm)

Mass

(g)

Length with Mass (cm) Stretch Length

(cm)

thin
medium
Graph your data: Plot mass against stretch length for each rubber band. Use a different symbol for each rubber band. Make a key so that you are able to tell the plots apart. Answer:       (Score for Question 6: ___ of 3 points) Did your data agree with your hypothesis? Explain. Answer: Type your answer here. (Score for Question 7: ___ of 3 points) Draw a trend line that characterizes the data for the thick rubber band. Then, use your graph to predict the thick rubber band’s stretch length if it had a 400 g mass attached to answer: Answer: Type your answer here.
thick

 

Question 13:        Other

 

Total score: ____ of 24 points

(Score for Question 1: ___ of 3 points)

B.Write the goal of the labs on levers and pulleys or the question you tried to answer.

Answer:

Type your answer here.

(Score for Question 2: ___ of 3 points)

C.Which observations, experiences, or lesson materials helped you form a hypothesis?

Answer:

Type your answer here.

(Score for Question 3: ___ of 3 points)

D.State your hypothesis.

Answer:

Type your answer here.

(Score for Question 4: ___ of 6 points)

E.Use the data from the lab on levers to complete the data tables.

Answer:

Resistance

Force, as added mass to resistance side (g) converted to (N) Arm length (m) Work
300 g = 2.94 N 0.70
300 g = 2.94 N 0.75
300 g = 2.94 N 0.80
300 g = 2.94 N 0.85

Effort

A Force (N) applied to balance the lever with no mass on effort side B Pulling force applied to the spring scale (n) when mass is added to effort side Total force B-A Arm length (m) Work
0.87 0.50
1.53 0.45
2.18 0.40
3.30 0.35

(Score for Question 5: ___ of 6 points)

F.Use the data from the lab on pulleys to complete this data table.

Answer:

Pulley System Distance String Pulled (cm) Effort:

Force (N)

Effort:

Work

Distance Mass Lifted (cm) Resistance:

Force (N)

Resistance:

Work

single fixed-position pulley
single moving pulley
one fixed-position pulley with one moving pulley

(Score for Question 6: ___ of 3 points)

G.Compare your data with your hypothesis. Explain how the data supports or does not support your hypothesis. If your data does not support your hypothesis, use the data you collected to answer the original question.

Answer:

Type your answer here.

 

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Question 14:        Finance

 

Using Microsoft Excel, demonstrate your understanding of the Time Value of Money concepts discussed
in the text by answering the following questions.  Upload your answer to canvas.

  1.  You graduate from IU and get a job with an annual salary of $50,000.
    a.   (1 point) Your boss calls you into the office and says she is happy with your performance and is going to give you a $1,000 raise. What percentage raise is this for you?
    b.   (1 points) If the Inflation Rate is 2.0%, what is the actual amount of your raise?
  2. (3 points) At your graduation, your parents give you a $2,000 graduation gift in cash.  You decide to invest this money in an Indiana University Credit Union (IUCU) Term Certificate and the current Annual Rate is 2.80%.  If you leave this money alone for 5 years and it compounds monthly, how much money do you have in this savings account after 5 years?
  3.  (3 points) You decide after graduation to start saving for your retirement.  Even though it might be tough at first, you decide to invest $200 a month for 40 years. If you your investment earns 10% APR and the interest is compounded monthly, how much will you have earned?
  4.  After graduation you decide to buy your first car.  You decide you want to get a Kia because it has a 10 year/100,000 mile warranty. You buy a 2019 Kia Sorrento EX for $35,000 and finance the vehicle through Indiana University Credit Union (IUCU). Today’s new car loans are 4.29% APR.
    a.   (2 points) If you finance this car for 66 months, what is your monthly payment?
    b.   (4 points) Create an amortization table showing monthly payment, monthly interest and monthly principle paid.  After the first year (12 months), how much interest have you paid?
  5.  In order to diversify your investing strategy, after graduation you decide to also
    invest annually in Tesla, Inc.  You decide to invest your $300 annual bonus every January 1st in Tesla stock.  It is possible to purchase parts of a share…i.e. 2.5 shares…

Date                   Amount              Price per share      # share purchased
2015                  $300                       $24                            how many?
2016                  $300                       $21                            how many?
2017                 $ 300                       $31                            how many?
2018                 $ 300                       $33                            how many?

(2 point)  how many shares of stock did you buy each year

(2 point)  If you sell all of your stock today and the share price is $28, how much money did you receive for the sale of that stock?

(2 points) How much money do you Gain or Lose?

  1.  You decide you want to experiment a little with investing in bonds.  Your grandma gives you $1,000 at graduation and you want to put it away in a safe place. You find a government bond to buy.  The bond will mature in 5 years and pays a coupon once a year.
    a.   (2 points) If the Annual Coupon Rate is 5%, what is your coupon payment?
    b.   (3 points) If you assume that the annual discount rate is 4% compounded annually, how much is the bond worth today?

 

Question 15:        Business

 

    Informational Interview Report

My interview job is market research analytics specialist. Below is the information needed for the report.

Deliverables (combine these into one document) 1. A 2-3 page, single-spaced report about your interview, written in memo format 2. An APA-style reference list 3. A list of interview questions. Here is the link you can pick 10-12 questions.(https://s3.us-east-1.amazonaws.com/blackboard.learn.xythos.prod/5a30bcf95ea52/4120098?response-content-disposition=inline%3B%20filename%2A%3DUTF-8%27%27200%2520Great%2520Informational%2520Interview%2520Questions%2520to%2520Choose%2520From.pdf&response-content-type=application%2Fpdf&X-Amz-Algorithm=AWS4-HMAC-SHA256&X-Amz-Date=20191104T005520Z&X-Amz-SignedHeaders=host&X-Amz-Expires=21600&X-Amz-Credential=AKIAIL7WQYDOOHAZJGWQ%2F20191104%2Fus-east-1%2Fs3%2Faws4_request&X-Amz-Signature=428f5253c04c93abd8cd60a47a283cf038a5f662868fb46e764fccdc70bc89ab)

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Learning Goals • Learn to identify appropriate sources of career information • Gain experience contacting and persuading a professional to meet with you • Expand your knowledge of your profession and industry • Practice active listening in an interview setting • Learn how to synthesize and organize relevant information • Become familiar with the professional memo format

 

Assignment Summary An informational interview is a meeting with a working professional who can give you an inside view of an occupation, organization, and/or industry that is of interest to you. You will identify an appropriate interviewee; research their industry; schedule an interview; build a list of appropriate questions; conduct an in-person interview and take notes; send a thank you note; and write a reflective report about what you learned and how it applies to your professional future.

 

Assignment Details The first 2-3 pages of your assignment, formatted as a memo to your professor and typed single-spaced, should include: (1) Your Professional Goals and the Purpose of the Interview (1 paragraph): Briefly describe your career interests and 2-3 career goals and then explain why this interviewee is relevant to those goals. (2) Biography of Interviewee (1-2 paragraphs): Sum up the interviewee’s professional biography, including his/her professional background, current title and responsibilities, organization, and a summary of the interviewee’s career journey, from beginning to date. (3) Industry Overview (2-3 paragraphs, based on research): Provide an overview of the industry including market size, types of careers in the industry, nature of work in the field, types of writing and communication skills required, and other skills needed. Incorporate information from both the interview and additional research you have done. Use 3-5 sources of information for this section and provide in-text citations using APA formatting. (You will also provide a list of references at the end of the paper.) A good place to start is the GMU Library BUS 303 InfoGuide: http://infoguides.gmu.edu/BUS303 (4) Interview Summary (1-2 paragraphs): Provide a summary of your interview, focusing on the most valuable information that your interviewee provided. Do not include a complete transcript of your interviewee’s responses and do not use an “I asked…and she answered…” format. Instead, paraphrase the responses in a narrative format. (5) Reflection (2-3 paragraphs): This is the most important part of your memo. Synthesize 2-3 meaningful highlights or “take-aways” from the interview and reflect on their implications for your career. (6) Interview Questions: A list of 10-12 questions you thoughtfully prepared prior to the interview,

in the order that you intended to ask them. (It’s okay if you don’t end up asking them exactly as

you planned—but it’s important to have a list.) You need to write the questions yourself; do not

plagiarize a list of questions from the internet. Think about what you would really like to know

from this person. One question you should definitely ask is, “What are employers in your industry

looking for in new college graduates?” (7) Reference List: A list of 3-5 sources you used for your industry overview. Be sure to use APA formatting.

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Question 16:        Business

 

As people become increasingly comfortable posting their lives online via social networks like Facebook or through microblogs like Twitter, some companies have begun to build Web dossiers of consumers. They do this by mining the social Web on Facebook, Twitter, blogs, and online forums. Then they sell it to other companies. And here is the deal . . . most consumers have no idea that this is being done.

While the use of customer data has been around for a few years (especially through companies like Amazon who use algorithms based on customer searches and purchases to make product recommendations), there are some privacy advocates who feel that mining and using data from the social Web crosses ethical lines. For their part, the companies that aggregate this information say that they are using this information to detect behavioral patterns in order for companies to provide better products and customer service.

SOURCE: “How Companies Are Using Your Social Media Data,” http://mashable.com/2010/03/02/data-mining-social-media.

Instructions:

Document your activities and exercise in this application exercise assignment. Keep good notes that you will submit as part of this assignment. Answer the following three question!

Questions

  1. Do think that this practice violates privacy, or is it acceptable since it uses information that a person has posted voluntarily?
  2. What are some promising ways that companies can use this data?
  3. What are some questionable ways that companies can use this data?

 

 

Question 17:        English

 

What is counterargument in the opinion essay?  In other words, if someone disagreed with the author, what would they say, what would be their position?

Your claim for this one MUST be in your words.  Then find the evidence that supports it; be mindful that there is specific counterargument in the essay.

Your explanation should include an accurate summary of the author’s argument in order to understand the counterargument.

 

Question 18:        Biology

 

The minimum length for this assignment is 1,200 words. Be sure to check your Turn tin report. Darwin was not the first to consider evolution as a process but he did come up with the first effective explanation for how it happens. Describe Darwin’s theory of evolution by natural selection. Explain how this theory was a major advance over prior ideas as to how organisms changed over time. Give evidence in support of evolution and describe the driving forces for evolutionary change.

 

 

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Question 19:        English

 

ENGL 2328 –Writing Assignment At this point in the semester, we have looked at even more authors and a much larger smattering of their work. The textbooks have touched upon a number of varied points of interest from different schools of philosophical thought. The books and our discussions have addressed the major paradigm shifts in American Literature (and history) from the Civil War to the middle of the 20th Century. The authors’ points of view have come into play aswe have muddled our way through this often confusing span of decades. More importantly, your points of view have begun to permeate the discussion, giving it a much more relevant and modern scope. (Alice, while in Wonderland,might say, “moderner and moderner.”) Once again, topic selection is up to you. However, this time, the scope of the project is going to be a bit more pointed than before. As with the first project, everything we have approached thus far this semester is fair game, as is anything we will be reading next week (please use something different than you did for the first paper). What I would like to see this time is a critical comparative analysis in which you look at more than one work and more than one author and comparatively analyze them. This is the long paper –about seven to eight pages long –the one that requires at least four sources cited within it, in MLA format of course which means that you must include a works cited page. The works cited page is not one of the seven to eight pages of your paper. Make sure you use credible sources like those found through the library databases. Do not cite Wikipedia, SparkNotes, Cliff Notes, 123HelpMe.com, cheattheprof.com, Gradesaver.com, MegaEssays.com, or any other source that subverts the research process—substantial grade reductions will occur if you use sources such as those listed above

 

Question 20:        Computer Science

 

Write a loop that continually asks the user what pets the user has, until the user enters “rock”, in which case the loop ends. It should acknowledge the user in the following format. For the first pet, it should say “You have a dog with a total of 1 pet(s)” if they enter dog, and so on.

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Question 21:        Engineering

 

Two products A and B are made involving two chemical operations for each. Each unit of product A requires 2 hours on Operation 1 and 3 hours on Operation 2. Each unit of product B requires 3 hours on Operation 1 and 4 hours on Operation 2. Available time for Operation 1 is 16 hours and for Operation 2 is 24 hours. The production of product B also results in a by-product C at no extra cost. Though some of this by-product can be sold at a profit, the remainder has to be destroyed. Product A sells for $8 profit per unit, while product B sells for $20 profit per unit. By product C can be sold at a unit profit of $6 per unit, but if it cannot be sold, the cost of disposal is $5 per unit. The company gets 2 units of C for each unit of B produced. Determine the optimal production quantity of A and B, keeping C in mind so as to make the largest profit.

 

 

Question 22:        Health Care

 

Imagine that you are working in a healthcare facility and you want to apply FOCUS PDCA Process

How you can apply this technique? In addition, what is the main result when you used FOCUS PDCA?

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Question 23:        Other

 

Research the role of the Nurse Practitioner. Select and describe an Advanced Nurse Practitioner role. For example, Family Nurse Practitioner or Gerontological Nurse Practitioner Find one research articles and one expert opinion article about this role and summarize the articles. Examples of state innovations include Maryland’s hospital rate setting, Vermont’s single payer system, and Massachusetts’ health reforms Analyze the effects of the advanced practice nurse role in terms of healthcare and patient outcomes.

 

Instruction

Submission Instructions: The paper is to be clear and concise and students will lose points for improper grammar, punctuation and misspelling. The paper is to be no shorter than 4 pages; nor longer than 5 pages in length, excluding the title, abstract and references page. Incorporate a minimum of 5 current (published within last five years) scholarly journal articles or primary legal sources (statutes, court opinions) within your work. Journal articles and books should be referenced according to current APA style.

 

Question 24: Business

 

Evaluate financial ratios in a minimum 1,050 words which includes the following:

  • Explain the uses for each of the three classifications of ratios: liquidity, solvency, and profitability.
  • Calculate the current ratio, profit margin, and after tax ROE, of any publicly traded company. Then locate and compare these with the ratios provided for that firm by Yahoo Finance, Google Finance, or Morningstar.
  • . Display your calculations in a chart with the formulas and that compares the ones you calculated with the ones you located from Yahoo finance, Google Finance, or Morningstar. They will more than likely not be the exact same amounts because of the difference in dates of the calculations you did and the published dates.

 

Question 25:        Finance

 

Instruction

The topic for the paper is (The Capital Asset Pricing Model). Paper must be 12 pages in length including a cover sheet and reference page. The paper must follow APA citation style.

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Question 26:        Finance

 

You are considering a covenant for the new loan agreement that would require SME Bank to maintain a 100% or higher provision coverage of the Portfolio at Risk in arrears one day or more (“PAR1+”). This means that the entire stock of provisions (general and specific) would have to exceed the PAR1+ balance outstanding at any time. Would SME Bank comply with this covenant as of October 2016 either in terms of the provisions actually held or considering what the bank should have held when correctly applying the prudential rules? Would you consider this a reasonable covenant, or would you argue for a different definition or level of coverage as per your experience? 2. Calculate the three transition matrixes for the Jul-Aug 2016, Aug-Sep 2016 and Sep- Oct 2016 transitions. Use the enhanced transition matrix method including principal paydown as described in Unit 4 and in file U4_Ex5_TransitionMatrix.xlsx. Carry out the transition matrix to 331-360+ days in 30 day arrears increments. Any arrear balances above 360 days should be summarized into the 331-360+ category. Find the average transition matrix across the three monthly transitions. Please use KES equivalent balance amounts for all transition matrix calculations. Give a short business Interpretation of the average transition behavior at SME Bank. Compare your findings with some of the transition matrix examples discussed in the Unit 4.1 text. What might explain the transition patterns seen here? 3. Bonus Question (20%): Take the average monthly transition through the matrix exponential calculation up to 12 months. In the matrix exponential find the conditional probabilities of balances reaching 6 or more months in arrears after 12 months depending on their initial levels of arrears. Calculate IAS 39 compliant empirical provisions for the entire portfolio as of October 2016, using the transition matrix exponential results, with a default definition of having reached 6 or more months in arrears after 12 months. Also take into account the empirical LGD levels at this institution that have been separately estimated as: LGD=60% for KES loans and LGD=45% for USD loans. SME Bank is known in the market for its effective legal collections and requiring relatively strong collateral from SME borrowers, particularly for USD loans.

 

Question 27:        Health Care

 

Instruction

Topic: Ascending and descending venography PowerPoint Presentation (25 slides) including images.

 

Precise, no plagiarism, references required (word cited APA format)

 

 

Question 2:     General Question          

 

Liberty University PSYC 221 quiz 1

 

Question 3:  General Question

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Ashford MGT 330 Week 4 Assignment Team Management Activity and Reflection

 

Question 4: General Question

 

NURS 4100 Week 4 Quiz / NURS4100 Week 4 Quiz (2019): Quality and Safety through Evidence Based Practice- Walden University (Already graded A)

 

Question 5: General Question

 

WRTG 101 APA quiz 100 percent.docx

 

Question 6: General Question

 

Address the following in your role as marketing manager:

  • Define the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach and discuss the importance of research in marketing.
  • Describe each step of the Marketing Research Approach (one slide for each step) in detail including its goal, and create an example aligned to the scenario above to illustrate how that stage would be implemented toward the problem’s solution.
  • Define the two types of research data this process gathers and their pros and cons. Share examples of each type that would be useful in solving the scenario.
  • Compare and contrast the Five-Step Process with two alternative methods for conducting marketing research.  What are the pros and cons of each?
  • Define what it means to differentiate a service and provide an example to illustrate how the local nonprofit charity in the scenario can use the strategy to help increase target market interest.
  • Explain how differentiation will help position the organization.

 

Question 7: General Question

 

NURS-6531N-8, Adv. Practice Care of Adults.2019 Summer

 

Question 8: General Question

 

NR 509 Week 6 Quiz Answers 2019:Chamberlain College Of Nursing

 

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Question 9: Business

 

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

 

What is the purpose of a Training Needs Analysis (TNA)? Is it always necessary? Remember, a needs analysis determines the need for training intervention.

 

 

Question 10:  Business

 

Assignment Content

  1. Imagine you are the HR manager of a healthcare organization with 250 employees. You have been asked, as the HR manager, to determine the skills required for the new IT system that will be implemented in the purchasing department. The new system will impact all non-supervisory employees. Implementation of the new system has an aggressive timeline and the needs analysis will require effective techniques to uncover skill gaps and provide training as needed. In addition to the time constraint, there have also been performance issues in the purchasing department related to relationships with pharmaceutical organizations. So organizational leadership would like for you to assess whether or not current employees can be trained to effectively utilize the new IT system and improve external relationships, and whether or not new positions need to be added to support the IT system implementation.

 

Create a report that details training and recruitment processes at the organization.

 

Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word report that includes the following components:

  • Summary of your suggested needs analysis process
  • Recommendations for how to address organizational constraints related to time and performance
  • Linkages between performance, training, recruitment and needs assessment
  • Options for the needs analysis
  • Recommend the best option for the needs analysis, including your rationale for selecting this option
  • Your recommendations for training and recruitment

 

Cite any outside sources according to APA formatting guidelines.

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Question 11:  Other

 

  1. Risk is a combination of: The probability that an event will occur, and the probability that a terrorist will be able to successfully plan an attack?A. TRUE
    B. FALSE
    2. When conducting a building assessment which of the following should be a member of the multi-functional team? A. engineer/ architect
    B. Security
    C. Emergency Manager
    D. subject matter experts
    E. All of the above
    3. The initial step of a risk assessment is to: A. Collect site data from interactive GIS maps.
    B. Interview staff to determine if there are alternates assigned to key functions.
    C. Define and understand a building’s core functions and processes, and identify building infrastructure.
    D. Evaluate the security master plan.
    4. Mitigation measures can be conducted by which of the following means? A. Regulatory measures
    B. Rehabilitation of facilities
    C. Protective and control structures
    D. all of the above
    5. When designating or designing a Continuity of Operations (COOP) facility,which hazards should be considered? A. Man-made
    B. Natural
    C. terrorist
    D. All of the above
    6. The concept of Design basis Threat (DBT) is essential to building protection because? A. DBT establishes the threat tactics that architects and engineers use in designing mitigations for a new structure or renovation.
    B. DBT provides the mitigations necessary to ensure that standoff is kept to a minimum.
    C. DBT provides a means to identify and characterize all threat groups operating in the local area that could impact the buildings occupancy.
    D. DBT establishes the minimum criteria necessary for the proper selection of window thickness and fragment retention films.
    7. Assembling a GIS Portfolio can help in performing a Vulnerability Assessment on a continuity facility? A. TRUE
    B. FALSE
    8. The best way to lower peak incident pressure and the reflective wave is? A. reflective wave does not matter
    B. peak incident pressure does not cause damage
    C. increase distance of detonation
    D. Decrease distance of detonation
    9. Resilience is the ability of an organization or asset to _________________ its critical functionality in a short period of time after the impact of an adverse event. A. Back-up data for
    B. gracefully shut-down computer functions of
    C. Contract or transfer the responsibility of
    D. Maintain or recover quickly
    10. Continuity programs are a required and critical component of Government and critical infrastructure operations, and during emergencies and disasters, ensure that the Government at all levels can continue to operate and provide essential functions and services. A. TRUE
    B. FALSE
  2. Which biological agents are contagiousA. Small pox
    B. Ricin
    C. Salmonella
    D. Anthrax
    12. Which item is an example of a threat and/or hazard that could potentially impact a building or site? A. Bombing
    B. Armed Attack
    C. Kidnapping
    D. All of the above
    13. CBR detectors can not be successfully integrated into the buildings security operations center and building automation systems. A. TRUE
    B. FALSE
    14. The consequences are defined as the degree of ________________ that is caused by the loss of an asset. A. customer dissatisfaction
    B. debilitating impact
    C. productivity interruption
    D. economic disruption
    15. The four main categories of consequences are? A. Loss of life, loss of communications, loss of revenue, loss of client base
    B. Human impacts, economic impacts, public confidence impacts, and impacts on government ability
    C. Impacts of government ability, damage to company name, distribution of product lines, loss of life
    D. Human impacts, economic impacts, Public confidence and Re-election impacts
    16. Lacerations occur the furthest distance from an explosive event as a result of? A. blast loading effects of the 2/3’s conflaguration.
    B. Projectile debris from progressive collapse
    C. high- velocity glass fragments.
    D. Sub-standard structural components.
    17. Personal protective equipment is only effective against specific agents if: A. The PPE is worn correctly when needed
    B. The purchased equipment is one size fits all
    C. The HVAC system is turned off and the building is sealed
    D. The PPE is stored in warm dry office space
    18. When estimating the direct consequences of an attack you should consider, the target, the effect of the weapon, physical and environmental conditions and ________________ ? A. potential losses
    B. cascading effects
    C. how many people work in the building
    D. estimated damage
    19. The most commonly selected terrorist targets, worldwide, are? A. Commercial facilities
    B. Law enforcement facilities
    C. Government facilities
    D. Military bases
    20. What preparations are needed in order to safely shelter in place? A. Supplies to seal the room, HEPA filter, food and water, windows and a well practiced plan
    B. Supplies to seal room, HVAC shutoff, carbon dioxide absorbers, food and water, communications, and a well practiced plan
    C. Permanently sealed room, direct phone line, 1 gallon of water per person per day, good ventilation
    D. Lan ports for laptops, printer paper, office supplies, food and water, Duct tape and plastic, plants

 

Question 12:  Chemistry

 

Calculate the mass of KHP which will result in an endpoint of 25 mL when titrated against 0.093 M NaOH

 

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Question 13: Other

 

Contemplate whether prices should reflect the value the customers are willing to pay or whether they should be based upon the cost of the product or service to the company. Bring in a product or service example to support and provide clarity on your position.

Unit VI Case Study
Case studies are an important learning strategy in business classes as they provide an opportunity for you to critically analyze events that have taken place in real-life businesses. This develops your critical thinking and research skills as you research the competition and industry in which your business resides with an end goal of formulating a recommendation for the challenges faced by the company.

Select one of the three case studies listed below, which can be found in your textbook. Evaluate the case of your choice, and respond to each of the questions below using both theory and practical managerial thinking as well as supporting research.

Option 1: Southwest Airlines (pp. 490–491)

  1. What is the product and service model of Southwest? Who is their primary target market, and how is Southwest positioned with this group?
  2. What is the pricing strategy of Southwest compared to other airlines? Is this a differentiating factor?
  3. What risks does Southwest Airlines face both from a macro and micro environmental standpoint?
  4. Can Southwest continue to thrive as a low-cost airline when tough economic times hit or as other airlines mimic its business model?

Option 2: Amazon.com (pp. 522–523)

  1. With respect to the distribution, why has Amazon succeeded when so many other companies have failed?
  2. From a theoretical standpoint, what is Amazon’s pricing model? Why is this so effective? How does this compare to their competitors?
  3. Discuss how Amazon has used differentiation and positioning as two key components in maintaining a competitive advantage.
  4. Thinking about the changes in the macro and micro environment, what is next for Amazon? Where else can it grow?

Option 3: Best Buy (pp. 554–555)

  1. What were the keys to Best Buy’s success? How have they differentiated themselves?
  2. What pricing model has Best Buy adopted?
  3. What are the challenges it faces in today’s retail environment from both a micro and macro environmental standpoint?
  4. How else can Best Buy compete against retail competitors like Walmart and Costco as well as online competitors like Amazon.com?

In formatting your case analysis, do not use the question-and-answer format; instead, use an essay format with subheadings. Your APA-formatted case study should be a minimum of 500 words in length (not counting the title and reference pages). You are required to use a minimum of three peer-reviewed, academic sources that are no more than 5 years old (one may be your textbook). All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased material must have accompanying in-text citations.

 

Question 14: English

 

Night by Elie Wiesel

n his encounter with the dentist, Elie looses one of his gold teeth. Why does Elie relent and finally give up the tooth?

 

Question 15:  Accounting

 

A business manager estimates that when p dollars are charged for every unit of a product, the sales will be x=380−20p units. At this level of production, the average cost is modeled by A(x)=5+x50
(a.) Find the total revenue and total cost functions, and express the profit as a function of x. (b.) What price should the manufacturer charge to maximize profit? What is the maximum profit?

 

Question 16: Statistics

 

A sample of 10 mothers wants to know if they sleep less than the population in terms of the number of hours they sleep. Their average number of hours they sleep is 6.8. We know that the average hours of sleep in the population is 8 with a standard deviation of 3.

Conduct a z test to see if the sample of mothers differs from the population.

(Be sure to complete all four steps of a hypothesis test.) α=.05

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Question 17: Statistics

 

Find the probability of getting a total of twelve when five balanced dice are rolled.  Show all work.

 

Question 18: Chemistry

 

dissolving calcium iodate in water is exothermic or endothermic?

 

Question 19: Economics

 

Suppose you are using risk-benefit analysis to evaluate a policy aimed at limiting the use of a pesticide applied to grain crops. Describe the risks and benefits that would have to be estimated to conduct this analysis properly.”

 

 

Question 20:  Business

 

Term Project

you will choose an organization (a public or privatefirm, a non-profit or an educational institution EXCEPT OZYEGIN), visit the organization at least TWO times andcollect data on information systems by interviewing the managers and employees of IS/IT departments. Data collection should capture the information system architecture of the organization, the information systems used and their usage, the value add of information systems, IT function and its governance, future IS projects. Furthermore,
you are expected to make observations, identify IS-related problems and offer your solutions. The organization can be of any industry; however, I don’t suggest the IT industry, it might be confusing or overwhelming for you. The firm should be of appropriate size that it has its own IT function; therefore, micro / entrepreneurial firms do not fit. The firm should NOT be too big, in bigger firms you won’t be able to interview the CIO / IT manager. If the firm has multiple businesses, make sure that you choose one and concentrate on it.

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Summary:

Step 1: Identify your organization, prepare a report about it, explain the business, why is it an interesting context, whom you plan to contact etc. We will evaluate the appropriateness of your choice together, you may not proceed in the project without my approval. You may change the firm later; however, you need to re-prepare the report and re-submit.

Requirements

Your report should be min 400 words. Shorter essays will NOT be accepted.

Your report should be submitted as a Word document (.doc or .docx).  Other formats will NOT be accepted (including PDF).

The file name should contain the last names of all team members and the assignment number  e.g. Yilmaz_Yucel_Guzel_Sezgin_ProjectReport1.docx. Please make sure that you insert the names and Student ID of ALL team members.

E-mail or hard copy submissions are NOT accepted.

Do not forget to run the spelling – grammar check as that will affect your grade.

Failure to submit the report will result in 5 points deduction from your project grade.

 

Question 21: Psychology

 

Can you give me 2 different short responses for this discussion question below? No more than 175 words.

You have learned so much in this class about research methodology in psychology and other behavioral sciences!

What is the most interesting, useful or surprising thing you learned this term?

 

Question 22: English

 

Essay- 38 murders who saw murder and didn’t call the police…

https://www2.southeastern.edu/Academics/Faculty/scraig/gansberg.html

Write an essay pretend to be one of the people and why didn’t you call the police 

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Question 23: Physics

 

A 20N block is being pushed across a horizontal table by an 18N force. If the coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the table is 0.4, find the acceleration of the block.

A  0.5m/s2

B  1m/s2

C  5m/s2

D  7.5m/s2

 

Question 24: History

 

Please type, double-space your answers to the following questions. These answers must be in MLA format.

List and describe early Pacific Northwest history from Native Americans in the pre-contact era to the end of the Progressive Era (about 1920). Include information about early Native American history and culture, early white exploration of the area, fur trade and early immigration into area, the Oregon Trail, Railroad expansion into the area and its multiple effects and the struggle for labor rights.

You need to consider major historical events, important people studied, factors related to culture, economics, and the impact on the environment.

These topics will be discussed in class on Monday. Bring any questions you may have to our class.

Question 25: Computer Science

 

When creating an algorithm, there are many different ways to accomplish the same task. Describe what you might look for in selecting the correct algorithm for your place of business.

 

 

Question 26: Law           

 

School Shooters School shootings have unfortunately become a common occurrence in today’s society. Students of all ages are affected, from those in elementary school to those at the college level. Suppose that a school shooting had occurred in your community and that the shooter was still at-large. Identify and list important criteria that could be used to create a criminal profile. Then, locate a minimum of two (2) articles that discuss real-life school shooting suspects. Test and analyze your criteria. What other factors could you add to your profile? Discuss your results. Your paper should be no more than two (2) pages and should include an APA citation for the article analyzed

 

 

 

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Question 27:  Law

 

What’s Fair? This week, you will read “The Case for Procedural Justice: Fairness as a Crime Prevention Tool.” This article discusses strategies that law enforcement officers can use to implement the procedural justice theory in their community. Using that information, design a brochure that could be used to train new officers. Consider the type of information police would need to know about this view as well as effective strategies. It may be helpful to provide scripted examples of conversations that officers would have with citizens. Your brochure should be no more than two (2) pages and should utilize APA format.

 

Question 28:  General Question

 

Research 5 companies/organizations’ websites on how they recruit individuals into their companies/organizations. Rate them from highest to lowest and explain why you rated them that way, emphasizing their strengths and weaknesses. Requirements: 500 minimum/ 750 maximum with Biblical integration woven into the entire document.

 

Question 29:  Health Care

 

Prompt: Write a paper about the benefits of being a first mover, the response of a second mover, and the response/characteristics of a late mover. Include a discussion of customer loyalty and earning above average returns. Also discuss the effect of competitor response to returns earned. Requirements: 500 words minimum; APA format: a minimum of three peer reviewed references Book used: Hitt, H. A., Hoskisson, R. E., & Ireland, R. D. (2017). Strategic management: Concepts and cases: competitiveness and globalization (12th ed.). Boston, MA: Cengage. ISBN: 9781305502147

 

Question 30:  English

 

write three paragraphs about an article called “BEGINNING YOUR JOURNEY” so basically write what you liked in it!

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Wichita State University – NURS 345Chapter 3

Question 5: General Question

Wichita State University – NURS 345Chapter 1

Question 6: English

Assignment: “Proposal Critique”

In this assignment you will be rewriting and critiquing the proposal provided HERE (Please see attachment). There are at least six improvements to be made in the document. Your job is to identify the six improvements and then, using track changes, rewrite or fix the error. Also, using the comments tool, give a brief explanation to why it is wrong and why you fixed it the way you did. Note: If your word processing program does not have track changes, you will need to insert comments in brackets using red font at the improvement location.

In your document, you should:
Identify at least six proposal weaknesses using track changes.
Include a critique paragraph of at least 150 words at the end of the document.
Discuss improvements for each of the weaknesses in your critique.
Ensure both the comments and critique are concise and error-free

A Proposal

To:

From:
Date:
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Problem and Solution
Mason Office Center is a lovely Georgian building containing four offices. However, the interior is not attractive or inviting for clients/customers and employees. The off-white walls throughout the complex seem dull and boring, adjectives the tenants do not want associated with their businesses. In addition, the air in the building is musty and unpleasant at times.
Green Thumb Planting can provide and maintain a beautiful plantscape in the building that will attract visitors and employees as well as purify the air and introduce more oxygen. Research shows that people respond positively to interiors with at least two plants per room. These changes can be made in an unobtrusive, cost-effective manner.
Objectives of Proposed Plan
Installing plantings in Mason Office Center will give visitors and employees a more appealing and cleaner environment, producing positive feelings and greater productivity.
Background
I have been in the interior plant maintenance business for 32 years and have owned and operated Green Thumb Planting for the last seven years. All associates with Green Thumb Planting take pride in their work, and Green Thumb is happy to provide references.
Methods
Within two weeks of your signing a contract, our design team will interview you and produce a plan showing installation, including the number and types of plants, color and design of containers, and placement. The team will adjust the plan according to your preference.

Furthermore, Green Thumb is concerned about the environment and thus uses only organic methods. No harmful chemicals are used in its plantscapes.
Based on Green Thumb’s design formula, the building could use 31 large and 14 medium-sized low-light plants. Green Thumb’s service agreement provides plants and pots, weekly maintenance, and monthly replacement of weak plants.

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Scheduling
When a plan is agreed upon, Green Thumb will schedule installation within one week. Installation can be accomplished during the evening hours to avoid interrupting your tenants’ business activities. All soil and materials will be brought into the building in specially designed trolleys to prevent spillage and damage to floors. I anticipate being able to complete the job in two nights. Once the plantscape is installed, Green Thumb Planting staff will visit Mason Office Center once a week to maintain the plants.
Capabilities and Qualifications of Personnel
I have a BS degree in landscape design and 32 years of experience in the business. In addition, all personnel have undergone thorough background and criminal checks and are bonded. Your satisfaction with Green Thumb’s plantings and employees are guaranteed.
Budget
The installation cost is $923.40, and the monthly maintenance fee is $75.00 per month. You will incur no other charges to have an inviting, attractive, clean green environment in Mason Office Building.

Installation costs include the following:

31 large 6 braided ficus trees at $25 each $150.00
6 chamaedorea palms at $20 120.00
10 herb topiaries at $20 200.00
9 Chinese evergreens at $25 225.00
14 medium
5 moth orchids at $15 $ 75.00
9 angel ivy at $15 135.00
SUBTOTAL $905.00
Tax 8% 72.40
TOTAL $977.40

Conclusion
For an effortless, inexpensive, attractive, clean environment at Mason Office Center, accept Green Thumb’s proposal. Please send a memorandum of acceptance to Green Thumb Planting, 101 Sienna Way, Ayden, NC 28513-7101.

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Signature Assignment: Public Stewardship Paper

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper outlining the critical need for public stewardship in budgeting.
Detail the needs and methods for training public officials and staff members for ethical public budget preparation and maintenance strategies.
Include the following:
Detail the need and importance of public stewardship in budgeting
Ethical requirements for leaders to consider for proper public stewardship
Consequences of unethical or poor public stewardship
Consider utilizing a recent current events article for reference to a recent incident of unethical public stewardship of budgetary monies.
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the University Library.

Question 8: Business

Pick a local business or your own if current and gather your research to develop a Marketing Plan. Use the outline from chapter 2, exhibit 2.5. Try to interview the owner or a manager if you can. Try to solve a problem or answer a marketing question for the business. Use observation or questionnaire to make suggestions as to how the business should develop a Marketing Plan. Write the Marketing Plan for the business.  You can pick any type of business, product or service.

Write a Marketing Plan for the business.
Refer to Chapter Two, “Strategic Planning for Competitive Advantage”.  Exhibit 2.5, Elements of a Marketing Plan.
Develop your plan as you read the chapters and doing each step in your plan after reading it and completing your plan at Lesson15.  Your plan should address each of these elements including writing a Mission Statement for the business. Conducting a SWOT analysis.  You need three Objectives for the business.  Develop a Target Market based on your research and develop all elements of the Marketing Mix addressing all four P’s.  Use any other industry research you can find to help you develop and support your plans findings.  End your plan adding your Implementation steps, the Evaluations you will use, and the Controls for the business.
Your paper should be a minimum of 3 pages and no more than 10.
Do not use a National Brand

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Develop a Marketing Plan for a Local Business
1. Pick a local business or your own if current and gather your research to develop a Marketing Plan. Use the outline from chapter 2, exhibit 2.5. Try to interview the owner or a manager if you can. Try to solve a problem or answer a marketing question for the business. Use observation or questionnaire to make suggestions as to how the business should develop a Marketing Plan. Write the Marketing Plan for the business.  You can pick any type of business, product or service.
2. Write a Marketing Plan for the business.
3. Refer to Chapter Two, “Strategic Planning for Competitive Advantage”.  Exhibit 2.5, Elements of a Marketing Plan.
4. Develop your plan as you read the chapters and doing each step in your plan after reading it and completing your plan at Lesson15.  Your plan should address each of these elements including writing a Mission Statement for the business. Conducting a SWOT analysis.  You need three Objectives for the business.  Develop a Target Market based on your research and develop all elements of the Marketing Mix addressing all four P’s.  Use any other industry research you can find to help you develop and support your plans findings.  End your plan adding your Implementation steps, the Evaluations you will use, and the Controls for the business.
5. Your paper should be a minimum of 3 pages and no more than 10.

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Matching Definitions
one person consuming a good or service, will not stop another person from or consuming that same product.
the inability to bring about the allocation of resources that best satisfies the wants of a society
people can receive the benefit of a good or service without paying for it
the difference between the price  a product will sell for and the price the seller would be willing to receive.
a person cannot be stopped from consuming or using a good or service
goods or services consumers can get without cost
effects of an activity affect a third party
consumers can be excluded from consuming these, but are felt should be made available.
non-payers can be excluded from consuming these
the difference between the price  a buyer is willing to pay and the actual sale price.

Market failures
Non-excludability
Non-rivalry

Free rider problem
Quasi-public goods

Public goods
Private goods
Externality
Consumer surplus
Producer surplus

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Training Program: Design a 12-week periodized training program for the client described in the Client Profile. Be very specific as you design the training program. This is an opportunity for you to demonstrate your full comprehension of the information and concepts discussed throughout the course. List the types of exercise, duration, sets, reps, rest intervals, and so on.
Include the following in your case study submission:
A description of your professional responsibilities as discussed in the stages of the drawing-in process (Unit 12)
Discussion of any fitness tests, methods of evaluation, and data collection used to assess and evaluate the clientÕs needs
Specific conditions that you have identified in the client profile
A detailed 12-week comprehensive and periodized training program including specific exercises, sets, repetitions, suggested rest times, etc. Use an integrated approach in your program recommendations.
Specific and detailed nutritional strategies and an explanation as to how the strategies will assist the client in meeting energy needs
Explanation for your chosen assessment, programming, and nutritional recommendations. (Be sure to reference course concepts when discussing rationale for your recommendations.
Keep in mind that a client should be able to take your program and put it into practice without having to contact you to clarify what you intended by your recommendations or to explain parts of your program.
Don’t forget your explanation for WHY you listed and recommended what you did. Reference the concepts and theories covered in the course. Be sure to address why the program and exercises recommended are appropriate for the specific client given the clientÕs history, current abilities, and intended goal(s). For example: if you are developing a program for a beginner client without any resistance training experience, explain how your program addresses the lack of experience, initial need for foundational development, process by which you would safely progress the client, etc. Tying your program to course concepts is a critical component of your case study.

Review the Client Profile below.
Client Profile: Diana Prince
Age: 37
Gender: Female
Resting Heart Rate: 75 bpm
Height: 5’5″
Weight: 165 lb
Body Fat Percentage: 31%
Background and Goals: Diana is a 37-year-old mother of two children. She used to exercise fairly consistently (mostly jogging and light aerobic activities) before having kids. Ever since she had her first child 9 years ago, she has not been very active. Diana has her 20-year high school reunion coming up in 3 months (12 weeks). She would like to look and feel her best and is eager and willing to spend the next 12 weeks doing what she can to change her body.

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NSG6430 Midterm Exam / NSG 6430 Week 5 Midterm Exam (2019): South University (Already graded A)

Question 13: Health Care

NSG6435 Week 5 Assignment 4 Midterm Exam / NSG 6435 Week 5 Midterm Exam -Family Health – Pediatrics- South University

Question 14: Philosophy

Liberty University PHIL 201 quiz 2 / PHIL201 QUIZ2 / PHIL 201 QUIZ 2 (Already Graded 2019)

Question 15: Law

Instruction
Write a reflection of what you have learned about boundaries and dual relationships in counseling. 1 1/2 pages (no APA format))

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Business Ethics Identify an ethical public policy that is currently present in society. Write an argument in support of the policy or against the policy using at least one of the three public policy models – market economy, social democracy, or neo-mercantile. Indicate which would be your option and why. What are the possible consequences of your decision?

Instruction
You must use the textbook as a reference as well as a minimum of one other reference. Be sure to include a reference page and internal citations. Check the course outline for formatting instructions. Your paper should be 1 ½ to 2 pages in length, double spaced, with Times New Roman 12 pt font and 1” margins. Your heading should be single spaced in the top right corner of your paper and consist of your name, assignment number (Assignment #1), and BMGT 4390. Be sure that you include a reference page and internal citation formatted in either APA or MLA format.

Question 17: Health Care

Topic: Health Care Systems Prompt: Define outpatient care. What are several key changes that have been instrumental in shifting the balance between inpatient and outpatient services? How do outpatient services support the continuity of care in the delivery of health services? Why is it important for hospital administrators to regard outpatient care as a key component of their overall business strategy?

Instruction
1. Ensure that you meet the minimum word count which is 800 word count. 2. Include two references in addition to the text book and a Biblical reference. 3. Add Biblical integration section to Essay , which includes the verse and how it it applies. 4. Use spell check 5. Always submit assignments in essay format, double spaced using APA. 6. List questions then the answers. 7. The posts must contain original information. I hope this helps!!

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Graduate School Scholarly Book Review (Criminal Justice)

Scholarly Book Review – The final component of this course is for you to read and review one of the following books: 1.) Pacifying the Homeland: Intelligence Fusion and Mass Supervision; or 2.) Solitary: The Inside Story of Supermax Isolation and How We Can Abolish It. University of California Press. ISBN: 9780520292239. For this assignment, you must cite at least five peer-reviewed articles, not books, in your review. Your scholarly book review must be between 2,250 to 2,700 words. For this assignment, you need to do more than merely provide a synopsis of the book. Rather, provide a scholarly analysis of the book and explain what, if anything, it contributes to our understanding of the criminal justice system. Students who do a particularly good job with this assignment will be encouraged to submit their work to a scholarly journal. Scholarly publications are often very helpful in gaining admittance to Ph.D. programs. Doing this assignment might also provide you with an opportunity down the road to demonstrate to your supervisors at work that you have an ability to synthesize information into an interesting, evocative report. Also, scholarly book reviews enhance one’s visibility as a burgeoning scholar, and make a contribution to the field of criminal justice, and provide invaluable opportunities for personal growth. The instructor will provide everyone with an example of a scholarly book at the beginning of the course. Several Lamar University graduate students have published book review essays they have written in my courses in academic journals. All scholarly book reviews will be submitted either by the student or the instructor to Safe for originality in order to ensure that there is not any forms of plagiarism, either deliberate or accidental. It must be evident that all papers are original works. If a Safe report reveals any evidence of plagiarism, the paper will not be graded and will be assigned a “zero.” Students should visit with the instructor before the assignment is due if they have any questions about this. Also, if a student fails to cite at least five peer-reviewed journal articles and include these in the references at the end of the book review, it will incur an automatic penalty of twenty points. Please, note the instructor will not, under any circumstances, receive late book reviews, regardless of the reason. in mind, this is an assignment that students are encouraged to work on throughout the semester Please follow the writing rubric in Appendix 1 to understand how you are required to write the paper.

Question 19: Business

Portfolio 2 Questions
PART 1 : Questions from your text book (eBook chapters 3, 4 & 5)

Chapter 3, 4 & 5: ( Answer using lecture slides and eBook)

Q1: Identify a major ethical dilemma in each of the last five decades.
Q2: Identify a key development in business ethics in each of the last five decades.

Reflection tip: Which decade did you connect with the most and why? How does the ethical dilemma of that decade impact you in the present?

PART 2 : Lecture Pods/Videos

Q1: View the video lecture pods (Purpose of Professional Bodies) and make a note of the main points you learned about professional bodies. After viewing the first lecture pod, visit the site of a Professional Body you might be interested in joining as a graduate, and find the answers to the following questions:
How do I become a member?
What must I do to maintain membership?
Do they have a code of conduct and what is required?
Do they have a code of ethics?

Hint: This question is important in helping you prepare for certain parts of Assessment 1 (Executive summary)
Q2:

Access APES 110 Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants and make sure you understand the five fundamental principles. For each of the five principles, think of a scenario which may potentially create threats to compliance with the principle.
Reflection tip: Which objectivity out of the five is the most important to you (even if you are not in the accounting profession, these objectivities are important in other disciplines too)
Q3: View Supplementary videos – Please summarise one to two key points on the following
Are there penalties for breaching the codes? three videos:
SABC Digital News | Accounting and Auditing professional bodies to help fight corruption
Association for Project Management | Professional Bodies, what role do they play in building and maintaining world class competence?
Niobe Elliott | Professional Bodies ICT

Reflection tip: How have you started to think about ethical issues facing your career after watching the videos? what issues may relate to your chosen career and how can we address them?

Q4: Videos from CNN and ABC News on Ethics –
How to buy ethical chocolate video
Should chocolate makers like Cadbury and Nestle be held accountable for the actions of their suppliers? Is it their responsibility to ensure that their suppliers produce cocoa without using child labour of child slave labour?
If you were Nestle’s CEO, what would you do? Buy the more expensive FairTrade cocoa, or continue to but the less expensive, less ethical cocoa?

Fire Kills Over 100 Factory Workers in Bangladesh video
How can companies like Tommy Hilfiger and Wal-Mart emphasize to their employees the importance of choosing suppliers that behave ethically? Discuss how an organisation’s culture can help dictate employee behaviour.

Reflection tip: How have you started to think about ethical issues facing your career after watching the videos? what issues may relate to your chosen career and how can we address them?

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PART 3 : Reading 2: 2017 Graduate Outcome Survey National Report, Jan 2017

Please refer to Table 3 (Undergraduate Employment Outcomes by study area), 2016 and 2017 (%) and provide some comments relating to your profession.
Please refer to Table 8 (Undergraduate Employment by Occupation and study area), 2017 (%) and provide some comments relating to your profession.
Refer to Table 2.6 Skills formation and utilisation – comment on Table 9 (Importance of Qualification for undergraduates’ Current Employment), 2017 (%) and provide some comments relating to your profession.
Refer to Table 28 (Undergraduate median full-time salaries by study area), 2016 and 2017 and provide comments on salary related to your profession.

Reflection tip: What are your thoughts about your chosen profession after reading this article and exploring the statistics? How is this information going to impact you in the workforce?

PART 4 : Vietnam Economic News (8-14 Sep)

Please read Vietnam Economic News from the above dates and provide a summary (any one article and one paragraph) on any article that relates to your profession, career/employment or ethical issues. Vietnam Economic News is available from web site http://ven.vn/

Reflection tip: What is the VEN reading about and how does the information presented impact your thinking? How does your article relate to this week’s topic? what are the positive aspects and how would you apply that in the future? and/or what are the negative aspects and how would you avoid them?

Portfolio Reflection Guidelines:
Provide a 100 to 150 words of reflection on your learning from the homework questions. You may reflect on the question(s) you particularly engaged with and your work experiences. Please use the following as guidelines.

Reflection GUIDELINES must be used Possible questions you could use to meet these guidelines
Evaluate Significance What is the relative value of the overall learning experience from the resources and portfolio questions for this week?
Reconstruct the experience What are the most salient points of what you experienced when learning from the resources for this week?
Analysis: Why did it happen that way? What interpretations, explanations help you to make sense of the learning experience?
Distil: What lessons can be learnt? What positive aspects from learning resources are worth using in the future?
Apply: Prepare for future situations What will you change as a result of learning experience from this week? What preparation do you need now to respond to situations in the future?
(Cottrell 2015: 236-237).

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Internal Analysis

Instruction
ow that you understand the concept of a competitor analysis, you must now be able to communicate your organization’s strategy to all employees. The CEO for your organization has announced that the organization must put more of a focus on consumer-driven health care, and an urgent care clinic division will be added as an answer to the recent uptick in retail health clinics in your area. For this assignment, develop a 4-6-page action plan, not including title page and reference page, that will facilitate communication of the strategy. Your action plan should include, but is not limited to, the following: Goals or objectives that detail how the new urgent care clinic division will contribute to the set strategy (e.g., tie this in with the organizational statements you constructed) What will be required to meet the goals and objectives Who is responsible for each goal and objective What resources will be required to achieve goals and objectives How results will be measured and evaluated At least 1 page of your report should be dedicated to explaining the process for communicating the plan across the organization.

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Question 21: General

Assessment @ a glance
Task Use the Data Science Road Map, your Excel & Descriptive Statistics skills to analyse two data sets to solve a problem
Learning outcomes Present and describe information effectively
Suggest ways to improve decision making processes
Value 15%
Submission Learnline Submit Here
Week 7 (see Learnline for details)
Volume & Documentation Two documents are required:
An Excel workbook showing data analysis and a data dashboard
A 2- 4-page report in Word summarising outcomes and decisions (see required template in task details)
Group or Individual Individual
Criteria See separate document

Overview
This assignment will enable you to practice your data analytics skills learned to date. You need to implement the Data Science Road Map and respond to the scenario on page 2.

SCENARIO
You are Aya Baxter and you are working as a data analyst in a tertiary institution. Your manager has been asked by a Senior staff member responsible for student engagement to analyse a data set of an ‘at risk’ first year university class (often with a high failure rate) to understand the demographics and the potential for all students to successfully complete the unit. The institution is looking to implement some student support strategies but first need to understand the student cohort in some detail.
To: Aya Baxter
From: Monica Dave
Subject: Student Engagement project
Dear Aya,
The Pro Vice Chancellor (PVC) Student Engagement is gathering data regarding some of the problematic subjects we teach in first year across the institution. She is particularly interested in a data set from a first year Statistics unit which has had some very high fail rates in the past.
Could you please review the data sets extracted from the student system and the Learning Management system and provide some advice including a brief report to help with planning intervention strategies to ensure that students can be successful.
You will need to include a range of descriptive statistics and data visualisations (in the form of a data dashboard) so that the PVC and colleagues will be able to quickly understand the situation when in their next meeting which is scheduled for Week 8 of this semester.
It would be great if you could get this work to me no later than Friday, Week7
I look forward to your response
Monica Dave
Preparation
In order to prepare a reply to the email, you will need to examine and analyse the datasets thoroughly. There are two separate excel files that will need to be reviewed.
Remember the process to use and the importance of the first step: Identifying the problem. The data will be messy, you need to clean the data and decide what will be best for your analysis. After cleaning the data, you will need to do some explorations about what its telling you. Consider the variables against which data is being recorded and the various relationships between variables that may be of help. A consideration of the ethical aspects of this request should also be included.
Demonstrate your use of a pivot table to manipulate the data as part of your analysis. Use the pivot table to create an Interactive data dashboard that includes at least 3 charts from which decision making is possible.

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Presentation
The structure for the report is as follows:
Title page
Problem: outline the problem you are trying to solve based on the scenario outlined below and the data sets you receive.
Data Wrangling: outline the steps you took to clean the data initially and the processes you used to understand what was in the data set you received. Include screen captures etc to show the process used.
Features extracted: based on your problem, what features did you choose to work with and why?
Ethical considerations: use the factors from the Business Ethics Canvas to write about the ethical aspects you considered
Modelling & Analysis: what visualisation and statistical processes did you employ to find answers to the problem you identified. Why did you choose these?
Present Results: this should include a data dashboard created in EXCEL and contain both visual, numerical and textual data. Data in your report should refer to data in the spreadsheet
References (where appropriate)

Criteria
Data Analysis Skills (Use of the Data Science Road Map process to structure the analysis; discuss the ethics😉
Demonstration of Statistical Thinking skills (ability to use the language, concepts and processes of statistics to address the problem presented)

Demonstration of EXCEL SKILLS (pivot tables, data dashboards, functions)
Communication skills – ability to write a coherent report
Innovation/Originality – for going above and beyond!

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Instruction
Read, summarize and give your opinion on the attached paper.

A Research Agenda Acknowledging the Persistence of Passwords∗
Cormac Herley
Microsoft Research, Redmond, USA
Abstract
Despite countless attempts and near-universal desire to replace them, passwords are more widely used and firmly entrenched than ever. Our exploration of this leads us to argue that no silver bullet will meet all requirements, and not only will passwords be with us for some time, but in many instances they are the solution which best fits the scenario of use. Among broad authentication re- search directions to follow, we first suggest better means to concretely identify actual requirements (surprisingly overlooked to date) and weight their relative importance in target scenarios; this will support approaches aiming to identify best-fit mechanisms in light of requirements. Second, for scenarios where indeed passwords appear to be the best-fit solution, we suggest designing better means to support passwords themselves. We highlight the need for more systematic research, and how the pre- mature conclusion that passwords are dead has lead to the neglect of important research questions.
1 Introduction
“Well, in our country,” said Alice, still panting a little, “you’d generally get to somewhere else if you run very fast for a long time, as we’ve been doing.” “A slow sort of country!” said the Queen. “Now, here, you see, it takes all the running you can do, to keep in the same place. If you want to get somewhere else, you must run at least twice as fast as that!”
– Lewis Carroll, Through the Looking-Glass
One view of password research is that little progress has been made in the past 20 years. Despite countless attempts to dislodge them, passwords are more widely
∗Version: August 25, 2011. Copyright IEEE. Author’s version for personal use. Not to be offered for sale or otherwise re-printed, re- published or re-used without permission. A version of this paper will appear in IEEE Security&Privacy Magazine in early 2012.
Paul C. van Oorschot
Carleton University, Ottawa, Canada
used and firmly entrenched than ever. The list of new technologies, research efforts and industry initiatives that have tried to supplant them is impressive in effort, and disappointing in outcome. We consider the possible rea- sons in an attempt to learn from this failure. We find that despite almost universal agreement on the desirability of finding something to replace passwords, much confusion has resulted from a failure to specify both the actual re- quirements needed of a replacement, and a relative rank- ing of such requirements. If a solution which satisfies all needs cannot be found, then “best fit” approaches should be explored. The premature conclusion that passwords are dead has generated some perverse effects. We argue that it is time to admit that passwords will be with us for some time, and moreover, that in many instances they are the best-fit among currently known solutions.
We suggest two broad research directions. First, we suggest research that identifies scenarios where pass- words are indeed the best fit and encourages means to better support them; this could have tremendous positive impact given the scale of password deployment. Second, we suggest research systematically prioritizing compet- ing requirements (as rarely can all requirements be met), and using this in comparing alternatives.
We assert the need to better understand the loss situ- ation (what the actual losses related to password com- promises are, and what attack vectors they result from); our current data poor state means perception drives de- cisions more than evidence. Password research has been far from systematic. For example, we still ask many of the same questions asked 15 or 20 years ago and the liter- ature is void of agreement on many issues for which con- sensus should be possible. We attribute this to a lack of a well-organized research agenda, and a lack of systemat- ically documented knowledge. Our goal is to promote a research agenda that both better supports passwords, and allows progress forward.
2 The Resilience of Passwords
Neither users nor security experts would mourn the pass- ing of passwords. For users the main issue is usability. Major complaints are triggered by mandatory password changes (e.g., every 90 days) and complex policies. Frus- tration increases greatly with the number of password that a user must manage. For example, larger portfolios of passwords increase forgetting and login errors.
The security shortcomings of passwords are many and well-known. They are static in the short term and thus replayable upon capture. Early attacks focussed on their vulnerability to guessing and brute-forcing. More recently phishing and keystroke logging have allowed password harvesting on an industrial scale [8]. There are also economic problems. Agent-supported password resets are expensive. The alternative, self-service au- tomated password resets, often rely on much weaker secondary authentication systems, such as “secret ques- tions” [9] (e.g., facilitating compromise of Sarah Palin’s email account).

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Nonetheless, passwords have shown incredible per- sistence. More than seven years after Bill Gates de- clared (2004) “the password is dead”, not only have we failed to get rid of them, but they continue to multi- ply as an almost universal means of Internet authenti- cation, protecting hundreds of millions of accounts on some large sites. Two decades of stories on how urgent and imperative it is to replace them has had little impact: stronger alternatives and two-factor schemes are rele- gated to the fringes. Sites that offer a choice of authen- tication mechanisms (e.g., Paypal, Blizzard World-of- Warcraft) find negligible user uptake of password alter- natives. End-user authentication technologies involving biometrics and tokens (see O’Gorman [11]), client-side public-key-infrastructure (see Housley and Polk [7]), and graphical variations of passwords (see Biddle et al. [1]), have largely failed to gain mainstream deployment. New proposals “to replace passwords” are offered with reg- ularity but expectations of success are so low that they are sometimes labeled as Yet Another Authentication Scheme (YAAS). Progress on federated identity systems has been glacial. A crowded and active offering space in 2004 is noticeably quieter in 2011. There is little ev- idence of user adoption of OpenID [12]. After a 1.0 re- lease by the Eclipse Higgins Project in February 2008 there have been no major updates. Sxip Identity stopped supporting its Sxipper product in April 2011, and Mi- crosoft announced in early 2011 that there would be no future versions of its federated client Cardspace.
There are many reasons for these failures. Approaches that require client hardware (e.g., fingerprints, smart- cards) face an obvious chicken-and-egg barrier. Phys- ical tokens are expensive and few users aspire to carry
the dozens that would be required to replace all of their passwords. Single-signon schemes offer a single point of failure. Password managers often have poor support for roaming and inadequately studied usability [3]. The extra security of proposed alternatives to passwords may not always justify the cost. Organizations may prefer the devil-they-know in the form of current levels of fraud to an unknown devil of support costs for more com- plex technologies. Revocation is more complicated for stronger authentication. Self-service password resets that many rely upon are no longer simple if hardware tokens are involved. Usability is an issue for many stronger schemes (e.g., longer login times). The enthusiasm that users show for getting rid of passwords has not trans- lated into support for alternatives. Non-technical issues are possibly to blame. Mis-aligned incentives can cause desirable solutions to fail. Overall, the reasons for these failures are as many and diverse as the failures them- selves.
Not only have proposed alternatives failed, but we have learnt little from the failures. Is federated identity a bad approach, or have the timing and incentives just been wrong? Do the many failed single-signon initia- tives teach that the whole idea is wrong, or merely that execution has been flawed? Might password managers see wider adoption if roaming were better supported? In spite of considerable research, execution and deployment effort, very little has been ruled in or out; those who seek to replace passwords in 2012 ask many of the same ques- tions asked in 1995. Single sign-on was an active topic of debate in the early 1990’s and remains so today. No progress results from continuing to revisit the same ques- tions without decision. There have been improvements, secure cookies, HTTPonly (which prevents cookie steal- ing) and tracking the history IP addresses, for example. However these have largely been behind-the-scenes and have not affected the user experience. While many things have changed beyond recognition, passwords have ad- vanced little since the days when a 500 MByte disk cost $600, thousands lined up overnight to buy copies of Win- dows 95, and the 1.5 MegaPixel Kodak DCS 420 digital camera retailed for $14,000.
Passwords, though unloved, deserve some words of praise. They have brought us this far: they are the means by which two billion Internet users access email, bank- ing, social networking and other services. They are es- sentially free from the service provider viewpoint, and are readily understood by users. They allow instanta- neous account setup. Revocation is as simple as chang- ing the password. Those who forget their passwords can be emailed either reset links or the passwords themselves (this practice, though insecure, is common for low-value sites). All of this is automated and instantaneous. They allow access to one’s accounts from anywhere in the
2
world assuming nothing more than a simple browser. So- phisticated users can protect themselves from many of the threats. Deploying a functioning password system is relatively simple (although deployment errors are com- mon [2]). Arguably, the Internet could not have grown to its current size and influence without them. Some non- profit sites, such as Wikipedia and Craigslist, have tens of millions of users. Facebook grew from nothing to just shy of one million users before taking any funding. Ev- ery startup wishes to emulate that growth story, and in many cases the only acceptable marginal cost per user is $0. While growing from one to a million users, authen- tication often must be free; in growing from one to 500 million users there is seldom a good time to mandate a new (more costly) user authentication system. Passwords have an impressive record of accomplishment.
3 Confusion Reigns: Goals, Costs, Benefits
Among security experts there is near-unanimous agree- ment on the desirability of “replacing passwords.” Yet, this meta-goal is accepted without an understanding of what exactly is required of a replacement, and what will improve once they have been replaced. There is consid- erable confusion as to the costs and benefits of replacing passwords. This makes it essentially impossible to effec- tively evaluate and compare proposals.
Poor security is obviously the main concern of secu- rity experts. However, since even strong authentication technologies are vulnerable to certain attacks (e.g., ses- sion hijacking involving client-end malware), more de- tail on exactly what is required of a replacement is es- sential. The U.S. government’s 2011 NSTIC initiative— “National Strategy for Trusted Identities in Cyberspace” [10]—summarizes things concisely: “passwords are in- convenient and insecure.” This would suggest that the implicit goal is: “more security, more usability (at rea- sonable cost).” While there is little to disagree with here, this does not point to a way forward. There must be min- imum security and usability goals to be met; incremen- tal improvement in either is probably not worth the cost of disruption. A solution that answers all security con- cerns, provides unequivocally greater usability and dis- rupts nothing seems unattainable: it is likely impossible to find a silver bullet achieving all goals simultaneously. That many attempts have sought this suggests an over- constrained problem. In the absence of a silver bullet the messy work of trade-offs cannot be escaped.
3.1 Confusion on properties needed
What properties do we actually need? Which weak- nesses are unacceptable in a replacement and which can we live with? What are the usability requirements, given
that active web-users must authenticate to dozens of sites? Previous attempts to replace passwords demon- strate confusion as to which threats to address.
As one example, the problem of malware-infected clients has been with us for some time and contin- ues. Yet, many recent proposals, including OpenID and Cardspace and most password managers offer no protec- tion against malware-infected clients. There is confu- sion about whether, in a particular deployment environ- ment, the guessing attacks of concern are online or off- line. Relatively weak passwords may suffice if relevant attacks must be online, allowing other mitigation; much greater strength is required if off-line attacks apply.
Passwords have been with us since the earliest days of computing. The rules, policies and “best practices” that govern their use have grown over time. The policy requirements of many organizations are enforced sim- ply for compliance with security audits or industry best practices. The reasons for some requirements are poorly understood, or long forgotten; in some cases the threats underlying a policy item are no longer applicable, or it is unclear whether the policy accomplishes the design goal. Password expiration, as discussed in Section 5, is an example where there is a high usability cost, yet the best evidence suggests the security objective is not being achieved [15].
The resources currently protected by passwords are as diverse as the Internet itself, ranging from bank and brokerage accounts with significant assets to throwaway email accounts. Clearly, not all accounts in all environ- ments have the same security needs. The objectives of different password-requesting web-sites vary immensely, and are not always centered on security. Passwords might be required to limit liability (if personal informa- tion is compromised), for legal reasons (some laws apply if a door is closed but not if open), to get an email address as username for contact information, or to convey or in- crease the feeling of value in a site. Not all users have the same needs—for celebrities, politicians and people in the public eye, even email and Twitter accounts may re- quire better protection than others need for banking. Not all passwords are equal. The consequences of compro- mise are at least as diverse as what they protect. Health records, employee accounts and banking are at one end of the spectrum; compromise here can be extremely se- rious. Merchant and retailer accounts come next; there might be an opportunity for mischief or vandalism but the damage is likely more limited. Email and social net- working sites present the opportunity for inconvenience and reputation loss. Passwords that allow access to site content, airport WiFi networks etc., rank lowest, protect- ing the site more than the user.
There is confusion as to whether we seek one solu- tion or many. We assert that it is naive to expect that a
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single approach will supplant passwords in every nook and cranny into which they have forced themselves; sev- eral or many technologies are necessary, which itself has advantages over a single solution. We noted earlier the problem is over-constrained in goals. The general confu- sion suggests a problem also insufficiently specified.
3.2 Inability to quantify harm
The insecurity of passwords certainly causes harm. Yet, how much harm exactly is caused by password compro- mises is a subject of speculation. Most organizations reveal nothing of their losses unless compelled. While there is no shortage of estimates, most lack a description of methodology, and many are produced by or for se- curity vendors whose prime motivation is not necessarily accuracy. In the last two years, estimates of “cyber-crime losses” ranged over three orders of magnitude, from $560 million (P. Peterson, Cisco) to $1 trillion (E. Amoroso, AT&T); the inconsistency inspires little confidence in any of these numbers. How bad are things actually— how much harm does the average user suffer? Accurately predicting the benefit of replacing passwords requires ac- curately quantifying harm.
Harm is sometimes suffered by the user, sometimes by the site. Historically, a compromised user account might pose a serious threat to the network itself. Today, a compromised Hotmail account is inconvenient for the user, and might be used to send spam, but poses little threat of direct loss to the site or other users (although indirect damage from compromised accounts may re- sult from their use to spread malware or “stuck in Lon- don” scams). Worst- and average-case harm can differ in severity by orders of magnitude. Gaining possession of an email password might in some circumstances allow an attacker to access a bank account. However the average case is far less serious. Some harms are reversible and some not. Consumers are generally made whole for di- rect costs upon loss of money [5]. Loss of privacy from leaked health records cannot be repaired. Confusing the picture further, indirect harm can be many times greater than direct. Money is the most obvious loss, but time, frustration and reputation are also at stake. As with many forms of crime, online thieves may cause damage out of proportion to the money they make.
Password compromise does not always lead to harm. In fact, we have little idea how often one leads to the other [6]. Survey after survey finds that users ignore most security precautions, yet it seems implausible that two billion people would use the Internet if a majority suffered serious harm each year. The leak of 32 million RockYou user credentials [13] has not been linked to any visible surge in fraud (albeit, proving such direct links convincingly can be difficult). The reasons for this ap-
parent lack of visible harm are poorly understood. Evacuating funds from high value accounts is non- trivial. There is evidence that many more accounts are compromised every year than can be evacuated and that money mules, not passwords, are the bottle-neck re- source in the cyber-crime pipeline [5]. Privilege esca- lation (from low to high value accounts) may be harder than it appears. Stealing passwords and monetizing stolen passwords are distinct events. It is quite possi- ble that current systems are failing at preventing the first event, but succeeding at preventing the second. When are passwords not the last line of defence, but simply one hurdle in a complex fraud prevention apparatus? Aca- demic researchers typically have no data on this. Back- end fraud detection at banks may catch more attempted fraud than researchers imagine. The research literature, largely assuming that passwords are the last line of de- fense, generally lacks discussion of back-end protec- tion. What fraction of password compromises lead to attempted fraud, and what fraction of attempted fraud
succeeds, are simply matters of speculation.
Finally, since riddance is not an end in itself, what im- proves if we get rid of passwords? The goal, presum- ably, is to reduce actual and potential harm (or improve usability without reducing security). Inability to quan- tify harm precludes quantifying the expected improve- ment from alternatives. It is common to cite impressively large fraud estimates when making the case against pass- words. However, establishing how much reduction we might expect of a replacement is rarely attempted. For example the NSTIC document [10] asserts that ID theft cost $37 billion in 2010, but is silent on how much, if any, of this can be laid at the door of passwords. This matters, as displacing passwords will be costly, and no replace- ment will be free of vulnerabilities itself. It would be disappointing to incur all the cost only to find fraud lev- els unchanged (e.g., if session-hijacking were to replace keystroke logging). It would be counter-productive to mandate strong authentication for all email accounts, if passwords are not a major source of loss. Again, without
quantification of the harms we proceed blindly.
3.3 Confusion on cost of ousting passwords
If replacing passwords were an easy proposition, it is likely that one of the many attempts would have suc- ceeded by now. That progress has eluded us suggests that the costs will be large. There will also be benefits, of course. Do the benefits exceed the costs? Answering this is complicated by the number of stake-holders and their diversity of interests. No one actor owns the whole problem. Users, web service providers, browser vendors, software companies, government agencies and law en- forcement all have some involvement or stake. The ben-
4
efit of any proposal may exceed the cost for one party, but not for others. No one party can impose a solution, but several may veto solutions; e.g., users resist innovations where usability is poor.
Organizational difficulties and the alignment of incen- tives plays a large role. OpenID provides a lesson in in- centives: while many sites offer to be identifying parties, few accept the risk of disintermediation of becoming re- lying parties [12]. Economics may play as large a role as technology in deciding outcomes. The sunk costs that many organizations have in passwords pose a large bar- rier to change. Not only is there no first-mover advan- tage, in moving to any new authentication system, there is often real advantage in being last. Given the cost, con- fusion, training and customer support calls that introduc- ing a novel system brings it can be better to let others go first and learn from their experience. The risk of user defection may be unacceptable for web service providers competing vigorously for traffic. Underestimating these factors can lead us to believe that proposals have far bet- ter cost/benefit tradeoff than is actually the case. The many failed attempts to replace passwords offer a cau- tionary lesson: asserting that promised (un-quantified) reduction in harm outweighs the business risks has been tried many times. It has a long history of failure, and this will probably continue.
While the research community is unable to quantify harm, individual companies presumably have estimates of their losses from ongoing threats. Their actions cur- rently reveal a preference for password-related losses as opposed to the uncertainty of alternatives. To assume that they’re wrong is to assume that the research community understands the business trade-offs better than businesses themselves do.
Finally, in segments where the costs of replacement are greater than the benefits, improving usability may be the main driving force, with passwords persisting until a more usable alternative is found. Segments where ben- efits of replacement can be shown to clearly dominate costs are good candidates for more complex solutions— however, the “clear showing” is not so easy.

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4 Seeking Best-Fit over Silver Bullets
Repeated and sustained effort has failed to uncover a sil- ver bullet replacement for passwords. It is time to ad- mit that this is unlikely to change. No single alternative technology is likely to possess the combination of secu- rity, usability and economic features that meets all goals in all situations. There is simply too much diversity in current uses of passwords and consequences when things go wrong, and too many conflicting requirements, threat models, and competing stakeholder interests [2].
Abandoning hope for a silver bullet, we should turn
our efforts towards finding best-fit solutions—by the messy work of weighting security, usability and eco- nomic requirements, considering the differences in ac- count compromise severity, and weighting threats by rel- ative likelihoods. Challenges in this requirements-driven prioritization problem include defining criteria for com- paring proposed solutions, and assigning weights for dif- ferent elements.
While conventional security wisdom oversimplifies the story to a trade-off between security and usability, the situation is far more complex than a one-dimensional space where more of one implies less of the other. In- deed if they were inversely related, any attempt to in- crease both would be hopeless: only by reneging on the promise of better usability could security be increased. Neither is a one-dimensional quantity. For example, in- creasing the complexity of a password improves secu- rity against brute-force attacks, but does nothing against a host of others. Thus, security requirements must be bal- anced against both usability and other potentially greater security requirements. Shoulder-surfing is certainly a threat, but is entirely incapable of compromising creden- tials on the industrial scale that keystroke logging can. While session hijacking is a realistic concern, authenti- cating every Facebook update and tweet with one-time codes seems overkill relative to the threat.
As a tool for ranking properties it is hard to escape the need to quantify the relative likelihoods of various threats. As a thought experiment consider a pie-chart counting all the accounts compromised in a year, di- vided into slices by compromise vectors (e.g., keystroke logging, phishing, brute-forcing, shoulder-surfing, ses- sion hijacking, …). While the range of attacks is large and growing, we have no demonstrated ability to quan- tify their relative likelihoods. We don’t know the slice sizes—not even approximately.
Are more accounts likely to be compromised by brute- force guessing than by shoulder-surfing? Do more ac- counts succumb to keystroke logging than phishing? How often does cross-account password re-use lead to attack escalation? Sadly with very few exceptions, the relative success of each attack vector is unknown. Many have strong opinions on the importance of various at- tacks, but few have any data. This precludes comparing the effectiveness of would-be replacements (relative to requirements). If guessing attacks are insignificant rel- ative to other threats, then accepting poor usability in return for highly complex passwords is a bad bargain. If shoulder-surfing causes marginal harm, then solutions addressing it alone, while neglecting other attacks, are of limited value. Since not all requirements can be met any given proposal will meet some and not others. Thus, in the absence of the “pie slice data” that would allow us to rank requirements, comparing alternatives to passwords

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reduces to speculation.
Identifying the threat vectors is easy work, compared
to the important task: determining their relative likeli- hoods and impact. This prioritization is important, un- less all security requirements can be met (at acceptable cost). Clearly some threats are also less scalable than others. While threat likelihoods will evolve, weighting attack importance per current prevalence is more useful than equal (or arbitrary) weighting of all attacks.
We assert that passwords themselves are the best-fit for many (but not the highest level) authentication needs. They are free (if we don’t consider usability) and read- ily understood by users. They allow account access from anywhere in the world assuming only a simple browser. Revocation is as simple as changing passwords. Those who forget passwords can be mailed reset links or the actual passwords; though far from ideal, this is common practice for low-value sites, for which all steps can be automated and instantaneous, including account set-up. Thus passwords accomplish many things that their nu- merous rivals cannot. Indeed it might be said of pass- words that they are the worst possible authentication sys- tem, except for all the other systems.
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5 A research agenda supporting passwords
Building on the above discussion, we seek to promote a research agenda better supporting passwords. We also highlight research questions—some long overdue and neglected—that we believe deserve attention.
5.1 Ending belief ‘Passwords are dead’
The spectacularly incorrect assumption “passwords are dead” has been harmful, discouraging research on how to improve the lot of close to two billion people who use them. Every effort should be made to correct this. While vast attention, effort and research has been spent on would-be replacements, there has been relatively lit- tle on studying plain old text passwords themselves: how they are (re)used, how often they fail or are confused be- tween accounts, and how to improve things. We are sur- prisingly ignorant on even very basic questions.
During this time usability has degraded: everyone has more passwords, and policies have tended to tighten rather than loosen over time. While this might arguably be acceptable if passwords were on the verge of extinc- tion (in which case an increasing usability burden might even help coax users to consider alternatives), we must now acknowledge that they are not. Indeed, we be- lieve that passwords will be with us in great numbers for the foreseeable future (including as a visible front- end strengthened by complementary measures). Without better user-facing support, passwords represent a grow- ing burden of user effort that is better spent elsewhere.
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The above reiterates the need for data on “pie slice sizes” on which to base advice to users, and more gener- ally, to expend greater research effort on understanding problems related to text password themselves.
5.2 Understanding strength, online, offline
Enormous emphasis is put on coaxing users to choose strong passwords [14]. Yet there is no consensus on what strength various situations demand. This raises numer- ous questions, which we suggest the security community has neglected to seriously consider for far too long.
First, how should strength be measured? Info- theoretic entropy and the NIST criteria are poor mea- sures [13] when users choose common passwords, e.g., ‘Pa$$w0rd’ isn’t particularly strong. Strength is better measured relevant to a large population of passwords, as popularity is a main determinant of risk.
Second, what strength is required to resist online at- tacks (assuming rate-limitation in place)? The answer is non-trivial; it may depend on the scale of the target pop- ulation, as many guessing attacks are easier to conceal in the traffic of a large site. Next, how should a desired level

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6
of strength be achieved? For example, different ways of achieving the same strength can have radically dif- ferent usability properties. The question of minimizing the usability impact of a strength requirement has seen surprisingly little work. Related, but slightly different, how should a desired level of strength be imposed? The policies that constrain password length and composition appear especially hated by users. Are there better means to the same end?
Third, in what scenarios are lockout or rate-limiting policies unacceptable? An argument against these poli- cies is that they admit denial of service attacks. Yet for many sites, living with this threat is preferable to impos- ing greater strength requirements [2].
Fourth, when acceptable, how can lockout or rate lim- iting best be accomplished? By locking accounts after three failed logins, ten, or more? Is an exponentially in- creasing delay between attempts better than a fixed limit?
Fifth, when are off-line attacks a threat? While depen- dent on implementation, access to salted hashed pass- words requires attacker effort; long gone are the days when password hash files were by default world read- able. A disgruntled ex-sysadmin who steals hashed pass- words is the often-conjectured foe in this attack; yet, if un-trusted individuals have had unfettered unaudited ac- cess to the authentication server, a site’s problems go well beyond password strength.
Sixth, are there ways to protect against off-line at- tacks besides password strength? Mandating password changes once hashes leak might be better than strong policies at Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!.
5.3 Better policies and support tools
Password aging polices. Password expiration policies (e.g., mandating passwords be changed every 90–180 days), are a frequently mentioned usability disaster. They raise the cognitive burden on users, increase login errors, and lock legitimate users out of older machines and archived files. The justification of such policies ap- plies only in a small set of scenarios: they reduce the time that an attacker has to access an account (if unde- tected), and the time to brute-force the password in the case of off-line attacks. However, a study by Zhang et al. [15] found that an attacker who knew the old password
could quickly guess the new one 41% of the time with an off-line or 17% of the time with an online attack. Thus, despite their usability burden, expiration policies don’t appear to deliver the intended security benefit. We sug- gest (as do an increasing number of security experts) that expiration policies be eliminated on the grounds that best evidence implies cost greatly exceeds benefit, in all-but contrived circumstances.
Realistic password guidance. Managing a large col- lection of passwords is a problem that most users face, but on which the research literature offers few insights or guidance. The historical injunction to never write pass- words down is now frequently challenged by experts as unrealistic and poor advice (obviously, it is important where the written record is stored). Users are also ad- vised to make them strong, never re-use, change them often, and never use them on un-trusted machines. This advice is, of course, almost universally ignored. The fact that even the most conscientious users find it impossi- ble to comply is often taken as evidence that “passwords are dead” and is used to support the arguments to replace them. We suggest, instead, that it is evidence of a failure by the research community to grapple with the real-world constraints of the Internet-using population. Rather than advice that is bound to be ignored, users need realistic guidance to cope with the dozens of passwords they must now manage. While passwords may not seem “hot” re- search, the scale of deployment is such that any improve- ment in their usability would be hard to equal for impact.
Password managers. Password managers (whether browser-based, client application, or in the cloud) offer to relieve much of the cognitive burden of multiple pass- words. Thus, they are potentially of great interest for scenarios where passwords are the best-fit answer. We assert that the properties of offerings in this space are largely understudied, and that development and analysis of serious password manager tools, and recognition of their potential benefits, offer great opportunities in us- ability and security research. Among important chal- lenges here are security itself (recall that most password managers have no malware resistance), and addressing roaming users (i.e., users using machines other than their primary devices).
5.4 Prioritizing competing requirements
If all requirements cannot be met, then some must be omitted in favor of others. The challenge is how to do so systematically rather than on an ad hoc basis. If we have no ranking of requirements then all features have equal weight—such as, e.g., protecting against shoulder- surfing and keystroke-logging. This seems wrong, as scalability implies the latter can deliver far greater harm. We have proposed that requirements be ranked in pro-
7
portion to the compromises that they currently address. While this approach is imperfect—the numbers can change as attackers adapt to defenses and evolve their techniques—using a ranking based on observed harm is preferable to choosing which threats to address in an arbitrary way. There are two parts to this ranking. First, threats that currently cause significant harm must be ranked high—by definition, they have a demonstrated ability to scale. For example, if malware-infected clients result in significant credential-stealing, then any solution not addressing this threat may not meaningfully reduce fraud. Second, threats that cause little observed harm re- quire careful analysis. Some may remain dormant while more effective attacks exist; others may not scale suffi- ciently to harm large populations. Distinguishing these cases is important. Thus, to rank requirements, we need a much better understanding of which attacks are caus- ing how much of the damage, or at least their relative levels. Populating the pie-chart of Section 4 with threat likelihoods is of first-order importance.
Agreement on a standardized, superset threat model for reference would greatly facilitate comparing solu- tions. This would spring naturally from the ranked list of attacks, with the highest-ranked ones forming a checklist. Rating proposals against this standard check- list would directly improve research. For example, this would immediately reveal the deficiencies of solu- tions that address phishing but not keylogging or brute- forcing, or that address shoulder-surfing alone. Given the diversity of threat vectors, the limited appeal of such single-feature solutions will become obvious if we have consensus on a ranking of threats.
We need better understanding of the harms suffered by users when things go wrongtwo major conclusions.
First, we assert that passwords are themselves the best- fit for many of the scenarios in which they are currently used. No other single technology matches their combi- nation of cost, immediacy and convenience that many scenarios require; they are likely to persist for some time. The research avenue this motivates is exploring how to better support Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https://www.homeworknest.com/ . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!
References
[1]  R.Biddle,S.Chiasson,P.C.vanOorschot.GraphicalPasswords: Learning from the First Twelve Years. ACM Computing Surveys vol.44 no.4 (to appear).
[2]  J. Bonneau and S. Preibusch. The password thicket: Technical and market failures in human authentication on the web. WEIS 2010, Cambridge, MA, USA.
[3]  S.Chiasson,P.C.vanOorschot,andR.Biddle.Ausabilitystudy and critique of two password managers. In 15th USENIX Security Symposium, pages 1–16, 2006.
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[4]  D. Floreˆncio and C. Herley. A Large-Scale Study of Web Pass- word Habits. WWW 2007, Banff, Canada.
[5]  D.Floreˆncio,C.Herley.PhishingandMoneyMules.IEEEWork- shop on Information Forensics and Security (WIFS 2010).
[6]  C. Herley. So Long, And No Thanks for the Externalities: The Rational Rejection of Security Advice by Users. NSPW 2009, Oxford.
[7]  R.Housley,T.Polk.PlanningforPKI.Wiley,2001.
[8]  M. Jakobsson, S. Myers. Phishing and countermeasures: un- derstanding the increasing problem of electronic identity theft. Wiley-Interscience, 2006.
[9]  M.JustandD.Aspinall.Personalchoiceandchallengequestions: a security and usability assessment. In Proceedings of the 5th Symposium on Usable Privacy and Security, pages 1–11. ACM, 2009.
[10]  NIST. National Strategy for Trusted Identities in Cyberspace. Why We Need It. http://www.nist.gov/nstic/ NSTIC-Why-We-Need-It.pdf. 2011.
[11]  L.O’Gorman.Comparingpasswords,tokens,andbiometricsfor user authentication. Proc. IEEE 91(12):2019-2040, Dec. 2003.
[12]  S.-T.Sun,Y.Boshmaf,K.Hawkey,K.Beznosov.Abillionkeys, but few locks: the crisis of web single sign-on. NSPW 2010.
[13]  M. Weir, S. Aggarwal, M. Collins, H. Stern. Testing Metrics for Password Creation Policies by Attacking Large Sets of Revealed Passwords. ACM CCS 2010.
[14]  J.Yan,A.Blackwell,R.Anderson,A.Grant.Passwordmemora- bility and security: empirical results. IEEE Security and Privacy 2(5):25-31, 2004.
[15]  Y. Zhang, F. Monrose, M.K. Reiter. The Security of Modern Password Expiration: An Algorithmic Framework and Empirical Analysis. ACM CCS 2010.

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News commentary article
The text, not including inserted quotes, must be between 350 and 450 words long (include a word count). Papers of less than 350 words will not be graded.
Identify and explain an economic concept found in the article. If the article is about inflation, then you need to show that you understand what inflation actually is.
Use the article just to illustrate the concept.
Keep it simple and stick to economics you know and understand.
Basically you need to be able to analyze the information, not retell it.The more your paper presents a summary of the article, the lower your grade will go.
Adding a graph to your article for further illustration is often very helpful
There are 2 commentaries due this semester (see above for the exact dates).
.You need to provide a copy of the article or a link to it.
You need to cite each source in correct bibliographic form
If you use the internet to obtain a source, you must find out the date the article was originally published and put it into the correct form listed above, then include the URL afterwards (the address of the page).
You need to choose timely news
You may NOT use reference sources, encyclopedic entries, bank reports, etc.
The article you choose must be within a month or so of the date you write it.
Some of the best choices of articles come from sections of the newspaper other than the business pages—as long as they illustrate principles you have learned in this course.
45-50 points for meeting the above criteria
30- 44 points for retelling the article with little economic discussion
-5 points for not providing copy of the article or workable link to the article.
-5 points for over 450 words
papers of less than 350 words will be returned ungraded.

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Develop a Marketing Plan for a Local Business
1. Pick a local business or your own if current and gather your research to develop a Marketing Plan. Use the outline from chapter 2, exhibit 2.5. Try to interview the owner or a manager if you can. Try to solve a problem or answer a marketing question for the business. Use observation or questionnaire to make suggestions as to how the business should develop a Marketing Plan. Write the Marketing Plan for the business.  You can pick any type of business, product or service.
2. Write a Marketing Plan for the business.
3. Refer to Chapter Two, “Strategic Planning for Competitive Advantage”.  Exhibit 2.5, Elements of a Marketing Plan.
4. Develop your plan as you read the chapters and doing each step in your plan after reading it and completing your plan at Lesson15.  Your plan should address each of these elements including writing a Mission Statement for the business. Conducting a SWOT analysis.  You need three Objectives for the business.  Develop a Target Market based on your research and develop all elements of the Marketing Mix addressing all four P’s.  Use any other industry research you can find to help you develop and support your plans findings.  End your plan adding your Implementation steps, the Evaluations you will use, and the Controls for the business.
5. Your paper should be a minimum of 3 pages and no more than 10.

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G150/PHA1500 Module 06 Final Exam. Graded A
G150/PHA1500 Module 06 Final Exam. Graded A

Question 2: General Question

USHIST101 Exam 2 (Latest)
USHIST101 Exam 2 (Latest)
USHIST101 Exam 2 (Latest)

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USHIST101 Exam 1 (Latest)
USHIST101 Exam 1 (Latest)
USHIST101 Exam 1 (Latest)

Question 4: General Question

Nurs6521 Week 11 Quiz Latest
Nurs6521 Week 11 Quiz Latest
Nurs6521 Week 11 Quiz Latest

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NRS410 Week 1 Assess your Knowledge of Foundational Concepts Latest
NRS410 Week 1 Assess your Knowledge of Foundational Concepts Latest
NRS410 Week 1 Assess your Knowledge of Foundational Concepts Latest

Question 6: General Question

NR 602 Dermatology Questions and Answers (Latest) 87 Questions
NR 602 Dermatology Questions and Answers (Latest) 87 Questions
NR 602 Dermatology Questions and Answers (Latest) 87 Questions

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NR 509 Week 4 Quiz (Latest)
NR 509 Week 4 Quiz (Latest)
NR 509 Week 4 Quiz (Latest)

Question 8: General Question

MN576 Unit 10 Final Exam Latest
MN576 Unit 10 Final Exam Latest
MN576 Unit 10 Final Exam Latest

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MCB2289l Week 11 Final Exam Latest
MCB2289l Week 11 Final Exam Latest
MCB2289l Week 11 Final Exam Latest

Question 10: General Question

BUSI 430 EXAM 4 Latest
BUSI 430 EXAM 4 Latest
BUSI 430 EXAM 4 Latest

Question 11: History

HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 4: Liberty University (Already graded A )
HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 4: Liberty University (Already graded A )

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ASSESSMENT 2 – Essay
Written Assessment: You are required to write a formal academic essay. The essay will require an introduction, body, conclusion and reference list. All in-text citations must have a corresponding entry in the reference list. You are required to use APA (6’h ed.) for formatting your essay, citing evidence in your essay and constructing your reference list.
Due date: 17/9/2019 By 5pm AEST
Weighting: 30%
Length and/or format: 1,500 +/- 10%
Purpose: The aim of this essay is to enable students to demonstrate an understanding of and ability to apply the Transtheoretical Model of Change (Stages of Change Model) within an evidence-based framework. In addition to this, students will identify components of Motivational Interviewing which could be utilised to assist with enabling a patient to change their health behaviours.
Learning outcomes assessed: This assessment task assesses L01, L02, L03, LO4
How to submit: Students will submit their assessment to LEO via Turnitin. You should submit your final draft to Turnitin well in advance of the due date (ideally, several days before) to ensure that you get your Turnitin originality report and have time to work on any issues identified by Turnitin.
Return of assignment: The assignment will be returned via Turnitin on LEO with a grade and feedback summary.
Task
Harry is a 58-year-old male who has been admitted to the surgical ward on which you are working for a hip replacement. You have been allocated to care for him for the next 4 days. He weighs 165kg and is due to have a hip replacement tomorrow. He states -I’ve been overweight for years and that’s just how I am. I love food and I am a chef, so I am around food all day long. My doctor says my weight is impacting on my health-.
Using the Transtheoretical Model of Change and Motivational Interviewing techniques, describe how you could support Harry through the Stages of Change cycle to maintenance.
Utilize evidenced based literature to support your discussion. For the purposes of this paper, while seminal work (early literature) may be referenced, current literature is a requirement.

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Choose a patient-care situation in which the RN should intervene and advocate for the patient. An example of such a situation might be when a patient has not been given complete informed consent.

Include the following in your paper:
Describe the clinical situation concisely and descriptively. It can be an actual situation or a hypothetical one.
Apply the Bioethical Decision Making Model  to the specific clinical ethical situation that you choose. Address each section of the model in your paper.
Conclude with a discussion of nursing advocacy in the clinical setting and the nurse’s role as a patient advocate.
Your paper should be 4-5 pages.
You must reference and cite 1-2 scholarly sources other than your text. Include a title page and a reference page to cite your text and adhere to APA formatting.
Review the rubric for further information on how your assignment will be graded.
Due: Sunday, 11:59 p.m. (Pacific time)
Attached it is the Bioethical Decision Making Model

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From the list below, choose a subject you would like to research. This will be the topic of your thread:
·         Long-term customer loyalty and relationships
·         Global marketing
·         The importance of marketing research
·         Defending the practice of social media marketing

Threads:
·         Title your thread according to your topic. Have a title page, and attach a Microsoft Word document with your thread, in addition to the normal discussion board.
·         In at least 600 words, discuss your topic by addressing the following items:
o    Explain the concept of the marketing management topic selected for your paper (Your textbook is a good source for this item).
o    Examine at least 1 practical application/example for your topic.
o    Formulate a question about your topic that your classmates will respond to.
o    Have a separate heading for each of these 3 sections.

Replies:
·         You must respond to at least 2 of your classmates’ threads with a reply of at least 250 words. Your replies must do the following:
·         Answer the question posed in the thread.
·         Respond to the practical example in the thread by sharing a practical example that differs from the one in the thread.
·         Reference at least 1 scholarly source for each reply.
Note about Responses: Seek to understand your classmates’ threads (including the marketing management theory, the facts presented in their posts, their points of view, and their real-world examples). Aim to communicate your own understanding of relevant facts, your values, and your perspective of the topic.

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Refer to Chern’s Case Study in the appendix of Strategic Staffing.

Write at least three realistic process and outcome goals in a total of 525 words for staffing the position of sales associate positions at Chern’s.

Relate how the process goals you have set align with the business goals and explain why this is important in 175 words

Question 16: Business

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

Describe the performance management process in your current organization( Tjx Companies Inc). What’s good about it? bad? How can it be improved?

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Matching
one person consuming a good or service, will not stop another person from or consuming that same product.
the inability to bring about the allocation of resources that best satisfies the wants of a society
people can receive the benefit of a good or service without paying for it
the difference between the price  a product will sell for and the price the seller would be willing to receive.
a person cannot be stopped from consuming or using a good or service
goods or services consumers can get without cost
effects of an activity affect a third party
consumers can be excluded from consuming these, but are felt should be made available.
non-payers can be excluded from consuming these
the difference between the price  a buyer is willing to pay and the actual sale price.

Market failures
Non-excludability
Non-rivalry

Free rider problem
Quasi-public goods

Public goods
Private goods
Externality
Consumer surplus
Producer surplus

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Training Program: Design a 12-week periodized training program for the client described in the Client Profile. Be very specific as you design the training program. This is an opportunity for you to demonstrate your full comprehension of the information and concepts discussed throughout the course. List the types of exercise, duration, sets, reps, rest intervals, and so on.
Include the following in your case study submission:
A description of your professional responsibilities as discussed in the stages of the drawing-in process (Unit 12)
Discussion of any fitness tests, methods of evaluation, and data collection used to assess and evaluate the clientÕs needs
Specific conditions that you have identified in the client profile
A detailed 12-week comprehensive and periodized training program including specific exercises, sets, repetitions, suggested rest times, etc. Use an integrated approach in your program recommendations.
Specific and detailed nutritional strategies and an explanation as to how the strategies will assist the client in meeting energy needs
Explanation for your chosen assessment, programming, and nutritional recommendations. (Be sure to reference course concepts when discussing rationale for your recommendations.
Keep in mind that a client should be able to take your program and put it into practice without having to contact you to clarify what you intended by your recommendations or to explain parts of your program.
Don’t forget your explanation for WHY you listed and recommended what you did. Reference the concepts and theories covered in the course. Be sure to address why the program and exercises recommended are appropriate for the specific client given the client Õs history, current abilities, and intended goal(s). For example: if you are developing a program for a beginner client without any resistance training experience, explain how your program addresses the lack of experience, initial need for foundational development, process by which you would safely progress the client, etc. Tying your program to course concepts is a critical component of your case study.

Review the Client Profile below.
Client Profile: Diana Prince
Age: 37
Gender: Female
Resting Heart Rate: 75 bpm
Height: 5’5″
Weight: 165 lb
Body Fat Percentage: 31%
Background and Goals: Diana is a 37-year-old mother of two children. She used to exercise fairly consistently (mostly jogging and light aerobic activities) before having kids. Ever since she had her first child 9 years ago, she has not been very active. Diana has her 20-year high school reunion coming up in 3 months (12 weeks). She would like to look and feel her best and is eager and willing to spend the next 12 weeks doing what she can to change her body.

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Write up to 500 words per essay. One of the consequences of the “flattening of the world” is that many U.S. manufacturing jobs have
moved to lower-wage countries like China. Yet according to Davidson (“Making it in America”), many of the automotive parts made by
Standard Motor Products are unlikely to move to China any time soon. Why? To what extent is the pattern of international production
described by Davidson consistent with Vernon’s Product-Life Cycle theory?

Question 20: Education

HIUS 420 PowerPoint Presentation Instructions
PowerPoint Presentation Instructions
For the duration of this course, you will submit 2 PowerPoint presentations. You will be evaluated on the following points:
·         Content of presentation.
·         Organization of presentation.
·         Appearance of presentation.
See the PowerPoint Presentation Grading Rubric for a full description of each point.
For this assignment, you will choose a topic from the PowerPoint Presentations Topics document. If you choose a topic that is not listed in the document, you must seek approval from the instructor. You will then develop a PowerPoint presentation with 10–12 slides. You must not exceed the assigned amount of slides. It is important for you to be concise and clear on the slides, and present relevant and organized information in the notes.
Each of the PowerPoint Presentations has 2 components:
A.    Select a topic from the PowerPoint Submission Topics document, and develop your PowerPoint Submission.
a.       You may use materials from the class, scholarly resources, and Internet sources; however, you must be careful to ensure that the source material is providing correct information.
b.      Unless an image is copyrighted, you may use images from the Internet.
c.       Use an attractive and effective background in your PowerPoint presentation.
d.      The last slide of the presentation must be a bibliography. This will include all resources utilized. You must apply current Turabian formatting.
e.       Do not include links to videos (e.g. YouTube), or to other websites.
B.     Submit presentation notes that further develop each slide.
a.       250–300 words for each slide’s notes.
b.      This submission may be in an extended outline format.
c.       You must include your notes in the “Notes” section of each PowerPoint slide.
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Savannah University  NURSING NS 6005 QUIZ Bank Latest (2019) Graded A
Savannah University  NURSING NS 6005 QUIZ Bank Latest (2019) Graded A

Question 22: Health Care

MN502 Unit 7 / MN 502 Unit 7 / MN502 Unit7
Sustainability Focused Business Model of Practice
MN 502- Theoretical Foundations of Advanced Nursing

Question 23: Health Care

MN502 Unit 3 / MN 502 Unit 3 / MN502 Unit3 | A+ work
MN502: Theoretical Foundations of Advanced Nursing
Stewart Leadership…

Question 24: Health Care

MN502: Theoretical Foundations of Advanced Nursing
Running head: PERSONAL PHILOSOPHY OF ADVANCED NURSING PRACTICE
Personal Philosophy of the APN
MN502 Unit 3

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MN502-4: Develop a philosophy that supports advanced nursing practice reflecting the values, beliefs, and cultural competencies relative to nursing practice, science, and theory.
Now that you have spent the last 8 weeks discussing theory development and exploring models and philosophies that guide advance practice nursing, it is time for you to put it all together. In this Assignment, you will create a presentation using any form of presentation software (e.g., PowerPoint®, Prezi™, Movenote™, Powtoons™, Slidedog™, and so on). Your presentation should bring together the theory that best fits your concept of advance practice nursing, the model that you will use to translate this into practice, and your final philosophy of advance practice nursing related to your role after graduation.
Please remember that your presentation should contain slides that have bullet points. The bullets should number no more than four to six per slide. The bullet point is not written as a complete sentence. It contains key words. You, as the presenter will explain in depth what each bullet point means in the audio portion of the presentation. Slides may contain graphics, but should be uncluttered. Background and font colors should be of sufficient contrast to make reading them easy on the eyes. Attention to colors should be paid so that a person who is colorblind can easily read the presentation.
Assignment Details
The presentation should consist of a series of slides that include:
Title Slide: A title slide that identifies the title of the presentation and name of the student.
Introduction Slide: An introduction slide that includes brief information about you and your program track. The slide should also explain to the audience the purpose of the presentation.
Model Slides: The third and fourth slides will address your chosen model. The bullet points should consist of the specific characteristics of the model. You will need at least one citation that identifies where the model came from. Your audio will expound upon the model and what the characteristics mean. The fourth slide should include why you chose the model and how you will apply it in practice.
Theory Slides: The next three slides will focus on your chosen theory. The first slide should present your theory and why you chose it. The next slide would present the key concepts of the theory and how it has been used to date in past research no older than 5 years ago. The third slide will discuss how you will use this theory in practice as an advance practice nurse upon graduation.
Philosophy Slide: The next area will consist of one slide that presents your philosophy of advance practice nursing in the post-graduate role you will assume. The philosophy statement will consist of one to three sentences that distill the essence of what you believe advance practice nursing is and your conception of nursing as a profession. It is written in the first person and present tense. It is a personal statement of your beliefs about the profession of nursing. This should present guiding statements for your future practice in the advanced practice role. An example of a philosophy statement might read this way:Advanced practice nursing takes the art and science of nursing to a level of “other” and “self” interacting together to reach a state of optimal wellness guided with compassion and love for the culture of the “other.”
Graphical Slide: The next-to-last slide will be a graphical representation of how the model, theory, and your philosophy fit together.
Conclusion Slide: The last slide will be a conclusion that brings together everything you have presented. It is not a summary that just reiterates what you presented. It is a judgment about what you presented and bring the audience home, ending the presentation on a positive note about the future.
You will need supporting citations for your theory and model slides, and possibly for your philosophy, as appropriate. You will include the citations where appropriate and your very last slide will be a reference slide.
The total slide count should not exceed 15 slides. This does not include the reference slide(s) or the title slide.
Organization, documentation, references formatting guidelines must follow APA 6th edition: To view the Grading Rubric for this Assignment, please visit the Grading Rubrics section of the Course Home.
Total points: 300
Assignment Requirements
Before finalizing your work, you should:
be sure to read the Assignment description carefully(as displayed above);
consult the Grading Rubric(under the Course Home) to make sure you have included everything necessary; and
utilize spelling and grammar check to minimize errors.
Your writing Assignment should:
follow the conventions of Standard American English(correct grammar, punctuation, etc.);
be well ordered,logical,and unified, as well as original and insightful;
display superior content, organization, style, and mechanics; and
use APA 6th Edition format.

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PHIL201 QUIZ2 / PHIL 201 QUIZ 2
PHIL201 QUIZ2 / PHIL 201 QUIZ 2
Liberty University PHIL 201 quiz 2 / PHIL201 QUIZ2 / PHIL 201 QUIZ 2 (Already Graded 2019)

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Question 27: Business

Refer to Chern’s Case Study in the appendix of Strategic Staffing.

Write at least three realistic process and outcome goals in a total of 525 words for staffing the position of sales associate positions at Chern’s.

Relate how the process goals you have set align with the business goals and explain why this is important in 175 words

Question 28: General Question

BUSI 430 EXAM 3 Latest
BUSI 430 EXAM 3 Latest
BUSI 430 EXAM 3 Latest

Question 29: General Question

FIU MAN 3025 Final Exam Latest
FIU MAN 3025 Final Exam Latest
FIU MAN 3025 Final Exam Latest

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ETH 321 Week 3 Chapter 8 Quiz
ETH 321 Week 3 Chapter 8 Quiz
ETH 321 Week 3 Chapter 8 Quiz

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FIN 571 Final Exam (New)
FIN 571 Final Exam (New)
FIN 571 Final Exam (New)

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Magazine article summary: Select 1 article dealing with any sociological concept or issue. Summarize the main points of the article using your own words as well as including what interested you about the article and/ or what you learned. Additionally, you will need to identify the sociological concepts that are involved in the article you select, as well as give your thoughts on the implication these concepts are having, or will have on our society. The article may be selected only from: Newsweek, Time, National Geographic, or US News and World Report. This summary should be 2–3 pages long and must have a copy of the article attached to the summary or send the link.  Sending the link does not count as proper APA documentation.  MAKE sure to send the complete APA citation. Save the attachment as a Word or pdf file ONLY.

This inquiry assignment should be typed using black ink, 10 to 12 New Times Roman font, double-spaced, and with 1 inch margins. Additionally, papers are expected to be free of major grammatical errors as well as spelling errors.

Question 2: Sociology

1. Based on your reading, do you think it is ethical for sociologists to mislead research subjects or to NOT identify themselves as sociologists to their research participants?
2. What if identifying themselves would put sociologists in danger?  What if it would put someone else in danger?
3. What if identifying themselves would destroy their ability to study a certain setting or group? Would this change your initial response? Why or why not?

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Question 3: Other

Assume that you are the project manager for an upcoming new information systems project designed to replace your organization’s old inventory management system. The server and database will also be upgraded. Name one risk of project derailment or failure that you might anticipate? How might you mitigate this risk? Must be 200 words please cite and reference all work used.

Course Learning Outcomes for Unit VII
Upon completion of this unit, students should be able to:
3. Evaluate the process of developing an information system for an organization.
3.1  Assess the core activities and methodologies involved in building information systems.
3.2  Explain how organizations can align information systems development projects with business
strategies and goals.
3.3  Analyze the role of project management in developing information systems.
Reading Assignment
Chapter 13: Building Information Systems Chapter 14: Managing Projects
Unit Lesson
Developing Information Systems
Why do we develop new systems? The answer to this question is pretty evident if you think about it. No organization will remain the same for too long if it wants to be effective, efficient, and competitive. The concept of organizational change goes hand in hand with implementing new systems—regardless of whether you purchase new systems or develop them in-house. There is a whole discipline of quality management based on organizational change, process improvement, and business process redesign that supports the use of technology to improve business processes. For many organizations, the concept of business process redesign is never-ending due to the continual need for evaluating current processes, designing new processes, implementing new processes, and seeking to optimize processes (Laudon & Laudon, 2016).
Let’s look at an office environment as an example. An office environment is not generally set up to be process efficient like an assembly line in an automobile assembly plant. However, people in office environments often get new information systems. Why is that? There are always ways of being more efficient in every type of workplace. There are always new ways to automate manual tasks—even just being able to access data faster is a plus. Most systems development comes from a desire to solve a problem. For example, how can we gather some specific data, manipulate it somehow, and output it into information that makes sense to us or that we can use to make good business decisions?
What is involved in the process of developing a new information system? There are some core activities involved in systems development. These activities or steps in the process might actually be common sense to some of us. Different theorists can break the systems development process into different steps, but for the purposes of this course, we will say that there are six basic activities.
Systems analysis – How do you know how to solve the problem unless you do some analysis first? What is the exact problem? What are the causes? What are the requirements? What are some potential solutions? Are these solutions feasible? Based on many factors including time, cost, benefits, and impacts, management will choose a solution.
Systems design – How do you get written user requirements into technical requirements? What are the system specifications? What is the functionality? What should the user involvement be? The systems design document should lay out the entire solution so that the developers can create the new system.
Programming – This is where a lot of the work happens because the developer has to take the technical document and create an operational system. In many cases, organizations will purchase
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 1
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UNIT VII STUDY GUIDE
Managing Information Systems Development
software packages from a vendor. If the tasks are standard or customUizNabITlex, tShTeUnDpuYrcGhUaIsDinEg a
system may be a good option.
Testing – There are different forms of testing. The developer will test as they go, making sure there is
functionality in the system. Then, the developer or a quality assurance (QA) representative will perform unit testing on the applications or modules one at a time. The next step would be to test the whole system to make sure everything works in unison. There will also likely be some regression testing, which means the tester will make sure no other systems are harmed by what this new system is doing. The final step is to test with the user to make sure the system is functional.
Conversion – This involves the process of going live with the new system. There are many ways of doing this. Two popular ways involve a phased approach or direct cutover. Many times, organizations can even run systems in parallel until they are ready to turn off the old system.
Production and maintenance – This step involves a review process over a period of time to make sure that there are no bugs that need to be addressed.
So, how does one manage all of this? Just like any process, there are ways to manage the software development process to make sure that the rules are followed and that the process is as efficient as possible. Depending on the size of the project, managers may need some tools to help document and manage the process. First, it is important to note that there are different methodologies for developing systems. Structured methodologies are top-down, step-by-step methodologies that use data entities whereby progress flows from one logical step to the next. Object-oriented development methodologies are more iterative and incremental. They use objects that are data accompanied with information/instructions concerning that data.
To manage the software development process, most development shops use a software systems development life cycle (SDLC) program. The original SDLC was called the waterfall method and was characterized by having formal stages where one stage had to be completed before the next one began. That sounds a bit rigid, does it not? It works well for smaller, less complex software projects, but it does not work well for larger, more complex projects. Since the development of the waterfall SDLC, there have been many other approaches that have been developed. For example, prototyping is a popular method where parts of the system are created and presented to the user for use and approval. If the user does not approve, then adjustments can be made and presented again. This method can be used in conjunction with the waterfall method and adds an iterative element. More recently, several methods have been developed that are more versatile and iterative in nature. One of the more popular methods is called agile development, which focuses on the quick delivery of small subprojects, each treated as a full project. Agile is used in many software development shops.
Just as technology has adapted over time to answer the needs of organizations, so have the methods and processes been used to support technology advancement and information systems development.
How does project management fit into this? You might ask yourself if you have an SDLC, why do you need project management? Broadly speaking, a project is a set of activities that work together to achieve some business objective. That business objective might be to build a new warehouse or it might be to build a new system. Either way, the project has to be managed. Nowadays, most complex systems go outside the boundaries of just software development. There may be hardware, network, server, database, and security considerations. You may even have prominent involvement from the business side of the organization. For the actual software development portion of the project, you can use an SDLC methodology to manage that process and project management to manage the overall project.
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There are some higher-level considerations for organizations and project management as well.
How can you align your systems projects with business goals? The organization’s business strategy drives the selection of projects. Many organizations will have a steering committee or similar facsimile to drive this selection process.
How can organizations link their information systems projects to their business plan? An information systems plan will help make the link between specific technology and corporate goals. The plan will list the corporate goals and specify how the information technology will support the achievement of those goals through current systems and new development and acquisitions.
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 2
Title
How can you assess a business value to the information systems that you areUdNeIvTelxopSiTngU?DTYhGeUvIaDluEe of a system is based on whether it provides enough returns to justify its cost. However, remember that there are
always tangible and intangible benefits when discussing value.
All of these are important considerations in the process of developing information systems for organizations.
Reference
Laudon, K. C., & Laudon, J. P. (2016). Management information systems: Managing the digital firm [VitalSource Bookshelf version] (14th ed.). Retrieved from https://bookshelf.vitalsource.com/#/books/9780133898309/
Suggested Reading
The following articles explore the factors of information system development project success which is relevant information to the subject in this unit. Our unit’s chapters cover both systems development and project management.
In order to access the resource below, you must first log into the myCSU Student Portal and access the Business Source Ultimate database within the CSU Online Library.
Haron, H., Gui, A., & Lenny, M. (2014). Factors influencing information technology project success: A case of university information system development division of Bina Nusantara University. International Journal Of Organizational Innovation, 755-765.
Learning Activities (Nongraded)
For this activity, you will create a 5-10 minute video presentation.
Imagine that you are the owner of your own software development company. You have been asked by the local school board to provide a video tutorial for career day at the local high school. Your video will explain the steps involved in the information systems development process.
To create a viewable video, you will need a device with video capabilities and an account set up with www.youtube.com.
Once you have set up your Youtube account, you will need to create your video. You can create your video using any laptop w/webcam, smartphone, or tablet with video capabilities. Once you have created your video, you will upload it to Youtube via the device’s own capabilities or the Youtube website.
As you view your newly uploaded video on Youtube via your computer, there will be a Share button directly underneath the viewing panel. When you click on the Share button, a new set of options will display including Facebook and Twitter links. Beneath those links is the web URL for your video. Copy and paste that link into a Word document with a brief summary description of your video.
As this is a nongraded activity, this work cannot be uploaded to Blackboard. If you would like your professor’s feedback on your work, send this document to them in an email with a note that you would like to receive feedback on your non-graded activity.
Title
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 3
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Unit 7 Essay due 9/16/19 by 12 noon
Introduction:
The learning outcome for this unit involves the process of developing an information system (IS) for an organization. There are many factors involved in this process, including core activities and the methodologies for managing the process. Project management plays a part as well. Additionally, IS development does not happen in a silo; there is also the business side to consider as part of the process. All of these considerations are brought together and addressed in this assignment.
Assignment Instructions:
For this assignment, you will need to access the CSU Online Library to research two articles concerning information systems development and project management. Drawing on these two articles, your textbook, and other sources, write an essay that addresses the following:
Provide a well-formulated thesis statement in your introduction paragraph.
Explain how a business user could be involved in the core activities of building an information system.
Analyze how software development methodologies (such as agile development) can work in tandem with project management for the benefit of both information systems development projects and organizations.
Evaluate how project managers and/or IT managers can ensure that information system development projects are in alignment with business strategies and goals.
Summarize your findings in a five-page paper using proper APA formatting.
Your response must be at least five pages in length, not including the title and references pages, and in APA format. You are required to use the two outside articles. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying APA citations.

Question 4: Business

This paper is a personal paper (use I, my, he, she). You must write in first person not third person. Has to be 15 full pages! Write about Ethical issues as it relates to workplace code of conduct

MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 3
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Using a mass balance, obtain an analytic expression that can be used for determining the time required to consume a finite fuel

Question 6: Health Care

Evidence-Based Project
Is there a difference between “common practice” and “best practice”?
When you first went to work for your current organization, experienced colleagues may have shared with you details about processes and procedures. Perhaps you even attended an orientation session to brief you on these matters. As a “rookie,” you likely kept the nature of your questions to those with answers that would best help you perform your new role.
Over time and with experience, perhaps you recognized aspects of these processes and procedures that you wanted to question further. This is the realm of clinical inquiry.
Clinical inquiry is the practice of asking questions about clinical practice. To continuously improve patient care, all nurses should consistently use clinical inquiry to question why they are doing something the way they are doing it. Do they know why it is done this way, or is it just because we have always done it this way? Is it a common practice or a best practice?
In this Assignment, you will identify clinical areas of interest and inquiry and practice searching for research in support of maintaining or changing these practices. You will also analyze this research to compare research methodologies employed.
To Prepare:
Review the Resources and identify a clinical issue of interest that can form the basis of a clinical inquiry.
Based on the clinical issue of interest and using keywords related to the clinical issue of interest, search at least four different databases in the Walden Library to identify at least four relevant peer-reviewed articles related to your clinical issue of interest.
Review the results of your peer-reviewed research and reflect on the process of using an unfiltered database to search for peer-reviewed research.
Reflect on the types of research methodologies contained in the four relevant peer-reviewed articles you selected.
Part 1: An Introduction to Clinical Inquiry
Create a 4- to 5-slide PowerPoint presentation in which you do the following:
Identify and briefly describe your chosen clinical issue of interest.
Describe how you used keywords to search on your chosen clinical issue of interest.
Identify the four research databases that you used to conduct your search for the peer-reviewed articles you selected.
Provide APA citations of the four peer-reviewed articles you selected.
Part 2: Identifying Research Methodologies
After reading each of the four peer-reviewed articles you selected, use the Matrix Worksheet template to analyze the methodologies applied in each of the four peer-reviewed articles. Your analysis should include the following:
The full citation of each peer-reviewed article in APA format.
A brief (1-paragraph) statement explaining why you chose this peer-reviewed article and/or how it relates to your clinical issue of interest, including a brief explanation of the ethics of research related to your clinical issue of interest.
A brief (1-2 paragraph) description of the aims of the research of each peer-reviewed article.
A brief (1-2 paragraph) description of the research methodology used. Be sure to identify if the methodology used was qualitative, quantitative, or a mixed-methods approach. Be specific.
A brief (1- to 2-paragraph) description of the strengths of each of the research methodologies used, including reliability and validity of how the methodology was applied in each of the peer-reviewed articles you selected.
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 3
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Part 1: An Introduction to Clinical Inquiry Create a 4- to 5-slide PowerPoint presentation in which you do the following: ·   Identify and briefly describe your chosen clinical issue of interest. ·   Describe how you used keywords to search on your chosen clinical issue of interest. ·   Identify the four research databases that you used to conduct your search for the peer-reviewed articles you selected. ·   Provide APA citations of the four-peer reviewed articles you selected.– Levels of Achievement:Excellent 36 (36%) – 40 (40%) The presentation clearly and accurately identifies and describes in detail the chosen clinical issue of interest. The presentation accurately and thoroughly describes in detail how keywords were used to search on the chosen clinical issue of interest. The presentation accurately and clearly identifies in detail four or more research databases that were used to conduct a search for selected peer-reviewed articles. The presentation accurately provides APA citations of four or more peer-reviewed articles selected. Good 32 (32%) – 35 (35%) The presentation accurately identifies and describes the chosen clinical issue of interest. The presentation accurately describes how keywords were used to search on the chosen clinical issue of interest. The presentation accurately identifies at least four research databases that were used to conduct a search for selected peer-reviewed articles. The presentation accurately provides APA citations of at least four peer-reviewed articles selected. Fair 28 (28%) – 31 (31%) The presentation inaccurately or vaguely identifies and describes the chosen clinical issue of interest. The presentation inaccurately or vaguely describes how keywords were used to search on the chosen clinical issue of interest. The presentation inaccurately or vaguely identifies at least four research databases that were used to conduct a search for selected peer-reviewed articles. The presentation inaccurately provides APA citations of the peer-reviewed articles selected. Poor 0 (0%) – 27 (27%) The presentation inaccurately and vaguely identifies and describes the chosen clinical issue of interest or is missing. The presentation inaccurately and vaguely describes how keywords were used to search on the chosen clinical issue of interest or is missing. The presentation inaccurately and vaguely identifies less than four research databases that were used to conduct a search for selected peer-reviewed articles or is missing. The presentation inaccurately provides APA citations of the peer-reviewed articles selected. Feedback: Part 2: Identifying Research Methodologies After reading each of the four peer-reviewed articles you selected, use the Matrix Worksheet template to analyze the methodologies applied in each of the four peer-reviewed articles. Your analysis should include the following: ·  The full citation of each peer-reviewed article in APA format. ·   A brief statement explaining why you chose this peer-reviewed article and/or how it relates to your clinical issue of interest, including a brief explanation of the ethics of research related to your clinical issue of interest. ·   A brief description of the aims of the research of each peer-reviewed article. ·  A brief description of the research methodology used. Be sure to identify if the methodology used was qualitative, quantitative, or a mixed-methods approach. Be specific.– Levels of Achievement:Excellent 45 (45%) – 50 (50%) The response accurately and clearly provides a full citation of each article in APA format. The responses accurately and thoroughly explain the selection of these articles and/or how they relate to a clinical issue of interest, including a detailed explanation of the ethics of research. The responses accurately and clearly describe the aims of the research. The responses accurately and clearly describe the research methodology used, and clearly identify the type of methodology used with specific and relevant examples. The responses accurately and clearly describe the strengths of each of the research methodologies used, including a detailed explanation of the reliability and validity of how the methodology was applied in each of the articles selected. The responses provide a complete, detailed, and specific synthesis of two outside resources related to the selection of articles and two or three course-specific resources. Good 40 (40%) – 44 (44%) The response accurately provides a citation of each peer-reviewed article in APA format. The responses accurately explain the selection of these peer-reviewed articles and/or how they relate to a clinical issue of interest, including an accurate explanation of ethics. The responses accurately describe the aims of the research of each peer-reviewed article. The responses accurately describe the research methodology used and type of methodology used with some examples. The responses accurately describe the strengths of each of the research methodologies used, including an explanation of the reliability and validity of how the methodology was applied in each of the peer-reviewed articles selected. The responses provide an accurate synthesis of at least one outside resource related to the selection of the peer-reviewed articles. The response integrates at least one outside resource and two or three course-specific resources. Fair 35 (35%) – 39 (39%) The response inaccurately or vaguely provides a citation of each peer-reviewed article in APA format. The responses inaccurately or vaguely explain the selection of these articles and/or how they relate to a clinical issue of interest, including the explanation of the ethics. The responses inaccurately or vaguely describe the aims of the research of each article. The responses inaccurately or vaguely describe the research methodology used and the type of methodology used, with only some examples. The responses inaccurately or vaguely describe the strengths of each of the research methodologies used, including the explanation of the reliability and validity of how the methodology was applied in each of the articles selected. The responses provided vaguely or inaccurately synthesize outside resources related to the selection of the articles. The response minimally integrates resources that may support the responses provided. Poor 0 (0%) – 34 (34%) The response inaccurately and vaguely provides a citation of each peer-reviewed article in APA format or is missing. The responses inaccurately and vaguely explain the selection of these articles and/or how they relate to a clinical issue, including the explanation of ethics of research, or they are missing. The responses inaccurately and vaguely describe the aims of the research, or they are missing. The responses inaccurately and vaguely describe the research methodology used, the type of methodology used with no examples present, or they are missing. The responses inaccurately and vaguely describe the strengths of each of the methodologies used, including the explanation of the reliability and validity of the methodology, or they are missing. The responses provide a vague and inaccurate synthesis of outside resources related to the selection of the articles and fail to integrate any resources to support the responses provided, or is missing. Feedback: Written Expression and Formatting—Paragraph Development and Organization: Paragraphs make clear points that support well-developed ideas, flow logically, and demonstrate continuity of ideas. Sentences are carefully focused—neither long and rambling nor short and lacking substance. A clear and comprehensive purpose statement and introduction is provided, which delineates all required criteria.– Levels of Achievement:Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%) Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity. A clear and comprehensive purpose statement, introduction, and conclusion are provided, which delineates all required criteria. Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%) Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity 80% of the time. Purpose, introduction, and conclusion of the assignment are stated but are brief and not descriptive. Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%) Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity 60–79% of the time. Purpose, introduction, and conclusion of the assignment is vague or off topic. Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%) Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity less than 60% of the time. No purpose statement, introduction, or conclusion is provided. Feedback: Written Expression and Formatting—English Writing Standards: Correct grammar, mechanics, and proper punctuation.– Levels of Achievement:Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%) Uses correct grammar, spelling, and punctuation with no errors. Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%) Contains a few (one or two) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors. Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%) Contains several (three or four) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors. Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%)
Required Readings
Melnyk, B. M., & Fineout-Overholt, E. (2018). Evidence-based practice in nursing & healthcare: A guide to best practice (4th ed.). Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer.

Chapter 2, “Asking Compelling Clinical Questions” (pp. 33–54)
Chapter 21, “Generating Evidence Through Quantitative and Qualitative Research” (pp. 607–653)
Grant, M. J., & Booth, A. (2009). A typology of reviews: An analysis of 14 review types and associated methodologies. Health Information and Libraries Journal, 26, 91–108. doi:10.1111/j.1471-1842.2009.00848.x. Retrieved from https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/pdf/10.1111/j.1471-1842.2009.00848.x
Note: You will access this article from the Walden Library databases.
Hoare, Z., & Hoe, J. (2013). Understanding quantitative research: Part 2. Nursing Standard, 27(18), 48–55. doi:10.7748/ns2013.01.27.18.48.c9488. Retrieved from https://www.researchgate.net/publication/239615585_Understanding_quantitative_research_part_2
Note: You will access this article from the Walden Library databases.
Hoe, J., & Hoare, Z. (2012). Understanding quantitative research: Part 1. Nursing Standard, 27(15), 52–57. doi:10.7748/ns2012.12.27.15.52.c9485. Retrieved from https://www.researchgate.net/profile/Juanita_Hoe/publication/235369193_Understanding_quantitative_research_part_1/links/…
Note: You will access this article from the Walden Library databases.

Walden University Library. (n.d.-a). Databases A-Z: Find the best library databases for your research. Retrieved September 19, 2018, from https://academicguides.waldenu.edu/az.php

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Walden University Library. (n.d.-b). Keyword searching: Finding articles on your topic: Boolean terms. Retrieved September 19, 2018, from http://academicguides.waldenu.edu/library/keyword/boolean

Walden University Library. (n.d.-c). Keyword searching: Finding articles on your topic: Introduction to keyword searching. Retrieved September 19, 2018, from http://academicguides.waldenu.edu/library/keyword/searching-basics

Document: Matrix Worksheet Template (Word document)

Required Media

Centers for Research Quality. (2015a, August 13). Overview of qualitative research methods[Video file]. Retrieved from https://youtu.be/IsAUNs-IoSQ

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Centers for Research Quality. (2015b, August 13). Overview of quantitative research methods[Video file]. Retrieved from https://youtu.be/cwU8as9ZNlA

Laureate Education (Producer). (2018). Review of research: Anatomy of a research study[Mutlimedia file]. Baltimore, MD: Author.

Schulich Library McGill. (2017, June 6). Types of reviews [Video file]. Retrieved from https://youtu.be/5Rv9z7Mp4kg

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Assignment 1: Advanced Health Service Planning (92295) Spring 2019 Part 1: Understanding Models of Care (500-750 words)
1. Develop an understanding of ‘models of care’ by responding to the following short answer questions using reliable evidence to support your responses:
o What are models of care?
o Why are models of care important in health service planning?
o How specific are models of care in the health sector in terms of population groups,
settings, a health problem, workforce, type of care? Identify and describe an example of a published model of care for each of these domains and briefly explain the model used in each and their benefits for the health system and patients.
Part 2: Comparative Analysis of Models of Care (1750-2000 words)
Student allocation (see class list for your assessment number)
Comparative Analysis Models of Care for Older People
Comparative Analysis Models of Care Obstetrics (Expectant Mothers)
Comparative Analysis Models of Care for Rural Dwellers
Comparative Analysis Models of Care Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islanders
Comparative Analysis Models of Care for Children
Comparative Analysis Models of Care for Homeless People
Context
The large Health District covers a region of over 1 million people with two age groups predominating i.e. under 25 years and over 55 years. The region has a complex mix of outer regional, low density suburban development areas and highly urbanised areas spread across thirteen Local Government Areas. The population includes people from over 100 different culturally and linguistically diverse backgrounds and a greater than average number of Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander peoples.
The health services currently provided across the District include population health programs and services; ambulatory, primary health care and community services; hospital inpatient and outpatient services, and allied, imaging and pathology services, among others. Facilities include six public hospitals and a range of outpatient and community health services, as well as over 50 private general medical practices. Other facilities located in the region include a growing number of private allied and surgical health care facilities and two Primary Health Networks. There is a high and growing number of private residential aged care facilities.
Identify the most appropriate model of care for the population you are assigned that currently does or could best support the following aspects:
Clinical co-management (medical, allied health, nursing, etc.)
Health care integration (across multiple facilities of the local health system)
Public healthcare cost reduction
Patient, family/caregiver needs and support
Timely care
Through a comparative analysis, provide reasoned arguments supported by reliable evidence and/or real-world examples for selecting the models i.e. identify the rationale behind your decision by comparing your selected model with other models of care available for your population. Contextualise information in your response in relation to the health district context given above. NB: Students must analyse primary papers, not review papers, as review papers do not provide the detail needed to adequately compare models).

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A spacecraft is moving through empty space at 8 m/s-1 . A meteoroid travelling at 15m/s-1 comes from behind and at an angle of 45 degrees to the line of movement of the rocket , crashes into the rocket and becomes embedded in it. the rocket has a mass of 350kg and the meteorite mass is 20kg . calculate the velocity of the rocket.

Question 9: Business

you are working for a company that is considering investing in a foreign country. Investing in countries with different traditions is an important element of your company’s long-term strategic goals. As such, management has requested a report regarding the attractiveness of alternative countries based on the potential return of FDI. Accordingly, the ranking of the top 25 countries in term of FDI attractiveness is a crucial ingredient for your report. A colleague mentioned a potentially useful tool called he Foreign District Investment (FDI) Confidence Index. The FDI Confidence Index is a regular survey of global executives conducted be A.T. Kearney. Find this index and provide additional information regarding how the index is constructed.

Question 10: Statistics

A recent ACT administered to a local high school yielded the following results: Mean = 24.4 and Standard Deviation = 4.2. Which of the following is true? (5 points)
a. 65% of the students scored between 16 and 32.8
b. 95% of the students scored between 16 and 33.8
c. 65% of the students scored between 20.2 and 28.6
d. 95% of the students scored between 20.2 and 28.6

Question 11: Finance

Boots Ltd sells its goods with terms of 3/12 EOM, net 70. What is the implicit cost of the trade credit?

Question 12: Health Care

Instruction
What are some research designs that justify themselves in the field of nursing research? Choose one and explain why you chose it. Give an example of how this research design is used in your nursing discipline.

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Instruction
The student will complete a theological essay that will address the relationship of human sinfulness to an aspect of the doctrine of salvation. Students will examine one of the biblical images of salvation (adoption, conversion, regeneration, redemption, reconciliation, justification, election, sanctification, or glorification) and define and describe the doctrine with its biblical, historical and theological contours as well as discuss how this image of salvation relates to and addresses the problem of sin. Finally, the student will apply the implications of this doctrine to the Christian life and for the student’s chosen vocation. The essay will be 750-1000 words and the formatting should be compatible with your current degree program.

Question 14: Mathematics

MATHEMATICAL METHODS FOR ENGINEERS 1 (MATH 1063) CALCULUS 1 (MATH 1054
Problem Solving Exercise 1
PleaseconsulttheCourseOutlinefordetailsofhowtosubmityoursolutions,andpenal- ties for late submission.
Note: You need to submit your solutions via the online submission tool on the web site. If you have not done this before, try it out well in advance of the due date so that you have time to address any problems. Consult the University’s ITHelpDesk if you have problems with submission.
Put your name on every page of your submission. You may type your submission, or write it by hand.
If you photograph your solutions to make a digital file, and the image is difficult to read (poor focus, poor lighting), your mark will suffer a penalty. The marker may not be able to award many marks at all, if they cannot see what you have done. It is your responsibility to ensure that your work is legible, so look critically at what you are handing in before submitting it.
Your solutons should be complete, in that they should explain how you obtained the final answer or answers. A reader of your work should be able to understand the entire process of what you have done.

For example: Find lim x2 − 1. x→1 x−1
The correct answer is 2, but that by itself is not very helpful and would score low marks. It could have been a lucky guess!
A more worthy solution would be:
lim x2 − 1 = lim (x − 1)(x + 1) (factorise numerator)
x→1 x−1 x→1 x−1
= lim(x+1) (maycancelx−1̸=0sincex̸=1)
x→1 = 2.
Give your solutions plenty of space and keep them tidy. Don’t squeeze things in at the bottom of a page – start a new page. You want to make life easy for the reader of your work.
If you receive help in solving a question, you need to disclose this information. On the first page of the submission, please list all questions for which you received help, and who gave you the help. This is important in order to avoid plagiarism charges. Likewise, if you offered help to someone, you need to disclose that information. On the first page of the submission, please list all questions for which you offered help, and who benefited from your help. On the first page of your submission you also need to reference any sources you used other than our textbook, the tutorial exercises, and the lecture recordings for our course. This includes online sources.
1
1. From first principles, find the derivative of the function f (x) = 4×3 − x2 − 5. That is,
find
lim f(x + h) − f(x). h→0 h
2. Using the rules of differentiation (that is, not from first principles) find the derivatives of each of the following functions. If you use the product rule, quotient rule or chain rule, be sure to indicate where you have done that. Do not simplify your answers.
(a) f(x)=tanx2 +2x.
(b) f(x)=(x2 +1)(x3 −1).
(c) g(x) = x3 − 1. x2 + 1
sinx (d) h(x)= 1+cosx.
[10 marks]
3. Find the domain and range for each of the functions f, g, and h below, justifying your answers. Use radians for trigonometric functions.
(a) f(x) = 1 , (b) g(x) = cos x, (c) h(x) = f(g(x)). 1−x2
[4 + 4 + 4 + 4 = 16 marks]
4. (a)
[3 + 2 + 4 = 9 marks]
Verify that the line y = −2x − 1 goes through the point (1, −3) and that it is a tangent to the graph of y = x2. [Hint: There should be precisely one point common to the line and the parabola, so precisely one solution to −2x − 1 = x2.]
(b) There is another line through point (1, −3) that is a tangent to y = x2. Find its equation, and the coordinates of the point where it touches the parabola.
[4 + 5 = 9 marks]
2
A civil engineering student wants to understand how water flows out of a reservoir through a drain hole at its bottom. She decides to use calculus to build a model of the water flow. If V (t) represents the volume of water inside the reservoir at time t, she thinks it is reasonable to say that the more water there is in the reservoir, the faster the
water will flow out. The quantity dV represents the rate at which the volume of water dt
in the reservoir changes. At time t = 0 the reservoir contains V (0) = 500 litres of water. After some thought, the student settles on the model
dV =−kV(t), dt
where k > 0 is a fixed (but unknown) constant.
(a)  Why did she put a negative sign in her equation? Justify.
(b)  After doing some theoretical work, she concludes that V (t) = 500e−kt is the solution to the model. Verify that she is correct.
(c)  How could the value of k be determined?
(d)  Criticise the model: In your opinion, does this model accurately reflect how water
flows out of a reservoir? Justify.
[2 + 3 + 3 + 3 = 11 marks]
A popular brand of chocolate (see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Toblerone) is sold in the form of a long bar with a triangular cross-section. You are asked to design a box for this chocolate bar. The cross-section of the box is to be an equilateral triangle. The surface area of the box is to be 500 cm2. The volume is to be as large as possible.
Model this problem, but don’t carry out the calculations needed to solve it. You may need to use some simple geometry.
Your answer should include
(a) a labelled sketch of the box,
(b) statements defining appropriate variables (with units),
(c) a formula for a function that would have to be maximised or minimised, and (d) equations that encode any relationships between your variables.
[3 + 3 + 2 + 4 = 12 marks]
[Total 67 marks]

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Discuss the following using a maximum of 20 pages and a minimum of 10 good quality references (there is no maximum reference count). The paper should be laid out and properly cited in APA format. You will submit a brief comparison of how Canada and Iran differ or are similar in any aspect relevant to the business environment as covered in this class. In this paper, you will: Define, explain the macro environment and how it differs and same. Only looking between Canada and Iran, select one industry in Iran or Canada that has been negatively impacted by any political agreements. Explain the negative or positive impact of this agreement on that industry. If you were a manager in the industry that you identified having been negatively affected by a political agreement, using concepts from the course, what would you recommend to your senior managers as a possible plan to change the negative impact to either a neutral or positive impacts?

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Instruction
Three pages. As a school leader, how would you plan for professional development for your campus? What steps would be involved? Would you use regularly scheduled staff meetings as part of your program? What is your analysis of the value and use of online school district and campus staff development?

Short Paper Rubric

Low Medium High Comments
Elements of Writing Many grammar or mechanical errors detract from the writing.
Minimum grammar or mechanical errors.
No grammar or mechanical errors.
APA Style Does not follow APA style, e.g. no cover page, reference page, or citations not appropriate Minimum APA errors No APA errors
Sources No source cited Uses only the textbook as a source Uses at least one source in addition to the textbook
Application of theory or law
(graphic organizer) Does not apply the theory/law to a practical situation Applies the theory/law to a practical situation in a simple way Applies the theory/law to a practical situation in a detailed manner
Response Response minimally addresses the topic but is not clear and logical. Response addresses the topic but lacks coherence and flow. Response addresses the topic, has an introduction and closure, and transitions easily between paragraphs.

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Short Paper 4 : Campus Curricular Programs How would you use sound, research-based practice in the development, implementation, and evaluation of campus curricular, co-curricular, and extracurricular programs? 2 1/2 to 3-page paper.

Question 18: Education

Instruction
Short paper #1: Data-driven Decision Making How would you implement procedures for gathering, analyzing, and using data from a variety of sources for informed campus decision making? 2 1/2 to 3-page paper.

Question 19: Law

Instruction
Select a topic of your choice related to the management of criminal justice professionals and write a 5 page research paper.

Question 20: Other

Instruction
For this Signature Assignment, develop and present a proposal for your intended research using a quantitative design. While the most important elements in any proposal are the fundamentals of the problem, purpose, and research questions, the bulk of the assignment will be the methodology. You will want to organize this by subheadings. The actual headings and information that needs to be included in part depend on the method used to collect the data. In studies involving the collection of primary data, you want to be sure to include the details of your sampling plan, measurement of variables, the actual data collection procedure, plan of analysis, and justification for your decisions. Be sure to include the following information in your proposal: •Introduction •Statement of the Problem •Purpose Statement •Research Questions •Hypotheses: Null and Alternative for each research question •Methodology ◦Research Design: Specific quantitative method to be used and rationale (Ex. experiment, survey, etc.) ◦Operationalization of Variable: Specification of the concepts to be measured, the operationalization of the variable(s) to be used to measure the concepts, the question(s)/scale(s) to be used and the resulting level of measurement. ◦Sample design: Specification of the population, method, sample size, specific procedures, and justification. ◦Data collection procedure: Explanation of how the data will be collected. ◦Intended data analysis: How will you analyze the data to test the hypotheses and provide answers to the research questions, including descriptive and inferential statistics? Provide your rationale. •Limitations: Any recognized limitations of the proposed study. •References In this assignment, you are expected to incorporate all previous instructor feedback. Your prospectus must be in APA format and be of the quality expected of doctoral-level work. All research elements must be in alignment and reflect a cohesive and comprehensive research study. Length: Your paper should be between 13 -15 pages, not including title and reference page. References: Include a minimum of ten (10) scholarly sources. Your presentation should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course and provide new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.

Question 21: Computer Science

Sustainability Integration: ICT Planning and Design
This assessment is designed to be completed after you have completed your design project and proposal. Ensure you have completed your design project and have had it assessed by your teacher and returned.
Ensure you have completed the Sustainability training before you attempt this assignment
Assignment
You have just designed a solution for an organisation. A late change request has come through from the CEO and she would like some additions to the proposal. She has been reading a lot about how ICT systems are having a large impact on the carbon footprint of business.
Revisit your design, using your new Green IT skills and integrate sustainability elements to it. These elements must include, but are not limited to the following:
Research and recommend strategies the company can take to reduce power consumption
An energy audit on two options of a PC, laser printer and server package estimating the CO 2 emissions for these devices in a year and provide a comparison report summarising potential
energy savings and financial costs
A policy for procurement of equipment from ‘Green Suppliers’, including a disposal plan
Project implementation plan highlighting at what stages you will introduce short and long term
solutions that will save power immediately and long term
List these additions in a priority order and approximate the cost of each change
To complete this assignment you will need access to the internet. Here are some useful links:
http://www.eu-energystar.org/en/en_008.shtml http://www.greenit.org.au/ http://2virtualize.com/index_files/greendatacenter.htm http://42u.com/
http://sustainabledirections.com.au/
Feel free to contact your teacher if you require any assistance.
Submission
Upload your completed documents on the Upskilled Student Portal.

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Part 1: Initial Plan budget. (Using math for decision-making)
You are a manager with budget authority for a new IT project that is being developed for your department. The project is being developed internally by the company IT staff. You are developing a budget for the project. In this scenario, you will be in integrating information systems and information technology to progress an organization toward their organizational objectives. Consider the information given to determine how much capital you will need to raise to complete this project successfully. Your goal is determine the budget needed to complete the project within the stated timeline and maintain the system through the full five year maintenance contract. Note that the first month of maintenance for the contract starts simultaneously with the start of the project. In this case, you have wisely decided to add a 10% strategic reserve to the development phase of the project.
Here are some calculations related to this project. Answer the following 10 questions. You can use Microsoft Excel to do this work; however you must show your answers and detailed calculations.
Part 2: Writing Assignment to explain the tradeoffs during the life of development phase of the project. You will not perform any mathematical calculations for this section of the Assignment. Conduct research to ensure that you understand this concept of the project management triangle. Do not perform any calculations for this portion.
Given:
·                   IT Project Timeline: 1 January 2016– – 31 March 2017
·                   3 weeks of holiday time is planned off during this timeline
·                   Do not forget the concept of a leap year
·                   Assume vacation weeks are not paid for the purpose of this problem, as vacation pay is paid and allocated by a separate corporate budget funding source different from the IT Project funding source
·                   If total weeks are computed as a non-whole number of weeks, round to the nearest week
·                   Carry out items to the thousands place for fractions (for example 1/3 = 0.333) prior to continuing calculations, then round up or down as needed to whole numbers for final dollar values
·                   40 hour work week is the standard contracted work week
·                   No overtime is allowed to keep costs down
·                   10 managers
·                   100 union employees
·                   Manager salary is $100 per hour
·                   Union salary is $35 per hour
·                   Systems planning cost is $50K
·                   System development cost is $1.5M
·                   System fielding cost is $250K
·                   System Maintenance (5 year contract, amortized, payments begin at project start) = $5.0M
·                   Strategic reserve, when (if) applied to the timeline, should also be applied to the maintenance costs during the timeframe of the timeline. However maintenance costs beyond the timeline have been negotiated as a firm fixed priced contract and no longer require the use of strategic reserve in addition to the negotiated price
Answer the following questions: (Show your work):
1.          How many work weeks are in the project timeline, where work will actually occur?
2.          How much money does the team cost per hour?
3.          How much money does the team cost per week?
4.          How much money does the team cost for the duration of the IT Project?
5.          Remembering that maintenance is amortized, and that payments begin during the first month of the project, and that all other system costs are assigned to the project; what is the total systems cost through the timeline completion on 31 March 2017?
6.          What is the total project cost through completion on 31 March 2017?
7.          After project completion on 31 March 2017, what will be the remainder cost for maintenance that will still need to be budgeted and managed?
8.          Forecasting a budget with no strategic reserve, what should the project cost per month be for the budget during the project timeline?
9.          With the addition of a ten % strategic reserve, what should the project cost per month be for the budget during the project timeline?
10.       Considering that you decide to budget using the strategic reserve, and you need to budget for the entire maintenance cost, what is the total amount of capital you will need to raise to complete the project successful during the timeline, and then maintain the system through the full five year maintenance contract, noting that the first month of maintenance for the contract starts simultaneously with the start of the project?
Written Portion – Discussion of the project management triangle
An example situation:
The project manager has come to you with the following:
1.          Some of your employees who will be using the system have suggested changes which will end up improving the system but will take longer to develop and implement. She feels that they would be beneficial changes.
2.          Two of her developers and one of her managers have left to work for another company. The company has a hiring freeze so she is unable to replace them. This will most likely add time to the project but it will also result in small savings in terms of labor cost.

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You are also the aware of the following information:
1.          When the budget was approved there was a strategic reserve to allow for contingencies.
2.          You have some additional discretionary funds which you were hoping to be able to use them for bonuses for you employees at the end of the year.
3.          You have a lot of faith in the project and believe that it will eventually improve the productivity of your employees. He also realize that it will take time after the project is fully implemented for this productivity to be realized and that there is a likelihood that it will actually decrease for a couple of months while people are learning the new system.
4.          You know that you have a number of people in your department that are nearing retirement and are not in favor of having to learn a new system.
To meet the requirements of this Assignment, write an APA style paper in which you take the role of manager to discuss the pros and cons of making any changes to the plan regarding the initial goals of performance, cost, and schedule. For the paper do not do any calculations. The facts presented are examples of the types of situations that you might encounter. You do not have to address these situations.
Limit your discussion to the tradeoffs among these three areas. How do performance, cost, and schedule interact? Discuss the concept of the project triangle, also called the triple constraint, or iron triangle.
Ensure you turn in your unit Project as a single Microsoft Word document, in APA format, with a cover page and reference page citing at least two online references on the unit concept topics and the eBook as a reference. Your work should compose 2–3 pages of content (double spaced, 12 point Times New Roman font).
This Assignment addresses the following outcomes:
MT300-1: Describe the role managers play in integrating information systems and information technology (IS/IT) within an organization.
MT300-2: Solve business problems using information systems.
GEL- 2.3: Solve real-world problems using mathematical skills
Your paper must be double-spaced, Times New Roman, 12 pt. font, and follow APA 6th edition format. You are required to include at least two references using the appropriate APA format. A title page and a reference page are required.

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Develop a Marketing Plan for a Local Business
1. Pick a local business or your own if current and gather your research to develop a Marketing Plan. Use the outline from chapter 2, exhibit 2.5. Try to interview the owner or a manager if you can. Try to solve a problem or answer a marketing question for the business. Use observation or questionnaire to make suggestions as to how the business should develop a Marketing Plan. Write the Marketing Plan for the business.  You can pick any type of business, product or service.
2. Write a Marketing Plan for the business.
3. Refer to Chapter Two, “Strategic Planning for Competitive Advantage”.  Exhibit 2.5, Elements of a Marketing Plan.
4. Develop your plan as you read the chapters and doing each step in your plan after reading it and completing your plan at Lesson15.  Your plan should address each of these elements including writing a Mission Statement for the business. Conducting a SWOT analysis.  You need three Objectives for the business.  Develop a Target Market based on your research and develop all elements of the Marketing Mix addressing all four P’s.  Use any other industry research you can find to help you develop and support your plans findings.  End your plan adding your Implementation steps, the Evaluations you will use, and the Controls for the business.
5. Your paper should be a minimum of 3 pages and no more than 10.

Question 24: Economics
Match the words with definitions
The quantity supplied is greater than the quantity demanded
Direct relationship between price and quantity produced
Increase in price of one will cause increased demand for the other
Inverse relationship between price and quantity purchased
Products usually used together
Hot dogs, Spam, or Raman noodles
This is intended to keep landlords from charging unreasonably high rents
Consumers buy more when incomes increase.
The quantity demanded is greater than the quantity supplied
prices are not allowed to fall below a certain level

Complementary good
Shortage
Price Ceiling
Normal Good
Law of Supply
Inferior Good
Law of Demand
Surplus
Substitute good
Price Floor

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Matching Definitions
one person consuming a good or service, will not stop another person from or consuming that same product.
the inability to bring about the allocation of resources that best satisfies the wants of a society
people can receive the benefit of a good or service without paying for it
the difference between the price  a product will sell for and the price the seller would be willing to receive.
a person cannot be stopped from consuming or using a good or service
goods or services consumers can get without cost
effects of an activity affect a third party
consumers can be excluded from consuming these, but are felt should be made available.
non-payers can be excluded from consuming these
the difference between the price  a buyer is willing to pay and the actual sale price.

Market failures
Non-excludability
Non-rivalry

Free rider problem
Quasi-public goods

Public goods
Private goods
Externality
Consumer surplus
Producer surplus

Question 26: Health Care

NURS 6660 Final Exam (On Date :06-09-2019) Score 98%
NURS 6660 Final Exam (On Date :06-09-2019) Score 98%

Question 27: Health Care

NSG6440  (Date Completed:06-09-2019) Score:98%
NSG6440  (Date Completed:06-09-2019) Score:98%

Question 28: Health Care

NSG5003 Final Exam and NSG 5003 Midterm. Graded A. Latest 2019 (04/09/2019)
NSG5003 Final Exam and NSG 5003 Midterm. Graded A. Latest 2019 (04/09/2019)

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You are a first-year Human Resource Specialist at “State of Estates” estate planning firm. The firm is devising a new employee handbook. You have been asked to create two sections:
The Company Policy regarding Alcohol/Drug Testing
The Company Policy regarding Employer Monitoring of Employees.

Formulate these policies in a single document, reflecting an understanding of course materials and credible outside research.

Include and cite applicable laws for each topic as the basis for the policy. You may use federal, state, or case law as the foundation for your work. Following is a list of topics you may want to consider in your policies:
Pre-employment drug/alcohol testing
Random drug/alcohol testing
Procedure for employees who disagree with results of drug/alcohol Testing
Drug/alcohol procedure for contracted government employees who work in satellite offices
Drug testing in states with legal marijuana use
Monitoring of employee desktop computers
Monitoring of employee personal social media use
Monitoring of employee cell phone and company car

Note: Do not cut and paste an existing policy.

Create your own 1,050-word policy, using APA format for the cover page and references. Both policies should be included in a single document with subheadings to delineate “Alcohol/Drug Testing” and “Employee Monitoring.”

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Develop a Marketing Plan for a Local Business
1. Pick a local business or your own if current and gather your research to develop a Marketing Plan. Use the outline from chapter 2, exhibit 2.5. Try to interview the owner or a manager if you can. Try to solve a problem or answer a marketing question for the business. Use observation or questionnaire to make suggestions as to how the business should develop a Marketing Plan. Write the Marketing Plan for the business.  You can pick any type of business, product or service.
2. Write a Marketing Plan for the business.
3. Refer to Chapter Two, “Strategic Planning for Competitive Advantage”.  Exhibit 2.5, Elements of a Marketing Plan.
4. Develop your plan as you read the chapters and doing each step in your plan after reading it and completing your plan at Lesson15.  Your plan should address each of these elements including writing a Mission Statement for the business. Conducting a SWOT analysis.  You need three Objectives for the business.  Develop a Target Market based on your research and develop all elements of the Marketing Mix addressing all four P’s.  Use any other industry research you can find to help you develop and support your plans findings.  End your plan adding your Implementation steps, the Evaluations you will use, and the Controls for the business.
5. Your paper should be a minimum of 3 pages and no more than 10.

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Assignment 3: Fraud in the AIS
For this assignment, research the Internet or Strayer databases to locate a firm that was involved in a fraud and / or embezzlement case.
Explain how the firm’s accounting information system (i.e., components and functions) contributed to the fraud and / or embezzlement. You will need to focus on how each component / function of the accounting information system failed, which resulted in the scandal / case.
Write a ten to twelve (10-12) page paper in which you:
1.   Based on the information you researched, assess the failure of the firm’s accounting information system to prevent the related fraud / embezzlement.
2.   Imagine that the company that you researched uses a third-party accounting system. Evaluate the effectiveness of the firm’s stakeholder in the event that a third-party accounting system suffers a breach. Include an assessment of the level of responsibility of the software provider to the business and its clients. Provide support for your rationale.
3.   Determine what advances in accounting and / or information technology could have prevented the event from occurring. Provide support for your argument.
4.   Evaluate what changes should be made to both the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 and other current laws in order to make them more effective in deterring companies from committing crimes.
5.   Recommend a strategy that the company you indicated may use to prevent future business information failures. Indicate how the company should approach the implementation of your recommended strategy. Provide support for your recommendation.
6.   Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.

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Write a two- to three-page paper presenting the information listed below.  In addition, provide a title page and reference page in APA style.  Cite any references made to the article within the body of the paper in APA style. Your paper should begin with an introductory paragraph (including a thesis statement) and end with a concluding paragraph summarizing the major points made in the body of the paper and reaffirming the thesis.
The body of your paper must:
1.   Determine what question(s) the authors are trying to answer by doing this research.
2.   Determine the hypothesis being tested and the concepts that were applied in this process.
3.   Evaluate the article and critique the statistical analysis employed in the study.  Would you have included more and/or different variables?  Explain your answer.
4.   Examine the assumptions and limitations of the statistical study.  What would you have done differently in this case?  Explain your answer.
5.   Identify how the authors applied statistical testing to the problem.
6.   Interpret the findings of the author(s) using statistical concepts.

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BIBL 104 Quiz 2 / Liberty University BIBL 104 Quiz 2 (Already graded A)
BIBL 104 Quiz 2 / Liberty University BIBL 104 Quiz 2 (Already graded A)

Question 4: General Questions

HIUS 221 Primary Source and Presentation Review 8 Liberty University Complete Answers

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Question 1 McClure stated that the founders did not approve of slavery, but accepted the compromises in the Constitution because
Question 2 According to McClure, the Compromise of 1820 merely
Question 3 McClure clearly states that slavery was the source of the war.
Question 4 According to McClure, the basis of state sovereignty was established in
Question 5 According to the video presentation, what did Northerners tend to name battles after?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, what percentage of battles was fought in the South during the Civil War?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, what was the Northern reaction to the Federal Draft Conscription?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, due to the lack of industrialization in the South, how did women help to provide blankets to Confederate soldiers?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, what happened to Jefferson Davis after the fall of the Confederacy?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, where did the second major surrender of the Civil War take place?
Question 1 According to McClure, it was the deeper issue of power between the State and the Nation that created the conflict that led to war.
Question 2 McClure stated that the Civil War was the result of
Question 3 According to McClure, absolute sovereignty lies with
Question 4 According to McClure, the Compromise of 1820 merely
Question 5 According to the video presentation, what percentage of battles was fought in the South during the Civil War?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who was the President of the Confederate States?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, what was one reason the Emancipation Proclamation was issued?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, due to the lack of industrialization in the South, how did women help to provide blankets to Confederate soldiers?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, what was the last capitol of the Confederacy located?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, where did the second major surrender of the Civil War take place?
Question 1 According to McClure, absolute sovereignty lies with
Question 2 According to McClure, Jefferson believed in the supreme power of
Question 3 McClure stated that it was necessary for the Constitution to be a series of compromises.
Question 4 According to McClure and Jefferson, which of the following was NOT a danger of centralized government:
Question 5 According to the video presentation, which state did the upper Southern states look to as a model?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, where was the first capitol of the Confederacy located?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, where was Sherman’s March to the Sea located?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, what did the Civil War do for Northern businesses?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, where did the second major surrender of the Civil War take place?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, who were some of the last soldiers to put down their arms at the end of the Civil War?

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HIUS 221 Primary Source and Presentation Review 7 Liberty University Complete Answers

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
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Question 1 Which of the following generals who led in the MexicanAmerican War would rather employ intricate maneuvers than frontal attacks?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, what was the root cause of the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 3 Which of the following generals was the master of the frontal attack in the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, who was perhaps the only President of the United States who kept all his campaign promises?
Question 5 Which of the following was NOT a result of the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who invented the cotton gin in 1793?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, what was a nickname for Kansas after the KansasNebraska Act?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, what is sectionalism?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, who wrote “Uncle Tom’s Cabin”?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, who was responsible for the caning of Senator Sumner?
Question 1 According to the video presentation, what was the root cause of the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 2 Why did the Mexican government think they could win a war against the United States?
Question 3 Which of the following was NOT a result of the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, who was perhaps the only President of the United States who kept all his campaign promises?
Question 5 Which of the following generals who led in the MexicanAmerican War would rather employ intricate maneuvers than frontal attacks?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who wrote “Uncle Tom’s Cabin”?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, where did John Brown’s raid take place?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, who invented the cotton gin in 1793?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, what was a nickname for Kansas after the KansasNebraska Act?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what is sectionalism?
Question 1 Which of the following generals who led in the MexicanAmerican War would rather employ intricate maneuvers than frontal attacks?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, who was perhaps the only President of the United States who kept all his campaign promises?
Question 3 According to the video presentation, what was the root cause of the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 4 Which of the following generals was the master of the frontal attack in the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 5 Which of the following was NOT a result of the MexicanAmerican War?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who wrote “Uncle Tom’s Cabin”?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, what was a nickname for Kansas after the KansasNebraska Act?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, what was the key issue preventing Northern and Southern states from ever truly reaching compromise?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, who invented the cotton gin in 1793?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what is sectionalism?

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HIUS 221 Primary Source and Presentation Review 6 Liberty University Complete Answers

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Question 1 According to the video presentation, what was the Great Disappointment?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, who is the Father of Modern Revivalism?
Question 3 According to the video presentation, what is the belief that man is sinful, but can be perfected through a moderate and moral lifestyle in adherence to God’s precipices?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, who is the founder of the Church of Jesus Christ Latter Day Saints?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, who was famous for his sermon on the Hamilton and Burr duel called “Remedy for Dueling”?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, what was the emphasis placed on during the second Great Awakening?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, where was Katherine Beecher’s first private school for girls located?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, what was the most successful and widely accepted reform movement?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, what are “ardent spirits”?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, who founded the American Temperance Society?
Question 1 According to the video presentation, who was the founder of the Shakers?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, who is the Father of Modern Revivalism?
Question 3 According to the video presentation, who was famous for his sermon on the Hamilton and Burr duel called “Remedy for Dueling”?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, what was the Great Disappointment?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, what was the emphasis placed on during the second Great Awakening?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, what is the belief that man is sinful, but can be perfected through a moderate and moral lifestyle in adherence to God’s precipices?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, what was the most successful and widely accepted reform movement?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, where was Katherine Beecher’s first private school for girls located?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, who are the most important figures in education reform?
Question 1 According to the video presentation, who was the founder of the Shakers?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, what was the emphasis placed on during the second Great Awakening?
Question 3 According to the video presentation, what was the Great Disappointment?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, what is the belief that man is sinful, but can be perfected through a moderate and moral lifestyle in adherence to God’s precipices?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, who was famous for his sermon on the Hamilton and Burr duel called “Remedy for Dueling”?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who is the Father of Modern Revivalism?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, where was Katherine Beecher’s first private school for girls located?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, who founded the American Temperance Society?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, who are the most important figures in education reform?

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HIUS 221 Primary Source and Presentation Review 5 Liberty University Complete Answers

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
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Question 1 According to the video presentation, what was the name of one of the ships that Jefferson sent to fight the Barbary Pirates?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, what was Jefferson’s primary contribution to the progress of the American nation?
Question 3 According to the video presentation, who was the longest serving Supreme Court Justice as well as a cousin of Thomas Jefferson?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, what was Madison’s goal after the embargo was lifted?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, which of these is NOT a significance of the War of 1812?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who declared the StarSpangled Banner the National Anthem?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, why is this time period called “The Era of Good Feelings”?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, who was the President during the Missouri Compromise?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, which of these was a nickname Andrew Jackson earned during his Presidency?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what was considered a black mark on Jackson’s presidency?
Question 1 According to the video presentation, what was the practice of bringing goods to the Caribbean, “paper unloading” them, paying customs duties, and sending them to Europe?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, who served as Thomas Jefferson’s First Lady?
Question 3 According to the video presentation, what was Jefferson’s “peaceable coercion”?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, what was Madison’s goal after the embargo was lifted?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, who led the defense of the city during the Battle of New Orleans?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who declared the StarSpangled Banner the National Anthem?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, why is this time period called “The Era of Good Feelings”?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, what professions did Jackson occupy before being elected to the Presidency?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what was considered a black mark on Jackson’s presidency?
Question 1 According to the video presentation, where was the USS Philadelphia captured and grounded?
Question 2 According to the video presentation, when was Jefferson’s embargo lifted?
Question 3 According to the video presentation, what was Jefferson’s primary contribution to the progress of the American nation?
Question 4 According to the video presentation, who led the defense of the city during the Battle of New Orleans?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, who declared the StarSpangled Banner the National Anthem?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, which of these is NOT a significance of the War of 1812?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, why did the United States remain neutral in South American matters until 1822?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, which of these authors did NOT rise to popularity during this time period?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what was the new party on the rise in Jacksonian America?

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HIUS 221 Primary Source and Presentation Review 4 Liberty University Complete Answers

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
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Which of the branches of government is responsible for passing laws and legislation?
Which of the following is NOT one of the qualifications for becoming President of the United States?
What does Amendment Four prevent?
Where in the Constitution is the “absolute separation of church and state” discussed?
Which is most likely NOT a reason that the Federalist position ultimately prevailed?
The first sentence of the Constitution states: “We the People of the United States, in Order to form a more perfect Union, establish Justice, insure domestic Tranquility, provide for the common defence, promote the general Welfare, and secure the Blessings of Liberty to ourselves and our Posterity, do ordain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America.” The words “insure domestic Tranquility” may have been a reference to
On June 21, 1788, which state’s vote gave Federalists the nine states needed to ratify the Constitution?
Many Anti-Federalists were concerned that the Constitution did not
Question 1 How many witnesses are necessary in order to convict someone of treason?
Question 2 Which house of Congress must approve a bill before it becomes law?
Question 3 Though most cases can be tried in lower courts, where does the Supreme Court have “original jurisdiction”?
Question 4 What does Amendment Four prevent?
Question 5 The Ninth Amendment makes clear that the rights brought out in the Bill of Rights are the only rights citizens of the United States have.
Question 6 According to the video, our American system of government was formed by what decision?
Question 7 According to the video, who was the leader of the faction who opposed the Virginia Plan at the Constitutional Convention?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, the men who resisted the Virginia Plan were trying to protect
Question 9 According to the video presentation, Citizen Genet came to America to
Question 10 According to the video presentation, which of the following caused issues between American merchant shipping and the British?
Question 1 Which of the branches of government is responsible for passing laws and legislation?
Question 2 Which house of Congress must approve a bill before it becomes law?
Question 3 To which branch of government does the Constitution grant sole power of taxation?
Question 4 Though most cases can be tried in lower courts, where does the Supreme Court have “original jurisdiction”?
Question 5 Where in the Constitution is the “absolute separation of church and state” discussed?
Question 6 According to the video, who was the leader of the faction who opposed the Virginia Plan at the Constitutional Convention?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, the men who resisted the Virginia Plan were trying to protect
Question 8 According to the video presentation, who requested that Madison draft a new constitution to replace the Articles of Confederation?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, Citizen Genet came to America to
Question 10 According to the video presentation, which of the following groups sympathized with the French although they disagreed with the excesses of the Revolution?

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HIUS 221 Primary Source and Presentation Review 3 Liberty University Complete Answers

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Question 1 Who did the delegates appeal to for judgment of their actions in the Declaration of Independence?
Question 2 The Declaration of Independence claimed that the king had abdicated his right to governing the colonies because he
Question 3 According to the video presentation, most Americans understood
Question 4 According to the video presentation, Thomas Paine felt that who or what should rule in America?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, which of these was NOT an effect of the Stamp Act?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, where was the first Committee of Correspondence formed?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, what was the primary form of communication in the 18th century?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, where did the second Virginia Convention meet?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, where did Benedict Arnold commit his act of treason?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what did the victory in Saratoga mean for the colonies regarding the French?
Question 1
Who did the delegates appeal to for judgment of their actions in the Declaration of Independence?
Question 2
In every case of the violation of English rights listed in the Declaration of Independence, the colonists had
Question 3
According to the video presentation, what was the most quoted source in literature of the Era of the American Revolution?
Question 4
According to the video presentation, how did Chief Justice Earl Warren describe the relationship between Christianity and the United States?
Question 5
According to the video presentation, which of these was NOT an effect of the Stamp Act?
Question 6
According to the video presentation, where was the first Committee of Correspondence formed?
Question 7
According to the video presentation, what did the establishment of the Committees of Correspondence pave the way for?
Question 9
According to the video presentation, what did the victory in Saratoga mean for the colonies regarding the French?
Question 10
According to the video presentation, where did Benedict Arnold commit his act of treason?
Question 1
Many of the complaints against the king in the Declaration of Independence involved
Question 2
One of the complaints against the king in the Declaration of Independence was that he fundamentally altered longstanding ___________________.
Question 3
According to the video presentation, people at the time of the Revolution saw a connection to
Question 4
According to the video presentation, who is a Founding Father who the British thought was the key instigator of the American Revolution?
Question 7
According to the video presentation, which colony started the intercolonial movement of the Committees of Correspondence?
Question 8
According to the video presentation, what was the policy passed after the Boston Tea Party to make Bostonians repay the East India Trading Company for the tea that was destroyed?
Question 9
According to the video presentation, why did the British want to move the war further south?
Question 10
According to the video presentation, where did the Revolutionary War end?

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HIUS 221 Primary Source and Presentation Review 2 Liberty University Complete Answers

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Question 1 Colonial assemblies were needed to deal with such responsibilities as
Question 2 The attempts of the British to seize Fort Duquesne were part of a larger ambition to gain control of
Question 3 The Proclamation of 1763 restricted English colonists to territory
Question 4 What aspect of the New England economy grew most dramatically in the eighteenth century?
Question 5 Which of the following events happened last?
Question 6 The Great Awakening was a movement that reflected a renew interest in
Question 7 The term Anglicization refers to
Question 8 Who were the Old Lights?
Question 9 Which region of colonial America was the most ethnically diverse?
Question 10 In what way did the slave codes of the mainland British colonies ensure the continuity of the institution
Question 1 The text for Jonathan Edwards’ sermon “Sinners in the Hands of an Angry God” was
Question 2 According to Edwards’ “Sinners in the Hands of an Angry God”
Question 3 In his conclusion to “Sinners in the Hands of an Angry God,” Edwards equates the lost state to the Biblical city of
Question 4 According to the video presentation, how did the fashionable world set itself apart?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, once a luxury good became common, what happened?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, who was Samuel Davies?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, in which region of the American colonies did Baptists become predominant?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, what would the College of New Jersey later come to be called?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, when did the TransAtlantic slave trade begin?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what were the two crops that were grown on plantations that needed the support of slave labor?
Question 1 The text for Jonathan Edwards’ sermon “Sinners in the Hands of an Angry God” was
Question 2 In his conclusion to “Sinners in the Hands of an Angry God,” Edwards equates the lost state to the Biblical city of
Question 3 According to Edwards’ “Sinners in the Hands of an Angry God”
Question 4 According to the video presentation, how was wealth defined prior to the 17 th century?
Question 5 According to the video presentation, where was conspicuous consumption most conspicuous?
Question 6 According to the video presentation, what was the name of the first independent Baptist church?
Question 7 According to the video presentation, where was the first independent Baptist church located?
Question 8 According to the video presentation, which college was founded in 1693 as an Anglican school?
Question 9 According to the video presentation, the concept of race based slavery began when?
Question 10 According to the video presentation, what were the two crops that were grown on plantations that needed the support of slave labor?

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HIUS 221 Mindtap Activities 1 Liberty University Complete Answers

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Module 1: The Atlantic World, Exploration and Early Settlement
1.1 Picturing History
Use the dropdown menus to complete the paragraph.
An examination of the graph titled “Native and Nonnative population of North America, 1492–2000” and the information in bubbles on the map reveal the estimated native population in North America to be million. This number between 1492 and 1800 by 2000.
Use the dropdown menus to complete the paragraph.
An examination of the graph titled “Native and Nonnative population of North America, 1492–2000” reveals that the estimated native population steadily decreased from approximately 4.4 million in 1492 to well below 1 million in. Following this decline, the native population until about 1900. After 1900, the native population 2000. During this same period, the estimated nonnative population increased by some 200 million
Use the dropdown menus to complete the paragraph.
An examination of the pie chart titled “World population estimates for 1500 (in millions)” reveals that the Americas contained some million people in 1500. Based on the figure corresponding to the information in bubbles on the map, 5.85 million people resided in, which is much less than the population in Mexico and slightly larger than the population in North America at this time. As seen on the graph titled “Native and Nonnative population of North America, 1492–2000,” the estimated decreased dramatically between 1492 and 1800 but rebounded slightly during the twentieth century.
1.2 A Growing World
When discussing European efforts to expand trade networks between the mid-fifteenth and late sixteenth centuries, historians refer to this period as what?
The Age of Exploration
The Opening of the Silk Road
The Mapping of the Atlantic World
The network of land routes between Europe and Asia was known as what?
The Road to Constantinople
The Mediterranean Thoroughfare
The Silk Road
Select the correct response from the dropdown menu.
In mid-fifteenth- through late-sixteenth-century Europe, men and women performed labor roles specific to their
1.3 Native American and West African Societies before Contact
Determine whether each characteristic describes the Maya culture, the Aztec culture, or both cultures.
Characteristic
Maya
Aztec
Both
Peaked between 300 and 900 AD
Empire consisted of dozens of states
Arrived in the Valley of Mexico around 1200 AD
Determine whether each characteristic describes the Maya culture, the Aztec culture, or both cultures.
Characteristic
Maya
Aztec
Both
Was in decline by the time European explorers arrived
Exercised vast power in Mesoamerica for about three hundred years before European explorers arrived
Developed wealth by conquering neighboring peoples
Characteristic
Maya
Aztec
Both
Developed a society based on military strength
Established a civilization in the Valley of Mexico
Developed an economy based partly on trade

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HIUS 222 Content Quiz 8 Liberty University Complete Answers

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How did President Reagan influence defense spending?
2 out of 2 points
President George W. Bush received a mandate from the 2000 presidential election.
2 out of 2 points
What happened to President Clinton because of the Lewinsky affair and his testimony about it?
2 out of 2 points
Which of the following statements concerning Bill Clinton is true?
2 out of 2 points
Where did the United States fight wars between 2001 and 2013?
How did Dr. Falwell and his work with Moral Majority influence how Americans think about religion and government involvement?
2 out of 2 points
Why did Dr. Falwell found Moral Majority?
2 out of 2 points
Who was Jerry Falwell, Sr.?
2 out of 2 points
How did the Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev signal his desire to change past policies in 1988?
2 out of 2 points
Which area did Jimmy Carter stress in his foreign policies?
2 out of 2 points
What Iraqi decision led to the Gulf War of 1991?
2 out of 2 points
What did Iranians who took American hostages demand in return for their release?
2 out of 2 points
Where were challenges to communist rule the least successful in the late 1980s?
2 out of 2 points
How did Jimmy Carter appeal to voters in 1976?
What was the “war on terror” a response to?
2 out of 2 points
Where was the term “terrorism” first used?
2 out of 2 points
Why did the House vote to impeach President Clinton in 1998?
What is true about the Human Genome Project?
2 out of 2 points
Which nation makes up the third crux in what President George W. Bush described as the “axis of evil” with Iraq and Iran?
2 out of 2 points
What was unique about the 1996 election?
What issue undermined the popularity of George H. W. Bush more than any other? Why?
Question 1 President Carter decided against attempting a military rescue to free the hostages in Iran.
Question 3 Troubling aspects of the Watergate scandal included all of the following EXCEPT for
Question 4 How did Republicans portray liberals to working class voters in the 1980s?
Question 6 The “safe sex” message gained currency in the wake of
Question 7 In the election of 1972, Richard Nixon easily defeated the antiwar candidate
Question 9 In a speech later called the “malaise speech,” President Carter expressed his feeling that
Question 10 President George H. W. Bush’s call for U.S. military involvement in the Persian Gulf came when
Question 11 Which of the following individuals was NOT part of George W. Bush’s administration?
Question 13 Violence ensued when an allwhite jury acquitted the officers in the beating of Rodney King.
Question 15 President Bush muted his response to the fall of the Berlin Wall because
Question 16 President Obama was the first president to consider a comprehensive plan to provide all Americans with health care.
Question 17 In the late 1990s, how did President Clinton choose to fight alQaeda and prevent potential terrorist attacks?

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Strayer University – HIS 105Assignment 1 HIS 105.docx
Dealing with Diversity in America From Reconstruction Through the 1920’s
Question 14: History

Strayer University, Washington HIS 105 Assignment 2.2: Policemen of the WorldFinal Paper
Assignment 2.2: Policemen of the WorldFinal Paper
Due Week 10 and worth 120 points

You have already developed a thesis statement and developed an outline in which you explored two (2) real-life international incidentsfrom the past five (5) years involving the United States as they received an elevated status as a world power. Now you will develop the final paper in which you explore your main points in detail.

Write a three to five (3-5) page paper in which you:

Introduce your paper with your previously crafted thesis statement.
Identify two to three (2-3) international events from the past five years that can be traced back to a foreign policy created after the Civil War.
Discuss three (3) aspects of US history since 1865 that has led to the US’s rise as a world super power policeman.
Identify three to five (3-5) international incidents since World War II where America has taken on a policing role.
Determine three to five (3-5) driving forces that fueled international policy decisions involving the international incidents you outlined previously. (Consider treaties, exit strategies, elections, wars, etc.)
Use at least three (3) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

Analyze the rise of the United States to a world “superpower” and how that status has shaped its internal developments in recent decades.
Recognize the major turning points in American history since the Civil War.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in contemporary U.S. history.
Write clearly and concisely about contemporary U.S. history using proper writing mechanics.

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This assignment consists of two (2) sections: a narrative and a PowerPoint presentation. You must submit two (2) sections for the completion of this assignment. Label each file name according to the section of the assignment it is written for.
Note: For additional information on how to submit more than one file for an assignment, follow the instructions in the document “How to Submit Multiple Files for an Assignment”, located here.
Imagine that you have just been hired by a new company as the director of the HR department. You have been tasked to hire a new secretary for the department and to develop an employee compensation and benefits package that will be used for that position upon hire. Develop a PowerPoint presentation to present this information to your Vice President. Go to the Bureau of Labor Statistics’ (BLS) Website, located at www.bls.gov, for information regarding organizations and pay in your geographical area.
Section 1: NarrativeWrite a two to three (2-3) page paper in which you:
1.   Choose the type of organization for which you are designing the package.
2.   Develop an employee compensation and benefits package for this new position. Support your ideas for the compensation/benefits package.
3.   Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.
Section 1 of your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

Question 16: Biology

In 750-1,000 words, identify and describe the issues affecting standards of practice related to competency of medical care identified in the Lyckholm and Hackney article.
In addition to summarizing the relevant points of the article, explain the relevance that standards of practice have (or will have) to you as a practitioner.

Question 17: Biology

Prokaryotic and eukaryotic are the two major categories of cells making up life on earth. Both these types require water and carbon.
Describe the characteristics of water and carbon that makes them important to living things in general, and to specific forms of life including plants, animals, and prokaryotes. Why is NASA looking for water on Mars?
Describe the differences in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. How have the characteristics of each kind of cell put limitations and provided opportunities for the survival and divergence of modern living things? Why might both cell types be considered equally successful? Make sure to consider both Domains of Prokaryotes.

Question 18: Computer Science

The reasons why companies use HRIS vary widely. Large companies will use HRIS in certain ways while other, smaller companies may use it in other ways. Consider the following questions:
What are your perceptions of an HRIS?
What can an HRIS do for an organization?
List why your organization would want to or does use an HRIS.
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Reform of Healthcare Market and Regulation and Antitrust Policy in Health Care”  Please respond to the following:
From the e-Activity, synthesize the primary ways in which consumer and provider incentives work together to achieve cost reduction under the Affordable Care Act (ACA). Provide at least one (1) example of such synthesis to support your response.
Defend or critique the key provisions of antitrust legislation in the United States. Analyze the major ways in which quality issues in health care affect antirust healthcare policy. Provide at least one (1) example of antitrust laws in action to support your response.

From the e-Activity, synthesize the primary ways in which consumer and provider incentives work together to achieve cost reduction under the Affordable Care Act (ACA). Provide at least one (1) example of such synthesis to support your response.

Question 20: Urban Planning and Policy

Get Local: Rate Your Environment
Based on the material in this module and your own relevant research, address the following:
How would you rate your own neighborhood and the city or town that surrounds it with regard to the concepts presented in this module?
Discuss as many environmental factors that affect wellness (mining communities, contamination, nuclear poisoning, population density, socioeconomic influences, new vs. old developments, community gardens, etc.) as possible in your analysis and highlight how these factors support or challenge wellness.
How do these factors relate to the eight dimensions of wellness?
Make sure you support your ideas with information presented in the course material, other scholarly resources, and specific examples (real-life observations and experiences),

How would you rate your own neighborhood and the city or town that surrounds it with regard to the concepts presented in the module?

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Develop a Marketing Plan for a Local Business
1. Pick a local business or your own if current and gather your research to develop a Marketing Plan. Use the outline from chapter 2, exhibit 2.5. Try to interview the owner or a manager if you can. Try to solve a problem or answer a marketing question for the business. Use observation or questionnaire to make suggestions as to how the business should develop a Marketing Plan. Write the Marketing Plan for the business.  You can pick any type of business, product or service.
2. Write a Marketing Plan for the business.
3. Refer to Chapter Two, “Strategic Planning for Competitive Advantage”.  Exhibit 2.5, Elements of a Marketing Plan.
4. Develop your plan as you read the chapters and doing each step in your plan after reading it and completing your plan at Lesson15.  Your plan should address each of these elements including writing a Mission Statement for the business. Conducting a SWOT analysis.  You need three Objectives for the business.  Develop a Target Market based on your research and develop all elements of the Marketing Mix addressing all four P’s.  Use any other industry research you can find to help you develop and support your plans findings.  End your plan adding your Implementation steps, the Evaluations you will use, and the Controls for the business.
5. Your paper should be a minimum of 3 pages and no more than 10.

Question 22: Business

About Your Signature Assignment
This signature assignment is designed to align with specific program student learning outcome(s) in your program. Program Student Learning Outcomes are broad statements that describe what students should know and be able to do upon completion of their degree. The signature assignments might be graded with an automated rubric that allows the University to collect data that can be aggregated across a location or college/school and used for program improvements.
Purpose of Assignment
The purpose of this assignment is for students to synthesize the concepts learned throughout the course. This assignment will provide students an opportunity to build critical thinking skills, develop businesses and organizations, and solve problems requiring data by compiling all pertinent information into one report.
Assignment Steps
Resources: Microsoft Excel®, Signature Assignment Databases, Signature Assignment Options, Part 3: Inferential Statistics
Scenario: Upon successful completion of the MBA program, say you work in the analytics department for a consulting company. Your assignment is to analyze one of the following databases:
Manufacturing
Hospital
Consumer Food
Financial
Select one of the databases based on the information in the Signature Assignment Options.
Provide a 1,600-word detailed, statistical report including the following:
Explain the context of the case
Provide a research foundation for the topic
Present graphs
Explain outliers
Prepare calculations
Conduct hypotheses tests
Discuss inferences you have made from the results
This assignment is broken down into four parts:
Part 1 – Preliminary Analysis
Part 2 – Examination of Descriptive Statistics
Part 3 – Examination of Inferential Statistics
Part 4 – Conclusion/Recommendations
Part 1 – Preliminary Analysis (3-4 paragraphs)
Generally, as a statistics consultant, you will be given a problem and data. At times, you may have to gather additional data. For this assignment, assume all the data is already gathered for you.
State the objective:
What are the questions you are trying to address?
Describe the population in the study clearly and in sufficient detail:
What is the sample?
Discuss the types of data and variables:
Are the data quantitative or qualitative?
What are levels of measurement for the data?
Part 2 – Descriptive Statistics (3-4 paragraphs)
Examine the given data.
Present the descriptive statistics (mean, median, mode, range, standard deviation, variance, CV, and five-number summary).
Identify any outliers in the data.
Present any graphs or charts you think are appropriate for the data.
Note: Ideally, we want to assess the conditions of normality too. However, for the purpose of this exercise, assume data is drawn from normal populations.
Part 3 – Inferential Statistics (2-3 paragraphs)
Use the Part 3: Inferential Statistics document.
Create (formulate) hypotheses
Run formal hypothesis tests
Make decisions. Your decisions should be stated in non-technical terms.
Hint: A final conclusion saying “reject the null hypothesis” by itself without explanation is basically worthless to those who hired you. Similarly, stating the conclusion is false or rejected is not sufficient.
Part 4 – Conclusion and Recommendations (1-2 paragraphs)
Include the following:
What are your conclusions?
What do you infer from the statistical analysis?
State the interpretations in non-technical terms. What information might lead to a different conclusion?
Are there any variables missing?
What additional information would be valuable to help draw a more certain conclusion?
Format your assignment consistent with APA format.

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You are a first-year Human Resource Specialist at “State of Estates” estate planning firm. The firm is devising a new employee handbook. You have been asked to create two sections:
The Company Policy regarding Alcohol/Drug Testing
The Company Policy regarding Employer Monitoring of Employees.

Formulate these policies in a single document, reflecting an understanding of course materials and credible outside research.

Include and cite applicable laws for each topic as the basis for the policy. You may use federal, state, or case law as the foundation for your work. Following is a list of topics you may want to consider in your policies:
Pre-employment drug/alcohol testing
Random drug/alcohol testing
Procedure for employees who disagree with results of drug/alcohol Testing
Drug/alcohol procedure for contracted government employees who work in satellite offices
Drug testing in states with legal marijuana use
Monitoring of employee desktop computers
Monitoring of employee personal social media use
Monitoring of employee cell phone and company car

Note: Do not cut and paste an existing policy.

Create your own 1,050-word policy, using APA format for the cover page and references. Both policies should be included in a single document with subheadings to delineate “Alcohol/Drug Testing” and “Employee Monitoring.”

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Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
Review the article, “Personal Electronic Devices in the Workplace” Balancing Interests in a BYOD World.” Discuss the reasons why companies should or should not consider a BYOD program. Consider issues of security and privacy in your discussion.

Question 25: Business

Identify and describe the specific issues Maalick encountered in the workplace. Do the
actions of other workers at Treton represent discrimination and harassment? What
elements of law are important for Treton to consider?
Evaluate the, Marta Ford, in response to Maalick’s situation. What could she have done
to prevent the situation and what more could she do to ensure that this type of situation
would not occur in the future?

3. How would you characterize Clive Jenkins’ behavior and response to this situation?
4. What resolution to this situation might Judith Dixon suggest?
5. What are the broader implications of this situation for Treton? What type of
organizational review might Dixon initiate or suggest from a corporate perspective?

Question 26: Business

The most popular way for international expansion is for a local firm to acquire foreign companies. One of the most benefits for international expansion is global distribution capability that helps expanding the market share.
There are different implications of running a company that is within or outside of the European Union. If you were the head of a firm based in the United States, please answer the following questions, providing the rationale behind your answers:
Would you seek to acquire a company within the European Union or outside of it? Why?
Describe the advantages and disadvantages of the choice you made.
Describe the advantages and disadvantages inherent in the option you did not choose.
Explain why an MNC may invest funds in a financial market outside its own country.
Explain why some financial institutions prefer to provide credit in financial markets outside their own country.
APA format. Reference page needed, not inclued in page count. All information needs to be cited

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Chapter 2 Vocabulary                  Name:
Fill in the parentheses with the letter of the term being described.
g. Economic system
n. Command System
l. Market
j. Product markets
o. Invisible hand
f. Market System
k. Resource Markets
h.  Households
i. Circular flow
m. Laissez-faire capitalism

1.     ( m ) Individual decision making with little or no government interference.

2.    (  ) Self-interest helps people provide goods that are in demand by society (they will sell.)
3.    (  ) Economic decisions are made by central planners, as the Communists did.

4.    (  ) Place in the circular flow where resources are provided.

5.    ( f ) Economic decisions are made by individual buyers and sellers

6.    (  ) Where buyers and sellers come together to exchange goods or services.

7.    (  ) Markets where businesses provide output for household consumption, like a  Winn Dixie
8.    (  ) Markets where households provide their resources for businesses to use in production, like an employment office or realtor.
9.    (  ) Shows the flow of resources from households to businesses through resource markets and the flow of money from households to businesses through output markets.
10.  (  ) How a society is organized to make the 4 basic production decisions.

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Assignment 4 Current and Future Economic Issues Impacting Health Care Sector

Use the Internet or Strayer online databases to research five (5) of what you believe to be the most important and pressing economic issues that confront the United States healthcare industry today and will continue to do so into the next decade.

Provide a review of these issues in a ten to twelve (10-12) page paper in which you:

Provide a detailed description of the issues that you have researched.
Analyze the most significant economic effects of the researched issues on healthcare industry. Provide at least two (2) examples of these issues to support your response.
Suggest specific strategies that relevant entities / stakeholders may use to address the selected issues from an economic perspective. Justify your response.
Determine the strategic manner in which the United States can apply best economic best practices from other countries in addressing these issues.
Assess the likelihood of government and or private sector effectively addressing the issues.
Use at least ten (10) current references. Five (5) of these references must be from current peer-reviewed sources to support and substantiate your comments and perspectives.

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Labor in colonial America was scarce. Explain the development of using slaves for labor in the colonies. Below are some of the items you may include:
The development of using slaves for labor
Changes, problems, and issues with slave labor
Unintended consequences of using slave labor
Complete a 2-3 page paper according to CSU-Global’s Guide for Writing and APA Requirements. Each paper should include at least four paragraphs: an introduction, a body with at least two fully developed paragraphs, and a conclusion.

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Compare Lewin’s 3-Step Model and Lippitt, Watson, and Westley’s change model. Compare and contrast the models,
discuss resistance, or how change could be embraced between those 2 models

Question 31: Education

Liberty University – UNIV 104Review Test Submission_ Preview 5 – 201640 Fall 2016 .
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Create an overview of the process and steps involved in human resource planning, recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and hiring of employees.
Develop a comprehensive strategy for training new employees. Focusing on the role of the new employees within the organization.
Propose two to four (2-4) training strategies aimed at motivating the employees to learn key aspects about their new jobs.
Determine key issues that human resource management employees would be likely to encounter in the health care field. Prepare a plan that will enable the new employees to address each issue which includes instructional strategies, resources that will be utilized, and evaluation criteria for determining success.
Design at least three (3) visual components that enhance the program you have outlined, such as charts or diagrams.
Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources

Question 33: Health Care

NAPSRx Final Exam Solution | New Solution Correct Answers | Rated A+
NAPSRx Final Exam Solution | New Solution Correct Answers | Rated A+

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Signature Week 6 QNT561 final Signature Assignment
Purpose of Assignment
The purpose of this assignment is for students to synthesize the concepts learned throughout the course. This assignment will provide students an opportunity to build critical thinking skills, develop businesses and organizations, and solve problems requiring data by compiling all pertinent information into one report.

Resources: Microsoft Excel®, Signature Assignment Databases, Signature Assignment Options, Part 3: Inferential Statistics

Scenario: Upon successful completion of the MBA program, imagine you work in the analytics department for a consulting company. Your assignment is to analyze one of the following databases:
Manufacturing
Hospital
Consumer Food
Financial

Select one of the databases based on the information in the Signature Assignment Options.

Provide a 1,600-word detailed, four part, statistical report with the following sections:
Part 1 – Preliminary Analysis
Part 2 – Examination of Descriptive Statistics
Part 3 – Examination of Inferential Statistics
Part 4 – Conclusion/Recommendations

Part 1 – Preliminary Analysis
Generally, as a statistics consultant, you will be given a problem and data. At times, you may have to gather additional data. For this assignment, assume all the data is already gathered for you.

State the objective:
What are the questions you are trying to address?

Describe the population in the study clearly and in sufficient detail:
What is the sample?

Discuss the types of data and variables:
Are the data quantitative or qualitative?
What are levels of measurement for the data?

Part 2 – Descriptive Statistics

Examine the given data.

Present the descriptive statistics (mean, median, mode, range, standard deviation, variance, CV, and five-number summary).

Identify any outliers in the data.

Present any graphs or charts you think are appropriate for the data.

Note: Ideally, we want to assess the conditions of normality too. However, for the purpose of this exercise, assume data is drawn from normal populations.

Part 3 – Inferential Statistics

Use the Part 3: Inferential Statistics document.
Create (formulate) hypotheses
Run formal hypothesis tests
Make decisions. Your decisions should be stated in non-technical terms.

Hint: A final conclusion saying “reject the null hypothesis” by itself without explanation is basically worthless to those who hired you. Similarly, stating the conclusion is false or rejected is not sufficient.

Part 4 – Conclusion and Recommendations

Include the following:
What are your conclusions?
What do you infer from the statistical analysis?
State the interpretations in non-technical terms. What information might lead to a different conclusion?
Are there any variables missing?
What additional information would be valuable to help draw a more certain conclusion?

Format your assignment consistent with APA format.

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NURS6521 Final Exam Answers Latest Version Walden University

NURS6521 Final Exam Answers Latest Version Walden University

Question 36: Health Care

NURS4115 Week 3 Assignment
NURS4115 Week 3 Assignment

 

 

 

 

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Question 1: General Question

South University NSG 5003 Chapter 14: Cancer in Children

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1.      What congenital malformation is commonly linked to acute leukemia in children?
a.
Down syndrome
c.
Retinoblastoma
b.
Wilms tumor
d.
Neuroblastoma
ANS:
Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) is the most common genetic defect linked to the development of acute leukemia. Children with Down syndrome have a 10- to 20-fold increased risk of developing acute lymphoblastic and myelogenous leukemia and a higher risk for developing acute megakaryocytic leukemia. No current research supports a link between the other stated congenital malformations and acute leukemia.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 444

2.      When are childhood cancers most often diagnosed?
a.
During infancy
c.
After diagnosis of a chronic illness
b.
At peak times of physical growth
d.
After an acute illness
ANS:
Childhood cancers are most often diagnosed during peak times of physical growth. No current research supports the other options.

PTS:   1                    REF:   Page 443

3.      Prenatal exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES) can result in which type of cancer?
a.
Breast cancer
c.
Vaginal cancer
b.
Leukemia
d.
Lymphoma
ANS:
DES has been identified as a transplacental chemical carcinogen; a small percentage of the daughters of women who took DES during pregnancy developed adenocarcinomas of the vagina. No current research supports a link between the drug and other cancers.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 445

4.      Currently, what percentage of children with cancer can be cured?
a.
40%
c.
60%
b.
50%
d.
80%
ANS:
Currently, more than 80% of children diagnosed with cancer are cured.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 445

5.      Most childhood cancers arise from the:
a.
Epithelium
c.
Embryologic ectodermal layer
b.
Mesodermal germ layer
d.
Viscera
ANS:

Most childhood cancers originate from the mesodermal germ layer that gives rise to connective tissue, bone, cartilage, muscle, blood, blood vessels, gonads, kidney, and the lymphatic system. The other options are not common sites from which cancers originate.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 443

6.      Which form of cancer is linked to congenital malformation syndromes?
a.
Wilms tumor
c.
Osteosarcoma
b.
Retinoblastoma
d.
Rhabdomyosarcoma
ANS:
Wilms tumors are linked with other genetically linked childhood cancers. It is the only form among the available options that is associated with congenital malformation syndromes.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 443 | Table 14-1

7.      Research data support a carcinogenic relationship in children resulting from exposure to which virus?
a.
Herpes simplex virus
c.
Varicella zoster virus
b.
Influenza
d.
Epstein-Barr virus
ANS:
The strongest association between viruses and the development of cancer in children has been the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), Burkitt lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, and Hodgkin disease. No current research supports a link between the remaining options and childhood cancer.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 445

8.      A child diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has an increased risk of developing:
a.
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
c.
Epstein-Barr
b.
Retinoblastoma
d.
Leukemia
ANS:
Children with AIDS have an increased risk of developing non-Hodgkin lymphoma and Kaposi sarcoma. Leukemia is linked to retinoblastoma. Epstein-Barr has been linked to the development of some cancers, whereas no known link has been found between AIDS and the development of leukemia.

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PTS:   1                    REF: Page 445

9.      Which intervention has the greatest affect on a child’s mortality rate when diagnosed with cancer?
a.
Age at the time of diagnosis
b.
Participation in clinical trials
c.
Proximity to a major cancer treatment center
d.
Parental involvement in the treatment planning
ANS:

Mortality rates have significantly declined in the past 40 years largely as a result of advances in treatment and participation in clinical trials. Although important, the other options are not believed to have an affect on the decline of the mortality rate of childhood cancer.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 445

10.     Which statement is likely true regarding children being treated for cancer with radiation therapy?
a.
They will most likely have a successful remission of tumor growth.
b.
They seldom require follow-up maintenance treatments.
c.
They are prone to experience severe developmental delays.
d.
They are at increased risk for developing adult cancers.
ANS:
Although the need exists for long-term studies, research has shown a correlation between radiation-induced malignancies from radiotherapy (as in cancer treatment) or radiation exposure from diagnostic imaging; both have shown to increase the risk of developing cancer during adulthood. The other options are not necessarily true regarding the outcomes of radiation therapy for childhood cancers.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 445

11.     How should the nurse reply when a parent questions why a computed tomographic (CT) scan of the head was not ordered for their 5-year-old child after a minor fall?
a.
Physicians are cautious about ordering CT scan on children younger than 10 years
of age.
b.
CT scans are seldom conclusive when used to diagnosis head injuries in young
children.
c.
The child’s symptoms will determine whether a CT scan is necessary and worth
the expense.
d.
Research suggests that repeated CT scans can increase the risk of developing brain
cancer.
ANS:
Findings from a recent study of 176,587 children suggest that those who have two or three CT scans of the head before the age of 22 years are three times more likely to develop brain cancer as those in the general population, and the risk of developing leukemia is three times as great in those who received five to ten CT scans. The other options do not represent the logic behind not ordering a CT scan in relationship to minor head trauma.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 445 | What’s New box

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

12.     Childhood exposure to which risk factors increases the susceptibility for developing cancers? (Select all that apply.)
a.
Low birth weight
b.
Chemotherapy
c.
Ionizing radiation
d.
Cigarette smoke

e.
Hodgkin disease

ANS:                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                           , C, E
Childhood exposure to ionizing radiation, drugs, or existing cancer-causing viruses has been associated with the risk of developing cancer. Although unhealthy, no current research identifies cigarette smoke or low birth weight as risk factors for childhood cancer.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 445 | Table 14-3

13.     Which statement is true concerning the difference between adult and childhood cancers?
(Select all that apply.)
a.
Numerous differences exist between these two categories of cancer.
b.
Childhood cancers are far less likely to be associated with genetic mutations.
c.
Environmental risks are strongly associated with childhood cancers.
d.
Exposure to pesticides is a minor risk for the development of adult cancers.
e.
Maternal exposure to carcinogenic substances presents little risk to the fetus.
ANS:                                                                             , B
Overall, cancers in children are very different than adult cancers and are associated with far fewer genetic mutations. Research does not support the other options.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 442 | Page 444 | What’s New box

14.     Most childhood cancers originate from the mesodermal germ layer that ultimately produces which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
a.
Connective tissue
b.
Digestive system
c.
Muscles
d.
Kidneys
e.
Blood
ANS:                                                                             , C, D, E
Most childhood cancers originate from the mesodermal germ layer, which gives rise to connective tissue, bone cartilage, muscle, blood, blood vessels, gonads, kidney, and the lymphatic system. Cancers of the digestive tract do not originate in the mesodermal germ layer.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 443

15.     Which statements are true regarding cancers that develop in children? (Select all that apply.)
a.
Childhood cancers tend to be fast growing.
b.
Childhood cancers are diagnosed during growth spurts.
c.
Childhood cancer generally metastasizes by the time of diagnosis.
d.
Childhood cancer is typically at low risk for aggressive metastasis.
e.
Childhood cancers respond well to standardized treatment modalities.
ANS:                                                                             , B, C
Childhood cancers are most often diagnosed during peak times of physical growth. In general, they are extremely fast growing, with 80% having distant spread (metastases) at diagnosis.
The other options are not true regarding childhood cancers.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 443

16.     The nurse is preparing a discussion on cancer and its occurrence among college-aged students. Which cancers will the nurse include in the discussion? (Select all that apply.)
a.
Colorectal
b.
Testicular
c.
Thyroid
d.
Breast
e.
Lung
ANS:                                                                             , B, C, D
The most common cancers among the adolescent and young adult population (15 to 39 years of age) are Hodgkin lymphoma, leukemia, germ-cell tumors (particularly testicular), central nervous system tumors, non-Hodgkin lymphoma, thyroid cancer, melanoma, sarcomas, and breast, cervical, liver, thyroid and colorectal cancers. Lung cancer generally develops after chronic inhalation of nicotine-containing products.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 442

Chapter 15: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1.      Which pathway carries sensory information toward the central nervous system (CNS)?
a.
Ascending
c.
Somatic
b.
Descending
d.
Efferent
ANS:
Peripheral nerve pathways can be afferent (ascending) pathways that carry sensory impulses toward the CNS. The remaining options do not carry sensory information to the CNS.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 448

2.      Which type of axon transmits a nerve impulse at the highest rate?
a.
Large nonmyelinated
c.
Small nonmyelinated
b.
Large myelinated
d.
Small myelinated
ANS:
If the myelin layer is tightly wrapped many times around the axon and is forming the nodes of Ranvier, then conduction velocity increases and the neuron is referred to as myelinated. The increased diameter of the myelinated axons allows for the transmission of impulses at a faster rate. The other options do not affect nervous impulse transmission rates.

PTS:   1                    REF: Pages 448-450

3.      Which nerves are capable of regeneration?
a.
Nerves within the brain and spinal cord
b.
Peripheral nerves that are cut or severed
c.
Myelinated nerves in the peripheral nervous system
d.
Unmyelinated nerves of the peripheral nervous system

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ANS:
Nerve regeneration is limited to only myelinated fibers and generally occurs only in the peripheral nervous system.

PTS:   1                    REF: Pages 450-451

4.      The neurotransmitter, norepinephrine, is secreted in the:
a.
Somatic nervous system
c.
Sympathetic postganglion
b.
Parasympathetic preganglion
d.
Parasympathetic postganglion
ANS:
Most postganglionic sympathetic fibers release norepinephrine (adrenaline). The remaining options do not reflect the correct site of norepinephrine secretion.

PTS:   1                    REF: Pages 473-474

5.      Both oligodendroglia and Schwann cells share the ability to:
a.
Form a myelin sheath
c.
Transport nutrients
b.
Remove cellular debris
d.
Line the ventricles

ANS:
The function of oligodendroglia (oligodendrocytes) is to deposit myelin within the central nervous system (CNS). Oligodendroglia are the CNS counterpart of Schwann cells. The remaining options are not reflective of the common function of these structures.

PTS:   1                    REF: Pages 449-450

6.      During a synapse, what change occurs after the neurotransmitter binds to the receptor?
a.
The permeability of the presynaptic neuron changes; consequently, its membrane
potential is changed as well.
b.
The permeability of the postsynaptic neuron changes; consequently, its membrane
potential is changed as well.
c.
The postsynaptic cell prevents any change in permeability and destroys the action
potential.
d.
The presynaptic cell synthesizes and secretes additional neurotransmitters.
ANS:
The binding of the neurotransmitter at the receptor site changes the permeability of the postsynaptic neuron and, consequently, its membrane potential. The remaining options do not accurately describe the occurrence.

PTS:   1                    REF: Pages 452-453

7.      What name is given to a large network of neurons within the brainstem that is essential for maintaining wakefulness?
a.
Midbrain
c.
Medulla oblongata
b.
Reticular activating system
d.
Pons
ANS:
The reticular activating system is essential for maintaining wakefulness. The remaining options are not essential to this function.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 454

8.      Thought and goal-oriented behaviors are functions of which area of the brain?
a.
Cerebellum
c.
Prefrontal lobe
b.
Limbic system
d.
Occipital lobe
ANS:
The prefrontal area is responsible for goal-oriented behavior (i.e., ability to concentrate), short-term or recall memory, and the elaboration of thought and inhibition on the limbic (emotional) areas of the CNS. The remaining options are not involved in these functions.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 456

9.      The region responsible for the motor aspects of speech is located in the:
a.
Wernicke area in the temporal lobe
c.
Wronka area in the parietal lobe
b.
Broca area in the frontal lobe
d.
Barlow area in the occipital lobe
ANS:
Broca speech area is the only region responsible for the motor aspects of speech.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 457

10.     Parkinson and Huntington diseases are associated with defects in which area of the brain?
a.
Thalamus
c.
Cerebellum
b.
Medulla oblongata
d.
Basal ganglia
ANS:
Parkinson and Huntington diseases are conditions associated with defects of the basal ganglia. No current research supports the role of any of the other options in these diseases.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 457

11.     Maintenance of a constant internal environment and the implementation of behavioral patterns are main functions of which area of the brain?
a.
Thalamus
c.
Subthalamus
b.
Epithalamus
d.
Hypothalamus
ANS:
Hypothalamic function falls into two major areas: (1) maintenance of a constant internal environment, and (2) implementation of behavioral patterns. The remaining options do not address these functions.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 459

12.     The ability of the eyes to track moving objects through a visual field is primarily a function of which colliculi?
a.
Inferior
c.
Mid
b.
Superior
d.
Posterior
ANS:
The superior colliculi are involved with voluntary and involuntary visual motor movements (e.g., the ability of the eyes to track moving objects in the visual field). Tracking moving objects is not the primary function of the remaining options.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 459

13.     What parts of the brain mediate the expression of affect, both emotional and behavioral states?
a.
Hypothalamus and subthalamus
c.
Limbic system and prefrontal cortex
b.
Parietal and frontal lobes
d.
Basal ganglia and medulla oblongata
ANS:
Extensive connections with the limbic system and prefrontal cortex mediate the expression of affect, both emotional and behavioral states. The remaining options are not involved in these expressions.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 457

14.     Reflex activities concerned with heart rate, blood pressure, respirations, sneezing, swallowing, and coughing are controlled by which area of the brain?
a.
Pons
c.
Cerebellum
b.
Midbrain
d.
Medulla oblongata
ANS:

The medulla oblongata makes up the myelencephalon and is the lowest portion of the brainstem. Reflex activities, such as heart rate, respiration, blood pressure, coughing, sneezing, swallowing, and vomiting, are controlled only in this area.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 460

15.     From which part of the midbrain do cranial nerves V to VIII emerge?
a.
Midbrain
c.
Medulla oblongata
b.
Pons
d.
Lateral colliculi
ANS:
The nuclei of cranial nerves V through VIII (see Table 15-6 for discussion) are located only in the pons.

PTS:   1                    REF: Pages 459-460

16.     From which part of the midbrain do cranial nerves IX to XII emerge?
a.
Midbrain
c.
Medulla oblongata
b.
Pons
d.
Lateral colliculi
ANS:
The nuclei of cranial nerves IX through XII (see Table 15-6 for discussion) are located only in the medulla oblongata.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 460

17.     Which area of the brain assumes the responsibility for conscious and unconscious muscle synergy and for maintaining balance and posture?
a.
Cerebrum
c.
Diencephalon
b.
Cerebellum
d.
Brainstem
ANS:
The cerebellum is responsible for conscious and unconscious muscle synergy and for maintaining balance and posture. This role is not assumed by any of the remaining options.

PTS:   1                    REF: Page 459

18.     Which statement is true regarding upper motor neurons?
a.
Upper motor neurons directly influence muscles.
b.
They modify spinal reflex arcs.
c.
Upper motor neurons are located in the gray matter of the spinal cord.
d.
They extend their dendritic processes out of the CNS.
ANS:
Upper motor neurons (i.e., corticospinal tract) are the classification of motor pathways completely contained within the CNS. Their primary roles include directing, influencing, and modifying reflex arcs, lower-level control centers, and motor and some sensory neurons

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Question 2: General Question

NSG 6435 Week 7 Quiz/ NSG6435 Week 7 Quiz (Latest): South University (Already graded A)
NSG 6435 Week 7 Quiz/ NSG6435 Week 7 Quiz (Latest): South University (Already graded A)

Question 3: General Question

Write a 350- to 700-word paper in which you investigate the interrelationship between the
entertainment media and culture. Answer the following questions:
⦁ In what ways have various forms of entertainment media shaped American culture and its values?
⦁ Are the social influences of entertainment media mostly positive or negative? Explain.
Provide specific examples.
Conclude your paper with thoughts on whether the entertainment media are a reflection of or a catalyst for societal behaviors and attitudes.

OR

Write a 350- to 700-word pitch to either a movie or television producer. Your pitch will explain your idea for a new TV or movie program that is based on current market trends. You will need to research what the popular genres are in either movies or television and write your pitch with the intention of selling a story that falls in line with what is currently profitable.
Include an analysis discussing how current popular entertainment trends do or do not reflect American cultural values and their influence on social behavior as well.

Question 4: General Question

Strayer University, Lithonia – ACC 100Accounting Assignment 2.docx
Strayer University, Lithonia – ACC 100Accounting Assignment 2.docx

Question 5: Biology

Each essay response is required to be a minimum of 250 words. Because these essays are open-book, take the time to provide ample information, detail, and personal analysis in each essay response. While there is a minimum word requirement for each essay, there is not a maximum word limit. Feel free to elaborate as needed with relevant information to meet your own personal level of satisfaction.
1. Describe the sliding filament theory, the size principle of motor unit recruitment, and the all or none theory? When training a bodybuilder, why is an understanding of these three principles necessary and how can they be applied when designing training programs for bodybuilders?
2. The author of the textbook describes six core lifts as being necessary to include when designing a training program for a bodybuilder (squat, overhead press, chin-ups, bench press, deadlift, and bar dips). Why does the author feel that these lifts should form the foundation of a bodybuilder’s program? What advantages do these lifts offer? Do you agree with the author’s assessment that these lifts should form the foundation of a training program for bodybuilders? Why or why not?
3. Describe the factors that contribute to muscle hypertrophy. When designing a training program to optimize muscle hypertrophy, what steps can you take to make sure that each factor is accounted for?
4. What style of periodization do you feel would be best for optimizing a bodybuilder’s physique? Defend your answer.
5. Briefly describe the variables that contribute to a bodybuilder’s ability to recover from training. What steps should be taken by a trainer to ensure that optimal recovery is achieved?

Question 6: Biology

You are working with an amateur bodybuilder who is 12 months out from a bodybuilding competition. Design a year-long periodized training program for the athlete with the objective of optimizing the client’s physique at the time of the competition. The training program should include the following:
A list of assessments to be performed at the onset of the training program
A warm-up and cool down for each training day
A detailed year-long periodized training program including specific exercises, sets, repetitions, suggested rest times, etc. The program should include a Foundational Training phase, a Hypertrophy phase, and a Cutting phase.
An explanation as to why you made your recommendations for each phase of training.
Nutrition and supplement recommendations to support the bodybuilder during each phase of training.

Question 7: Biology

Create a video or script demonstrating your understanding of Strength and Conditioning training. The video or script should be completed within the following guidelines:
1. Introduce yourself by name, school, or association that you work for, etc.
2. Identify the athlete and sport you are coaching and the athlete’s position in the training cycle.
3. Introduce the layout of the training program and then begin training. (NOTE: Training should be specific for the athlete’s needs.)
4. Walkthrough training techniques with both verbal explanation and physical demonstration.
5. Include both a warm-up and cool-down routine with both verbal explanation and physical demonstration.
OPTION 2: Training Script
If you are unable to create a video demonstrating your understanding of Strength and Conditioning training, you will need to write a script for the video you would produce if you had the resources. Requirements for the script:
1. The script should be 1500+ words typed and submitted in a Word (.DOC) or PDF format. For ease of review, please used Size 12 font in Black.
2. The format should be easily readable. The reviewer should be able to read your script and get a mental image of what is trying to be relayed. See sample play scripts or movie scripts for sample formats.
3. Since you will not have visual examples, the script will need to convey your vision. Be detailed but concise.

Question 8: Biology

Design year-long training programs for one of the athletes below. Design off-season, pre-season, early season, and competitive season workouts. Include weight training, plyometrics, endurance, and flexibility training.
Choose one of the following:
A. High school football player (specify position)
B. College basketball player (specify position)
C. Minor league baseball player (specify position)
Provide details for the type of exercise, duration, sets, reps, rest intervals, and so on. A coach or athlete should be able to take your program and put it into practice without having to contact you for clarity of further explanation. Provide a rationale for your recommendations. For each season of each 1-year training program, you will include a ONE WEEK ‘example’ of what you would focus on with your client in that given season. For example, in a given week, you will show a proper strength training program for Monday, Wednesday, Friday and will show Plyometrics, agility, and speed on Tuesday/Thursday and you will provide the full exercise program for that given period of time.
⦁ Off-Season: 1-week’ sample’ program
⦁ Pre Season: 1-week ‘sample’ program
⦁ Early Season: 1-week ‘sample’ program
⦁ Competitive Season: 1-week ‘sample’ program
⦁ Post Season: 1-week ‘sample’ program
You will also provide a rationale/explanation regarding your client’s goals for each season and how the programming and training protocol you provided will most appropriately and effectively assist the client in achieving their goals for the following season.

You will provide all of the necessary aspects of your clients’ programming including:
⦁ Initial goals and assessments
⦁ Proper warm-up and cool down for each training day.
⦁ Season appropriate training: exercise prescription, sets, reps and intensity
⦁ Re-assess your client’s progress and update their goals at the beginning of each season in his or her one-year program

Question 9: Biology

Write a 250-word essay response to the following question.
Describe the stretch-shortening cycle and how it relates to exercise.
Analyze two athletes performing a power clean and a power snatch. Do a detailed technical analysis of each lift. List the critical elements of each lift and note any technique deviations.
Pick an athlete and conduct a series of tests appropriate for their sport. What tests did you conduct and what were the results? What do the results tell you about your athlete? What goals will be set for the next testing period?
Give an example of a sports athlete that utilizes each of the three major energy pathways. How long does the body utilize each pathway as its main energy source?

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Question 10: Biology

5 Short Answer Questions: 1. Discuss the three E’s of nutrition. Explain how PDIs fit into the three E’s of nutrition. 2. Describe the significance of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins on health and performance? What are the general recommendations for each macronutrient intake? How do body type, health status, and performance goals influence these recommendations? 3. Explain the difference between micronutrients and macronutrients. What role do micronutrients play in maintaining and optimizing health and performance? What are the common micronutrient deficiencies seen in athletes? 4. Describe the path of food through the digestive system and explain each organ's role in the digestive process. What are some factors that influence digestion? 5. Perform a body composition assessment on a subject using one of the methods outlined in Unit 14. Discuss the methodology you used, including possible deviations that could have occurred during testing. Then identify the somatotype of your subject and provide a macronutrient split recommendation for your subject based on his/her somatotype. Explain why you feel that the macronutrient split you provided is appropriate for your client.

Question 11: Biology

For this case study, you ideally will need to recruit a healthy adult competitive athlete. This person can be a recreational sports athlete, college athlete, or other type of active athlete. Alternatively, you can even use yourself. Note that this is just an academic exercise, so the person you are working with does not need to follow the program.
Go through Steps 1 to 8 from Unit 17, provided below, and develop nutritional guidelines for your subject, dependent on the season that he/she is in. Then provide a discussion as to why you made your recommendations.
Show all calculations that may apply, using the methods in the course textbook related to the Steps. Make note of the person’s age, gender, sport, and athletic season.
Step 1: Determine body composition.
Step 2: Determine daily caloric expenditure range for training days and non-training days and for competition days.
Step 3: Determine the bioenergetics the sport primarily demands for peak athletic performance; Athlete- Type; Anaerobic – Immediate Energy System; Anaerobic Glycolytic; Anaerobic Glycolytic – Oxidative Glycolytic; and Oxidative. Some examples of sports are included below.
Step 4: Determine daily protein intake estimate and the foods and supplements to achieve it. Remember from your lessons that protein requirements can differ among different Athlete-Types and among individual athletes. This gives a scientific reason for making protein intake a priority for sports nutrition programs, in addition to other factors.
Step 5: Determine daily carbohydrate estimate and the foods and supplements to achieve it. Remember to plan for carbohydrate beverage intake before, during, and after practice and for sports events as appropriate. Modulate carbohydrate type and amount with meals and snacks to meet specific nutrition goals.
Step 6: Determine fat (essential fatty acids) intake estimate and plan, and select foods and cooking methods to achieve it. Keeping fat intake under 30 percent of total daily calories will be an ongoing skill to master. For certain sports, maintaining low fat intake during the season—between 15 and 20 percent of total daily calories—can be challenging and requires extra effort to make sure athletes are ingesting adequate amounts of the essential fatty acids: linoleic and alpha-pnolenic acids. Add healthy sources of essential fatty acids in addition to EPA and DHA as required for health.
Step 7: Maintain proper fluid intake estimate to meet daily requirements, as determined by the amount of physical activity, environmental factors, and specific athletic training, performance, and health needs.
Step 8: Determine the needs for using special sports nutrition and dietary supplement products.

Question 12: Biology

NURS 6531 Midterm Exam  Latest Version Walden University

Question 13: Biology

Nurs 6512 Final Latest Version Walden University

Question 14: Biology

Nurs 6512 Midterm   Latest Version Walden University

Question 15: Business

One way to be exposed to another culture is by examining the foods typical of that culture. In this exercise, you will need to create a limited guide to ethnic dining in your city or area. The finished guide will be descriptive in nature; it is not meant to be a rating guide.Purpose: The purpose of this exercise is to allow those students who have had only minimal exposure to cultural differences an opportunity to experience those differences through the common element of food. Students will create a basic ethnic dining guide for restaurants in their area. The guide is not meant to be a rating guide. It is simply meant to be an informative guide.
Instructions

Activities
⦁ Identify ethnic dining categories for inclusion in your guide. Once you have identified categories for your area, make a list of restaurants for each category.
⦁ You will need to create a data collection form so that the same information is collected from each restaurant. For example, you will want to include the name, address, and phone number for each restaurant. Think of other information that would be helpful.
⦁ Choose and complete the assignment for three of the restaurants from the list you have generated in activity One. Consider visiting an assortment of ethnic restaurants. If your budget allows, eat at a few of the restaurants in addition to collecting the information. After you have all the information, review and compare your findings.
⦁ Was there a meal or type of food that you particularly liked? Disliked? Which type of ethnic restaurant seemed most foreign to you? Why do you think that was?

Question 16: Business

Imagine that you have been appointed as the Chief Compliance Officer for “NIKE”
Create a four to six (4-6) slide PowerPoint presentation in which you:

⦁ Summarize your chosen company’s Supplier Code of Conduct information
⦁ In your own words, explain how each aspect of your Supplier Code of Conduct is committed to ethical business practices and society social responsibility.
⦁ Discuss your company’s stance on each of the following areas:
a. Empowering Workers
b. Labor and Human Rights
c. Health and Safety
d. The Environment
e. Accountability
⦁ Identify the key ways that your company’s Code of Conduct has changed in recent years (i.e. have there been any improvements made).
⦁ Examine the manner in which your company’s Supplier Code of Conduct helps the organization operate as a socially responsible organization.
⦁ Provide detailed speaker notes of what you would say if you were delivering the presentation.

Question 17: Business

QSO 500 Milestone One Guidelines and Rubric
Overview: In this final project, you will create a research report based on the application of action research processes for developing problem solving strategies. In designing the report, you will follow the best practices for ethical research. You will utilize the research process to inform decisions in your professional life and as a framework for approaching research projects in other courses in your program. The final product will be a comprehensive research report using the five-step research process (identify the problem; understand the theoretical framework of the problem; design the research study; collect, explain, and analyze the data; report the results; and make conclusions and recommendations).
For Milestone One, submit a draft of your business problem and literature review. Using the problem you identified in your Module One journal and the feedback you received, describe the research problem including the context in which it exists. Using the problem statement, describe the stakeholders and research objective. Based on the research objective, develop a research question that clearly and concisely articulates in one sentence the purpose of the study. Consider the key real or potential ethical issues or challenges of the study.
After describing your business problem and research question, prepare a comprehensive literature review that carefully and thoughtfully examines the research problem from a scholarly perspective using a minimum of seven quality sources. A minimum of three of the sources must be selected from scholarly, peer-reviewed journals. Other quality sources can be professional publications or magazines, internal corporate publications such as annual reports or white papers, or established news sources.
Prompt: Refer to the given case study Maruti Suzuki India: Defending Market Leadership in the A-Segment and select a data-driven business problem that can be addressed using action research to be the basis for your research report. Prepare a comprehensive literature review that carefully and thoughtfully examines the research problem from a scholarly perspective using a minimum of seven quality sources. A minimum of three of the sources must be selected from scholarly, peer-reviewed journals. Other quality sources can be from professional publications or magazines, internal corporate publications such as annual reports or white papers, or established news sources.
Specifically the following critical elements must be addressed:
Business Problem: Refer to the given case study and select a data-driven business problem that can be addressed using action research to be the basis for your research report.
A. Describe the research problem, including the context in which it exists. In other words, what caused or precipitated this problem? What has already been done to address it?
B. Describe the key stakeholders (or potential stakeholders) of your business problem. In other words, who are the people who have the most to gain or lose from a decision?
C. Explain the research objective. How would it benefit the stakeholder to know the results?
D. Develop a research question based on the research objective that clearly and concisely articulates in one sentence the purpose of the study.
E. Discuss the key real or potential ethical issues or challenges of the study. Consider the following: How will data be collected and protected? How will human subjects be used, treated, and protected?
Literature Review:
A. Explain the theories that best ground your organizational problem. Support your explanation with specific examples. These theories might be management, behavioral, social, and/or business related.
B. Discuss the bias and limitations present in the relevant literature and the potential impact these may have on your research.
C. Summarize at least one other research study that has faced this challenge that could potentially be replicated and applied to your research study.
D. From the literature, analyze at least one other organization that has faced similar problems, explaining what they have done to address the problem.
Rubric
Guidelines for Submission: Your milestone must be submitted as a 5- to 6-page Microsoft Word document with double spacing, 12-point Times New Roman font, one-inch margins, and at least seven sources cited in APA format.
Critical Elements
Proficient (100%)
Needs Improvement (75%)
Not Evident (0%)
Value
Business Problem: Research Problem
Describes the research problem, including the context in which it exists
Describes the research problem, but description is cursory or does not include the context in which the problem exists
Does not describe the research problem
9
Business Problem: Stakeholders
Describes all key stakeholders of the business problem
Describes the stakeholders of the business problem, but description is cursory or neglects to address all key stakeholders
Does not describe the stakeholders of the business problem
9
Business Problem: Research Objective
Explains the research objective, including how this research would benefit the stakeholder
Explains the research objective, but explanation is cursory or does not show how this research would benefit the stakeholder
Does not explain the research objective
9
Business Problem: Research Question
Develops a research question based on the research objective that clearly and concisely articulates in one sentence the purpose of the study
Develops a research question based on the research objective, but it does not clearly or concisely articulate in one sentence the purpose of the study
Does not develop a research question based on the research objective
Business Problem: Ethical Issues
Discusses all key real or potential ethical issues or challenges of the study
Discusses real or potential ethical issues or challenges of the study, but discussion is cursory, contains issues of clarity, or neglects to address key ethical issues
Does not discuss real or potential ethical issues or challenges of the study
12
Literature Review: Theories
Explains the theories that best ground the organizational problem with support from specific examples
Explains the theories that best ground the organizational problem, but explanation is cursory or not supported with specific examples
Does not explain the theories that best ground the organizational problem
12
Literature Review: Bias and Limitations
Discusses the bias and limitations present in the relevant literature, including the potential impact on research
Discusses the bias and limitations present in the relevant literature, but discussion contains issues of clarity or does not address the potential impact on research
Does not discuss the bias and limitations present in the relevant literature
12
Literature Review: Other Research Study
Summarizes another research study that has faced this challenge that could potentially be replicated and applied to your research study
Summarizes another research study that has faced this challenge that could potentially be replicated and applied to your research study, but summary is cursory or contains inaccuracies
Does not summarize another research study that has faced this challenge that could potentially be replicated
12
Literature Review: Other Organization
Analyzes another organization that has faced similar problems, including an explanation of what was done to address the problem
Analyzes another organization that has faced similar problems, but analysis is cursory or does not explain what was done to address the problem
Does not analyze another organization that has faced similar problems
12
Articulation of Response
Submission has no major errors related to citations, grammar, spelling, syntax, or organization
Submission has major errors related to citations, grammar, spelling, syntax, or organization that negatively impact readability and articulation of main ideas
Submission has critical errors related to citations, grammar, spelling, syntax, or organization that prevent understanding of ideas
4
Total
100%

Question 18: Business

You are a first-year Human Resource Specialist at “State of Estates” estate planning firm. Norman is the mid-level manager responsible for the southern regional office. The following events have recently occurred in Norman’s office:
⦁ Ken, an estate planner in Norman’s office, recently adopted a baby with his wife. He applied for 12-week family leave, but was denied by Norman because his wife did not physically give birth. The corporate human resource department (where you work) was not given notice of this decision.
⦁ June, part of the full-time housekeeping staff, has been asking other employees if they would like to join a union. There are currently no unions within the organization.
⦁ Maria is concerned about ladders that are placed around the office for remodeling. Norman said not to worry, and that there are no official policies for safety in an office setting.

Prepare a 15- to 20-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation with speaker notes responding to Norman from a Human Resource standpoint. The video or presentation should address the following topics:
⦁ An overview of the FMLA and its key provisions relating to Ken.
⦁ Recommended resolution for Ken’s situation (both for Ken as an employee and as a company handling these requests moving forward).
⦁ An overview of key labor laws to briefly educate Norman on employee rights in unionizing.
⦁ A brief discussion of OSHA and possible application to Norman’s office setting.

Format your presentation consistent with APA guidelines.

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Question 19: Business

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
⦁  Discuss an element of the FSLA, and give an example of how it is enforced. Include who is and who is not exempt from this element’s regulation.

Question 20: Business

Calculations: Calculate the client’s target heart rate using the Karvonen formula.

Training Program: Design
a full 12-week periodized training program for the client described in the Client Profile. Be very specific as you design the training program. This is an opportunity for you to demonstrate your full comprehension of the information and concepts discussed throughout the course. List the types of exercise, duration, sets, reps, rest intervals, and so on.
Include the following in your case study submission:
⦁ A description of your professional responsibilities as discussed in the stages of the drawing-in process (Unit 12)
⦁ Discussion of any fitness tests, methods of evaluation, and data collection used to assess and evaluate the client’s needs
⦁ Specific conditions that you have identified in the client profile
⦁ A fully detailed 12-week comprehensive and periodized training program including specific exercises, sets, repetitions, suggested rest times, etc. Use an integrated approach in your program recommendations.
⦁ Specific and detailed nutritional strategies and an explanation as to how the strategies will assist the client in meeting energy needs
⦁ Explanation for your chosen assessment, programming, and nutritional recommendations. (Be sure to reference course concepts when discussing rationale for your recommendations.
Keep in mind that a client should be able to take your program and put it into practice without having to contact you to clarify what you intended by your recommendations or to explain parts of your program.
Don’t forget your explanation for WHY you listed and recommended what you did. Reference the concepts and theories covered in the course. Be sure to address why the program and exercises recommended are appropriate for the specific client given the client’s history, current abilities, and intended goal(s). For example: if you are developing a program for a beginner client without any resistance training experience, explain how your program addresses the lack of experience, initial need for foundational development, process by which you would safely progress the client, etc. Tying your program to course concepts is a critical component of your case study.

Review the Client Profile below.
Client Profile: Peter Parker
Age: 28
Gender: Male
Resting Heart Rate: 80 bpm
Height: 6’4″
Weight: 252 lb
Body Fat Percentage: 29%
Background and Goals: Peter is a 28-year-old civil servant with a 9-to-5 desk job. He is 6’4″ tall and weighs 252 lb. He played football and basketball in high school and some intramural sports in college, but has not worked out or been very active since. His diet is sporadic and consists of mostly processed and prepackaged foods that are quick and easy to prepare. Peter’s goals are to lose weight, tone his body, and lead a healthier lifestyle. Based on Peter’s current lifestyle and existing exercise and nutrition habits, design a 12-week progressive training program to help him best achieve his goals.

Question 21: Economics

One of the first lessons you will learn in Economics is that in order to do something, or buy something, it often means you cannot do or have something else.  Life is full of choices and tradeoffs:   “You cannot have your cake and eat it too,” or ” There is no such thing as a free lunch.”  What is this course costing you?  What is your opportunity cost to take this course? As an introductory assignment, answer each of these in the Discussions.
1) Write about what you could be doing instead of taking this course.   It could be something else right at this minute. It could be going on vacation (or buying gas) with the tuition and book money, or it could be another class that conflicted with this, and
(2) Describe a choice you have had to make recently that involved make a choice between 2 alternatives not involving this course, and which way you decided to go.  This could be going out to dine or buying gas, buying food rather than new clothes, or even a career change.

Question 22: Education

American Public University SEJPME Final Exam
SEJPME Final Exam | Complete Solution | Scored 92%
1) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially atomic
battlefield? [objective81]
vertical envelopment
beachhead assault
tentative landings
fleet dispersion

2) Which of the following is the Coast Guard motto? [objective88]
“Semper Fideles”
“Semper Paratus”
“Anchors Aweigh”

3) The following Reserve Components have both a Federal (Title 10) mission and a State (Title 32)
mission, and therefore can be used to enforce State laws. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Air National Guard and Army National Guard
Army Reserve and Army National Guard
Navy Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve
Air Reserve and Air National Guard
4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council?
[objective63] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National
Intelligence
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense
Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security
5) During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward the stopping old
rivalries and conflicts? [objective79] [Remediation Accessed :N]
the end of the Cold War
the rise of global terrorism
the breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states
the collapse of the Warsaw Pact

6) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.) [objective72] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
to organize forces
to train forces
to retain forces
to equip forces

7) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [objective58] [Remediation Accessed :N]
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
report the problem to the commanding officer
define the problem
draft an action plan

8) Regardless of when or where employed, the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. values,
the standards for the profession of arms, and _____. [objective96] [Remediation Accessed :N]
uniformed code of military justice
constitutional principles
Geneva convention
military law

9) Which reserve mobilization authority provides the President a means to activate, without a declaration of
national emergency, not more than 200,000 reservists for not more than 365 days to meet the support
requirements of any operational mission? [objective90]
selective mobilization (SM)
SECDEF call-up (SCU)
presidential reserve call-up (PRC)
partial mobilization (PM)

10) There are eight distinct domains within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program. This one refers to the
ability to physically accomplish all aspects of the mission while remaining healthy and uninjured.
[objective105]
Environmental Fitness
Behavioral Fitness
Social Fitness
Physical Fitness

11) The term “scuttlebutt” is a Navy word referring to the kitchens of the ship. [objective85]
True
False

12) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard?
[objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship
maritime safety
maritime security

13) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far
greater extent than surface forces can. [objective76]
True
False

14) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the
following? (Select all that apply.) [objective70] [Remediation Accessed :N]
compromise
communication
consensus
coordination

15) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces. [objective91]
Adaptability
Transformation
Predictability
Training

16) Leaders at all levels should be vigilant and consistent in the prevention, identification, and fraud, waste,
and abuse (FWA). [objective102]
False
True

17) Which of the following are among Marine Corps customs, courtesies and traditions? (Select all that
apply.) [objective86]
addressing enlisted Marines
Marine Corps birthday ball
hail and farewell
Dining-In and Mess Night

18) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty and reserve
Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed. [objective75]
True
False

19) Leaders should look for which of the following warning signs that are suggestive of trauma
spectrum disorders? [objective103] [Remediation Accessed :N]
nightmares
all of the answers are correct
memory loss
depression

20) Special Operations Forces are a valuable asset for the joint planner; however, they comprise only a small
part of the total force, a little over _____ percent of the total force. [objective95]
15
2
5
10

21) The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and
then to the _____. [objective60]
combatant commanders via the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the combatant commanders
Service chiefs via the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

22) Risk assessment, risk management, and recommending mitigating measures to the commander or
others, are all steps that must be taken in order to properly mitigate risk. [objective100]
False
True

23) The Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower is the application of maritime forces to
support the United States’ Security Strategy. [objective74] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True

24) _____ are operations require independent actions involving a high degree of professionalism, selfdiscipline,
flexibility, patience, and tact. [objective101]
Support for civil authorities
Major combat operations
Humanitarian assistance operations
Peacekeeping operations

25) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces in
coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is taught, believed,
and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [objective59] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Operational design
Strategic direction
Law of warfare
Joint doctrine

26) Units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the
commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war are known as _____ teams.
[objective94]
civil affairs
foreign area officers
special forces
political advisors

27) Who is considered the “Father of the Coast Guard?” [objective83]
Douglas Munro
Ida Lewis
Sumner Kimball
Alexander Hamilton

28) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a service of the
Navy? (Select all that apply.) [objective78] [Remediation Accessed :N]
when directed by the President
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war

29) National Security Agency (NSA) provides the following support: (Select all that apply.)
[objective57] [Remediation Accessed :N]
signals intelligence
timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence
solutions, products, and services
information systems security

30) Joint _____ prepares individual members and units of the Armed Forces to field a joint force that
integrates service capabilities in order to execute assigned missions. [objective97] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
force development
force planning
force training
doctrine

31) Which of the following would be initiated into the “Top 3”? [objective87]
Sgt. Maj.
Master Sgt.
Col.

32) What are the key criticisms of the interagency process? (Select all that apply.) [objective62]
no one is in charge
it can be cumbersome
it is often time-consuming
it is rarely effective

33) The Department of State assigns a ______ to combatant commanders, and increasingly to Join
Task Force commanders, to provide foreign policy perspective and to establish linkage with U.S.
embassies in the area of responsibility or joint operations area and the Department of State.
[objective64] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Mission (COM)
Political Advisor (POLAD)
Liaison Officer (LNO)
Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)

34) _____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving
organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving
authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all
aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the
command.
Combatant Command (COCOM)
Administrative Control (ADCON)
Operational Control (OPCON)
Tactical Control (TACON)

35) A group or person is honor-bound to do which of the following upon receiving a limerick at mess?
[objective84] [Remediation Accessed :N]
return the embarrassment in kind
refute the remark prior to the close of the dinner hour
ignore it as any self-generated entertainment

36) The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which
of the following? [objective73]
Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Balkans, Middle East, Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Europe, Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan

37) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future will find
themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [objective98]
segregated
ill-prepared
dynamic
predictable

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38) Because not every nation will agree with proposed coalition actions, what is an acceptable workarounds
to accomplish the mission without offending other nations? [objective71] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Rotating coalition partners through lead roles to promote their own political agendas
Establish a basis for coalition members to easily accept and advocate preferred coalition options
Openly show favoritism towards one nation over another nation
Establish temporary consensus through personal and professional relationships

39) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part
of the Armed Forces of the United States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
30 percent
40 percent

40) Reconnaissance and surveillance actions normally conducted in a clandestine or covert manner to
collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance, employing military capabilities not
normally found in conventional forces are called _____. These actions acquire information concerning
the capabilities, intentions and activities of an enemy. [objective93] [Remediation Accessed :N]
foreign internal defense
strategic reporting
unconventional warfare
special reconnaissance

41) Unlike the military, most U.S. Government agencies and nongovernmental organizations are _____
to create separate staffs at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels, with the result that Joint Task
Force personnel interface with individuals who are coordinating their organization’s activities at more
than one level. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
not equipped and organized
usually willing, but hesitant
not educated and trained
not eager

42) Joint force commanders must perform an analysis of the adversary, known as a _____, to know
what actions will be an effective deterrent. This continuous analytical process is used by joint
intelligence organizations to produce intelligence estimates and other intelligence products in support
of the commander’s decision-making process. [objective67] [Remediation Accessed :N]
joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield
commander’s estimate
joint intelligence preparation of the operational environment
national intelligence estimate

43) Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? (Select all that apply.) [objective80]
escort carriers
anti-submarine weapons
direction-finding equipment
long-range reconnaissance planes
destroyers equipped with advanced sonars

44) Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. [objective99]
[Remediation Accessed :N]
delegation of authority
experience
maturity
rank

45) The complexity and challenges associated with planning for and executing an operation includes:
(Select all that apply). [objective66] [Remediation Accessed :N]
interagency
intergovernmental
multinational partners
military

46) The DoD Reorganization Act of 1958 _____. [objective56] [Remediation Accessed :N]
eliminated the position of Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
separated the Unified/Specified Commands from the Military Departments
placed the Services directly under the President
combined the Unified/Specified Commands during times of war

47) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces.
[objective104]
True
False

48) Which of the following represent highlights of Air Force history? [objective82]
design of a doctrine of strategic bombing and one of organizational independence
expansion into space
all of the answers are correct
development of the Strategic Air Command

49) Factors that enhance interoperability are _____. [objective69] [Remediation Accessed :N]
varying levels of experience among coalition partners
conflicting personalities
a command atmosphere that permits positive criticism and reward the sharing of information
lack of coalition security teams

50) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to prepare clear, uncomplicated plans and
concise orders to ensure thorough understanding. [objective68] [Remediation Accessed :N]
security
simplicity
clarity
objective

1) The end strength of the U.S. Coast Guard Reserve is _____ percent of the total Coast
Guard. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
10
20
50
30

2) The National Security Council comprises of which three levels of formal interagency
committees for coordination and making decision on national security issues? [objective63]
principals, deputies, and interagency policy
principals, deputies, and interagency working group
executive, deputies, and interagency coordination
strategic, operational, and tactical

3) By the time of the Mexican-American War, U.S. soldiers were technologically equivalent to those
of Europe due to advances in_____. [objective79]
standardization of the potency of field artillery
mobility, flexibility, and potency of field artillery
training and standardization

4) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation. [objective72]
False
True

5) Which of the following are keys to success in joint assignments? (Select all that apply.)
[objective58]
Knowing how to solve problems
Checking the work of members from other Services
Knowing the people around you
Having competence in your area of the Service

6) The term _____ refers to the aggregate of features and traits that form the individual nature of a
person. In the context of the profession of arms, it entails moral and ethical adherence to our
values. It is at the heart of the relationship of the profession with the American people, and to each
other. [objective96]
leadership
competence
character
justice

7) The abilities of the Coast Guard to operate in severe weather conditions, 24 hours a day,
year round, are called? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Search and Rescue missions
Marine Safety missions
Defense Readiness missions
Deepwater missions

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8) Factors affecting military capabilities of nations include _____. [objective70]
the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
leader development and national interests
nongovernmental organizations (NGOs)
religion and culture

9) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically. [objective103]
False
True

10) These capabilities comprise the core of U.S. maritime power and reflect an increase in
emphasis on those activities that prevent war and build partnerships: [objective74]
forward presence, deterrence, sea control, power projection, maritime security, humanitarian
assistance and disaster response (HA/DR)
readiness, preparedness, technical prowess, and training
peacekeeping and contingency operations
forward presence, deterrence, sea control

11) The _____ is the primary vehicle through which the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
(CJCS) exercises responsibility to provide for the preparation of joint operation plans. It provides
guidance and direction from the CJCS to the combatant commanders and the Service chiefs for
preparation of contingency plans. [objective59]
Unified Command Plan
Guidance for Employment of the Force
National Military Strategy
Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan

12) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of
the U.S. Navy? [objective78]
True
False

13) Which branch of the armed forces operates within the Department of Homeland Security?
[objective57]
Navy
Army
Coast Guard
Air Force
Marines
None of the branches

14) U.S. Law, Title 10, USC Section 153, gives the _____ authority regarding joint force
development, specifically providing authority to develop doctrine for the joint employment of the
Armed Forces, and to formulate policies for the joint training of the Armed Forces to include
policies for the military education and training of members of the Armed Forces. [objective97]
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Secretary of Defense
Service Chiefs
Joint Chiefs of Staff

15) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and
collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI)
representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. [objective64]
JIACG
HAST
CMOC
POLAD

16) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell. [objective84]
True
False

17) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of
multinational forces. [objective71]
Liaison network, coordination centers
Rationalization, training
Interoperability, liaison network
Training, interoperability

18) There are a total of how many Reserve Components in the Armed Forces of the United
States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
6
5
8
7

19) Special operations forces are organized under the _____, a functional unified command
responsible for providing mission capable special operations forces to the geographic combatant
commanders. [objective93]
United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM)
United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM)
United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)
United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM)

20) Nongovernmental organizations are usually willing to quickly align themselves with
intervening military forces in order to ensure their ability to achieve their objectives and for
their physical security. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True

21) Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve and involve the appearance of a credible
military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to
U.S. interests are known as _____ operations. [objective67]
enforcement
nation assistance
economy of force
show of force

22) The foremost value of joint force leaders is _____. [objective99]
physical courage
integrity
experience
competence

23) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their
third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges. [objective66]
rotation
transition
situational awareness
influence

24) Under the U.S. Constitution, the Congress has the power to _____. [objective56]
provide tanks and other equipment of war for Canada and Mexico
declare war, support allied armies, and provide ships for allied navies
close the U.S. borders
declare war, raise and support Armies, provide and support a Navy, make rules for the
government and regulation of the land and naval forces

25) Security cooperation activities include _____. [objective69]
foreign military training
individual training exercises
domestic community support
restricted navigational exercises

26) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to concentrate the effects of combat
power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. [objective68]
offensive
mass
objective
maneuver
Pre Test
Here is the test result.Correct answers are shown by * next to the choice or given below the question.
The highlighted questions are the questions you have missed.
Remediation Accessed shows whether you accessed those links.’N’ represents links not visited and ‘Y’
represents visited links.
Back to Status page
contains 50 Questions

1) The cornerstone of ARSOAC, the _____, is organized into four like battalions and
provides nighttime, all-weather, medium range insertion, extraction, and resupply
capability in hostile or denied areas. [Remediation Accessed :N]
106th Special Operations Helicopter Regiment
101st Airborne Division (Air Assault)
160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment (correct)
3rd Combat Aviation Brigade

2) To accomplish U.S. objectives, the national security strategy guides the coordination of
the instruments of national power which include _____. (Select all that apply.)
[Remediation Accessed :N]
information (correct)
economics (correct)
diplomacy (correct)
the military (correct)

3) Today, the U.S. and its partners find themselves in an era in which they are unlikely to be fully at
war or fully at peace.
False
True (correct)

4) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of
Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint
Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do
not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which
it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required. [Remediation Accessed :N]
Service component command
combatant command
joint task force (correct)
subordinate unified command

5) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____
and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences
– both positive and negative.
critically think about (correct)
acknowledge our own prejudice
seek out professional assistance
know all of the facts

6) Special operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using
specialized tactics and equipment to achieve _____ objectives. [Remediation Accessed :N]
tactical
insignificant
strategic or operational (correct)
intermediate

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7) What are the peacetime roles of the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation
Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship around the U.S. and U.S. territories
maritime stewardship around the globe (correct)
maritime safety (correct)
maritime security (correct)

8) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare (correct)
a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17 (correct)
clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation

9) The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy (correct)

10) Key considerations involved in planning and conducting multinational operations are affected
by _____.
motives and values of the organization’s members (correct)
media influence
non-military organizations
financial resource constraints

11) The Coast Guard was officially created in 1915 when which two services were combined?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
Steamboat Inspection Service
Revenue Cutter Service (correct)
Life-Saving Service (correct)
Bureau of Navigation

12) Leaders at all levels must understand, establish, and support a Total Force Fitness program
within their organizations.
True (correct)
False

13) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a
service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war (correct)
when directed by the President (correct)

14) Through which of the following strategies has the Navy adopted, which advanced the concept
of combat operations in littoral waters?
“From the Sea” and later “Forward from the Sea” (correct)
Sea power concept
U.S. Containment Policy

15) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what
point in the planning process?
late in the planning process
after all of the planning is completed
somewhere – early, mid, or later – as long as they are included
early in the planning process (correct)

16) Simultaneous and parallel operations are the most effective use of aerospace power in
producing which of the following?
shock, confusion, and paralysis within the adversary’s system (correct)
initiative, situational responsiveness, and tactical flexibility
confusion, situational responsiveness, and paralysis within the adversary’s system

17) Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media?
[Remediation Accessed :N]
espionage
all of the answers are correct (correct)
network security intrusions
personal identity theft and impersonation
none of the choices are correct

18) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
the Army National Guard
the Army Reserve
none of the answers are correct
both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve (correct)

19) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an
integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent (correct)
60 percent
40 percent
30 percent

20) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces
in coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is
taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Strategic direction
Operational design
Joint doctrine (correct)
Law of warfare

21) Use of joint capabilities in _____ helps shape the operational environment and keeps the
day-to-day tensions between nations and groups below the threshold of armed conflict, while
maintaining U.S. global influence. [Remediation Accessed :N]
strikes and raids
military engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence activities (correct)
major combat operations
forcible entry operations

22) In crisis response and limited contingency operations, having an understanding of the
political objective helps to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
prevent the commander from having to explain the plan to the President
avoid actions that may have adverse effects (correct)
assure friends and allies and dissuade adversaries
ensure the integration and synchronization of maneuver and interdiction

23) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell.
True (correct)
False

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24) It is imperative that the combatant commander or Joint Task Force commander
coordinate closely with the ______ on military activities in a particular country because,
while not authorized to command military forces, he or she can deny military actions.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Foreign Policy Advisor
National Security Advisor
Ambassador (correct)
Secretary of State

25) Which core value does the following tenet represent: Make decisions in the best interest
of the Navy and the nation, without regard to personal consequences? [Remediation
Accessed :N]
honor
commitment
courage (correct)

26) Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating
well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in
building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service.
resilience (correct)
opposition
vulnerability
indifference

27) The _____ is the principal forum to advise the President with respect to the integration of
domestic, foreign, and military policies relating to national security and for coordinating these
policies among various government agencies.
National Security Council (correct)
Homeland Security Council
Foreign Affairs Council
National Economic Council

28) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty
and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed.
True (correct)
False

29) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
report the problem to the commanding officer
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
draft an action plan
define the problem (correct)

30) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially
atomic battlefield? [Remediation Accessed :N]
fleet dispersion
tentative landings
vertical envelopment (correct)
beachhead assault

31) The Joint Task Force (JTF) commander cannot dictate cooperation among other
governmental agencies, intergovernmental organizations, and nongovernmental
organizations. In the absence of a formal command structure, JTFs are required to build
consensus to achieve _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
synchronization
unity of effort (correct)
command and control authority
unity of command

32) What is the purpose of sending someone to the Grog Bowl?
as punishment for violating the rules of the mess (correct)
as a reward for attendance
recognition for a job well done

33) Recognizing potentially hazardous or negative situations in advance is crucial to being
prepared to prevent them from occurring to begin with. With experience and maturity, the ability to
instinctually recognize signs of potential trouble increases.
True (correct)
False

34) To the greatest extent possible coalition members should _____.
consider the ramifications of labeling information about operational areas as intelligence (correct)
prevent the sharing of relevant intelligence about the situation and adversary
occasionally seek the necessary authorization for foreign disclosure of information
disseminate information freely without a tear line

35) Within the joint environment, cooperation requires team players, and the willingness to
share _____ with all team members. [Remediation Accessed :N]
ideas
credit (correct)
effort
workload

36) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Transformation
Training
Adaptability
Predictability (correct)

37) A _____ is the principal joint Special Operations Forces organization tasked to meet all
special operations requirements in major operations, campaigns, or a contingency.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Civil-Military Operations Center (CMOC)
Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF)
Special Operations Joint Task Force (SOJTF) (correct)
Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)

38) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation.
False
True (correct)

39) Historically, the practice of keeping pets onboard may have started when cats were brought
onboard to combat the rat population, the practice continued to help keep the crew’s morale high.
False
True (correct)

40) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically.
False
True (correct)

41) While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you
are unsure of an enlisted Marine’s name or grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as, “Good morning,
Sir,” in the case of an officer.
False
True (correct)

42) What WWII conference established the Joint Chief of Staff? [Remediation Accessed :N]
First Moscow Conference (RIVIERA)
U.S.-British Staff Conference (ABC-1)
First Washington Conference (ARCADIA) (correct)
Casablanca Conference (SYMBOL)

43) Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that
apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
training of foreign militaries (correct)
cyberspace operations
major combat operations (correct)
humanitarian assistance (correct)

44) The joint force commander has the operational authority and responsibility to tailor forces for
the mission at hand, selecting those that most effectively and efficiently ensure success.
False
True (correct)

45) The U.S. Army was originally formed to fight in which war?
World War II (correct)
Mexican-American War
World War I
American Civil War

46) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on
their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
transition
rotation (correct)
situational awareness
influence

47) When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken
to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
only validate cross-cultural communications skills of select coalition partners
ensure that contracted linguists do not jeopardize operations through espionage (correct)
utilize contracted linguists with general knowledge of some areas but no specific knowledge of
any one location
ensure that contracted linguists promote only U.S. interests

48) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future
will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
predictable
dynamic (correct)
ill-prepared
segregated

49) One of NATO’s goals is to promote democratic values.
False
True (correct)

50) The concept of “Jointness” must be advanced through continual joint force development
efforts. What does that statement imply? [Remediation Accessed :N]
Joint force development is a “one time” occurrence in one’s career.
Joint staff leaders do not endorse joint force development.
“Jointness” is not an automatic service state of being. (correct)
Service members naturally embrace “Jointness.”
100% Result

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Question 23: Health Care

Walden University – NURS 6501Completed Week 7 Quiz Graded A

Question 24: Health Care

Walden University – NURS 6501NURS 6501 wk. 6 quiz Graded A

Question 25: Health Care

Walden University
NURS
NURS 6501
NURS 6501 Week 5 quiz

Question 26: Health Care

NURS 6501N- 13 Advanced Pathophysiology Week 4 Quiz Graded A

Question 27: Health Care

NURS 6501N- 13 Advanced Pathophysiology Week 3 Quiz Graded A

Question 28: Health Care

NURS 6501N- 13 Advanced Pathophysiology Week 2 Quiz Graded A

Question 29: Health Care

NURS 6501 advanced pathophysiology week1 latest Graded A

Question 30: Health Care

Walden University > NURS 6630 Final Exam (2019) Score A

Question 31: Health Care

NSG 6020 Week 7 Quiz ANSWERS Latest SOUTH UNIVERSITY HEALTH ASSESSMENT NSG6020.docx

Question 32: Health Care

How has nursing practice evolved over time? Discuss the key leaders and historical events that have influenced the advancement of nursing, nursing education, and nursing roles that are now part of the contemporary nursing profession. 200-300 words, 2 citations

Question 33: Health Care

NR511 Week 8 Final Exam Latest 2019 (Graded A)
NR511 Week 8 Final Exam Latest 2019 (Graded A)

Question 34; Health Care

South University NSG 5003 Final exam 2019 (Already Graded A)
South University NSG5003 Final
Question 1 (5 points)

Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction?
Question 1 options:

Lysosomes

Peroxisomes

Ribosomes

Oxyhydrosomes
Question 2 (5 points)

What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria?
Question 2 options:

Enzymatic digestion halts deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis.

Influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production.

Edema from an influx in sodium causes a reduction in ATP production.

Potassium shifts out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure.
Question 3 (5 points)

Which statement is a description of one of the characteristics of apoptosis?
Question 3 options:

Apoptosis involves programmed cell death of scattered single cells.

Apoptosis is characterized by the swelling of the nucleus and the cytoplasm.

Apoptosis involves unpredictable patterns of cell death.

Apoptosis results in benign malignancies.
Question 4 (5 points)

During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:
Question 4 options:

During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:

The pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decrease in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) levels.

The osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell membrane

Oxygen is not available to bind with sodium to maintain it outside of the cell.
Question 5 (5 points)

What is an effect of ionizing radiation exposure?
Question 5 options:

Respiratory distress

Sun intolerance

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) aberrations

Death
Question 6 (5 points)

Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because:
Question 6 options: chapter 3 q.2

?Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling.

The metabolic rates of obese adults are slower than those of lean adults.

The rates of urine output of obese adults are higher than those of lean adults.

The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively.
Question 7 (5 points)

In addition to osmosis, what force is involved in the movement of water between the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces?
Question 7 options:

a)
Oncotic pressure

b)
Buffering

c)
Net filtration

d)
Hydrostatic pressure
Question 8 (5 points)

Venous obstruction is a cause of edema because of an increase in which pressure?
Question 8 options:

a)
Capillary hydrostatic

b)
Interstitial hydrostatic

c)
Capillary oncotic

d)
Interstitial oncotic
Question 9 (5 points)

At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because:
Question 9 options:

a)
The interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure.

b)
The capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary oncotic pressure.

c)
The interstitial oncotic pressure is higher than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.

d)
The capillary oncotic pressure is lower than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.
Question 10 (5 points)

It is true that natriuretic peptides:
Question 10 options:

a)
Decrease blood pressure and increase sodium and water excretion.

b)
Increase blood pressure and decrease sodium and water excretion.

c)
Increase the heart rate and decrease potassium excretion.

d)
Decrease the heart rate and increase potassium excretion.
Question 11 (5 points)

What causes the clinical manifestations of confusion, convulsions, cerebral hemorrhage, and coma in hypernatremia?
Question 11 options:

a)
High sodium in the blood vessels pulls water out of the brain cells into the blood vessels, causing brain cells to shrink.

b)
High sodium in the brain cells pulls water out of the blood vessels into the brain cells, causing them to swell.

c)
High sodium in the blood vessels pulls potassium out of the brain cells, which slows the synapses in the brain.

d)
High sodium in the blood vessels draws chloride into the brain cells followed by water, causing the brain cells to swell.
Question 12 (5 points)

A major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for the transmission of nerve impulses is the ratio between:
Question 12 options:

a)
Intracellular and extracellular Na+

b)
. Intracellular and extracellular K+

c)
Intracellular Na+ and extracellular K+

d)
Intracellular K+ and extracellular Na+
Question 13 (5 points)

In hyperkalemia, what change occurs to the cells’ resting membrane potential?
Question 13 options:

a)
Hypopolarization

b)
Hyperexcitability

c)
Depolarization

d)
Repolarization
Question 14 (5 points)

Physiologic pH is maintained at approximately 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of:
Question 14 options:

a)
20:1

b)
1:20

c)
10:2

d)
10:5
Question 15 (5 points)

Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure results in edema because of:
Question 15 options:

a)
Losses or diminished production of plasma albumin

b)
Inflammation resulting from an immune response

c)
Blockage within the lymphatic channel system

d)
Sodium and water retention
Question 16 (5 points)

Hypomethylation and the resulting effect on oncogenes result in:
Question 16 options:

a)
A decrease in the activity of the oncogene, thus suppressing cancer development

b)
Deactivation of MLH1 to halt deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) repair

c)
An increase in tumor progression from benign to malignant

d)
Overexpression of micro-ribonucleic acid (miRNA), resulting in tumorigenesis
Question 17 (5 points)

The functions of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) and CD1 molecules are alike because both:
Question 17 options:

a)
Are antigen-presenting molecules

b)
Bind antigens to antibodies

c)
Secrete interleukins (ILs) during the immune process

d)
Are capable of activating cytotoxic T lymphocytes
Question 18 (5 points)

The B-cell receptor (BCR) complex functions uniquely by:
Question 18 options:

a)
Communicating information about the antigen to the helper T (Th) cell

b)
Secreting chemical signals to help cells communicate

c)
Recognizing the antigen on the surface of the B lymphocyte

d)
Communicating information about the antigen to the cell nucleus
Question 19 (5 points)

The generation of clonal diversity includes a process that:
Question 19 options:

a)
Involves antigens that select lymphocytes with compatible receptors

b)
Allows the differentiation of cells into antibody-secreting plasma cells or mature T cells

c)
Takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs

d)
Causes antigens to expand and diversify their populations
Save
Question 20 (5 points)

Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain microorganisms because of the:
Question 20 options:

a)
Strong response from immunoglobulin M (IgM)

b)
Level of protection provided by immunoglobulin G (IgG)

c)
Memory cells for immunoglobulin E (IgE)

d)
Rapid response from immunoglobulin A (IgA)
Question 21 (5 points)

What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions?
Question 21 options:

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a)
Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by a discharge of preformed mediators.

b)
Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids, and the immune complexes are then deposited in the tissues.

c)
Cytotoxic T (Tc) lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 (Th1) cells directly attack and destroy cellular targets.

d)
Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface.
Question 22 (5 points)

When soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of:
Question 22 options:

a)
Complement-mediated cell lysis

b)
Phagocytosis by macrophages

c)
Phagocytosis in the spleen

d)
Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products
Save
Question 23 (5 points)

? Considering the hypothalamus, a fever is produced by:
Question 23 options:

a)
Endogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus

b)
Exogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus

c)
Immune complexes acting indirectly on the hypothalamus

d)
Cytokines acting indirectly on the hypothalamus
Question 24 (5 points)
Vaccines against viruses are created from:
Question 24 options:

a)
Killed organisms or extracts of antigens

b)
Live organisms weakened to produce antigens

c)
Purified toxins that have been chemically detoxified

d)
Recombinant pathogenic protein
Question 25 (5 points)

Carcinoma in situ is characterized by which changes?
Question 25 options:

a)
Cells have broken through the local basement membrane.

b)
Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue.

c)
Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells

d)
Cellular and tissue alterations indicate dysplasia.
Question 26 (5 points)

Two “hits” are required to inactivate tumor-suppressor genes because:
Question 26 options:

a)
Each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent.

b)
The first hit stops tissue growth and the second hit is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth.

c)
Tumor-suppressor genes are larger than proto-oncogenes, requiring two hits to effect carcinogenesis.

d)
The first hit is insufficient to cause enough damage to cause a mutation.
Question 27 (5 points)

What is the skin-related health risk induced by some types of chemotherapy?
Question 27 options:

a)
Infection

b)
Ultraviolet damage

c)
Pain

d)
Erythema
Question 28 (5 points)

When a child is diagnosed with cancer, which intervention has the greatest influence on the child’s mortality rate?
Question 28 options:

a)
Age at the time of diagnosis

b)
Participation in clinical trials

c)
Proximity to a major cancer treatment center

d)
Parental involvement in the treatment planning
Question 29 (5 points)

Reflex activities concerned with the heart rate, blood pressure, respirations, sneezing, swallowing, and coughing are controlled by which area of the brain?
Question 29 options:

a)
Pons

b)
Midbrain

c)
Cerebellum

d)
Medulla oblongata
Question 30 (5 points)

The edema of the upper cervical cord after a spinal cord injury is considered life threatening because of which possible outcome?
Question 30 options:

a)
Hypovolemic shock from blood lost during the injury

b)
Breathing difficulties from an impairment to the diaphragm

c)
Head injury that likely occurred during the injury

d)
Spinal shock immediately after the injury
Question 31 (5 points)

What term is used to describe the complication that can result from a spinal cord injury above T6 that is producing paroxysmal hypertension, as well as piloerection and sweating above the spinal cord lesion?
Question 31 options:

a)
Craniosacral dysreflexia

b)
Parasympathetic dysreflexia

c)
Autonomic hyperreflexia

d)
Retrograde hyperreflexia
Save
Question 32 (5 points)

Atheromatous plaques are most commonly found:
Question 32 options:

a)
. In larger veins

b)
Near capillary sphincters

c)
At branches of arteries

d)
On the venous sinuses
Question 33 (5 points)

Multiple sclerosis is best described as:
Question 33 options:

a)
A CNS demyelination, possibly from an immunogenetic virus

b)
Inadequate supply of acetylcholine at the neurotransmitter junction as a result of an autoimmune disorder

c)
The depletion of dopamine in the CNS as a result of a virus

d)
A degenerative disorder of lower and upper motor neurons caused by viral-immune factors
Question 34 (5 points)

Graves disease develops from:
Question 34 options:

a)
A viral infection of the thyroid gland that causes overproduction of thyroid hormone

b)
An autoimmune process during which lymphocytes and fibrous tissue replace thyroid tissue

c)
Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin, which causes overproduction of thyroid hormones

d)
Ingestion of goitrogens, which inhibits the synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing goiter
Question 35 (5 points)

Pathologic changes associated with Graves disease include:
Question 35 options:

a)
High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins

b)
Diminished levels of TRH

c)
High levels of TSH

d)
Diminished levels of thyroid-binding globulin
Question 36 (5 points)

A patient diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following laboratory values: arterial pH 7.20, serum glucose 500 mg/dl, positive urine glucose and ketones, serum potassium (K+) 2 mEq/L, and serum sodium (Na+) 130 mEq/L. The patient
reports that he has been sick with the “flu” for a week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency?
Question 36 options:

a)
Increased glucose use causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the intracellular space.

b)
. Decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresi

c)
Increased glucose and fatty acids stimulate renal diuresis, electrolyte loss, and metabolic alkalosis.

d)
Decreased glucose use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting, respiratory acidosis, and electrolyte loss.
Question 37 (5 points)

Type 2 diabetes mellitus is best described as:
Question 37 options:

a)
Resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues

b)
The need for lispro instead of regular insulin

c)
An increase in glucagon secretion from α cells of the pancreas

d)
The presence of insulin autoantibodies that destroy β cells in the pancreas

Question 38 (5 points)

The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins?
Question 38 options:

a)
Immunoglobulin E (IgE)

b)
Immunoglobulin G (IgG)

c)
Immunoglobulin M (IgM)

d)
T cells

Question 39 (5 points)

A person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:
Question 39 options:

a)
Hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration

b)
The dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bedtime

c)
Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise

d)
Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity
Question 40 (5 points)

Hypoglycemia, followed by rebound hyperglycemia, is observed in those with:
Question 40 options:
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Question 1: Business

Strategy Club Assignment

Instruction
This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions 1. Go to the www.strategyclub.com website and review videos related to Chapter 2. Summarize ten key points. 2. Go to the www.strategyclub.com website and click on Student Resources and then click on Mission Statement Article and prepare your proposed mission statements for this course according to that article, which simply expands on the material presented in Chapter 2 about the statements being customer-focused. 3. Identify the nine components required for an effective mission statement. Find the new ASU mission and assess the extent to which it complies to these criteria. 4. If an organization does not have a vision or mission state, describe a good process for developing them.

Question 2: Business

Instruction
This assignment is an opportunity for you to reflect on how you negotiated the interest payment in the class financial simulation we carried out, and on the general outcomes in the market. In your 1-2 page write-up, make sure to answer the following questions: 1. For one Full Information session, describe your negotiation strategy by referring to your role (borrower, with high or low quality project, or lender), the interest payment you agreed to, and your final profit. 2. Describe your negotiation strategy in one Limited Information session, by referring to the same items as in question 1 above. 3. What do you think are some problems arising in trading with Limited Information as based on your experience in the financial market simulation? Explain. 4. How do you think the limited information trading impacted the agreed interest rate? Did it impact high and low quality borrowers in the same way? How about lenders? Overall, who benefited and who was hurt by the lack of information? Explain. For your reference, here is the Excel sheet containing the transactions from the class simulation:

Question 3: Education

Instruction
PART 1: Students are to submit a matrix that compares the three disability laws in relation to the specified components (a – h). The matrix provides side-by-side comparisons of each law. A template of the matrix is provided. Also the rubric is attached. Please be sure to review the rubric. A. Type of Law B. Eligibility criteria C. Evaluation procedures/guidelines D. Services provided to support students and parents E. Population(s) served (age groups covered) F. Due Process procedures – Parental Rights G. Funding source(s) to support special services provided H. Administrative Office or Agency that monitors and enforces the law PART 2: Video reflections (3 videos) Click on each link below to watch a short video about individuals with InD, LD, and ADHD. Write a brief summary of each video, which highlights significant shifts in the manner in which individuals with specific disabilities are treated or perceived by others. What were your overall impressions; were they positive or negative? Did the content of the video cause you to change your perceptions of individuals with specific disabilities? Why or why not? 1. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=0gTtwMGHPes 2. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CYHzJGTA6KM 3. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=fWCocjh5aK0&feature=youtu.be Your reflections/reactions to the videos assigned should be edited for minor grammatical errors and adhere to the general writing style and formatting guidelines of the APA Manual (6th ed.).

COMPONENTS:
Provide a description of each component below.
IDEA 2004 Section 504 ADA
Type of Law
(2 points)

Broad Eligibility Criteria
(2 points)

Evaluation Procedures/Guidelines
(2 points)

Types of Services Provided
(2 points)

Population Served: Age Group(s) Covered
(2 point)

Due Process Procedures
(2 points)

Special Funds Provided to Implement the Law
(1 point)

Administrative Office or Agency that Monitors/Enforces the Law (2 points)

Total Points: _______ (max. 15 points)

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Question 4: Education

Instruction
PART 1: Answer the following questions in a paragraph each (4-5 sentences required for each question) 1. Why is parent participation so critical to the IEP process? Why have legislators mandated parent and family participation? 2.To what extend do cultures influence educational practices, and to what extend do educational practices influence cultures? 3. Identify common barriers to effective communication between parents and educators. Describe at least three “best practice” strategies teachers could use to promote effective and frequent communication with parents of children with disabilities. Describe three additional “best practices” that promote active parental engagement and meaningful partnerships. PART 2: The literature is replete with documentation that active parent involvement is highly correlated with positive student outcomes. Extensive research has been dedicated to better understanding the underlying issues as to why some parents actively participate in their child’s school activities while others do not, despite the sometimes numerous attempts made by teachers and the school administration to get parents involved. The required article reading presents the findings of a research study that explored parents’ perceptions of the schools’ efforts to get them engaged in their child’s education. Instructions: Read and submit your critique of the following journal article: Rodriguez, R. J., Blatz, E. T. & Elbaum, B. (2014). Parents’ views of schools’ involvement efforts. Exceptional Children, 8(1), 79-95. doi: 10.1177/0014402914532232 Your critique should include a brief summary of the content that highlights the main points expressed in the article. Include in your critique your perspectives and reactions to what the authors said or recommended, making sure you support or justify your viewpoints with examples or references to other articles and resources. Submission Instructions: Article critiques must be carefully edited and formatted according to APA (6th ed.). Critiques should range between 2 – 3 typed pages, not including the reference page.

Question 5: English
DOCUMENTED ESSAY: Literature Research Paper on Alice Walker’s Novel The Color Purple
As part of your coursework for Gender Roles in Literature / ENG 226, you will be writing a documented research essay, on a literary topic of your choice, which analyzes Alice Walker’s seminal novel The Color Purple. The purpose of this paper is for you to demonstrate your ability to research and analyze a specific topic about the novel, develop an interpretive argument, and synthesize your findings into a unified, coherent, and analytical documented essay.
TOPIC: You may develop any literary topic you wish about the novel, except for biographical studies of Alice Walker. Your documented research essay must focus on the author’s writing, not her life. For example, some possible topics you might consider for your research paper:
➢ Ebonics and the African-American Vernacular in The Color Purple
➢ The Sexual Awakening of Celie
➢ The Role of Sofia in Celie’s Life – and in the Lives of Other Characters –in The Color Purple ➢ The Power of the Feminine as Exhibited in The Color Purple
➢ Celie’s Letters to God and the African-American Slave Narratives (such as Frederick Douglass’ Narrative of the Life of . . . an American Slave and Solomon Northup’s Twelve Years a Slave)
➢ Gender Roles and Their Impact in The Color Purple
SOURCES: You should use your research as a vehicle to drive your own thoughts, deliberations, and arguments as you write your essay. As well as your own thoughts, analyses, interpretations, and conclusions on your chosen topic, your paper must have:
➢ One primary source (the literature text itself). You must include direct quotes and paraphrased cited quotations from The Color Purple in your paper.
➢ At least THREE (3) secondary Scholarly Academic sources (writings about the literary text) of two pages or longer:
o At least one secondary source of information/analysis/critical study must be from a peer-reviewed article from an academic scholarly database. Good scholarly databases to start your research are the following (accessible via RCC Library Website):
▪ EBSCO Humanities Source
▪ GALE Artemis Literary Sources
▪ Literature Criticism Online
▪ JSTOR
o At least one of the secondary sources of information/analysis/critical study should be from a BOOK in print, either an e-book or paper & ink (NOTE: a paper & ink physical book earns you extra-credit points!)
Please Note: You should avoid using Internet sites ending with <.net> or <.com>. These sites are usually commercial, not scholarly, and therefore too superficial for college-level work. Use them to gather initial, general information to START your search. They should NEVER be your sole source of information.
FORMAT: Your paper must be / must have:
➢ At least 1500 words / about five pages of text in length (word count does not include the Works Cited page)
➢ Written utilizing correct MLA-8 citation and formatting rules
➢ Double-spaced, typed, using 12-point font size, Times New Roman or comparable font ➢ Quotes taken from the Original Literature (the Primary Source)
➢ At least two (2) short direct quotations
➢ One long (block) direct quotation
➢ At least two (2) paraphrased quotations
➢ All Support Materials, to be submitted with the documented essay
➢ Submitted into Blackboard no later than the due dates for draft & final essay
Question 6: Mathematics

MAC1105 Discussion Assignment 2: Solving Quadratic Equations The purpose of this assignment is to recognize and apply the different methods for solving quadratic equations.

MAC1105 Discussion Assignment 2: Solving Quadratic Equations

The purpose of this assignment is to recognize and apply the different methods forsolving quadratic equations.

Use the Discussions Link in Falcon Online to Complete Steps 1, 2, and 3

Step 1: Choose a method, covered in Section 1.5 of the textbook, (factoring,square root property, completing the square, and the quadratic formula) to solveeach of the following quadratic equations. Each method can be used only ONCE.

A) 4×2 – 27 = 0
B) 4×2 – 8x – 5 = 0
C) 4×2 – 8x – 12 = 0
D) 4×2 – 9x – 7 = 0

You may solve the equation if that clarifies which method should be used, but the solutions and answers should not be typed into the Discussion Board orsubmitted to the Assignments Link.

Step 2: In a posting to the Discussion Board in Falcon Online, explain the solutionmethod you chose for each equation and why you chose it. Refer to each equationby letter when stating the solution method. It is not necessary to post the solutions and answers. The posting should be written with complete sentences and proper grammar. The following explanation is not an acceptable part of the posting: “Thiswas the last method left.”

Step 3: Next, read at least two original posts by other students. After reading atleast two other original posts, reply to one other original post with acorrection/addition that enhances the explanation.

Use the Assignments Link in Falcon Online to Complete Steps 4 and 5

Step 4: Use the Equation Editor in MS Word to type a document showing thecomplete solution
(all steps) and correct answer to both of the following problems

The document should be saved in .docx, .doc, .pdf, or .rtf format.

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Question 7: Health Care

Instruction
What are some research designs that justify themselves in the field of nursing research? Choose one and explain why you chose it. Give an example of how this research design is used in your nursing discipline. Two References within five years. APA formate

Question 8: Other

Instruction
For this Signature Assignment, develop and present a proposal for your intended research using a quantitative design. While the most important elements in any proposal are the fundamentals of the problem, purpose, and research questions, the bulk of the assignment will be the methodology. You will want to organize this by subheadings. The actual headings and information that needs to be included in part depend on the method used to collect the data. In studies involving the collection of primary data, you want to be sure to include the details of your sampling plan, measurement of variables, the actual data collection procedure, plan of analysis, and justification for your decisions. Be sure to include the following information in your proposal: •Introduction •Statement of the Problem •Purpose Statement •Research Questions •Hypotheses: Null and Alternative for each research question •Methodology ◦Research Design: Specific quantitative method to be used and rationale (Ex. experiment, survey, etc.) ◦Operationalization of Variable: Specification of the concepts to be measured, the operationalization of the variable(s) to be used to measure the concepts, the question(s)/scale(s) to be used and the resulting level of measurement. ◦Sample design: Specification of the population, method, sample size, specific procedures, and justification. ◦Data collection procedure: Explanation of how the data will be collected. ◦Intended data analysis: How will you analyze the data to test the hypotheses and provide answers to the research questions, including descriptive and inferential statistics? Provide your rationale. •Limitations: Any recognized limitations of the proposed study. •References In this assignment, you are expected to incorporate all previous instructor feedback. Your prospectus must be in APA format and be of the quality expected of doctoral-level work. All research elements must be in alignment and reflect a cohesive and comprehensive research study. Length: Your paper should be between 13 -15 pages, not including title and reference page. References: Include a minimum of ten (10) scholarly sources. Your presentation should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course and provide new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.

Question 9: Psychology

Instruction
Vicarious trauma is similar to but distinctly different from burnout and counter-transference. To treat and prevent vicarious trauma effectively, you must be able to distinguish between the three phenomena. Since vicarious trauma, burnout, and counter-transference are closely related, consider how you would educate future supervisees in understanding the similarities and differences of each. For this Application, review this week’s Course Media “Introduction with Laura Simpson” and consider the implications vicarious trauma may have on the counseling process. The assignment: (2–3 pages) Explain the similarities and differences between vicarious trauma and burnout. Explain the similarities and differences between vicarious trauma and counter-transference. Explain two implications vicarious trauma might have on the counseling process. Be specific. Explain one insight you had or conclusion you drew for each comparison. Be specific. Support your Application Assignment with specific references to all resources used in its preparation. You are asked to provide a reference list only for those resources not included in the Learning Resources for this course.

Question 10: Physics

A spacecraft is moving through empty space at 8 m/s-1 . A meteoroid travelling at 15m/s-1 comes from behind and at an angle of 45 degrees to the line of movement of the rocket , crashes into the rocket and becomes embedded in it. the rocket has a mass of 350kg and the meteorite mass is 20kg . calculate the velocity of the rocket.

Question 11: Business

you are working for a company that is considering investing in a foreign country. Investing in countries with different traditions is an important element of your company’s long-term strategic goals. As such, management has requested a report regarding the attractiveness of alternative countries based on the potential return of FDI. Accordingly, the ranking of the top 25 countries in term of FDI attractiveness is a crucial ingredient for your report. A colleague mentioned a potentially useful tool called he Foreign District Investment (FDI) Confidence Index. The FDI Confidence Index is a regular survey of global executives conducted be A.T. Kearney. Find this index and provide additional information regarding how the index is constructed.

Question 12: Statistics

A recent ACT administered to a local high school yielded the following results: Mean = 24.4 and Standard Deviation = 4.2. Which of the following is true? (5 points)
⦁  a. 65% of the students scored between 16 and 32.8
⦁  b. 95% of the students scored between 16 and 33.8
⦁  c. 65% of the students scored between 20.2 and 28.6
⦁  d. 95% of the students scored between 20.2 and 28.6

Question 13: Finance

Boots Ltd sells its goods with terms of 3/12 EOM, net 70. What is the implicit cost of the trade credit?

Question 14: Other

Management Information Systems

Many organizations have started using behavioral targeting in order to capture your website visitor movements. This data is used in order to personalize advertising when you are surfing the web. Some businesses have started collecting personal information outside of your web clicking to create a profile of you. Do you have any personal issues with these practices? At what point could this type of data collection turn into an ethical dilemma? How about a legal issue? Must be 200 words please cite and reference all work.

Case Study Vodafone: A Giant Global ERP Implementation
Vodafone Group PLC is the largest mobile service provider by revenue in the world, with 400 million customers across Europe, the Middle East, Africa, Asia Pacific, and the United States. In 2013, it had revenues of $64.6 billion and more than 86,000 employees working in over 30 countries. Since its founding nearly 30 years ago, the business has experienced phenomenal growth, largely by establishing local operating companies that provides products and services to their local markets.
As a result, the company was very decentralized, lacking common practices, centralized operations, and data sharing among its various operating companies. Most of Vodafone’s mobile subsidiaries operated as independent companies with their own business processes. Vodafone was a network of individual businesses, but it wanted to function more like a single global firm to better deal with competitive pressures. Management called for a major business transformation to make this happen.
In 2006, Vodafone’s board of directors approved the “Evolution Vodafone” Business Transformation Program” (EVO) designed to refashion Vodafone into a truly global company, with a centralized shared services organization and common worldwide business processes in finances, human resources, and supply chain management for all of the operating companies. (Shared services refers to the consolidation of business operations that are used by multiple parts of the same organization in order to reduce costs and redundancy.) A common SAP ERP system would provide the technology platform for these changes by supporting information-sharing and common business processes that would simplify and speed up work throughout the company. Additional software tools from Informatica, Opentext, Readsoft, Sabrix, Redwood, HP, and Remedy that could integrate with SAP were added to the mix.
Vodafone’s system turned out to be one of the biggest SAP ERP implementations in the world. How did Vodafone pull it off? First of all, Vodafone’s management realized the company lacked the expertise and resources to manage such a complex project entirely on its own. It enlisted the consulting firms Accenture and IBM to provide skills and services that this ambitious project required and which were not available inside the company.
The company spent a year identifying and designing its new business processes and establishing the scope of this project. The management team wanted to limit risks to non-customer-facing processes that were nevertheless important sources of value for the firm. Customer-facing front-end processes were excluded from the first phase of the rollout to keep the transformation more manageable.
Procurement was targeted as the first set of processes to be transformed using the new ERP system. Vodafone had been allowing each of its local companies to manage its own procurement, which prevented it from leveraging the massive purchasing power the company could obtain by managing relationships with material and service suppliers from a single entity. By generating savings from centralized procurement, the transformation project would be able to quickly show a return on investment and win further support. Vodafone did not establish a centralized procurement department but instead created a centralized procurement company based in Luxembourg that uses the SAP ERP platform. Most of the company’s spending goes through this central organization. Suppliers benefit because the system helps them plan their sales to Vodafone and they only need to work with a single purchaser instead of many. This new way of doing business included a new purchase-to-pay process in which invoices are approved automatically for payment by matching them with purchase orders and receipts.
Once the new procurement process and organization were running, Vodafone started creating a centralized shared services organization based on the SAP ERP system. It selected Budapest, Hungary as the pilot location for this new arrangement. Vodafone Hungary is a mid-sized company with 2,000 employees with a small IT platform based on Oracle software. This made Vodafone Hungary more receptive to changing its information system and business processes than Vodafone organizations in larger countries, and Hungary had already been using Oracle systems. There, Vodafone built an entire shared services organization from scratch while simultaneously implementing the SAP ERP system. Vodafone then set up two more shared services organizations in India running on SAP.
After Hungary, Vodafone implemented the new procurement process and SAP software for its German operating company. Germany is Vodafone’s largest market, and accounts for more than 20 percent of Vodafone’s total revenue. Vodafone Germany is a much larger organization than Vodafone Hungary, with 13,000 employees, over 130 local legacy systems, and many customized business processes to replace. Work habits were more deeply entrenched, and Vodafone encountered some employee resistance as it tried to implement the new systems and processes. To minimize risk, Vodafone used a phased, incremental implementation, did a tremendous amount of testing, and made all the necessary system modifications before the system went live. Special support teams were dispatched to work with all the employees affected by the transition. These efforts helped address problems and employee resistance before they got out of hand. Once the German implementation was deemed successful, Vodafone rolled out the new system at many more operating companies, prioritizing the implementations based on each operating company’s size, complexity, and willingness to change.
No two rollouts proceeded the same way because each operating company had unique challenges and demands. Many of these companies had grown rapidly, and had numerous legacy systems based on local requirements. There were large numbers of users, interfaces, and legal requirements to deal with. Vodafone’s project team had to balance the need to proceed rapidly with the need to ensure that the system was implemented carefully.
Vodafone’s implementation plan called for a core project team to visit each individual operating company and implement the new processes locally, assisted by a systems integrator and local resources. Local teams and senior management met with the global teams, IT consultants, and local IT vendors in a friendly environment to encourage knowledge-sharing and openness to change. The success of each rollout was based on multiple factors, including the number and complexity of each unit’s legacy systems, the skills of each local project team, and the willingness of each local organization to embrace change. Vodafone enlisted the services of the global consulting firm Accenture to provide skills where needed and assist with change management in the local companies. Over time, the Vodafone project team and the Accenture consultants learned how to tailor their activities to the needs of each operating company. For example, if no representatives from an operating company showed up for the project launch meeting or they attended but showed little interest, the project team knew that company might be less cooperative. In such cases, the project would require more resources and attention.
The project team also had to be sensitive to local trends as system rollouts took place. For instance, if an operating company was located in a country experiencing economic downturn, its employees might be more resistant to the rollout. Some might see a major business and technology change as an improvement in their situation, while others might see it as another thing to cope with during a very stressful time.
As it finished rolling out the system to its remaining operating companies, the Vodafone project team used what it had learned to make improvements to its earlier ERP implementations. For example, testing and employee feedback revealed that more attention should be paid to usability. So, the project team enhanced the system’s interfaces to make them more user-friendly.
Given the nature of the business, Vodafone’s management wants about 80% of the company’s internal transactions to take place on a mobile device. According to Niall O’Sullivan, Vodafone’s Global Finance Transformation Director, management believes mobile apps will be a major advantage in driving compliance, increasing ease of use, and reducing resistance to the actual processes themselves. The goal is to have the vast majority of user interactions with the system take place on a mobile phone. According to O’Sullivan, mobility provides easy access for employees who don’t typically engage with the SAP system, so more employees are using the system. The more people use the system, the greater the return on investment. Over 60,000 employees around the world now use the new system, with 80,000 expected by the end of 2014.
Vodafone is now rolling out some of its enterprise applications for mobile devices, and so far, four have been selected. The first to go mobile was a travel and expense reporting application. Employees are able to take a photo of their receipts and get reimbursed without using any paper, and they can issue or approve requests for leave on their mobile phones all at one time. This application has reduced the time required to file travel expenses from 30 minutes to 10 minutes, with 7,500 expense claims filed each week, resulting in 300 person-days’ potential savings per week. Vodafone’s future mobile plans call for the development of a mobility portal and the integration of approval applications with finance, HR, and electronic sourcing.
Vodafone’s business process transformation and ERP system have increased business efficiency and produced annual cost savings of $719 million. The total cost of ownership (TCO) of information technology has been lowered. Throughout the world, Vodafone has a consistent way of working and a more unified organizational structure. Getting the various operating companies to think and act more uniformly and to adopt a shared service model has produced benefits that are not immediately quantifiable, but should lead to further profitability in the long run.
Sources: “Customer Journey,” Vodafone Group PLC. www.mysap.com, accessed May 28, 2014,”www.vodafone.com, accessed May 29, 2014; Derek DuPreez, “Vodafone HANA Project Moves Beyond Trial Despite Skills Challenge,” TechWorld, March 11, 2013; “Using SAP MaxAttention to Safeguard the Global Rollout of SAP ERP,” www.mysap.com, accessed April 8, 2013; and David Hannon, “Vodafone Walks the Talk,” SAP InsiderPROFILES, October-December 2012.
Case Study Questions
⦁ 9-13 Identify and describe the problem discussed in this case. What management, organization, and technology factors contributed to the problem?
⦁ 9-14 Why did Vodafone have to spend so much time dealing with change during its business transformation?
⦁ 9-15 Why was an ERP system required for Vodafone’s global business transformation?
⦁ 9-16 What management, organization, and technology issues had to be addressed by the Vodafone project team to ensure the transformation would be successful?
⦁ 9-17 What were the business benefits of Vodafone’s global business transformation? How did it change decision making and the way the company operated?

Instructions

Introduction:
The main learning outcome for this unit addresses advanced information systems solutions. You need to be able to understand not only the concepts behind implementing an advanced solution like ERP, but also the management and technological factors involved in an implementation, the value added by implementing advanced systems, what prompts the need for an advanced system like an ERP system, and the potential benefits of implementing IS advanced systems such as ERP systems. This case gives them a successfully implemented case to analyze.
Assignment Instructions:
Review what you have learned about enterprise resource planning (ERP) from the textbook and from the unit’s study guide.
Analyze the case study titled “Vodafone: A Giant Global ERP Implementation” on pp. 376-378 in your textbook.
For this assignment, you will need to:
analyze and discuss the central issue(s) faced by Vodafone, including the contributing management and technological factors;
explain why ERP was a necessary information system solution to address the organization’s issues;
evaluate the success of Vodafone’s implementation plan and provide one suggestion to improve the process;
discuss the value the new ERP system brought to Vodafone as a company; and
summarize your findings in a two to three page paper.

Course Learning Outcomes for Unit VI
Upon completion of this unit, students should be able to:
9. Examine advanced information systems solutions such as ERP (enterprise resource planning) and SAP (software application and products).
⦁ 9.1  Explain the value added to organizations by implementing advanced information systems
solutions.
⦁ 9.2  Examine different advanced information systems solutions available for businesses.
⦁ 9.3  Analyze different features and functionality offered by advanced information systems solutions.
Reading Assignment
Chapter 9: Achieving Operational Excellence and Customer Intimacy: Enterprise Applications Chapter 10: E-Commerce: Digital Markets, Digital Goods
Unit Lesson
Advanced Information Systems
What exactly are advanced information system solutions? Most people who have worked in an office setting have a good understanding of the processes that affect their everyday lives. They understand that the data they enter or scan is stored in a database, and certain processes they run may close out a monthly account, process a payroll run, or bill a customer. These types of processes, while they seem separate, are often very integrated.
In years past, organizations had large mainframes. These mainframes had to process transactions in batches, usually at night, and until that batch process happened, the screens you were viewing were not always completely correct. For example, you could place an order for a customer, but you would not see the order until the next day. Unfortunately, that also meant that you could not see the inventory reduction until the next day as well. This means you might place an order and there might not be any of that item left in stock at the time. A salesperson or customer service representative might have to go look at three or four different screens to get a good picture of the customer’s account health or to research a problem—even with this batching process. Once client-servers came to organizations, employees had to look at two completely different computers to research that same problem (until organizations could get all of their data and processes moved off of those old mainframes).
Now that businesses have grown so much, many of them have multiple product lines, systems, servers, and databases. In the past, managers would have to wait for big printouts of various reports to make business decisions. Enterprise resource planning (ERP) systems works to integrate all of those critical systems together so they can talk to each other. The applications that make up the enterprise software are created based on predefined best business practices. Think of it this way: When a business purchases a piece of equipment, that order is entered into accounting the same way for all businesses. If a customer makes a purchase, it should generally be handled the same way. When you hire someone, you have the same laws to follow. There may be some customization, but that is handled in the application as well (Laudon & Laudon, 2016).
From a managerial perspective, what is the value in enterprise systems?
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 1

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UNIT VI STUDY GUIDE
Advanced Information System Solutions
This is the question we have to ask ourselves when adopting any sort of informUaNtIioTnxsSyTstUemDYs sGoUluIDtioEn, is it not? We do not just spend large amounts of money on something without understanding the value it offers us
as a company. We have discussed the value of data in previous chapters. Among the other reasons enterprise systems bring us value, they also help us to have firm-wide information to make better decisions.
The bottom line is this: Advanced information system solutions can help organizations in many different ways, such as operating more effectively and efficiently, making better decisions, managing our goods more effectively, reaching our customers faster, and being more competitive and innovative. Anyone can see the value in that!
What Are Some Other Advanced Information System Solutions?
Supply chain management (SCM): Many large organizations (such as Walmart and Amazon) use supply chain management (SCM) to help their organization manage their suppliers and goods more efficiently. If you have thousands of suppliers and hundreds of thousands of orders, it would be impossible to keep up with everything. SCM software can manage all of this and allows for forecasting and decision making as well. Imagine that many of your suppliers are in other countries; this means you have a global supply chain that is even more complex to manage.
Customer relationship management (CRM): Customer relationship management (CRM) involves managing customers. Again, if you have 50,000 customers, how do you keep up with what they purchased? Sure, you can store that information in a database but would it be easy to manage those relationships? How would you keep up with the marketing incentives you have offered them? Better yet, what about the marketing incentives that you want them to pass on to their customers?
Systems application products (SAP): Systems application products (SAP) are a brand of enterprise resource systems. Oracle and Microsoft both have their own brands of enterprise resource systems as well. While all of these vendors offer very similar base functionalities, each of them compete against each other by bringing their own special capabilities to their enterprise resource system offerings.
E-commerce: Another type of advanced information systems involves e-commerce. The explosion of Internet purchasing is no surprise to anyone, but the technology involved in e-commerce is pretty unique. In the past, retailers had pretty tight control over everything. The options for consumers were not plentiful. Still, word of mouth was still prevalent so a business could suffer if it did not treat its customers well. Now, retailers have invited the world to comment on their websites. Sure, they can always delete bad comments, but knowledge is power. Have you ever had a bad experience at a store and wondered if it ever got past the customer service person that you complained to? E-commerce gives retailers global reach, which can be an advantage and a disadvantage. Advanced information systems have given retailers the ability to allow customers to interact with each other through social media-style functionality. Retailers can now personalize your viewing experience based on your web searches. This type of customer targeting was not possible before more advanced information systems were developed.
We have discussed business-to-consumer (B2C) e-commerce, but there have also been many types of e- commerce, e-commerce business models, and e-commerce revenue models developed. Social media is one of the most predominant focuses of marketing today. Another focus of late is m-commerce, which is mobile commerce.
One of the biggest boons to business-to-business e-commerce is the development of electronic data interchange (EDI). This service enables the transfer of data between two organizations. For example, an organization may receive an electronic bill from a supplier through EDI. Conversely, the organization can sent a notice of payment back to the supplier via EDI. An organization can send all of its UPS shipping information to UPS in the form of an EDI file.
Would any of this be possible without advanced information system solutions? What do you think the future holds for information systems and technology as businesses grow bigger and bigger?
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 2
Title
Reference UNIT x STUDY GUIDE Title
Laudon, K. C., & Laudon, J. P. (2016). Management information systems: Managing the digital firm [VitalSource Bookshelf version] (14th ed.). Retrieved from https://bookshelf.vitalsource.com/#/books/9780133898309/
Suggested Reading
The following journal article is a great study on the critical success factors involved in the implementation of enterprise systems. You are encouraged to review this information.
In order to access the resource below, you must first log into the myCSU Student Portal and access the Business Source Ultimate database within the CSU Online Library.
Ahmad, N., Haleem, A., & Syed, A. (2013). Compilation of critical success factors in implementation of enterprise systems: A study on Indian organizations. Global Journal Of Flexible Systems Management, 13(4), 217-232. doi:10.1007/s40171-013-0019-8.
Learning Activities (Nongraded)
Assume that you have been hired as the new Social Media Manager for the e-commerce division of a retail chain. Create a seven to ten PowerPoint slide presentation to outline your strategic plan for integrating social media into the existing e-commerce business for the organization.
You may use various sources including your textbook and the CSU Online Library. Be sure to cite all sources used in a reference slide with proper APA formatting. Cover and reference slides do not count in the length requirement. You may also use the slide notes function.
As this is a nongraded activity, this work cannot be uploaded to Blackboard. If you would like your professor’s feedback on your work, send this document to them in an email with a note that you would like to receive feedback on your non-graded activity.
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 3

Unit 6 Assessment

How can organizations create value by implementing an advanced information system solution paired with the appropriate business model?
Your response should be at least 200 words in length

What is social CRM? Why are some organizations hesitant to implement this advanced information system technology?
Your response should be at least 75 words in length.

Recall the e-commerce Internet business model discussed in the unit readings. Identify three different businesses that use this model and their successful descriptions for solutions to information systems.
Your response should be at least 75 words in length

Question 15: Mathematics

https://www.khanacademy.org/math/ap-statistics/probability-ap/randomness-probability-simulation/v/basic-probability
https://www.khanacademy.org/math/ap-statistics/probability-ap/randomness-probability-simulation/v/statistical-significan…

⦁ Explain, in your words, what significance means in this experiment. How does probability play a role in determining significance?
⦁ Explain, in your words, what made the experiment in 2 statistically significant?

Question 16: Physics
WORKSHEET Pre-Lab 2 (hand in at start of lab 2)
1. Consider an experiment where a marble is rolling between sensors for a computer controlled timer called a photogate. The sensor measures the time the photogate is blocked as the diameter of the marble passes by. You have measured the following quantities to determine the speed (v) of a marble rolling in front of a photogate. The uncertainty in time is estimated from the spread in values of several trials, and the size of the marble is known with a manufacturer specification on the uncertainty.
tblocked=(0.024±0.002)s and d=(2.54±0.01)cm
Determine the following, showing your work below neatly for each %σt %σd %σv σv and v.
These quantities mean: percent uncertainties in time blocked, diameter of marble, speed of marble respectively. Then the absolute uncertainty in the speed of marble, and finally the speed of the marble itself.
Your final reporting of the speed should look like (with numbers) v=________±_______cm/s
1
2. Consider the formula 2 ∆ . This is a kinematic equation relating final speed, initial speed, acceleration, and displacement. You will solve this equation for the acceleration, “a”, insert measured values for the other quantities and report “a” along with its uncertainty. The goal is to use error propagation to determine uncertainties.
You are given vi = 0.00 (consider this exact), and
vf = (1.87±0.04)m/s, and x=(30.0±0.3)cm.
Which rule will you apply to determine the result for acceleration along with its uncertainty?
Question 17: Mathematics
Question 8 Alone.
Compute k in the following table if the coefficient of correlation between X and Y is 0.9879.

MAT2001-SFE- Digital Assignment-1
⦁ Find the mean, median and mode for the following data.
⦁ The mean of five numbers 6,9,2,x,y is 5 and the standard deviation is x,y.

6. Find the values of
Class mark 10.5 30.5 50.5 70.5 90.5 110.5
Fequency 19 6 3 2 1 2
3. A continuous random variable has the probability density function . { kx4 −1 < x < 0
f(x) = 0 otherwise Find the value of k and also find P [(X > 1/2)/(X < −1/4)].
⦁ Find the first four moments about the origin for a random variable X having the probability density function f (x) = 4x(9 − x2 ) , 0 ≤ x ≤ 3.
81
⦁ An investment firm offers its customers municipal bonds that mature after varying number of years. Given that the cumulative distribution function of T , the number of years to maturity for
a randomly selected bond is,

 0, t < 1
 1 / 4 , 1 ≤ t < 3 F(t)=1/2, 3≤t<5 3/4, 5≤t<7
1, t≥7
Find (a)P(T = 5)(b)P(T > 3)(c)P(1.4 < T < 6)(d)P(T ≤ 5/T ≥ 2).
6. The waiting time, in hours, between successive speeders spotted by a radar unit is a continuous random variable with cumulative distributive function
{
0, x<0 1−e−8x, x≥0
F(x) =
Find the probability of waiting less than 12 minutes between successive speeders (i) using the
cumulative distribution function of X (ii) using the probability density function of X.
⦁ If the probability density function of X is given by
{ 2(1−x), 0<x<1 f(x) = 0, otherwise
(a) Show that E(Xr) = 2 . (b) Using this evaluate E[(2X + 1)2]. (r + 1)(r + 2)
⦁ Compute k in the following table if the coefficient of correlation between X and Y is 0.9879.
⦁ Ifthejointprobabilitydensityfunctionofvariable(X,Y)isgivenbyf(x,y)= 9(1+x+y) ,x> 2(1 + x)4(1 + y)4
X 1 3 k 7 8 10
Y 8 12 15 17 18 20
0, y > 0, find the mariginal densities of X and Y . Are they independent?
10. The joint density function of a R.V (X,Y) is given by f(x,y) = 8xy,0 < x < 1;0 < y < x. Find the mariginal and conditional density functions.
11. The joint density function of a random variable (X,Y) is given by f(x,y) = 8xy,1 ≤ x ≤ y ≤ 2
9 and = 0 , elsewhere. Find the mariginal and conditional density functions.
⦁ If the joint p.d.f of a two dimensional random variable (X,Y) is given by f (x, y) = 3(x + y), in x > 0, y > 0 and x + y ≤ 1 and =0, elsewhere, find Var(X), Var(y) and Cov(X,Y).
⦁ If the simple moments of a random variable X are given by E(Xr) = 0.6, for r = 1,2,3,…, show that P (X = 0) = 0.4, P (X = 1) = 0.6 and P (X ≤ 2) = 0.
⦁ The two regression lines are y = a+bx and x = c+dy. Find the values of E(X), E(Y) and rXY . Can you find SX and SY from them?
⦁ If X and Y are two independent variables with variances σX2 and σY2 , prove that r(X, X − Y ) = √σX .
σ X2 + σ Y2
⦁ If X and Y are two independent variables such that the correlation coefficient between (2X+Y)
and (X+2Y) is equal to 1, find the coefficient of correlation between X and Y. 2

Report values for %σvf %σx a %σa σa
Your last statement should look like a=________±__________m/s2.
2
Question 18: Health Care

Need 3 healthcare discussion questions answers to the following:
Take a few minutes to think about the healthcare system as it exists today.
(1) Discuss why quality management is critical?
(2) Explain the three principals of total quality which are customer focus, teamwork, and continuous improvement?
(3) Discuss two ways to ensure healthcare quality is important at the organizational, community, and national level.

In responding to the discussion questions, make sure you provide examples to support each part of the question, and each question should be answered with at least 250 words.
Total discussion questions should be at least 750 words minimum. Need this by Saturday Aug 31. If there are any questions, please let me know.

Question 19: Engineering

https://www.chegg.com/homework-help/questions-and-answers/show-steps-reduction-matlab-code-find-transfer-fuctions-q31106239

Question 20: Physics

A heavy block of mass 625 kg is suspended by a cable is moving downwards with an initial velocity of 7.3 m/s. If the tension in the cable as the block comes to rest is 5000 N calculate the distance travelled by the block(a) 25.0 m(b) 13.6 m(c) 2.72 m(d) 14.8 m

Question 21: General Question

This is a personal paper. It is not a research paper. You can use I,we,she,he etc (cannot be written in 3rd person). The subject is Group Process-write about a personal team and/or group experience including issues faced and how the issues were resolved. Must be 15 pages. No grammatical errors or typos.

Question 22: Health Care

Analysis of a Pertinent Healthcare Issue
The Quadruple Aim provides broad categories of goals to pursue to maintain and improve healthcare. Within each goal are many issues that, if addressed successfully, may have a positive impact on outcomes. For example, healthcare leaders are being tasked to shift from an emphasis on disease management often provided in an acute care setting to health promotion and disease prevention delivered in primary care settings. Efforts in this area can have significant positive impacts by reducing the need for primary healthcare and by reducing the stress on the healthcare system.

Changes in the industry only serve to stress what has always been true; namely, that the healthcare field has always faced significant challenges, and that goals to improve healthcare will always involve multiple stakeholders. This should not seem surprising given the circumstances. Indeed, when a growing population needs care, there are factors involved such as the demands of providing that care and the rising costs associated with healthcare. Generally, it is not surprising that the field of healthcare is an industry facing multifaceted issues that evolve over time.

In this module’s Discussion, you reviewed some healthcare issues/stressors and selected one for further review. For this Assignment, you will consider in more detail the healthcare issue/stressor you selected. You will also review research that addresses the issue/stressor and write a white paper to your organization’s leadership that addresses the issue/stressor you selected.

To Prepare:
⦁ Review the national healthcare issues/stressors presented in the Resources and reflect on the national healthcare issue/stressor you selected for study.
⦁ Reflect on the feedback you received from your colleagues on your Discussion post for the national healthcare issue/stressor you selected.
⦁ Identify and review two additional scholarly resources (not included in the Resources for this module) that focus on change strategies implemented by healthcare organizations to address your selected national healthcare issue/stressor.

The Assignment (3-4 Pages):
Analysis of a Pertinent Healthcare Issue
Develop a 3- to 4-page paper, written to your organization’s leadership team, addressing your selected national healthcare issue/stressor and how it is impacting your work setting. Be sure to address the following:
⦁ Describe the national healthcare issue/stressor you selected and its impact on your organization. Use organizational data to quantify the impact (if necessary, seek assistance from leadership or appropriate stakeholders in your organization).
⦁ Provide a brief summary of the two articles you reviewed from outside resources on the national healthcare issue/stressor. Explain how the healthcare issue/stressor is being addressed in other organizations.
⦁ Summarize the strategies used to address the organizational impact of national healthcare issues/stressors presented in the scholarly resources you selected. Explain how they may impact your organization both positively and negatively. Be specific and provide examples.

Looking Ahead
The paper you develop in Module 1 will be revisited and revised in Module 2. Review the Assignment instructions for Module 2 to prepare for your revised paper.

Develop a 3- to 4-page paper, written to your organization’s leadership team, addressing the selected national healthcare issue/stressor and how it is impacting your work setting. Be sure to address the following: ·   Describe the national healthcare issue/stressor you selected and its impact on your organization. Use organizational data to quantify the impact (if necessary, seek assistance from leadership or appropriate stakeholders in your organization).–
Levels of Achievement:Excellent 23 (23%) – 25 (25%)
The response accurately and thoroughly describes in detail the national healthcare issue/stressor selected and its impact on an organization.
The response includes accurate, clear, and detailed data to quantify the impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor selected.
Good 20 (20%) – 22 (22%)
The response describes the national healthcare issue/stressor selected and its impact on an organization.
The response includes accurate data to quantify the impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor selected.
Fair 18 (18%) – 19 (19%)
The response describes the national healthcare issue/stressor selected and its impact on an organization that is vague or inaccurate.
The response includes vague or inaccurate data to quantify the impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor selected.
Poor 0 (0%) – 17 (17%)
The response describes the national healthcare issue/stressor selected and its impact on an organization that is vague and inaccurate, or is missing.
The response includes vague and inaccurate data to quantify the impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor selected, or is missing.
Feedback:
·   Provide a brief summary of the two articles you reviewed from outside resources, on the national healthcare issue/stressor and explain how the healthcare issue/stressor is being addressed in other organizations.–
Levels of Achievement:Excellent 27 (27%) – 30 (30%)
A complete, detailed, and specific synthesis of two outside resources reviewed on the national healthcare issue/stressor selected is provided. The response fully integrates at least 2 outside resources and 2 or 3 course-specific resources that fully support the summary provided.
The response accurately and thoroughly explains in detail how the healthcare issue/stressor is being addressed in other organizations.
Good 24 (24%) – 26 (26%)
An accurate synthesis of at least one outside resource reviewed on the national healthcare issue/stressor selected is provided. The response integrates at least 1 outside resource and 2 or 3 course-specific resources that may support the summary provided.
The response explains how the healthcare issue/stressor is being addressed in other organizations.
Fair 21 (21%) – 23 (23%)
A vague or inaccurate summary of outside resources reviewed on the national healthcare issue/stressor selected is provided. The response minimally integrates resources that may support the summary provided.
The response explains how the healthcare issue/stressor is being addressed in other organizations that is vague or inaccurate.
Poor 0 (0%) – 20 (20%)
A vague and inaccurate summary of no outside resources reviewed on the national healthcare issue/stressor selected is provided, or is missing.
The response fails to integrate any resources to support the summary provided.
Feedback:
·   Summarize the strategies used to address the organizational impact of national healthcare issues/stressors presented in the scholarly resources you selected and explain how they may impact your organization both positively and negatively. Be specific and provide examples.–
Levels of Achievement:Excellent 27 (27%) – 30 (30%)
A complete, detailed, and accurate summary of the strategies used to address the organizational impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor is provided.
The response accurately and thoroughly explains in detail how the strategies may impact an organization both positively and negatively, with specific and accurate examples.
Good 24 (24%) – 26 (26%)
An accurate summary of the strategies used to address the organizational impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor is provided.
The response explains how the strategies may impact an organization both positively and negatively. May include some specific examples.
Fair 21 (21%) – 23 (23%)
A vague or inaccurate summary of the strategies used to address the organizational impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor is provided.
The response explains how the strategies may impact an organization both positively and negatively that is vague or inaccurate. May include some vague or inaccurate examples.
Poor 0 (0%) – 20 (20%)
A vague and inaccurate summary of the strategies used to address the organizational impact of the national healthcare issue/stressor is provided, or is missing.
The response explains how the strategies may impact an organization both positively and negatively that is vague and inaccurate, or is missing. Does not include any examples.
Feedback:
Written Expression and Formatting – Paragraph Development and Organization: Paragraphs make clear points that support well-developed ideas, flow logically, and demonstrate continuity of ideas. Sentences are carefully focused—neither long and rambling nor short and lacking substance. A clear and comprehensive purpose statement and introduction is provided which delineates all required criteria.–
Levels of Achievement:Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%)
Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity.
A clear and comprehensive purpose statement, introduction, and conclusion is provided which delineates all required criteria.
Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%)
Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity 80% of the time.
Purpose, introduction, and conclusion of the assignment is stated, yet is brief and not descriptive.
Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%)
Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity 60%–79% of the time.
Purpose, introduction, and conclusion of the assignment is vague or off topic.
Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%)
Paragraphs and sentences follow writing standards for flow, continuity, and clarity < 60% of the time.
No purpose statement, introduction, or conclusion was provided.
Feedback:
Written Expression and Formatting – English writing standards: Correct grammar, mechanics, and proper punctuation–
Levels of Achievement:Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%)
Uses correct grammar, spelling, and punctuation with no errors.
Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%)
Contains a few (1 or 2) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors.
Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%)
Contains several (3 or 4) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors.
Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%)
Contains many (≥ 5) grammar, spelling, and punctuation errors that interfere with the reader’s understanding.
Feedback:
Written Expression and Formatting – The paper follows correct APA format for title page, headings, font, spacing, margins, indentations, page numbers, parenthetical/in-text citations, and reference list.–
Levels of Achievement:Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%)
Uses correct APA format with no errors.
Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%)
Contains a few (1 or 2) APA format errors.
Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%)
Contains several (3 or 4) APA format errors.
Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%)

Question 23: Health Care

Evaluating a Statistical Study Assignment

To complete this assignment, select one of the articles below taken from the online library and answer the questions that follow.

Articles:
Trends in Patient Information Preferences and Acquisition
Determining College Performance of Allied Health students
The Impact of College Sports Success on the Quantity and Quality of Student Applications
Child Abuse: Radiologic-Pathologic Correlation
Reference Equations for the Six-Minute Walk in Healthy Adults

Questions:

⦁ Briefly summarize (2 or 3 sentences) the objectives and findings of the study
⦁ Describe the data analyzed in the study. Identify the data’s level of measurement. How was it collected? Evaluate possible sources of error or bias in the data.
⦁ What population characteristics or parameters were the researchers trying to evaluate or estimate? What sample statistics were used as indicators?
⦁ Identify one of the researcher’s null hypothesis and the corresponding alternate hypothesis. Did the researchers accept or reject the null hypothesis? What was the confidence interval (significance level) used for evaluating the hypothesis. Evaluate how choosing a different confidence interval could impact the execution or results of the study.
⦁ Identify the type I and type II errors associated with accepting or rejecting the null hypothesis. Given the context of the study, which type of error is more critical to avoid? Why?
⦁ How might the results of this study be used? Describe how the knowledge gained could be applied. Suggest additional research that could be pursued to supplement these findings.

Question 24: Mathematics

https://www.khanacademy.org/math/ap-statistics/probability-ap/randomness-probability-simulation/v/basic-probability
https://www.khanacademy.org/math/ap-statistics/probability-ap/randomness-probability-simulation/v/statistical-significance-experiment
⦁ Explain, in your words, what significance means in this experiment. How does probability play a role in determining significance?
⦁ Explain, in your words, what made the experiment in 2 statistically significant?

Question 25: Health Care

Evidence-Based Practice and the Quadruple Aim
Healthcare organizations continually seek to optimize healthcare performance. For years, this approach was a three-pronged one known as the Triple Aim, with efforts focused on improved population health, enhanced patient experience, and lower healthcare costs.
More recently, this approach has evolved to a Quadruple Aim by including a focus on improving the work life of healthcare providers. Each of these measures are impacted by decisions made at the organizational level, and organizations have increasingly turned to EBP to inform and justify these decisions.
To Prepare:
⦁ Read the articles by Sikka, Morath, & Leape (2015); Crabtree, Brennan, Davis, & Coyle (2016); and Kim et al. (2016) provided in the Resources.
⦁ Reflect on how EBP might impact (or not impact) the Quadruple Aim in healthcare.
⦁ Consider the impact that EBP may have on factors impacting these quadruple aim elements, such as preventable medical errors or healthcare delivery.
To Complete:
Write a brief analysis (no longer than 2 pages) of the connection between EBP and the Quadruple Aim.
Your analysis should address how EBP might (or might not) help reach the Quadruple Aim, including each of the four measures of:
⦁ Patient experience
⦁ Population health
⦁ Costs
⦁ Work life of healthcare providers
Write a brief analysis of the connection between evidence-based practice and the Quadruple Aim. Your analysis should address how evidence-based practice might (or might not) help reach the Quadruple Aim, including each of the four measures of:

·   Patient experience
·   Population health
·   Costs
·   Work life of healthcare providers–
Levels of Achievement: Excellent 77 (77%) – 85 (85%)
Good 68 (68%) – 76 (76%)
Fair 60 (60%) – 67 (67%)
Poor 0 (0%) – 59 (59%)
Written Expression and Formatting—Paragraph Development and Organization:
Paragraphs make clear points that support well-developed ideas, flow logically, and demonstrate continuity of ideas. Sentences are carefully focused—neither long and rambling nor short and lacking substance. A clear and comprehensive purpose statement and introduction is provided which delineates all required criteria.–
Levels of Achievement: Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%)
Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%)
Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%)
Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%)
Written Expression and Formatting—English Writing Standards:
Correct grammar, mechanics, and proper punctuation.–
Levels of Achievement: Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%)
Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%)
Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%)
Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%)
Written Expression and Formatting—The paper follows correct APA format for title page, headings, font, spacing, margins, indentations, page numbers, running head, parenthetical/in-text citations, and reference list.–
Levels of Achievement: Excellent 5 (5%) – 5 (5%
Good 4 (4%) – 4 (4%)
Fair 3.5 (3.5%) – 3.5 (3.5%)

Poor 0 (0%) – 3 (3%)

less than 20% similarities
Question 26: English

I need 5 questions answered from my english class the book is called practical argument 3rd edition
Read Student Sample Essay pp. 361-367 and answer the questions below using complete sentences and clear explanations:
1. Summarize the argument Blaine is making in one sentence.
2. Give three examples of evidence that Blaine uses to prove her argument. Cite the page numbers. Do you think this is enough evidence to support her argument? Why? Why not?
3. Does Blaine give an opposing argument? If so, summarize what it is and how she refutes it.
4. Does Blaine establish a strong context for her argument? Explain why or why not by using specific examples from the text. Make sure to cite the page numbers when stating an example from the text.
5. Do you agree or disagree with Blaine’s argument? Why or why not.

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Question 27: Business

One way to be exposed to another culture is by examining the foods typical of that culture. In this exercise, you will need to create a limited guide to ethnic dining in your city or area. The finished guide will be descriptive in nature; it is not meant to be a rating guide.Purpose: The purpose of this exercise is to allow those students who have had only minimal exposure to cultural differences an opportunity to experience those differences through the common element of food. Students will create a basic ethnic dining guide for restaurants in their area. The guide is not meant to be a rating guide. It is simply meant to be an informative guide.
Instructions

Activities
⦁ Identify ethnic dining categories for inclusion in your guide. Once you have identified categories for your area, make a list of restaurants for each category.
⦁ You will need to create a data collection form so that the same information is collected from each restaurant. For example, you will want to include the name, address, and phone number for each restaurant. Think of other information that would be helpful.
⦁ Choose and complete the assignment for three of the restaurants from the list you have generated in activity One. Consider visiting an assortment of ethnic restaurants. If your budget allows, eat at a few of the restaurants in addition to collecting the information. After you have all the information, review and compare your findings.
⦁ Was there a meal or type of food that you particularly liked? Disliked? Which type of ethnic restaurant seemed most foreign to you? Why do you think that was?
Question 28: Business

Identify and describe the specific issues Maalick encountered in the workplace. Do the
actions of other workers at Treton represent discrimination and harassment? What
elements of law are important for Treton to consider?
Evaluate the, Marta Ford, in response to Maalick’s situation. What could she have done
to prevent the situation and what more could she do to ensure that this type of situation
would not occur in the future?

3. How would you characterize Clive Jenkins’ behavior and response to this situation?
4. What resolution to this situation might Judith Dixon suggest?
5. What are the broader implications of this situation for Treton? What type of
organizational review might Dixon initiate or suggest from a corporate perspective?

Question 29: Business

One way to be exposed to another culture is by examining the foods typical of that culture. In this exercise, you will need to create a limited guide to ethnic dining in your city or area. The finished guide will be descriptive in nature; it is not meant to be a rating guide.Purpose: The purpose of this exercise is to allow those students who have had only minimal exposure to cultural differences an opportunity to experience those differences through the common element of food. Students will create a basic ethnic dining guide for restaurants in their area. The guide is not meant to be a rating guide. It is simply meant to be an informative guide.
Instructions

Activities
⦁ Identify ethnic dining categories for inclusion in your guide. Once you have identified categories for your area, make a list of restaurants for each category.
⦁ You will need to create a data collection form so that the same information is collected from each restaurant. For example, you will want to include the name, address, and phone number for each restaurant. Think of other information that would be helpful.
⦁ Choose and complete the assignment for three of the restaurants from the list you have generated in activity One. Consider visiting an assortment of ethnic restaurants. If your budget allows, eat at a few of the restaurants in addition to collecting the information. After you have all the information, review and compare your findings.
⦁ Was there a meal or type of food that you particularly liked? Disliked? Which type of ethnic restaurant seemed most foreign to you? Why do you think that was?
Question 30: General Question

For this discussion post, define the fact pattern in the Netflix case study, which you read about in the following Module One articles and presentation:
⦁ Library Article: How Netflix Reinvented HR
⦁ Article: The Woman Behind the Netflix Culture Doc
⦁ Presentation: Netflix Culture: Freedom & Responsibility
⦁ This information will be a key part of your final project for this course. According to Legal Dictionary, a fact pattern is “a concise description of all the occurrences or circumstances of a particular case, without any discussion of their consequences under the law.”
⦁ In other words, it provides the basic information—who, what, when, where, and why (which we will call the 5W approach):
⦁ Who: The individuals and organization involved in the issue
⦁ What: The issue at hand. What variables have created the situation that needs resolution, and what facts regarding the individuals involved and the organization can be codified as factual statements.
⦁ When: The timetable as to when the issue began and the approximate timeframe in which it must be settled. If not definitively known, provide an estimate of the duration.
⦁ Where: The geographic location, department, or division in which the problem exists.
⦁ Why: The drivers that created the situation needing resolution.
⦁ How: The ways in which the organizational culture may directly and/or indirectly impact the negotiation in an interpersonal or organization conflict situation.

For this discussion post, define the fact pattern in the Netflix case study, which you read about in the following Module One articles and presentation:

Question 31: General Question

This forum is designed to engage us in a discussion involving a comparison between Kouzes and Posner’s Leadership Practices and Senge’s Five disciplines (click for link).  Support your assertions with scholarly source material. Examine the document showing the table of comparisons and answer the following:
1. In what ways are the two sources suggestive of similar theoretical concepts and/or presentation?
Values/Actions Congruence, Shared Vision, Learning Together Through Collaboration,
2. How are they different?
Question the Status Quo, Integration of the Whole
3. What are your conclusions about the thinking of these leadership scholars as expressed in the table and with regard to additional sources you may elect to include in your discussion.

Question 32: Education

1.      What building blocks can an organization use to sustain competitive advantage?
2.      Define value creation and the components that can be used to determine value creation per unit. How is value creation related to competitive advantage?
What is a value chain? Why is efficiency so important in an organizations value chain?
3.      What does an internal analysis help a company to determine? How does this contribute to the overall health (value creation, competitive advantage, profitability) of the company?
4.      Why do companies fail? How does competitive advantage relate to failure?
5.      What are functional level strategies? How can functional level strategy contribute to efficiency?
6.      Describe economies of scale and its relation to competitive advantage. What strategic significance does economies of scale have?
7.      How does innovation relate to competitive advantage? What can be done to sustain innovation?
8.      How does customer relations contribute to competitive advantage? What is the effect of customer relations on value creation and its components?
9.

Assignment 2

Chapter 3 Questions:

10.  Define value creation and the components that can be used to determine value creation per unit. How is value creation related to competitive advantage?

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Question 33: Health Care

NURS6521 Final Exam Answers Latest Version Walden University

NURS6521 Final Exam Answers Latest Version Walden University

Question 34: Health Care

NURS4115 Week 3 Assignment
NURS4115 Week 3 Assignment

Question 35: Health Care

Week 1 Discussion Nurs 6051 Transforming Nursing and Healthcare Through Technology

Question 36: English

Reform of Healthcare Market and Regulation and Antitrust Policy in Health Care”  Please respond to the following:
⦁ From the e-Activity, synthesize the primary ways in which consumer and provider incentives work together to achieve cost reduction under the Affordable Care Act (ACA). Provide at least one (1) example of such synthesis to support your response.
⦁ Defend or critique the key provisions of antitrust legislation in the United States. Analyze the major ways in which quality issues in health care affect antirust healthcare policy. Provide at least one (1) example of antitrust laws in action to support your response.

From the e-Activity, synthesize the primary ways in which consumer and provider incentives work together to achieve cost reduction under the Affordable Care Act (ACA). Provide at least one (1) example of such synthesis to support your response.

Question 37: History

Strayer University – HIS 105Assignment 1 HIS 105.docx
Dealing with Diversity in America from Reconstruction Through the 1920’s

Question 38: History

Strayer University, Washington HIS 105 Assignment 2.2: Policemen of the WorldFinal Paper
Assignment 2.2: Policemen of the WorldFinal Paper
Due Week 10 and worth 120 points

You have already developed a thesis statement and developed an outline in which you explored two (2) real-life international incidents from the past five (5) years involving the United States as they received an elevated status as a world power. Now you will develop the final paper in which you explore your main points in detail.

Write a three to five (3-5) page paper in which you:

Introduce your paper with your previously crafted thesis statement.
Identify two to three (2-3) international events from the past five years that can be traced back to a foreign policy created after the Civil War.
Discuss three (3) aspects of US history since 1865 that has led to the US’s rise as a world super power policeman.
Identify three to five (3-5) international incidents since World War II where America has taken on a policing role.
Determine three to five (3-5) driving forces that fueled international policy decisions involving the international incidents you outlined previously. (Consider treaties, exit strategies, elections, wars, etc.)
Use at least three (3) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

Analyze the rise of the United States to a world “superpower” and how that status has shaped its internal developments in recent decades.
Recognize the major turning points in American history since the Civil War.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in contemporary U.S. history.
Write clearly and concisely about contemporary U.S. history using proper writing mechanics.

Question 39: Gender Studies

Create an overview of the process and steps involved in human resource planning, recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and hiring of employees.
Develop a comprehensive strategy for training new employees. Focusing on the role of the new employees within the organization.
Propose two to four (2-4) training strategies aimed at motivating the employees to learn key aspects about their new jobs.
Determine key issues that human resource management employees would be likely to encounter in the health care field. Prepare a plan that will enable the new employees to address each issue which includes instructional strategies, resources that will be utilized, and evaluation criteria for determining success.
Design at least three (3) visual components that enhance the program you have outlined, such as charts or diagrams.
Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources

Question 40: Gender studies

Apply information from the Aquifer Case Study to answer the following discussion questions:
⦁ Discuss the Mr. Payne’s history that would be pertinent to his genitourinary problem. Include chief complaint, HPI, Social, Family and Past medical history that would be important to know.
⦁ Describe the physical exam and diagnostic tools to be used for Mr. Payne. Are there any additional you would have liked to be included that were not?
⦁ Please list 3 differential diagnoses for Mr. Payne and explain why you chose them.  What was your final diagnosis and how did you make the determination?
⦁ What plan of care will Mr. Payne be given at this visit, include drug therapy and treatments; what is the patient education and follow-up?

discuss the Mr. Payne’s history that would be pertinent to his genitourinary problem. Include chief complaint, HPI, Social, Family and Past medical history that would be important to know.

Question 41: Chemistry

Compare Lewin’s 3-Step Model and Lippitt, Watson, and Westley’s change model. Compare and contrast the models,
discuss resistance, or how change could be embraced between those 2 models

Question 42: Geology

Labor in colonial America was scarce. Explain the development of using slaves for labor in the colonies. Below are some of the items you may include:
⦁ The development of using slaves for labor
⦁ Changes, problems, and issues with slave labor
⦁ Unintended consequences of using slave labor
Complete a 2-3 page paper according to CSU-Global’s Guide for Writing and APA Requirements. Each paper should include at least four paragraphs: an introduction, a body with at least two fully developed paragraphs, and a conclusion.

Question 43: Geology

Describe the additional complications facing an MNC compared with a domestic corporation when it is evaluating a capital budgeting project. Why should an MNC’s capital budgeting decision be based on the parent’s results rather than those of the subsidiary? Is an MNC generally faced with incurring double taxation on its profits in the subsidiary’s country? Why or why not?

Question 44: Urban Planning and Policy

Get Local: Rate Your Environment
Based on the material in this module and your own relevant research, address the following:
⦁ How would you rate your own neighborhood and the city or town that surrounds it with regard to the concepts presented in this module?
⦁ Discuss as many environmental factors that affect wellness (mining communities, contamination, nuclear poisoning, population density, socioeconomic influences, new vs. old developments, community gardens, etc.) as possible in your analysis and highlight how these factors support or challenge wellness.
⦁ How do these factors relate to the eight dimensions of wellness?
Make sure you support your ideas with information presented in the course material, other scholarly resources, and specific examples (real-life observations and experiences),

How would you rate your own neighborhood and the city or town that surrounds it with regard to the concepts presented in the module?

Question 45: Computer Science

The reasons why companies use HRIS vary widely. Large companies will use HRIS in certain ways while other, smaller companies may use it in other ways. Consider the following questions:
⦁ What are your perceptions of an HRIS?
⦁ What can an HRIS do for an organization?
⦁ List why your organization would want to or does use an HRIS.
Question 46: Biology

In 750-1,000 words, identify and describe the issues affecting standards of practice related to competency of medical care identified in the Lyckholm and Hackney article.
In addition to summarizing the relevant points of the article, explain the relevance that standards of practice have (or will have) to you as a practitioner.

Question 47: Biology

Prokaryotic and eukaryotic are the two major categories of cells making up life on earth. Both these types require water and carbon.
Describe the characteristics of water and carbon that makes them important to living things in general, and to specific forms of life including plants, animals, and prokaryotes. Why is NASA looking for water on Mars?
Describe the differences in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. How have the characteristics of each kind of cell put limitations and provided opportunities for the survival and divergence of modern living things? Why might both cell types be considered equally successful? Make sure to consider both Domains of Prokaryotes.

Question 48: General Question

Assignment 4  HR Training Class New Employee Customer Service Training

Imagine that you are a member of the HR department of a small retail company and upper management has asked you to create a new employee customer service training class for all new employees.

Write a six to seven (6-7) pages paper in which you:

1. Justify the use of a needs assessment of your company’s proposed employee customer service training, stressing five (5) ways in which such an assessment would expose any existing performance deficiencies.

2. Develop a customer service training implementation plan and determine the method of training (i.e., presentation, discussion, case study, discovery, role play, simulation, modeling, or on-the-job training).

3. Justify why you selected the training method that you did.

4. Propose two (2) ways to motivate an employee who has no interest in attending a training class.

5. Develop a survey to collect feedback from the employees who attend the training.

6. Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.

Question 49: Engineering

Read the article “Cognitive Effects of Risperidone in Children with Autism and Irritable Behavior”, and identify the research questions and/or hypotheses as they are stated. Consider the following questions: What are the variables (sample sizes, population, treatments, etc.)? How was the analysis of variance used in this article (and what type of ANOVA was used)?
Write a two- to three-page paper presenting the information listed below.  In addition, provide a title page and reference page in APA style.  Cite any references made to the article within the body of the paper in APA style. Your paper should begin with an introductory paragraph (including a thesis statement) and end with a concluding paragraph summarizing the major points made in the body of the paper and reaffirming the thesis.
The body of your paper must:
1.   Determine what question(s) the authors are trying to answer by doing this research.
2.   Determine the hypothesis being tested and the concepts that were applied in this process.
3.   Evaluate the article and critique the statistical analysis employed in the study.  Would you have included more and/or different variables?  Explain your answer.
4.   Examine the assumptions and limitations of the statistical study.  What would you have done differently in this case?  Explain your answer.
5.   Identify how the authors applied statistical testing to the problem.
6.   Interpret the findings of the author(s) using statistical concepts.

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Question 50: Engineering

assignment 3: Fraud in the AIS
For this assignment, research the Internet or Strayer databases to locate a firm that was involved in a fraud and / or embezzlement case.
Explain how the firm’s accounting information system (i.e., components and functions) contributed to the fraud and / or embezzlement. You will need to focus on how each component / function of the accounting information system failed, which resulted in the scandal / case.
Write a ten to twelve (10-12) page paper in which you:
1.   Based on the information you researched, assess the failure of the firm’s accounting information system to prevent the related fraud / embezzlement.
2.   Imagine that the company that you researched uses a third-party accounting system. Evaluate the effectiveness of the firm’s stakeholder in the event that a third-party accounting system suffers a breach. Include an assessment of the level of responsibility of the software provider to the business and its clients. Provide support for your rationale.
3.   Determine what advances in accounting and / or information technology could have prevented the event from occurring. Provide support for your argument.
4.   Evaluate what changes should be made to both the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 and other current laws in order to make them more effective in deterring companies from committing crimes.
5.   Recommend a strategy that the company you indicated may use to prevent future business information failures. Indicate how the company should approach the implementation of your recommended strategy. Provide support for your recommendation.
6.   Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.

Question 51: Astronomy

Crane Corp., a company whose stock is publicly traded, provides a noncontributory
defined-benefit pension plan for its employees. The company’s actuary has provided the following information for the year ended December 31, 2018:

Projected benefit obligation $622000
Accumulated benefit obligation  449000Fair value of plan assets  740000Service cost  180000Interest on projected benefit obligation  12000Amortization of prior service cost  36000Expected and actual return on plan assets  46500
The market-related asset value equals the fair value of plan assets. No contributions have been made for 2018 pension cost. In its December 31, 2018 balance sheet, Crane should report a pension asset / liability of

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Question 1: General Question

Question 1 (500 points)

You are currently working for a company called Pierogi’s and More.  This company specializes in
authentic ethnic European style foods.  Product offering includes Blintzes, Golabki, Kaputsa, and
Kielbasa, but the main item in the product line is the traditional Pierogi.  A pierogi is best
described as a piece of pastry or dough that is stuffed with various ingredients.  Going back to the
tradition of the product, the original pierogis were normally stuffed with mashed potatoes,
spinach, sauerkraut and/or variety of cheeses.  The pierogi was the ‘worker’ or ‘laborers’ meal, so
consequently did not include meats as they were not affordable but when available, some meats
would be an ingredient in the pierogi.  These meat-based pierogis were considered a delicacy and
used mainly for special occasions.
The pricing strategy has been quality/value-priced based.  The company has been trying to
develop a reputation and perspective of a high quality item.  The standard price for one dozen
pierogis has been $5.99 per dozen.  This price is a little higher than the prices of the main
competitors.  Depending upon the ingredients, the competitors’ prices range from $2.79 to $5.39
per dozen in most grocery stores.  Based on the current production costs and overheads, there is
some room to manipulate price, but there is a desire to make sure that the pricing strategy
reflects the quality of the product.  While the company has completed no in-depth research or
analysis, management believes they offer the highest quality pierogi on the market and believes
their price should reflect as much.  A breakdown of the cost structure revealed total variable
costs of $1.87/dozen and total fixed costs of $0.20/dozen.
Pierogi’s and More is starting to enter a new phase of distribution.  To this point, sales were
through the current company store front or direct sales to a few local markets.  The company is
now branching into specialty or higher end grocery retail.  This change will require the inclusion
of a wholesaler into the marketing channel.  Studies have shown that most grocery wholesalers
maintain a 30 percent mark-up while the retailer maintains a 25 percent mark-up.  Pierogi’s and
More desires to maintain their current price point at the retail level when they enter this new
distribution channel.  The company would also like to maintain a 45 percent mark-up.
Based upon the above information, please respond to the following:
a: Using the target price of $5.99, determine the price point the company should use for the
wholesaler.  Does this price point allow the company to maintain its desired 45 percent mark-
up?  If you know that the consumer price elasticity for this product group is 0.80, what would be
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your concerns when establishing the price?
b: Do you believe the company should continue to use a value-based pricing mechanism?  Why or
why not?  If you know the customer group has a high level of price sensitivity, what is your
concern with this pricing scenario?
c: In addition to the pricing decisions, Pierogi’s and More does not have a promotional campaign
designed for this new marketing channel.  Prepare an appropriate marketing campaign to enter
the new market.  Be specific in your response.  Does brand play a role in this process?
d: Pierogi’s and more has the opportunity to distribute the product through the specialty store in
both a frozen offering and a fresh offering in the deli/meat counter.  Should their pricing
structure be the same or different for the two products?  How would this impact other aspects of
the promotional mix?  Does brand play any roll in this process?
e: Create a slogan for the business, less than 20 words, which captures the essence of the brand.
Explain your rationale for the slogan. Then show how it should be incorporated within the brand
image and integrated marketing communication plan.

Question 2: Biology

NURS 6531 Midterm Exam  Latest Version Walden University

Question 3: Biology

NURS 6531 Midterm Exam Review WEEK 2 Latest Version Walden University

Question 4: Biology

NURS 6512 Final Exam   Latest Version Walden University

Question 5: Biology

NURSE 6531 Final Exam Adv. Practice Care of Adults   Latest Version Walden University

Question 6: Business

Wk 4 – Advisory Memo

As a first-year Human Resource Specialist at “State of Estates” estate planning firm, your boss (Will N. Trusts) presents you with the following two scenarios:
Scenario 1
Ned was hired six weeks ago by “State of Estates” to supervise the call center on weekends. At the time of hire, Ned did not disclose that he is a follower of the “Weekend Warriors” religion. In observance of his religious practices, Ned may not work Saturday mornings before noon. Ned called out of work three Saturday mornings in a row, costing the company extra overtime costs. The company looked to re-arrange the schedule, but to pull in a more senior supervisor on the weekend would require time-and-a-half pay. In addition, call-center statistics indicate a drop in productivity when there is a change of supervisor mid-day. The company would like to terminate Ned’s employment.
⦁ Would Ned have an argument for religious discrimination against “State of Estates?” Why or why not?
⦁ If yes, would the company be able to assert any defenses under these circumstances?

Scenario 2
Ella works in the accounting department in the northern satellite office of the company. She has been employed for four years and performed her job well until recently when she was caught sleeping on the job numerous times. Ella explained to her supervisor that she suffers from sleep apnea and has not been sleeping well at night. She requested a special caffeine supplement, at $200 daily, to keep her focused on the spreadsheets.
⦁ What factors would a court consider in determining whether Ella’s sleep apnea qualifies her for protection under the ADA?
⦁ Would “State of Estates” have to provide the requested accommodation of the caffeine pills in this instance? Why or why not?

Create two 350-word memos in one document based on these two scenarios.

Format your memos, including citations and references consistent with APA guidelines.

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Question 7: Business

Wk 4 discussion

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
⦁ The age for full social security benefits is 67 today, with more than one-third of people working past the age of 70.  The ADEA was enacted to prevent discrimination against older workers.  Discuss some of the underlying situations that contribute to discrimination by age and what companies can do to avoid decisions based on age alone.

Question 8: Business

6 page paper  (use template)

Analyze the business-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the business-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor. Compare their strategies at each level and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice.
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets.
Use at least three (3) quality references.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Identify various levels and types of strategy in a firm.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in business administration.
Write clearly and concisely about business administration using proper writing mechanics.

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Week 8 Assignment 3
Student Full Name

Date

Everything in Blue below should be deleted
Due Week 8 and worth 150 points
Using the corporation you chose from Assignment 1, examine its industry. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions. NOTE: Be sure to read Chapters 1 – 10 in the course textbook and complete the LEARN E-Activities for Weeks 1-8 as they set the foundation to this assignment. Be sure to cite your sources! Begin your paper on Page 2 and write a minimum of six (6) pages (does not include Title or Source pages).

Week 8 Assignment 3
Write your brief introduction here: It should not be more than 1 good paragraph (about 5 complete sentences) to introduce the reader to your topic and it should explain in detail what your paper will be discussing. Much of your introduction may be taken from the assignment itself (in your own words). Read the scenario to get a feel for what the paper is about and explain what your paper will be discussing – so be sure to review the Assignment instructions AND Rubric for understanding. Finally, please ask me any questions about this assignment.
Business-Level Strategies
Analyze the business-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the business-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice (Note: in this step you need to choose and write about only one (1) business-level strategy from the text book (not Google). Justify your opinion. For background, be sure to research and explain the industry in which your selected corporation operates. You could also briefly (1 – 2 sentences) define the business-level strategy (cite your sources) you are writing about using the textbook/Learn, as an introduction to your analysis. Read Chapter 4 in the course textbook. Review the Week 4 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content. In this section, you will want to research and identify the core competencies of your chosen firm. Demonstrate from your research how the firm uses its core competencies to create and sell its products in the marketplace. What actions & choices has the firm made to compete in individual product markets? Hint: “Every firm must form and use a business-level strategy.” (Hitt, Ireland, & Hoskisson, 2013, pp. 102). Review Chapters 4-9 for specifics on the business-level strategies.

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Corporate-Level Strategies
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice (Note: in this step you need to choose and write about only one (1) corporate-level strategy from the text book (not Google). Justify your opinion.
You should briefly define (1 – 2 sentences) corporate-level strategy based upon the textbook/lectures (cite your sources) as part of your analysis. Read Chapter 6 in the course textbook. Review the Week 6 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content.
Competitive Environment
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor (this will require research/cite your sources). Compare their strategies at each level (market commonality, resource similarity, competitive behavior, and competitive dynamics/actions/responses) and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice. Hint: read Chapter 5 in the course textbook as it provides a solid background and clues on this model that apply to this section. Review the Week 4 Learn video Lecture for supporting content (cite your sources).
Market Cycles
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 (Competitive Environment section above) would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets. It would be a good idea to briefly (1 – 2 sentences) explain what the slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets are from the textbook (cite your sources) as a short introduction to your determination. Hint: read Chapter 5 in the course textbook with a special focus on the Competitive Dynamics section. Review the Week 4 Learn video Lecture for supporting content (cite your sources).
Sources
Hitt, M. A., Ireland, R. D., & Hoskisson, R. E. (2013). Strategic management: Concepts and cases: Competiveness and globalization (10th ed.). Mason, OH: South-Western Cengage Learning.
List your sources on this page and remember to delete the instructions, which are in blue font.
Use at least three (3) quality sources, one of which must be the course textbook to support your ideas/work. Note: Wikipedia and college essay sites do not qualify as academic resources.
Cite your sources throughout your work when you borrow someone else’s words or ideas.
The source page must include all sources used. All sources listed here must be cited in your paper.
Look for a permalink tool for a webpage when possible (especially when an electronic
source requires logging in).
When using SWS remember to organize sources in a numbered list and in order of use throughout the paper; use the original number when citing a source multiple times; and follow this format for all sources:
Author. Publication Date. Title. Page # (written as p. #). How to Find (e.g. web address)
The APA format may also be used for a Reference page.
Questions to ask yourself before submitting your paper.
⦁ Did I read the required course material and complete the required activities?
⦁ Have I deleted the blue font instructions in this template?
⦁ Did I leave the provided section headings in place, as provided in this template?
⦁ After deleting the blue fonts in this template, have I changed all font to black?
Additional things to keep in mind.
⦁ You will be graded on the content of your submission, the quality of your answers, the logic/organization of the report, your language skills, and your writing skills using the grading rubric.
⦁ Strayer uses SafeAssign – an automated plagiarism checker. It is advised that you do your own writing and use external resources to support what you have written in your own words.

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Question 9: Business

The Woolong Company produces high-end vacuum cleaners and has hired you to oversee the development and release of their latest product. A preliminary project initiation meeting will result in the identification of the project sponsor, selection of a project manager, and creation of the project charter. A manager in the production department who knows you are taking a college project management course asks you to prepare a report to help them prepare for the meeting by answering the following questions:
⦁ Who are the project stakeholders? How will they be involved in the project?
⦁ Whom should the project sponsor be? Why?
⦁ What skills and experience are likely needed by the project manager for each phase in the project life cycle, and how do these skills and experiences differ between the various phases?
⦁ What kind of roles and responsibilities should the key stakeholders have? Discuss at least 4–5 different kinds of stakeholders.
⦁ How should they communicate to different stakeholders during the project?
⦁ What information should be shared with the project stakeholders?
⦁ What is the mechanism that could be used for each type of information?
⦁ What is the frequency with which information should be shared?
⦁ What should be done if project communications are not proving to be effective?
⦁ What technology could be used for project communications?
⦁ At what point could communication about the project become an ethical or legal issue?
⦁ What are the best ways to manage project risks as well as opportunities during project execution?
⦁ How do they update and analyze old risks as well as new risks while undertaking the project?
⦁ What business opportunity might project completion create?
⦁ What is the potential financial impact of the project?
⦁ What are the expected results of the project?
⦁ What value will the project add?
⦁ What is the potential impact to the company if the project is not finished well?
Present your findings as a Word document of 4–5 pages (not including title and reference pages) formatted in APA style, using the attached template. Submitting your assignment in APA format means, at a minimum, you will need the following:
⦁ Title page: Remember the running head. The title should be in all capitals.
⦁ Body: The body of your paper begins on the page following the title page and abstract page and must be double-spaced (be careful not to triple- or quadruple-space between paragraphs). The type face should be 12-pt. Times Roman or 12-pt. Courier in regular black type. Do not use color, bold type, or italics except as required for APA-level headings and references. The deliverable length of the body of your paper for this assignment is 2–3 pages. In-body academic citations to support your decisions and analysis are required. A variety of academic sources is encouraged.
⦁ Reference page: References that align with your in-body academic sources are listed on the final page of your paper. The references must be in APA format using appropriate spacing, hang indention, italics, and upper- and lowercase usage as appropriate for the type of resource used. Remember, the Reference Page is not a bibliography but a further listing of the abbreviated in-body citations used in the paper. Every referenced item must have a corresponding in-body citation.

Question 10: Business

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1)      Describe the changing demographic patterns of the aging population. How do these patterns vary by age, gender, race, and ethnicity? How will the demographic changes in the population in the next decade influence the type and delivery of community resources available to older adults?
2)      Major historical events can shape the way a cohort behaves throughout their lives. As an example individuals who grew-up during the depression are often frugal with spending even in old age. What was the major historical event of your life course? How did this affect your life and do you think it will continue to impact you as you age?
3)      From the point of view of older adults, what might be the advantages and disadvantages of living in a state with a large older population? From the point of view of younger generations? Explain, using references from this week’s resources to support your response.
4)      What is ageism (as it applies to the aging population)? Name three examples of ageism that you’ve personally witnessed, experienced, or perhaps even committed yourself. How are these instances damaging to the aging population?

Question 11: Business

HRM 530 Assignment 1 Alignment of HRM and Business Strategies
HRM 530 Assignment 1 Alignment of HRM and Business Strategies

Question 12: Business

Create a chart with rows and columns to establish the following requirements of discrimination under the law in the following areas at the top:

⦁ Title VII Gender Discrimination in Employment Practices
⦁ Sexual Harassment Based on Hostile Work Environment
⦁ Quid-Pro-Quo Sexual Harassment
⦁ Sexual Orientation in the Workplace

Along the left side of the chart, create the following rows:

⦁ Requirements to Prove Under the Law
⦁ Ways Employers can Minimize Liability
⦁ Recent Case Example

Complete the chart for each section.

Explain in 350 to 525 words the requirements of each type of potential gender discrimination.

Explain in 350 to 525 words the specific ways employers can minimize liability for each type of gender discrimination.

Research and include a relevant case to illustrate each type of gender discrimination.

Format your citations and references consistent with APA guidelines.

Question 13: Health Care

Nursing Therapy Quiz

STUDY GUIDE

This quiz will cover the following topics, which relate to psychotherapy with individuals in the Wheeler textbook and the Fisher textbook excerpts:

Topics
·         The Nurse Psychotherapist and a Framework for Practice
·         Confidentiality Limits in Psychotherapy: Ethics Checklists for Mental Health Professionals
·         Assessment and Diagnosis
·         The Initial Contact and Maintaining the Frame
·         Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
·         Supportive and Psychodynamic Psychotherapy
·         Stabilization for Trauma and Dissociation
·         Motivational Interviewing
·         Psychotherapeutic Approaches for Addictions and Related Disorders

Wheeler, K. (Eds.). (2014). Psychotherapy for the advanced practice psychiatric nurse: A how-to guide for evidence-based practice (2nd ed.). New York, NY: Springer Publishing Company.
·         Chapter 1, “The Nurse Psychotherapist and a Framework for Practice”
·         Chapter 3, “Assessment and Diagnosis”
·         Chapter 4, “The Initial Contact and Maintaining the Frame”
·        Chapter 5, “Supportive and Psychodynamic Psychotherapy”
·        Chapter 7, “Motivational Interviewing” (pp.299-312)
·        Chapter 8, “Cognitive Behavioral Therapy”
·        Chapter 13, “Stabilization for Trauma and Dissociation”
·        Chapter 16, “Psychotherapeutic Approaches for Addictions and Related Disorders”

Fisher, M. A. (2016). Introduction. In Confidentiality limits in psychotherapy: Ethics checklists for mental health professionals (pp. 3–12). Washington, DC: American Psychological Association. doi:10.1037/14860-001

Fisher, M. A. (2016). The ethical ABCs of conditional confidentiality. In Confidentiality limits in psychotherapy: Ethics checklists for mental health professionals (pp. 13–25). Washington, DC: American Psychological Association. doi:10.1037/14860-002

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Question 1
⦁ After informing a prospective patient about limits of confidentiality, the patient consents to the “conditions” of confidentiality and signs an informed consent form. Several weeks later, a lawyer representing the patient’s spouse for a court case, asks the PMHNP for the disclosure of information about the patient. The PMHNP should:

A.
Disclose all patient information as requested

B.
Refuse to disclose any confidential information

C.
Limit disclosure to the extent legally possible

D.
Ignore the request based on ethical reasons
1 points
Question 2
⦁ The PMHNP is meeting with a new patient who is a young veteran back from serving two tours overseas. When reviewing the patient’s health history file that was sent from the VA, the PMHNP learns that several months ago, the patient was diagnosed with PTSD, but never followed up with treatment for it. After a comprehensive mental health assessment, the PMHNP confirms the PTSD diagnosis and understands that which therapeutic approach will be the most effective as a first-line treatment modality?

A.
Performing a psychiatric debriefing on the patient

B.
Employing cognitive behavioral therapy with the patient

C.
Using psychodynamic psychotherapy with the patient

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 3
⦁ One of the strategies the PMHNP wants to try includes sleep restriction. What will the PMHNP suggest to follow sleep restriction therapy?

A.
“Restrict sleep for 24 hours.”

B.
“Restrict the amount of time you spend in bed.”

C.
“Restrict the amount of exercise you do prior to going to bed.”

D.
“Restrict the amount of food you eat before bedtime.”
1 points
Question 4
⦁ The PMHNP is conducting a peer review of another PMHNP’s medical charts. Upon review, the PMHNP notes that the peer often begins patient sessions late, as well as ends them later than scheduled. The PMHNP also found a comment in the chart regarding the patient sending text messages while in the middle of the session. Based on these findings, the feedback that the PMHNP will provide to the peer involves which therapeutic principle?

A.
Assessing safety

B.
Applying therapeutic communication

C.
Using empathy

D.
Maintaining the frame

32.The PMHNP is mentoring a student. After working with a patient during a session, the student laments about all the things she should have, or could have, said to the patient. “I feel guilty that I didn’t speak up more about the patient’s concern toward her son,” says the student. The PMHNP understands that the student is exhibiting signs of which therapeutic concept?
1 points
Question 5
⦁ True or false: If after a third round of processing followed by stabilization, a patient has increased anxiety that requires further interventions aimed at stabilization, the therapeutic relationship can no longer successfully provide therapeutic change.
True
False
1 points
Question 6
⦁ The PMHNP has been treating a 15-year-old patient with a history of abuse and neglect. Thirty minutes into their therapy session the patient jumps up and begins to pace around the room. Utilizing Socratic dialogue (SD) the PMHNP’s best action would be to:

A.
Allow the patient time to process before speaking.

B.
Ask, “Why don’t you come have a seat beside me?” while tapping the table.

C.
Say, “I noticed a change. Can you tell me what happened?”

D.
Say, “We can continue this session later if you prefer.”

1 points
Question 7
⦁ The PMHNP is caring for a patient who the PMHNP believes would benefit from a relational psychodynamic approach to therapy. Which action made by the PMHNP demonstrates appropriate use and understanding of the relationship psychodynamic model?

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A.
Focusing the exploration on making the unconscious conscious

B.
Focusing the exploration on the genetic roots of the patient’s problem

C.
Focusing the exploration on here and now

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 8
⦁ The PMHNP is caring for a patient with borderline personality disorder. Using a psychoanalytic psychotherapy approach, the PMHNP attempts to intensify the patient’s transference to enhance emotional processing by:

A.
Developing increased boundaries

B.
Decreasing supportive psychotherapy

C.
Scaling back contact with the patient

D.
Increasing the number of sessions per week
1 points
Question 9
⦁ An elderly patient in a nursing home has been losing interest in activities and now refuses to leave his room. After a physical exam, he is referred to a PMHNP for an initial assessment.
True or false: After speaking with the patient, an appropriate screening tool for the PMHNP  to use would be the Geriatric Depression Scale.
True
False
1 points
Question 10
⦁ A middle-aged man who works over 50 hours a week is being seen for depression and anger management. He states, “I am even more frustrated when I come home and my wife wants to argue about stupid stuff. All I want to do is come home, take a shower, and eat. Is that too much to ask?” The PMHNP explains that people can be assertive, aggressive, and passive. She encourages the patient to be more assertive and begins role-play with assertive training. The PMHNP determines that the patient is beginning to understand when he states:

A.
“I am tired, I work very hard all day to support you and this family!”

B.
“I come home and all you do is argue, but I don’t care.”

C.
“I don’t know what I did. Why are you acting like this?!”

D.
“I feel frustrated when I come home and we argue.”

1 points
Question 11
⦁ The PMHNP is treating a patient with a substantial fear of feeling closed in (claustrophobia). Thus, the patient will not get into an elevator. The office where he works is on the 10th floor and this requires that he walk up and down the stairs in the morning and evening to get to his office. With permission from the patient, the PMHNP is beginning systematic desensitization to address the patient’s need to use the elevator. What is the PMHNP’s best plan of action?

A.
Begin by having the patient stand in front of the elevator and write down his feelings

B.
Complete a 30-minute therapy session in an elevator

C.
Allow the patient to watch an elevator go up and down

D.
Allow the patient to see the PMHNP getting into an elevator
1 points
Question 12
⦁ A PMHNP is assessing ego functioning of his 40-year-old patient by asking what she feels is the cause of her problems. She attributes her problems to her overprotective parents not letting her have enough freedom growing up. Based on her answer, the PMHNP is testing _____________.

A.
adaptive regression in the service of the ego

B.
regulation and control of affects and impulses

C.
defensive and interpersonal functioning

D.
sense of reality of the world and of the self
1 points
1 points
Question 18
⦁ During a session, the PMHNP asks a patient with a history of sexual abuse to recall the relationship she had as a child with her parents. The patient responds by saying she has a headache and her stomach hurts, and starts talking about her physical ailments. What is the appropriate response by the PMHNP?

A.
Assure the patient that she does not have to discuss these memories

B.
Explain why it is important for the patient to discuss these memories openly

C.
Tell the patient that she may not get better if she does not face her fears

D.
Let the patient know that plenty of other people have similar painful memories, too
1 points
Question 20
⦁ During a therapy session with an 18-year-old female the PMHNP learns that she has lived in six different foster homes in the last 24 months. She states that her mother is in a correctional facility for drug abuse and prostitution. During the assessment, the PMHNP notices multiple superficial cuts to each wrist. The patient appears tearful, withdrawn, and never makes direct eye contact. The PMHNP believes that this patient may have feelings of insecurities as well as abandonment issues and is aware that which diagnosis is likely possible?

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A.
Narcissistic personality disorder

B.
Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

C.
Borderline personality disorder

D.
Paranoid personality disorder
1 points
Question 21
⦁ A patient named Steve is seeking therapy to get help with his home situation, stating that he has been stressed since his mother-in-law moved into the house. What can the PMHNP do to assist the patient in constructing a narrative?

A.
Share a personal story about her home situation and family members

B.
Elicit details so Steve becomes more self-disclosing and self-examining

C.
Guide Steve through imagery exercises so he can decrease his stress

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 22
⦁ A 16-year-old female patient has had a stable therapeutic relationship with the PMHNP for several months. The PMHNP notices what appears to be fresh cigarette burns on the patient’s arm. When asked, the patient admits to this self-injurious behavior. Although the patient is still depressed, her mood seems to be somewhat better this week. True or false: The PMHNP would most likely consider this patient stabilized and ready to move to Stage II.
True
False
1 points
Question 23
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a patient who experiences abreactions when discussing repressed feelings of his sexual abuse as a child. What can the PMHNP do to manage the patient’s intense emotional reactions?

A.
Sit closer to the patient so the patient does not feel isolated

B.
Embrace the patient to provide physical comfort

C.
Suggest a relaxation technique, such as yoga or meditation

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 25
⦁ During cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), a 64-year-old male patient states, “I get so frustrated sometimes and I just blow up at everybody!” Which response by the PMHNP demonstrates translation of Socratic dialogue (SD)?

A.
“Please explain how this affects the relationship with your wife.”

B.
“When you say blow up, what exactly does blow up mean and  how does it feel to you?”

C.
“What coping methods have you used in the past during times of frustration?”

D.
“So you blow up when you become frustrated?”
1 points
Question 26
⦁ The PMHNP is mentoring a student. After working with a patient during a session, the student laments about all the things she should have, or could have, said to the patient. “I feel guilty that I didn’t speak up more about the patient’s concern toward her son,” says the student. The PMHNP understands that the student is exhibiting signs of which therapeutic concept?

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A.
Countertransference

B.
Therapeutic communication

C.
Empathy

D.
Boundaries
1 points
Question 27
⦁ A 28-year-old male patient is experiencing distress related to the workplace. What might the PMHNP ask to assess affective development?

A.
“How do you think your colleagues feel about you?”

B.
“How do you calm yourself when you are upset at the office?”

C.
“How do you think your colleague felt when you blamed her?”

D.
All of the above.
1 points
Question 28
⦁ A PMHNP is preparing confidentiality forms for his patients. What is the most appropriate first step he should take?

A.
Talk to potential patients to get their feedback and suggestions

B.
Research his profession’s ethics code and state/federal laws

C.
Use current patient interactions to decide what matters most

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 29
⦁ A PMHNP is caring for a 21-year-old woman who is suffering from anxiety and is having difficulty managing stress. Which of the following would be an appropriate step by the PMHNP?

A.
Asking the patient what she does to relieve anxiety

B.
Giving the patient basic stress management activities

C.
Developing a plan together that is not overwhelming

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 30
⦁ The PMHNP is caring for a patient who has acute stress disorder after experiencing a traumatic event 1 week prior. The PMHNP wants to begin with a therapeutic framework that follows the adaptive information processing (AIP) model. What is the priority action for the PMHNP to take?

A.
Focus on the patient’s safety and stabilization

B.
Help the patient process painful memories

C.
Encourage the patient to find ways to achieve personal growth

D.
Assist the patient in planning for the future
1 points
Question 31
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a 43-year-old male patient who develops idiosyncratic transference over weeks of therapy. The best way for the PMHNP to respond to this patient is to ___________:

A.
employ cognitive behavioral therapy

B.
use empathy

C.
utilize intersubjectivity

D.
none of the above
1 points
Question 32
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a 56-year-old man who is being seen because of his anxiety and depression. During the therapy sessions, the PMHNP assists the patient in discussing his experiences and expanding on his thoughts and feelings. He tells the PMHNP stories about how he used to be teased by his coworkers at the office for becoming too anxious in large conference rooms. The PMHNP listens to the patient and helps focus on his strengths to promote self-understanding. Which principle best accounts for the PMHNP’s interactions with the patient?

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A.
Therapeutic communication

B.
Maintaining the frame

C.
Working with resistance

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 33
⦁ During a therapy session the patient is asked how she currently deals with stress, and she says, “Well, I don’t. I just let it build and build.” The PMHNP responds by asking how well this has been working out for her. The patient states, “Well, to be honest, it just feels like I’m drowning, you know what I mean.” Illustrating idiosyncratic meaning, the PMHNP responds with:

A.
“Would you say you feel like you are suffocating?”

B.
“No, I am not sure what you are saying. Can you please explain?”

C.
“Sort of like a fish out of water?”

D.
“When you say, ‘I just can’t breathe,’ you do understand, that is a form of anxiety?”

1 points
Question 34
⦁ The PMHNP is having a therapy session with Charlotte, a 20-year-old victim of date rape. The patient states, “I shouldn’t have been there; I should have just gone home. This was all my fault; how could I have been so stupid?” Using the Socratic method, what is the PMHNP’s best response?

A.
“If this had happened to someone else with the exact same circumstances, would you say this was her fault?”

B.
“Can you recall exactly what stopped you from going home when you originally wanted to go home?”

C.
”Have you shared these thoughts about what you should have done with anybody other than me?”

D.
“Do you understand that there is absolutely nothing that you could ever do to deserve to be treated the way you were treated?”
1 points
Question 35
⦁ At the initial interview with a patient, the PMHNP reviews the condition of receiving services, including limits that will be imposed on confidentiality. During the discussion, the patient shares information that the PMHNP is legally required to report.
True or false: If the PMHNP does not report information that s/he is legally required to report, state laws govern the consequences which include penalties for not reporting, especially child and elder abuse.
True
False
1 points
Question 37
⦁ The PMHNP is meeting with a 42-year-old man with depression brought on by the recent passing of his wife. As he describes the circumstances surrounding his late wife’s death, the PMHNP begins to feel sad. The sadness lingers for several hours, and the PMHNP finds it difficult to focus on other patients for the rest of the day. What is the most appropriate explanation for the reaction that the PMHNP is experiencing?

A.
Autognosis

B.
Complementary identification

C.
Concordant identification

D.
Self-disclosure
1 points
Question 38
⦁ The PMHNP employs psychodynamic psychotherapy with a patient who experiences anxiety and depression. As the process enters the psychoanalytic end of the psychodynamic continuum, the PMNHP will focus on:

A.
Interpreting unconscious conflict in the patient

B.
Restoring the patient’s functioning and stabilization

C.
Reducing the patient’s anxiety

D.
Strengthening the patient’s defenses
1 points
Question 39
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a patient who experiences anxiety around her parents that later leads to poor impulse control. What will the PMHNP do to employ psychodynamic psychotherapy properly for this patient?

A.
Emphasize the past

B.
Focus on expressions of emotion

C.
Identify patterns in relationships

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 40
⦁ A new patient has been informed of the limits of confidentiality, and has signed informed consent forms. No consent, however, has been obtained for voluntary “Release of Information.” The patient is 20 years old and still lives at home with his parents. He is being treated for depression, which he attributes to the trouble he’s had finding employment.
True or false: If the patient’s mother calls the PMHNP to check up on her son to see how he is doing, the therapist is required to protect patient confidentiality and not disclose information.
True
False
1 points
Question 41
⦁ A PMHNP is treating a 45-year-old female patient who is upset that her brother has not been calling since his divorce. When asked to describe her brother and what prompts him not to call as frequently, she says, “Everything is about him, not me. I think he’s jealous that I have a good marriage and he wants me to be unhappy, too. So he doesn’t call to upset me and ruin my relationships.” Based on this information, the PMHNP can conclude that the patient _________.

A.
may lack ability to see independent motivations

B.
has an insistent emphasis on the feelings of others

C.
has an intrusive interpersonal relationship

D.
all of the above
1 points
Question 42
⦁ The PMHNP is assessing a patient who grew up in a foster home because she was neglected and abused by her birth parents at a young age. The patient admits to having difficulty forming and maintaining relationships throughout her life. Understanding maladaptive schemas, which statement does the PMHNP predict that the patient is likely to make?

A.
“I deserve the utmost respect from everyone who meets me.”

B.
“I prefer doing everything on my own.”

C.
“It takes me a while to warm up to people; people often wear masks.”

D.
“I can’t seem to do anything on my own.”

1 points
Question 43
⦁ A patient who has borderline personality disorder is meeting with the PMHNP. When asked about future goals, the patient responds, “I’d like to go back to school to do what you
do. You know, talk to people all day about their problems. It seems pretty easy.” How does the PHMNP respond to the client in a way that is free from any stigmatizing beliefs or judgments?

A.
“It is dangerous to fantasize about the future.”

B.
“I think that’s an excellent idea! I can help you review the prerequisites!”

C.
“You may want to explore the requirements for becoming a PMNHP.”

D.
None of the above.
1 points
Question 44
⦁ True or false: A PMHNP may ask his patient to describe her relationship with her father, both as a child and now, in order to assess interpersonal style.
True
False
1 points
Question 45
⦁ A 41-year-old male patient is meeting with the PMHNP and reveals that he is homosexual. He begins telling the PMHNP about his feelings as a homosexual, middle-aged man. The PMHNP nods understandingly. Before long, the patient asks, “Are you gay? Are you married? Do you have kids?” What is the best response by the PMHNP?

A.
Answer the patient’s questions honestly to establish trust

B.
Mention that the patient seems quite curious, and ask him to discuss more about himself

C.
Ignore the patient’s questions and move on to another topic

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 46
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a veteran who has posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). The PMHNP believes that dual awareness will be beneficial in allowing the patient to focus on the here and now. What strategies can the PMHNP use to develop dual awareness in the patient?

A.
Asking the patient to recall a recent and mildly disturbing event

B.
Having the patient focus on details of the room, such as how hot or cold it is

C.
Telling the patient to rate the level of disturbance he feels from a mildly disturbing event

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 47
⦁ The PMHNP has been assisting a shy and timid 23-year-old male patient struggling with esteem and self-concept issues. Over the weekend, this patient was given the task of completing an exercise that would usually cause him distress and shame, also called a shame-attacking exercise. The PMHNP determines that this task has successfully been achieved when the patient states:

A.
“I was able to eat in public yesterday despite how loudly I chew.”

B.
“I confessed all of my infidelities to my ex-spouse yesterday.”

C.
“I calmly sat through a conversation with my spouse in which she confessed all of her infidelities to me.”

D.
“I journaled the shame and guilt that I’ve been feeling from my past that has been holding me back.”

1 points
Question 48
⦁ A 35-year-old patient seeks treatment for depression and anxiety after an abusive relationship. To help empower the patient, the PMHNP wants to teach the safe-place exercise to create a feeling of calm. In order to walk the patient through the exercise, the PMHNP first says:

A.
“Identify an image of a safe place that makes you feel calm.”

B.
“Think about the things that cause you anxiety and let them go.”

C.
“Take a deep breath and start to relax with each new breath.”

D.
“Picture a beautiful beach and describe to me what you see.”
1 points
Question 49
⦁ When conducting an initial assessment, a PMHNP has finished conducting a mental status examination with 10 minutes left in the session. The patient is distressed and would like to continue sharing her personal history.
True or false: An appropriate response that the PMHNP might tell the patient is, “I understand that you are upset. [Summarizes diagnosis, treatment recommendations, and follow-up plan.] We can continue the conversation next week. How does this time next Monday work for you?”
True
False
1 points
Question 50
⦁ A PMHNP’s patients have already signed confidentiality agreements, including limits that will be imposed on confidentiality. Months later, the state’s laws have changed that affect confidentiality promises the PMHNP has already made. What is an appropriate step for the PMHNP to take after finding out this information?

A.
Revise intake forms to align with state laws

B.
Review confidentiality revisions with patients

C.
Have patients give informed consent again

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 51
⦁ A 65-year-old patient has suffered the loss of his wife. He is in a state of hyperarousal with increased sympathetic nervous system arousal. One or more interventions may help the patient to deal with this arousal. To decrease sympathetic nervous system arousal, the PMHNP’s treatment strategy is ___________.

A.
mindfulness techniques

B.
deep breathing exercises

C.
self-regulation strategies

D.
all of the above
1 points
Question 52
⦁ A PMHNP is treating a 50-year-old patient who suffers from depression. When he was growing up, he was often responsible for taking care of his three younger siblings. Since then, the patient puts other people’s needs before his own. Based on this information, the PMHNP would conclude that his interpersonal style is __________.

A.
overly nurturing

B.
nonassertive

C.
exploitable

D.
vindictive
1 points
Question 53
⦁ The PMHNP meets with an adolescent patient who has depression and often presents with resistance when discussing his parent’s divorce. For the past couple of sessions, the patient has been quiet, sometimes refusing to speak. To further support the therapeutic relationship, the PMNHP:

A.
Observes and points out the behavior

B.
Stays quiet until the patient is ready to speak

C.
Brings in a colleague to help get the patient to talk

D.
None of the above
1 point
Question 54
⦁ The PMHNP has a session with a patient who was injured and traumatized from an explosion at the industrial plant where he used to work. During the session, an outside noise startles the patient and he experiences a flashback of the loud boom from the explosion. The PMHNP witnesses the patient present with anxiety and belabored breathing. What is the appropriate action of the PMHNP?

A.
Telling the patient there is no reason to be startled

B.
Avoiding interrupting the flashback as it occurs

C.
Asking the patient to describe the flashbacks

D.
Have the patient use the relaxation response (take a deep breath, exhale long, and slow down)
1 points
Question 55
⦁ In your office, you see a 58-year-old patient with PTSD who reports having nightmares, making it impossible for her to sleep. What recommendations based on principles of sleep hygiene will the PMHNP make?

A.
Eat a heavy meal before bedtime to induce sleepiness

B.
Maintain a warm bedroom temperature

C.
Avoid watching television or reading in bed

D.
Try going to sleep at different times throughout the week to avoid monotony
1 points
Question 57
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a patient who is living in poverty and abusing substances. According to the treatment hierarchy framework, what needs does the PMHNP need to attend to first?

A.
Provide safety through case management strategies

B.
Help the patient manage positive and negative emotions

C.
Explore the meaning of significant adverse life experiences

D.
Process all dimensions of memory associated with the trauma
1 points
Question 58
⦁ Your patient is a 65-year-old male who has a strained relationship with his son and daughter. His children refuse to participate in a family session. The PMHNP asks the patient to draw his family genogram as a next step to _______________.

A.
assess the patient’s mental health status and functioning

B.
explore the interpersonal styles of each family member

C.
provide background information for the patient’s family structure

D.
measure the patient’s quality of well-being and productivity
1 points
Question 59
⦁ During cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), a 64-year-old male patient, states, “My wife hates me! She’s just waiting for me to die.” Using Socratic dialogue (SD) the PMHNP demonstrates understanding of analysis when she responds:

A.
“Now, I’m sure your wife doesn’t hate you.”

B.
“Where is the evidence that your wife hates you?”

C.
“You seem convinced that your wife hates you.”

D.
“What has your wife done to make you believe this?”

1 points
Question 60
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a patient who has insomnia and battles going to sleep. The patient reports consistent self-defeating behaviors, and hates trying to go to sleep. Which action made by the PMHNP demonstrates the use of a paradoxical intervention?

A.
Telling the patient to start trying to go to sleep earlier, since it takes long to fall asleep

B.
Telling the patient to resist sleep and stay awake

C.
Having the patient perform a relaxing ritual before bedtime

D.
Instructing the patient to avoid stimulants and sugars for 3 hours before falling asleep
1 points
Question 61
⦁ The PMHNP is working with a patient who seems dissatisfied with the therapeutic relationship. The PMHNP invites the patient to discuss her feelings regarding the PMHNP openly and honestly. It becomes clear to the PMHNP that they are experiencing an alliance rupture. How does the PMHNP repair the therapeutic alliance?

A.
Responding to the patient in a nondefensive manner and accepting responsibility for the PMHNP’s part in the tension

B.
Emphasizing with the patient’s experiences and validating the patient for bringing it up

C.
Considering changing the goals of the patient’s treatment

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 62
⦁ The patient attempts the PMHNP’s sleep hygiene recommendations for 2 weeks, but does not make any progress mitigating nightmares and hyperarousal. Which behavioral strategy does the PMHNP suggest next?

A.
Progressive muscle relaxation exercises

B.
Paradoxical interventions

C.
Biofeedback

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 63
⦁ A PMHNP is taking a history and wants to assess how the patient copes with adversity. To do so, the therapist asks questions about the patient’s belief system. What would be an appropriate question to ask?

A.
“What are your beliefs about therapy and seeking help?”

B.
“To what extent do your religious beliefs give you comfort?”

C.
“What gives you a sense of meaning and purpose in life?”

D.
All of the above.
1 points
Question 64
⦁ An 11-year-old patient has been exhibiting low self-esteem at school and acting out. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which of the following questions would best be addressed first by the PMHNP?

A.
“Are Joel’s peers including him at recess?”

B.
“Does Joel feel safe and secure at school?”

C.
“Is Joel getting enough sleep at home?”

D.
“How can Joel feel that he is loved?”
1 points
Question 65
⦁ The PMHNP is treating a 35-year-old male officer in the military. He discloses that both of his parents are deceased and that he loved them. However, he says that he had feelings of inadequacy because his parents held him to a standard that he could never achieve. He went on to say that nothing he did ever felt good enough. The PMHNP assesses that this patient has perfect creases in his uniform with no strings or tags out of place; she also notices that he has perfect posture and questions him about ritualistic behaviors. She suspects that this patient has maladaptive responses to the expectations placed on him as a teenager and young adult. Which statements made by the patient would verify the PMHNP’s suspicion?

A.
“I typically don’t listen to anyone. I take care of my own wants and needs so I feel like no one can judge me or criticize me, period.”

B.
“I don’t mean to hurt other people’s feelings. When people cry or say that I have made them upset in some way, that’s not my fault; some people are just sensitive.”

C.
“I like to listen to the beat of my own drum; I don’t mind spending most of my days alone. I don’t  need recognition or praise; I would just like to be left alone.”

D.
“I believe in systems; I have to have order and rules in my everyday life. If a task must be completed, I will often complete it myself versus depending on someone else.”

1 points
Question 66
⦁ The PMHNP is caring for a patient who seems to seek affection and attention from the PMHNP and others in the clinic, as well as displays heightened emotional responses to feelings of being excluded. What therapeutic approach does the PMHNP use to decrease autonomic arousal in the patient?

A.
Group therapy

B.
Controlled confrontation

C.
A safe-place exercise

D.
Body and energy work
1 points
Question 67
⦁ The PMHNP is caring for a patient with dissociated self-state that the PMHNP identifies as being associated with traumatic experiences in the patient’s past. What approach does the PMHNP use with the patient that is crucial to the psychodynamic therapy process?

A.
Assisting the patient to experience and accept the various dimensions of the self through enhanced awareness of the traumatic states

B.
Becoming a co-participant in the co-construction of the relationship with the patient, rather than an outside observer

C.
Making associations between an event or situation and the patient’s feelings

D.
Providing empathy, understanding, and soothing to help the patient identify the other self-states
1 points

Question 14: Health Care

Once you have submitted your second submission to the grade book dropbox, it will be considered final and subject for grading.
Purpose
The purpose of this assignment is to provide the student an opportunity to explore the role of the advanced practice nurse (APN) and develop an APN professional development plan.
Course Outcomes
Through this assignment, the student will demonstrate the ability to:
CO1: Analyze the historic development of advanced practice roles including the impact of advanced practice nursing on  healthcare delivery from the perspective of selected current reports (i.e., LACE, IOM, etc.) (PO 3)
CO3: Explore how leadership styles influence healthcare delivery and organizations.  (PO 4)
CO5: Reflect on personal and professional growth toward achieving competence as a family nurse practitioner. (PO 3)
Due Date: Sunday 11:59 p.m. MST at the end of Week 6
Total Points Possible: 225
Requirements:
1.    To complete this application, you will need to access to the following databases: CINAHL, MEDLINE, Cochrane Library, and the Joanna Briggs Institute. You may access these databases through the Chamberlain College of Nursing Online Library.
2.    The APN Professional Development Plan paper is worth 225 points and will be graded on quality of information, use of citations, use of Standard English grammar, sentence structure, and overall organization based on the required components as summarized in the directions and grading criteria/rubric.
3.    Create your manuscript using Microsoft Word, which is the required format for all Chamberlain College of Nursing documents.
4.    Follow the directions and grading criteria closely. Any questions about this paper may be posted under the Q & A Forum or emailed to your faculty.
5.    The length of the paper is to be no less than 6 and no greater than 8 pages excluding title page and reference pages. In some cases, students may need to exceed this page number.
6.    APA (2010) format is required with both a title page and reference page. Use the required components of the review as Level 1 headers (upper and lower case, centered):
1.    Introduction to the APN professional development plan- Discuss the goals and purpose of an APN professional development plan
2.    APN Scope of Practice – This pertains to NP practice in your state.
3.    Personal Assessment using Benner’s Self-Assessment Tool
4.    Networking and Marketing Strategies
5.    Conclusion
6.    CV / resume
7.    References
Preparing the paper
The following are best practices for preparing this paper:
1.    Review Chapter 30- Role Transition: Strategies for Success in the Marketplace in DeNisco and Barker (2015).
2.    Nurse practitioners need to take into account the state rules and regulations that guide advanced practice. Research and review the Nurse Practice Act and APN scope of practice guidelines in your particular state. Identify information regarding educational requirements, licensure and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details. Review information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority (This is similar to what you created in your week 1 Kaltura presentation). .
3.    Review Guidelines for APN Role Transition Using Benner’s Self-Assessment Tool (Links to an external site.). Identify and discuss your position on Benner’s Novice to Expert ladder. Prior to engaging in pursuit for employment, APNs should complete a comprehensive, honest, personal assessment to identify their strengths and weaknesses as well as their goals and objectives. Research assessment tools, conduct a personal assessment and reflect upon your strengths, weaknesses, goals, and objectives.
4.    To complete the transition from students to expert nurse practitioners working in the healthcare field, graduating APN students will need to secure their first position. Research local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identify networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for your selections. Be specific.
5.    Write your Curriculum Vitae (CV) or current resume. Refer to the template on pages 772-773 in DeNisco and Barker (2015). Your CV / resume should not exceed 2 pages in length but will, vary for each student. If you have not done some of the components of the CV/resume, i.e. research, publications, presentations, then do not include them.
6.    When concluding the paper, summarize important aspects of the APN professional development plan.
This assignment will follow the late assignment policy specified in the course syllabus.
Rubric
NR510 APN Professional Development Plan Grading Rubric
NR510 APN Professional Development Plan Grading Rubric
Criteria
Ratings
Pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeIntroduction to the APN professional development plan
20.0 pts
Exceptional- Excellent introduction of APN professional development plan. Rationale is well presented and purpose fully developed.
18.0 pts
Exceeds- Good introduction of APN professional development plan. Rationale is presented and purpose provided.
16.0 pts
Meets- Basic information and/or limited elements addressed regarding APN professional development plan and/or inappropriate emphasis on an area.
8.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Little or very general introduction of APN professional development plan. Little to no original explanation; inappropriate emphasis on an area.
0.0 pts
Developing- No introduction of APN professional development plan provided.
20.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeAPN Scope of Practice
35.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details per the student’s state. Included information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
31.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided some information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details per the student’s state. Included information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
28.0 pts
Meets- Provided non-state specific information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details. Included information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
13.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Lacking detailed information regarding education, licensure, regulatory requirements, or practice environment. Missing information regarding practice limitations and/or prescriptive authority.
0.0 pts
Developing- Did not provide information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details per the student’s state. Not provide information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
35.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomePersonal Assessment
30.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information following a personal assessment and reflected upon strengths, weaknesses, goals, and objectives.
26.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided some detailed information following a personal assessment and reflected upon some of the strengths, weaknesses, goals, and objectives.
24.0 pts
Meets- Provided some detailed information following a personal assessment. Missed providing reflection upon strengths, weaknesses, goals, or objectives.
11.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Provided information following a personal assessment, but did not reflect upon strengths, weaknesses, goals, or objectives.
0.0 pts
Developing- Did not provide a personal assessment and did not reflect upon personal strengths, weaknesses, goals, or objectives.
30.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeNetworking and Marketing Strategies
30.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identified networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for their selections.
26.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided some detailed information regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identified networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for their selections.
24.0 pts
Meets- Provided information but lacked specific details regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identified networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for their selections.
11.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Provided information regarding professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities, but missed providing information regarding networking and marketing strategies and/or a rationale for their selections.
0.0 pts
Developing- Did not provide detailed information regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Did not identify networking and marketing strategies or provide a rationale.
30.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeCurriculum Vitae
40.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information which included demographics, education, professional employment, licensure and certification, professional honors, research, scholarship, and service. Free from typographical errors.
35.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided detailed information. Missing 1-2 key elements. Free from typographical errors.
32.0 pts
Meets- Provided moderately detailed information. Missing 3 key elements. Free from typographical errors.
15.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Provided minimal detail. Missing 4 or more key elements. Contains 1-2 typographical errors.
0.0 pts
Developing- Information provided was inaccurate and vague. Contains 3 or more typographical errors. Did not provide curriculum vitae.
40.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeConclusion
25.0 pts
Exceptional- Excellent summary of APN professional development plan. Conclusions are well evidenced and fully developed.
22.0 pts
Exceeds- Good summary of APN professional development plan. Conclusions are supported by evidence and developed.
20.0 pts
Meets- Basic and/or limited summary regarding APN professional development plan.
10.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Little or no summary of APN professional development plan; inappropriate emphasis on an area.
0.0 pts
Developing- No summary of APN professional development plan and/or conclusions were provided.
25.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeClarity of Writing
25.0 pts
Exceptional- Excellent use of standard English showing original thought. No spelling or grammar errors. Well organized with proper flow of meaning.
22.0 pts
Exceeds- Good use of standard English showing original thought. No more than two spelling or grammar errors. Well organized with proper flow of meaning.
20.0 pts
Meets- Some evidence of own expression and competent use of language. No more than three spelling or grammar errors. Well organized thoughts and concepts.
10.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Language needs development. Four or more spelling and/or grammar errors. Poorly organized thoughts and concepts.
0.0 pts
Developing- More than six spelling and/or grammar errors. Poorly organized thoughts and concepts.
25.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeAPA Format
20.0 pts
Exceptional- APA format, grammar, spelling, and/or punctuation are accurate, or with zero to one errors.
18.0 pts
Exceeds- Two to four errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and syntax noted.
16.0 pts
Meets- Five to seven errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and syntax noted.
8.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Eight to nine errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and syntax noted.
0.0 pts
Developing- Post contains greater than ten errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and/or punctuation or repeatedly makes the same errors after faculty feedback.
20.0 pts
Total Points: 225.0
Question 15: Health Care

Jarvis: Physical Examination & Health Assessment, 6th Edition

Chapter 01: Evidence-Based Assessment

Test Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1.         After completing an initial assessment on a patient, the nurse has charted that his respirations are eupneic and his pulse is 58. This type of data would be:
A)
objective.
B)
reflective.
C)
subjective.
D)
introspective.

2.         A patient tells the nurse that he is very nervous, that he is nauseated, and that he “feels hot.” This type of data would be:
A)
objective.
B)
reflective.
C)
subjective.
D)
introspective.

3.         The patient’s record, laboratory studies, objective data, and subjective data combine to form the:
A)
data base.
B)
admitting data.
C)
financial statement.
D)
discharge summary.

4.         When listening to a patient’s breath sounds, the nurse is unsure about a sound that is heard. The nurse’s next action should be to:
A)
notify the patient’s physician immediately.
B)
document the sound exactly as it was heard.
C)
validate the data by asking a coworker to listen to the breath sounds.
D)
assess again in 20 minutes to note whether the sound is still present.

5.         The nurse is conducting a class for new graduate nurses. During the teaching session, the nurse should keep in mind that novice nurses, without a background of skills and experience to draw from, are more likely to make their decisions using:
A)
intuition.
B)
a set of rules.
C)
articles in journals.
D)
advice from supervisors.

6.         Expert nurses learn to attend to a pattern of assessment data and to act without consciously labeling it. This is referred to as:
A)
intuition.
B)
the nursing process.
C)
clinical knowledge.
D)
diagnostic reasoning.

7.         The nurse is reviewing information about evidence-based practice (EBP). Which statement best reflects evidence-based practice?
A)
EBP relies on tradition for support of best practices.
B)
EBP is simply the use of best practice techniques for treatment of patients.
C)
EBP emphasizes the use of best evidence with the clinician’s experience.
D)
The patient’s own preferences are not important with EBP.

8.         The nurse is conducting a class on priority setting for a group of new graduate nurses. Which is an example of a first-level priority problem?
A)
A patient with postoperative pain
B)
A newly diagnosed diabetic who needs diabetic teaching
C)
An individual with a small laceration on the sole of the foot
D)
An individual with shortness of breath and respiratory distress

9.         When considering priority setting of problems, the nurse keeps in mind that second-level priority problems include which of these aspects?
A)
Low self-esteem
B)
Lack of knowledge
C)
Abnormal laboratory values
D)
Severely abnormal vital signs

10.       Which critical thinking skill helps the nurse to see relationships among the data?
A)
Validation
B)
Clustering related cues
C)
Identifying gaps in data
D)
Distinguishing relevant from irrelevant

11.
The nurse knows that developing appropriate nursing interventions for a patient relies on the appropriateness of the _____ diagnosis.
A)
nursing
B)
medical
C)
admission
D)
collaborative

12.       The nursing process is a sequential method of problem solving that nurses use, and includes which steps?
A)
Assessment, treatment, planning, evaluation, discharge, follow-up
B)
Admission, assessment, diagnosis, treatment, discharge planning
C)
Admission, diagnosis, treatment, evaluation, discharge planning
D)
Assessment, diagnosis, outcome identification, planning, implementation,
evaluation

13.       A newly admitted patient is in acute pain, has not been sleeping well lately, and is having difficulty breathing. How should the nurse prioritize these problems?
A)
Breathing, pain, sleep
B)
Breathing, sleep, pain
C)
Sleep, breathing, pain
D)
Sleep, pain, breathing

14.       Which of these would be formulated by a nurse using diagnostic reasoning?
A)
Nursing diagnosis
B)
Medical diagnosis
C)
Diagnostic hypothesis
D)
Diagnostic assessment

15.       Barriers to incorporating evidence-based practice (EBP) include:
A)
nurses’ lack of research skills in evaluating quality of research studies.
B)
lack of significant research studies.
C)
insufficient clinical skills of nurses.
D)
inadequate physical assessment skills.

16.       What is the step of the nursing process that includes data collection by health history, physical examination, and interview?
A)
Planning
B)
Diagnosis
C)
Evaluation
D)
Assessment

17.       During a staff meeting, nurses discuss the problems with accessing research studies in order to incorporate evidence-based clinical decision making into their practice. Which suggestion by the nurse manager would best help this problem?
A)
Form a committee to conduct research studies.
B)
Post published research studies on the unit’s bulletin boards.
C)
Encourage the nurses to visit the library to review studies.
D)
Teach the nurses how to conduct electronic searches for research studies.

18.       When reviewing concepts of health, the nurse recalls that components of holistic health include which of these?
A)
Disease originates from the external environment.
B)
The individual human is a closed system.
C)
Nurses are responsible for a patient’s health state.
D)
Holistic health views the mind, body, and spirit as interdependent.

19.       The nurse recognizes that the concept of prevention in describing health is essential because:
A)
disease can be prevented by treating the external environment.
B)
the majority of deaths among Americans under age 65 years are not preventable.
C)
prevention places emphasis on the link between health and personal behavior.
D)
the means to prevention is through treatment provided by primary health care practitioners.

20.       The nurse is reviewing the components of the nursing process. Which statement about nursing diagnoses is true?
A)
They evaluate the etiology of disease.
B)
They are a process based on the medical diagnosis.
C)
They are clinical judgments about a person’s response to an actual or potential health state.
D)
They focus on the function and malfunction of a specific organ system in response to disease.

21.       The nurse is performing a physical assessment on a newly admitted patient. An example of objective information obtained during the physical assessment includes the:
A)
patient’s history of allergies.
B)
patient’s use of medications at home.
C)
last menstrual period 1 month ago.
D)
2 ´ 5 cm scar present on the right lower forearm.

22.       A visiting nurse is making an initial home visit for a patient who has many chronic medical problems. Which type of data base is most appropriate to collect in this setting?
A)
A follow-up data base to evaluate changes at appropriate intervals
B)
An episodic data base because of the continuing, complex medical problems of this patient
C)
A complete health data base because of the nurse’s primary responsibility for monitoring the patient’s health
D)
An emergency data base because of the need to rapidly collect information and make accurate diagnoses

23.       Which situation is most appropriate for the nurse to perform a focused or problem-centered history?
A)
A patient’s admission to a long-term care facility
B)
A patient has sudden, severe shortness of breath
C)
A patient’s admission to the hospital for surgery the following day
D)
A patient in an outpatient clinic has cold and flu-like symptoms

24.       A patient is at the clinic to have her blood pressure checked. She has been coming to the clinic weekly since she changed medications 2 months ago. The nurse should:
A)
collect a follow-up data base and then check her blood pressure.
B)
ask her to read her health record and indicate any changes since her last visit.
C)
check only her blood pressure because her complete health history was documented 2 months ago.
D)
obtain a complete health history before checking her blood pressure because much of her history information may have changed.

25.       A patient is brought by ambulance to the emergency department with multiple traumas received in an automobile accident. He is alert and cooperative, but his injuries are quite severe. How would the nurse proceed with the data collection?
A)
Collect history information first, then perform the physical examination and institute life-saving measures.
B)
Simultaneously ask history questions while performing the examination and initiating life-saving measures.
C)
Collect all information on the history form, including social support patterns, strengths, and coping patterns.
D)
Perform life-saving measures and not ask any history questions until he is transferred to the intensive care unit.

26.       A 42-year-old Asian patient is being seen at the clinic for an initial examination. The nurse knows that it is important to include cultural information in his health assessment to:
A)
identify the cause of his illness.
B)
make accurate disease diagnoses.
C)
provide cultural health rights for the individual.
D)
provide culturally sensitive and appropriate care.

27.       In the health promotion model, the focus of the health professional includes:
A)
changing the patient’s perceptions of disease.
B)
identifying biomedical model interventions.
C)
identifying negative health acts of the consumer.
D)
helping the consumer choose a healthier lifestyle.

28.       The nurse is classifying nursing diagnoses. Which of these would be considered a risk diagnosis?
A)
Identifying existing levels of wellness
B)
Evaluating previous problems and goals
C)
Identifying potential problems the individual may develop
D)
Focusing on strengths and reflecting an individual’s transition to higher levels of wellness

29.       The nurse has implemented several planned interventions to address the nursing diagnosis of acute pain. Which would be the next appropriate action?
A)
Establish priorities.
B)
Identify expected outcomes.
C)
Evaluate the individual’s condition and compare actual outcomes with expected outcomes.
D)
Interpret data and then identify clusters of cues and make inferences.

30.       Which statement best describes a proficient nurse? A proficient nurse is one who:
A)
has little experience with a specified population and uses rules to guide performance.
B)
has an intuitive grasp of a clinical situation and quickly identifies the accurate solution.
C)
sees actions in the context of daily plans for patients.
D)
understands a patient situation as a whole rather than a list of tasks and sees long-term goals for the patient.

MATCHING

Put the following patient situations in order according to level of priority.
A)
A patient newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus does not know how to check his own blood glucose levels with a glucometer.
B)
A teenager who was stung by a bee during a soccer match is having trouble breathing.
C)
An older adult with a urinary tract infection is also showing signs of confusion and agitation.

1.         A = first-level priority problem

2.         B = second-level priority problem

3.         C = third-level priority problem

MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT:  First-level priority problems are immediate priorities, such as trouble breathing (remember the “airway, breathing, circulation” priorities). Second-level priority problems are next in urgency, but not life-threatening. Third-level priorities are important to a patient’s health but can be addressed after more urgent health problems are addressed (i.e., patient education). See Table 1-1.

MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT:  First-level priority problems are immediate priorities, such as trouble breathing (remember the “airway, breathing, circulation” priorities). Second-level priority problems are next in urgency, but not life-threatening. Third-level priorities are important to a patient’s health but can be addressed after more urgent health problems are addressed (i.e., patient education). See Table 1-1.

MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT:  First-level priority problems are immediate priorities, such as trouble breathing (remember the “airway, breathing, circulation” priorities). Second-level priority problems are next in urgency, but not life-threatening. Third-level priorities are important to a patient’s health but can be addressed after more urgent health problems are addressed (i.e., patient education). See Table 1-1.

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

1.         The nurse is reviewing data collected after an assessment. Of the data listed below, which would be considered related cues that would be clustered together during data analysis? Select all that apply.
A)
Inspiratory wheezes noted in left lower lobes
B)
Hypoactive bowel sounds
C)
Non productive cough
D)
Edema, +2, noted on left hand
E)
Patient reports dyspnea upon exertion
F)
Rate of respirations 16 breaths per minute

Question 16: Health Care

Liberty University HIEU 201 Lecture 1 Test
Liberty University HIEU 201 Lecture 1 Test

Question 17: Health Care

NURS 6551 Final Exam Latest Version Walden University
NURS 6551 Final Exam Latest Version Walden University

Question 18: Health Care

NURS 6551 Midterm Exam Latest Version Walden University
NURS 6551 Midterm Exam Latest Version Walden University

Question 19: Mathematics

six times a certain number plus the number is equal to 56

Question 20: Other

Use scholarly sources you need and refer to specific information from those sources. To demonstrate your use of these works, please cite them. Quotes should be used very sparingly. The answers should be paraphrased and should demonstrate your understanding of the material and concepts.
Each answer needs to be 300 words
⦁ What is the threat of transnational gangs to local communities? How should immigration laws be changed to be able to appropriately deal with members of transnational gangs once they are identified?
⦁ What relationship do you see between social, political, and economic conditions of an ethnic group to the success or decline of a gang from that ethnic group?
⦁ How do the responses of correctional staff to the gangs contrast or compare to those of law enforcement? Provide at least two resources supporting your answer.
⦁ Compare and contrast gangs from two ethnic groups in terms of membership, criminal activity, violence, and relationship to their own community.
⦁ Consider the trend of more females becoming involved in gang activity. How does this trend change the way law enforcement devises programs to suppress, intervene, and combat gangs?

Question 21: Business

For your research paper, be sure to include:
1.     Title page (not included in the 5-page limit)
2.     Introduction: a brief overview of topic selected, including why this topic is of importance to organizations (you may reuse the rationale in paper M3A1), but you need to edit the language to fit the introduction of your essay. Include a thesis statement/purpose for the paper.
3.     Body of research paper: Develop the outline that you designed in M5A1. Make sure to use in-text citations in APA style.
4.     Conclusion: Write a brief summary of your findings and a call to action. A call to action for at least one action or step you want the President to take after reading your research paper (you may use the items identify in the application for professional practice).
5.     References: Insert a page with the references used for your paper, in APA style.

Motivating Employees

Name of student:

Student ID:

Introduction
For an organization, it is very important to make sure that the employees are motivated. This helps the organizations in many ways that lead to increase in their productivity and performance in the market. However, motivating employees is not an easy task. There are many challenges that the managers face due to the individual nature of each of the employees. In the present day business context, managers have to identify the individual factors that motivate each of the employees and use that knowledge for helping them increase their productivity in the company (Manzoor, 2012).
Thesis Statement
The paper aims to define the major factors that contribute to employee motivation and how can employee motivation be promoted in an organization along with its major benefits.
Issues addressed in the Paper
The paper aims to understand the area of employee motivation to understand its contribution for the company. In order to understand that, the following areas will be addressed in the paper:
⦁ What is the effect of employee motivation on the organization: For an organization, it is important to make sure that their employees are motivated. It is because when employees are motivated, it is possible for them to improve their performance at work (Ali & Ahmed, 2009).
⦁ What are the advantages of employee motivation for the organization: There are a number of other advantages of motivating the employees. Besides improving their individual performance, when employees are motivated properly, they engage better with their peers, making way for mutual dependence and healthy competition. This helps in the improvement of the organizational culture and ultimately contributes to improving the productivity of the company (Dar et al., 2014).
⦁ What are the factors that contribute to employee motivation: The biggest challenge for the employers is to understand the factors that motivate their employees. While some employees are motivated in a positive manner through appreciation and reward, some need to be motivated through negative factors like the fear of punishment and elimination (Tohidi, 2011).
What are the benefits of having motivated employees for the organization: Understanding the various factors that can motivate the employees can help employers in making sure that the goals of the organization are achieved while also promoting personal and professional growth of the employees (Manzoor, 2012).
Application to Professional Practice
The area of employee motivation is as challenging as it is important for an organization. When the employees in a company are motivated, this is beneficial for the entire organization. This is the reason why the research in employee motivation holds so much importance for an organization. It has been observed over time that as the needs of an organization change, the employees are likely to feel less motivated with time, this shows that the motivation is not only a mental boost for the employees but the ways in which employees are motivated also helps them to understand the needs of the organization that they are working for. It allows them to develop startegic methods that can help them in improving their performance in the organization (Ali & Ahmed, 2009).
Due to its many benefits, employee motivation is as essential for the company and the president as it is for the employees. For a president, it is easier to explain the needs of the organizations to motivated employees. Besides, they can also expect their employees to contribute positively to the purpose of the organization if they are motivated. Without motivation, the employee will not be able to take up his part of the job in the company in a proper manner. The result of this is that it will affect the performance of the company along with the results that they expect. This will increase the problems of the president in the direction of achieving the goals of the company (Dar et al., 2014).
The president of a company can uses the information from the paper to motivate employees in three ways:
⦁ By rewarding them for their good performance with bonus or increments.
⦁ By encouraging them in case of poor performance.
⦁ By promoting them for good performance in the long run by giving incentives and other benefits.
For presidents, motivating the employees has three major benefits:
⦁ It improves the performance of the employee.
⦁ It helps in reducing employee turnover.
⦁ It helps in boosting the performance of the company.

References
Ali, R., & Ahmed, M. S. (2009). The impact of reward and recognition programs on employee’s motivation and satisfaction: an empirical study. International review of business research papers, 5(4), 270-279.
Dar, A. T., Bashir, M., Ghazanfar, F., & Abrar, M. (2014). Mediating role of employee motivation in relationship to post-selection HRM practices and organizational performance. International Review of Management and Marketing, 4(3), 224-238.
Manzoor, Q. A. (2012). Impact of employees motivation on organizational effectiveness. Business management and strategy, 3(1), 1-12.
Tohidi, H. (2011). Teamwork productivity & effectiveness in an organization base on rewards, leadership, training, goals, wage, size, motivation, measurement and information technology. Procedia Computer Science, 3, 1137-1146.

Question 22: Engineering

An inverter is connected to the utility network by a transformer. The connection
transformer can be modelled by a per-phase series inductance of 0.8 mH and
resistance of 0.4 Ω.
i. Derive the control transfer function for the d and q axis loops, showing your
fully working.
ii. If a q-loop control with gains of 𝑘𝑘𝑝𝑝 = 14 and 𝑘𝑘𝑖𝑖 = 900 are used. What is the
control loop bandwidth and damping for this loop?

Question 23: Engineering

What are the types of soil dams?

Question 24: Computer Science

Instruction
I’m looking for someone to help me write 25 to 30 pages for my thesis in computer science I uploaded a Doc with the sections that you have to write about it so you have clue about how I want my thesis will be

Assessing the Security Health of Public WiFi Environments Using Mobile Devices
I. Abstract
IV. Contents
V. List of Figures
VI. List of Tables 1. Introduction
1.1 Overview
1.2 Introduction 1.3 Mobile Threats
1.3.1 Classification of mobile threat
1.3.2 Most Targeted Mobile Platform in 2014 1.4 Honeypot Approach
1.4.1 Advantages & Benefits of Honeypot
1.4.2 Honeypot types based on interaction levels 1.4.3 Honeypot classifications
1.4.4 Honeypot requirements
1.5 Problem statement
1.6 Research Challenges
1.7 Objectives and desirable outcomes 1.8 Project Outline
2. Literature Review
2.1 Introduction
2.2 New Types of Honeypots
2.3 Honeypot Data Consumption 2.4 Configurations of Honeypots 2.5 Smartphone Honeypots
3. Design and Implementation
3.1 Introduction (Linux-based application ” HosTaGe”) 3.2 Implementation (HosTaGe Honeypot works)
3.2.1 Implementation Steps
3.2.1.1 Remote Procedure Call Attack (RPC)
3.2.1.1.1 Remote Procedure Call Attack Result 3.2.1.2 Scanning Attack using nmap
3.2.1.2.1 Scanning Attack Result 3.2.1.3 Metasploit Attack
3.2.1.3.1 Metasploit Attack Result 3.2.1.4 Nessuss Attack
3.2.1.4.1 Nessus Attack Result 3.3 Performing Attacks in Khalifa campus wireless
4. Data Collection
4.1 Introduction
4.2 Transferring Data from HosTaGe Database 5. Analysis
5.1 Introduction
5.2 Data Analytic and Intelligence
5.2.1 Add Data to Splunk 5.2.2 Search in Splunk
6. Conclusion
6.1 Summary
6.2 Future work 7. References
5.2.2.1 Summarized Analysis

Question 25: Business

Instruction
Write out the question prior to answering it Answer in your own words – As a rule of thumb, no more than 10% of your response to review questions should be quoted. Have at least one intext citation per question, such as [Moseley, 47], unless it is entirely an opinion question Use quotes if you copy three or more words and include an intext citation Use a minimum of three resources – the textbook, one item from “lecture” – the videos I provide each module, and one outside source that you have researched Provide a Works Cited or Reference Section in MLA Style at the end of the paper. Watch the following YouTube Videos. Information from at least one of these sources must be referenced in answering your Review Questions. Please be sure to use intext citations and reference them. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=TVBPhCJh-dw https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=2rnYxbIcf44

1.Why do people form organizations and why is management needed? 2.Identify the five functions every manager must perform and briefly explain each. 3.What are the three levels of management found in large organizations? Describe each, giving its responsibilities. 4.How are most supervisory positions filled? Explain why this is so. 5.Identify each of the trends challenging today’s supervisors and explain how each impacts supervisors. 6.What are the three basic steps in planning? Why do supervisors tend to slight the planning function? 7.How does planning differ among top, intermediate, and supervisory management levels? 8.What are some guidelines for setting performance objectives? 9.What is the difference between a policy, a rule, and a procedure? 10.Distinguish between objectives and strategies.

Question 26: Health Care

Instruction
Adopting a personal code of conduct can guide leaders and managers to make and prioritize decisions. You have been selected to serve in a critical leadership position in your organization. In 2-4 pages not including title page and reference page, write a personal code of conduct (sometimes called a personal code of ethics) that you would pass along to your staff. Explain how you would communicate your personal code of conduct across the organization. Note: Use APA style to cite at least 2 scholarly sources from the last 5 years.

Question 27: Physics

Clearly show me your system sketch and related energy flows for all problems.

1.[5/100 pts] In a particular application the heating load is 1750 kW, the cooling load is 1500 kw and the power load is 2500 kW. The installed capacity of the power generation, Winstalled, is 2700 kW. Calculate the HLRP, CHR and % air flow for this case.

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2.[5/100 pts] The Energy Utilization Factor, EUF, for a tri-generation system is 0.98. Calculated the required fuel input when the thermal load is 100 kW and the power load is 1000 kW. The high heat value is 55.4 MJ/Kg.

3.[5/100] The HLRP, %Air Flow and CHR values for a given application are 1.0, 100% and 1.0. Determine the Energy Utilization factor and the rate of carbon dioxide production per total energy load for this condition.

4.1 [10/100 pts] Determine the electrical energy supplied to a tank heater when the temperature of the water is heated from 20 C to 89 C. The pressured tank holds 1500 Kg of liquid water at a constant pressure of 3 bars and the specific heat is c = 4,370 J/(Kg K). There is no heat loss from the tank.

4.2[10/100 pts] Calculate the entropy production in Problem 4.1.

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4.3[10/100 pts] Calculate the exergy destruction (J) in Problem 4.1. The dead state temperature is 293.2 K and pressure is 1 bar.

4.4 [10/100] Calculate the mass of fuel (natural gas) required to heat the water mass to the conditions of problem 4.1. The high heating value (HHV) of the fuel is 50.02 MJ/kg and the efficiency of the burner unit can be taken as 100%.

4.5[10/100] Calculate the exergy destroyed in the process described by problem 4.4. The exergy of the fuel entering this process is 51.82 MJ/Kg. The dead state temperature is 293.2 K and pressure is 1 bar. The products of combustion leave this process at the dead state.

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4.6[15/100] The utility providing the electricity to the heater in problem 4.1 uses the same fuel as that used in problem 4.4 and has an efficiency of 0.35. The cost of the water tank is the same in each process, but the cost of the electric heater is $3000 and has a lifetime of 15 years. The cost of the fuel based heating system is $5000 and has a lifetime of 20 years. The fuel cost is $0.10/kg and the cost of electricity is $0.20/kWh. Which process would you recommend in terms of fuel consumption, exergy production and cost? Note the total amount of fuel consumed is directly related to the carbon dioxide emission from each process. This is not a thermoeconomic problem.

5.1[10/100 pts] Water flows at a mass rate of 1.0 Kg/s from an elevation of 250 m through a water turbine. The turbine exit is located at zero m, elevation. The water enters the pipe at temperature 293 K a velocity of 0.1 m/s and a pressure of 1 bar. It leaves the turbine’s exit at a temperature, velocity and pressure of 293.2 K, 0.05 m/s 1 bar. The process is adiabatic. Determine the power output at steady state conditions from this turbine. The specific heat of water is 4,180 J/(Kg K) and its density is 1000 Kg/m3.

5.2[10/100 pts] Calculate the exergy destruction for water turbine. (Hint: include all exergy property terms into and out of the system). The dead state is T0 = 293 K and P0 = 1.0 bar.

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Question 28: Other

Instruction
A minimum of 25 page business plan, suggested 15-20 slide powerpoint/prezi and 1-2 page reflection paper that refers to the project. The business plan is outlined with what areas or questions need to be answered. The project must be plagiarism free and done at a quality that I would receive an A.

BADM690 Strategic Management Project Guidelines
Table of Contents
Required Submissions…………………………………………………………………………………………………2 Tips for Writing the Plan……………………………………………………………………………………………..3 Project Format……………………………………………………………………………………………………………4 Expectations ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………5 Suggested Section Topics ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 7 Full Outline………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..8
1
Required Submissions:
This project allows you to apply concepts learned in this class and your other graduate business courses. Make sure your report has been specifically prepared ONLY for this class. You must include a statement on your project cover page that the paper has NOT been submitted for credit in a previous class and will not be submitted for credit in any future class, either in whole or in part.
You may work either with a team (max 3 students) or independently on this project. You should identify a “real life” company that you can have enough access to in-depth financial and operational information to fully analyze the company’s strategic management situation. It would be best if you (or a group member) work in the company you want to analyze. This will facilitate the flow of information. This project has the following assignments or requirements:

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⦁ (1)  A PROJECT PROPOSAL from each person. You should submit a 1-2 page proposal that describes the company you are using for the project and the plan you have for completion. Document how you plan to get relevant company information. Ideally, you will analyze the entire company and then focus on specific projects and initiatives. You should include a proposed timeline for completion. If you are working with a group, explain how you plan to work with group members (who, when, where, etc.). The proposal should be completed individually so that I can confirm that all students have a project that will work for this assignment. You will need to submit the proposal in the “Project Proposal” assignment dropbox available under the Project tab. (4%-individual submission and grade).
⦁ (2)  A PROJECT UPDATE from each person. You should submit a 1-2 page paper that describes your progress. Explain what problems you have run into and how you plan to overcome those. Specifically list which sections you have completed and what is still remaining. Include an updated completion timeline from your proposal. If you are working with a group, explain how your group members are collaborating (who, when, where, etc.). You will need to submit the update in the “Project Update” assignment drop box available under the Project tab. (4%-individual submission and grade)
⦁ (3)  A FINAL REPORT that includes all of the detailed data, sources of information and an in depth analysis as well as a more exhaustive discussion of all of the points contained in the outline provided below. You will need to submit the final report in the Turnitin link called “Final Report”, which is available under the Project tab. (15%-group/individual grade)
⦁ (4)  A POWERPOINT/PREZI describing the Final Report that is a professional presentation. The presentation should summarize the findings and recommendations. The submission must be placed in the drop-box called “Powerpoint” which is available under the Project tab. (4%-group/individual grade)
⦁ (5)  A COURSE REFLECTION PAPER that describes your experiences and learning in this course. You should describe the strengths and weaknesses in your capstone project. What did you feel that you did really well? What areas could you have improved on? If you worked in a group, specifically discuss the positive and/or negative contributions made by each individual. Also, please explain what new knowledge, skills, and/or abilities you have learned from the project and the case studies. Which case study did you enjoy most/least and why? In addition, please describe how the text material you
2
studied this this course relates to: (a) your project, (b) the case studies, and (c) your current/past/future workplace. Use specific examples/concepts from the chapters. Also, include your opinions on different aspects of the course. What was most helpful to you? What was least helpful? How could you have improved your course experience and how could I have improved your semester? Finally, please include a section describing what comes next for you. What will your life look like post-MBA? Will you look for a new job, get a promotion, get married, move, go back for another degree (i.e. DBA, JD, PhD), and/or just enjoy more free time? The reflection paper should be approximately 5 pages and should be submitted in the drop-box called “Course Reflection” which is available under the Project tab. (10%-individual submission and grade).
Your first step is to decide whether you want to work independently or in a group. If you want to work alone, you will need to sign-up in the ‘Solo Sign-up List’. To sign-up, select any available Solo#. You must sign-up in a Solo# so that the assignments will be available for you, and you will be able to access your grades.
If you would like to work in a group, you need to first find or contact other students willing to work with you. To do so, you need to post your information on the discussion board link ‘Looking for Project Partners’. Once you have contacted other students, and agreed to work together, SIGN-UP in any available Group# in the Group Sign-up List. Please, select a Group Number that is available and make sure to sign-up on the correct Group# (The Group# with your chosen team members)! Please, make sure that all members register in the same Group #, so look for your partners before signing up. Also, do not sign-up in a group without permission or agreement that you will work with the group. You must contact the members first.
The maximum number of members in each group should be 3. Keep in mind that the higher the number of members, the higher the expectations from the report.
Your next step will be to decide the company to analyze and begin your project proposal.
Tips for Writing this Plan:
⦁ All of the writing involved in the assignment should include the use of proper citations (APA) for sources quoted or used. This applies to both the powerpoint presentation as well as the accompanying complete report.
⦁ Grammar, spelling, and formatting are important. Just because the document has passed spell check doesn’t mean the word is correctly used in context or spelled correctly in context. Please use a traditional 12 pt. font.
⦁ Your powerpoint presentation is to be done from the vantage point of an executive presentation to senior management including the CEO, COO, CFO, etc.
⦁ Clearly identify the readers of this document. Then write the plan in a style that is easily understood by readers.
⦁ Remember that this plan is a working document that has the clear purpose of initiating focussed action and generating clear and measurable results. Avoid the excessive use of
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descriptive adjectives to ‘pad’ or over-sell the plan. Flowery, highly descriptive language can cloud key issues, blur the plan’s focus and slow/confuse its implementation
⦁ Keep the plan ‘tight’; ensure it remains concise, balanced, clear and logical. Where possible use quantitative rather than qualitative information. Remember the KISSS approach to planning; keep it simple, short and specific. Interlink all Sections, with the Market Analysis (SWOT) providing a clear focus for all subsequent sections.
⦁ Focus on facts and information from credible and reputable sources. Where possible avoid critical dependencies on one source of information. Build redundancy into information sources. Make sure to validate all key information used in the plan.
⦁ Always remember that faulty assumptions and faulty logic are some of the greatest hazards to business performance and business planning. Also remember that a good plan implemented today will always beat an excellent plan implemented sometime in the future. So, get the plan completed and into action as soon as is practicable. Also, plans must be adaptive to changing circumstances. If the plan is not performing be prepared to complete ‘major surgery’ on it.
⦁ If any information is overly repetitive between sections, skip it and note that that information has been covered and where to find it.
⦁ If any section doesn’t apply to your industry/company, skip it and note that it is irrelevant.
Project Format:
The format of the final report must be digitally submitted using a 12 pt. font in word (.DOC) document format. You must use the outline provided. The main document should include a minimum of 25 and a maximum of 40 double-spaced pages (if you go above this number, make sure that the information provided is necessary). Appendices may be located at the end the report, and are not included in your maximum page count. Your references may also appear at the end of the report, before the appendix. Organize the final report under section headings and subheadings as needed. Finally, as in most business writing, the paper should adequately convey and document what you want to say, but otherwise be no longer than necessary.
The final written report will be graded primarily on its content, however, format and presentation is important too. Grading will also consider the report’s organization (sequence of ideas), balance (evidence of comparable degree of analysis in sections of comparable importance), style (English usage, grammar and punctuation), and its implementation schedule.
If you are interested in modifying the plan, please ask. I am flexible and I want you to
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get as much out of your time in my class as possible.
Citations and References
⦁ You MUST use APA style. Please, look on the Internet or purchase the APA guides. In addition, Microsoft Word Software comes with these Citations styles functions embedded in the system. Please, do not use Chicago or Turabian styles.
⦁ It is very important that you use the proper in-text citations and reference style. Footnotes
Footnotes in the text must be numbered and typed at the bottom of the page where the footnote is made or on a separate page following the text (i.e., endnote). A footnote or endnote should be used to clarify the text, define terms, make comments, or to list additional sources. Footnotes provide additional information that would detract from the subject being discussed in the body of the text. Again, Microsoft Word software provides this function, which is easy to use!
Figures and Tables Captions
⦁ Search online for the APA and how to caption figures and tables. Then, look online for how to caption figures and tables using Microsoft. http://www.microsoft.com/education/AddCaption.aspx
⦁ Remember, if captioning Tables, the caption goes at the TOP of the Tables. However, if captioning figures or graph, the caption goes below the figures or graph and should include the source of the table (unless you have developed).
⦁ All Tables/Charts/Figures should have a descriptive title. Power Point
In addition to the written report each team/individual will prepare a POWERPOINT presentation. Assume this presentation will be displayed for a team of venture capitalists, entrepreneurs, and directors of the business you selected that may be in attendance to assist in the evaluation of your plan. It should be professional, but interesting. It should probably be between 15-25 slides, but that is not a requirement only a recommendation.
Expectations for the Capstone Project:
Your success in the business world will depend, to a large extent, on your ability to communicate. Courses during your first few years at the Business School provided the opportunity to hone your written and oral communication skills. This course will provide you with the opportunity to develop further both of these skills. You will be required to write a formal report, which might possibly be available for external judges at the end of the semester and try to convince them of the strength of your Project. The goal of this paper is to examine a company in depth to identify strategies that may have a positive impact on the firm. Remember that a strategic change is typically initiated in reaction to a triggering event and is rare, consequential, and directive.
Substance: You should substantiate what you are trying to convey with facts and data. In most cases, you will be asking the reader of your business report to commit substantial resources–financial, human, or physical–to a project. The decision-maker will not make
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the decision because you think is a good concept. Rather, you will need to convince the reader by providing hard facts and data with appropriate citations. Your rationale and reasoning should be explained logically and clearly. Effective business reports are not documents put together at the last minute—they take time to develop.
Style: The style of your business reports should be clear, concise, and to the point. The executive reading the report does not want to be entertained. He or she wants the information necessary to make a decision. Avoid flowery language with lots of adjectives and adverbs. I have high expectations. If you want to excel in the business world you should too.
Outline: You should follow the outline provided. However, most word processing software includes an outlining function. Use it. Begin your reports by developing an outline to organize your thoughts and the concepts you are trying to convey. The more comprehensive and detailed your outline, the easier it will be to write the report.
Proofread: Carefully proofread each draft of the report. You will probably need three or four drafts before you are satisfied with the report.
Exhibits/Tables/Appendices: I do not expect to receive exhibits or appendices with your handwriting on them. Instead, you should have typed exhibit numbers (let me know if you want some help). This includes copying exhibits from other sources. Unless you are using a photograph that cannot be reproduced in Word document, I expect you to make models, charts, spreadsheets on your own. This takes time but it is all part of being professional. Also, it is important to use captions for Figures or Graphs and Tables. If using Microsoft Word (or any word processor), you can select (highlight) the figure or table, then right click and select insert caption. This will insert automatically the caption (Figure 1 or Table 1) label and number. By doing this you will be able to use the captions as reference in the report. Finally, for Figures and Graphs the captions should be inserted below the graphs. For Tables, the captions should be inserted above the table. Check these in any of your textbooks, look how tables and graphs are reported.
Due dates: Reports are due on the dates assigned and there is no time in the schedule for the report to be turned in late because grades are due to the registrar just after the project due date.
Grading: Reports will be graded as if I were an executive trying to make a business decision based upon the written report. Grading will be competitive. That is, your reports will be graded relative to those turned in by your classmates. Proper spelling, syntax, grammar, punctuation, bibliography, citations, footnotes, and professional appearance are expected. Your grade may be lowered as much as two full letter grades if these areas are lacking.
Reviewing papers: I am willing to discuss the logical reasoning and proposed content of your reports. Before visiting my office, emailing or calling me, you should have made significant progress and should be well prepared.
Plagiarism: Don’t do it. Students are expected to adhere to the University policies regarding academic honesty as stated in the student handbook. Cheating or plagiarism will not be tolerated. Plagiarism includes taking exhibits or ideas from books or websites without giving credit to appropriate sources in addition to direct copy/paste instances. I am very strict about this and I will not hesitate to report academic dishonesty to the university. The work you submit MUST be your own thoughts and written in your own words. Written
6
assignments will be run through TURNITIN.
If your submission is above that limit you may be asked to redo the assignment or depending on the severity of the infraction, you
may even receive an automatic 0 on the assignment (and therefore fail the course). In addition, you may also receive an academic dishonesty warning/report.
Suggested Section Topics:
The following is a simple, but effective planning format that will fit many of the sections in this plan. The format is not rigid and should be adapted to the requirements of individual sections as applicable. The four sub-sections that comprise the suggested format are as follows:
⦁ Current Situation
Clearly and concisely present the current situation with any contributing history, and any trends, cycles, changes or future developments that are relevant
⦁ Key Issues
Clearly define the most urgent and important issues as they relate to the current situation for this Section, and the overall purpose of this plan and the company’s Mission. Key issues are usually those strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats, capability gaps and impediments that impact on business performance
⦁ Strategies to Address the Key Issues
Formulate strategies using the SMAAART acronym to address the key issues. SMAAART (Specific, Measurable, Action-orientated, Achievable, Affordable, Relevant and Time-bound)
⦁ Key Performance Measures and Targets
Establish key performance measures/indicators, performance targets and time lines in conjunction with the strategies to assess and improve performance
For your capstone project there is no reason
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for the TURNITIN match to be any higher than 20%.
Final Report Outline:
Here is a detailed outline of what you should include in your report. You should use the headings and subheadings, but your paper should be in paragraph form. If any of the headings/subheadings do not apply to your project, just type does not apply or disregard the section.
Thus, at a minimum you must develop a strategic plan for the study entity that adequately covers:
⦁ i)  Title Page:
⦁ Strategic Business Plan for “Company Name”
⦁ Period of the Study (i.e. January 2018 to December 2019)
⦁ Team Members
⦁ Originality Statement
⦁ ii)  Summary:
The Summary is the last section written, but is placed in the front of the paper. It should be restricted to two to three pages in length. In essence the summary is a very effective distillation of the overall strategic plan into a ‘hard hitting’ summary of key performance initiatives and performance targets. Typically it would include a brief description of the company and then the following information about the proposed strategic plan:
⦁ Purpose:
⦁ The Business Opportunity
⦁ The Product
⦁ Main Findings:
⦁ The Market Strategy
⦁ The Management Team
⦁ Profit and Cash Projections
⦁ Investment Needs
⦁ Returns to Investors
⦁ Conclusions and Recommendations
⦁ iii)  Table of Contents
⦁ iv)  Body of the report:
1) Strategic Focus
⦁ The Aim of this Plan: What do we wish to achieve with this plan (start, grow,
consolidate, downsize, or exit)?
⦁ Our Mission: A Mission Statement clearly defines the primary purpose or
reasons for our existence. It is heavily focused on customer value. It is also vital to achieving organizational alignment. A mission statement typically provides clear and concise answers to the following questions:
Remember, I am flexible and I want this project to be as relevant to
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your situation as possible.
⦁ What products and services do we deliver?
⦁ Where and when do we deliver our products and services?
⦁ Which customer groups are our primary groups?
⦁ Where are our primary customers
⦁ What tangible value do our products and services deliver to customers?
⦁ What is our competitive advantage?
⦁ What additional community and environmental benefits do we generate?
⦁ Answers to the above questions provide a start-point for preparing a statement that clearly positions the company in the minds of key stakeholders and customers
⦁ Core Organizational Competencies: Which core organizational skills and competencies are vital to achieving our mission
⦁ Organizational Values: What core organisational values must be imbedded in our organisation to establish a culture capable of achieving our Mission?
⦁ Highest Priority Goals: List up to six of your highest priority goals in order of priority. These goals are formulated at Section 17. Section 17 shows how to use the SMAAART acronym to write clear, concise action-oriented goal statements. SMAAART Goals – are Specific, Measurable, Action-oriented, Achievable, Affordable, Time-bound. An example of a SMAAART Goal: By 30 June 2002 to construct and commission a world-standard production and delivery facility capable of producing two 20 metre road bridges per month for direct installation in to Australia’s public road system.

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In essence strategic goals progressively take the company to its next level of performance and keep it there.
⦁ Goal One
⦁ Goal Two
⦁ Goal Three
⦁ Goal Four
⦁ Goal Five
⦁ Goal Six
⦁ Performance Objectives: The performance objectives below, in combination, form a performance scorecard for easily tracking the performance improvements generated by this plan. Section 17 provides the inputs for this scorecard. The planning team determines the composition of the performance scorecard.
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Performance Area Performance Measures Target Time Frame
Financial Performance
Customer and Market Performance
Internal Efficiency and Effectiveness
Long Term Development and Innovation
2) The Business:
Provide a concise overview of the business. Areas for consideration when preparing this section to include:
⦁ Owners/Directors/Shareholders/Shareholdings
⦁ A brief history of the business
⦁ Corporate and business cultures
⦁ Nature of the business and it main activities
⦁ Location
⦁ Current stage in its life cycle
⦁ Past performance and key achievements
⦁ Key business advisors – Solicitor, Banker, Accountant, and Consultants
⦁ Relationships with key stakeholders
⦁ Competitive strengths and weaknesses
3) Market Analysis
Conduct a detailed analysis across each of the following areas to identify and quantify key market opportunities/gaps, barriers to market entry, threats, compliance requirements, risks, performance multipliers, critical success factors, etc. that must be considered when developing high priority product development, marketing and business strategies. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
⦁ Global/National Trends, Developments, Cycles and Changes of Relevance
⦁ Macro-environment (i.e. political, economic, legal, social/cultural,
demographics, technology)
⦁ Industry
⦁ Markets, Customers and Suppliers
⦁ Competitors and their Products
Questions typically asked during the analysis would include:
⦁ What are the industry’s economics, critical success factors, key risks,
competitiveness, compliance and standards requirements, emerging trends
and key technologies?
⦁ Who are the key customers and major competitors in each target markets?
⦁ What are the sizes of the target markets? Are they growing? If yes, at what
rate?
⦁ What market share does each major competitor hold in your primary markets
⦁ What are the strengths and weaknesses of major competitors and their
products?
⦁ What are the competitive price points for products in each market?
⦁ What competitive advantages must your products have to successfully enter
and compete in target markets?
⦁ How will you differentiate your products and add more-customer-value than
competitors?
Key questions about your primary customers:
⦁ Specifically what need or problem does your product target?
⦁ Who will make the decision to purchase your products?
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⦁ What are their decision criteria?
⦁ Where are the products bought?
⦁ How are the products bought?
⦁ When are the products bought?
⦁ Why are the products bought?
⦁ How well do you know your primary customers and key competitors?
⦁ How strong are your relationships with key customers and key stakeholders?
How do you involve them in product development? What factors will be
critical to building strong and enduring brands with them?
⦁ What levels of demand for your products are realistic across your primary
markets?
⦁ In order of priority what are your primary markets? Why?
⦁ How will your primary competitors react when you enter their markets, now
and over the next two years?
⦁ What are you going to do about their responses?
⦁ What are the major barriers to market entry?
⦁ What are the critical success factors for each market?
⦁ What key product distribution, product support and customer service issues
must be considered?
⦁ Which companies and products are likely to become competitors in the
future?

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⦁ What new or emerging technologies and substitute products are likely to
become threats in the future?
4) Products
Based on the findings of Section Three identify your product’s key strengths and weaknesses as they relate to key market opportunities and threats. Then develop strategies to address each issue (eg, build on strengths and correct weaknesses) for each product in your product portfolio. When preparing this section consider the following framework for clustering key issues and related strategies. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
⦁ Describe your current and near-future products?
⦁ What gives your products a clear competitive advantage?
⦁ What are the benefits and value provided to customer as opposed to
‘features’?
⦁ What are the environmental and social impacts and implications?
⦁ What regulations, standards and codes must be complied with?
⦁ At what stage is each product in its life-cycle? For example:
⦁ Research completed
⦁ Prototype completed
⦁ In-house testing
⦁ Customer testing
⦁ Market ready
⦁ First up-grade completed
Also consider conducting the product analysis and planning for this section
across the following stages:
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⦁ Current Situation
⦁ Key Product and Market Issues
⦁ Key Strategies
⦁ Performance Measures and Targets
5) Marketing
Based on discussions at previous sections develop a concise set of highly focussed marketing strategies for your most attractive and highest priority markets. These strategies will guide your market entry, market development, and brand building activities. Establish budgets for these activities. Set realistic and measurable performance targets and time lines for each market entry/development strategy. These targets are critical to designing and building business and production capacities aligned with expected market demands on entry, and in to the future.
In essence marketing strategies in combination create the well differentiated, high value and compelling proposition to customers that persuades them to purchase from you rather then a competitor. These strategies should build on the competitive strengths of the company while exploiting the weaknesses of key competitors. A highly competitive, high-value proposition to customers is typically created around the following drivers of competitive advantage:
⦁ Product distribution eg, simple, speedy and easy customer-access to the product
⦁ Product benefits highly valued by the customer
⦁ Product promotion
⦁ Customer communication, interaction and feedback
⦁ Product support for the life of the product
⦁ Customer service
⦁ Product pricing and purchasing
⦁ Product presentation and packaging
⦁ Product compliance with all relevant legislation
6) Research and Development
Provide a background to current activities. Then identify key issues (strength, weakness, gaps, threats and opportunities) and develop related strategies for addressing each key issues. Link the R&D effort to your market research, product development and marketing activities discussed in previous sections. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
Areas to be analysed to include:
⦁ Sources of R&D
⦁ Current and planned
⦁ Strategic alliances for R&D
⦁ Intellectual Property Protection
⦁ Patents held plus the corporate entity that holds the patents
⦁ Shared intellectual property and its protection
⦁ Intellectual property being used, but not owned
⦁ Intellectual property protection currently being sort for new developments

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⦁ Current and planned R&D activities
⦁ Processes employed for the development and commercialisation of new
products and technologies
7) Production and Delivery
Provide a background to current activities. Then identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses, and gaps in production capacities and capabilities – as they relate to meeting the marketing requirements and targets, and R&D requirements developed in earlier sections. Then develop linked strategies with clear targets, time lines and budgets to develop and progressively expand production capabilities and capacities. All budgetary and financial constraints are factored in to this planning.
Key issues are typically identified following an evaluation of key production and delivery performance-drivers. Typical areas to be addressed during this evaluation include:
⦁ Plant design, location, size and site requirements
⦁ Access to key manufacturing technologies
⦁ Production capacity and capability requirements
⦁ Criteria for selecting contractors and suppliers
⦁ In-house versus out-sourcing of manufacturing requirements
⦁ The manufacturing and production standards, codes, regulations and
OH&S requirements that must be complied with
⦁ Equipment needs
⦁ Inventory management
⦁ Manufacturing processes – configurations and technologies
⦁ Product and production costings
⦁ Purchasing systems
⦁ Quality control systems
⦁ Manufacturing resources planning
⦁ Material requirements planning
⦁ Warehousing
⦁ Scheduling and dispatch
⦁ Material supplies and inventory
⦁ Critical/key inputs to all manufacturing and production processes
⦁ Risk management
⦁ Key staffing and skills requirements
⦁ Clear linkages to, and feedback loops with the company’s marketing,
product development, and R&D functions
⦁ Work systems and teams for staff
⦁ Designing, testing and improving all production and delivery systems
to meet market demands and expected growth
⦁ Key performance measures and targets for controlling and improving
all production and delivery systems to increase production efficiencies
and effectiveness.
⦁ Benchmarking and best-practice
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8) Supply Chains
Provide a background to current activities and list all key suppliers. Then identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses, and gaps in supply chain capacities and capabilities – as they relate to meeting the production and delivery requirements and targets developed at Section Seven. Then develop linked strategies with clear targets, time lines and budgets to develop and progressively improve supply chain capabilities and capacities. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning. Supply chains assessments to include out-sourcing. For example any R&D that is out-sourced should be included in this assessment. Conduct the analysis and planning for this section across the following stages:
⦁ Current Situation
⦁ Key Supply Chain Issues
⦁ Key Strategies
⦁ Performance Measures and Targets
9) Business Systems and Processes
Based on the plans/strategies developed and performance targets established in sections One to Eight identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses and gaps – within the business systems and processes that drive business performance. Then develop strategies to address these issues.
Performance reviews to improve internal business systems and processes typically include an assessment of the following performance areas:
⦁ Quality Management (eg, ISO 9001 – Quality Standard, AS 4269 – Complaints
Handling Standard)
⦁ Risk Management (eg, AS/NZS, Risk Management Standard)
⦁ Regulatory Compliance (Search for any Compliance Program Standard)
⦁ Information Management and Security (eg, Security Standard AS/NZS
ISO/IEC 17799:2000)
⦁ Financial management
⦁ Managing the environmental and social impacts of business operations
⦁ Performance improvement across the business, to include performance
indicators and targets
⦁ Future planning and ongoing innovation (eg, new product development &
process innovation)
⦁ Employee performance and morale
⦁ Stakeholder relationships
⦁ Board and management performance
10) Stakeholder Relationships and Alliances
Describe the current situation and list those key stakeholders that currently contribute to business performance. Identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses and gaps – that relate to improving stakeholder relationships and alliances. Then develop strategies to address each key issue.
Stakeholder groups typically include shareholders/blockholders, customers,
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suppliers of good and services, employees, regulators, the environment, community, and government departments. Questions asked during the stakeholder analysis include:
⦁ Are all of our key stakeholders clearly identified?
⦁ Who will become key stakeholders in the near future?
⦁ Are their expectations and requirements clearly understood?
⦁ Are they regularly consulted?
⦁ Are they kept updated, and involved in those business decisions that will
affect them?
11) Organization and Management
Section Seven provides clear production and delivery projections and targets for the company. Current organisational structures and human resource capabilities will most likely require improvement to meet these increasing business demands.
Conduct an analysis of the current situation and growth projections for the company to identify the key organisational and human resource issues that must be addressed if these growth projections are to be realised. Then develop strategies with key performance measures and targets to address these key issues.
Areas to be addressed include:
⦁ Organizational Chart – show current structures and future structures
⦁ The Management team with brief resumes – show the situation now and in to
the future
⦁ Staffing requirements – now and in to the future
⦁ Job descriptions and work design for management and staff – now and in to
the future
⦁ Human performance standards, measurement and feedback – now and into
the future
⦁ Management and staff training and development – now and in to the future
⦁ Recruitment and induction – now and in to the future
⦁ Encouraging innovation across the company
⦁ Providing leadership and building morale
⦁ Training needs analysis – now and in to the future
⦁ Occupational health and safety
⦁ Industrial relations
⦁ Wages and on-costs
⦁ Other relevant human resource issues
12) Environmental and Social Impacts
Conduct the analysis and planning for this section across the following stages:
⦁ Current Situation
⦁ Key Environmental and Social Issues
⦁ Key Strategies
⦁ Performance Measures and Targets
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13) Risk Factors and Regulatory Compliance
⦁ Risk Management
Establish key risks to the overall business and its performance by identifying high priority risks within each performance area represented by the sections of this plan. Quantify these risks by assessing the gravity of their impacts on the business should they be realised, and determining the probability that they will be realised.
Following quantification of the risks establish an order of priority for their control. Then develop risk management strategies – with performance measures, targets and time lines – that address the highest priority risks.
⦁ Regulatory Compliance
Conduct an audit of regulatory compliance requirements across each area of the business as represented by the sections of this plan. Develop strategies to address regulatory gaps and weaknesses. Search for any Compliance Programs Standard that could provide a good framework for developing an effective compliance management system.
A regulatory compliance audit would typically embrace:
⦁ Corporate governance
⦁ Taxation
⦁ Superannuation
⦁ Employing staff
⦁ Health and safety
⦁ Trade Practices
⦁ Intellectual Property Rights
⦁ Environmental Issues
⦁ The Privacy Act
14) Corporate Governance
Areas to be addressed by this section typically would include:
⦁ Corporate Structures
⦁ Company Constitution
⦁ Board of Directors – Size and Composition
⦁ Duties and Responsibilities of the Board
⦁ Board Performance
⦁ Advisors to the Board
⦁ Shareholder Agreements
⦁ Major Shareholders and Their Representatives
15) Financials
Based on the strategies and plans formulated, costings calculated, and sales projected develop a set of financials for the duration of the plan. These financials should include cash flows, profit and loss, balance sheets, investment requirements, and key financial performance indicators (ratios), and related performance targets.
16) Application of Investment Funds
16
This section should be linked to all prior planning and at minimum address the following:
⦁ What will be the total investment requirement across the duration of this plan
– when and how much?
⦁ Which investors will be involved; how much will they provide and when will
they provide it?
⦁ How will the funds be used at each round of investment?
⦁ What will the capital structure and ownership be after each round of
investment?
17) Strategic Action Plan
Primary Goals, Objectives and Strategies
The Aim of this section is to integrate all strategies developed across previous sections into a cohesive and balanced plan of highly focussed action that will achieve the overarching purpose of this Strategic Plan.
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Firstly…..High-priority, clear, action-orientated, time-bound and practicably achievable goals are formulated around clusters of ‘like’ strategies developed across the previous sections. Goals mark a clear and well-marked pathway for achieving the aim of this plan. To ensure the plan has a sharp focus the number of key goals should be restricted to six or less whenever possible. A clear time frame and performance target should be integrated in to each goal statement. An example of a goal statement: By 30 June 2018 to construct and commission a world-standard production and delivery facility capable of producing two 20 metre road bridges per month for direct installation in to Australia’s public road system.
After each goal has been clearly formulated develop a set of supporting objectives and strategies. Objectives define the best pathway for achieving each goal. Strategies define the pathway for achieving each objective. Objectives and strategies are also written using the SMAAART acronym – Specific, Measurable, Action-orientated, Affordable, Achievable, and Time-bound. The final step in developing an interacting hierarchy/network of focussed action is the Task plan. This plan allocates people and resources to completing those tasks required for achieving each strategy. Vital budget and resource considerations are integrated in to the overall planning process to ensure all planned actions are affordable.
The interacting hierarchy/network of action for achieving the aim of the plan is illustrated below. The hierarchy/network of focussed action is not a rigid structure and, where possible, should be adapted to the each situation to ensure it provides fast, effective and relatively simple action pathways for delivering results of significance.
⦁ Key Strategic Goal
⦁ Objectives to achieve the strategic goal
⦁ Strategies to achieve each objective
⦁ Task Plans to achieve each strategy
⦁ Plan Implementation: Typically management in consultation with staff and
17
key stakeholders implements each Goal and its supporting objectives, strategies and action/task plans. Balanced teams can be effectively employed to implement strategies and supporting action/task plans.
18) Plan Improvement
⦁ Performance Measurement: The plan’s performance should be assessed
against its effectiveness in achieving its high priority goals and performance targets.
⦁ Plan Review and Up Date: To ensure the plan continues to provide a sharp focus and remain responsive to change it should be formally reviewed and updated every six months, at the achievement of a Strategic Goal and at any other time deemed necessary. Implementation of this plan is to be a fixed agenda item at meetings of the Board of Directors.
v) References vi) Appendices
18

Question 29: Law

Only do this assessment if you failed or have a deferral for the SECOND coursework (Client Advice)

Assessment Details

Assessment Length: 2000 (Two Thousand) Words

Note: The assessment length does not include footnotes, bibliography or tables of cases and statutes.

It is compulsory to use footnotes, a bibliography and tables of cases and statutes.

Question

Imran was the owner of a freehold property known as Soar Farm, title to which was unregistered when he purchased it in 1988. The purchase did not trigger first registration at the Land Registry as the area that Soar Farm was located in did not become a compulsory registration area until December 1990.

In 2015, Imran granted his son, Saleem, an option to purchase Ratae Cottage. Although the cottage was part of Soar Farm, it was set against the far boundary away from the main entrance and consequently shared the driveway to the main house on the farm.

The option was for a period of ten years from 2015. The option agreement was in writing and signed by both parties. The document provided that the option could be exercised by the service of a notice by Saleem to Imran at any time.

Almost immediately after the option was given, Imran and Saleem quarrelled and, without Saleem’s knowledge, in early 2016, Imran sold Ratae Cottage to his brother, Khalid. The purchase price Khalid paid for Ratae Cottage was about half its market value. Khalid was fully aware of the option granted in favour of Saleem. In late 2016, Khalid transferred Ratae Cottage back to Imran.

In 2017, Imran’s farming business got into difficulties and his other brother, Malik (who was working in Dubai), agreed to lend him a sum of money to help him out. He lent him the money on condition that he could have a share of the farm if it was sold. Malik also said that he was considering whether to move back to the United Kingdom. Pending that decision, he wanted to send his son, Rastam, to school in the United Kingdom and asked Imran if he could house Rastam. Imran agreed to let him occupy Ratae Cottage while he went to the nearby academy.

In late 2018, despite the funds from Malik’s loan, Imran’s business continued to struggle. Malik agreed to advance him more money as a loan, provided he agreed that, when Malik and his family eventually returned from Dubai, they could occupy Ratae Cottage. Malik has instructed his solicitor to draft the documents for a sale to take place. Documents have now been produced and are being discussed by Imran and Malik’s respective solicitors.

As Imran is still having financial difficulties, he has now decided to sell the farm to a neighbouring farmer, Rashid. He explains to Rashid all that has happened in relation to the land.

Rashid now seeks your advice as to whether he will be bound by any right or interest Saleem or Malik may have and, if he is, if there is any way he could avoid these.

Advise Rashid.

Further Considerations

You may wish to consider some of the following issues in your discussion of this scenario:

⦁ Initial Registration
⦁ The possible creation of easements
⦁ The creation or otherwise of equitable interests
⦁ The different treatment of equitable interests in registered and unregistered land
⦁ Effectiveness/validity of land transfer

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Question 30: Philosophy

Instruction
: Explain the family relationships you detailed. Describe what you have learned that might be helpful when working with families. Identify any substance use addictive disorders discovered in various family members. NOTE: Please do not use the actual names of your family members in order to protect their confidentiality. Utilize Smart Art or the drawing tools in Microsoft Word to complete the Genogram. Support your content with scholarly research. Utilize the GCU Library to locate a minimum of three scholarly sources. Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the GCU Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion. Explain the family relationships you detailed. Describe what you have learned that might be helpful when working with families. Identify any substance use addictive disorders discovered in various family members. NOTE: Please do not use the actual names of your family members in order to protect their confidentiality. Utilize Smart Art or the drawing tools in Microsoft Word to complete the Genogram. Support your content with scholarly research. Utilize the GCU Library to locate a minimum of three scholarly sources. Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the GCU Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

Create a simple genogram for your own family, tracing your roots back three generations. Include this genogram in an essay between 300-600 words that addresses the following. Note: (I am a Black Female, with 5 siblings and I am the middle child and grew up in the mid-west (Iowa no substance abuse, but, both parents did drink occasionally loving family.). Any questions or concerns please advise.

Question 31: Religious Studies

Instruction

APA Style 5 pages 5 references/sources

Islam in USA. History of Islam. Numbers of muslims and mosques. percentage of Sunni, Sofi, Shia, and Ahmadiyya. when did Islam arrived and how did it arrived (by who). Muslim characters in USA, famous mosques, the statues of muslims in the region, any news or events happened in the last month (related to Islam), etc..

Question 32: Business

Instruction
Marketing Management Majors: Develop a business plan for a start-up company that provides some type of marketing product or service (e.g., advertising campaigns, sales, online promotions). Select the type of products or services that the company will offer. The products can be real or potential. A. Write an executive summary (suggested length of 1–2 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Identify the company’s name and location. 2. Describe the mission of the company. 3. Discuss two business goals in support of the company’s mission. 4. Discuss three keys to success for the company. B. Write a company summary (suggested length of 4–6 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Describe the history of the industry in which the company will operate. Note: Cite data and examples from your organization to support your analysis. 2. Identify the legal form that the company will take. 3. Describe the location and type of facilities needed for the company. 4. Describe the management structure, including key positions and specific responsibilities. 5. Describe the products and services offered by the company. C. Develop a market analysis (suggested length of 3–5 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Describe the target market for the company’s products and services, including the specific location, demographics, etc. Note: Cite data and examples from your organization to support your analysis. 2. Complete an industry analysis for the company, including current trends and statistics. 3. Complete a four-square SWOT analysis for the company in which you do the following: a. Identify three strengths, three weaknesses, three opportunities, and three threats. b. Explain each of the identified strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. D. Develop a market strategy (suggested length of 3–6 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Discuss each of the four Ps of marketing as they relate to the company’s products and services. 2. Develop a price list for the company’s products and services. 3. Develop a promotional strategy including
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specific tasks, target dates, and responsible parties. 4. Develop a monthly sales forecast for the first year of operations, including a discussion of expected market conditions. Note: The sales forecast will be used as the basis for your revenue in your financial statements. E. Develop an implementation strategy in which you do the following: 1. Summarize the overall strategy that will be utilized to launch your business, including target dates and goals for implementation. 2. Develop a post-launch monitoring plan (e.g., financial impact, quality control, customer satisfaction, monitoring schedule) to evaluate the success of the company in meeting milestones. F. Calculate and develop the financial statements and projections for the first year of business by doing the following: 1. Develop a month-by-month forecasted profit and loss statement using an estimate of revenues and operating costs based on the sales forecast. 2. Develop a forecasted balance sheet for the end of year one. G. Write a financial report (suggested length of 1–2 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Summarize the financial projections and the assumptions used in estimating the financial statements. 2. Describe the company’s financial position at the end of the first year. 3. Describe the company’s initial and future estimated capital/investment needs. H. When you use sources, include all in-text citations and references in APA format.

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Question 1: General Questions

Saint Leo COM590 Final Exam Latest
Saint Leo COM590 Final Exam Latest
Saint Leo COM590 Final Exam Latest

Question 2: General Questions

NSG6435 Week 5 Assignment 4 Midterm Exam / NSG 6435 Week 5 Midterm Exam -Family Health – Pediatrics- South University
NSG6435 Week 5 Assignment 4 Midterm Exam / NSG 6435 Week 5 Midterm Exam -Family Health – Pediatrics- South University

Question 3: General Questions

NR511 Week 8 Final Exam Latest 2019
NR511 Week 8 Final Exam Latest 2019
NR511 Week 8 Final Exam Latest 2019

Question 4: General Questions

HIEU 201 Chapter 2 quiz: Liberty University 1. The biblical account of the Exodus identifies ________ as leading the Hebrews out of Egypt 2. Under the rule of David’s son Solomon, 3. The Old Testament 4. The Hebrews thought of Yahweh as 5. Which of the following describes the Hebrews’ relationship with the natural world? 6. In the history of the Hebrew people, the covenant has served to 7. The historical significance of Israelite law was that it 8. The Hebrews regarded history as 9. During the flowering of the prophetic movement, the Hebrew prophets 10. All of the following is true of universalism in Hebrew thought EXCEPT 11. The first five books of the Old Testament are known as the 12. The Hebrews originated in 13. During the eleventh century B.C., the leadership of Saul united the ________ Hebrew tribes in Canaan. 14. After the fall of Israel to the Assyrians in 722 B.C. 15. The Hebrews’ concept of Yahweh 16. Which of the following is a fundamental Hebrew belief about the individual? 17. The Hebrews’ belief in moral responsibility resulted from 18. The Old Testament discussed slaves 19. Under Hebrew law, within the family 20. The legacy of the ancient Jews includes all of the following EXCEPT

Question 5: Business

State of Estates” is a national estate planning firm with 2,500 employees in eight states.

Research, as a team, three relevant court cases on age discrimination.
⦁ SUPREME COURT OF THE UNITED STATES GOMEZ-PEREZ v. POTTER, POSTMASTER GENERAL
⦁ Texas Roadhouse to Pay $12 Million to Settle EEOC Age Discrimination Lawsuit
⦁ Jury awards more than $800,000 in an age-discrimination case

Design a 2- to 3-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation with speaker notes for the senior management team at “State of Estates” to train them on the following topics:

⦁ The concept of “BFOQ” and how it applies to age

Give examples of how this concept has been applied to employment situations involving the age of the employee.

Question 6: Business

Strayer University – BUS 499BUS 499 Assignment 3 Business Level and Corporate Level Strategies ( IKEA )
In this assignment, you are to use the same corporation you selected and focused on for Assignments 1 and 2.
Research the company on its own website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions.
Write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you:
Analyze the business-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the business-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor. Compare their strategies at each level and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice.
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets.

Question 7: Business

Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. Research the company on its own
Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions.
Write a four to six (4-6) page paper in which you:
⦁ Assess how globalization and technology changes have impacted the corporation you researched.
⦁ Apply the industrial organization model and the resource-based model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns.
⦁ Assess how the vision statement and mission statement of the corporation influence its overall success.
⦁ Evaluate how each category of stakeholder impacts the overall success of this corporation.
Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions.
Write a four to six (4-6) page paper in which you:

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Question 8: Business

CSIA 360 case 4 Public-Private Partnership

Cybersecurity Public-Private Partnership, participate or not participate?
CISA 360Cybersecurity in Government Organizations

Question 9: Business

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
·         The age for full social security benefits is 67 today, with more than one-third of people working past the age of 70.  The ADEA was enacted to prevent discrimination against older workers.  Discuss some of the underlying situations that contribute to discrimination by age and what companies can do to avoid decisions based on age alone.

Question 10: Business

As a first-year Human Resource Specialist at “State of Estates” estate planning firm, your boss (Will N. Trusts) presents you with the following two scenarios:
Scenario 1
Ned was hired six weeks ago by “State of Estates” to supervise the call center on weekends. At the time of hire, Ned did not disclose that he is a follower of the “Weekend Warriors” religion. In observance of his religious practices, Ned may not work Saturday mornings before noon. Ned called out of work three Saturday mornings in a row, costing the company extra overtime costs. The company looked to re-arrange the schedule, but to pull in a more senior supervisor on the weekend would require time-and-a-half pay. In addition, call-center statistics indicate a drop in productivity when there is a change of supervisor mid-day. The company would like to terminate Ned’s employment.
⦁ Would Ned have an argument for religious discrimination against “State of Estates?” Why or why not?
⦁ If yes, would the company be able to assert any defenses under these circumstances?

Scenario 2
Ella works in the accounting department in the northern satellite office of the company. She has been employed for four years and performed her job well until recently when she was caught sleeping on the job numerous times. Ella explained to her supervisor that she suffers from sleep apnea and has not been sleeping well at night. She requested a special caffeine supplement, at $200 daily, to keep her focused on the spreadsheets.
⦁ What factors would a court consider in determining whether Ella’s sleep apnea qualifies her for protection under the ADA?
⦁ Would “State of Estates” have to provide the requested accommodation of the caffeine pills in this instance? Why or why not?

Create two 350-word memos in one document based on these two scenarios.

Format your memos, including citations and references consistent with APA guidelines.

Question 11: Business

Analyze the business-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the business-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor. Compare their strategies at each level and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice.
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets.
Use at least three (3) quality references.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Identify various levels and types of strategy in a firm.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in business administration.
Write clearly and concisely about business administration using proper writing mechanics.

Week 8 Assignment 3
Student Full Name

Date

Everything in Blue below should be deleted
Due Week 8 and worth 150 points
Using the corporation you chose from Assignment 1, examine its industry. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions. NOTE: Be sure to read Chapters 1 – 10 in the course textbook and complete the LEARN E-Activities for Weeks 1-8 as they set the foundation to this assignment. Be sure to cite your sources! Begin your paper on Page 2 and write a minimum of six (6) pages (does not include Title or Source pages).

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Week 8 Assignment 3
Write your brief introduction here: It should not be more than 1 good paragraph (about 5 complete sentences) to introduce the reader to your topic and it should explain in detail what your paper will be discussing. Much of your introduction may be taken from the assignment itself (in your own words). Read the scenario to get a feel for what the paper is about and explain what your paper will be discussing – so be sure to review the Assignment instructions AND Rubric for understanding. Finally, please ask me any questions about this assignment.
Business-Level Strategies
Analyze the business-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the business-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice (Note: in this step you need to choose and write about only one (1) business-level strategy from the text book (not Google). Justify your opinion. For background, be sure to research and explain the industry in which your selected corporation operates. You could also briefly (1 – 2 sentences) define the business-level strategy (cite your sources) you are writing about using the textbook/Learn, as an introduction to your analysis. Read Chapter 4 in the course textbook. Review the Week 4 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content. In this section, you will want to research and identify the core competencies of your chosen firm. Demonstrate from your research how the firm uses its core competencies to create and sell its products in the marketplace. What actions & choices has the firm made to compete in individual product markets? Hint: “Every firm must form and use a business-level strategy.” (Hitt, Ireland, & Hoskisson, 2013, pp. 102). Review Chapters 4-9 for specifics on the business-level strategies.
Corporate-Level Strategies
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice (Note: in this step you need to choose and write about only one (1) corporate-level strategy from the text book (not Google). Justify your opinion.
You should briefly define (1 – 2 sentences) corporate-level strategy based upon the textbook/lectures (cite your sources) as part of your analysis. Read Chapter 6 in the course textbook. Review the Week 6 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content.
Competitive Environment
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor (this will require research/cite your sources). Compare their strategies at each level (market commonality, resource similarity, competitive behavior, and competitive dynamics/actions/responses) and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice. Hint: read Chapter 5 in the course textbook as it provides a solid background and clues on this model that apply to this section. Review the Week 4 Learn video Lecture for supporting content (cite your sources).
Market Cycles
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 (Competitive Environment section above) would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets. It would be a good idea to briefly (1 – 2 sentences) explain what the slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets are from the textbook (cite your sources) as a short introduction to your determination. Hint: read Chapter 5 in the course textbook with a special focus on the Competitive Dynamics section. Review the Week 4 Learn video Lecture for supporting content (cite your sources).
Sources
Hitt, M. A., Ireland, R. D., & Hoskisson, R. E. (2013). Strategic management: Concepts and cases: Competiveness and globalization (10th ed.). Mason, OH: South-Western Cengage Learning.
List your sources on this page and remember to delete the instructions, which are in blue font.
Use at least three (3) quality sources, one of which must be the course textbook to support your ideas/work. Note: Wikipedia and college essay sites do not qualify as academic resources.
Cite your sources throughout your work when you borrow someone else’s words or ideas.
The source page must include all sources used. All sources listed here must be cited in your paper.
Look for a permalink tool for a webpage when possible (especially when an electronic
source requires logging in).
When using SWS remember to organize sources in a numbered list and in order of use throughout the paper; use the original number when citing a source multiple times; and follow this format for all sources:
Author. Publication Date. Title. Page # (written as p. #). How to Find (e.g. web address)
The APA format may also be used for a Reference page.
Questions to ask yourself before submitting your paper.
⦁ Did I read the required course material and complete the required activities?
⦁ Have I deleted the blue font instructions in this template?
⦁ Did I leave the provided section headings in place, as provided in this template?
⦁ After deleting the blue fonts in this template, have I changed all font to black?
Additional things to keep in mind.
⦁ You will be graded on the content of your submission, the quality of your answers, the logic/organization of the report, your language skills, and your writing skills using the grading rubric.
⦁ Strayer uses SafeAssign – an automated plagiarism checker. It is advised that you do your own writing and use external resources to support what you have written in your own words.

Question 12: Health Care

NURS 6501 Advanced Pathophysiology Week 6 Quiz (2018)-Walden University Question 1 A 9-year-old male contracted influenza. Which of the following complications is of greatest concern to the nurse? Question 2 An 11-year-old female presents with a low-grade fever and cough. She is diagnosed with atypical pneumonia. What type of pneumonia does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing? Question 3 A 42-year-old male was involved in a motor vehicle accident during which he suffered a severe head injury. He died shortly after the accident from loss of respiration. The nurse suspects the area of the brain most likely involved is the: Question 4 A 50-year-old diabetic male did not take his medication and is now in metabolic acidosis. He is experiencing Kussmaul respirations. What type of breathing will the nurse observe upon assessment? Question 5 A 10-year-old female develops pneumonia. Physical exam reveals subcostal and intercostal retractions. She reports that breathing is difficult and she feels she cannot get enough air. What term should the nurse use to document this condition? Question 6 A 7-month-old male presents with cystic fibrosis (CF) accompanied by failure to thrive and frequent, loose, and oily stools. Sweat testing reveals increased chloride. Which of the following should the nurse observe for that would accompany this disease? Question 7 A 65-year-old female with emphysema presents to the ER for difficulty breathing. Physical exam reveals bluish skin and mucous membranes.

Question 13: Mathematics

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Question 13: Mathematics

⦁ Watch ⦁ this video (Links to an external site.) first.
⦁ Watch ⦁ this video (Links to an external site.) second.
⦁ Explain, in your words, what significance means in this experiment. How does probability play a role in determining significance?
⦁ Explain, in your words, what made the experiment in 2 statistically significant?

Question 14: Finance

As we discussed, there are four main factors that to go into loan pricing for financial institutions. As a bank manager, you are most concerned with the fourth factor that is the profit margin. Explain how the inflation and the interest rates are important when calculating the potential profit margin. Do any of these factors change if the loan is a fixed interest rate versus a variable interest rate? Your response must be at least 75 words in length.

Question 15: Finance

Deposit insurance is one safeguard that has been implemented against a potential bank run. After the financial crisis, the Federal Reserve increased the amount of money insured from $100,000 to $250,000. A bank customer has asked you why the increase was made and what this means for her money at your bank. Explain to the customer how the increase was a tool used by the Federal Reserve to help control the money supply, and discuss the benefits this brings to the customer. Your response must be at least 75 words in length

Question 16: Health Care

HER Security issue concerns

Assignment.

One of the best ways to learn about a subject is to discuss it with those who work in the industry. You can learn first-hand the real-world pros and cons of EHR security issues.

For this assignment, you will write a 1.5 – 2.0 page paper analyzing the issues surrounding what you discovered that are security concerns and issues are with EHR. In doing so the format should be written as if you gathered information from a manager of Health IT department.

Paper Topic:

⦁ What are the safety and security issues they see surrounding the use of electronic health systems technology?

Questions:

You are to create the questions and answer questions through research that revolve around password protections, internal information thefts, outside hacking, HIPAA concerns, ransomware, employee use of personal emails, PHI concerns, or any other avenues you care to explore.

Provide analysis and additional outside research to support the concerns. You will be graded on your strength of choice of interviewee, the depth of your questioning, outside research, and the structure of your write up.
.

Question 17: Engineering

Questions are on chegg website

https://www.chegg.com/homework-help/questions-and-answers/batch-production-unit-part-produced-result-6-operations-raw-material-cost-part-450-30-part-q39537037

Question 18: English

Argumentative essay on the immigration system of the US and if it works or doesn’t work 1,300 words

Question 19: Health Care

Instruction
A. Identify a current nursing practice within your healthcare setting that requires change. Note: You can describe your setting without identifying it by name and begin to introduce the specific problem that you will be addressing. 1. Describe the current nursing practice. Note: Describe the current practice and what may be wrong with the current practice that is resulting in the identified problem. 2. Discuss why the current nursing practice needs to be changed. B. Identify the key stakeholders within your healthcare setting who are part of the current nursing practice. 1. Describe the role each identified key stakeholder will play to support the proposed practice change. Note: These are the individuals who will make up the team to plan, implement and evaluate the change. C. Create an evidence critique table (see “Sample Evidence Critique Table”). Note: Insert your evidence critique table into your paper. 1. Identify five sources from scholarly peer-reviewed journals, which adhere to the following standards: a. Each source must be published within the past five years. b. Each source must relate to the change identified in part A. c. Each source must be listed in the table using APA format. 2. Identify the evidence strength of each chosen source, using the Strength of Evidence information in the study plan. 3. Identify the evidence hierarchy of each chosen source, using the Evidence Hierarchy information in the study plan. D. Develop an evidence summary based on the findings from part C that includes each of the five sources used (suggested length of 1–2 pages for all sources). Note: Create one well developed paragraph for each article which includes the purpose, methods or study design, results or conclusions and how the article supports the practice change recommendation. E. Recommend a specific best practice based on the evidence summary developed in part D. F. Identify a practice change model that is appropriate to apply to the proposed practice change. Note: Identify the model that you have chosen and give a brief description of how it is generally used. 1. Justify why you chose the practice change model and how it is relevant to the proposed practice change. 2. Explain how to apply the identified model to guide the implementation of the proposed practice change. Note: Clearly articulate how the model will be used to guide change and address each step individually and with specific detail. G. Discuss possible barriers to successful implementation of the proposed practice change. H. Discuss any possible ethical implications that may arise while planning or implementing the proposed practice change. Note: Describe which ethical principle(s) or ANA Code of Ethics provision(s) speaks to, or supports, your practice change and why. I. When you use sources, include all in-text citations and references in APA format.

Attention
If you want to edit this document,
go to the file tab (upper left), click download as, click Microsoft Word, and then save the document.

Title of Paper
Student Name (no credentials)
Western Governors University
Title of Paper – centered (no bolding or underlining) on 1st Page
SEE LAST PAGE FOR TEMPLATE NOTE

Professional Practice Description
Key Stakeholders
Evidence Critique Table
Full APA citation for 5 sources.
Include doi or url. Evidence Strength (I-VII) and
Evidence Hierarchy
Chan, H. Y., Dai, Y. T., & Hou, C. (2016).  Evaluation of a tablet-based instruction of breathing technique in patients with COPD.  International Journal of Medical Informatics, 94, 263-270.  https://doi-org.wgu.idm.oclc.org/10.1016/j.ijmedinf.2016.06.018
Level II, RCT
Piamjariyakul, U., Werkowitch, M., Wick, J., Russell, C., Vacek, J. L., & Smith, C. E. (2015). Caregiver coaching program effect: Reducing heart failure patient rehospitalizations and improving caregiver outcomes among African Americans.   Heart & Lung – The Journal of Acute and Critical Care, 44(6), 466-473.  Retrieved from:
http://www.sciencedirect.com.wgu.idm.oclc.org/science/article/pii/S0147956315001843
Level II, RCT

Evidence Summary
Evidence-Based Practice Recommendation
Practice Change Model
Potential Barriers
Ethical Considerations
References
Provide a reference in APA format for all in-text citations.
TEMPLATE NOTE:
This template provides a guide for graduate-level, scholarly papers that require APA style and formatting (American Psychological Association, 2010). The recommended font style is Times New Roman, and the font size is 12. Margins are set at one inch for top, bottom, left, and right.
Always begin your paper with an introductory paragraph or section that includes the purpose of your paper and what will be written in the paper – it may be helpful to write the paper first, then go back and write the introduction. The introduction should be included in the paper but does not require an introduction heading. Each content area/section of the paper should have a heading.
To follow is the recommended format for your title page and section headings consistent with APA format. The Title page is a separate page. Each section should include sufficient detail to meet the task requirements. All paragraphs should have at least three sentences. The References page is a separate page at the end of the paper.

Question 20: Other

Week 8- Assignment: Prepare a Revised Literature Review and Reflection

Instruction
This assignment has two components that will be submitted as one final comprehensive document: Part 1: Revise your literature review paper. Using the feedback and comments you received from your professor on the first draft of the literature review in Week 6, revise and edit the paper to reflect that feedback and incorporate all comments. Use the Track Changes option to indicate how you have incorporated the feedback, and use the Insert Comment option to indicate those areas where you have identified a need to revise further, where you have made recommended changes, and where you have made other adjustments based on what you have learned about scholarly writing throughout this course. Part 2: Prepare a reflection to include as an appendix to your literature review. Prepare a brief reflection paper in which you note any remaining questions and concerns that you may have about becoming an effective scholarly writer. Discuss areas of strengths and areas for further growth and development. Identify at least five resources available to NCU students to further enhance your writing skills and note how you will use them in the future. Part 1 Length: 12-15 pages Part 2 (appendix) Length: 2-3 pages Total Length: 14-18 pages, not including title and reference pages Your submission should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to the topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA style standards.

Question 21: Other

Week 7- Assignment: Present your Research Findings

Instruction

Using the topic from Weeks 1 and 2, prepare a PowerPoint presentation suitable for an introductory psychology course that would be offered to undergraduate students. Your presentation should include the following: Be sure to include a title slide. Introduce your audience to the topic. Provide an overview and background information on the topic. Explain at least three key points about the topic. Discuss at least two research findings presented in your research articles. Summarize the key points. Your final slide(s) should be your reference slide(s). Incorporate appropriate animations, transitions, and graphics as well as speaker notes for each slide. The speaker notes may be comprised of brief paragraphs or bulleted lists. Speaker’s notes are located underneath the slide itself (where you see “click to add notes”). Support your presentation with at least five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources may be included. Length: 12-15 slides (with a separate reference slide) Notes Length: 200-350 words for each slide Be sure to include citations for quotations and paraphrases on each slide with references in APA format and style where appropriate.

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Question 22: Other

Week 6- Assignment: Prepare a Literature Review

Instruction

Prepare a literature review that addresses the topic you have been working on throughout this course. Remember, you likely have prepared literature reviews, albeit probably as sections of previous papers in your studies. The challenge for you now is that you will apply a critical eye toward what is known about the research topic and what you can identify as possible gaps in past research. Your previous assignments will offer great help to you as you put your literature review together. Specifically, you will need to: Introduce the problem. Include a clear and concise thesis statement. Provide sufficient background to the reader. Identify similarities between various research findings on the topic. Provide examples to illustrate the similarities. Identify differences between various research findings on the topic. Provide examples to illustrate the differences. Synthesize the themes and relationships you have identified in your research into the topic. Summarize the key findings of previous research. Conclude with an assessment of the status of the problem being researched. Support your literature review with at least 10 references from scholarly resources. You may incorporate the 10 resources you have used in other assignments as well as include other resources you have located throughout the course. Length: 8-10 pages, not including title and reference pages Your assignment should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to the topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA style standards

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approximately normally distributed with mean 1387 grams and standard deviation 161 grams.

What proportion of broilers weigh between 1100 and 1200 grams?

What is the probability that a randomly selected broiler weighs more than 1500 grams?

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SHORT QUESTION (ESSAY / CASE STUDY / EXERCISE)
1. Read the two cases of Barbican Bank and Intermarket of Zimbabwe and answer the questions below
Barbican Bank (BB)
Barbican Bank was formed in the late 1990s at the height of a rush into the financial services sector by domestic investors. It was born out of an asset management company. The founder was a flamboyant businessman who was a public figure in the financial services sector. At formation the bank declared its focus would be the elite market. Its products were therefore targeted specifically at the top market. The bank also declared an intention to operate a very small branch network, no more than five branches. Barbican started experiencing liquidity problems in early 2003 and was placed under the curator in March 2003. Before being placed under the curator Barbican had been reporting fabulous profits most of them having come from non interest transactions. According to the Central Bank, Barbican ‘‘was experiencing serious liquidity problems as a result of imprudent banking behaviours. There was no clear separation between various related entities within the group which led to cross funding of operations and excessive risk taking among other shortcomings.’’ The Central Bank also noted that the bank was involved in ‘‘questionable cross-border foreign exchange activities.’’ The bank had shifted funds to South Africa from local operations with the object of establishing a new company in South Africa. During its operation the bank introduced the derivatives (junk bonds) market, which had been non-existent in the country’s financial sector. When liquidity problems besieged Barbican the Central Bank placed the banking division under the curator and the asset management company under liquidation. At the time of taking these measures the Central Bank had injected money into the bank as liquidity support but the bank appeared to be on a serious slide. The bank has since failed to repay on time the loan from the Central bank’s Troubled Bank Fund. On seeing his financial companies in difficulties, the Chief Executive (the founder) skipped the country. Despite problems in the home operations, the founding chief executive was trying to set up another financial services company in South Africa. During his tenure the Chief Executive is said to have been so dominant the board appeared clueless and powerless to restrain him. The bank has now been placed into
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PROGRAMME BACHELOR OF COMMERCE IN FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
MODULE FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT 3F
TOTAL MARKS 20 MARKS
liquidation by the Central Bank. It will be amalgamated into a merger of liquidated banks to form a new bank.
Intermarket (IM)
The founder established Intermarket Holdings during the late 1990s through acquisitions. At the time of inset of financial distress, the founder owned 72 percent of Intermarket Holdings through an investment company called Transnational Holdings. Transnational Holdings comprised companies in banking and insurance among others. Its influence in the financial services sector was in every sphere. Intermarket Banking Corporation one of the subsidiaries of the holding company started showing signs of liquidity problems in early 2004. This was during the period of a cash crisis in the country. Much as all banking institutions were affected by the cash crisis, Intermarket appeared completely outstretched by the crisis. In March 2004 the bank was placed under the management of a curator by the Central Bank when it appeared it could not pay its creditors and depositors on demand. On investigation, the Central Bank discovered that the Executive Chairman had loaned himself Z$90 billion of depositors’ money and the insider loans were not being serviced. The Executive Chairman was said to have been so dominant he had the veto power on everything that took place in the corporation. Investigations by the appointed curator have led to a rise in the figure for insider loans to Z$174 billion. The Executive chairman fled the country when authorities appeared to point at him as the main contributor to financial distress in the institution. Intermarket has been trying to enter into partnership with other banking institutions, in order to shore up its capital, without much success. Instead Finhold, another Zimbabwean financial institution whose banking subsidiary is owed Z$100 billion is positioning itself to take over major shareholding in Intermarket Bank through a combination of cash and debt swap. Finhold’s strategy is an attempt to protect possible collapse of Intermarket since it is a major creditor. Intermarket has to raise its capital base to Z$10 billion before 30 September 2004 as per regulatory authority requirements. Fraud by some IM employees taking advantage of weak management systems has exacerbated financial distress in Intermarket. The curator has however opened the banking division for limited services to depositors.
a)  The liquidity problems experience by Barbican Bank and Intermarket bank were as a result of poor risk management. Discuss? (6 marks)
b)  Identify the speculative risk that was taken by Barbican Bank? (2 marks)
c)  Lack of board independence inadvertently creates an epicentre for corporate governance failures. Discuss using the two cases and outline the ideal role of a board in corporate governance and risk management (4 marks)
Discuss the benefits of Enterprise Risk Management (ERM)? (4 marks)
Discuss how an audit committee would have to test the effectiveness of the risk management arrangements in place? (4 marks)

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The liquidity problems experience by Barbican Bank and Intermarket bank were as a result of poor risk management. Discuss?

Question 1
Explain how databases help ensure that organizations can maintain data integrity.
Your response should be at least 75 words in length.

Question 2

Compare how the data in transactional databases differs from that in data warehouses?

Your response should be at least 75 words in length.

Question 3
What is the relevance of data mining in organizations?

Your response should be at least 75 words in length.

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Imagine that you are hired as a CIO of a quickly growing retail chain with an online presence. You have growing transactional databases but want to build a business intelligence infrastructure. You also have various departments within your company with databases such as marketing, customer service, accounts payable, sales, and accounts receivable. What would your proposed business intelligence infrastructure consist of? Justify your decisions.

Course Learning Outcomes for Unit IV
Upon completion of this unit, students should be able to:
6. Compare and contrast databases and database management.
6.1  Explain the importance of maintaining data for IT professionals in organizations.
6.2  Describe the capabilities of databases and database management in organizations.
6.3  Explain the principle technologies and their uses when accessing information from databases.
Reading Assignment
Chapter 6: Foundations of Business Intelligence: Databases and Information Management

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Unit Lesson
Databases and Management
What do you think is an organization’s most important asset? Some people might argue that employees are the most important asset for any organization, while others would argue that an organization cannot function without its data. Imagine that an organization loses every server and database in its data centers. How would the business know which customers have ordered which products? How would they know what they currently have stocked in their warehouses? How would they know how much they paid for that product or how much they should charge for it going forward? How could they operate without any historical records at all? It would be like starting over as a completely new business, would it not?
Organizations have to be very protective of their data. As an additional point of complexity, organizations have to follow Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX) laws, which require data to have integrity at a high level. This basically means that no one can touch a company’s data unless they have an expressed need for it and authorization to do so.
An organization’s data cannot have redundancy. Also, it must be consistent and have integrity. Integrity means that you are ensuring the quality of the data in your database. Integrity deals with the accuracy and reliability of the data. All of this is made possible by relational databases and database management systems (DBMS). Relational databases are designed to store data in a manner that will reduce redundancy and inconsistency. The word reduce is used here because the database engineer, or developer, has to make use of the rules and tools. Otherwise, there could be issues with bad data.
Consider the database as the foundation for business intelligence, data warehousing, and data mining. A DBMS includes the capabilities for organizing, managing, and accessing the data housed in the database (Laudon & Laudon, 2016). Information technology (IT) personnel can use queries and reports for accessing and manipulating that data. The design of the database should be such that it is normalized in order to enforce referential integrity. Data models should be created with relationships between columns in mind.
So, how is database data used for decision making? You may have had a database course before, or you may have had to pull data from a database at work. Your response may be just to query the data. However, doing that would just give you some data. How do you get the right data?
Let us assume you are trying to make decisions about what items to discount in one of your hundred company gas/markets. It would not be too hard to query the sales data from that store for the past hour. You might get a hundred transactions. What can you do with that information? What if you pull the information for the last week or month? You could get thousands to millions of rows of data. At what point do you have too much data to deal with in your database?
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MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 1
UNIT IV STUDY GUIDE
Databases, Information Management, and Business Intelligence
Data like this can be summarized as determining your sale of candy bars and UthNaItTyoxuSsTeUllDaYn GavUeIrDaEge of one hundred candy bars per day. But, how does that help you to make a decision about discounting candy bars?
What you need is a way to store the magnitudes of data in such a way that it is beneficial to the business.
What exactly is business intelligence? Now, go back to our previous example. Not only do you have one store to collect thousands of rows, but you have one hundred stores. There are millions of rows of records that are processed through your operational databases in a given month. You also want to collect data about pricing changes from the vendors and information about marketing trends. Then, you might want to collect information from external sources like your competitor data or demographic data.
How would you store this information? Well, you will store it in a data warehouse. Data warehouses are part of your business intelligence infrastructure. It is through this infrastructure that you can use tools like analytics and data mining to look for patterns in your data that you cannot see by just looking at query or report results.
The first analytical method is online analytical processing (OLAP), which allows the user to view data in different ways using different dimensions. This is commonly referred to as using a data cube. How could this be used for our example? Well, we could pull information on the best-selling candy bar, the average price, the day of the week that we sell the most, and the month of the year. Would that get us closer to knowing what kind of discount offers to put in our stores? Yes, but not close enough.
The next common analytical method is data mining. Data mining is more complex and looks for hidden patterns and relationships. Again, let’s apply this to our previous example. The results of our data mining could show us the best-selling candy bar, the average price, the day of the week, and the month that we sell the most candy bars. It may also tell us that the majority of the time that people buy candy bars is when they also buy a soda or coffee. Aha! Now, what can our marketing department do with that information? They can bundle products together and advertise them in the store windows and at the gas pumps: “Buy a soda and candy bar and get 50 cents off.”
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This is a simple example. Just imagine the rows of data that retailers like Amazon.com have stored in databases and data warehouses! Now, there are Web mining tools that help organizations understand customer’s Internet patterns, including which websites they frequent, what they buy, what they do not buy, and how long they spent on the websites. All of this is large data, and it is valuable data.
Organizations can make big decisions based on this data. They pay a huge amount of money to store and analyze the data that is collected. As an IT professional, it is your job to protect that data and to help ensure data quality and integrity. There are several concepts, other than the ones previously mentioned, that are also important to this field. The most important involve the need for organizations to set effective information policies and to have adequate data governance across the enterprise. We will cover more on these topics in a future lesson.
Reference
Laudon, K. C., & Laudon, J. P. (2016). Management information systems: Managing the digital firm [VitalSource Bookshelf version] (14th ed.). Retrieved from https://bookshelf.vitalsource.com/#/books/9780133898309/
Suggested Reading
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The following article presents practical information from top financial executives regarding how they use business intelligence in support of corporate strategies. You are highly encouraged to view this article.
In order to access the resource below, you must first log into the myCSU Student Portal and access the Business Source Ultimate database within the CSU Online Library.
Morio, J. (2014). Linking business intelligence to strategy. Financial Executive, 30(4), 66-69.
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 2
Title
Learning Activities (Nongraded)
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UNIT x STUDY GUIDE
Title
Complete the Management Decision Problem 6-8 on p. 247 in your textbook. Create a one page summary document addressing the question at the end of the problem. In addition to the textbook, you may use external sources or select sources from the CSU Online library. Be sure to reference and cite all sources used with proper APA formatting.
As this is a nongraded activity, this work cannot be uploaded to Blackboard. If you would like your professor’s feedback on your work, send this document to them in an email with a note that you would like to receive feedback on your non-graded activity.
MBA 5401, Management Information Systems 3

Question 5: Finance

For this assignment, you will take the role of a business owner. As the business owner, you will create a case study that includes two parts.
Part I
Describe the type of business you own.
What products and/or services does the business offer?
How long has the business existed?
What kind of community does the business serve?
Part II
You are in an evaluation (or reevaluation) of your business’s needs. You see that you will need to reach out to the following financial institutions to meet their needs: insurance companies, pension funds, and finance companies. Define what each of these financial institutions will offer your business.
What are the major differences between the three financial institutions?
How could each one meet a need in your business? What financial institutions do you finally settle on? What services or products will you use?
Your responses should be submitted in one document and follow APA formatting.
You should have a minimum of three pages of content, one title page, and one reference page for this assignment. Be sure to include two scholarly sources in addition to your textbook.

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Health IT Breaking News Assignment

The ground underneath you in health care is changing hourly. As a manager, if you are not tapped into these changes, you will fall behind and not know of a new statute, regulation, or equipment. It is hard to do research every day, so why not have the information come to you?

For this assignment, you will review a minimum of five articles related to health IT and provide a summary of each. Really Simple Syndication (RSS) feeds bring news to you.

You will start by reviewing RSS feeds and scanning for relevant articles. Scan the articles daily for IT news related to electronic health records, HIPAA violations and medical record case reviews, rule changes, ethics, e-prescribing, documentation, billing, security, health IT safety, and many other concepts.

Here are some potential RSS feed addresses to sign up for, but there are many others you may use:

http://www.healthcareitnews.com/rss
http://www.modernhealthcare.com/section/RSS
https://www.healthitoutcomes.com/doc/rss-0001
http://managedhealthcareexecutive.modernmedicine.com/managed-healthcare-executive/content/rss-feeds
https://www.healthit.gov/buzz-blog/ (from Office of National Coordinator)

For this assignment, you will do the following:

Provide a cover page
Number your articles, and start with a reference in standard format to the article. Provide complete information, not just the URL.
Under each reference, provide a complete summary of the article. Do NOT cut and paste any of the article as part of your submission. ALL work must be your own writing.
Provide analysis. What does the article mean? How will this change things? In what way is this breaking news? Provide in-depth analysis. Superficial one-liner comments will not receive credit.
Double space your content

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It is expected that you will have a minimum of two complete pages of content. If you do not, then you have chosen insignificant articles, or not provided meaningful analysis.
Question 7: Biology

postulate a reason why so many aliphatic amino acids are “essential”

Question 8: Accounting

Prepare a process documentation that is prepared in a professional manner because it will be the desktop guide used by others.

Question 9: Business

What problem does your business solve?
How does your business generate income?
Which parts of your business are not profitable?
Question 10: Computer Science

I need 3-page paper on
Implementing Enterprise Risk Management (ERM), write a research paper on how ERM is leveraged to minimize risk and create opportunity in your chosen industry. Be sure to provide specific examples.

You can Pick IT industry and do like

1. ERM and IT industry
2.How ERM leverage risk in IT
3.How ERM create opportunity in IT

Question 11: Business

How does the information technology development for video-based businesses differ from traditional businesses?

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Question 12: Health Care

Management Plan Assignment

Setting up an EHR or comprehensive patient informatics system is not a one-time event. A person or a team of individuals must oversee getting new employees up to speed, maintain competence of existing employees, and make needed continuous changes to the system. It is a very dynamic process.

In this assignment, you are the head of a team implementing a new EHR system and must address the following areas. Use each one of the below items as a header, and describe how you would resolve issues in each area.

The Role of the Manager Implementing a New System. In this section of the paper, address the following issues related to implementing a new EHR system (10 points):

How the software selection process works
What contract negotiations should involve and include
What will be the role of the IT manager in the department
What role will a Strategic Planner take in the process
How will the system be financed?

Ongoing Maintenance and Upgrades to System. In this section of the paper you address the following issues that occur after the EHR system is up and running (10 points):
How will needed changes come about after the new system is up and running?
What will upgrades and new modules be added to the system?
How does the facility handle suggestions by staff that use the system?
How does the facility train new employees and provide ongoing training program for existing staff?

Use quality peer reviewed literature for each section to support each section and in-text citations. Write in third person only. It is expected this will be a minimum two pages. Have a complete reference page at the end (not just pasted URLs

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Question 13: Health Care

Descriptive Analysis Assignment

Many useful sources of statistical data are available in the public domain on the internet. The United States Center for Disease Control, for example, provides online access to their WONDER (Wide-ranging Online Data for Epidemiologic Research) databases of public health data.

For this assignment, you will be using the ad-hoc query and reporting tools provided on this site to summarize cancer mortality rates. Choose a state, and then collect and present information that answers the following questions:
Did cancer deaths in your chosen state increase or decrease from year to year between 1999 and 2005?
How do the 2005 cancer deaths in your chosen state compare to 2005 cancer deaths in four other U.S. states? (You may choose any four states you want for the comparison.)?
How do the 2005 cancer deaths in that state break down according to race?

You can use any state you wish, just use the same state throughout.

To answer each question:

Use the “Request Form” to specify suitable query criteria to get a result set that best answers the question.
Supply a title that accurately describes the data you’re requesting. Submit the query.
Browse the result set and capture screen shots of the:
Result set, and paste it into the assignment document you will be submitting.
Query criteria (at the bottom of the results page) and paste it into the document
Generate a map or a chart to visually present your results. You can select whatever type of chart (e.g. bar chart, pie chart, line chart, map, etc.) you think most clearly presents the data.
Capture a screen shot of the chart and paste it into the assignment document you will be submitting

Watch the video instructions for using the WONDER database. If you need help capturing screenshots, you can get instructions for Windows and Macintosh. You MUST submit ALL of the screenshots described (3 screenshots per question, 9 total) to get credit for each question.

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Step One: Select one of the following films to view based on the short descriptions provided below:
French-Language Films:
1. Intouchables (France, directed by Olivier Nakache and Eric Toledo, released 2011): Story of a young black Frenchman who is hired to take care of a wealthy quadriplegic.
2. Amelie (France, directed by Jean-Pierre Jennet, released 2001): Story of a naive girl in Paris who has her own way of helping those around her.
3. L’auberge espagnole (France, directed by Cedric Klapisch, released 2002): Story of a group of European exchange students who shared an apartment in Barcelona, Spain.
German-language Films:
1. The Lives of Others (Germany, directed by Florian Henckel von Donnersmarck, released 2006 ): Set in East Germany, it portrays the surveillance of a writer by the Stasi (state secret police).
2. The Edukators (Germany, directed by Hans Weingarten, released 2004): Set in reunified Germany in the early twenty-first century, it portrays some young people who develop a new form of protest against what they consider to be the evils of capitalism.
3. Run Lola Run (Germany, directed by Tom Tywer, released 1998)
Spanish-language Films:
1. The Skin I Live In (Spain, directed by Pedro Almodovar, released 2011): A thriller about a doctor who holds an apparently beautiful woman captive.
2. The Motorcycle Diaries (Argentina, directed by Brazilian director Walter Salles, released 2004): Narrates the life of the young Che Guevara who sets out on a road trip to discover the people of South America.
3. Amores Perros (Mexico, directed by Alejandro G. Inarritu, released 2000). A car accident in Mexico City connects the lives of three strangers who are struggling with the reality of daily life.

Step Two: After viewing the film, select a theme/topic addressed in the film that you would like to explore.
Step Three: Write a response to the film’s treatment of the theme or topic that you have selected. This should be in paragraph form, 2-3 pages. Refer to specific scenes, dialog, or images in the film that address your topic. Include questions that you have that you would like to explore further. Conclude your analysis with a restatement of the most important question that you would like to answer regarding the meaning of the film.
Step Four: Provide a tentative bibliography, USING ONLY SOURCES FROM THE MLA BIBLIOGRAPHY. Try to select the sources that match your topic most closely. Include at least 4 sources and utilize the MLA bibliography format.
Step Five:
1. Choose one secondary source from your bibliography to read, preferably an article directly related to the film you are exploring. Read the article carefully and summarize its argument in approximately one page (250-350 words).
2. State how the direction of your research project has changed since your first draft based on the secondary source you read. If you do not see any significant changes in your direction based on the secondary source, state why.

Step 6: Submit all of the above as a Word Document in the TurnItIn Assignment by no later than NOON EST on August 9th.
MAKE SURE YOU KEEP A COPY/FILE OF DRAFT ONE, SINCE DRAFT TWO WILL INVOLVE ADDING ON TO WHAT YOU HAVE ALREADY DONE IN DRAFT ONE.

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You need to include an introduction, primary discussion, and summary. Include graphs, tables, and images, as necessary, to improve the clarity of your discussion. Your project needs to be both correct and well written. Communication remains a critical component of our modern, technological society. A few notes about format: you MUST use MS Word for your project and use Equation Editor for all mathematical symbols, e.g. 𝑧(𝑡) = sin(𝑡) + 1 ln(𝑡) . Problem 1: Consider the following Initial Value Problem (IVP) where 𝑦 is the dependent variable and 𝑡 is the independent variable: 𝑦 ′ = sin(𝑡) ∗ (1 − 𝑦) with 𝑦(0) = 𝑦0 and 𝑡 ≥ 0 Note: the analytic solution for this IVP is: 𝑦(𝑡) = 1 + (𝑦0 − 1)𝑒 cos(𝑡)−1
Part 1A:
Approximate the solution to the IVP using Euler’s method with the following conditions: Initial condition 𝑦0 = − 1 2 ; time step ℎ = 1 16 ; and time interval 𝑡 ∈ [0,20] + Derive the recursive formula for Euler’s method applied to this IVP + Plot the Euler’s method approximation + Plot the absolute error between the approximation and the exact solution using a semi-log plot
Part 1B:
Approximate the solution to the IVP using the Improved Euler’s method with the following conditions: Initial condition 𝑦0 = − 1 2 ; time step ℎ = 1 16 ; and time interval 𝑡 ∈ [0,20] + Derive the recursive formula for the Improved Euler’s method applied to this IVP + Plot the Improved Euler’s method approximation + Plot the absolute error between the approximation and the exact solution using a semilog plot
Part 1C:
Approximate the solution to the IVP using the RK4 method with the following conditions: Initial condition 𝑦0 = − 1 2 ; time step ℎ = 1 16 ; and time interval 𝑡 ∈ [0,20] + Plot the RK4 method approximation + Plot the absolute error between the approximation and the exact solution using a semilog plot
Problem 2: Consider the following Initial Value Problem (IVP) where 𝑦(𝑡) is the dependent function:
𝑦 ′ = 𝑦 − 𝑦 2 + 1.14 cos(𝑒 𝑡/2 ) with 𝑦(0) = 𝑦0 and 𝑡 ≥ 0

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Part 2A:
Approximate the solution to the IVP using the Improved Euler’s method with the following conditions: Initial condition 𝑦0 = 1; time steps ℎ = 1 8 , 1 16 , 1 32 , 1 64 ; and time interval 𝑡 ∈ [0,20]
Plot the Improved Euler’s method approximation for all 4 time steps
Discuss the results of these approximations
Part 2B:
Approximate the solution to the IVP using the RK4 method with the following conditions:
Initial condition 𝑦0 = 1;
time steps ℎ = 1 8 , 1 16 , 1 32 , 1 64 ; and time interval 𝑡 ∈ [0,20]
Plot the RK4 approximation for all 4 time steps
Discuss the results of these approximations
Question 16: Business

Marketers rely heavily on demographics when purchasing media. IMC Perspective 10-1 (p. 350-351) talks about additional factors that may be important. Discuss some of these factors and why they might impact media usage. Explain and justify your viewpoints. (10 points)

Question 17: Biology

What is disease rating?

Question 18: Engineering

How to find the proportional limit of a reloaded bar

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A 6.881-g sample containing magnesium chloride and sodium chloride was dissolved in sufficient water to give 500 mL of solution. Analysis for the chloride content of a 50.0-mL aliquot resulted in the formation of 0.5923 g of AgCl. The magnesium in a second 50.0-mL aliquot was precipitated as MgNH⁴PO⁴; on ignition, 0.1796 g of Mg²P²O⁷ was found. Calculate the % of MgCl²•6H²O and of NaCl on the sample.

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Instruction
For this Signature Assignment, develop and present a proposal for your intended research using a quantitative design. While the most important elements in any proposal are the fundamentals of the problem, purpose, and research questions, the bulk of the assignment will be the methodology. You will want to organize this by subheadings. The actual headings and information that needs to be included in part depend on the method used to collect the data. In studies involving the collection of primary data, you want to be sure to include the details of your sampling plan, measurement of variables, the actual data collection procedure, plan of analysis, and justification for your decisions. Be sure to include the following information in your proposal: •Introduction •Statement of the Problem •Purpose Statement •Research Questions •Hypotheses: Null and Alternative for each research question •Methodology ◦Research Design: Specific quantitative method to be used and rationale (Ex. experiment, survey, etc.) ◦Operationalization of Variable: Specification of the concepts to be measured, the operationalization of the variable(s) to be used to measure the concepts, the question(s)/scale(s) to be used and the resulting level of measurement. ◦Sample design: Specification of the population, method, sample size, specific procedures, and justification. ◦Data collection procedure: Explanation of how the data will be collected. ◦Intended data analysis: How will you analyze the data to test the hypotheses and provide answers to the research questions, including descriptive and inferential statistics? Provide your rationale. •Limitations: Any recognized limitations of the proposed study. •References In this assignment, you are expected to incorporate all previous instructor feedback. Your prospectus must be in APA format and be of the quality expected of doctoral-level work. All research elements must be in alignment and reflect a cohesive and comprehensive research study. Length: Your paper should be between 13 -15 pages, not including title and reference page. References: Include a minimum of ten (10) scholarly sources. Your presentation should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course and provide new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.

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Instruction
Instructions This assignment consists of three parts: (1) Recommend and justify a method of survey administration to be used to meet the quantitative research objectives listed below; (2) develop a list of questions to be used on a questionnaire to meet the objectives listed; (3) Explain the method of survey administration you would use if a survey was conducted in your intended research. a.To determine the effectiveness of advertising of a specific product during the Super Bowl on increasing consumer awareness of the product. b.To determine the level of satisfaction of patients who are admitted to a hospital during the past 6 months. c.To determine if there is a relationship between the decision to pursue a career in law enforcement and gender. d.To determine IT professional’s perceptions of the best preparation for an IT career. Length: Your paper should be between 7-9 pages, not including title and reference page. References: Include a minimum of five (5) scholarly sources. Your presentation should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course and provide new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards

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Instruction
Instructions In this assignment, you are being given a number of constructs. Conduct scholarly research that has been published within the past five years that measures each on these. Based on this, provide a conceptual and at least one operational definition of each construct listed below. Based on the operational definitions, provide a measurement for the variable and explain the level of measurement (nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio) that is generated. Once this is completed, provide a conceptual and operational definition of two constructs you will be measuring in your intended dissertation research. Rather than present a traditional paper, organize the document by the following construct. a.Attitude toward new technology b.Customer satisfaction c.Self-concept d.Leadership style e.Organizational commitment f.Constructs you intend to measure Length: Your paper should be between 6-7 pages, not including title and reference page. References: Include a minimum of eight (8) scholarly sources. Your presentation should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course and provide new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards

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COMM 480: Seminar: International Advertising (Summer 2019)
Research Proposal
You will work throughout the semester to create a research proposal, in which you propose what you are going to do to test your hypotheses. The purpose of this assignment is to give you the opportunity to demonstrate your understanding of social-scientific research. You are NOT going to collect data or analyze data, nor are you going to present results from your study. This paper can build from the research question and articles cited in the annotated bibliography OR you can generate a new research question and annotate relevant articles. The project consists of two parts: a research proposal paper and a research presentation.
Research paper (100 pts.):
Although I do not like to provide a definitive answer about how many pages you will have to write to complete this assignment (because quantity and quality are not inherently related and because the goal of any good paper is to make a compelling, well written argument [regardless of length]), I understand that providing a general estimation of the length of a typical research paper is helpful. Therefore, you can expect to turn in a final product that is somewhere between 12 and 15 pages long (including a title page, abstract, introduction, literature review, methods and discussion, and references) (double-spaced pages, in Times Roman 12 font size, 1 inch margins on all sides). Papers not meeting these formatting requirements will be sent back for revisions. The late submission will result in a 10% deduction per day.
Title page: This is a separate page that includes the title of your proposal (e.g., Identifying global and culture-specific dimensions of humor in advertising: A cross-cultural analysis) and your own name, the course number, and school affiliation.

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Abstract: This section should be in a separate page that summarizes the purpose of your study, theories and hypotheses, proposed method, and discussion.
Introduction: In this section, you should introduce your study, and state the significance and the purpose of your study.
Literature review: In this section, you are going to review the existing research on your topic, explain theories adopted for your study, define the variables in your study, provide the rationale behind the hypothesized relationships between variables, and suggest the hypotheses and/or research questions to be addressed.
Method: This section continues from Literature Review. In this section, you are going to state the proposed method (e.g., experiment, survey, content analysis) to test your hypotheses and/or research questions. You need to be specific about research sample (i.e., who will be in the study or what will be analyzed in the study), measures (i.e., what variables will be measured), and procedures of your study (i.e., what will be prepared prior to the study and what will happen in the study).

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COMM 480: Seminar: International Advertising (Summer 2019)
Discussion: This section should address what your expected results of research mean in relation to the theoretical body of knowledge on the topic and your profession, and for communication professionals in the field being examined. In other words, what are the study’s theoretical and practical implications? It may be one of the most important sections because it answers the “So what?” question. Also, in this section, you should suggest directions for future research investigations.
References: References should be placed in separate pages following the “Discussion” section. Includes a minimum of seven references of scholarly journals or books. All intext citations must appear in the reference list; likewise, each entry in the reference
list must be cited in your text.
Please consult the sample APA papers I posted on Blackboard and the Purdue site (https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/section/2/10/) for formatting questions. In
addition, to help you better understand what a research proposal is, I have post a
sample research proposal, as well as completed research papers, on Blackboard, which may provide you with some ideas as to what a research proposal is.
Research presentation (50 pts.): You will make a presentation of your paper at the end of the semester. Prepare for presentation slides that can be taken up to 15 minutes. Following your presentation, you will provide discussion questions. NO LATE PRESENTATION IS ACCEPTED WITHOUT A PROOF OF OFFICIAL EXCUSE.

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Instruction
Produce a report that details Research and recommend strategies the company can take to reduce power consumption An energy audit on two options of a PC, laser printer and server package estimating the CO 2 emissions for these devices in a year and provide a comparison report summarising potential energy savings and financial costs A policy for procurement of equipment from ‘Green Suppliers’, including a disposal plan Project implementation plan highlighting at what stages you will introduce short and long term solutions that will save power immediately and long term List these additions in priority order and approximate the cost of each change

Sustainability Integration: ICT Planning and Design
This assessment is designed to be completed after you have completed your design project and proposal. Ensure you have completed your design project and have had it assessed by your teacher and returned.
Ensure you have completed the Sustainability training before you attempt this assignment
Assignment
You have just designed a solution for an organisation. A late change request has come through from the CEO and she would like some additions to the proposal. She has been reading a lot about how ICT systems are having a large impact on the carbon footprint of business.
Revisit your design, using your new Green IT skills and integrate sustainability elements to it. These elements must include, but are not limited to the following:
Research and recommend strategies the company can take to reduce power consumption
An energy audit on two options of a PC, laser printer and server package estimating the CO 2 emissions for these devices in a year and provide a comparison report summarising potential
energy savings and financial costs
A policy for procurement of equipment from ‘Green Suppliers’, including a disposal plan
Project implementation plan highlighting at what stages you will introduce short and long term
solutions that will save power immediately and long term
List these additions in a priority order and approximate the cost of each change
To complete this assignment you will need access to the internet. Here are some useful links:
http://www.eu-energystar.org/en/en_008.shtml http://www.greenit.org.au/ http://2virtualize.com/index_files/greendatacenter.htm http://42u.com/
http://sustainabledirections.com.au/
Feel free to contact your teacher if you require any assistance.
Submission
Upload your completed documents on the Upskilled Student Portal.

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Create a chart with rows and columns to establish the following requirements of discrimination under the law in the following areas at the top:

Title VII Gender Discrimination in Employment Practices
Sexual Harassment Based on Hostile Work Environment
Quid-Pro-Quo Sexual Harassment
Sexual Orientation in the Workplace

Along the left side of the chart, create the following rows:

Requirements to Prove Under the Law
Ways Employers can Minimize Liability
Recent Case Example

Complete the chart for each section.

Explain in 350 to 525 words the requirements of each type of potential gender discrimination.

Explain in 350 to 525 words the specific ways employers can minimize liability for each type of gender discrimination.

Research and include a relevant case to illustrate each type of gender discrimination.

Format your citations and references consistent with APA guidelines.

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week 3 discussion
Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
How does one recognize sexual harassment?
Discuss the different types of sexual harassment?
what is required to support a case of sexual harassment in that situation?

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Ethical Issue Analysis

 

Instruction

 

Instructions are attached

 

Purpose:  In this project, you will assess how two start up companies have come under scrutiny for their actions in operating in today’s business environment.  How these companies are operating are pushing the limits or have exceeded the limits of what is considered ethical and legal.  In completing this project you will have the opportunity to research the two companies, identify stakeholders influenced by the organization’s decisions and develop and evaluate alternatives, recommend solutions to ensure appropriate business practices and accountability occur

Outcomes met by completing this project:

  1. identify ethical issues that arise in domestic and global business environments using an understanding of ethical concepts and of legal and business principles
  2. develop and evaluate alternatives to, and recommend solutions for, ethical dilemmas, taking into account ethical and legal requirements and the essential mission of the business enterprise
  3. effectively communicate to internal and external business stakeholders the complexities of ethical issues, suggesting and analyzing various solutions in order to ensure appropriate business practices and accountability

Instructions

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Use the following steps to complete the project.  You will demonstrate an understanding of ethical concepts and of legal business principles and are required to use the course material to support the ideas and conclusions presented.

Step 1:  Course Material and Research

You are required to research the two companies to provide a company overview, to identify identify the issues and to identify stakeholders.  You will be using the course to address the questions and support the ideas, reasoning and conclusions made.  Course material use goes beyond defining terms but is used to explain the ‘why and how’ of a situation.  Using one or two in-text citations from the course material and then relying on Internet source material will not earn many points on the project.  A variety of source material is expected and what is presented must be relevant and applicable to the topic being discussed.   Avoid merely making statements but close the loop of the discussion by explaining how something happens or why something happens, which focuses on importance and impact.  In closing the loop, you will demonstrate the ability to think clearly and rationally showing an understanding of the logical connections between the ideas presented in a case scenario, the course material and the question(s) being asked.

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1.      PayPal opted to deviate from industry standards and build their own custom technology that would better suit their needs. When is it a good idea for companies to take this alternative? What issues factor into that decision? Provide a discussion and some examples.
2.      Although the new system has been quite successful, Pay-Pal has chosen not to license this technology to others, forgoing a potentially important revenue stream given the lack of good solutions to this problem. Why do you think PayPal chose not to sell this technology? Do you really think this can be made into a strategic advantage over their competitors? How easy would it be for their competitors to imitate this accomplishment?
3.      One of the challenges that PayPal faces now that they have managed to overcome the polylingual obstacle is finding the best way to put this functionality in the hands of the business, so that they do not have to go through IT each time. How do you balance this need for responsiveness and flexibility versus IT’s need to keep some degree of control to make sure everything keeps working with everything else? Provide some recommendations to managers who find themselves in this situation.

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Most people perceive international public administration to be a set of state structures, institutions, and processes. Opponents of globalization argue that it weakens states, making it difficult for them to sustain social welfare and environmental policies, and create fiscal redistributive initiatives.
According to James Bovard, a libertarian author who focuses on writing about government, proponents and businesses seeking to expand abroad claim there is little or no evidence of national governments’ decline. Congress, along with many policy strategists, seems to think that whatever the effects of globalization on governments, they are likely to be beneficial for long-term economic growth (Bovard, 1987).
Analyze the claims laid out in this controversy, and try to argue the strongest case you can in favor of the view(s) you find most convincing. In doing so, be sure to seriously consider the case that your opponents might make against your position, and why you would reject it. Use the Internet and/or Strayer databases to research evidence that supports your opinion. Determine your point of view on the issue, and support your position with information from at least three reliable, relevant, peer-reviewed references.
Create a PowerPoint presentation that covers the following:
Provide a brief description of the issue. Present evidence that supports both sides of the argument. In the Notes section of each information slide, you must write a narrative of what you would say if presenting in person. Provide at least three reliable, relevant, peer-reviewed references.
Note: Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Your presentation should include a minimum total of 12 slides, with 10 information slides.
Format your assignment according to the following formatting requirements:
Typed, double-spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with 1-inch margins on all sides. Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page is not included in the required page length.
Include a reference page. Citations and references must follow the APA format. The reference page is not included in the required page length.

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South University NSG6435 Week 4 Quiz / South University NSG 6435 Week 4 Quiz

NSG6435:  Week 4 Quiz

Question 1                          1 / 1 point
A school-age client presents to the clinic to establish care. The child has autism, facial dysmorphia, and growth retardation. The provider suspects the child has what condition?
A.            Down Syndrome
B.            Fetal alcohol syndrome
C.            Prader- Willi syndrome
D.            Turner syndrome
Autism, facial dysmorphia, and growth retardation are differential diagnoses of fetal alcohol syndrome.

Question 2                          1 / 1 point
A 8-year-old client was recently discharged from the hospital following an episode of meningitis. The client presented to the clinic for a follow-up appointment post discharge. The provider understands that the client’s is at increased risk for which complication(s)? (check all that apply)
A.            Hearing Impairment
B.            Paralysis
C.            Loss of Speech
D.            Infertility

Question 3                          1 / 1 point
A client with history of bilateral tympanostomy tube insertion presents to the clinic c/o otorrhea. The provider confirms the complaint. What is the best treatment for this condition?
A.            Combination antibiotic and corticosteroid otic drops
B.            Anaglesics and watchful waiting
C.            Oral antibiotics and antifungal cream
D.            Corticosteroid otic drops

Question 4                          1 / 1 point
The gold standard in diagnosing acute otitis media is:
A.            Immobile ™
B.            Pearly gray TM
C.            Flat TM
D.            Perforated TM
The diagnosis of acute otitis media is based on presence of one or several of the following: bulging TM, decreased translucency of TM, absent or decreased mobility of the TM, air-fluid level behind the TM and otorrhea

Question 5                          1 / 1 point
A provider is caring for a new client whose had recurrent episodes of and failed treatment for acute otitis media. What is the next best intervention?
A.            Refer to audiologist
B.            Refer to an otolaryngology
C.            Prescribe a broad spectrum antibiotic for 30 days
D.            Prescribe an anti- inflammatory

Question 6                          1 / 1 point
A 16 year-old-client presents to your clinic c/o sore throat and 101°F temperature. The provider learns that the client had a sore throat approximately 1 week ago. On exam, client is positive for cervical lymphadenopathy, enlarged left tonsil, edematous pharynx and uvula displacement. What condition does this client most likely have?
A.            Acute uvulitis
B.            Infectious mononucleosis
C.            Mumps
D.            Peritonsillar abscess

Question 7                          1 / 1 point
A 5-year-old client presents to the clinic for an annual physical. While performing the physical exam, the provider attempts to examine the client’s ears. What does the provider do?
A.            Gently pull outer ear down and back **
B.            Gently pull outer ear up and back
C.            Gently pull outer ear down
D.            Gently pull outer ear back
To correctly examine the ear of a child older than 12 months gently pull outer ear down and back

Question 8                          1 / 1 point
What are the most common causes of bacterial pneumonia in neonates (select all that apply)?
A.            Staphylococcus Aureus
B.            Group B Streptococcus **
C.            Listeria Monocytogenes
D.            E. Coli **
The most common organisms responsible for bacterial pneumonia in neonates are still group B streptococcus and Escherichia coli. The next most common causes are coagulase negative Staph and Listeria in the early neonatal period. After four days of age, the differential needs to be expanded to include S. aureus, Enterobacter, Pseudomonas, Serratia, Candida, Acinetobacter, and anaerobes.
Question 9                          1 / 1 point
An ill appearing 3-month-old-infant is presented to your clinic. The parent reports that their child has a fever, persistent cough, rhinorrhea, wheezing, hypoxemia, and anorexia for 4 days. After the provider’s exam and work-up, the child is diagnosed with Bronchiolitis. What is the most likely treatment option for this infant?
A.            Refer patient for hospitalization
B.            Refer patient for Pulmonologist
C.            Refer patient for Bronchoscopy
D.            Refer patient for Chest X- ray

Bronchiolitis is the term used for an infant seen with wheezing for the very first time and is the leading cause of hospitalizations for infants. It presents with cough, fever, coryza, tachypnea, expiratory wheezing, air trapping, and inspiratory crackles. In mild cases, symptoms can last for 1 to 3 days. In severe cases, cyanosis, air hunger, retractions, and nasal flaring with symptoms of severe respiratory distress within a few hours may be seen. Apnea can occur and may require mechanical ventilation.

Question 10                        1 / 1 point
An ill-appearing child is presented to your clinic with a fever, sore throat, restless behavior, dysphagia, drooling, and inspiratory distress without stridor. The child tests positive for Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib). What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.            Tonsillitis
B.            Epiglottitis **
C.            Laryngotracheobronchitis
D.            Retropharyngeal abscess

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Write a four to six (4) page paper in which you:Give your opinion on the Mc Donalds greatest strengths and most significant weaknesses. Choose either a strategy OR tactic the corporation should select to take maximum advantage of its strengths, and the strategy OR tactic the corporation should select to fix its most significant weakness. Justify your choices.Determine the company’s tangible and intangible resources, core capabilities, and core competencies.Choose the two (2) segments of the general environment that would rank highest in their influence on the corporation you chose. Assess how these segments affect the corporation you chose and the industry in which it operates.Choose two (2) forces of competition that you estimate are the most significant for the corporation you chose. Evaluate how well the company has addressed these) forces in the recent past, going back no further than five (5) fiscal years.With the same two (2) forces in mind, predict what the company might do to improve its ability to address these forces in the near future.Identify what you consider to be the greatest external threat to this corporation. Discuss how the corporation should address this threat. Justify your explanation.Identify what you consider to be the greatest opportunity presented to the corporation, and discuss how the corporation should take advantage of this opportunity. Justify your explanationUse at least three (3) quality references.

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Week 6 Assignment 2
Student Full Name
BUS499 Business Administration Capstone
Due Week 6 and worth 125 points
Using the corporation you chose from Assignment 1, examine its industry. Research the company on its own website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other credible sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions.
Read chapters 1 -3 in the course textbook and complete the LEARN E-Activities for Weeks 1-3 as they set the foundation to this assignment. Be sure to cite your sources!
Begin your paper on Page 2 below and write a minimum of four (4) pages. The minimum page count does not include the Title or Source pages.
Week 6 Assignment 2
Write your introduction here. Include one (1) paragraph (not more than 6 lines of text) that explains what your paper will discuss. Much of your introduction may be taken from the assignment instructions (in your own words). Read all assignment resources to understand what should be included in your paper. Be sure to review the assignment instructions in Blackboard, the grading rubric, and the recorded writing workshop to understand the requirements. Do not exceed 6 lines of text in this introduction. There should be no direct quotes in this section.
General Environment
Choose the two (2) segments of the general environment that would rank highest in their influence on the corporation you chose. Assess how these segments affect the corporation you chose and the industry in which it operates. Hint: see table 2.1. Remember that to assess a concept, you will weigh all aspects to judge the importance or relevance of that concept. Do not simply define the segments.
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Your assessment should demonstrate that you have read, understand, and can apply the selected segments of the general environment concepts covered in the textbook and course resources. Your writing here should thoroughly assess how the selected segments influence your corporation. Do not write about the general environment in general terms. Your assessment should be directly related to your selected corporation. Do not assess all the segments—only assess the two (2) segments that rank highest in influencing your corporation. A thorough assessment is defined as providing a complete response that is not superficial or partial regarding every detail of the concepts as described in the course. You will need to apply and incorporate key concepts from the course material to your assessment. Do not Google “segments of the general environment” or provide high-level summaries. You must display, in specific detail, an understanding based on what is studied in this course and an ability to apply the concepts in a real-world assessment of a corporation. Read Chapter 2 in the course textbook. Review the Week 2 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content. Cite all sources and limit the use of direct quotes.

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Five Forces of Competition
In this section you will consider the five (5) forces of competition and choose the two (2) that you estimate are the most significant for the corporation you chose. Hint: see figure 2.2 in the textbook. You will then, evaluate how well the company has addressed these two (2) forces in the recent past.
Item 1
Choose one (1) of the five (5) forces of competition that you estimate is the most significant for the corporation you chose. Provide a thorough assessment of why you think selected force is significant to your corporation. A thorough assessment is defined as providing a complete response that is not superficial or partial regarding every detail of the concept as described in the course. Do not Google “five forces of competition” or simply provide a definition. You will need to apply and incorporate key concepts from the course material in your evaluation. Specifically address the applicable key concepts from the textbook and course material for the selected force. You will need to read the chapters and listen to the lectures to understand the key concepts for each force. Read Chapter 2 in the course textbook and review the Week 2 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Hint: the five (5) forces of competition is the same as “Porters 5 Forces of Competition”. Cite all sources and limit the use of direct quotes.
Item 2
Choose another one (1) of the five (5) forces of competition that you estimate is the most significant for the corporation you chose. This should not be the same force assessed in Item 1 above. Provide a thorough assessment of why you think the selected force is significant to your corporation. A thorough assessment is defined as providing a complete response that is not superficial or partial regarding every detail of the concept as described in the course. Do not Google “five forces of competition” or simply provide a definition. You will need to apply and incorporate key concepts from the course material in your assessment. Specifically address the applicable key concepts from the textbook and course material for the selected force. You will need to read the chapters and listen to the lectures to understand the key concepts for each force. Read Chapter 2 in the course textbook and review the Week 2 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Hint: the five (5) forces of competition is the same as “Porters 5 Forces of Competition”. Cite all sources and limit the use of direct quotes.
Evaluation
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Evaluate how well the company has addressed these two (2) forces in the recent past. This will require some research. Remember that to evaluate a concept, you will break down all components to determine or analyze facts, value, or views. Your evaluation should demonstrate that you have read, understand, and can apply the concepts covered in the textbook and course resources. Do not write about the selected forces in general terms. Your evaluation should be directly related to your selected corporation and include a thorough evaluation of how the company has addressed the forces recently. You must display an understanding based on what is studied in this course and an ability to apply the concepts in a real-world evaluation of a corporation. Your writing here should provide a thorough evaluation of your chosen corporation. Cite all sources and limit the use of direct quotes.
Future Improvements
With the same two (2) forces assessed and evaluated in the sections above, predict what the company might do to improve its ability to address these forces in the near future. Your writing here should provide a thorough prediction of what the company should do to address impacts from the selected forces. Your prediction should be your own, not predictions from your sources or actions your corporation has taken or plans to take. Remember that a thorough response is defined as providing a complete response that is not superficial or partial regarding every detail of the concepts as described in the course. Read Chapter 2 in the course textbook as each chapter provides a solid background and clues that apply to this section. Review the Week 2 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite all sources and there should be no direct quotes in this section.
External Threats and Opportunities
Assess the external threats affecting this corporation and the opportunities available to the corporation. You will need to provide a thorough assessment of both the external threats and the opportunities available to your corporation. Do not choose one or the other. Both the external threats and the opportunities must be assessed. Keep in mind that most companies will have more than just one (1) external threat and more than just one (1) opportunity. Your thorough assessment should identify several of the threats and opportunities. Remember that threats and opportunities are external to the organization (i.e. the external environment). Read Chapter 2 in the course textbook as it provides a solid background and clues for this section. Review the Week 2 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content. Cite all sources and limit the use of direct quotes.
Threats and Opportunities Strategies
Give your opinions on how the corporation should deal with the most serious threat and the greatest opportunity. Justify your answer. You will need to provide opinions on both the most serious threat and greatest opportunity. Do not choose one or the other. Both the threat and opportunity must be addressed. Your opinion on what the company should do to address the threat and opportunity should be justified by a sound and thoroughly explained rationale. Your writing here should be your own opinions, not the opinions of your sources. Read Chapter 2 in the course textbook as it provides a solid background and clues for this section. Review the Week 2 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content. Cite all sources and limit the use of direct quotes.
Strengths and Weaknesses
Give your opinion on the corporation’s greatest strengths and most significant weaknesses. Keep in mind that strengths and weaknesses are internal to the organization (i.e. the internal environment) You will need to address both the greatest strengths and most significant weaknesses. Do not choose one or the other. Both the greatest strengths and most significant weaknesses must be addressed. Keep in mind that most companies will have more than just one (1) great strength and more than just one (1) significant weakness. Your thorough assessment should identify several of the great strengths and weaknesses. Read Chapter 2 and 3 in the course textbook as it provides a solid background and clues for this section. Review the Week 2 and Week 3 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content. Cite all sources and limit the use of direct quotes.
Strategy
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Choose the strategy or tactic the corporation should select to take maximum advantage of its strengths, and the strategy or tactic the corporation should select to fix its most significant weakness. Justify your choices. You will need to select a strategy/tactic for both the strengths and for the weakness. Do not choose one or the other. Both the strengths and weakness must be addressed. Your justifications should be sound and thoroughly explained. For example, do not simply state that the corporation should choose a selected strategy, but rather explain why the strategy is a good choice for your corporations’ specific strengths or weakness. Read Chapter 2 and 3 in the course textbook as it provides a solid background and clues for this section. Review the Week 2 and Week 3 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content. Cite all sources and limit the use of direct quotes.
Resources, Capabilities, and Core Competencies
Determine the company’s resources, capabilities, and core competencies. Your determination should include an explanation of the relevance of each resource, capability, and core competency. Do not simply list the resources, capabilities, and core competencies. Remember that a thorough determination will provide a complete response that is not superficial or partial regarding every detail of the concept as described in the course. Use your course materials to demonstrate your understanding of the key course concepts regarding resources, capabilities, and core competencies. Do not write in general terms. Your determination should display that you can apply the course concepts to your selected corporation. Read Chapter 3 in the course textbook as it provides a solid background and clues that apply to this section. Review the Week 3 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content. Cite all sources and limit the use of direct quotes.

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Sources
Hitt, M. A., Ireland, R. D., & Hoskisson, R. E. (2013). Strategic management: Concepts and cases: Competiveness and globalization (10th ed.). Mason, OH: South-Western Cengage Learning.

List your sources on this page and remember to delete the instructions, which are in blue font.
Use at least three (3) quality sources, one of which must be the course textbook to support your ideas/work. Note: Wikipedia and college essay sites do not qualify as academic resources.
Cite your sources throughout your work when you borrow someone else’s words or ideas.
The source page must include all sources used. All sources listed here must be cited in your paper.
Look for a permalink tool for a webpage when possible (especially when an electronic
source requires logging in).
When using SWS remember to organize sources in a numbered list and in order of use throughout the paper; use the original number when citing a source multiple times; and follow this format for all sources:
Author. Publication Date. Title. Page # (written as p. #). How to Find (e.g. web address)
The APA format may also be used for a Reference page.
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Questions to ask yourself before submitting your paper.
Did I read the required course material and complete the required activities?
Have I deleted the blue font instructions in this template?
Did I leave the provided section headings in place, as provided in this template?
After deleting the blue fonts in this template, have I changed all font to black?
Additional things to keep in mind.
You will be graded on the content of your submission, the quality of your answers, the logic/organization of the report, your language skills, and your writing skills using the grading rubric.
Strayer uses SafeAssign – an automated plagiarism checker. It is advised that you do your own writing and use external resources to support what you have written in your own words.
Question 5: Business

Create a chart with rows and columns to establish the following requirements of discrimination under the law in the following areas at the top:

Title VII Gender Discrimination in Employment Practices
Sexual Harassment Based on Hostile Work Environment
Quid-Pro-Quo Sexual Harassment
Sexual Orientation in the Workplace

Along the left side of the chart, create the following rows:

Requirements to Prove Under the Law
Ways Employers can Minimize Liability
Recent Case Example

Complete the chart for each section.

Explain in 350 to 525 words the requirements of each type of potential gender discrimination.

Explain in 350 to 525 words the specific ways employers can minimize liability for each type of gender discrimination.

Research and include a relevant case to illustrate each type of gender discrimination.

Format your citations and references consistent with APA guidelines.

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Question 6: Business

Week 3 Discussion

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
How does one recognize sexual harassment?
Discuss the different types of sexual harassment?
what is required to support a case of sexual harassment in that situation?

Question 7: Business

Total Rewards Plan Worksheet

Instructions: There are 10 positions that have become vacant due to the retirement of the University President.  Your task is to recommend a salary range to post, list the benefits that will be provided for these positions, and include a list of perks that may be associated with these positions.

Complete the following table in a total of 525 to 700 words:
Explain in a total of 350 words how you determined the appropriate salary, benefits, and perks for each of these new roles.
Question 8: Business

Walden University NURS 6531 final exam (2019) | Updated
Walden University NURS 6531 final exam (2019) | Updated
Walden University NURS6531 final exam (2019) | Updated

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Question 9: Business

NURS 6531 midterm exam revised, NURS 6531 Practice Care of Adults

•             Question 1
0 out of 0 points

When completing this quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity?

•             Question 2
1 out of 1 points

The most common cancer found on the auricle is:

•             Question 3
0 out of 1 points

Which of the following medication classes should be avoided in patients with acute or chronic bronchitis because it will contribute to ventilation-perfusion mismatch in the patient?
•             Question 4
0 out of 1 points

A 47 year old male patient presents to the clinic with a single episode of a moderate amount of bright red rectal bleeding. On examination, external hemorrhoids are noted. How should the nurse practitioner proceed?

•             Question 5
0 out of 1 points

Which of the following patient characteristics are associated with chronic bronchitis?
Underweight, pink skin, and increased respiratory rate

•             Question 6
1 out of 1 points

A 65-year-old female with a past medical history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and polymyalgia rheumatica presents to urgent care with new onset left lower quadrant pain. Her current medications include omeprazole 20 milligrams po daily, lisinopril 20 milligrams po daily, simvastatin 20 milligrams po daily, and prednisone 12 milligrams po daily. The nurse practitioner suspects acute diverticulitis and possibly an abscess. The most appropriate diagnostic test for this patient at this time is:

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•             Question 7
1 out of 1 points

A patient reports “something flew in my eye” about an hour ago while he was splitting logs. If there were a foreign body in his eye, the nurse practitioner would expect to find all except:
Selected Answer:
Purulent drainage

•             Question 8
1 out of 1 points

A 21 year old college student presents to the student health center with copious, markedly purulent discharge from her left eye. The nurse practitioner student should suspect:

•             Question 9
0 out of 1 points

A 35 year old man presents with radicular pain followed by the appearance of grouped vesicles consisting of about 15 lesions across 3 different thoracic dermatomes. He complains of pain, burning, and itching. The nurse practitioner should suspect:
•             Question 10
0 out of 1 points

Which type of lung cancer has the poorest prognosis?
•             Question 11
1 out of 1 points

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An 83-year-old female presents to the office complaining of diarrhea for several days. She explains she has even had fecal incontinence one time. She describes loose stools 3–4 times a day for several weeks and denies fever, chills, pain, recent antibiotic use. The history suggests that the patient has:

•             Question 12
1 out of 1 points

Margaret, age 32, comes into the office with painful joints and a distinctive rash in a butterfly distribution on her face. The rash has red papules and plaques with a fine scale. What do you suspect?

•             Question 13
1 out of 1 points

Antibiotic administration has been demonstrated to be of little benefit to the treatment of which of the following disease processes?

•             Question 14
0 out of 1 points

Lisa, age 49, has daily symptoms of asthma. She uses her inhaled short-acting beta-2 agonist daily. Her exacerbations affect her activities and they occur at least twice weekly and may last for days. She is affected more than once weekly during the night with an exacerbation. Which category of asthma severity is Lisa in?
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•             Question 15
0 out of 1 points

Which of the following is the most appropriate therapeutic regimen for an adult patient with no known allergies diagnosed with group A B-hemolytic strep?

•             Question 16
0 out of 1 points

A cashier complains of dull ache and pressure sensation in her lower legs. It is relieved by leg elevation. She occasionally has edema in her lower legs at the end of the day. What is the most likely cause of these problems?
•             Question 17
1 out of 1 points

Which statement below is correct about pertussis?
•             Question 18
0 out of 1 points

Which of the following is the most important diagnosis to rule out in the adult patient with acute bronchitis?
•             Question 19
1 out of 1 points

A 70 year old patient presents with left lower quadrant (LLQ) abdominal pain, a markedly tender palpable abdominal wall, fever, and leukocytosis. Of the following terms, which correctly describes the suspected condition?

•             Question 20
1 out of 1 points

Sylvia, age 83, presents with a 3 day history of pain and burning in the left forehead. This morning she noticed a rash with erythematous papules in that site. What do you suspect?

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•             Question 21
0 out of 1 points

A 33-year-old female is admitted with acute pancreatitis. The nurse practitioner knows that the most common cause of pancreatitis is:
Selected Answer:

•             Question 22
1 out of 1 points

When a patient presents with symptoms of acute gallbladder disease, what is the appropriate nurse practitioner action?

•             Question 23
0 out of 1 points

A false-positive result with the fecal occult blood test can result from:

•             Question 24
0 out of 1 points

A 76-year-old male complains of weight loss, nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramping and pain. Physical findings include an abdominal mass and stool positive for occult blood. The nurse practitioner pain suspects a tumor in the small intestine. The best diagnostic test for this patient is:
Selected Answer:
•             Question 25
1 out of 1 points

A patient presents to urgent care complaining of dyspnea, fatigue, and lower extremity edema. The echocardiogram reveals and ejection fraction of 38%. The nurse practitioner knows that these findings are consistent with:

•             Question 26
1 out of 1 points

Maxine, Age 76, has just been given a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which of the following is an indication that she should be hospitalized?

•             Question 27
0 out of 1 points

A 55 year old man is diagnosed with basal cell carcinoma. The nurse practitioner correctly tells him:

•             Question 28
1 out of 1 points

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Expected spirometry readings when the patient has chronic emphysema include:
•             Question 29
1 out of 1 points

An 80-year-old male admits to difficulty swallowing during the review of systems. The nurse practitioner recognizes the differential diagnosis for this patient’s dysphagia is:

•             Question 30
0 out of 1 points

A 40 year old female with history of frequent sun exposure presents with a multicolored lesion on her back. It has irregular borders and is about 11mm in diameter. What should the nurse practitioner suspect?

•             Question 31
1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a goal of treatment for the patient with cystic fibrosis?
•             Question 32
1 out of 1 points

The nurse practitioner is performing a physical exam on a middle-aged African-American man. Which of the following areas is a common site for melanomas in African-Americans and other dark-skinned individuals?

•             Question 33
1 out of 1 points

An adult presents with tinea corporis. Which item below is a risk factor for its development?
•             Question 34
0 out of 1 points

A patient has experienced nausea and vomiting, headache, malaise, low grade fever, abdominal cramps, and watery diarrhea for 72 hours. His white count is elevated with a shift to the left. He is requesting medication for diarrhea. What is the most appropriate response?
•             Question 35
1 out of 1 points

Janine, age 29, has numerous transient lesions that come and go, and she is diagnosed with urticaria. What do you order?

•             Question 36
0 out of 1 points
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Of the following signs and symptoms of congestive heart failure (CHF), the earliest clinical manifestation is:
•             Question 37
1 out of 1 points

A 16 year old male presents with mild sore throat, fever, fatigue, posterior cervical adenopathy, and palatine petechiae. Without a definitive diagnosis for this patient, what drug would be least appropriate to prescribe?
•             Question 38
1 out of 1 points

A 70 year old man who walks 2 miles every day complains of pain in his left calf when he is walking. The problem has gotten gradually worse and now he is unable to complete his 2 mile walk. What question asked during the history, if answered affirmatively, would suggest a diagnosis of arteriosclerosis obliterans?

•             Question 39
0 out of 1 points

Which of the following statements about malignant melanomas is true?
•             Question 40
1 out of 1 points

Sheila, age 78, presents with a chief complaint of waking up during the night coughing. You examine her and find an S3 heart sound, pulmonary crackles that do not clear with coughing, and peripheral edema. What do you suspect?

•             Question 41
0 out of 1 points

Which antibiotic would be the most effective in treating community acquired pneumonia (CAP) in a young adult without any comorbid conditions?
•             Question 42
1 out of 1 points

Which of the following dermatologic vehicles are the most effective in absorbing moisture and decreasing friction?
•             Question 43
1 out of 1 points

A 70 year old patient presents with a slightly raised, scaly, erythematous patch on her forehead. She admits to having been a “sun worshiper.” The nurse practitioner suspects actinic keratosis. This lesion is a precursor to:
•             Question 44
1 out of 1 points
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An elderly patient is being seen in the clinic for complaint of “weak spells” relieved by sitting or lying down. How should the nurse practitioner proceed with the physical examination?

•             Question 45
1 out of 1 points

What oral medication might be used to treat chronic cholethiasis in a patient who is a poor candidate for surgery?

•             Question 46
0 out of 1 points

A 46-year-old female with a past medical history of diabetes presents with a swollen, erythematous right auricle and is diagnosed with malignant otitis externa. The nurse practitioner knows that the most likely causative organism for this patient’s problem is:

•             Question 47
0 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a symptom of irritable bowel syndrome?
•             Question 48
1 out of 1 points

A patient comes in complaining of 1 week of pain in the posterior neck with difficulty turning the head to the right. What additional history is needed?

•             Question 49
0 out of 1 points

Marvin, age 56, is a smoker with diabetes. He has just been diagnosed as hypertensive. Which of the following drugs has the potential to cause the development of bronchial asthma and inhibit gluconeogenesis?

•             Question 50
1 out of 1 points

The differential diagnosis for a patient complaining of a sore throat includes which of the following?
•             Question 51
0 out of 1 points

A patient presents to the primary care provider complaining of a rash on his right forehead that started yesterday and is burning and painful. The physical exam reveals an erythematous, maculopapular rash that extends over the patient’s right eye to his upper right forehead. Based on the history and examination, the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms is:
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•             Question 52
0 out of 1 points

Before initiating an HMG CoA-reductase inhibitor for hyperlipidemia, the nurse practitioner orders liver function studies. The patient’s aminotransferase (ALT) is elevated. What laboratory test(s) should be ordered?
•             Question 53
1 out of 1 points

A patient with elevated lipids has been started on lovastatin. After 3 weeks of therapy, he calls to report generalized muscle aches. The nurse practitioner should suspect:
•             Question 54
1 out of 1 points

Treatment of acute vertigo includes:

•             Question 55
1 out of 1 points

Treatment of H.pylori includes which of the following?
Question 56
1 out of 1 points

Carl, age 78, is brought to the office by his son, who states that his father has been unable to see clearly since last night. Carl reports that his vision is “like looking through a veil.” He also sees floaters and flashing lights but is not having any pain. What do you suspect?

•             Question 57
1 out of 1 points

In order to decrease deaths from lung cancer:
•    &nbs
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Question 10: Business

South University – NSG 6020 NSG 6420 MIDTERM
South University – NSG 6020NSG 6420 MIDTERM
South University – NSG 6020NSG 6420 MIDTERM
Question 11: Business

South University, Savannah  NSG 6020Week 6 PV Integ Study Guide
You are assessing a 59-year-old gas station owner for atherosclerosis in the lower extremities. In which of the following locations would the patient’s pain make you concerned for this disease process?

A 57-year-old maintenance worker comes to your office for evaluation of pain in his legs. He has smoked two packs per day since the age of 16, but he is otherwise healthy. You are concerned that he may have peripheral vascular disease. Which of the following is part of common or concerning symptoms for the peripheral vascular system?

A patient has bilateral pitting edema of the feet. While assessing the peripheral vascular system, the nurse’s primary focus should be:

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A patient has a positive Homans’ sign. The nurse knows that a positive Homans’ sign may indicate:

The major artery that supplies blood to arm

To assess the dorsalis pedis artery, the nurse would palpate
lateral to the extensor tendon of the great toe. The dorsalis pedis artery is located on the dorsum of the foot. Palpate just lateral to and parallel with the extensor tendon of the big toe.

The nurse is reviewing an assessment of a patient’s peripheral pulses and notices that the documentation states that the radial pulses are “2+.” The nurse recognizes that this reading indicates what type ofpulse?
A.Bounding
B.Normal
C.Weak
D.Absent

Which of the following assessment findings is most consistent with clubbing of the fingernails?
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During an assessment, the nurse notes that a patient’s left arm is swollen from the shoulder down to the fingers, with nonpitting edema. The right arm is normal. The patient had a mastectomy 1 year ago. The nurse suspects which problem?
Which of the following statements is true regarding the arterial system?

When assessing a patient the nurse practitioner documents the left femoral pulse as 0/0-4+. Which of the following findings would the nurse practitioner expect at the dorsalis pedis pulse?

Which of the following veins are responsible for most of the venous return in the arm?
1.Deep veins
2.Ulnar veins
3.Subclavian veins
4.Superficial veins

The nurse is performing a well-child assessment on a 3-year-old child. The child’s vital signs are normal. Capillary refill time is 5 seconds. The nurse would:
1.ask the parent if the child has had frostbite in the past.
2.suspect that the child has a venous insufficiency problem.
3.consider this a delayed capillary refill time and investigate further.
4.consider this a normal capillary refill time that requires no further assessment.
Normal capillary refill time is less than 1 to 2 seconds. Note that these conditions can skew your findings: a cool room, decreased body temperature, cigarette smoking, peripheral edema, and anemia.

Which of the following statements is true regarding assessment of the ankle-brachial index (ABI)?

A 70-year-old patient is scheduled for open-heart surgery. The surgeon plans to use the great saphenous vein for the coronary bypass grafts. The patient asks, “What happens to my circulation when the veins are removed?” The nurse should reply:

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A 57-year-old maintenance worker comes to your office for evaluation of pain in his legs. He has smoked two packs per day since the age of 16, but he is otherwise healthy. You are concerned that he may have peripheral vascular disease. Which of the following is part of common or concerning symptoms for the peripheral vascular system?

A 72-year-old teacher comes to your clinic for an annual examination. She is concerned about her risk for peripheral vascular disease and states that there is a place in town that does tests to let her know her if she has this or not. Which of the following disease processes is a risk factor for peripheral vascular disease?

A 68-year-old retired truck driver comes to your office for evaluation of swelling in his legs. He is a smoker and has been taking medications to control his hypertension for the past 25 years. You are concerned about his risk for peripheral vascular disease. Which of the following tests are appropriate to order to initially evaluate for this condition?

A 55-year-old secretary with a recent history of breast cancer, for which she underwent surgery and radiation therapy, and a history of hypertension comes to your office for a routine checkup. Which of the following aspects of the physical are important to note when assessing the patient for peripheral vascular disease in the arms?

You are a student in the clinic. You are asked to perform a physical examination on a patient with known peripheral vascular disease in the legs. Which of the following aspects is important to note when you perform your examination?

You are assessing a patient for peripheral vascular disease in the arms, secondary to a complaint of increased weakness and a history of coronary artery disease and diabetes. You assess the brachial and radial pulses and note that they are bounding. What does that translate to on a scale of 0 to 4?

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You are assessing a 59-year-old gas station owner for atherosclerosis in the lower extremities. In which of the following locations would the patient’s pain make you concerned for this disease process?

You are performing a routine check-up on an 81-year-old retired cotton farmer in the clinic. You note that he has a history of chronic arterial insufficiency. Which of the following physical examination findings in the lower extremities would be expected with this disease?

A 77-year-old retired nurse has an ulcer on a lower extremity that you are asked to evaluate when you do your weekly rounds at a local long-term care facility. All of the following are responsible for causing ulcers in the lower extremities except for which condition?

As the internal diameter of a blood vessel changes, the resistance changes as well. Which of the following descriptions depicts this relationship?

Mr. Edwards complains of cramps and difficulties with walking. The cramps occur in his calves consistently after walking about 100 yards. After a period of rest, he can start to walk again, but after 100 yards these same symptoms recur. Which of the following would suggest spinal stenosis as a cause of this pain?
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Asymmetric BPs are seen in which of the following conditions?

Diminished radial pulses may be seen in patients with which of the following?

When assessing temperature of the skin, which portion of your hand should be used?

You note a painful ulcerative lesion near the medial malleolus, with accompanying hyperpigmentation. Which of the following etiologies is most likely?
An 8-year-old girl comes with her mother for evaluation of hair loss. She denies pulling or twisting her hair, and her mother has not noted this behavior at all. She does not put her hair in braids. On physical examination, you note a clearly demarcated, round patch of hair loss without visible scaling or inflammation. There are

A mother brings her 11 month old to you because her mother-in-law and others have told her that her baby is jaundiced. She is eating and growing well and performing the developmental milestones she should for her age. On examination you indeed notice a yellow tone to her skin from head to toe. Her sclerae are white. To which area should your next questions be related?

You are examining an unconscious patient from another region and notice Beau’s lines, a transverse groove across all of her nails, about 1 cm from the proximal nail fold. What would you do next?

Dakota is a 14-year-old boy who just noticed a rash at his ankles. There is no history of exposure to ill people or other agents in the environment. He has a slight fever in the office. The rash consists of small, bright red marks. When they are pressed, the red color remains. What should you do?

A young man comes to you with an extremely pruritic rash over his knees and elbows which has come and gone for several years. It seems to be worse in the winter and improves with some sun exposure. On examination, you notice scabbing and crusting with some silvery scale, and you are observant enough to notice small “pits” in his nails. What would account for these findings?

Mrs. Anderson presents with an itchy rash which is raised and appears and disappears in various locations. Each lesion lasts for many minutes. What most likely accounts for this rash?

Which of the following is true regarding breast self-examination?
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Which of the following lymph node groups is most commonly involved in breast cancer?

51-year-old cook comes to your office for consultation. She recently found out that her 44-year-old sister with premenopausal breast cancer is positive for the BRCA1 gene. Your patient has been doing research on the Internet and saw that her chance of having also inherited the BRCA1 gene is 50%. She is interested in knowing what her risk of developing breast cancer would be if she were positive for the gene. She denies any lumps in her breasts and has had normal mammograms. She has had no weight loss, fever, or night sweats. Her mother is healthy and her father has prostate cancer. Two of her paternal aunts died of breast cancer. She is married. She denies using tobacco or illegal drugs and rarely drinks alcohol. Her breast and axilla examinations are unremarkable. At her age, what is her risk of getting breast cancer if she has the BRCA1 gene?

You ask a patient to draw a clock. He fills in all the numbers on the right half of the circle. What do you suspect?

A 67-year-old retired janitor comes to the clinic with his wife. She brought him in because she is concerned about his weight loss. He has a history of smoking 3 packs of cigarettes a day for 30 years, for a total of 90 pack-years. He has noticed a daily cough for the past several years, which he states is productive of sputum. He came into the clinic approximately 1 year ago, and at that time his weight was 140 pounds. Today, his weight is 110 pounds. Which one of the following questions would be the most important to ask if you suspect that he has lung cancer?

An 18-year-old college freshman presents to the clinic for evaluation of gastroenteritis. You measure the patient’s temperature and it is 104 degrees Fahrenheit. What type of pulse would you expect to feel during his initial examination?

A 25-year-old type 1 diabetic clerk presents with shortness of breath and states that his blood sugar was 605 at home. He was diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. What is the expected pattern of breathing?

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Mrs. Lenzo weighs herself every day with a very accurate balance-type scale. She has noticed that over the past 2 days she has gained 4 pounds. How would you best explain this?

Mr. Curtiss has a history of obesity, diabetes, osteoarthritis of the knees, HTN, and obstructive sleep apnea. His BMI is 43 and he has been discouraged by his difficulty in losing weight. He is also discouraged that his goal weight is 158 pounds away. What would you tell him?

You are seeing an older patient who has not had medical care for many years. Her vital signs taken by your office are: T 98.6, HR 78, BP 118/92, and RR 14, and she denies pain. You noticed that she had had some hypertensive changes in her retinas and mild proteinuria on a urine test on prior medical records. You expected the BP to be higher. She is not on any medications. What do you think is causing this BP reading, which doesn’t correlate with the other findings?

You are observing a patient with heart failure and notice that there are pauses in his breathing. On closer examination, you notice that after the pauses the patient takes progressively deeper breaths and then progressively shallower breaths, which are followed by another apneic spell. The patient is not in any distress. You make the diagnosis of:

Mr. Garcia comes to your office for a rash on his chest associated with a burning pain. Even a light touch causes this burning sensation to worsen. On examination, you note a rash with small blisters (vesicles) on a background of reddened skin. The rash overlies an entire rib on his right side. What type of pain is this?
Neuropathic pain

A patient presents with a left-sided facial droop. On further testing, you note that he is unable to wrinkle his forehead on the left and has decreased taste. Which of the following is true?
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Ms. Wright comes to your office, complaining of palpitations. While checking her pulse you notice an irregular rhythm. When you listen to her heart, every fourth beat sounds different. It sounds like a triplet rather than the usual “lub dup.” How would you document your examination?
A 37-year-old insurance agent comes to your office, complaining of trembling hands. She says that for the past 3 months when she tries to use her hands to fix her hair or cook they shake badly. She says she doesn’t feel particularly nervous when this occurs but she worries that other people will think she has an anxiety disorder or that she’s a drinker. She admits to having some recent fatigue, trouble with vision, and difficulty maintaining bladder control. Her past medical history is remarkable for hypothyroidism. Her mother has lupus and her father is healthy. She has an older brother with type 1 diabetes. She is married and has three children. She denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. On examination, when she tries to reach for a pencil to fill out the health form she has obvious tremors in her dominant hand.

unsteady hands. He says that for the past 6 months, when his hands are resting in his lap they shake uncontrollably. He says when he holds them out in front of his body the shaking diminishes, and when he uses his hands the shaking is also better. He also complains of some difficulty getting up out of his chair and walking around. He denies any recent illnesses or injuries. His past medical history is significant for high blood pressure and coronary artery disease, requiring a stent in the past. He has been married for over 50 years and has five children and 12 grandchildren. He denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. His mother died of a stroke in her 70s and his father died of a heart attack in his 60s. He has a younger sister who has arthritis problems. His children are all essentially healthy. On examination you see a fine, pill-rolling tremor of his left hand. His right shows less movement. His cranial nerve examination is normal. He has some difficulty rising from his chair, his gait is slow, and it takes him time to turn around to walk back toward you. He has almost no “arm swing” with his gait. What type of tremor is he most likely to have?

A 48-year-old grocery store manager comes to your clinic, complaining of her head being “stuck” to one side. She says that today she was doing her normal routine when it suddenly felt like her head was being moved to her left and then it just stuck that way. She says it is somewhat painful because she cannot get it moved back to normal. She denies any recent neck trauma. Her past medical history consists of type 2 diabetes and gastroparesis (slow-moving peristalsis in the digestive tract, seen in diabetes). She is on oral medication for each. She is married and has three children. She denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. Her father has diabetes and her mother passed away from breast cancer. Her children are healthy. On examination you see a slightly overweight Hispanic woman appearing her stated age. Her head is twisted grotesquely to her left but otherwise her examination is normal. What form of involuntary movement does she have?

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A 41-year-old real estate agent comes to your office, complaining that he feels like his face is paralyzed on the left. He states that last week he felt his left eyelid was drowsy and as the day progressed he was unable to close his eyelid all the way. Later he felt like his smile became affected also. He denies any recent injuries but had an upper respiratory viral infection last month. His past medical history is unremarkable. He is divorced and has one child. He smokes one pack of cigarettes a day, occasionally drinks alcohol, and denies any illegal drug use. His mother has high blood pressure and his father has sarcoidosis. On examination you ask him to close his eyes. He is unable to close his left eye. You ask him to open his eyes and raise his eyebrows. His right forehead furrows but his left remains flat. You then ask him to give you a big smile. The right corner of his mouth raises but the left side of his mouth remains the same. What type of facial paralysis does he have?

A 60-year-old retired seamstress comes to your office, complaining of decreased sensation in her hands and feet. She states that she began to have the problems in her feet a year ago but now it has started in her hands also. She also complains of some weakness in her grip. She has had no recent illnesses or injuries. Her past medical history consists of having type 2 diabetes for 20 years. She now takes insulin and oral medications for her diabetes. She has been married for 40 years. She has two healthy children. Her mother has Alzheimer’s disease and coronary artery disease. Her father died of a stroke and also had diabetes. She denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. On examination she has decreased deep tendon reflexes in the patellar and Achilles tendons. She has decreased sensation of fine touch, pressure, and vibration on both feet. She has decreased two-point discrimination on her hands. Her grip strength is decreased and her plantar and dorsiflexion strength is decreased. Where is the disorder of the peripheral nervous system in this patient?

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Question 12: Business

South University NSG 6020 Final exam study guide
South University NSG 6020Final exam study guide
A 65-year-old patient remarks that she just can’t believe that her breasts sag so much. She states it must
be from lack of exercise. What explanation should the nurse offer her?

The mother of a 10-year-old boy asks the nurse to discuss the recognition of puberty. The nurse should reply by saying:
“Puberty usually begins about age fifteen.”
“The first sign of puberty is enlargement of the testes.”
“Penis size does not increase until about the age of sixteen.”
“The development of pubic hair precedes testicular or penis enlargement.”

A patient has bilateral pitting edema of the feet. While assessing the peripheral vascular system, the nurse’s primary focus should be:
The correct answer is: Venous function of the lower extremities

During an examination, the nurse notes severe nystagmus in both eyes of a patient. Which of the following conclusions is correct?
1.This is a normal occurrence.
2.This may indicate disease of the cerebellum or brainstem.
3.This is a sign that the patient is nervous about the examination.
4.This indicates a visual problem and a referral to an ophthalmologist is indicated.
End-point nystagmus at an extreme lateral gaze occurs normally. Assess any other nystagmus carefully. Severe nystagmus occurs with disease of the vestibular system, cerebellum, or brainstem.

When performing a musculoskeletal assessment, the nurse knows the correct approach for the examination should be:
proximal to distal

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A 43-year-old woman is at the clinic for a routine examination. She reports that she has had a breast lump in her right breast for years. Recently, it has begun to change in consistency and is becoming harder. She reports that 5 years ago her physician evaluated the lump and determined that it “was nothing to worry about.” The examination validates the presence of a mass in the right upper outer quadrant at 1 o’clock, approximately 5 cm from the nipple. It is firm, mobile, nontender, with borders that are not well defined. The nurse’s recommendation to her is:
“Because of the change in consistency of the lump, it should be further evaluated by a physician.”

The nurse practitioner is examining a 3-month-old infant. While holding the thumbs on the infant’s inner–mid-thighs and the fingers outside on the hips, touching the greater trochanter, the nurse practitioner adducts the legs until the nurse practitioner’s thumbs touch and then abducts the legs until the infant’s knees touch the table. The nurse practitioner does not note any “clunking” sounds and is confident to record a:
Negative Ortolani’s sign.

A patient’s mother has noticed that her son, who has been to a new babysitter, has some blisters and scabs on his face and buttocks. On examination, the nurse notices moist, thin-roofed vesicles with a thin erythematous base and suspects:
Impetigo

The nurse is testing superficial reflexes on an adult patient. When stroking up the lateral side of the sole and across the ball of the foot, the nurse notices the plantar flexion of the toes. How would the nurse document this finding?
1.Positive Babinski sign
2.Plantar reflex abnormal
3.Plantar reflex present
4.Plantar reflex “2+” on a scale from “0 to 4+”
With the same instrument, draw a light stroke up the lateral side of the sole of the foot and across the ball of the foot, like an upside-down “J.” The normal response is plantar flexion of the toes and sometimes of the whole foot.
A woman is in the family planning clinic seeking birth control information. She states that herbreasts “change all month long” and that she is worried that this is unusual. What is the nurse’s bestresponse?
Tell her that, because of the changing hormones during the monthly menstrualcycle, cyclic breast changes are common.

A patient states during the interview that she noticed a new breast lump in the shower a few days ago. It was on her left breast near her axilla. The RN should plan to:
palpate the unaffected breast first

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A 16-yr-old girl is being seen at clinic for gastrointestinal complaints+weight loss. Nurse determines that many of her complaints may be related to erratic eating patterns, eating predominantly fast foods, + high caffeine intake. In this situation, which is most appropriate when collecting current dietary intake information?
•1.  Schedule a time for direct observation of the adolescent during meals.
•2.  Ask the patient for a 24-hour diet recall and assume this is reflective of a typical day for her.
3.  Have the patient complete a food diary for 3 days=2 weekdays + 1 weekend day
Fooddiaries require the individual to write down everything consumed for a certaintime period. Because of the erratic eating patterns of this individual,assessing dietary intake over a few days would produce more accurateinformation regarding eating patterns. Direct observation is best used withyoung children or older adults.

To assess the head control of a 4-month-old infant, the nurse lifts the infant up in a prone position while supporting his chest. The nurse looks for what normal response?
1.Raises head and arches back.
2.Extends arms and drops head down.
3.Flexes knees and elbows with back straight.
4.Holds head at 45 degrees and keeps back straight.
At 3 months of age, the baby raises the head and arches the back as if in a swan dive. This is the Landau reflex, which persists until 11/2 years of age.
A patient has a positive Homans’ sign. The nurse knows that a positive Homans’ sign may indicate:
deep vein thrombosis.

The nurse is discussing breast self-examination with a postmenopausal woman. The best time forpostmenopausal women to perform breast self-examination is:
A=the same day every month.

A 15-year-old boy is seen in the clinic for complaints of “dull pain and pulling” in the scrotal area. On examination the nurse palpates a soft, irregular mass posterior to and above the testis on the left. This mass collapses when the patient is supine and refills when he is upright. This description is consistent with:
varicocele

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The nurse is bathing an 80-year-old man and notices that his skin is wrinkled,thin, lax, and dry. This finding would be related to which factor?
An increased loss of elastin and a decrease in subcutaneous fat in the elderly

A woman who is 22 weeks pregnant has a vaginal infection. She tells the nurse that she is afraid that this infection will hurt the fetus. The nurse knows that which of these statements is true?
A thick mucus plug forms that protects the fetus from infection.

In assessment of 1-month-old, nurse notes a lack of response to noise or stimulation. mother reports that in the last week he has been sleeping all the time + when awake all he does is cry. nurse hears that infant’s cries are very high pitched and shrill. What would be nurse’s appropriate response?
1.Refer the infant for further testing.
2.Talk with the mother about eating habits.
3.Nothing; these are expected findings for an infant this age.
4.Tell the mother to bring the baby back in a week for a recheck.
A high-pitched shrill cry or cat-sounding screech occurs with central nervous system damage. Lethargy, hyporeactivity, hyperirritability, and parent’s report of significant change in behavior all warrant referral.

A female patient is 8 months pregnant.  She comments that she has noticed a change in posture and is having lower back pain.  The nurse tells her that during pregnancy women have a posture shift to compensate for the enlarging fetus.  This shift in posture is:
lordosis

A 14-year-old girl is anxious about not having reached menarche. When taking the history, the nurse should ascertain which of the following?The age:
she began to develop breasts

A 9-year-old girl is in the clinic for a sports physical. After some initial shyness she finally asks,“Am I normal? I don’t seem to need a bra yet, but I have some friends who do. What if I never getbreasts?” The nurse’s best response would be:
“I understand that it is hard to feel different from your friends. Breasts usually develop between 8 and 10 years of age.”

During an examination, the nurse notes a supernumerary nipple just under the patient’s left breast.The patient tells the nurse that she always thought it was a mole. Which statement about this findingis correct?
It is a normal variation and not a significant finding

The major artery that supplies blood to arm
brachial artery

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The nurse is testing the function of cranial nerve XI. Which of these best describes the response the nurse should expect if the nerve is intact? The patient
moves head and shoulder against resistance w/equal strength

In a person with an upper motor neuron lesion such as a cerebrovascular accident, which of the following physical assessment findings would the nurse expect to see?
1.Hyperreflexia
2.Fasciculations
3.Loss of muscle tone and flaccidity
4.Atrophy and wasting of the muscles
Hyperreflexia, diminished or absent superficial reflexes, increased muscle tone or spasticity can be expected with upper motor neuron lesions.

A few days after a summer hiking trip, a 25-year-old man comes to the clinic with a rash. On examination, the nurse notes that the rash is red, macular, with a bull’s eye pattern across his midriff and behind his knees. The nurse suspects:
Lyme Disease

To assess the dorsalis pedis artery, the nurse would palpate
lateral to the extensor tendon of the great toe.The dorsalis pedis artery is located on the dorsum of the foot. Palpate just lateral to and parallel with the extensor tendon of the big toe.

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The nurse is performing a neurologic assessment on a 41-year-old woman with a history of diabetes. When testing her ability to feel the vibrations of a tuning fork, the nurse notes the following: unable to feel vibrations on the great toe or ankle bilaterally; is able to feel vibrations on both patellae. Given this information, what would the nurse suspect?
1.Hyperalgesia
2.Hyperesthesia
3.Peripheral neuropathy
4.Lesion of sensory cortex
Loss of vibration sense occurs with peripheral neuropathy (e.g., diabetes and alcoholism). Peripheral neuropathy is worse at the feet and gradually improves as you move up leg, as opposed to a specific nerve lesion, which has a clear zone of deficit for its dermatome

The nurse is reviewing an assessment of a patient’s peripheral pulses and notices that the documentation states that the radial pulses are “2+.” The nurse recognizes that this reading indicates what type ofpulse?
A.Bounding
B.Normal
C.Weak
D.Absent

During an examination, you note that a male patient has a red, round, superficial ulcer with a yellowish-serous discharge on his penis. Upon palpation, you note a nontender base that feels like a small button between your thumb and fingers. At this point you suspect that this patient has:
syphilitic chancre

During an interview, a patient reveals that she is pregnant. She states that she is not sure whether shewill breastfeed her baby and asks for some information about this. Which of these statements by the nurse is accurate with regard to breastfeeding?
“Breastfeeding provides the perfect food and antibodies for your baby.”
or Breast-feeding may reduce the risk of breast cancer.

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To palpate the temporomandibular joint, the nurse’s finger should be placed in the depression of the ear.
anterior to the tragus

The nurse practitioner is examining only the rectal area of a woman and should place the woman in what position?
The nurse should place the female patient in lithotomy position if examining genitalia as well; use the left lateral decubitus position for the rectal area alone.
The nurse is performing a genitourinary assessment on a 50-year-old obese male laborer. On examination the nurse notices a painless round swelling close to the pubis in the area of the internal inguinal ring that is easily reduced when the individual is supine. These findings are most consistent with a(n) _____ hernia.
Direct inguinal

The nurse is conducting a class about breast self-examination (BSE). Which of these statementsindicates proper BSE technique?
C)The best time to perform BSE is 4 to 7 days after the first day of the menstrual
period.

A man found wandering in park at 2AM has been brought to emergency department for examination because he said he fell+hit head. During examination, nurse asks him to use his index finger to touch nurse’s finger, then own nose, then nurse’s finger again (moved to a different location). patient is clumsy, unable to follow the instructions, +overshoots mark, missing finger. nurse suspects…
1.Cerebral injury
2.Cerebrovascular accident
3.Acute alcohol intoxication
4.Peripheral neuropathy
During the finger-to-finger test, if the person has clumsy movement with overshooting the mark, either a cerebellar disorders or acute alcohol intoxication should be suspected.

Which of the following assessment findings is most consistent with clubbing of the fingernails?
An angle of the nail base of 180 degrees or greater with a nail base that feels spongy

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A 45-year-old mother of two children is seen at the clinic for complaints of “losing my urine when I sneeze.” The nurse documents that she is experiencing:
stress incontinence

A patient calls the clinic for instructions before having a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear. The most appropriate instructions from the nurse are:
“Avoid intercourse, inserting anything into the vagina, or douching within 24 hours of your appointment.”

Which of the following statements is true regarding the penis?
The corpus spongiosum expends into a cone of erectile tissue called the glans

During an assessment, the nurse notes that a patient’s left arm is swollen from the shoulder down to the fingers, with nonpitting edema. The right arm is normal. The patient had a mastectomy 1 year ago. The nurse suspects which problem?
Lymphedema

When performing the bimanual examination, the nurse notices that the cervix feels smooth and firm, is round, and is fixed in place (does not move). When cervical palpation is performed, the patient complains of some pain. The nurse’s interpretation of these results should be which of these?
The cervix should move when palpated; an immobile cervix may indicate malignancy.

You are examining a 6 month old baby. You place the baby’s feet flat on the table and flex his knees up. you note that the right knee is significantly lower than the left. Which of the following is true of this finding?
This is a positive Allis sign and suggests hip dislocation

A 75-year-old woman who has a history of diabetes and peripheral vascular disease has been trying to remove a corn on the bottom of her foot with a pair of scissors. The nurse will encourage her to stop trying to remove the corn with scissors because:
the woman could be at increased risk for infection and lesions because of her chronic disease
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You are examining Mr. O, and when you ask him to bend forward from the waist, you notice lateral tilting; when you raise his leg straight up, he complains of a pain going down his buttock into his leg. You suspect:
herniated nucleus pulposus

The assessment of an 80-year-old patient, the nurse notes that his hands show tremors when he reaches for something and that his head is always nodding. There is no associated rigidity with movement. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
these findings are normal

Which of the following statements is true regarding the arterial system?
The arterial system is a high-pressure system.

A patient who is visiting the clinic complains of having “stomach pains for 2 weeks” and describes his stools as being “soft and black” for about the last 10 days. He denies taking any medications. The NP is aware that these symptoms are most indicative of:
occult blood resulting from gastrointestinal bleeding.

During an internal examination of a woman’s genitalia, the nurse will use which technique for proper insertion of the speculum?
Instruct the woman to bear down, turn the width of the blades horizontally, and insert the speculum at a 45-degree angle downward toward the small of the woman’s back.
During an internal examination of a woman’s genitalia, the nurse practitioner will use which technique for proper insertion of the speculum?
Insert the blades of the speculum on a horizontal plane, turning them to a 45-degree angle while continuing to insert them. Ask the woman to bear down to ease insertion.
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When assessing a patient the nurse practitioner documents the left femoral pulse as 0/0-4+. Which of the following findings would the nurse practitioner expect at the dorsalis pedis pulse?
0/0-4+Pulsations are graded on a four-point scale: 0, absent; 1+, weak; 2+, normal; 3+, increased; 4+, bounding. If a pulse is absent at the femoral site, one would expect the dorsalis pedis pulse to be absent also.

A 2-year-old boy has been diagnosed with “physiologic cryptorchidism.” Given this diagnosis, during assessment the nurse will most likely observe:
An absence of the testis in the scrotum, but the testis can be milked down

The nurse practitioner is doing an assessment on a 29-year-old woman who visits the clinic complaining of “always dropping things and falling down.” While testing rapid alternating movements, the nurse practitioner notices that the woman is unable to pat both her knees. Her response is very slow and she misses frequently. What might the nurse practitioner suspect?
Dysfunction of the cerebellum
In rapid, alternating movements, slow, clumsy, and sloppy response occurs with cerebellar disease.

The wife of a 65 year old man tells the nurse that she is concerned because she has noted a change in her husband’s personality and ability to understand. He also cries and becomes angry very easily. The nurse recalls that the cerebral lobe responsible for these behaviors is which of the following?
Frontal

A male patient with possible fertility problems asks the nurse where sperm is produced. The nurse knows that sperm production occurs in the:
testes.

Which of the following statements reflects the best approach to teaching a woman about breast self-examination (BSE)?
“BSE on a monthly basis will help you feel familiar with your own breasts and their normal variations.”
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When assessing a patient’s pulse, the nurse practitioner notes that the amplitude is weaker during inspiration and stronger during expiration. When the nurse practitioner measures the blood pressure, the reading decreases 20 mm Hg during inspiration and increases with expiration. This patient is experiencing:
pulsusparadoxus.

A patient has had a “terrible itch” for several months that he has been scratching continuously. On examination, the nurse might expect to find:
lichenification

During an annual physical exam, a 43-year-old patient states that she doesn’t perform monthly breast self-examination (BSE).  She tells the nurse that she believes that mammograms “do a much better job than I ever could to find a lump.”  The nurse should explain to her that:
BSEs may detect lumps that appear between mammograms./ mammography may not detect all palpable lumps.

A patient’s annual physical examination reveals a lateral curvature of the thoracic and lumbar segments of his spine; however, this curvature disappears with forward bending. This abnormality of the spine would be called:
Functional scoliosis
Assessment of a 60-yr-old patient has taken longer than anticipated. in testing pain perception nurse decides to complete the test as quickly as possible. When nurse applies sharp point of pin on his arm several times, he is only able to identify these as one ‘very sharp prick.’ most accurate explanation?
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1.has hyperesthesia as a result of aging process
2.most likely the result of the summation effect.
3.The nurse was probably not poking hard enough with the pin in the other areas.
4.The patient most likely has analgesia in some areas of arm and hyperalgesia in others.
ANS:  2Let at least 2 seconds elapse between each stimulus to avoid summation. With summation, frequent consecutive stimuli are perceived as one strong stimulus.

Assessing a 7-month-old infant you make a loud noise and note the following response: Abduction and flexion of arms and legs; fanning of fingers and curling of index finger and thumb in C-position; followed by infant bringing in arms and legs to body.  What do you know about this?
1.This could indicate brachial nerve palsy
2.This is an expected startle response at this age
3.This reflex should disappear between 1 and 4 months of age
4.It is normal as long as movements are symmetrical bilaterally

The nurse is assessing a 75-year-old man. As the nurse beings the mental status portion of the assessment, the nurse expects that this patient:
may take a little longer to respond, but his general knowledge and abilities should not have declined.

During an external genitalia examination of a woman, the nurse notices several lesions around the vulva. The lesions are pink, moist, soft, and pointed papules. The patient states that she is not aware ofany problems in that area. The nurse recognizes that these lesions may be:
HPV or genital WARTs

A 40-year-old woman reports a change in mole size, accompanied by color changes, itching, burning, and bleeding over the past month. She has a dark complexion and has no family history of skin cancer, but she has had many blistering sunburns in the past. The nurse would:
Refer the patient because of the suspicion of melanoma on the basis of her symptoms.

Which of the following veins are responsible for most of the venous return in the arm?
1.Deep veins
2.Ulnar veins
3.Subclavian veins
4.Superficial veins

A man who has had gout for several years comes to the clinic with a “problem with my toe.” On examination, the nurse practitioner notes the presence of hard, painless nodules over the great toe; one had burst open with a chalky discharge. This finding is known as:
Tophi are collections of sodium urate crystals resulting from chronic gout in and around the joint that cause extreme swelling and joint deformity. They appear as hard, painless nodules (tophi) over the metatarsophalangeal joint of the first toe and they sometimes burst with a chalky discharge
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The nurse is performing a well-child assessment on a 3-year-old child. The child’s vital signs are normal. Capillary refill time is 5 seconds. The nurse would:
1.ask the parent if the child has had frostbite in the past.
2.suspect that the child has a venous insufficiency problem.
3.consider this a delayed capillary refill time and investigate further.
4.consider this a normal capillary refill time that requires no further assessment.
Normal capillary refill time is less than 1 to 2 seconds. Note that these conditions can skew your findings: a cool room, decreased body temperature, cigarette smoking, peripheral edema, and anemia.
A 70-year-old patient is scheduled for open-heart surgery. The surgeon plans to use the great saphenous vein for the coronary bypass grafts. The patient asks, “What happens to my circulation when the veins are removed?” The nurse should reply:
“Because the deeper veins in your leg are in good condition, this vein can be removed without harming your circulation.”

When observing the vestibule, the nurse practitioner should be able to see the:
Urethral meatus and vaginal orifice

When the nurse is conducting sexual history from a male adolescent, which statement would be most appropriate to use at the beginning of the interview?
Often boys your age have questions about sexual activity

The nurse practitioner is palpating the abdomen of a woman who is 35 weeks’ pregnant and notes that the fetal head is facing downward toward the pelvis. The nurse practitioner would document this as:
B) Fetal presentation
Fetal presentation describes the part of the fetus that is entering the pelvis first. Fetal lie is orientation of the fetal spine to the maternal spine. Attitude is the position of the fetal parts in relation to each other, and fetal variety is the location of the fetal back to the maternal pelvis.

Which of the following factors is most likely to affect the nutritional status of an 82-year-old person?
Socioeconomic conditions frequently have the greatest effect on the nutritional status of the aging adult; these factors should be closely evaluated. Physical limitations, income, and social isolation are frequent problems and can obviously interfere with the acquisition of a balanced diet.

When performing a genital examination on a 25-year-old man, the nurse notices deeply pigmented, wrinkled scrotal skin with large sebaceous follicles. On the basis of this information the nurse would:
consider this a normal finding and proceed with the examination.
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Mrs. A has had arthritis for years and is starting to notice that her fingers are drifting to this side. This is commonly referred to as:
ulnar deviation

A nurse is assessing a patient’s risk of contracting a sexually transmitted infection (STI). An appropriate question to ask would be:
“Do you use a condom with each episode of sexual intercourse?”

A 14-year-old boy who has been diagnosed with Osgood-Schlatter disease reports painful swelling just below the knee for the past 5 months. Which response by the nurse practitioner is appropriate?
“Your disease is due to repeated stress on the patellar tendon. It is usually self-limited, and your symptoms should resolve with rest.”

Which of the following is considered a normal and expected finding when the nurse practitioner is performing a physical examination on a pregnant woman?

A 54-year-old woman who has just completed menopause is in the clinic today for a yearly physical examination. Which of these statements should the nurse include in patient education? “A postmenopausal woman:
should be aware that she is at increased risk for dyspareunia because of decreased vaginal secretions.”

The nurse practitioner has completed the musculoskeletal examination of a patient’s knee and has found a positive bulge sign. The nurse suspects:
Swelling from fluid in the suprapatellar pouch

Which of the following statements is true with regard to the history of a postmenopausal woman?

When performing a genital assessment on a middle-aged man, the nurse notices multiple soft, moist, painless papules in the shape of cauliflower-like patches scattered across the shaft of the penis. These lesions are characteristic of:
genital warts.

During a physical examination, a 45-year-old woman states that she has had a crusty, itchy rash on her breast for about 2 weeks. In trying to find the cause of the rash, which of these would beimportant for the nurse to determine?
Where did it first appear—on the nipple, the areola, or the surrounding skin?

Which of the following statements is true regarding assessment of the ankle-brachial index (ABI)?
ABI = highest ankle pressure divided by the highest brachial pressure

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The patient is in her first trimester of pregnancy. She complains of feeling nauseated and has vomited on occasion. She tells the nurse that she did not have this with her first pregnancy. She asks the nurse, “What is causing this and when will it end?” How should the nurse respond?

The nausea is caused by elevated levels of progesterone and estrogen, and the nausea should end once her body adjusts to the increased hormone levels.

A professional tennis player comes in complaining of a sore elbow. You suspect that he has tenderness at:
the medial and lateral epicondyle

During a bimanual examination, the nurse detects a solid tumor on the ovary that is heavy and fixed,with a poorly defined mass. This finding is suggestive of:
ovarian cancer

When doing the history on a patient with a seizure disorder, the nurse assesses whether the patient has an aura. Which of the following would be the best question for obtaining this information?
Do you have any warning sign before your seizure starts?

Feedback: Aura is a subjective sensation that precedes a seizure; it could be auditory, visual, or motor.

The nurse practitioner is assessing a 1-week-old infant and testing his muscle strength. The nurse practitioner lifts the infant with hands under the axillae and notes that the infant starts to “slip” between the hands. The nurse practitioner should:
Suspect that the infant may have weakness of the shoulder muscles

In examining a 70-year-old male patient, the nurse notices that he has bilateral gynecomastia. Whichof the following describes the nurse’s best course of action?
Explain that this condition may be the result of hormonal changes and recommendthat he see his physician.
While the nurse practitioner is taking the history of a 68-year-old patient who sustained a head injury 3 days earlier, he tells the nurse practitioner that he is on a cruise ship and is 30 years old. The nurse practitioner knows that this finding is indicative of:
Decreased level of consciousness.

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A woman has just been diagnosed with HPV, or genital warts. The nurse should counsel her to receive regular examinations because this virus makes her at a higher risk for _____ cancer.
cervical

During an annual check-up of a 55 y/o patient, the nurse discusses the early detection measures for colon cancer. The nurse should mention the need for a
colonoscopy every 10 years

What are the two main parts of the nervous system?
Central Nervous System (CNS) and Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)

While obtaining a history of a 3-month old infant from the mother, the nurse practitioner asks about the baby’s ability to suck and grasp the mother’s finger. What is the nurse practitioner assessing?

The nurse practitioner auscultates a functional systolic murmur, grade II/IV, on a woman in week 30 of her pregnancy. The remainder of her physical assessment is within normal limits. The nurse practitioner would:

The nurse practitioner knows that classic symptoms associated with preeclampsia include:

Question 13: Business

Analyze the case study titled “Who’s the World’s Top Retailer? Walmart and Amazon Duke It Out” on pp.
116-118 of your textbook.
For this assignment, you will need to:
1. analyze the case study comparing Walmart and Amazon’s business models and business strategies,
2. explain the role that information technology plays in each of these businesses and describe the role of the various
IT professionals involved in this case,
3. explain how IT helps influence Walmart and Amazon’s organizational strategies, and
4. summarize your findings in a two- to three-page paper.

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Instructions
There are several standardized training events in large organizations that are required annually or biannually. One of these is often sexual harassment. For this assignment, write a training plan for all employees in your firm to educate and develop their awareness of sexual harassment and understanding of legal and organizational policies. Be sure to include training aspects of planning, design, implementation, and evaluation.
This plan should be in narrative form with a minimum requirement of 500 words. Discuss the following guidelines to complete your plan.
Planning: Should all employees be trained at once? If not, who should be trained first? What are the anticipated outcomes or terminal learning objectives of the training?
Design: In what format should the training be given, and why? What modalities will be used for employees on multiple shifts or in multiple locations? What are the core elements of the training that will align with the learning objectives?
Implementation: Who will lead the training, and how will it be implemented? Will you be training for knowledge or behavior change? How will you conduct the actual training to account for knowledge and/or behavioral change?
Evaluation: How will you know if the training was successful? What measures will you use to know if employees 1) learned from the training, 2) behaved differently after the training, and 3) the training has a bottom line impact to the firm?
Any sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations in APA format.

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“State of Estates” is a national estate planning firm with 2,500 employees in eight states.

Prepare a 10- to 15-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation with speaker notes for upper management at “State of Estates” to address the following areas:
An overview of Title VII as applied to race and national origin discrimination
Ways “State of Estates” can minimize liability for race and national origin discrimination in its employment practices
The three types of affirmative action
Whether any type of affirmative action is required or recommended for the firm

Include visual interest in the form of relevant photos, clip art, and/or graphics.

Format your presentation consistent with APA guidelines and include both an introduction slide and reference slide.

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Assignment #3: Inferential Statistics Analysis and Write up
Purpose: The purpose of this assignment is to develop and carry out an inferential statistics analysis plan and write up the findings. There are two main parts to this assignment: ● Part A: Inferential Statistics Data Plan and Analysis ● Part B: Write up of Results
Part A: Prepare Data Plan, Analyze Data, and Complete Part A of the Assignment #3 Template ➢ Task 1: Select Variables. Review the variables you used for assignments #1 and #2. Select your qualitative socioeconomic variable as your grouping variable and the two expenditure variables from the variables used in these previous assignments. Fill in Table 1: Variables Selected for Analysis with name, description, and type of variable (i.e., qualitative or quantitative). ➢ Task 2: Select and Run a One Sample Confidence Interval Analysis. For one expenditure
variable, select and run the appropriate method for estimating a parameter, based on a statistic
(i.e., confidence interval method). Complete Table 2: Confidence Interval Information and
Results, which follows the format outlined by Kozak and the course’s problem-solving approach,
including:
○ Random variable stated in words ○ Confidence interval method, including rationale and assumptions ○ Method used for analyzing data (i.e., web applets, Excel, TI calculator, etc.). ○ Results obtained ○ Interpretation
➢ Task 3: Select Two Sample Hypothesis Test. Using the second expenditure variable (with the
socioeconomic variable as the grouping variable), select and run the appropriate method for
making decisions about two parameters relative to observed statistics (i.e., two sample
STAT200: Assignment #3 – Inferential Statistics Analysis and Writeup – Instructions Page 2 of 5
hypothesis test method). Complete Table 3: Two Sample Hypothesis Test Analysis, which
follows the format outlined by Kozak and the course’s problem-solving approach, including:
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○ Hypotheses (null and alternative). ○ Two sample hypothesis testing method, including rationale and assumptions ○ Method used for analyzing data (i.e., web applets, Excel, TI calculator, etc.). ○ Results obtained. ○ Interpretation (i.e., Reject the null hypothesis OR Fail to reject null hypothesis)
Step 2: Write Up Results and Complete Part B of the Assignment #3 Template
For this 1 to 2 page section, refer to the inferential statistics data plan and computations done for Part A of this assignment. Address the following area: ➢ Introduction. Based on the scenario you submitted for the second assignment, provide a brief description of scenario, including the variables that were used in this analysis. Include a completed “Table 1: Variables Selected for Analysis to show the variables you selected for analysis. ➢ Data Set Description and Method Used for Analysis. Briefly describe the data set, using information provided with data set and write up in Assignment #2. Also describe what method(s) (i.e., free web applets, Excel, TI Calculator) you used to analyze the data. ➢ Results. In this section, you will report the results of your inferential statistics data analysis.
For the Confidence Interval Analysis, write one paragraph that includes: o Statistical method used, including rationale and whether assumptions were met. o Statistical Interpretation. The statistical interpretation is that the confidence interval has a probability (1−α, where α is the complement of the confidence level) of containing the population parameter. o Real World Interpretation. Explain the results in everyday language. Recommend reviewing the text and information from the classroom for examples on how to report results in everyday language.

STAT200: Assignment #3 – Inferential Statistics Analysis and Writeup – Instructions Page 3 of 5
For the Two Sample Hypothesis Test Analysis, write one paragraph that includes: o Hypotheses that were assessed. See below table for example format: Examples Format for Writing Null and Alternative Hypotheses, in Words
Null Hypothesis: There is no significant difference in [insert variable name] between [insert group 1 name] and [insert group 2 name] households.
Alternative Hypothesis:
➢ For two-tailed (≠): There is a significant difference in [insert variable name] between [insert group 1 name] and [insert group 2 name] households.
➢ For one-tailed (>): [Insert group 1 name] has statistically significantly higher [insert variable name] than [insert group 2 name].
➢ For one-tailed (<): [Insert group 1 name] has statistically significantly lower [insert variable name] than [insert group 2 name].
o Statistical method used, including rationale and whether assumptions were met. See below table for example format: Example Format for Writing Statistical Method with Rationale
To determine whether the there was a difference in [insert household expenditure]
between [insert names of two groups), a [insert name of hypothesis test used] was
used. It was the appropriate statistical method, because [insert rationale]. The
assumptions were assessed [insert information about the assumptions assessed and
whether they were met].
o Conclusion from the Results. This is where you state whether to reject Ho or fail to reject Ho including the p-value that was obtained. The rule is: if the p-value < α, then reject Ho. If the p-value ≥α, then fail to reject Ho.
STAT200: Assignment #3 – Inferential Statistics Analysis and Writeup – Instructions Page 4 of 5
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o Real World Interpretation. Explain, in everyday language, the results. If any of the assumptions were not met, describe how it might affect conclusions. Address issues of Type I and/or Type II Error, where appropriate. Recommend reviewing the text and information from the classroom for examples on how to report results in everyday language.
➢ Discussion– Write one paragraph that summarizes the results of your findings and how they may be helpful to the person described in the scenario, when making a household budget

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ECON 205 FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE

Exam #1

1. A resource is anything that:
A)can be used in production.
B) you pay for.
C) is in scarce supply.
D) can be consumed.

2. Scarcity in economics means:
A)not having sufficient resources to produce all the goods and service we want.
B) the wants of people are limited.
C) there must be poor people in rich countries.
D) economics are clearly not doing their jobs.

3. Opportunity cost is:
A) about half of the monetary cost of a product.
B) the dollar payment for a product.
C) the benefit derived from a product.
D)the value of the best alternative forgone in making any choice.

4. Margo spends $10,000 on one year’s college tuition. The opportunity cost of spending one year in college for Margo is:
A) $10,000
B) whatever she would have purchased with the $10,000 instead.
C) whatever she would have earned had she not been in college.
D)whatever she would have purchased with the $10,000 instead and whatever she would have earned had she not been in college.

5. We are forced to make choices because of:
A) exploitation.
B) efficiency.
C)scarcity.
D) the margin.

6. A choice made ________ is a choice whether to do a little more or a little less of something.
A) at the fringe
B) in the beginning
C)at the margin
D) after the fact

7. A production possibility frontier illustrates the ______ facing an economy that ______ only two goods.
A) prices; sells
B)trade-offs; produces
C) trade-offs; consumes
D) shortages; produces
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8. When moving along a production possibility frontier, the opportunity cost to society of getting more of one good:
A) is constant.
B) is measured in dollar terms.
C)is measured by the amount of the good that must be given up.
D) usually decreases.

Use the following to answer questions 9-11:
Figure: Guns and Butter

9.
(Figure: Guns and Butter) On this figure, points A, B, E,and F:
A)indicate combinations of guns and butter that society can produce using all of its factor efficiently.
B) show that the opportunity cost of more guns increases, but that of more butter decreases.
C) indicate that society wants butter more than it wants guns.
D) indicate constant costs for guns and increasing costs for butter.

10. (Figure: Guns and Butter) This possibility frontier is:
A)bowed out from the origin because of increasing opportunity costs.
B) bowed in toward the origin because of increasing  opportunity costs.
C) bowed in toward the origin because of constant  costs of guns and butter.
D) linear because of constant costs.

11. (Figure: Guns and Butter) If the economy were operating at point B, producing 16 units of guns and 12 units of butter per period, a decision to move to point E and produce 18 units of butter:
A) indicates you can have more butter and guns simultaneously.
B) makes it clear that this economy experiences decreasing opportunity costs.
C)involves a loss of 8 units of guns per period.
D) involves a loss of 4 units of guns per period.

12. An economy is said to have a comparative advantage in the production of one good if it:
A) can produce more of all goods than another country.
B) can produce less of all goods than another country.
C) has the highest opportunity cost for producing a particular good.
D)has the lowest opportunity cost for producing a particular good.

13. In one hour, the United States can produce 25 tons of steel or 250 automobiles. In one hour, Japan can produce 30 tons of steel or 275 automobiles. This information implies that:
A) Japan has a comparative advantage in the production of automobiles.
B) the Unites States has an absolute advantage in the production of steel.
C) Japan has a comparative advantage in the production of both goods.
D) the United States has a comparative advantage in the production of automobiles.

14. Free trade between countries:
A) should be based on absolute advantage.
B) will allow wealthy countries to exploit less developed nations.
C) will shift the domestic production possibility frontier to the right.
D)will allow for greater levels of consumption than without trade.

Use the following to answer questions 15-17:

Figure: Comparative Advantage
Eastland and Westland produce only two goods, peaches and oranges, and this figure shows each nation’s production possibility frontier for the two foods.

15. (Figure: Comparative Advantage) The opportunity cost of producing 1 unit of peaches for Westland is:
A) 1 unit of oranges.
B) ¼ unit of oranges.
C) 4 units of oranges.
D) 10 units of oranges

16. (Figure: Comparative Advantage) Westland has an absolute advantage in producing:
A) oranges only.
B)peaches only.
C) both oranges and peaches.
D) neither oranges or peaches.

17. (Figure: Comparative Advantage) Eastland has a comparative advantage in producing:
A)oranges only.
B) peaches only.
C) both oranges and peaches.
D) neither oranges or peaches.

18. The economy’s factors of production are not equally suitable for producing different types of goods. The principle generates:
A) economic growth.
B) technical efficiency.
C) resource underutilization.
D)the law of increasing opportunity cost.

19. Economists generally believe that a country should specialize in the production of a good or service if:
A) the production possibility frontier is larger than that of any other country.
B) the production possibility frontier is smaller than that of any other country.
C) the country can produce the product using fewer resources than any other country.
D)the country can produce the product while forgoing fewer alternative products than any other country.

20. The demand curve for videos has shifted to the right. What could have caused it?
A) a fall in the price of videos
B) an increase in the price of videos
C) an increase in the supply of videos
D)an increase in the incomes of buyers

21. The law of demand states other things equal:
A) as the price increases, the quantity demanded will increase.

B) as the price decreases, the demand curve will shift to the right.
C) as the price increases, the demand will decrease.
D)as the price increases, the quantity demanded will decrease.

22. A shift of the demand curve for Luis’s Pizza would not be caused by a change in the:
A) buyer’s incomes.
B)price of Luis’s Pizza.
C) price of Humberto’s Pizza.
D) popularity of Luis’s Pizza.

23. If goods A and B are substitutes, a decrease in the price of good B will:
A) increase the demand for good A.
B) increase the demand for good B.
C) decrease the demand for good A.
D) increase the demand for good B and decrease the demand for good A.

Use the following to answer questions 24-25:

Figure: Demand for Coconuts

24. (Figure: Demand for Coconuts) If a coconut is a normal good and the price of coconuts increases, then the movement that would take place in the model could be:
A) A to B.
B) B to A.
C) C to A.
D) E to B.

25. (Figure Demand for Coconuts) If coconuts are considered a normal good and there is an expectation on the part of consumers that the prices of coconuts will rise significantly in the near future, then the movement that would take place in the model could be:
A) C to A.
B) A to B.
C) B to E.
D)E to B.

26. When the price of gas goes up and the demand for tires goes down, this means tires and gas are:
A) substitutes.
B)complements.
C) both expensive.
D) both inexpensive.

27. Which of the following would shift the demand curve for new textbook to the right?
A) a decrease in the price of paper
B) a fall in the price of used textbooks
C)an increase in college enrollments
D) a fall in the price of new textbooks

28. A good is normal if:
A) when income increases, the demand remains unchanged.
B) when income increases, the demand decreases.
C)when income increases, the demand increases.
D) income and the demand are unrelated.

Exam #2

1. The typical supply curve illustrates that:
A) other things equal, the quantity supplied for a good is inversely related to the price of a good.
B) other things equal, the supply of the good created its own demand for the good.
C)other things equal, the quantity supplied for a good is positively related to the price of a good.
D)price and quantity supplied are unrelated.

2. Which of the following is not a determinant of supply?
A) expectations regarding future prices
B) the technology of production
C) the cost of production
D) consumer tastes

Use the following to answer questions 3-5:

Figure: Supply of Coconuts

3. (Figure: Supply of Coconuts) If the price of coconuts decreases, then the movement that would take place in the model could be:
A)A to B
B) B to A
C) C to A
D) E to B
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4. (Figure: Supply of Coconuts) If the prices of inputs (e.g. labor, fertilizer, and fuel) used to produce and transport coconuts are increasing, then the movement in the model could be:
A) A to B
B) B to A
C)C to A
D) E to B

5. (Figure: Supply of Coconuts)If there is an improvement in the technology used to harvest coconuts (e.g. a faster, less expensive coconut picker), then the movement in the model could be:
A)A to C
B) B to A
C) C to A
D) Bto E

6. The market for soybeans is initially in equilibrium. Because of “mad cow disease,” cattle feed producers decided to replace bone meal with soybeans in cattle feed. The likely effect is that:
A)the equilibrium price and quantity of soybeans will rise.
B) the equilibrium price and quantity of soybeans will fall.
C) the equilibrium quantity of soybeans will rise, but we can’t determine what will happen to the equilibrium price.
D)the equilibrium price of soybeans will rise, but we can’t determine what will happen to the equilibrium quantity.

7. Excess supply occurs when:
A) the price is above the equilibrium price.
B) the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied.
C) the price is below equilibrium price.
D) the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied and when the price is below the equilibrium quantity.

8. The market for milk is initially in equilibrium. Milk producers now engage in a costly advertising program to encourage milk drinking. Assume that the advertising campaign succeeds in shifting consumer tastes toward drinking milk and that milk producers provide more milk to the market. More milk producers enter the market. Standard demand and supply analysis tells us that:
A) the equilibrium price and quantity of milk will rise.
B) the equilibrium price and quantity of milk will fall.
C)the equilibrium quantity of milk will rise, but we can’t determine how the equilibrium price will be affected.
D) )the equilibrium price of milk will rise, but we can’t determine how the equilibrium quantity will be affected.

Use the following to answer question 9:

Figure: DVD Market

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9. (Figure: DVD Market) At a rental price of $3, there will be
A) equilibrium in the rental market for DVDs.
B) an increase in demand.
C) an excess supply of 40 DVD rentals.
D)an excess demand of 40 DVD rentals.

10. In the market for corn tortilla chips, what would cause a price increase?
A) Your doctor tells you that you cannot have junk food anymore.
B) There is a technological advancement in the tortilla chip production process.
C) There is a fungus that kills much of the corn crop in Nebraska.
D) The price of salsa triples.

11. Consumer surplus for an individual buyer is equal to:
A)the consumer’s willingness to pay for the good, minus the marginal cost of producing the good.
B)the price of the good, minus the marginal cost od producing the good.
C)the consumer’s willingness to pay for the good, minus the price of the good.
D)the marginal cost of the good, minus the consumer’s willingness to pay for the good.

12. Along a given demand curve, an increase in the price of a good will cause consumer surplus to:
A)increase.
B)decrease.
C)not change.
D)cannot be determined without information about the supply curve.

Use the following to answer questions 13-14:

Figure: Consumer Surplus II

13. (Figure: Consumer Surplus II) At a price of P1, consumer surplus equals the area:
A) ABP2
B) AFP1
C) BGF
D) P1P2BF

14. (Figure: Consumer Surplus II) If the price rises from P1 to P2, consumer surplus decreases by the area:
A) ABP2
B) AFP1
C) BGF
D) P1P2BF

15. The price elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of the change in:
A)quantity demanded to a change in price.
B)price to a change in quantity demanded.
C)the slope of the demand curve to a change in price.
D)the slope of the demand curve to a change in quantity demanded.

16. Suppose the price elasticity of demand for cheeseburgers equals 0.37. This means the overall demand for cheeseburgers is:
A)price elastic.
B)price inelastic.
C)price unit-elastic.
D)perfectly price inelastic.

Use the following to answer question 17:

Figure: Consumer Surplus III

17. (Figure Consumer Surplus III) If the price of the good is $2, consumer surplus will equal:
A) $30.
B) $45.
C) $60.
D) $90.

18. Suppose at a price of $10 the quantity demanded is 100. When the price falls to $8, the quantity demanded increases to 130. The price elasticity of demand between the priced of $10 and $8, using the midpoint method, is approximately:
A) 1.17
B) 1.50
C) 0.85
D) 1.00

19. The publisher of an economics textbook finds that when the book’s price is lowered from $70 to $60, sales rise from 10,000 to 15,000. Using the midpoint method, you can calculate that the price elasticity of demand is:
A) 500
B) 50%
C) 3.5
D) 2.6
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20. If total revenue goes down when price falls, the price elasticity of demand is said to be:
A)price-inelastic
B)price unit-elastic
C)price-elastic
D)positive

21. To say that two goods are complements, their cross-price elasticity’s of demand should be:
A)less than 0
B)equal to 0
C)positive, yet almost equal to 0
D)greater than 0

22. A perfectly elastic supply curve is:
A)horizontal
B)downward-sloping
C)upward-sloping
D)vertical

23. The income elasticity of demand of a normal good is:
A)between 1 and 0
B)less than 0
C)equal to 0
D) greater than 0

24. To maximize her grade in economics, Stacey should study until:
A)her marginal cost of studying begins to increase.
B)her marginal benefit of studying begins to decrease.
C)her marginal benefit of studying equals her marginal cost of studying.
D)her marginal cost of studying reaches zero.

25. According to the optimal output rule, if marginal benefit:
A)exceeds marginal cost, an activity should be reduced.
B)is less than marginal cost, an activity should be reduced.
C)is equal to marginal cost, an activity should be reduced.
D)exceeds marginal cost, net benefit is maximized.

26. To maximize total net benefit, consumers and firms evaluate each activity at the:
A)average.
B)top.
C)margin.
D)end.
Use the following to answer question 27:

Figure: Marginal Cost Curve

27. (Figure: Marginal Cost Curve) Using the marginal cost curve in the figure provided, we can determine that the total cost of mowing five lawns is approximately:
A) $68.50
B) $100
C) $50
D) $10
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28. If the marginal benefit received from a good is greater than the marginal cost of production, then:
A)society’s well-being can be improved if production increases.
B)society’s well-being can be improved if production decreases.
C)society’s well-being cannot be improved by changing production.
D)the market is producing too much of the good.

Exam #3

1. The amount by which an additional unit of a good or service increases a consumer’s total utility, all other things unchanged, is:
A) marginal utility
B) maximum utility
C) average utility
D) required utility

2. The principle of diminishing marginal utility means that when Sarah eats pizza, her satisfaction from the second slice of pizza is probably:
A) greater than that from the first.
B) equal to that from the first.
C) less than that from the first.
D) not comparable to that of the first.

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3. Assume that the marginal utilities for the first three units of a good consumed are 200,150, and 125, respectively. The total utility when two units are consumed is:
A) 150
B) 200
C) 350
D) 475

4. Suzy knows she has maximized her utility, because she is on her budget constraint and:
A) consumption of Good X equals consumption of God Y
B) what is sent on Good X equals what is spent on Good Y
C) MUx/Px = MUy/Py
D) MUx = MUy

5. Joesph consumes pizza and soda. He is currently consuming three units of pizza and two units of soda. The price of pizza is $5 and the price of soda is $1. If he is consuming the optimal consumption bundle and his marginal utility of pizza is 50, then his marginal utility of soda is:
A) 50
B) 10
C) 5
D) impossible to determine unless you know Joseph’s income.

6. While at the grocery store, Sidney sees that the price of Grape-Nuts is twice that of Cheerios. If Sidney buys both goods, then Sidney must:
A) get twice as much marginal utility from Grape-Nuts as from Cheerios.
B) get twice as much marginal utility from Cheerios as from Grape-Nuts.
C) not be maximizing her utility.
D) buy twice as much Cheerios.

Use the following to anser questions 7-8:

Figure: Budget Lines for Oranges and Apples

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7. (Figure: Budget Lines for Oranges and Apples) For some time, Sylvester has had $5 per month to spend on oranges and apples. The price of an orange is $0.50 and the price of an apple is $.025. Which of the charts shows what will happen to his budget line if his income decreases to $2.50?
A) Chart A
B) Chart B
C) Chart C
D) Chart D

8. (Figure: Budget Lines for Oranges and Apples) For some time, Sylvester has had $5 per month to spend on oranges and apples. The price of an orange is $0.50 and the price of an apple is $.025. Which of the charts shows what will happen to his budget line if the price of an orange falls to $0.25?
A) Chart A
B) Chart B
C) Chart C
D) Chart D

Use the following to answer questions 9-10:

Table: Total Product and Marginal Product

9. (Table: Total Product and Marginal Product) The marginal product of the second worker is:
A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 30

10. (Table: Total Product and Marginal Product) Negative marginal returns begin when the _______ worker is added.
A) fifth
B) sixth
C) seventh
D) eighth

11. A planning period during which all of a firm’s resources are variable is the:
A) long run
B) fixed run
C) short run
D) nominal run

Use the following to answer question 15:

Figure: Short-Run Costs

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15. (Figure: Short-Run Costs) A is the _______ cost curve.
A) average total
B) average variable
C) marginal
D) total

16. If marginal cost is greater than average total cost, then:
A) average total cost is increasing.
B) average total cost is decreasing.
C) average total cost is unchanged.
D) marginal cost is decreasing.

17. A firm’s marginal cost is:
A) the ratio of the change in fixed cost to the change in the quantity of output.
B) the slope of the total cost curve.
C) the slope of the average variable cost curve.
D) the ratio of the change in total output to the change in the quantity of labor.

18. When an increase in the firm’s output reduces its long-run average total cost, it experiences:
A) economies of scale
B) diseconomies of scale
C) constant returns to scale
D) variable returns to scale

19. In the model of perfect competition:
A) the consumer is at the mercy of powerful firms that can set prices wherever they prefer.
B) individual firms can influence the price, but only slightly.
C) no individual or firm has enough power to have any impact on price.
D) the price is determined by how many years are left in the product’s patent.

Use the following to answer question 20:

Figure: Short-Run Costs

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20. (Figure: Short-Run Costs) At the given price, the most profitable level of output occurs at quantity:
A) N
B) P
C) S
D) T

21. In perfect competition, the assumption of easy entry and exit implies that:
A) in the long run all firms in the industry will earn zero economic profits.
B) in the short run all firms in the industry will earn positive economic profits.
C) in the short run all firms in the industry will earn zero economic profits.
D) in the long run all firms in the industry will earn zero economic profits and in the short run all firms in the industry will earn positive economic profits.

22. If a perfectly competitive firm is producing a quantity that generates P > MC, then profit:
A) is maximized
B) can be decreased by increasing price.
C) can be increased by decreasing price.
D) can be increased by increasing production.

Use the following to answer question 23:

Figure: A Perfectly Competitive Firm in the Short Run

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23. (Figure: A Perfectly Competitive Firm in the Short Run) The firm’s total economic profit at its most profitable level of output is:
A) 0GHB
B) EFJS
C) EGHS
D) FGLK

24. If it produces, a perfectly competitive firm will maximize profits by producing at the quantity at which:
A) marginal revenue equals marginal cost.
B) marginal revenue equals price.
C) price equals average total cost.
D) price exceeds marginal cost.

25. Compared to a perfectly competitive market, a monopolist will produce _______ and change a _______ price.
A) less; higher
B) less; lower
C) more; higher
D) more; lower

Use the following to answer question 26:

Figure: Monopoly Model

26 (Figure: Monopoly Model) The profit maximizing quantity is the one indicated by the distance:
A) W
B) J
C) K
D) L

27. A natural monopoly exists whenever a single firm:
A) is owned and operated by the federal or local government.
B) is invertor-owned but has been granted the exclusive right by the government to operate in a market.
C) experiences economics of scale over the entire range of production that is relevant to its market.
D)has gained control over a strategic input of an important production process.

28. Compared to perfect competition:
A)monopoly produces more at a lower price.
B)monopoly produces where MR > MC and a perfectly competitively firm produces where P = MC.
C)monopoly may have economic profits in the long run, but in perfect competition in the long run economic profits are zero.
D)perfect competition may have zero economic profits in the long run, but in monopoly the long run economic profits are zero.

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Answer these questions in essay format, using the instructions provided in the Assignment Instructions folder. Review the Essay 3 Grading Rubric to see how your essay will be graded.

Each essay must be at least 2 pages—roughly half a page per question. Answer the questions using the concepts from the lessons and reading assignments. You may use any books, notes, or materials, but you must do the work alone. There is no need to retype the questions in your essay, but you should continually refer back to each to ensure that you stay on topic. APA format.

Discuss and contrast extrinsic versus intrinsic motivation. Give an example of each type of motivation from your personal experience.

2. Describe Maslow’s hierarchy of needs. Provide an example of a deficiency need overpowering the need for growth.

3. Attributions can be described in terms of Locus (“place”), temporal stability, and controllability. Give an example of a time you were not able to perform well on a difficult task (a race, a test, etc.). Analyze 2 attributions you made about the situation in terms of locus, stability, and controllability. Explain your answers.
4. List and define the 7 motivational strategies that are listed in the mnemonic TARGETS. Select 3 of these strategies and give an example of how a teacher would incorporate each into classroom practice to motivate s

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My reference page is attached. References need to be listed in alphabetical order.
You will write a Research Paper that will compare Behavioral Learning Theories and Cognitive Learning Theories. You will include a title page, a 150–250-word abstract, an 8-page body, and a reference page. The body will include an introduction, 6 sections, and a conclusion. The paper must be written in current APA format. Current APA Level 1 sub-headings must be used throughout the paper. The 6 main sections of the paper will address the following topics:

1.      Historical Development of Each Theory—For each theory, discuss prominent persons and their corresponding historic research. Include how the theory has been developed over time. Have there been significant changes from its development to what current researchers in the area believe?

2.      Key Concepts of Each Theory—This section will focus on the major points of each theory. How is new information acquired? What are the goals of learning? What is unique about each theory?

3.      Research Support for Each Theory—This section will include a review of 4 peer-reviewed scholarly research articles. The first 2 articles will address research in which Behavior Learning Theory has been applied. The other 2 articles will use Cognitive Learning Theory in the research. Each article must show the effectiveness of the learning theory it addresses.

4.      Educational Implications—This section will discuss the implications for how learning takes place in the classroom. Discuss the benefits and applications of each theory. How would each theory say people learn in a classroom setting? What are the benefits to teaching new information utilizing each theory?

5.      Biblical Worldview—Discuss what the Bible says regarding learning behavior in humans. How would a biblical worldview impact a learner? Include chapter and verse when citing the Bible.

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6.      Most Effective Theory of Learning—Select which theory of learning (Behavioral or Cognitive) you believe is most effective. Substantiate your decision with research support citing journal articles and your textbook.

Reference Requirements

Required sources for this paper include the Bible, your textbook, 4 peer-reviewed journal articles, and at least 2 additional scholarly sources. Remaining sources must address educational implications, historical context, and/or biblical worldview topics related to Behavioral and Cognitive Learning Theories. At least 4 of the sources (the peer-reviewed journal articles) must have been published within the last 10 years. Popular writing and web pages are NOT acceptable sources for this paper. Refer to the provided grading rubric to fully understand the requirements for this assignment.
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Behavioral and Cognitive Learning Theories

Liberty University
Behavioral and Cognitive Learning Theories
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Answer these questions in essay format, using the instructions provided in the Assignment Instructions folder. Review the Essay 2 Grading Rubric to see how your essay will be graded.

**************Make sure to include all labels, as per the instructions.)  Each response should be about a half-page in length*****************************

1.     Think of a class outside of your major. Using the Gestalt principle, “The whole is greater than the sum of the parts,” describe your preconceived perception of the class, 3 details that you now know are different from that initial perception, and your continuing perception in spite of the details.

2.     In church and in other settings, announcements are made that affect you. Label and describe 4 techniques covered in the textbook which the speaker could use to keep your attention.

3.     You have gone through stages of Piaget’s cognitive development, in your professional beliefs and in your theological beliefs. Name and trace the development of any 1 of your beliefs through all 4 stages. Give at least 1 specific characteristic for each stage and use terms from Piaget’s theory. Though you may not remember your cognitive development at every stage, trace what must have happened to you in each stage to allow your current functioning. In relation to this belief, what is the best stage for you to be in now, and why?

4.   Think of classes in your major. Name 3 concepts from Vygotsky’s theory and provide examples of how they could help to boost your zone of proximal development (ZPD) for learning in those classes.

This assignment is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 6.
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NSG6005 Final Exam South University | Complete Solution

An ACE inhibitor and what other class of drug may reduce proteinuria in patients with diabetes better than either drug alone?

A. Beta blockers
B. Diuretics
C. Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers
D. Angiotensin II receptor blockers

Adam has type I diabetes and plays tennis for his university. He exhibits knowledge deficit about his insulin and his diagnosis. He should be taught that:

A. He should increase his increase his carbohydrate intake during times of exercise intake during times of exercise.
B. Each brand of insulin is equal in bioavailability, so buy the least expensive.
C. Alcohol produces hypoglycemia and can help control his diabetes when taken in small amounts.
D. If he does not want to learn to give himself injections, he may substitute an oral hypoglycemic to control his diabetes.
Age is a factor in different responses to pain. Which of the following age-related statements about pain is not true?

A. Preterm and newborn infants do not yet have functional pain pathways.
B. Painful experiences and prolonged exposure to analgesic drugs during pregnancy may permanently alter neuronal organization in the child.
C. Increases in pain threshold in older adults may be related to peripheral neuropathies and changes in skin thickness.
D. Decreases in pain tolerance are evident in older adults.
Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians may lead to:

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A. Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses
B. Faster metabolism of neuroleptics, requiring higher doses
C. Altered metabolism of omeprazole, requiring higher doses
D. Slower metabolism of alcohol, requiring higher doses

Amiodarone has been prescribed in a patient with a supraventricular dysrhythmia. Patient teaching should include all of the following except:

A. Notify your healthcare provider immediately if you have visual change.
B. Monitor your own blood pressure and pulse daily.
C. Take a hot shower or bath if you feel dizzy.
D. Use a sunscreen on exposed body surfaces.
Anticholinergic agents, such as benztropine (Cogentin), may be given with a phenothiazine to:

A. Reduce the chance of tardive dyskinesia.
B. Potentiate the effects of the drug.
C. Reduce the tolerance that tends to occur.
D. Increase CNS depression.
An appropriate drug for the treatment of depression with anxiety would be:

A. Alprazolam (Xanax)
B. Escitalopram (Lexapro)
C. Buspirone (Buspar)
D. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
Cara is taking levetiracetam (Keppra) to treat seizures. Routine education for levetiracetam includes reminding her:

A. To not abruptly discontinue levetiracetam due to the risk of withdrawal seizures
B. To wear a sunscreen due to photosensitivity from levetiracetam
C. To get an annual eye exam while on levetiracetam
D. To report weight loss if it occurs
Cecilia presents with depression associated with complaints of fatigue, sleeping all the time, and lack of motivation. An appropriate initial antidepressant for her would be:

A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
B. Paroxetine (Paxil)
C. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
Chemical dependency assessment is integral to the initial assessment of chronic pain. Which of the following raises a “red flag” about potential chemical dependency?

A. Use of more than one drug to treat the pain
B. Multiple times when prescriptions are lost with requests to refill
C. Preferences for treatments that include alternative medicines
D. Presence of a family member who has abused drugs
Common mistakes practitioners make in treating anxiety disorders include:

A. Switching medications after an eight-week trial to a twelve-week trial
B. Maximizing dosing of antianxiety medications
C. Encouraging exercise and relaxation therapy before starting medication
D. Thinking a partial response to medication is acceptable
David presents to clinic with symptoms of allergic conjunctivitis. He is prescribed cromolyn sodium (Opticrom) eyedrops. The education regarding using cromolyn eyedrops includes which one of the following tips?
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A. He should not wear his soft contacts while using the cromolyn eyedrops.
B. Cromolyn drops are instilled once a day to prevent allergy symptoms.
C. Long-term use of the eyedrop may cause glaucoma.
D. He may experience bradycardia as an adverse effect.
The DEA:

A. Registers manufacturers and prescribes controlled substances
B. Regulates NP prescribing at the state level
C. Sanctions providers who prescribe drugs off-label
D. Provides prescribers with a number they can use for insurance billing
Diagnostic criteria for diabetes include:

A. Fasting blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl on two occasions
B. Postprandial blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl
C. Fasting blood glucose 100 to 125 mg/dl on two occasions
D. Symptoms of diabetes plus a casual blood glucose greater than 200 mg/dl
Disease states in addition to hypertension in which beta blockade is a compelling indication for the use of beta blockers include:

A. Heart failure
B. Angina
C. MI
D. Dyslipidemia
The drug of choice for type II diabetics is metformin. Metformin:

A. Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver
B. Increases the release of insulin from beta cells
C. Increases intestinal uptake of glucose
D. Prevents weight gain associated with hyperglycemia
The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in men over seventy years is:

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A. Alendronate (Fosamax)
B. Ibandronate (Boniva)
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Raloxifene (Evista)

The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in women over seventy years old is:

A. Alendronate (Fosamax)
B. Ibandronate (Boniva)
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Raloxifene (Evista)
The drugs recommended by the American Academy of Pediatrics for use in children with diabetes (depending upon type of diabetes) are:

A. Metformin and insulin
B. Sulfonylureas and insulin glargine
C. Split-mixed dose insulin and GLP-1 agonists
D. Biguanides and insulin lispro
Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect:

A. Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only
B. Bypass the hepatic circulation
C. Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action
D. Are converted by the liver to more active and fat-soluble forms
Dwayne has classic tinea capitis. Treatment for tinea on the scalp is:

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A. Rubbing in miconazole cream well for four weeks
B. Intake of oral griseofulvin for six to eight weeks
C. Shampooing with ketoconazole shampoo daily for six weeks
D. Using ciclopirox cream daily for four weeks
Dwayne was recently started on carbamazepine to treat seizures. He comes to see you, and you note that while his carbamazepine levels had been in the therapeutic range, they are now low. The possible cause for the low carbamazepine levels is:

A. Dwayne hasn’t been taking his carbamazepine because it causes insomnia.
B. Carbamazepine auto-induces metabolism, leading to lower levels in spite of good compliance.
C. Dwayne was not originally prescribed the correct amount of carbamazepine.
D. Carbamazepine is probably not the right antiseizure medication for Dwayne.
Erik presents with a golden-crusted lesion at the site of an insect bite consistent with impetigo. His parents have limited finances and request the least expensive treatment. Which medication would be the best choice for treatment?

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A. Mupirocin (Bactroban)
B. Bacitracin and polymixin B (generic double antibiotic ointment)
C. Retapamulin (Altabax)
D. Oral cephalexin (Keflex)
First-line therapy for hyperlipidemia is:

A. Statins
B. Niacin
C. Lifestyle changes
D. Bile acid-binding resins
First-line therapy for treating topical fungal infections such as tinea corporis (ringworm) or tinea pedis (athlete’s foot) would be:

A. OTC topical azole (clotrimazole, miconazole)
B. Oral terbinafine
C. Oral griseofulvin microsize
D. Nystatin cream or ointment
Furosemide is added to a treatment regimen for heart failure, which includes digoxin. Monitoring for this combination includes:

A. Hemoglobin
B. Serum potassium
C. Blood urea nitrogen
D. Serum glucose
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Genetic polymorphisms account for differences in metabolism, including:

A. Poor metabolizers (PMs) that lack a working enzyme
B. Intermediate metabolizers (IMs) that have one working, wild-type allele and one mutant allele
C. Extensive metabolizers (EMs), with two normally functioning alleles
D. All of the above
Genetic testing for VCORC1 mutation to assess potential warfarin resistance is required prior to prescribing warfarin.

A. True
B. False
Goals of treatment when treating hypothyroidism with thyroid replacement include:

A. Normal TSH and free T4 levels
B. Resolution of fatigue
C. Weight loss to baseline
D. All of the above

Heart failure is a chronic condition that can be adequately managed in primary care. However, consultation with or referral to a cardiologist is appropriate when:

A. Symptoms markedly worsen or the patient becomes hypotensive and has syncope.
B. There is evidence of progressive renal insufficiency or failure.
C. The patient remains symptomatic on optimal doses of an ACE inhibitor, a beta blocker, and a diuretic.
D. All the above options are correct.
Hypoglycemia can result from the action of either insulin or an oral hypoglycemic. Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:

A. “Fruity” breath odor and rapid respiration
B. Diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, and hypertension
C. Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia
D. Easy bruising, palpitations, cardiac dysrhythmias, and coma
If a patient with H. pylori positive PUD fails first-line therapy, the second-line treatment is:

A. A PPI BID plus metronidazole plus tetracycline plus bismuth subsalicylate for fourteen days
B. Testing H. pylori for resistance to common treatment regimens
C. A PPI plus clarithromycin plus amoxicillin for fourteen days
D. A PPI and levofloxacin for fourteen days
In addition to methimazole, a symptomatic patient with hyperthyroidism may need a prescription for:

A. A calcium channel blocker
B. A beta blocker
C. Liothyronine
D. An alpha blocker
Inadequate vitamin D intake can contribute to the development of osteoporosis by:

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A. Increasing calcitonin production
B. Increasing calcium absorption from the intestine
C. Altering calcium metabolism
D. Stimulating bone formation
Incorporating IT into a patient encounter takes skill and tact. During the encounter, the provider can make the patient more comfortable with the IT the provider is using by:

A. Turning the screen around so the patient can see material being recorded
B. Not placing the computer screen between the provider and the patient
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Infants with reflux are initially treated with:

A. Histamine 2 receptor antagonist (ranitidine)
B. A PPI (omeprazole)
C. Antireflux maneuvers (elevate the head of the bed)
D. Prokinetic (metoclopramide)
In five- to eleven-year-old children, mild-persistent asthma is diagnosed when asthma symptoms occur:

A. At nighttime one to two times a month
B. At nighttime three to four times a month
C. Less than twice a week
D. Daily
Jack, eight years old, has attention deficit disorder (ADD) and is prescribed methylphenidate (Ritalin). He and his parents should be educated about the side effects of methylphenidate, which are:

A. Slurred speech and insomnia
B. Bradycardia and confusion
C. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension
D. Insomnia and decreased appetite
Janie presents to clinic with hard ear wax in both ear canals. Instructions regarding home removal of hard cerumen includes:

A. Moistening a cotton swab (Q-tip) and swabbing the ear canals twice daily
B. Instilling tap water in both ears while bathing
C. Squirting hydrogen peroxide into ears with each bath
D. Instilling carbamide peroxide (Debrox) twice daily until the ear canals are clear
Jim presents with complaints of “heart burn” that is minimally relieved with Tums (calcium carbonate) and is diagnosed with GERD. An appropriate first step therapy would be:

A. Omeprazole (Prilosec) twice a day
B. Ranitidine (Zantac) twice a day
C. Famotidine (Pepcid) once a day
D. Metoclopramide (Reglan) four times a day
Jim presents with fungal infection of two of his toenails (onychomycosis). Treatment for fungal infections of the nail includes:

A. Miconazole cream
B. Ketoconazole cream
C. Oral griseofulvin
D. Mupirocin cream
Josie is a five-year-old who presents to the clinic with a forty-eight-hour history of nausea, vomiting, and some diarrhea. She is unable to keep fluids down, and her weight is 4 pounds less than her last recorded weight. Besides intravenous (IV) fluids, her exam warrants the use of an antinausea medication. Which of the following would be the appropriate drug to order for Josie?
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A. Prochlorperazine (Compazine)
B. Meclizine (Antivert)
C. Promethazine (Phenergan)
D. Ondansetron (Zofran)

Kirk sprained his ankle and is asking for pain medication for his mild-to-moderate pain. The appropriate first-line medication would be __________.

A. ibuprofen (Advil)
B. acetaminophen with hydrocodone (Vicodin)
C. oxycodone (OxyContin)
D. oral morphine (Roxanol)

Liza is breastfeeding her two-month-old son, and she has an infection that requires an antibiotic. What drug factors influence the effect of the drug on the infant?

A. Maternal drug levels
B. Half-life
C. Lipid solubility
D. All of the above
Long-acting beta-agonists received a black box warning from the US Food and Drug Administration due to the:

A. Risk of life-threatening dermatological reactions
B. Increased incidence of cardiac events when long-acting beta-agonists are used
C. Increased risk of asthma-related deaths when long-acting beta-agonists are used
D. Risk for life-threatening alterations in electrolytes
Long-term treatment of moderate atopic dermatitis includes:

A. Topical corticosteroids and emollients
B. Topical corticosteroids alone
C. Topical antipruritics
D. Oral corticosteroids for exacerbations of atopic dermatitis
Medications used in the management of patients with COPD include:

A. Inhaled beta 2 agonists
B. Inhaled anticholinergics (ipratropium)
C. Inhaled corticosteroids
D. All of the above
Monitoring for a child on methylphenidate for ADHD includes:

A. ADHD symptoms
B. Routine height and weight checks
C. Amount of methylphenidate being used
D. All of the above
Narcotics are exogenous opiates. They act by ______.

A. inhibiting pain transmission in the spinal cord
B. attaching to receptors in the afferent neuron to inhibit the release of substance P
C. blocking neurotransmitters in the midbrain
D. increasing beta-lipoprotein excretion from the pituitary
A nineteen-year-old male was started on risperidone. Monitoring for risperidone includes observing for common side effects, including:

A. Bradykinesia, akathisia, and agitation
B. Excessive weight gain
C. Hypertension
D. Potentially fatal agranulocytosis
Nonadherence is especially common in drugs that treat asymptomatic conditions, such as hypertension. One way to reduce the likelihood of nonadherence to these drugs is to prescribe a drug that:
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A. Has a short half-life so that missing one dose has limited effect
B. Requires several dosage titrations so that missed doses can be replaced with lower doses to keep costs down
C. Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness
D. Must be taken no more than twice a day
Off-Label prescribing is:

A. Regulated by the FDA
B. Illegal by NPs in all states (provinces)
C. Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use
D. Regulated by the DEA
One goal of asthma management in children is:

A. They should independently manage their asthma.
B. They should participate in school and sports activities.
C. There should be no exacerbations.
D. The use of inhaled corticosteroids should be minimal.
The ongoing monitoring of patients over the age sixty-five years taking alendronate (Fosamax) or any other bisphosphonate is:

A. Annual dual energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scans
B. Annual vitamin D level
C. Annual renal function evaluation
D. Electrolytes every three month
A patient has been prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) cream to treat burns on his or her leg. Normal adverse effects of silver sulfadiazine cream include:

A. Transient leukopenia on days two to four that should resolve
B. Worsening of burn symptoms briefly before resolution
C. A red, scaly rash that will resolve with continued use
D. Hypercalcemia
Patients who are on or who will be starting chronic corticosteroid therapy need monitoring of __________.

A. serum glucose
B. stool culture
C. folate levels
D. vitamin B12
Patients who have angina, regardless of class, who are also diabetic should be on:

A. Nitrates
B. Beta blockers
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Calcium channel blockers
Patients with psychiatric illnesses have adherence rates to their drug regimen between 35% and 60%. To improve adherence in this population, prescribe drugs:
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A. With a longer half-life so that missed doses produce a longer taper on the drug curve
B. In oral formulations that are more easily taken
C. That do not require frequent monitoring
D. Combined with patient education about the need to adhere even when symptoms are absent
A patient with a COPD exacerbation may require:

A. Doubling of inhaled corticosteroid dose
B. Systemic corticosteroid burst
C. Continuous inhaled beta 2 agonists
D. Leukotriene therapy
Pharmacokinetics among Asians are universal to all the Asian ethnic groups.

A. True
B. False
A potentially life-threatening adverse response to ACE inhibitors is angioedema. Which of the following statements is true about this adverse response?

A. Swelling of the tongue and hoarseness are the most common symptoms.
B. It appears to be related to a decrease in aldosterone production.
C. The presence of a dry, hacky cough indicates a high risk for this adverse response.
D. Because it takes time to build up a blood level, it occurs after being on the drug for about one week.
Prescribing for women during their childbearing years requires constant awareness of the possibility of:

A. Pregnancy unless the women is on birth control
B. Risk for silent bacterial or viral infections of the genitalia
C. High risk for developmental disorders in their infants
D. Decreased risk for abuse during this time
Prior to prescribing metformin, the provider should:

A. Draw a serum creatinine to assess renal function.
B. Try the patient on insulin.
C. Tell the patient to increase iodine intake.
D. Have the patient stop taking any sulfonylurea to avoid dangerous drug interactions.
Progesterone-only pills are recommended for women who:

A. Are breastfeeding
B. Have a history of migraine
C. Have a medical history that contradicts the use of estrogen
D. All of the above
Sadie is a seventy-two-year-old who takes omeprazole for her chronic GERD. Chronic long-term omeprazole use places her at increased risk for:

A Megaloblastic anemia
B. Osteoporosis
C. Hypertension
D. Strokes
Sarah, a forty-two-year-old female, requests a prescription for an anorexiant to treat her obesity. A trial of phentermine is prescribed. Prescribing precautions include understanding that:

A. Obesity is a contraindication to prescribing phentermine.
B. Anorexiants may cause tolerance and should only be prescribed for six months.
C. Patients should be monitored for postural hypotension.
D. Renal function should be monitored closely while the patient is on anorexiants.
Scott is presenting for follow-up on his lipid panel. He had elevated total cholesterol, elevated triglycerides, and an LDL of 122 mg/dL. He has already implemented diet changes and increased physical activity. He has mildly elevated liver studies. An appropriate next step for therapy would be:

A. Atorvastatin (Lipitor)
B. Niacin (Niaspan)
C. Simvastatin and ezetimibe (Vytorin)
D. Gemfibrozil (Lopid)
Second-generation antihistamines such as loratadine (Claritin) are prescribed for seasonal allergies because they:

A. Are more effective than first-generation antihistamines
B. Are less sedating than first-generation antihistamines
C. Are prescription products and, therefore, are covered by insurance
D. Can be taken with CNS sedatives, such as alcohol
Severe contact dermatitis caused by poison ivy or poison oak exposure often requires treatment with:

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A. Topical antipruritics
B. Oral corticosteroids for two to three weeks
C. Thickly applied topical intermediate-dose corticosteroids
D. Isolation of the patient to prevent spread of the dermatitis
Sitagliptin has been approved for:

A. Monotherapy in once-daily doses
B. Combination therapy with metformin
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
A sixty-six-year-old male was prescribed phenelzine (Nardil) while in an acute psychiatric unit for recalcitrant depression. The nurse practitioner managing his primary healthcare needs to understand the following regarding phenelzine and other monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs):

A. He should not be prescribed any serotonergic drug such as sumatriptan (Imitrex).
B. MAOIs interact with many common foods, including yogurt, sour cream, and soy sauce.
C. Symptoms of hypertensive crisis (headache, tachycardia, sweating, etc.) require immediate treatment.
D. All the above options are correct.

Six-year-old Lucy has recently been started on ethosuximide (Zarontin) for seizures. She should be monitored for:

A. Increased seizure activity as this drug may auto-induce seizures
B. Altered renal function, including renal failure
C. Blood dyscrasias, which are uncommon but possible
D. CNS excitement, leading to insomnia

Stage C patients usually require a combination of three to four drugs to manage their heart failure. In addition to ACE inhibitors and beta blockers, diuretics may be added. Which of the following statements about diuretics is not true?

A. Diuretics reduce preload associated with fluid retention.
B. Diuretics can be used earlier than Stage C when the goal is control of hypertension.
C. Diuretics may produce problems with electrolyte imbalances and abnormal glucose and lipid metabolism.
D. Diuretics from the potassium-sparing class should be used when using an ARB.
A stepwise approach to the pharmacologic management of asthma:

A. Begins with determining the severity of the asthma and assessing asthma control
B. Is used when the asthma is severe and requires daily steroids
C. Allows for each provider to determine his or her personal approach to the care of asthmatic patients
D. Provides a framework for the management of severe asthmatics but is not as helpful when patients have intermittent asthma
Studies have shown that control targets that reduce the hemoglobin A1c to less than 7% are associated with fewer long-term complications of diabetes. Patients who should have such a target include:

A. Those with long-standing diabetes
B. Older adults
C. Those with no significant cardiovascular disease
D. Young children who are early in their disease
Tiotropium bromide (Spiriva) is an inhaled anticholinergic:

A. Used for the treatment of COPD
B. Used in the treatment of asthma
C. Combined with albuterol for the treatment of asthma exacerbations
D. Combined with fluticasone for the treatment of persistent asthma
To reduce mortality, all patients with angina, regardless of class, should be on:

A. Aspirin 81 to 325 mg/d
B. Nitroglycerin sublingually for chest pain
C. ACE inhibitors or ARBs
D. Digoxin
The treatment for vitamin B12 deficiency is:

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A. 1,000 mcg daily of oral cobalamin
B. 2 gm/day of oral cobalamin
C. 100 mcg/day vitamin B12 IM
D. 500 mcg/dose nasal cyanocobalamin two sprays once a week
Treatment of a patient with hypothyroidism and cardiovascular disease consists of:

A. Levothyroxine
B. Liothyronine
C. Liotrix
D. Methimazole
The trial period to determine effective anti-inflammatory activity when starting a patient on aspirin for RA is _____.

A. forty-eight hours
B. four to six days
C. four weeks
D. two months
A twenty-four-year-old male received multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident that required significant amounts of opioid medication to treat his pain. He is at risk for Type __ ADR when he no longer requires the opioids.

A. A
B. C
C. E
D. G

The type of ADR that is the result of an unwanted but otherwise normal pharmacological action of a drug given in the usual therapeutic doses is:

A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Type D
Unlike most type II diabetics where obesity is a major issue, older adults with low body weight have higher risks for morbidity and mortality. The most reliable indicator of poor nutritional status in older adults is:

A. Weight loss in previously overweight persons
B. Involuntary loss of 10% of body weight in less than six months
C. Decline in lean body mass over a twelve-month period
D. Increase in central versus peripheral body adiposity
Vicky, age fifty-six years, comes to clinic requesting a refill of her Fiorinal (aspirin and butalbital) that she takes for migraines. She has been taking this medication for over two years for migraine and states one dose usually works to abort her migraine. What is the best care for her?

A. Switch her to sumatriptan (Imitrex) to treat her migraines.
B. Assess how often she is using Fiorinal and refill medication.
C. Switch her to a beta-blocker such as propranolol to prevent her migraine.
D. Request her to return to the original prescriber of Fiorinal as you do not prescribe butalbital for migraines
Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with VCORC1 mutation, leading to:

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A. Toxic levels of warfarin building up
B. Decreased response to warfarin
C. Increased risk for significant drug interactions with warfarin
D. Less risk of drug interactions with warfarin
What impact does developmental variation in renal function has on prescribing for infants and children?

A. Lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than six months
B. Higher doses of water-soluble drugs may need to be prescribed due to increased renal excretion
C. Renal excretion rates have no impact on prescribing
D. Parents need to be instructed on whether drugs are renally excreted or not
When a patient is on selective-serotonin reuptake inhibitors:

A. The complete blood count must be monitored every three to four months
B. Therapeutic blood levels must be monitored every six months after a steady state is achieved.
C. Blood glucose must be monitored every three to four months.
D. There is no laboratory monitoring required.
When obtaining a drug history from Harold, he gives you a complete list of his prescription medications. He denies taking any other drugs, but you find that he occasionally takes aspirin for his arthritis flare-ups. This is an example of:

A. His appropriately only telling you about his regularly prescribed medications
B. His hiding information regarding his inappropriate use of aspirin from you
C. A common misconception that intermittently taken OTC medications are not an important part of his drug history
D. A common misuse of OTC aspirin
When prescribing any headache therapy, appropriate use of medications needs to be discussed to prevent medication-overuse headaches. The clinical characteristics of medication-overuse headaches include ________.

A. headaches increasing in frequency
B. headaches increasing in intensity
C. headaches recurring when medication wears off
D. headaches beginning to “cluster” into a pattern
When Sam used clotrimazole (Lotrimin AF) for athlete’s foot, he developed a red, itchy rash consistent with a hypersensitivity reaction. He now has athlete’s foot again. What would be a good choice of antifungal for Sam?

A. Miconazole (Micatin) powder
B. Ketoconazole (Nizoral) cream
C. Terbinafine (Lamisil) cream
D. Griseofulvin (Grifulvin V) suspension
When starting a patient with hypothyroidism on thyroid replacement hormones, patient education would include the following:

A. He or she should feel symptomatic improvement in one to two weeks.
B. Drug-related adverse effects such as lethargy and dry skin may occur.
C. It may take four to eight weeks to get to euthyroid symptomatically and by lab testing.
D. Due to the short half-life of levothyroxine, its doses should not be missed.
Which of the following adverse effects may occur due to a dihydropyridine-type calcium channel blocker?

A. Bradycardia
B. Hepatic impairment
C. Increased contractility
D. Edema of the hands and feet
Which of the following classes of drugs is contraindicated in heart failure?

A. Nitrates
B. Long-acting dihydropyridines
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Alpha-beta blockers
Which of the following disease processes could be made worse by taking a nonselective beta blocker?

A. Asthma might worsen.
B. Diabetes might worsen.
C. Both might worsen.
D. Beta blockade does not affect these disorders.
Which of the following factors may adversely affect a patient’s adherence to a therapeutic drug regimen?

A. Complexity of the drug regimen
B. Patient’s perception of the potential adverse effects of the drugs
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Which of the following is the goal of treatment of acute pain?

A. Pain at a tolerable level where patient may return to activities of daily living
B. Reduction of pain with a minimum of drug adverse effects
C. Reduction or elimination of pain with minimum adverse reactions
D. Adequate pain relief without constipation or nausea from the drugs
Which of the following is the mechanism of action of oral combined contraceptives that prevent pregnancy?

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A. Estrogen prevents the LH surge necessary for ovulation.
B. Progestins thicken cervical mucous and slow tubal motility.
C. Estrogen thins the endometrium, making implantation difficult.
D. Progestin suppresses FSH release.
Which of the following statements is true about age and pain?

A. Use of drugs that depend heavily on the renal system for excretion may require dosage adjustments in very young children.
B. Among the NSAIDs, indomethacin is the preferred drug because of lower adverse effects profiles than other NSAIDs.
C. Older adults who have dementia probably do not experience much pain due to loss of pain receptors in the brain.
D. Acetaminophen is especially useful in both children and adults because it has no effect on platelets and has fewer adverse effects than NSAIDs.

A woman who has migraine with aura:

A. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to the interaction between triptans and estrogen, limiting migraine therapy choices
B. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased incidence of migraines with the use of estrogen
C. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased risk of stroke occurring with estrogen use
D. May be prescribed estrogen without any concerns
A woman with an intact uterus should not be prescribed:

A. Estrogen/progesterone combination
B. Intramuscular (IM) medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera)
C. Estrogen alone
D. Androgens
Question 22: Education

W3 Lab Prohibited Use
Overview:

You are the Information Security Officer of Mahtmarg Manufacturing a small manufacturing company worth approximately $5 Million who provides fiber

W3 Lab: “Prohibited Use”
Overview:

You are the Information Security Officer of Mahtmarg Manufacturing a small manufacturing company worth approximately $5 Million who provides fiber cable to local businesses, individual customers and to government organizations. In the course of the next eight weeks you will be creating your Information Security Plan (Issue-Specific Security Policy in Table 4-3 of the textbook) step by step using this scenario.
Your Task

Step 3: Develop the Prohibited Use section of your ISP
In this week’s Lab you will develop the section on Prohibited Use of your company’s information system (IS) in the Information Security Plan to include:
Prohibition of illegal conduct
System and Network Activity restrictions
Copyright infringement
Proprietary information disclosure
Unauthorized use for personal business
Malicious programs
Account disclosure
Email and Communication Activity restrictions
Unsolicited emails
Harassment
Chain letters
Spam
Blogging and Social Media Activity restrictions
Representation of the company on blogs or social media
Separation of personal and professional comments

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Assignment: Course Project: Assessment of Diversity Proficiencies
The Assignment for this module is an assessment of your diversity proficiencies. As local, state, national, and global communities continue to reflect increasing diversity, it is essential for effective leaders of learning to routinely assure active and effective responsiveness to the diverse needs represented. In the context of this course, active and effective responsiveness often takes the form of individuals pursuing constructive action to change ideas and attitudes through leadership, advocacy, policy, and law. To assist you in this process, your Walden University program has included diversity proficiencies to guide your development. For this Course Project, you must successfully demonstrate personal development and connection of your learning in this course about leadership, advocacy, policy, and law to each of the Walden Diversity Proficiencies, as well as the Council for Exceptional Children (CEC)’s Advanced Role Content Standards 1a, 1b, and 5a.
To prepare:
·         Review all Learning Resources for this module.
·         Review the Assessment of Diversity Proficiencies Guidelines.
·         Ask yourself the following: How have the concepts, resources, and activities of this course influenced my learning so that I might support the creation of educational opportunities that adapt to diverse learners and remove barriers that inhibit learning for students with diverse learning needs?
·         Think about examples from your educational and professional experiences that you can use to demonstrate your knowledge of the key diversity proficiencies. How might those experiences support the fact that you are a leader and advocate who is able to create educational opportunities that are adapted to diverse learners and that remove barriers that inhibit learning?
The components of your Module 6 Assignment are as follows: however, review the “Assessment of Diversity Proficiencies Guidelines” document in the Learning Resources for more details.
Section 1: Introduction (2–3 pages)
Interpret how EACH of the following course concepts support the creation of educational opportunities that are adapted to diverse learners and remove barriers that inhibit learning:
·         Leadership
·         Advocacy
·         Policy
·         Law
Section 2: Diversity Professional Development (9–12 slides plus title and reference slides inserted into the final paper)
Create a professional development presentation to inform the staff in your school building or district regarding how to meet the needs of learners from diverse backgrounds.
Using evidence based practices and course resources, create a PowerPoint presentation (a minimum of 3 or 4 slides on each topic) to inform your staff of ways to better meet the needs of diverse students. At least one of your slides must discuss technology. Your professional development should specifically address each of the three following Walden Diversity Proficiencies:
Understanding the Learner
Learning Environment
Planning, Instruction, and Assessment

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Section 3: Diversity Self-Reflection (3–4 pages)
Write a self-reflection paper that addresses the final two Walden Diversity Dispositions:
·         Awareness of Self
·         Professional Practice
Also, reference the Council for Exceptional Children (CEC) Standards, what you learned from the working with the Case Study of Jamal from the Grand City Community (West Ridge Middle School) , and Walden’s Mission and Vision Statement to help support your reflection.
·         Reflection Component 1: Using the bulleted points on Walden’s Diversity Proficiencies, personally reflect on your knowledge and skills for the “Awareness of Self” and “Professional Practice” indicators. Cite at least one relevant, research-based reading or media element to support this component.
·         Reflection Component 2: Connect your personal reflection, to course content, including the Case Study, CEC standards, and Walden’s mission for Social Change. Cite at least one relevant, research-based reading or media element to support each of these components.
Your final document must include the following:
·         Title Page
·         Section1: 2–3 pages
·         Section 2: 3–4 pages
·         Reference pages
Note: For this Assignment and all scholarly writing in this course and throughout your program, you will be required to use APA style (6th edition). Please use the Walden Writing Center as a resource as you complete assignments.
Required Readings
Council for Exceptional Children. (2012). CEC special education specialist advanced preparation standards. Retrieved from https://www.cec.sped.org/~/media/Files/Standards/Professional%20Preparation%20Standards/Advanced%20Preparation%20Standards%20with%20Elaborations.pdf
DeMatthews, D. (2014). Deconstructing systems of segregation: Leadership challenges in an urban school. Journal of Cases in Educational Leadership, 17(1), 17–31
Retrieved from the Walden Library databases.
This article gives a case study of a principal in an urban school who was charged with a directive to raise test scores and increase inclusion in a building with a history of segregation.
Document: Assessment of Diversity Proficiencies Guidelines (PDF)
Document: SMART Goals Graphic (PDF)
Document: Walden Diversity Proficiencies (PDF)
Document: Walden Professional Dispositions (PDF)
Walden University (2015). Social change. Retrieved from http://www.waldenu.edu/about/social-change
Media
Grand City Community
·         Laureate Education (Producer). (2012b). The teacher’s lounge [Video file]. Baltimore, MD: Author.
Go to the Grand City Community and click into West Ridge Middle School. Review the following scenario: The Teacher’s Lounge.

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Question 24: Health Care

Walden University NURSING 6650 final exam
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
In a group therapy session for adolescents, a 15-year-old patient says he has trouble making conversation with people he does not know well. Based on the principle of development of socializing techniques, what explicit approach might the PMHNP take?
·         Question 2
1 out of 1 points
One group member is identified by the PMHNP as the monopolist of the group. Which behavior does the PMHNP believe this member is most likely to display?
·         Question 3
1 out of 1 points
During a first group therapy session, a member is outgoing and participates actively. Based on this information, what is an appropriate prediction about this group member by the PMHNP?
·         Question 4
1 out of 1 points
A 21-year-old client with narcissistic traits is noted to continuously disrupt the group by speaking while others are speaking. It becomes evident that the client is purposely disrupting the group and decreasing the group’s productivity. What does the PMHNP identify as a cause of the client’s behavior?
·         Question 5
1 out of 1 points
Harold Wyman is a 74-year-old man who is trying to mend a relationship with his adult daughter. Based on his intake assessment, the PMHNP believes that the father has depression. The daughter and Harold meet with the PMNHP, and the daughter explains that her father always appears mopey and withdrawn and refuses to do anything about it. When asked, the father reports feeling sad all the time. Which action will the PMNHP employ with Harold using the interpersonal psychotherapy approach throughout the various sessions?
·         Question 6
1 out of 1 points
A PMHNP is leading a group therapy session for patients with substance abuse problems. After a productive session in which all members participated, the following week was not as productive. In order to help the group members assume responsibility for evaluating the meeting, what is an appropriate comment for the PMHNP to make?
·         Question 7
1 out of 1 points
During the “mid-group debrief” the clinical supervisor focused on the following areas with the two counselors except:
·         Question 8
1 out of 1 points
The social microcosm theory is a theory that relates to group composition. In accordance with this theory, the PMHNP is aware that the group must consist of which of the following?
·         Question 9
0 out of 1 points
Peter, a successful businessman, is introduced to the group during the twelfth week. Following Peter’s introduction, Joseph, a long-term member in the group, begins to lead the group and discuss all of the things that he has personally accomplished. In what way does the PMHNP correctly interpret Joseph’s behavior?
·         Question 10
0 out of 1 points
The PMHNP conducts a specialized individual interview with a patient named Sandy. During this interview, Sandy expresses her want of the other members to like her, and she has a deep dread for the first group meeting. How does the PMHNP correctly interpret Sandy’s interpersonal circumplex?
·         Question 11
1 out of 1 points
When discussing the role of the consultant in the parenting group session, Dr. Carlson explains that the consultant should use several skills in order to help keep the group going and should enable group members to become very engaged with one another. The consultant should use all of the following skills to achieve this, except:
·         Question 12
1 out of 1 points
A PMHNP is meeting with parents and their 10-year-old child. The child is having trouble paying attention at school and has been getting easily frustrated at home when doing homework, which often results in everyone arguing. What step might the PMHNP take as part of a family-centered, solution-oriented approach?
·         Question 13
0 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is meeting with an adult woman and her father, who is 85 years old. The father stays quiet most of the session. The daughter explains he is mad at her for “bringing him to a see a shrink.” The daughter reports that things have been tense in the house since her father moved in. The father has a history of depression, though he does not take any medication for it. In addition, lately the father seems to never sleep. “I hear him rummaging around in the kitchen, the garage, the living room, at all hours of the night. Sometimes he’ll nap during the day, but not much. This is putting a strain on my marriage, because my husband can’t sleep with all of this going on.” Which therapeutic approach does the PMHNP identify as most appropriate for the 85-year-old father?
·         Question 14
1 out of 1 points
During an initial meeting, a PMHNP spends time speaking with a patient who suffers from social anxiety. The therapist finds the patient extremely loud and overbearing. The PMHNP’s negative feelings continue no matter how hard he or she tries to feel differently toward the patient. What is the most appropriate next step by the PMHNP?
·         Question 15
1 out of 1 points
A patient has had a problem with substance use and has been receiving treatment for addiction. Which additional step might the PMHMP suggest to help the patient maintain abstinence from drugs during and after treatment?
Selected Answer:

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A.
Narcotics Anonymous
·         Question 16
0 out of 1 points
The leader begins a group meeting by doing the “names activity.” At the completion of the activity, the leader explains that the activity is useful for all of the following reasons, except:
·         Question 17
1 out of 1 points
A 36-year-old client attends group therapy regularly but is consistently tardy. The client explains that job and family obligations interfere with attendance to the group. What is the most appropriate intervention by the PMHNP?
·         Question 18
0 out of 1 points
Group participation is an important aspect of how successful group therapy will be. The PMHNP recognizes that the gender of group participants can play a role in the likelihood of group participation. Which statement about gender and group composition does the PMHNP take into account?
·         Question 19
0 out of 1 points
When the counselor discussed assertiveness with the group members, she began the session by providing definitions and asking group members to line up consistent with where they feel they are currently in terms of assertiveness. Why did she do this?
Selected Answer:
A.
To encourage individuals to adjust where they are in terms of assertiveness by having less assertive people change their spot in line
·         Question 20
1 out of 1 points
A patient in group therapy named Ted shares personal information for the first time. He seems nervous but continues to talk. How might the PMHNP use nonverbal positive reinforcement to support Ted’s feeling more comfortable?
Selected Answer:
C.
Leaning forward and nodding as Ted shares his story
·         Question 21
1 out of 1 points
Members of a therapy group have been meeting for several months. During group therapy, a patient is bossy and controlling. During this week’s session, she is confronted by another group member about her behavior and replies, “This is not how I normally act. You are not my family and friends. I don’t act the same way around them.” What can the PMHNP deduce from her behavior?
Selected Answer:
B.
She is displaying her true interpersonal behavior.
·         Question 22
1 out of 1 points
A PNHNP is holding a group therapy session for a father and his 10-year-old son, whom the father explains has been acting out lately. The son says, “He is always telling me what to do and never listens when I have an idea.” Which solution would the PMHNP most likely suggest as an approach to the problem?
·         Question 23
0 out of 1 points
A PMHNP is treating a patient in individual therapy and thinks the patient may be a good candidate for group therapy. The patient is motivated to start group therapy, which meets twice a month. Then the patient adds, “I can come to the first two meetings, but then will be away on business for at least a month, maybe longer. But then I can come to the at least one meeting before my next trip.” Based on this information, what is the most likely recommendation by the PMHNP?
·         Question 24
1 out of 1 points
Members of a therapy group have been meeting for several weeks. While a member named Margaret is talking about how her spouse ignores her when she tries to tell him what to do, another member named Nicole interrupts and says, “Maybe he thinks you are being bossy.” Margaret replies by saying, “At least I’m not an alcoholic like you are!” What is an appropriate response by the PMHNP?
·         Question 25
1 out of 1 points
A 9-year-old child who witnessed a fatal car accident has come to therapy with her parents to get treatment. The child has been irritable since the event and has not wanted to talk about it. Utilizing a trauma-focused cognitive behavior therapy (TF-CBT) approach, the PMHNP has reviewed skills that the parents may use to help their child at home. Based on the PMHNP’s suggestion, which is a statement the parents might make after the child has a temper tantrum?
·         Question 26
0 out of 1 points
During the first group meeting, a client states, “I am here because I am very shy. I don’t mesh well with others and I rarely get invitations to go anywhere.” Which statement about the client’s reason for seeking help and treatment best applies?
·         Question 27
1 out of 1 points
A client is observed discussing many problems and complaints during group therapy. However, when other group members attempt to offer advice, the client does not accept it. Based on this observation, what can the PMHNP determine about the client?
·         Question 28
1 out of 1 points
During a group therapy session, a member comments that another member named Ted had no compassion. Ted replies, “Why does it matter if I care one way or another. I can’t solve their problems.” The other member starts crying and blames Ted for this. He shrugs and answers, “I don’t understand why you are crying.” Based on this information, what is the most likely determination the PMHNP can make about Ted?
·         Question 29

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1 out of 1 points
Jane has been attending group therapy for the past year; she and the therapist have determined that she has met her goals. Jane has been arriving to group late or not coming to group at all. How does the PMHNP correctly interpret Jane’s behavior?
·         Question 30
1 out of 1 points
A PMHNP is treating an 8-year-old child who was at a cousin’s house during a domestic violence situation. Using a common factors model, the PMHNP wants to pay attention to cultivating the relationship with the parents and child. After the child talks about how nervous he or she has been since witnessing the trauma, what is an appropriate response by the PMHNP?
·         Question 31
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is meeting with a married couple. The husband is 81 years old, and the wife is 78 years old. They tell the PMHNP that many of their friends have passed away over the last couple of years, and it’s making them feel sentimental about their lives and the fact that they are getting older. Hearing this, the PMHNP uses a life review approach with the couple. What action will the PMHNP employ?
·         Question 32
0 out of 1 points
A patient in group therapy for people dealing with panic disorder is describing a recent panic attack. He says, “During this attack, I felt like I was dying.” What is an appropriate response by the PMHNP using didactic instruction?
·         Question 33
1 out of 1 points
A patient in group therapy discloses her concern about feeling suicidal again in the future. Using the principle of universality, what is an appropriate step by the PMHNP?
·         Question 34
0 out of 1 points
The PMHNP recognizes that extra group behavior involves behavior that occurs outside of the group or during subgrouping. Which statement best describes extra group behavior as it pertains to group therapy?
·         Question 35
1 out of 1 points
In a group therapy session for patients with anxiety problems, a patient named Eve was afraid to disclose to the other members that she was a victim of sexual abuse. She kept the secret for months, although she hinted at it to other members. During a meeting, another member tried to pressure Eve to disclose her secret, but she was flustered and not ready to share. What is an appropriate response by the PMHNP?
·         Question 36
1 out of 1 points
During his second group therapy session, a member, who was quiet the previous week, becomes very judgmental. He criticizes another member by saying, “Mary, you are always late because you don’t respect our group.” Then he adds, “In fact, all of you are disrespectful and uncaring.” What is an appropriate step by the PMHNP?
·         Question 37
1 out of 1 points
A patient who has been depressed is seeing a PMHNP for individual therapy. The patient explains that he has been avoiding most social activities for the past few months. He is divorced and has joint custody of his 10-year-old daughter. Based on this information, what recommendation by the PMHNP would most benefit the patient?
·         Question 38
1 out of 1 points
Following the PMHNP’s cancellation of a group session, he or she notices a decrease in compliance and attendance within the group. What does the PMHNP identify as the group’s reason for noncompliance?
·         Question 39
1 out of 1 points
A PNHNP is holding a group therapy session. Today, several members have expressed fears about being unlovable. Based on this information, what is an appropriate step by the PMHNP to raise the members’ self-esteem?
·         Question 40
0 out of 1 points
A patient named Tyrone was nervous sharing personal information with the group. To compensate, he makes comments on other members’ problems as if he were the therapist. Another member of the group asked him, “Do you think you’re better than everyone here?” What might the PMHNP help Tyrone gain from this exchange?
·         Question 41
0 out of 1 points

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A PMHNP is creating a therapy group and is including a patient with borderline personality disorder. Which action would most likely reduce the patient’s chance of separation anxiety?
·         Question 42
0 out of 1 points
The anticipation of the first meeting among psychotherapy group attendees may cause feelings of dread and uneasiness among clients. How does the PMHNP demonstrate awareness and promote the success of this first psychotherapy meeting?
·         Question 43
1 out of 1 points
For several months, a patient in group therapy always participated in conversation but only shared positive stories about her own life. During the next session, she finally confessed that she has been depressed and cutting herself. What is the best response by the PMHNP?
·         Question 44
0 out of 1 points
Two PMHNPs are in charge of a therapy group that has experienced several maladaptive interpersonal dramas lately. One of the patients has been described by other members as argumentative. After a particularly awkward session, one of the therapists feels that his own interpersonal distortion of the session may be clouding his observation. What is an appropriate step by that PMHNP?
·         Question 45
0 out of 1 points
A PMHNP is treating a 7-year-old child exhibiting signs of aggression and attention problems. Before suggesting an intervention using a common elements approach, what may the PMHNP consider?
·         Question 46
0 out of 1 points
The homogenous mode of composition involves a theory that relates to group composition. When applying this theory, the PMHNP is aware that the group will most likely consist of which of the following?
·         Question 47
0 out of 1 points
A patient has attended three group therapy sessions and has remained silent throughout each. The patient has, however, been listening to the other members. When the therapist makes eye contact with the patient, he or she forces a smile but has clenched fists. What is the most appropriate response by the PMHNP to help the patient?
·         Question 48
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is meeting with an older married couple. The couple reports having concerns about becoming dependent on their adult children someday, since several of their other friends have had to move in with their kids. They make it clear to the PMHNP that they aren’t keen on therapy or taking medicine but would be willing to try some alternative therapies. What does the PMHNP suggest for evidence-based CAM modalities?
·         Question 49
0 out of 1 points
The PMHNP explains during a discussion that subgrouping has the potential to make group therapy more complicated and less rewarding. Tara, a member of the group, angrily states, “Well, Jack and I have been meeting outside of the group for weeks now.” What is the PMHNP’s most appropriate response?
·         Question 50
0 out of 1 points
Gregory is a middle-aged veteran participant in a group led by the PMHNP. Since Gregory has been attending group, he frequently interrupts others and seems to take much of the group time for himself. The PMHNP identifies Gregory as a monopolist and confronts him. She explains that she does not want him to talk less; instead, she actually encourages him to talk more. What is the likely cause of the PMHNP’s explanation?
·         Question 51
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP understands that conflicts within the psychotherapy group can be troublesome for clients and have the potential to reduce the effectiveness of the group process. As it pertains to group meetings, the PMHNP understands which statement to be true about conflict?
·         Question 52
1 out of 1 points
One member of a therapy group had been quiet for the first several sessions. The member revealed to the other members feeling of depression and emptiness. This week, the member was full of energy and talking very quickly. The member became irritated with another member tried to interrupt, started yelling, and then broke into a fit of laughter. Based on the situation, what can the PMHNP determine about the member?
·         Question 53
1 out of 1 points
A group member who suffers from depression and anxiety says during the session, “I don’t see how any of this is going to help. I am still too anxious to leave the house and do the things I want to do.” What is an appropriate response by the PMHNP?
·         Question 54
0 out of 1 points
A PMHNP is leading a group therapy session for patients with substance abuse problems. After one member shares a problem, other members offer support, concern, and observations. The PMHNP points out that the group is offering many truthful reactions and helpful feedback. Which principle does this illustrate?
·         Question 55
0 out of 1 points
The PMHNP provides cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) to an older adult patient with depression. The patient’s 41-year-old daughter and 32-year-old son attend one of his sessions with the PMHNP so that they can learn more about how to help their father. What does the PMHNP say to the daughter and son about the goals of their father’s CBT?
·         Question 56
0 out of 1 points
The PMHNP recognizes that hostility is unavoidable in a group and acknowledges that a frequent source of hostility can be parataxic distortions. Which situation is likely to present a parataxic distortion within the group?
·         Question 57
1 out of 1 points
Members of group therapy have been meeting for several weeks. The PMHNP often starts sentences with a thank you or compliment such as, “Good observation.” The PMHNP notices that some of the group members having been starting their statements with compliments. To which principle can the PMHNP attribute this process?
·         Question 58
1 out of 1 points
A client diagnosed with depression has begun to feel despair and expresses a desire to leave the group because he or she does not believe it is helpful. Which action by the PMHNP will most likely contribute to the client staying in the group?
·         Question 59
1 out of 1 points
A 14-year-old girl named Laura and her parents are meeting with a PMHNP. The parents explain why they are there by saying, “Laura has been unhappy since she moved to a new school. She has been moody and often talks back to us.” Laura sits quietly and looks uncomfortable. Which is the best response by the PMHNP?
·         Question 60
1 out of 1 points
Many key principles assist with composing intensive interactional psychotherapy groups. When composing a psychotherapy group, utilizing the intensive interactional approach, which key principle does the PMHNP identify as being false?
·         Question 61
1 out of 1 points
A PMHNP notices that adolescents in a therapy group have not been getting along. They are divided into two main groups and each automatically dislikes members of the other group. What is an appropriate step for the PMHNP to take?
·         Question 62
0 out of 1 points
During an initial screening session, the PMHNP is considering a patient for group therapy. The patient is recently divorced and says he is lonely and depressed. What is the best referral by the PMHNP?
·         Question 63
0 out of 1 points
During an initial meeting, a patient who has been discussing suicide says to the PMHNP, “I’m so depressed that I don’t want to leave my house. All I want to do is stay in bed.” What type of therapy would the PMHNP most likely recommend to this patient?
·         Question 64
0 out of 1 points
A member in group therapy named Tom asked others for suggestions to a problem he was having. He did not think a suggestion by a member named Steve would work, and for the rest of session, the group took sides arguing why the idea would work or would not work. The session ended with Tom agreeing to try the suggestion and report back to the group the following week. Based on this session, what is an appropriate step by the PMHNP?
·         Question 65
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is working with an older adult woman and her adult children. The children report that the mother was diagnosed with dementia, and they are all concerned about her welfare. The plan is for the mother to move in with one of the children, but they are still worried about how the mother will manage during the day when she is left alone. What does the PMHNP identify as  the focus of the family therapy?
·         Question 66
1 out of 1 points
During a group session, a member turns to the PMHNP and says, “I need some advice. My manager asked me to take on an extra project, and now I’m overwhelmed. I don’t want to seem incompetent, so I agreed to the extra work. What do you recommend I do?” What is the best response by the PMHNP in order to shape group behavior?
·         Question 67
0 out of 1 points
During a group therapy session, a member shares that she often feels lonely and depressed. She has been turning down invitations to spend time with friends lately, because she does not want to leave the house. What is an appropriate step for the PMHNP to take?
Selected Answer:
A.
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Assign homework to have the patient work on improving interpersonal communication
·         Question 68
1 out of 1 points
Self-disclosure is a very important part of group therapy. Which of the following conditions does the PMHNP identify in his or her own life as a possible hindrance to self-disclosure?
·         Question 69
1 out of 1 points
A PMHNP is meeting with the mother of a 10-year-old boy named Malik, who has been depressed since his parents’ divorce. The mother explains that her goal for treatment is to help Malik feel better so he can become his “usual outgoing self.” She insists that she does not want him on medication. Which is the best response by the PMHNP?
·         Question 70
1 out of 1 points
A client has attended five group therapy sessions yet has not engaged verbally with others in the group. The PMHNP has identified the client as a “silent member.” Which statement is true about silent members as related to group therapy?
·         Question 71
1 out of 1 points
A narcissistic patient was unhappy that other members did not seem concerned about his or her dating problems, which the patient spent half the session talking about. The patient confronted the group by saying, “All of you are rude and uncaring!” When group members ignored this comment, the patient said, “And no one said anything nice about my new haircut either!” What is an appropriate response by the PMHNP?
·         Question 72
1 out of 1 points
According to Dr. Carlson, since Adler talked about how the social setting in which we live influences our lives, the best way parents can change their children’s behavior is to change:
·         Question 73
1 out of 1 points
In the parent consultation session, the parent discusses her son “Blake” who has changed since his 13th birthday. Dr. Carlson discusses the power conflict that the parent appears to be getting into with her son. When they discuss approaches they can use to help Blake experience increased responsibility, Dr. Carlson explains that the parent must make a commitment with her son by agreeing to:
·         Question 74
0 out of 1 points
A PMHNP is evaluating a patient who has problems with authority and has trouble accepting criticism. The patient is aware of these problems and wants to change. Based on this, what is an appropriate action by the PMHNP?
·         Question 75
1 out of 1 points
A PMHNP has a therapy group in which many members have been dropping out over the past several weeks. Members have complained that they do not feel part of the group. What is an appropriate step for the PMHNP to take?
·         Question 76
0 out of 0 points
When completing this exam, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity?

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NURS 6512 Week 6 Midterm Exam: Advanced Health Assessment: Walden University (Already Graded A)
NURS 6512 Week 6 Midterm Exam: Advanced Health Assessment: Walden University (Already Graded A)

Question 26: Health care.

NSG6435 Week 5 Assignment 4 Midterm Exam NSG 6435 Week 5 Midterm Exam

NSG6435 Week 5 Assignment 4 Midterm Exam NSG 6435 Week 5 Midterm Exam

Question 27: Health care

Walden University NURS 6531 6531 Wk6 midterm review questions

Walden University NURS 6531wk6 NURS 6531 Week 6 midterm review questions

WK6
Week 6- Quiz

Question 1
1 out of 1 points

A 25-year-old female presents to urgent care complaining of nausea, vomiting and diarrhea for 24 hours. Important physical exam components for this patient include

Question 2
1 out of 1 points

Which of the following disorders is associated with obesity, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia?

Question 3
1 out of 1 points

Which of the following disorders can be associated with anal fissures?

Question 4
1 out of 1 points

A 33-year-old female is admitted with acute pancreatitis. The nurse practitioner knows that the most common cause of pancreatitis is:

Question 5
1 out of 1 points

An AST that is more than twice the level of ALT is suggestive of:

Question 6
1 out of 1 points

A 65-year-old female with a past medical history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and polymyalgia rheumatica presents to urgent care with new onset left lower quadrant pain. Her current medications include omeprazole 20 milligrams po daily, lisinopril 20 milligrams po daily, simvastatin 20 milligrams po daily, and prednisone 12 milligrams po daily. The nurse practitioner suspects acute diverticulitis and possibly an abscess. The most appropriate diagnostic test for this patient at this time is:

Question 7
1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is considered a functional gastrointestinal disorder?

Question 8
1 out of 1 points

An 83-year-old female presents to the office complaining of diarrhea for several days. She explains she has even had fecal incontinence one time. She describes loose stools 3–4 times a day for several weeks and denies fever, chills, pain, recent antibiotic use. The history suggests that the patient has:

Question 9
1 out of 1 points

Potential causes of diarrhea include which of the following:

Question 10
0 out of 1 points

An 80-year-old male admits to difficulty swallowing during the review of systems. The nurse practitioner recognizes the differential diagnosis for this patient’s dysphagia is:

Choices: Chest pain; GERD; esophageal cancer; GERD & esophageal cancer; or all of the above
I chose all of the above (incorrect)
Possibly just A & C is the answer (GERD and cancer)

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week 6 quiz

question 1
Which of the following disorders is associated with obesity, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia?
A.            Autoimmune hepatitis
B.            Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis
C.            Hemochromatosis
D.            Wilson’s disease
Question 2
Which of the following is considered a functional gastrointestinal disorder?

A.            Crohn’s disease

B.            Ulcerative colitis

C.            Constipation

D.            Irritable bowel syndrome
Question 3
Which of the following describes a third degree internal hemorrhoid?

A.            Bulge, but not prolapsed through anal orifice

B.            Prolapsed during defecation requiring manual reinsertion

C.            Prolapsed during defecation and reduce spontaneously

D.            Less likely to bleed, but positive edema and pain
Question 4
A 65-year-old female with a past medical history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and polymyalgia rheumatica presents to urgent care with new onset left lower quadrant pain. Her current medications include omeprazole 20 milligrams po daily, lisinopril 20 milligrams po daily, simvastatin 20 milligrams po daily, and prednisone 12 milligrams po daily. The nurse practitioner suspects acute diverticulitis and possibly an abscess. The most appropriate diagnostic test for this patient at this time is:

A.            CBC/diff

B.            Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

C.            Abdominal ultrasound

D.            CT scan

Question 5
A 58-year-old man is diagnosed with Barrett’s esophagus after an endoscopy. He has no known allergies. Which of the following medications is MOST appropriate to treat this patient’s disorder?

A.            Omeprazole

B.            Ranitidine

C.            An antacid

D.            None of the above
Question 6
Risk factor(s) associated with inflammatory bowel disease include:

A.            Smoking

B.            Alcohol ingestion

C.            Greek heritage

D.            None of the above
Question 7
Treatment of H.pylori includes which of the following?

A.            Proton pump inhibitor

B.            Antibiotic therapy

C.            Bismuth subsalicylate

D.            A and B

E.            A, B, and C
Question 8
An AST that is more than twice the level of ALT is suggestive of:

A.            A hemolytic disorder

B.            Cholestasis

C.            Infiltrative liver disease

D.            Alcoholic liver injury
Question 9
Pruritus ani is related to

A.            Corynebacterium minutissimum

B.            Pinworm infestation

C.            Stahphylococcus aureus

D.            B only

E.            A, B, and C
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An 83-year-old female presents to the office complaining of diarrhea for several days. She explains she has even had fecal incontinence one time. She describes loose stools 3–4 times a day for several weeks and denies fever, chills, pain, recent antibiotic use. The history suggests that the patient has:

A.            Acute diarrhea

B.            Chronic diarrhea

C.            Irritable bowel

D.            Functional bowel disease

•Question 1
1 out of 1 points

An 80-year-old male admits to difficulty swallowing during the review of systems. The nurse practitioner recognizes the differential diagnosis for this patient’s dysphagia is:

GERD and Cancer

•Question 2
1 out of 1 points

Which of the following describes a third degree internal hemorrhoid?
A.            Bulge, but not prolapsed through anal orifice
B.            Prolapsed during defecation requiring manual reinsertion
C.            Prolapsed during defecation and reduce spontaneously
D.            Less likely to bleed, but positive edema and pain

•Question 3
1 out of 1 points

A 65-year-old female with a past medical history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and polymyalgia rheumatica presents to urgent care with new onset left lower quadrant pain. Her current medications include omeprazole 20 milligrams po daily, lisinopril 20 milligrams po daily, simvastatin 20 milligrams po daily, and prednisone 12 milligrams po daily. The nurse practitioner suspects acute diverticulitis and possibly an abscess. The most appropriate diagnostic test for this patient at this time is:

CT scan

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•Question 4
1 out of 1 points

A 76-year-old male complains of weight loss, nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramping and pain. Physical findings include an abdominal mass and stool positive for occult blood. The nurse practitioner pain suspects a tumor in the small intestine. The best diagnostic test for this patient is:

Answer: short-bowel follow through

•Question 5
1 out of 1 points

Potential causes of diarrhea include which of the following:
All of the above: meds, infection, constipation

•Question 6
1 out of 1 points

Which of the following disorders is associated with obesity, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia?

Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis

•Question 7
1 out of 1 points

An 83-year-old female presents to the office complaining of diarrhea for several days. She explains she has even had fecal incontinence one time. She describes loose stools 3–4 times a day for several weeks and denies fever, chills, pain, recent antibiotic use. The history suggests that the patient has:

Chronic Diarrhea

•Question 8
1 out of 1 points

A 33-year-old female is admitted with acute pancreatitis. The nurse practitioner knows that the most common cause of pancreatitis is:

Gallstones

•Question 9
1 out of 1 points

Treatment of H.pylori includes which of the following?

A, B, C : bismuth, PPI, and antibiotic

•Question 10
1 out of 1 points

A 58-year-old man is diagnosed with Barrett’s esophagus after an endoscopy. He has no known allergies. Which of the following medications is MOST appropriate to treat this patient’s disorder?

Omeprazole

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Question 28: Health care

Esther Park Shadow Health Assignment
Esther Park Shadow Health Assignment
Esther Park Shadow Health Assignment

Question 29: Health care

NURS 6660 Final Exam Walden University
NURS 6660 Final Exam Walden University
NURS 6660 Final Exam Walden University

Question 30: Health Care

A baccalaureate nurse understands, relates, and values the fundamental elements of research, process, and designs as a foundation for an evidence-based practice (AACN, 2008; QSEN, 2018).
Purpose:
This assignment provides a learning activity for students to demonstrate understanding of quantitative and qualitative research, the purpose and importance of designs, and how research is critical for creating a credible evidence-based nursing practice.
Course Outcomes:
This assignment enables the student to meet the following Course Outcomes.
CO 1:  Examine the sources of evidence that contribute to professional nursing practice. (PO 7)
CO 2:  Apply research principles to the interpretation of the content of published research studies. (PO 4 & 8)
CO 5:  Recognize the role of research findings in evidence-based practice. (PO 7 & 8)
Due Date
Submit the completed Research Designs Assignment by Sunday, 11:59 p.m. MT at the end of Week 5.
Points
This assignment is worth 225 points.
Directions for Preparing the Scholarly Paper:
Read each of these instructions.
Read the assignment grading rubric criteria.
This assignment is completed as an APA paper. APA resources can be found in your Resources Tab. You are required to complete the paper using the productivity tools required by Chamberlain University, which is Microsoft Office Word 2013 (or later version), or Windows and Office 2011 (or later version) for MAC. You must save the file in the “.docx” format. Do NOT save as Word Pad. A later version of the productivity tool includes Office 365, which is available to Chamberlain students for FREE by downloading from the student portal at http://my.chamberlain.edu (Links to an external site.) . Click on the envelope at the top of the page.
You are required to use the grading rubric criteria to ensure you are meeting all grading requirements of the paper.
The guideline below is a recommended outline only and does not substitute for your assignment grading rubric; your paper will be graded using the assignment grading rubric criteria.
For the introduction paragraph section, summarize your learning using mostly your own words (see the grading rubric for details):
The need for nursing research.
The importance for nurses to understand the basic principles of research.
The purpose of your paper.
For the quantitative research section, summarize your learning using mostly your own words (see the grading rubric for details):
The importance of quantitative research.
One type of quantitative design; explain one important feature of this type of design.
How quantitative research can help improve nursing practice.
For the qualitative research section, your learning using mostly your own words (see the grading rubric for details):
The importance of qualitative research.
One type of qualitative design; explain one important feature of this type of design.
How qualitative research can help improve nursing practice.
For the research sampling section, your learning using mostly your own words (see the grading rubric for details):
What is sampling and why is sampling important.
One sampling strategy used in quantitative research.
One other sampling strategy that you learned.
For the credible nursing practice section, your learning using mostly your own words (see the grading rubric for details):
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search can help to make nursing practice safer.
Why research is critical for creating an evidence-based nursing practice.
For the conclusion section, summarize your learning using mostly your own words (see the grading rubric for details):
Short, concise, thorough summary of the main points of the paper.
Double check your work with the grading rubric to ensure you have met all grading criteria for this assignment.
Two or more supporting scholarly references are required.  Textbooks are not allowed and should not be used as a scholarly source.  Use the Chamberlain Library to locate relevant, scholarly sources.
No more than two direct quotes are allowed.  You should be using mostly your own words to demonstrate your understanding of the topics/criteria for this assignment.  Citations and references must be included.
This is a short, scholarly paper. The assignment should be 3-4 pages in length not including the title page and references page.
Submit the completed assignment on the Week 5: Assignment page.
**Academic Integrity Reminder**
Chamberlain College of Nursing values honesty and integrity. All students should be aware of the Academic Integrity policy and follow it in all discussions and assignments.
By submitting this assignment, I pledge on my honor that all content contained is my own original work except as quoted and cited appropriately. I have not received any unauthorized assistance on this assignment.
Note: Please use your browser’s File menu to save or print this page.
References
American Association of Colleges of Nurses (AACN). (2008). Executive summary: The essentials of baccalaureate education for professional nursing practice(2008). Retrieved from http://www.aacnnursing.org/Education-Resources/AACN-Essentials
Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN). (2018). QSEN knowledge, skills, and attitude competencies. Retrieved from http://qsen.org/competencies/pre-licensure-ksas/
Rubric

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NR439 Research Designs Assignment Rubric
NR439 Research Designs Assignment Rubric
Criteria
Ratings
Pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning Outcome Introduction
Write a paragraph introduction incorporating your learning and using mostly your own words to summarize: a) The need for nursing research. b) The importance for nurses to understand the basic principles of research. c) The purpose of your paper.
32.0 pts
Thoroughly summarizes criteria in the first column. Excellent details are provided.
28.0 pts
Mostly summarizes criteria in the first column or one criteria lacks details or is missing.
25.0 pts
Minimally summarizes criteria from first the column or two criteria lack details or is missing.
11.0 pts
Poorly summarizes criteria from the first column or all criteria lack details.
0.0 pts
All criteria from the first column are missing.
32.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning Outcome Quantitative Research
Write a paragraph incorporating your learning and using mostly your own words to summarize: a) The importance of quantitative research. b) One type of quantitative design; explain one important feature of this type of design. c) How quantitative research can help improve nursing practice.
34.0 pts
Thoroughly summarizes criteria in the first column. Excellent details are provided.
30.0 pts
Mostly summarizes criteria in the first column or one criteria lacks details or is missing.
27.0 pts
Minimally summarizes criteria from first the column or two criteria lack details or is missing.
13.0 pts
Poorly summarizes criteria from the first column or all criteria lack details.
0.0 pts
All criteria from the first column are missing.
34.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning Outcome Qualitative Research
Write a paragraph incorporating your learning and using mostly your own words to summarize: a) The importance of qualitative research. b) One type of qualitative design; explain one important feature of this type of design. c) How qualitative research can help improve nursing practice.
34.0 pts
Thoroughly summarizes criteria in the first column. Excellent details are provided.
30.0 pts
Mostly summarizes criteria in the first column or one criteria lacks details or is missing.
27.0 pts
Minimally summarizes criteria from first the column or two criteria lack details or is missing.
13.0 pts
Poorly summarizes criteria from the first column or all criteria lack details.
0.0 pts
All criteria from the first column are missing.
34.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning Outcome Research Sampling
Write a paragraph incorporating your learning and using mostly your own words to summarize: a) What is sampling and why is sampling important. b) One sampling strategy used in quantitative research. c) One other sampling strategy that you learned.
34.0 pts
Thoroughly summarizes all criteria in the first column. Thorough details are provided.
30.0 pts
Mostly summarizes criteria in the first column or one criteria lacks details or is missing.
27.0 pts
Minimally summarizes criteria from the first column or two criteria lack details or is missing.
13.0 pts
Vaguely summarizes all criteria from the first column or all criteria lack details.
0.0 pts
All criteria from the first column are missing.
34.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning Outcome Credible Nursing Practice
Write a paragraph incorporating your learning and using mostly your own words to summarize: a) How research can help to make nursing practice safer. b) Why research is critical for creating an evidence-based nursing practice.
34.0 pts
Thoroughly summarizes criteria in the first column. Thorough details are provided.
30.0 pts
Mostly summarizes criteria in the first column. Good details.
27.0 pts
Minimally summarizes criteria in the first column or one criteria lack details or is missing.
13.0 pts
Poorly summarizes criteria from the first column or both criteria lack details.
0.0 pts
Both criteria from the first column are missing.
34.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning Outcome Conclusion
Write a short, concise, thorough summary of the main points of the paper.
32.0 pts
Summarizes a short, concise, thorough summary of the main points of the paper.
28.0 pts
Mostly summarizes the main points of the paper. Good details.
25.0 pts
Writes a vague summary of the paper. Fair details.
11.0 pts
Writes a poor summary of the paper. Poor details.

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0.0 pts
Did not sufficiently provide any of the conclusion criteria or conclusion not discussed.
32.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning Outcome Scholarly Writing, Mechanics, Organization, Spelling, Sentence Structure, Grammar.
8.0 pts
Excellent scholarly writing, mechanics, organization, spelling, sentence structure, grammar. No errors noted.
6.0 pts
Good writing, mechanics, organization, spelling, sentence structure, grammar. A few errors.
3.0 pts
Fair writing, mechanics, organization, Spelling, sentence structure, grammar. Some errors noted.
2.0 pts
Poor writing, mechanics, organization, spelling sentence structure, grammar. Many errors noted.
0.0 pts
Very poor writing, mechanics, and organization. Errors throughout are noted. Writing is difficult to understand or follow.
8.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning Outcome APA Formatting
8.0 pts
Excellent APA formatting with no errors. Uses mostly own words. No more than 2 direct quotes used.
6.0 pts
Good APA formatting with a few errors noted. Three direct quotes used.
3.0 pts
Fair APA formatting with some errors noted. Four direct quotes used.
2.0 pts
Poor APA formatting with many errors noted. Five or more direct quotes used.
0.0 pts
Very poor APA with errors noted throughout.
8.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning Outcome Supporting Evidence
Uses 2 or more relevant scholarly sources to support writing. Textbooks should not be used.
9.0 pts
Uses 2 or more relevant scholarly sources to support writing. Textbooks are not used.
5.0 pts
Uses at least 1 relevant scholarly source to support writing.
0.0 pts
No relevant scholarly sources provided.
9.0 pts
Total Points: 225.0

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Step 2:  Silicon Valley Startup Companies

Read the following articles about Silicon Valley startup companies (Focus on Theranos and Zenefits ).  Each company discussed in the articles listed below eventually came under scrutiny for ethical and/or legal issues.

Griffith, E. (2017, December 16).  The other tech bubble.  Wired.  Retrieved fromhttps://www.wired.com/story/the-other-tech-bubble/

Griffith, E. (2017, December 28).  The ugly unethical underside of Silicon Valley.  Fortune.  Retrieved from https://venturebeat.com/2016/12/28/the-ugly-unethical-underside-of-silicon-valley/

Hartmans, A. (2018, September 5).  The rise and fall of Elizabeth Holmes, who started Theranos when she was 19 and became the world’s youngest female billionaire before it all came crashing down.   Business Insider  Retrieved from https://www.businessinsider.com/theranos-founder-ceo-elizabeth-holmes-life-story-bio-2018-4

Suddath, C. and Newcomer, E. (2016, May 9).  Zenefits was the perfect startup.  Then it self-disrupted.  Bloomberg.  Retrieved from https://www.bloomberg.com/features/2016-zenefits/

Step 3:  Overview of Companies

Provide a company overview for Zenefits and Theranos.  Describe the purpose(s) for the founding of the company; i.e., what problems was it formed to solve and/or opportunities it was formed to exploit, who are the founders, home country or state, management, etc.

Step 4:  Ethical or Legal Issues

You will research each company to establish the facts of each situation.  Once you have established the facts surrounding the decisions made by Theranos and Zenefits:

  • Identify and discuss the ethical issues associated with each company.
  • Identify and discuss the legal issues associated with each company.
  • Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at https://www.homeworknest.com/. This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at https://www.homeworknest.com/  . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time To Get Exam Tutoring Help!

 

Step 5:  Stakeholders

  • Identify the stakeholders associated with each company and explain the impact of the company’s decisions on the specific stakeholders.
  • Discuss how the stakeholders reacted to the decision(s) made by each company.

Step 6:  Generate Alternatives

From what you have read, the startup culture poses a host of temptations creating a never-ending series of ethical choices and dilemmas.  Companies are faced with the challenges of venture investors who expect hyper-growth and quick results.  For privately-held companies, self-reporting, unaudited financials is an option as is not reporting, and the media serves to promote an attractive opportunity.  Lastly, it is easy to rationalize behavior when the expectation is that entrepreneurs set the world on fire with innovative, disruptive technologies that promote overlooking rules and one’s moral compass.

Like many business people, some Silicon Valley decision makers need help in recognizing the ethical dilemmas they face when doing business and understanding the need for following rules and setting ethical standards.  You will:

  • Generate and discuss at least three viable alternatives to help Silicon Valley startup companies operate and behave ethically.  In doing so, it is necessary to consider the ethical and legal requirements.

Step 7:  Evaluate Each Alternative

  • Examine the benefits and drawbacks of each proposed alternative.  Provide careful consideration to the factors that influence the outcome of each alternative.

Step 8:  Recommend the Best Alternative

  • Once you have evaluated each alternative, recommend the best alternative that ensure appropriate business practices and accountability.
  • Explain how Silicon Valley startup companies will effectively communicate this change to internal and external business stakeholders.

Step 9:  Review the Paper 

Read the paper to ensure all required elements are present.  Use the grading rubric to ensure that you gain the most points possible for this assignment.

Proofread the paper for spelling and grammatical issues, and third person writing.

  • Read the paper aloud as a first measure;
  • Use the spell and grammar check in Word as a second measure;
  • Have someone who has excellent English skills proofread the paper;
  • Consider submitting the paper to the Effective Writing Center (EWC).  The EWC will provide 4-6 areas that may need improvement.

Step 10:  Submit the paper in the Assignment Folder (The assignment submitted to the Assignment Folder will be considered the student’s final product and therefore ready for grading by the instructor.  It is incumbent upon the student to verify the assignment is the correct submission.  No exceptions will be considered by the instructor).

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How to Set Up the Paper

Create a Word or Rich Text Format (RTF) document that is double-spaced, 12-point font.  The final product will be between 6-8 pages in length excluding the title page and reference page.  Write clearly and concisely.

Completing the Paper 

In order to complete this project, you will want to first read the module, Learn How to Support What You Write, as this assignment requires you to use the course material to support what you write.  Also,

  • Read and use the grading rubric while completing the exercise to ensure all requirements are met that will lead to the highest possible grade.
  • Third person writing is required.  Third person means that there are no words such as “I, me, my, we, or us” (first person writing), nor is there use of “you or your” (second person writing).  If uncertain how to write in the third person, view this link:  http://www.quickanddirtytips.com/education/grammar/first-second-and-third-person.
  • Contractions are not used in business writing, so do not use them.
  • Paraphrase and do not use direct quotation marks.  Paraphrase means you do not use more than four consecutive words from a source document.  Instead put a passage from a source document into your own words and attribute the passage to the source document.  Not using direct quotation marks means that there should be no passages with quotation marks and instead the source material is paraphrased as stated above.  Note that a reference within a reference list cannot exist without an associated in-text citation and vice versa.   You may not use more than four consecutive words from a source document, as doing so would require direct quotation marks.  Changing words from a passage does not exclude the passage from having quotation marks.   If more than four consecutive words are used from source documents, this material will not be included in the grade and could lead to allegations of academic dishonesty.
  • You are expected to use the case scenarios and weekly course material to develop the analysis and support the reasoning.   There should be a robust use of the course material and case scenario facts.  Material used from a source document must be cited and referenced.  A reference within a reference list cannot exist without an associated in-text citation and vice versa.  Changing words from a passage does not exclude the passage from having quotation marks.   If more than four consecutive words are used from source documents, this material will not be included in the grade and could lead to allegations of academic dishonesty.
  • Use in-text citations and provide a reference list that contains the reference associated with each in-text citation.
  • The only book you may use is the course eBook.  You may not use a dictionary or Wikipedia.
  • Provide the page or paragraph number in every in-text citation presented.  If the eBook does not have pages, provide the chapter title and topic heading.

Self-Plagiarism: Self-plagiarism is the act of reusing significant, identical or nearly identical portions of one’s own work.  You cannot re-use any portion of a paper or other graded work that was submitted to another class even if you are retaking this course.   You also will not reuse any portion of previously submitted work in this class.  A zero will be assigned to the assignment if self-plagiarized.  Faculty do not have the discretion to accept self-plagiarized work.

 

 

 

https://www.thoughtco.com/kantian-ethics-moral-philosophy-immanuel-kant-4045398

 

 

This link, as well as the links that are attached inside of the instructions.

 

Saylor URL: http://www.saylor.org/books  Saylor.org

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This text was adapted by The Saylor Foundation under a Creative

Commons Attribution-NonCommercial-ShareAlike 3.0 License without

attribution as requested by the work’s original creator or licensee.

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Preface

Ethics is about determining value; it’s deciding what’s worth doing and what doesn’t matter so much.

Business ethics is the way we decide what kind of career to pursue, what choices we make on the job,

which companies we want to work with, and what kind of economic world we want to live in and then

leave behind for those coming after. There are no perfect answers to these questions, but there’s a

difference between thinking them through and winging it. The Business Ethics Workshop provides a

framework for identifying, analyzing, and resolving ethical dilemmas encountered through working life.

This text’s principles:

 It’s your call. Some of the book’s case studies ask for defenses of ethical positions that few agree with

(for example, the claim that a drug dealer’s job is better than a police officer’s). Exercises like this align

with the textbook’s aim: provoking reasoning freed from customary divisions between right and wrong. In

the end, no one completely resists their own habits of thinking or society’s broad pressures, but testing the

limits sharpens the tools of ethical analysis. These tools can be relied on later on when you face decisions

that you alone have to make. The aim of this book is to help make those decisions with coherent,

defensible reasoning.

 Keep it mostly real. Ethics is an everyday activity. It’s not mysterious, head-in-the-clouds ruminating

but determining the worth of things around us: Working at an advertising agency is exciting—actors,

lights, cameras, and TV commercials—but do I really want to hock sugary breakfast cereals to children?

Should I risk my reputation by hiring my college roommate, the one who’s habits of showing up late and

erratically to class have carried over to working life? These are the immediate questions of business ethics,

and while any textbook on the subject must address broad, impersonal questions including the

responsibilities of massive corporations in modern societies, this book’s focus stays as often as possible on

ordinary people in normal but difficult circumstances.

 Be current. The rules of ethical thinking don’t change much, but the world is a constant revolution. The

textbook and its cases follow along as closely as possible, citing from blog posts and recent news stories.

As a note here, to facilitate reading some of these citations have been slightly and silently modified.

Saylor URL: http://www.saylor.org/books  Saylor.org

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 Let’s talk about our problem. Case studies are the most important components of this text because it

was written for a discussion-intensive class. Ethics isn’t something we know; it’s something we do, and

trying out our reasoning is the best way to confirm that it’s actually working.

Saylor URL: http://www.saylor.org/books  Saylor.org

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Chapter 1

What Is Business Ethics?

Chapter Overview

Chapter 1 “What Is Business Ethics?” defines business ethics and sketches how debates within the field

happen. The history of the discipline is also considered, along with the overlap between business and

personal ethics.

1.1 What Is Business Ethics?

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

  1. Define the components of business ethics.
  2. Outline how business ethics works.

Captive Customers

Ann Marie Wagoner studies at the University of Alabama (UA). She pays $1,200 a year for books, which is

exasperating, but what really ticks her off is the text for her composition class. Called A Writer’s Reference

(Custom Publication for the University of Alabama), it’s the same Writer’s Reference sold everywhere

else, with slight modifications: there are thirty-two extra pages describing the school’s particular writing

program, the Alabama A is emblazoned on the front cover, there’s an extra $6 on the price tag (compared

with the price of the standard version when purchased new), and there’s an added sentence on the back:

“This book may not be bought or sold used.” The modifications are a collective budget wrecker. Because

she’s forced to buy a new copy of the customized Alabama text, she ends up paying about twice what she’d

pay for a used copy of the standard, not-customized book that’s available at Chegg.com and similar usedbook

dealers.

For the extra money, Wagoner doesn’t get much—a few additional text pages and a school spirit cover.

Worse, those extra pages are posted free on the English department’s website, so the cover’s the only

unambiguous benefit. Even there, though, it’d be cheaper to just buy a UA bumper sticker and paste it

Saylor URL: http://www.saylor.org/books  Saylor.org

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across the front. It’s hard to see, finally, any good reason for the University of Alabama English

Department to snare its own students with a textbook costing so much.

Things clear up when you look closely at the six-dollar difference between the standard new book cost and

the customized UA version. Only half that money stays with the publisher to cover specialized printing

costs. The other part kicks back to the university’s writing program, the one requiring the book in the first

place. It turns out there’s a quiet moneymaking scheme at work here: the English department gets some

straight revenue, and most students, busy with their lives, don’t notice the royalty details. They get their

books, roll their eyes at the cash register, and get on with things.

Wagoner noticed, though. According to an extensive article in the Wall Street Journal, she calls the cost

of new custom books “ridiculous.” She’s also more than a little suspicious about why students aren’t more

openly informed about the royalty arrangement: “They’re hiding it so there isn’t a huge uproar.” [1]

While it may be true that the Tuscaloosa University is hiding what’s going on, they’re definitely not doing

a very good job since the story ended up splattered across the Wall Street Journal. One reason the story

reached one of the United States’ largest circulation dailies is that a lot of universities are starting to get in

on the cash. Printing textbooks within the kickback model is, according to the article, the fastest growing

slice of the $3.5 billion college textbook market.

The money’s there, but not everyone is eager to grab it. James Koch, an economist and former president

of Old Dominion University and the University of Montana, advises schools to think carefully before

tapping into customized-textbook dollars because, he says, the whole idea “treads right on the edge of

what I would call unethical behavior. I’m not sure it passes the smell test.” [2]

What Is Business Ethics?

What does it mean to say a business practice doesn’t “pass the smell test”? And what would happen if

someone read the article and said, “Well, to me it smells all right”? If no substance fills out the idea, if

there’s no elaboration, then there probably wouldn’t be much more to say. The two would agree to

disagree and move on. Normally, that’s OK; no one has time to debate everything. But if you want to get

involved—if you’re like Wagoner who sounds angry about what’s going on and maybe wants to change it—

you’ll need to do more than make comments about how things hit the nose.

Saylor URL: http://www.saylor.org/books  Saylor.org

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Doing business ethics means providing reasons for how things ought to be in the economic world. This

requires the following:

 Arranging values to guide decisions. There needs to be a clearly defined and well-justified set of

priorities about what’s worth seeking and protecting and what other things we’re willing to compromise or

give up. For example, what’s more important and valuable: consumers (in this case students paying for an

education) getting their books cheaply or protecting the right of the university to run the business side of

its operation as it sees fit?

 Understanding the facts. To effectively apply a set of values to any situation, the situation itself must be

carefully defined. Who, for example, is involved in the textbook conflict? Students, clearly, as well as

university administrators. What about parents who frequently subsidize their college children? Are they

participants or just spectators? What about those childless men and women in Alabama whose taxes go to

the university? Are they involved? And how much money are we talking about? Where does it go? Why?

How and when did all this get started?

 Constructing arguments. This shows how, given the facts, one action serves our values better than other

actions. While the complexities of real life frequently disallow absolute proofs, there remains an absolute

requirement of comprehensible reasoning. Arguments need to make sense to outside observers. In simple,

practical terms, the test of an ethical argument resembles the test of a recipe for a cook: others need to be

able to follow it and come to the same result. There may remain disagreements about facts and values at

the end of an argument in ethics, but others need to understand the reasoning marking each step taken on

the way to your conclusion.

Finally, the last word in ethics is a determination about right and wrong. This actual result, however, is

secondary to the process: the verdict is only the remainder of forming and debating arguments. That’s

why doing ethics isn’t brainwashing. Conclusions are only taken seriously if composed from clear values,

recognized facts, and solid arguments.

Saylor URL: http://www.saylor.org/books  Saylor.org

 

 

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7

Bringing Ethics to Kickback Textbooks

The Wall Street Journal article on textbooks and kickbacks to the university is a mix of facts, values, and

arguments. They can be sorted out; an opportunity to do the sorting is provided by one of the article’s

more direct assertions:

Royalty arrangements involving specially made books may violate colleges’ conflict-of-interest

rules because they appear to benefit universities more than students.

A conflict of interest occurs when a university pledges to serve the interest of students but finds that its

own interest is served by not doing that. It doesn’t sound like this is a good thing (in the language of the

article, it smells bad). But to reach that conclusion in ethical terms, the specific values, facts, and

arguments surrounding this conflict need to be defined.

Start with the values. The priorities and convictions underneath the conflict-of-interest accusation are

clear. When university takes tuition money from a student and promises to do the best job possible in

providing an education to the student, then it better do that. The truth matters. When you make a

promise, you’ve got to fulfill it. Now, this fundamental value is what makes a conflict of interest

worrisome. If we didn’t care about the truth at all, then a university promising one thing and doing

something else wouldn’t seem objectionable. In the world of poker, for example, when a player makes a

grand show of holding a strong hand by betting a pile of chips, no one calls him a liar when it’s later

revealed that the hand was weak. The truth isn’t expected in poker, and bluffing is perfectly acceptable.

Universities aren’t poker tables, though. Many students come to school expecting honesty from their

institution and fidelity to agreements. To the extent these values are applied, a conflict of interest becomes

both possible and objectionable.

With the core value of honesty established, what are the facts? The “who’s involved?” question brings in

the students buying the textbooks, the company making the textbooks (Bedford/St. Martin’s in Boston),

and the University of Alabama. As drawn from the UA web page, here’s the school’s purpose, the reason it

exists in the first place: “The University of Alabama is a student-centered research university and an

academic community united in its commitment to enhancing the quality of life for all Alabamians.”

Moving to the financial side, specific dollar amounts should be listed (the textbook’s cost, the cost for the

non-customized version). Also, it may be important to note the financial context of those involved: in the

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case of the students, some are comfortably wealthy or have parents paying for everything, while others

live closer to their bank accounts edge and are working their way through school.

Finally, the actual book-selling operation should be clearly described. In essence, what’s going on is that

the UA English Department is making a deal with the Bedford/St. Martin’s textbook company. The

university proposes, “If you give us a cut of the money you make selling textbooks, we’ll let you make

more money off our students.” Because the textbooks are customized, the price goes up while the supply

of cheap used copies (that usually can be purchased through the Internet from stores across the nation)

goes way down. It’s much harder for UA students to find used copies, forcing many to buy a new version.

This is a huge windfall for Bedford/St. Martin’s because, for them, every time a textbook is resold used,

they lose a sale. On the other side, students end up shelling out the maximum money for each book

because they have to buy new instead of just recycling someone else’s from the previous year. Finally, at

the end of the line there is the enabler of this operation, the English department that both requires the

book for a class and has the book customized to reduce used-copy sales. They get a small percentage of

Bedford/St. Martin’s extra revenue.

With values and facts established, an argument against kickback textbooks at Alabama can be drawn up.

By customizing texts and making them mandatory, UA is forcing students to pay extra money to take a

class: they have to spend about thirty dollars extra, which is the difference between the cost of a new,

customized textbook and the standard version purchased, used. Students generally don’t have a lot of

money, and while some pass through school on the parental scholarship, others scrape by and have to

work a Mc Job to make ends meet. So for at least some students, that thirty dollars directly equals time

that could be spent studying, but that instead goes to flipping burgers. The customized textbooks,

consequently, hurt these students’ academic learning in a measurable way. Against that reality there’s the

university’s own claim to be a “student-centered” institution. Those words appear untrue, however, if the

university is dragging its own students out of the library and forcing them to work extra hours. To comply

with its own stated ideals—to serve the students’ interests—UA should suspend the kickback textbook

practice. It’s important to do that, finally, because fulfilling promises is valuable; it’s something worth

doing.

Saylor URL: http://www.saylor.org/books  Saylor.org

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Argument and Counterargument

The conclusion that kickback textbooks turn universities into liars doesn’t end debate on the question. In

fact, because well-developed ethical positions expose their reasoning so openly (as opposed to “it doesn’t

smell right”), they tend to invite responses. One characteristic, in other words, of good ethical arguments

is that, paradoxically but not contradictorily, they tend to provoke counterarguments.

Broadly, there are three ways to dispute an argument in ethics. You can attack the

  1. facts,
  2. values,
  3. reasoning,

In the textbook case, disputing the facts might involve showing that students who need to work a few

extra hours to afford their books don’t subtract that time from their studying; actually, they subtract it

from late-night hours pounding beers in dank campus bars. The academic damage done, therefore, by

kickback textbooks is zero. Pressing this further, if it’s true that increased textbook prices translate into

less student partying, the case could probably be made that the university actually serves students’

interests—at least those who drink too much beer—by jacking up the prices.

The values supporting an argument about kickback textbooks may, like the facts, be disputed. Virginia

Tech, for example, runs a text-customization program like Alabama’s. According to Tech’s English

Department chair Carolyn Rude, the customized books published by Pearson net the department about

$20,000 a year. Some of that cash goes to pay for instructors’ travel stipends. These aren’t luxury retreats

to Las Vegas or Miami; they’re gatherings of earnest professors in dull places for discussions that reliably

put a few listeners to sleep. When instructors—who are frequently graduate students—attend, they’re

looking to burnish their curriculum vitae and get some public responses to their work. Possibly, the trip

will help them get a better academic job later on. Regardless, it won’t do much for the undergraduates at

Virginia Tech. In essence, the undergrads are being asked to pay a bit extra for books to help graduate

students hone their ideas and advance professionally.

Can that tradeoff be justified? With the right values, yes. It must be conceded that Virginia Tech is

probably rupturing a commitment to serve the undergrads’ interest. Therefore, it’s true that a certain

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amount of dishonesty shadows the process of inflating textbook costs. If, however, there’s a higher value

than truth, that won’t matter so much. Take this possibility: what’s right and wrong isn’t determined by

honesty and fidelity to commitments, but the general welfare. The argument here is that while it’s true

that undergrads suffer a bit because they pay extra, the instructors receiving the travel stipends benefit a

lot. Their knowledge grows, their career prospects improve, and in sum, they benefit so much that it

entirely outweighs the harm done to the undergrads. As long as this value—the greatest total good—

frames the assessment of kickback textbooks, the way is clear for Tech or Alabama to continue the

practice. It’s even recommendable.

The final ground on which an ethical argument can be refuted is the reasoning. Here, the facts are

accepted, as well as the value that universities are duty bound to serve the interests of the tuition-paying

undergraduate students since that’s the commitment they make on their web pages. What can still be

debated, however, is the extent to which those students may actually be benefitted by customizing

textbooks. Looking at the Wall Street Journal article, several partially developed arguments are presented

on this front. For example, at Alabama, part of the money collected from the customized texts underwrites

teaching awards, and that, presumably, motivates instructors to perform better in the classroom, which

ends up serving the students’ educational interests. Similarly, at Virginia Tech, part of the revenue is

apportioned to bring in guest speakers, which should advance the undergraduate educational cause. The

broader argument is that while it’s true that the students are paying more for their books than peers at

other universities, the sequence of reasoning doesn’t necessarily lead from that fact to the conclusion that

there’s a reproachable conflict of interest. It can also reach the verdict that students’ educational

experience is improved; instead of a conflict of interest, there’s an elevated commitment to student

welfare inherent in the kickback practice.

Conclusion. There’s no irrefutable answer to the question about whether universities ought to get involved

in kickback textbooks. What is clear, however, is that there’s a difference between responding to them by

asserting that something doesn’t smell right, and responding by uniting facts, values, and reasoning to

produce a substantial ethical argument.

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 Business ethics deals with values, facts, and arguments.

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 Well-reasoned arguments, by reason of their clarity, invite counterarguments.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. What is the difference between brainwashing and an argument?

2. What does it mean to dispute an argument on the basis of the facts?

3. What does it mean to dispute an argument on the basis of the values?

4. What does it mean to dispute an argument on the basis of the reasoning?

[1] John Hechinger, “As Textbooks Go ‘Custom,’ Students Pay: Colleges Receive Royalties for School-Specific

Editions; Barrier to Secondhand Sales,” Wall Street Journal, July 10, 2008, accessed May 11,

2011,http://online.wsj.com/article/SB121565135185141235.html.

[2] John Hechinger, “As Textbooks Go ‘Custom,’ Students Pay: Colleges Receive Royalties for School-Specific

Editions; Barrier to Secondhand Sales,” Wall Street Journal, July 10, 2008, accessed May 11,

2011,http://online.wsj.com/article/SB121565135185141235.html.

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1.2 The Place of Business Ethics

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

1. Distinguish the place of business ethics within the larger field of decision making.

2. Sketch the historical development of business ethics as a coherent discipline.

The Boundaries and History of Business Ethics

Though both economic life and ethics are as old as history, business ethics as a formal area of study is

relatively new. Delineating the specific place of today’s business ethics involves

 distinguishing morality, ethics, and meta-ethics;

 dividing normative from descriptive ethics;

 comparing ethics against other forms of decision making;

 sketching some inflection points in the histories of ethics and business ethics.

Morality, Ethics, and Meta-ethics: What’s the Difference?

The back and forth of debates about kickback textbooks occurs on one of the three distinct levels of

consideration about right and wrong. Morals occupy the lowest level; they’re the direct rules we ought to

follow. Two of the most common moral dictates are don’t lie and don’t steal. Generally, the question to ask

about a moral directive is whether it was obeyed. Specifically in the case of university textbooks, the

debate about whether customized textbooks are a good idea isn’t morality. It’s not because morality

doesn’t involve debates. Morality only involves specific guidelines that should be followed; it only begins

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when someone walks into a school bookstore, locates a book needed for a class, strips out the little

magnetic tag hidden in the spine, and heads for the exit.

Above all morality there’s the broader question about exactly what specific rules should be instituted and

followed. Answering this question is ethics. Ethics is the morality factory, the production of guidelines

that later may be obeyed or violated. It’s not clear today, for example, whether there should be moral rule

prohibiting kickback textbooks. There are good arguments for the prohibition (universities are betraying

their duty to serve students’ interests) and good arguments against (schools are finding innovative sources

of revenue that can be put to good use). For that reason, it’s perfectly legitimate for someone like Ann

Marie Wagoner to stand up at the University of Alabama and decry the practice as wrong. But she’d be

going too far if she accused university administrators of being thieves or immoral. They’re not; they’re on

the other side of an ethical conflict, not a moral one.

Above both morality and ethics there are debates about meta-ethics. These are the most abstract and

theoretical discussions surrounding right and wrong. The questions asked on this level include the

following: Where do ethics come from? Why do we have ethical and moral categories in the first place? To

whom do the rules apply? Babies, for example, steal from each other all the time and no one accuses them

of being immoral or insufficiently ethical. Why is that? Or putting the same question in the longer terms

of human history, at some point somewhere in the past someone must have had a light bulb turn on in

their mind and asked, “Wait, is stealing wrong?” How and why, those interested in meta-ethics ask, did

that happen? Some believe that morality is transcendent in nature—that the rules of right and wrong

come from beyond you and me and that our only job is to receive, learn, and obey them. Divine command

theory, for example, understands earthly morality as a reflection of God. Others postulate that ethics is

very human and social in nature—that it’s something we invented to help us live together in communities.

Others believe there’s something deeply personal in it. When I look at another individual I see in the

depth of their difference from myself a requirement to respect that other person and his or her

uniqueness, and from there, ethics and morality unwind. These kinds of meta-ethical questions, finally,

are customarily studied in philosophy departments.

Conclusion. Morality is the rules, ethics is the making of rules, and meta-ethics concerns the origin of the

entire discussion. In common conversation, the words morality and ethics often overlap. It’s hard to

change the way people talk and, in a practical field like business ethics, fostering the skill of debating

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arguments is more important than being a stickler for words, but it’s always possible to keep in mind that,

strictly speaking, morality and ethics hold distinct meanings.

What’s the Difference between Normative Ethics and Descriptive Ethics?

Business ethics is normative, which means it concerns how people ought to act. Descriptive ethics depicts

how people actually are acting.

At the University of Alabama, Virginia Tech, and anywhere kickback textbooks are being sold, there are

probably a few students who check their bank accounts, find that the number is low, and decide to mount

their own kickback scheme: refund the entire textbook cost to themselves by sneaking a copy out of the

store. Trying to make a decision about whether that’s justified—does economic necessity license theft in

some cases?—is normative ethics. By contrast, investigating to determine the exact number of students

walking out with free books is descriptive. So too is tallying the reasons for the theft: How many steal

because they don’t have the money to pay? How many accuse the university of acting dishonestly in the

first place and say that licenses theft? How many question the entire idea of private property?

The fields of descriptive ethics are many and varied. Historians trace the way penalties imposed for theft

have changed over time. Anthropologists look at the way different cultures respond to thievery.

Sociologists study the way publications, including Abbie Hoffman’s incendiary book titled Steal This

Book, have changed public attitudes about the ethics of theft. Psychologists are curious about the

subconscious forces motivating criminals. Economists ask whether there’s a correlation between

individual wealth and the kind of moral rules subscribed to. None of this depends on the question about

whether stealing may actually be justifiable, but all of it depends on stealing actually happening.

Ethics versus Other Forms of Decision

When students stand in the bookstore flipping through the pages of a budget buster, it’s going to cross a

few minds to stick it in the backpack and do a runner. Should they? Clear-headed ethical reflection may

provide an answer to the question, but that’s not the only way we make decisions in the world. Even in the

face of screaming ethical issues, it’s perfectly possible and frequently reasonable to make choices based on

other factors. They include:

 The law

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 Prudence (practicality)

 Religion

 Authority figures

 Peer pressure

 Custom

 Conscience

When the temptation is there, one way to decide whether to steal a book is legal: if the law says I can’t, I

won’t. Frequently, legal prohibitions overlap with commonly accepted moral rules: few legislators want to

sponsor laws that most believe to be unjust. Still, there are unjust laws. Think of downloading a text (or

music, or a video) from the web. One day the downloading may be perfectly legal and the next, after a bill

is passed by a legislature, it’s illegal. So the law reverses, but there’s no reason to think the ethics—the

values and arguments guiding decisions about downloading—changed in that short time. If the ethics

didn’t change, at least one of the two laws must be ethically wrong. That means any necessary connection

between ethics and the law is broken. Even so, there are clear advantages to making decisions based on

the law. Besides the obvious one that it’ll keep you out of jail, legal rules are frequently cleaner and more

direct than ethical determinations, and that clarity may provide justification for approving (or

disapproving) actions with legal dictates instead of ethical ones. The reality remains, however, that the

two ways of deciding are as distinct as their mechanisms of determination. The law results from the votes

of legislators, the interpretations of judges, and the understanding of a policeman on the scene. Ethical

conclusions result from applied values and arguments.

Religion may also provide a solution to the question about textbook theft. The Ten Commandments, for

example, provide clear guidance. Like the law, most mainstream religious dictates overlap with generally

accepted ethical views, but that doesn’t change the fact that the rules of religion trace back to beliefs and

faith, while ethics goes back to arguments.

Prudence, in the sense of practical concern for your own well-being, may also weigh in and finally guide a

decision. With respect to stealing, regardless of what you may believe about ethics or law or religion, the

possibility of going to jail strongly motivates most people to pay for what they carry out of stores. If that’s

the motivation determining what’s done, then personal comfort and welfare are guiding the decision more

than sweeping ethical arguments.

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Authority figures may be relied on to make decisions: instead of asking whether it’s right to steal a book,

someone may ask themselves, “What would my parents say I should do? Or the soccer coach? Or a movie

star? Or the president?” While it’s not clear how great the overlap is between decisions based on authority

and those coming from ethics, it is certain that following authority implies respecting the experience and

judgment of others, while depending on ethics means relying on your own careful thinking and

determinations.

Urges to conformity and peer pressure also guide decisions. As depicted by the startling and funny Asch

experiments (see Video Clip 1.1), most of us palpably fear being labeled a deviant or just differing from

those around us. So powerful is the attraction of conformity that we’ll deny things clearly seen with our

own eyes before being forced to stand out as distinct from everyone else.

Custom, tradition, and habit all also guide decisions. If you’re standing in the bookstore and you’ve never

stolen a thing in your life, the possibility of appropriating the text may not even occur to you or, if it does,

may seem prohibitively strange. The great advantage of custom or tradition or just doing what we’ve

always done is that it lets us take action without thinking. Without that ability for thoughtlessness, we’d

be paralyzed. No one would make it out of the house in the morning: the entire day would be spent

wondering about the meaning of life and so on. Habits—and the decisions flowing from them—allow us to

get on with things. Ethical decisions, by contrast, tend to slow us down. In exchange, we receive the

assurance that we actually believe in what we’re doing, but in practical terms, no one’s decisions can be

ethically justified all the time.

Finally, the conscience may tilt decisions in one direction or another. This is the gut feeling we have about

whether swiping the textbook is the way to go, coupled with the expectation that the wrong decision will

leave us remorseful, suffering palpable regret about choosing to do what we did. Conscience,

fundamentally, is a feeling; it starts as an intuition and ends as a tugging, almost sickening sensation in

the stomach. As opposed to those private sensations, ethics starts from facts and ends with a reasoned

argument that can be publicly displayed and compared with the arguments others present. It’s not clear,

even to experts who study the subject, exactly where the conscience comes from, how we develop it, and

what, if any, limits it should place on our actions. Could, for example, a society come into existence where

people stole all the time and the decision to not shoplift a textbook carries with it the pang of remorse? It’s

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hard to know for sure. It’s clear, however, that ethics is fundamentally social: it’s about right and wrong as

those words emerge from real debates, not inner feelings.

History and Ethics

Conflicts, along with everything necessary to approach them ethically (mainly the ability to generate and

articulate reasoned thoughts), are as old as the first time someone was tempted to take something from

another. For that reason, there’s no strict historical advance to the study: there’s no reason to confidently

assert that the way we do ethics today is superior to the way we did it in the past. In that way, ethics isn’t

like the physical sciences where we can at least suspect that knowledge of the world yields technology

allowing more understanding, which would’ve been impossible to attain earlier on. There appears to be, in

other words, marching progress in science. Ethics doesn’t have that. Still, a number of critical historical

moments in ethics’ history can be spotted.

In ancient Greece, Plato presented the theory that we could attain a general knowledge of justice that

would allow a clear resolution to every specific ethical dilemma. He meant something like this: Most of us

know what a chair is, but it’s hard to pin down. Is something a chair if it has four legs? No, beds have four

legs and some chairs (barstools) have only three. Is it a chair if you sit on it? No, that would make the

porch steps in front of a house a chair. Nonetheless, because we have the general idea of a chair in our

mind, we can enter just about any room in any home and know immediately where we should sit. What

Plato proposed is that justice works like that. We have—or at least we can work toward getting—a general

idea of right and wrong, and when we have the idea, we can walk into a concrete situation and correctly

judge what the right course of action is.

Moving this over to the case of Ann Marie Wagoner, the University of Alabama student who’s outraged by

her university’s kickback textbooks, she may feel tempted, standing there in the bookstore, to make off

with a copy. The answer to the question of whether she ought to do that will be answered by the general

sense of justice she’s been able to develop and clarify in her mind.

In the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, a distinct idea of fundamental ethics took hold: natural

rights. The proposal here is that individuals are naturally and undeniably endowed with rights to their

own lives, their freedom, and to pursue happiness as they see fit. As opposed to the notion that certain

acts are firmly right or wrong, proponents of this theory—including John Locke and framers of the new

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American nation—proposed that individuals may sort things out as they please as long as their decisions

and actions don’t interfere with the right of others to do the same. Frequently understood as a theory of

freedom maximization, the proposition is that your freedom is only limited by the freedoms others

possess.

For Wagoner, this way of understanding right and wrong provides little immediate hope for changing

textbook practices at the University of Alabama. It’s difficult to see how the university’s decision to assign

a certain book at a certain price interferes with Wagoner’s freedom. She can always choose to not

purchase the book, to buy one of the standard versions at Amazon, or to drop the class. What she

probably can’t justify choosing, within this theory, is responding to the kickback textbooks by stealing a

copy. Were she to do that, it would violate another’s freedom, in this case, the right of the university (in

agreement with a publisher) to offer a product for sale at a price they determine.

A third important historical direction in the history of ethics originated with the proposal that what you

do doesn’t matter so much as the effects of what you do. Right and wrong are found in the consequences

following an action, not in the action itself. In the 1800s John Stuart Mill and others advocated the idea

that any act benefitting the general welfare was recommendable and ethically respectable.

Correspondingly, any act harming a community’s general happiness should be avoided. Decisions

about good or bad, that means, don’t focus on what happens now but what comes later, and they’re not

about the one person making the decision but the consequences as they envelop a larger community.

For someone like Wagoner who’s angry about the kickback money hidden in her book costs, this

consequence-centered theory opens the door to a dramatic action. She may decide to steal a book from the

bookstore and, after alerting a reporter from the student newspaper of her plan, promptly turn herself

into the authorities as a form of protest. “I stole this book,” she could say, “but that’s nothing compared

with the theft happening every day on this campus by our university.” This plan of action may work out—

or maybe not. But in terms of ethics, the focus should be on the theft’s results, not the fact that she

sneaked a book past security. The ethical verdict here is not about whether robbery is right or wrong but

whether the protest stunt will ultimately improve university life. If it does, we can say that the original

theft was good.

Finally, ethics is like most fields of study in that it has been accompanied from the beginning by skeptics,

by people suspecting that either there is no real right and wrong or, even if there is, we’ll never have much

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luck figuring out the difference. The twentieth century has been influenced by Friedrich Nietzsche’s

affirmation that moral codes (and everything else, actually) are just interpretations of reality that may be

accepted now, but there’s no guarantee things will remain that way tomorrow. Is stealing a textbook right

or wrong? According to this view, the answer always is, “It depends.” It depends on the circumstances, on

the people involved and how well they can convince others to accept one or another verdict. In practical

terms, this view translates into a theory of cultural or contextual relativism. What’s right and wrong only

reflects what a particular person or community decides to believe at a certain moment, and little more.

The Historical Development of Business Ethics

The long philosophical tradition of ethical thought contains the subfield of business ethics. Business

ethics, in turn, divides between ethics practiced by people who happen to be in business and business

ethics as a coherent and well-defined academic pursuit.

People in business, like everyone else, have ethical dimensions to their lives. For example, the company

W. R. Grace was portrayed in the John Travolta movie A Civil Action as a model of bad corporate

behavior. [1] What not so many people know, however, is that the corporation’s founder, the man named

W. R. Grace, came to America in the nineteenth century, found success, and dedicated a significant

percentage of his profits to a free school for immigrants that still operates today.

Even though questions stretch deep into the past about what responsibilities companies and their leaders

may have besides generating profits, the academic world began seriously concentrating on the subject

only very recently. The first full-scale professional conference on academic business ethics occurred in

1974 at the University of Kansas. A textbook was derived from the meeting, and courses began appearing

soon after at some schools.

By 1980 some form of a unified business ethics course was offered at many of the nation’s colleges and

universities.

Academic discussion of ethical issues in business was fostered by the appearance of several specialized

journals, and by the mid-1990s, the field had reached maturity. University classes were widespread,

allowing new people to enter the study easily. A core set of ideas, approaches, and debates had been

established as central to the subject, and professional societies and publications allowed for advanced

research in and intellectual growth of the field.

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The development of business ethics inside universities corresponded with increasing public awareness of

problems associated with modern economic activity, especially on environmental and financial fronts. In

the late 1970s, the calamity in the Love Canal neighborhood of Niagara Falls, New York, focused

international attention on questions about a company’s responsibility to those living in the surrounding

community and to the health of the natural world. The Love Canal’s infamy began when a chemical

company dumped tons of toxic waste into the ground before moving away. Despite the company’s

warnings about the land’s toxicity, residential development spread over the area. Birth defects and similar

maladies eventually devastated the families. Not long afterward and on the financial front, an insider

trading scandal involving the Wall Street titan Ivan Boesky made front pages, which led John Shad,

former head of the Securities and Exchange Commission, to donate $20 million to his business school

alma mater for the purpose of ethics education. Parallel (though usually more modest) money infusions

went to university philosophy departments. As a discipline, business ethics naturally bridges the two

divisions of study since the theory and tools for resolving ethical problems come from philosophy, but the

problems for solving belong to the real economic world.

Today, the most glamorous issues of business ethics involve massively powerful corporations and

swashbuckling financiers. Power and celebrity get people’s attention. Other, more tangible issues don’t

appear in so many headlines, but they’re just as important to study since they directly reach so many of

us: What kind of career is worth pursuing? Should I lie on my résumé? How important is money?

The Personal History of Ethics

Moving from academics to individual people, almost every adult does business ethics. Every time people

shake their exhausted heads in the morning, eye the clock, and decide whether they’ll go to work or just

pull up the covers, they’re making a decision about what values guide their economic reality. The way

ethics is done, however, changes from person to person and for all of us through our lives. There’s no

single history of ethics as individuals live it, but there’s a broad consensus that for many people, the

development of their ethical side progresses in a way not too far off from a general scheme proposed by

the psychologist Lawrence Kohlberg.

Pre-conventional behavior—displayed by children, but not only by them—is about people calculating to

get what they want efficiently: decisions are made in accordance with raw self-interest. That’s why many

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children really do behave better near the end of December. It’s not that they’ve suddenly been struck by

respect for others and the importance of social rules; they just figure they’ll get more and better presents.

Moving up through the conventional stages, the idea of what you’ll do separates from what you want.

First, there are immediate conventions that may pull against personal desires; they include standards and

pressures applied by family and friends. Next, more abstract conventions—the law and mass social

customs—assert influence.

Continuing upward, the critical stages of moral development go from recognizing abstract conventions to

actively and effectively comparing them. The study of business ethics belongs on this high level of

individual maturity. Value systems are held up side by side, and reasons are erected for selecting one over

another. This is the ethics of full adulthood; it requires good reasoning and experience in the real world.

Coextensive with the development of ideas about what we ought to do are notions about responsibility—

about justifiably blaming people for what they’ve done. Responsibility at the lowest level is physical. The

person who stole the book is responsible because they took it. More abstractly, responsibility attaches to

notions of causing others to do a wrong (enticing someone else to steal a book) and not doing something

that could have prevented a wrong (not acting to dissuade another who’s considering theft is, ultimately, a

way of acting). A mature assignment of responsibility is normally taken to require that the following

considerations hold:

 The person is able to understand right and wrong.

 The person acts to cause—or fails to act to prevent—a wrong.

 The person acts knowing what they’re doing.

 The person acts from their own free will.

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 Morality is the set of rules defining what ought to be done; ethics is the debate about what the rules

should be; meta-ethics investigates the origin of the entire field.

 Normative ethics concerns what should be done, not what is done.

 Ethics is only one of a number of ways of making decisions.

 Business ethics as an academic study is a recent development in the long history of ethical reflection.

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 With respect to individuals, the development of ethical thought may be studied, as well as notions of

responsibility.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. List two basic questions belonging to the field of morality.

2. List two basic questions belonging to the field of ethics.

3. What is one basic question belonging to the field of meta-ethics?

4. What is an example of normative ethics? And descriptive ethics?

5. Explain the difference between a decision based on ethics and one based on the law.

6. Explain the difference between a decision based on ethics and one based on religion.

7. List two factors explaining the recent development and growth of business ethics as a coherent discipline.

[1] Steven Zaillian (director), A Civil Action (New York: Scott Rudin, 1998), film.

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1.3 Is Business Ethics Necessary?

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

1. Articulate two extreme views of business ethics.

2. Describe the sense in which business ethics is inevitable.

Two Extreme Views of the Business World

At the boundaries of the question about whether business ethics is necessary, there are conflicting and

extreme perceptions of the business world. In graphic terms, these are the views:

 Business needs policing because it’s a dirty enterprise featuring people who get ahead by being selfish

liars.

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 Successful businesses work well to enrich society, and business ethicists are interfering and annoying

scolds threatening to ruin our economic welfare.

A 1987 New York Times article titled “Suddenly, Business Schools Tackle Ethics” begins this way:

“Insider-trading scandals in the last year have badly tarnished the reputations of some of the nation’s

most prominent financial institutions. Nor has Wall Street been the only area engulfed in scandal;

manufacturers of products from contraceptives to military weapons have all come under public scrutiny

recently for questionable—if not actionable—behavior.” [1]

Slimy dealing verging on the illegal, the message is, stains the economic world from one end to the other.

A little further into the article, the author possibly gives away her deepest feelings about business when

she cracks that business ethics is “an oxymoron.”

What will business leaders—and anyone else for that matter—do when confronted with the accusation of

sliminess? Possibly embrace it—an attitude facilitated by an infamous article originally published in

the Harvard Business Review. In “Is Business Bluffing Ethical?” the author suggests businessmen and

women should double down on the strategy of getting ahead through deceit because if you’re in business,

then everyone already knows you’re a liar anyway. And since that’s common knowledge, taking liberties

with the truth doesn’t even count as lying: there’s no moral problem because that’s just the way the

business game is played. In the author’s words, “Falsehood ceases to be falsehood when it is understood

on all sides that the truth is not expected to be spoken—an exact description of bluffing in poker,

diplomacy, and business.” [2]

The basic argument is strong. Ethically, dishonesty stops being reproachable—it stops being an attempt to

mislead—when everyone knows that you’re not telling the truth. If it weren’t for that loophole, it’d be

difficult to enjoy movies. Spiderman swinging through New York City skyscrapers isn’t a lie, it’s just fun

because everyone agrees from the beginning that the truth doesn’t matter on the screen.

The problem with applying this logic to the world of commerce, however, is that the original agreement

isn’t there. It’s not true that in business everyone knows there’s lying and accepts it. In poker, presumably,

the players choosing to sit down at the table have familiarized themselves with the rules and techniques of

the game and, yes, do expect others to fake a good hand from time to time. It’s easy to show, however, that

the expectation doesn’t generally hold in office buildings, stores, showrooms, and sales pitches. Take, for

example, a car advertisement claiming a certain model has a higher resale value, has a lower sticker price,

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or can go from zero to sixty faster than its competition. People in the market for a new car take those

claims seriously. If they’re prudent, they’ll check just to make sure (an economic form of “trust but

verify”), but it’s pretty rare that someone sitting in front of the TV at home chuckles and calls the claim

absurd. In poker, on the other hand, if another player makes a comparable claim (“I have the highest hand

at the table!”), people just laugh and tell the guy to keep drinking. Poker isn’t like business.

The argument that bluffing—lying—in business is acceptable because everyone does it and everyone

knows everyone’s doing it doesn’t hold up. However, the fact that someone could seriously make the

argument (and get it published in the Harvard Business Review no less) certainly provides heavy

ammunition for those who believe that most high-level businesspeople—like those who read the Harvard

Business Review—should have a hard time looking at themselves in the mirror in the morning.

Opposing the view that business life is corrupt and needs serious ethical policing, there’s the view that

economic enterprises provide wealth for our society while correcting their own excesses and problems

internally. How does the correction work? Through the marketplace. The pressures of demanding

consumers force companies into reputable behavior. If a car manufacturer lies about its product, there

may be a brief uptick in sales, but eventually people will figure out what’s going on, spread the word at the

water cooler and on Facebook, and in the end the company’s sales will collapse. Similarly, bosses that

abuse and mistreat subordinates will soon find that no one wants to work for them. Workers who cheat on

expense reports or pocket money from the till will eventually get caught and fired. Of course it must be

admitted that some people sometimes do get away with something, but over the long run, the forces of the

economic world inexorably correct abuses.

If this vision of business reality is correct, then adding another layer of academic ethics onto what’s

already going on in the real world isn’t necessary. More, those who insist on standing outside corporate

offices and factory buildings preaching the need for oversight and remedial classes in morality become

annoying nags. That’s especially true if the critics aren’t directly doing business themselves. If they’re

ensconced in university towers and gloomy libraries, there may even be a suspicion that what really drives

the call to ethics is a burning resentment of all the money Wall Street stars and captains of industry seem

to make, along with their flashy cars, palatial homes, and luxurious vacations.

An issue of the Cato Institute’s Policy Report from 2000 carries an article titled “Business Ethics Gone

Wrong.” It asserts that some proponents of business ethics aren’t only bothersome envious—their

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resentment-fueled scolding actually threatens our collective economic welfare. Business ethics, according

to the author, “is fundamentally antagonistic to capitalist enterprise, viewing both firm and manager as

social parasites in need of a strong reformative hand.”[3]

These reforms—burdensome regulations, prying investigations, and similar ethical interventions—

threaten to gum up the capitalist engine: “If the market economy and its cornerstone, the shareholderoriented

firm, are in no danger of being dealt a decisive blow, they at least risk death by a thousand

cuts.” [4]

There’s a problem with this perspective on the business world. Even if, for the sake of argument, it’s

acknowledged that economic forces effectively police commerce, that doesn’t mean business ethics is

unnecessary or a threat to the market economy. The opposite is the case: the view that the marketplace

solves most problems is an ethics. It’s a form of egoism, a theory to be developed in later chapters but with

values and rules that can be rapidly sketched here. What are most valued from this perspective is our

individual welfare and the freedom to pursue it without guilt or remorse. With that freedom, however,

comes a responsibility to acknowledge that others may be guided by the same rules and therefore we’re all

bound by the responsibility to look out for ourselves and actively protect our own interests since no one

will be doing it for us. This isn’t to confirm that all businesspeople are despicable liars, but it does mean

asserting that the collective force of self-interest produces an ethically respectable reality. Right and

wrong comes to be defined by the combined force of cautious, self-interested producers and consumers.

In the face of this argument defending a free-for-all economic reality where everyone is doing the best

they can for themselves while protecting against others doing the same, objections may be constructed. It

could be argued, for example, that the modern world is too complex for consumers to adequately protect

their own interests all the time. No matter how that issue gets resolved, however, the larger fact remains

that trusting in the marketplace is a reasonable and defensible ethical posture; it’s a commitment to a set

of values and facts and their combination in an argument affirming that the free market works to

effectively resolve its own problems.

Conclusion. It’s not true that doing business equals being deceitful, so it’s false to assert that business

ethics is necessary to cure the ills of commerce. It is true that the business world may be left to control its

own excesses through marketplace pressure, but that doesn’t mean business escapes ethics.

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Business Ethics Is Inevitable

Business ethics is not about scolding, moralizing, or telling people to be nice. Ethics doesn’t have to be

annoying or intrusive. On the other hand, it can’t just be dismissed altogether because ethics in business is

unavoidable. The values guiding our desires and aspirations are there whether they’re revealed or not.

They must be because no one can do anything without first wanting something. If you don’t have a goal,

something you’re trying to achieve or get, then you won’t have anything to do when you get out of bed in

the morning. Getting up in the morning and going, consequently, mean that you’ve already selected

something as desirable, valuable, and worth pursuing. And that’s doing ethics; it’s establishing values.

The only real and durable difference, therefore, between those who understand ethics and those who don’t

is that the former achieve a level of self-understanding about what they want: they’ve compared their

values with other possibilities and molded their actions to their decisions. The latter are doing the same

thing, just without fully realizing it. The question about whether ethics is necessary, finally, becomes a

false one. You can choose to not understand the ethics you’re doing (you can always drop this class), but

you can’t choose to not do ethics.

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 Views about the ethical nature of the business vary widely.

 Because ethics is the arrangement of values guiding our aspirations and actions, some form of ethics is

unavoidable for anyone acting in the economic world.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. Why might someone believe the business world needs exterior ethical monitoring and correction?

2. What is the argument that the business world can regulate itself, and why is that an ethics?

3. In your own words, why is business ethics unavoidable?

 [1] Sandra Salmans, “Suddenly, Business Schools Tackle Ethics,” New York Times, August 2, 1987, accessed May 11,

2011, http://www.nytimes.com/1987/08/02/education/suddenly-business-schools-tackle-ethics.html.

 [2] Albert Carr, “Is Business Bluffing Ethical?,” Harvard Business Review 46 (January–February, 1968), 143–53.

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[3] Alexei M. Marcoux, “Business Ethics Gone Wrong,” Cato Policy Report 22, no. 3 (May/June 2000), accessed May

11, 2011,http://www.cato.org/pubs/policy_report/v22n3/cpr-22n3.html.

[4] Alexei M. Marcoux, “Business Ethics Gone Wrong,” Cato Policy Report 22, no. 3 (May/June 2000), accessed May

11, 2011,http://www.cato.org/pubs/policy_report/v22n3/cpr-22n3.html.

1.4 Facebook and the Unavoidability of Business Ethics

L EARNING OBJECTIVE

1. Show how business ethics stretches beyond working life.

The Facebook Firing

Business ethics in some form is inescapable inside factories, office buildings, and other places where work

gets done. The application of business ethics principles and guidance doesn’t stop, though, when the

workday ends or outside the company door. Because our economic lives mingle so intimately with our

private existences, the decisions and reasoning shaping our laboring eventually shape our lives generally.

Business ethics, as the problems bedeviling Dawnmarie Souza show, provides a way to examine and make

sense of a large segment of our time, both on and off the job.

Souza’s problems started when the ambulance she worked on picked up a “17.” That’s code for a

psychiatric case. This particular 17, as it happened, wasn’t too crazy to form and submit a complaint about

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the treatment received from Souza. Since this was the second grievance the ambulance service had

received on Souza in only ten days, she sensed that she’d be getting a suspension. “Looks like,” she wrote

on her Facebook page later that day, “I’m getting some time off. Love how the company allows a 17 to be a

supervisor.” She also referred to her real supervisor with some choice four-letter words.

A number of coworkers responded to her post with their own supportive and agreeing comments.

Management responded by firing her.

The termination decision came easily to the ambulance service, American Medical Response of

Connecticut, since their policy explicitly prohibited employees from identifying or discussing the company

or other employees in the uncontrolled public forum that is the Internet. Around the water cooler, at

home, or during weekend parties, people can say what they like. Given the semi-permanent record that is

the web, however, and the ambulance service’s natural inclination to protect its public image, posting

there was out of bounds.

But, Souza responded, there’s no difference. If people can talk at the water cooler and parties, why can’t

they post on Facebook? She’s not claiming to speak for the company, she’s just venting with a keypad

instead of vocal chords.

The celebrity blogger and Facebook addict Perez Hilton came down on the company’s side: “We think

Dawnmarie should be fired, and we support the company’s decision to let her go. When you post things

online, it’s out there for the public to see, and it’s a sign of disloyalty and disrespect to deal with a workrelated

grievance in such a manner.” [1]

The Reach of Business Ethics

When someone like Perez Hilton—a blogger most comfortable deriding celebrities’ bad hair days—finds

himself wrapped in a business ethics debate, you’ve got to figure the discipline is pretty much

unavoidable. Regardless, the Souza episode displays many of the ways business ethics connects with our

nonworking existence, whether we like it or not:

 It doesn’t sound like Souza displayed any great passion about her job. Maybe she really doesn’t care that

she got fired. Or maybe she cares but only because it means a lost paycheck. On the other hand, it may

just have been a bad day; it’s possible that she usually gets up in the morning eager to mount the

ambulance. It’s hard to know, but it’s certain that this—the decision about what we want to do with our

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professional lives—is business ethics. When choosing a job, what has value? The money it provides?

Satisfaction from helping others? Status? Or do you just want something that gives you the most free time

possible? There are no rights or wrong answers, but these are all ethical decisions tangling your personal

and professional lives together.

 The mix between the personal and professional on the question of one’s job tends to link tighter as people

get older. Many of us define who we and others are through work. When finding out about someone new,

the question—embraced by some and dreaded by others—inevitably comes up. When meeting a woman at

a party, when being sent on a blind date, or when discussing old high school friends or the guy who just

moved into the next-door apartment, the question hums just below the surface, and it’s never long until

someone comes out and asks. Of course, for collegians and young people working part-time jobs, it

doesn’t matter so much because everyone knows that where you work isn’t where you’ll end up working.

Once someone hits the mid-twenties, though, the question “what do you do?” starts to press and it won’t

let up.

 Perez Hilton wrote that Souza displayed disloyalty to her company when she trashed the management on

Facebook. The following questions are raised: What is loyalty? What is it worth? When should you feel it?

When do you have a right to demand it from others? Is there any difference among loyalty to the

company, to family, and to friends?

 One of Hilton’s readers posted a pithy response to Hilton in the web page’s comments section: “I bet if she

were gay, and did the same exact thing, you would be singing a different tune!” Perez Hilton, it’s widely

known, is about as exuberantly gay as they come. As it happens, in his line of work that orientation isn’t

professionally harmful. For others, however, the revelation may be career damaging. Hilton, in fact, is

despised by some in Hollywood for his habit of outing gay celebrities, people who hide part of themselves

in the name of furthering their career. The business ethics question here is also a life one. Would you hide

who you are to facilitate things at work? Should you? Doesn’t everyone do that to some extent and in some

ways?

 Another reader posted this comment: “In the US, your employer owns you. I mean they can make you piss

in a cup to check and see what you did over the weekend.” Should employers be able to change what you

do over the weekend?

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 A number of readers defended Souza by upholding the right to free speech—she should be able to say

whatever she wants wherever she wants without fear of retribution. In response to those assertions, this

was posted, “Of course we have freedom of speech. Employers also have the freedom to employ whoever

they wish. Your decision is whether whatever is on your mind is more important than your job.” Does

freedom of speech—or any other basic liberty—end or get conditioned when the workday begins?

 One commenter wrote, “I’m going to have to agree with the company on this one. An employer expects

proper business demeanor even while off the clock.” What is “proper demeanor”? Who decides? On the

basis of what?

 Many people spend eight (or more) hours a day on the job. There’s no shortage of women who see their

boss more than their husband, of men who remember the birthday of the guy in the next cubicle before

their own child’s. Parties tend to include workmates; companies invite clients to ball games. The sheer

hours spent at work, along with the large overlaps between professional and social relationships, make

separating the ethics of the office and the home nearly impossible.

 This comment is aimed right at Perez Hilton and his Internet gossip column, which wins few points for

checking and confirming claims but definitely gets the juicy and embarrassing rumors out about the

private lives of celebrities: “Are you insane? All you did for God knows how long is put nasty stuff up

about people for the public to see as a sign of disloyalty and disrespect.” Assuming that’s a reasonable

depiction of Hilton’s work, the question his career raises is: what are you willing to do to the lives of

others to get yourself ahead at work?

Underlining all these questions is a distinction that’s easy to make in theory but difficult to maintain in

real life. It’s one betweeninstitutional business ethics and personal business ethics. Institutional ethics in

business deals with large questions in generic and anonymous terms. The rules and discussions apply to

most organizations and to individuals who could be anyone. Should companies be allowed to pollute the

air? What counts as a firing offense? The personal level, by contrast, fills with questions for specific people

enmeshed in the details of their particular lives. If Perez Hilton has gotten rich dishing dirt on others, is

he allowed to assert that others must treat their employers respectfully?

 

 

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KEY TAKEAWAY

 The questions pursued by business ethics cross back and forth between professional and personal lives.

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REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. What are two reasons business ethics decisions tend to affect lives outside work?

2. What are two ways business ethics decisions may affect lives outside work?

[1] “Facebook-Related Firing Sparks Legal Drama!,” PerezHilton.com (blog), accessed May 11,

2011, http://perezhilton.com/2010-11-09-woman-fired-over-comments- she-made-about-her-boss-on-facebookbrings-

about-court-case#respond.

1.5 Overview of The Business Ethics Workshop

This textbook is organized into three clusters of chapters. The first group develops and explains the main

theories guiding thought in business ethics. The goals are to clarify the theoretical tools that may be used

to make decisions and to display how arguments can be built in favor of one stance and against others.

The questions driving the chapters include the following:

 Are there fundamental rules for action that directly tell us what we ought to do? If so, are the imperatives

very specific, including dictates like “don’t lie”? Or are they more flexible, more like rules broadly

requiring fairness and beneficence to others?

 Are fundamental rights—especially the conviction that we’re all free to pursue the destinies we choose—

the key to thinking about ethics? If we have these rights, what happens when my free pursuit of happiness

conflicts with yours?

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 Could it be that what we do doesn’t matter so much as the effects of what’s done? How can a framework

for decisions be constructed around the idea that we ought to undertake whatever action is necessary

(even lying or stealing) in order to bring about a positive end, something like the greater happiness of

society overall?

 To what extent are perspectives on right and wrong only expressions of the particular culture we live in?

Does it makes sense to say that certain acts—say bribery—are OK in some countries but wrong in others?

The second cluster of chapters investigates business ethics on the level of the individual. The goal is to

show how the tools of ethical reasoning may be applied to personal decisions made in connection with our

nine-to-five lives. The questions driving the chapters include the following:

 What values come into play when a career path is selected?

 Can I justify lying on my résumé? How far am I willing to go to get a raise or promotion?

 Besides a paycheck, what benefits will I seek at work? Money from a kickback? An office romance?

 What do I owe my employer? Is there loyalty in business, or is there nothing more than the money I’m

paid and the duties I’m assigned according to my work contract?

 Do I have an obligation to report on someone else doing something I think is wrong?

 If people work for me, what responsibilities do I have toward them inside and outside the office?

 What values govern the way I hire, promote, and fire workers?

The third cluster of chapters considers institutional business ethics. These are general and sweeping

issues typically involving corporations, the work environments they promote, and the actions they take in

the economic world. Guiding questions include the following:

 What counts as condemnable discrimination in the workplace, and what remedies ought to be tried?

 Which attitudes, requirements, and restrictions should attach to sex and drugs in the workplace?

 Should there be limits to marketing techniques and strategies? Is there anything wrong with creating

consumer needs? What relationships should corporations form with their consumers?

 Do corporations hold ethical responsibilities to the larger community in which they operate, to the people

who aren’t employees or consumers but live nearby?

 Is there a corporate responsibility to defend the planet’s environmental health?

 Should the economic world be structured to produce individually successful stars or to protect the welfare

of laboring collectives?

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1.6 Case Studies

Gray Matters

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Source: Photo courtesy of Sasha Wolff, http://www.flickr.com/photos/sashawolff/3388815964.

To foster ethical discussion and understanding in the workplace, the Lockheed Martin Company

developed a quiz for employees called “Gray Matters.” The quiz is multiple choices, with a range of points

awarded (or subtracted) depending on the response. Subsequently, the approach has been adopted by a

wide range of corporations. Here’s a typical question matched with its possible answers and the

corresponding points:

Six months after you hired an assistant accountant who has been working competently and

responsibly, you learn that she departed from the truth on her employment application: she

claimed she had a college degree when she didn’t. You’re her manager; what should you do?

1. Nothing because she’s doing her job just fine. (–10 points)

2. Bring the issue to the human resources department to determine exactly how company policy

determines the situation should be handled. (10 points)

3. Fire her for lying. (5 points)

4. Carefully weigh her work performance, her length of service, and her potential benefit to the

company before informing anyone of what happened or making any recommendations. (0

points)

QUE STIONS

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1. The three principle components of business ethics are facts, values, and arguments. What are the facts

pertinent to an ethical evaluation of this case? Is there any information not contained in the question that

you’d like to have before making a decision about what should be done?

2. From the facts and information provided, can you sketch a set of values and chain of reasoning justifying

the answer that the quiz’s original authors sanctioned as the right one? (Leave the decision in the hands of

the HR department and existing company policy.)

3. You get some points for C (firing her). What values and reasoning may lead to that determination?

4. According to the quiz authors, the worst answer is A. Maybe they’re wrong, though. What values and

reasoning may lead to the conclusion that doing “nothing because she’s doing her job just fine” is an

excellent response?

5. One of the most important questions about a situation’s facts is “who’s involved?”

o Would it be reasonable to say that, ethically, this is an issue just between you and the woman who

you hired after she lied on her résumé?

o If you expand the answer about who’s involved to include other workmates at the company, as

well as the company’s clients and shareholders, does that change the ethical perspective you have

on what should be done with the lying (but capable) coworker?

6. What’s the difference between morality and ethics?

o Would you categorize response B (bring the issue to HR to determine exactly how company policy

determines the situation should be handled) as leading to a decision more based on morality or

more based on ethics? Explain.

o Would you categorize response D (carefully weigh her work performance, her length of service,

and her potential benefit to the company before informing anyone of what happened or making

any recommendations) as leading to a decision more based on morality or ethics? Explain.

Who made your iPhone?

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Source: Photo courtesy of Tobias Myrstrand Leander, http://www.flickr.com/photos/s8an/5207806926/.

Connie Guglielmo, a reporter for Bloomberg news services, begins an article on Apple this way: “Apple

Inc. said three of its suppliers hired 11 underage workers to help build the iPhone, iPod and Macintosh

computer last year, a violation it uncovered as part of its onsite audit of 102 factories.” [1]

Her story adds details. The underage workers were fifteen in places where the minimum legal age for

employment is sixteen. She wasn’t able to discover the specific countries, but learned the infractions

occurred in one or more of the following: China, Taiwan, Thailand, Malaysia, Singapore, South Korea, the

Czech Republic, and the Philippines.

Following the discovery, the employees were released, and disciplinary action was taken against a number

of the foreign suppliers. In one case, Apple stopped contracting with the company entirely.

The story closes with this: “Apple raised $2.62 to $204.62 yesterday in Nasdaq Stock Market trading. The

shares more than doubled last year.”

QUE STIONS

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1. The ethical question is whether Apple ought to contract (through suppliers) fifteen-year-olds to work on

factory floors. Is the fact that the stock price has been zooming up a pertinent fact, or does it not affect

the ethics? Explain.

2. From the information given and reasonable assumptions about these factories and the living conditions of

people working inside them, sketch an ethical argument against Apple enforcing the age workplace rule.

What fundamental values underwrite the argument?

3. From the information given and reasonable assumptions about these factories and the living conditions of

people working inside them, sketch an argument in favor of Apple enforcing the age workplace rule. What

fundamental values underwrite the argument?

4. Within the context of the Apple situation, what’s the difference between making a decision in terms of the

law and in terms of ethics?

5. Assume that in the countries where fifteen-year-olds were working, it’s customary for children

even younger to earn an adult-type living.

o What is an advantage of following the local customs when making economic decisions like the one

confronting Apple?

o Does the custom of employing young workers in some countries change your ethical consideration

of the practice in those places? Why or why not?

6. Attributing responsibility—blaming another for doing wrong—requires that the following

conditions hold:

o The person is able to understand right and wrong.

o The person acts to cause (or fails to act to prevent) a wrong.

o The person acts knowing what they’re doing.

o The person acts from their own free will.

Assuming it’s unethical for fifteen-year-olds to work factory shifts making iPhones, who bears

responsibility for the wrong?

o Do the fifteen-year-olds bear some responsibility? Explain.

o Does Steve Jobs, the CEO of Apple? Explain.

o Are shareholders guilty? Explain.

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o Do people who use iPhones bear responsibility? Explain.

I Swear

Since 2006, students at the Columbia Business School have been required to pledge “I adhere to the

principles of truth, integrity, and respect. I will not lie, cheat, steal, or tolerate those who do.”

This is a substantial promise, but it doesn’t sound like it’ll create too many tremendous burdens or require

huge sacrifices.

A somewhat more demanding pledge solidified in 2010 when a group of business school students from

Columbia, Duke Fuqua, Harvard, MIT Sloan, NYU Stern, Rensselaer Lally, Thunderbird, UNC Kenan-

Flagler, and Yale met to formalize the following MBA Oath:

As a business leader I recognize my role in society.

 My purpose is to lead people and manage resources to create value that no single individual can

create alone.

 My decisions affect the well-being of individuals inside and outside my enterprise, today and

tomorrow.

Therefore, I promise that:

 I will manage my enterprise with loyalty and care, and will not advance my personal interests at

the expense of my enterprise or society.

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 I will understand and uphold, in letter and spirit, the laws and contracts governing my conduct

and that of my enterprise.

 I will refrain from corruption, unfair competition, or business practices harmful to society.

 I will protect the human rights and dignity of all people affected by my enterprise, and I will

oppose discrimination and exploitation.

 I will protect the right of future generations to advance their standard of living and enjoy a

healthy planet.

 I will report the performance and risks of my enterprise accurately and honestly.

 I will invest in developing myself and others, helping the management profession continue to

advance and create sustainable and inclusive prosperity.

In exercising my professional duties according to these principles, I recognize that my behavior

must set an example of integrity, eliciting trust and esteem from those I serve. I will remain

accountable to my peers and to society for my actions and for upholding these standards. [2]

QUE STIONS

1. The second introductory clause of the MBA Oath is “My decisions affect the well-being of individuals inside

and outside my enterprise, today and tomorrow.” [3] What’s the difference between seeing this as a

positive ethical stand in favor of a broad social responsibility held by those in business, and seeing it as

arrogance?

2. Looking at the MBA Oath, can you list a set of values that are probably shared by those responsible for its

creation?

3. All this pledging and oathing suddenly popping up at business schools drew the attention of

the New York Times, and soon after, an article appeared: “A Promise to Be Ethical in an Era of

Immorality.”[4] Many of the readers’ comments at the end are interesting. The commenter paulnyc

writes that “most students go to MBA programs to advance their careers and to earn more

money, pure and simple, and there is nothing wrong with it.” [5]

o What values underlie paulnyc’s perspective?

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o How is paulnyc’s vision different from the one espoused in the oath?

4. The commenter JerryNY wrote, “Greed IS good as long as it is paired with the spirit of fairness.

Virtually all of the major advances in science and technology were made with greed as one of the

motivating factors. Gugliemo [sic] Marconi, Alexander Graham Bell, Bill Gates, Henry Ford and

Steve Jobs would not have given us the life changing technological advances of our time were it

not for personal greed. Remove that element, and your class is destined for mediocrity.” [6]

Is it plausible to assert that JerryNY shares most of the values of those who wrote the MBA Oath,

it’s just that he sees a different business attitude as the best way to serve those values? If so,

explain. If not, why not?

5. Eric writes,

I would refuse to take that oath…on principle. The idea that an individual’s proper motive

should be to serve “the greater good” is highly questionable. This altruistic ethic is what

supported the collectivist of communism and National Socialism. If my life belongs first and

foremost to “the greater good,” it follows that the greatest virtue is to live as a slave. A

slave’s existence, after all, is devoted primarily for the benefit of his master. The master can

be a plantation owner or a King or an oligarchy or a society that demands your servitude.

The only oath I’d be willing to take is, “I swear, by my life and my love of it, that I will never

live for the sake of another man, nor ask another man to live for mine.” [7]

In your own words, contrast the values the MBA Oath supporters espouse with the values the

commenter Eric espouses.

6. The commenter Clyde Wynant is skeptical. He writes this about those who take the MBA Oath:

“Call me hyper-cynical, but I can’t help wondering if a lot of these kids aren’t hoping that having

this ‘pledge’ on their résumé might help them look good.” [8]

Is it unethical to take the pledge without expecting to adhere to it simply because you think it will

help in your job search, or is that strategy just a different kind of ethics? Explain.

7. The commenter Mikhail is skeptical. He writes, “Give me a break…With the next upswing of the

economy, these leeches will be sucking the lifeblood out of our collective economies like the

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champions they truly are!!! Yes, perhaps opportunistic parasites every last one of them—but

really, it’s not their fault—they’re just programmed that way.” [9]

When he says business school students are programmed, what does he mean? If someone is

programmed to be an opportunistic parasite in business, can we blame them for what they do? If

so, how? If not, who should be blamed?

8. The commenter as is skeptical. He writes, “Don’t make me laugh. If they are so concerned about

the ‘greater good,’ go into teaching and nursing.” [10]

Assume the MBA Oath does stress the importance of the greater good, and you too are going into

the economic world with that as a privileged value. How could you respond to the argument that

you really should be doing nursing or something more obviously serving the general good?

9. According to the Times, B-schoolers aren’t lining up for the MBA Oath: only about 20 percent take the

pledge. How could you convince the other 80 percent to sign on?

I.M.P. (It’s My Party)

“Look at them!” he said, his eyes dancing. “That’s what it’s all about, the way the people feel. It’s

not about the sellout performances and the caliber of the bands that appear here. It’s about the

people who buy tickets, having a good time.” [11]

Source: Photo courtesy of Kevin Dooley, http://www.flickr.com/photos/pagedooley/4530723795/.

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That’s Seth Hurwitz quoted in the Washington Post, talking about his 9:30 Club, a small venue playing

over-the-hill bands on the way down, and fresh acts scratching their way up.

The story’s curious detail is that even though Hurwitz calls his company I.M.P. (It’s My Party), he doesn’t

spend much time at his club. In fact, he’s almost never there. Part of the reason is that his workday begins

at 6 a.m., so he’s actually back in bed preparing for the next day before his enterprise gets going in earnest

each night. His job is straightforward: sitting in the second floor office of his suburban DC home, he

scrutinizes the music publications and statistics, probing for bands that people want to see and that won’t

charge too much to appear. He told the Post that he won’t book an act as a favor, and he won’t flatter a

group into playing his club to keep them away from the competition by overpaying them. “I don’t

subscribe,” he says, “to doing shows that will lose money.”

Hurwitz has been connected with music in one way or another for almost as long as he can remember.

The Post relates some of his early memories:

He rigged a system to broadcast radio from his basement to his parents and brothers in the living

room. “I used to bring my singles into class and play them,” Hurwitz said. When he was 16, he

decided he wanted to be a deejay and got his chance when alternative rock station WHFS gave

him a spot. “It was from 7:45 to 8—fifteen minutes,” he said, laughing. “But that was okay

because I wanted to be on the radio, and I had my own show, as a high school student.” He said

he was fired “for being too progressive.” [12]

It’s a long way from getting fired for playing music too obscure for alternative radio to where Hurwitz is

now: putting on concerts by bands selected because they’ll make money.

QUE STIONS

1. Hurwitz is brutally honest about the fact that he’ll only contract bands capable of turning a profit.

When he was younger and a deejay, he insisted on playing the music he judged best no matter

how many people turned off the radio when his show came on (an attitude that cost him the job).

o What, if anything, is Hurwitz the older concert promoter compromising to get ahead? Is there an

ethical objection that could be raised here? If so, what? If not, why not?

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o When Hurwitz was a deejay, he played records that led people to change the station. Then the

station changed him. Is this an example of business regulating itself? Is there an ethical side to

this, or is it just the way money works? Explain.

o From the information given, would you judge that Hurwitz is successful in business? Why or why

not?

o Are all these questions part of institutional business ethics or personal business ethics? Explain.

2. Hurwitz says that he doesn’t book bands as favors. Presumably at least some of the favors he’s

talking about would be to friends.

o Do people who run their own company have an ethical responsibility to separate friends from

business?

3. One nice thing about Hurwitz working upstairs in his own house is that he can show up for work in the

morning in his pajamas. Should all places of business be like that—with people free to wear whatever they

want for work? Explain your answer from an ethical perspective.

4. Most of Hurwitz’s shows are on weeknights. Some concertgoers may have such a good time that

they can’t make it in to work the next day.

o If you go to a concert on a Wednesday and are too hung over to make it to work on Thursday,

what should you tell your boss on Friday? That you were hung over? That your car broke down?

Something else? Justify.

o Should Hurwitz accept some responsibility and blame for absent employees? Explain.

[1] Connie Guglielmo, “Apple Says Children Were Used to Build iPhone, iPod (Update1),” Bloomberg,

February 27, 2010, accessed May 11, 2011,

http://www.bloomberg.com/apps/news?pid=newsarchive&sid=aiEeeQNHkrOY.

[2] “The MBA Oath,” MBA Oath, accessed May 11, 2011, http://mbaoath.org/about/the-mba-oath.

[3] “The MBA Oath,” MBA Oath, accessed May 11, 2011, http://mbaoath.org/about/the-mba-oath.

[4] Leslie Wayne, “A Promise to Be Ethical in an Era of Immorality,” New York Times, May 29, 2009,

accessed May 11, 2011, http://www.nytimes.com/2009/05/30/business/30oath.html.

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[5] paulnyc, May 30, 2009 (10:58 a.m.), comment on Leslie Wayne, “A Promise to Be Ethical in an Era of

Immorality,” New York Times, May 29, 2009, accessed May 11, 2011,

http://community.nytimes.com/comments/www.nytimes.com/2009/05/30/business/30oath.html?sort

=oldest.

[6] JerryNY, May 30, 2009 (10:51 a.m.), comment on Leslie Wayne, “A Promise to Be Ethical in an Era of

Immorality,” New York Times, May 29, 2009, accessed May 11, 2011,

http://community.nytimes.com/comments/www.nytimes.com/2009/05/30/business/30oath.html?sort

=oldest.

[7] Eric, May 30, 2009 (10:35 a.m.), comment on Leslie Wayne, “A Promise to Be Ethical in an Era of

Immorality,” New York Times, May 29, 2009, accessed May 11, 2011,

http://community.nytimes.com/comments/www.nytimes.com/2009/05/30/business/30oath.html?sort

=oldest.

[8] Clyde Wynant, May 30, 2009 (10:55 a.m.), comment on Leslie Wayne, “A Promise to Be Ethical in an

Era of Immorality,” New York Times, May 29, 2009, accessed May 11, 2011,

http://community.nytimes.com/comments/www.nytimes.com/2009/05/30/business/30oath.html?sort

=oldest.

[9] Mikhail, May 30, 2009 (10:35 a.m.), comment on Leslie Wayne, “A Promise to Be Ethical in an Era of

Immorality,” New York Times, May 29, 2009, accessed May 11, 2011,

http://community.nytimes.com/comments/www.nytimes.com/2009/05/30/business/30oath.html?sort

=oldest.

[10] as, May 30, 2009 (10:35 a.m.), comment on Leslie Wayne, “A Promise to Be Ethical in an Era of

Immorality,” New York Times, May 29, 2009, accessed May 11, 2011,

http://community.nytimes.com/comments/www.nytimes.com/2009/05/30/business/30oath.html?sort

=oldest.

[11] Avis Thomas-Lester, “A Club Owner’s Mojo,” Washington Post, December 28, 2009, accessed May

11, 2011, http://views.washingtonpost.com/on-success/what-it-takes/2009/12/seth_hurwitz.html.

[12] Avis Thomas-Lester, “A Club Owner’s Mojo,” Washington Post, December 28, 2009, accessed May

11, 2011, http://views.washingtonpost.com/on-success/what-it-takes/2009/12/seth_hurwitz.html.

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Chapter 2

Theories of Duties and Rights: Traditional Tools for

Making Decisions in Business When the Means Justify

the Ends

Chapter Overview

Chapter 2 “Theories of Duties and Rights: Traditional Tools for Making Decisions in Business When the

Means Justify the Ends” examines some theories guiding ethical decisions in business. It considers ethics

defined by duties and rights.

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2.1 The Means Justify the Ends versus the Ends Justify the

Means

L EARNING OBJECTIVE

1. Distinguish ethical theory centered on means from theory centered on ends.

A Foundational Question

In business ethics, do the means justify the ends, or do the ends justify the means? Is it better to have a set

of rules telling you what you ought to do in any particular situation and then let the chips fall where they

may, or should you worry more about how things are going to end up and do whatever’s necessary to

reach that goal?

Until recently, Eddy Lepp ran an organic medicine business in Northern California. His herbal product

soothed nausea and remedied vomiting, especially as suffered by chemo patients. He had a problem,

though. While his business had been OK’d by California regulators, federal agencies hadn’t approved: on

the national level, selling his drug was breaking the law. On the other hand, not selling his remedy had a

significant downside: it was consigning his clients to debilitating suffering. So when federal agents came

knocking on his door, he had to make a decision.

If the means justify the ends—if you should follow the rules no matter the consequences—then when the

agents ask Lepp point blank whether he’s selling the medicine, the ethical action is to admit it. He should

tell the truth even though that will mean the end of his business. On the other hand, if the ends justify the

means—if your ethical interest focuses on the consequences of an act instead of what you actually do—

then the ethics change. If there are a law forcing people to suffer unnecessarily, it should be broken. And

when the agents ask him whether he’s selling, he’s going to have an ethical reason to lie.

Across the entire field of traditional ethics, this is a foundational distinction. Is it what you do that

matters, or the consequences? It’s hard to get oriented in ethics without making a preliminary decision

between these two. No one can make the decision for you, but before anyone can make it, an

understanding of how each works should be reached. This chapter will consider ethics as focusing on the

specific act and not the consequences. Theories of duties and rights center discussion.

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Chapter 3 “Theories of Consequence Ethics: Traditional Tools for Making Decisions in Business when the

Ends Justify the Means” is about ethics as looking at the consequences instead of the act.

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 When the means justify the ends, ethical consideration focuses on what you do, not the consequences of

what you’ve done.

 Traditionally, focusing on means instead of ends leads to an ethics based on duties or rights.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. Your mother is ill with diabetes, and you can’t afford her medicine. In the pharmacy one day, you notice

the previous customer forgot that same prescription on the counter when she left. Why might the premise

that the ends justify the means lead you to steal the pills?

2. Why might the premise that the means justify the ends lead you to return the pills?

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2.2 Perennial Duties

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

1. Define an ethical duty.

2. Distinguish specific duties.

3. Show how ethical duties work in business.

4. Consider advantages and drawbacks of an ethics based on duties.

Duties

“Should I steal that?”

“No, stealing’s wrong.”

Basic ethics. There are things that are right and others that are wrong, and the discussion ends. This level

of clarity and solidity is the main strength of an ethics based on duties. We all have a duty not to steal, so

we shouldn’t do it. More broadly, when we’re making moral decisions, the key to deciding well is

understanding what our duties are and obeying them. An ethics based on duties is one where certain rules

tell us what we ought to do, and it’s our responsibility to know and follow those rules.

The Madoff Family

If we’re supposed to obey our duties, then what exactly are they? That’s a question Andrew Madoff faced

in December 2008 when he learned that some—maybe most, maybe all—of the money he and his family

had been donating to the charitable Lymphoma Research Foundation and similar medical investigation

enterprises was, in fact, stolen.

It was big money—in the millions—channeled to dedicated researchers hot on the trail of a remedy for

lymphoma, a deadly cancer. Andrew, it should be noted, wasn’t only a cancer altruist; he was also a

victim, and the charitable money started flowing to the researchers soon after he was diagnosed.

It’s unclear whether Andrew knew the money was stolen, but there’s no doubt that his dad did. Dad—

Bernard “Bernie” Madoff—was the one who took it. The largest Ponzi scheme in history, they call it.

A Ponzi scheme—named after the famous perpetrator Charles Ponzi—makes suckers of investors by

briefly delivering artificially high returns on their money. The idea is simple: You take $100 from client A,

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promising to invest the money cleverly and get a massive profit. You spend $50 on yourself, and at the

end of the year, you send the other $50 back to the client along with a note saying that the original $100

investment is getting excellent results and another $50 should come in next year and every year from then

on. Happy client A recommends friends, who become clients B, C, and D. They bring in a total of $300, so

it’s easy to make good on the original promise to send a $50 return the next year to client A. And you’ve

now got $250 remaining from these three new clients, $150 of which you will soon return to them ($50

for each of the three new clients), leaving you with $100 to spend on yourself. The process repeats, and it’s

not long before people are lining up to hand over their money. Everyone makes off like bandits.

Bandit is the right term for Madoff, who ran his Ponzi empire for around fifteen years. So many people

handed over so much cash, and the paper trail of fake stock-purchase receipts and the rest grew so

complicated that it’s impossible to determine exact numbers of victims and losses. Federal authorities

have estimated the victims were around five thousand and the losses around $65 billion, which works out

to about $13 million squeezed from each client.

Madoff had, obviously, rich clients. He met them at his home in New York City; at his mansion

in hyperwealthy

Palm Beach, Florida; or on his fifty-five-foot yacht cleverly named Bull. He impressed them with a

calm demeanor and serious knowledge. While it’s true that he was mostly taking clients’ money and

sticking it in his wallet, the investments he claimed to engineer were actually quite sophisticated; they had

to do with buying stock in tandem with options to buy and sell that same stock on the futures market. He

threw in technical words like “put” and “call” and left everyone thinking he was either crazy or a genius.

Since he was apparently making money, “genius” seemed the more likely reality. People also found him

trustworthy. He sat on the boards of several Wall Street professional organizations and was known on the

charity circuit as a generous benefactor. Health research was a favorite, especially after Andrew’s cancer

was diagnosed.

Exactly how much money Madoff channeled to Andrew and other family members isn’t clear. By late

2008, however, Andrew knew that his father’s investment company had hit a rough patch. The stock

market was crashing, investors wanted their money back, and Madoff was having trouble rounding up the

cash, which explains why Andrew was surprised when his father called him in and said he’d decided to

distribute about $200 million in bonuses to family members and employees.

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It didn’t make sense. How could there be a cash-flow crisis but still enough cash to pay out giant bonuses?

The blunt question—according to the Madoff family—broke Madoff down. He spilled the truth: there was

little money left; it was all a giant lie.

The next day, Andrew reported the situation to the authorities.

Madoff sits in jail now. He’ll be there for the rest of his life. He claims his scheme was his project alone

and his children had no knowledge or participation in it, despite the fact that they were high executives in

his fraudulent company. Stubbornly, he has refused to cooperate with prosecutors interested in

determining the extent to which the children may have been involved. His estate has been seized. His

wife, though, was left with a small sum—$2.5 million—to meet her day-to-day living expenses. Bilked

investors got nearly nothing.

One of those investors, according to ABC News, was Sheryl Weinstein. She and her family are now looking

for a place to live because after investing everything with Madoff and losing it, they were unable to make

their house payments. At Madoff’s sentencing hearing, and with her husband seated beside her, she spoke

passionately about their plight and called Madoff a “beast.” The hearing concluded with the judge calling

Madoff “evil.” [1]

Weinstein was well remembered by Madoff’s longtime secretary, Eleanor Squillari. Squillari reported that

Weinstein would often call Madoff and that “he would roll his eyes and then they’d go meet at a hotel.”

Their affair lasted twenty years, right up until the finance empire collapsed.

What Do I Owe Myself? Historically Accumulated Duties to the Self

Over centuries of thought and investigation by philosophers, clergy, politicians, entrepreneurs, parents,

students—by just about everyone who cares about how we live together in a shared world—a limited

number of duties have recurred persistently. Called perennial duties, these are basic obligations we have

as human beings; they’re the fundamental rules telling us how we should act. If we embrace them, we can

be confident that in difficult situations we’ll make morally respectable decisions.

Broadly, this group of perennial duties falls into two sorts:

1. Duties to ourselves

2. Duties to others

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Duties to the self-begin with our responsibility to develop our abilities and talents. The abilities we find

within us, the idea is, aren’t just gifts; it’s not only a strike of luck that some of us are born with a knack

for math, or an ear for music, or the ability to shepherd conflicts between people into agreements. All

these skills are also responsibilities. When we receive them, they come with the duty to develop them, to

not let them go to waste in front of the TV or on a pointless job.

Most of us have a feeling for this. It’s one thing if a vaguely clumsy girl in a ballet class decides to not sign

up the next semester and instead use the time trying to boost her GPA, but if someone who’s really good—

who’s strong, and elegant, and a natural—decides to just walk away, of course the coach and friends are

going to encourage her to think about it again. She has something that so few have, it’s a shame to waste

it; it’s a kind of betrayal of her own uniqueness. This is the spot where the ethics come in: the idea is that

she really should continue her development; it’s a responsibility she has to herself because she really can

develop.

What about Andrew Madoff, the cancer sufferer? He not only donated money to cancer research charities

but also dedicated his time, serving as chairman of the Lymphoma Research Foundation (until his dad

was arrested). This dedication does seem like a duty because of his unique situation: as a sufferer, he

perfectly understood the misery caused by the disease, and as a wealthy person, he could muster a serious

force against the suffering. When he did, he fulfilled the duty to exploit his particular abilities.

The other significant duty to oneself is nearly a corollary of the first: the duty to do ourselves no harm. At

root, this means we have a responsibility to maintain ourselves healthily in the world. It doesn’t do any

good to dedicate hours training the body to dance beautifully if the rest of the hours are dedicated to

alcoholism and Xanax. Similarly, Andrew should not only fight cancer publicly by advocating for medical

research but also fight privately by adhering to his treatment regime.

At the extreme, this duty also prohibits suicide, a possibility that no doubt crosses Bernie Madoff’s mind

from time to time as he contemplates spending the rest of his life in a jail cell.

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What Do I Owe Others? Historically Accumulated Duties to Others

The duties we have to ourselves be the most immediate, but the most commonly referenced duties are

those we have to others.

Avoid wronging others are the guiding duty to those around us. It’s difficult, however, to know exactly

what it means to wrong another in every particular case. It does seem clear that Madoff wronged his

clients when he pocketed their money. The case of his wife is blurrier, though. She was allowed to keep

more than $2 million after her husband’s sentencing. She claims she has a right to it because she never

knew what her husband was doing, and anyway, at least that much money came to her from other

perfectly legal investment initiatives her husband undertook. So she can make a case that the money is

hers to keep and she’s not wronging anyone by holding onto it. Still, it’s hard not to wonder about

investors here, especially ones like Sheryl Weinstein, who lost everything, including their homes.

Honesty is the duty to tell the truth and not leave anything important out. On this front, obviously, Madoff

wronged his investors by misleading them about what was happening with their money.

Respect others are the duty to treat others as equals in human terms. This doesn’t mean treating everyone

the same way. When a four-year-old asks where babies come from, the stork is a fine answer. When adult

investors asked Madoff where the profits came from, what they got was more or less a fairy tale. Now, the

first case is an example of respect: it demonstrates an understanding of another’s capacity to comprehend

the world and an attempt to provide an explanation matching that ability. The second is a lie; but more

than that, it’s a sting of disrespect. When Madoff invented stories about where the money came from, he

disdained his investors as beneath him, treating them as unworthy of the truth.

Beneficence is the duty to promote the welfare of others; it’s the Good Samaritan side of ethical duties.

With respect to his own family members, Madoff certainly fulfilled this obligation: every one of them

received constant and lavish amounts of cash. There’s also beneficence in Andrew’s work for charitable

causes, even if there’s a self-serving element, too. By contrast, Madoff displayed little beneficence for his

clients.

Gratitude is the duty to thank and remember those who help us. One of the curious parts of Madoff’s last

chapter is that in the end, at the sentencing hearing, a parade of witnesses stood up to berate him. But

even though Madoff had donated millions of dollars to charities over the years, not a single person or

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representative of a charitable organization stood up to say something on his behalf. That’s ingratitude, no

doubt.

But there’s more here than ingratitude; there’s also an important point about all ethics guided by basic

duties: the duties don’t exist alone. They’re all part of a single fabric, and sometimes they pull against each

other. In this case, the duty Madoff’s beneficiaries probably felt to a man who’d given them so much was

overwhelmed by the demand of another duty: the duty to respect others, specifically those who lost

everything to Madoff. It’s difficult to imagine a way to treat people more disdainfully than to thank the

criminal who stole their money for being so generous. Those who received charitable contributions from

Madoff were tugged in one direction by gratitude to him and in another by respect for his many victims.

All the receivers opted, finally, to respect the victims.

Fidelity is the duty to keep our promises and hold up our end of agreements. The Madoff case is littered

with abuses on this front. On the professional side, there’s the financier who didn’t invest his clients’

money as he’d promised; on the personal side, there’s Madoff and Weinstein staining their wedding vows.

From one end to the other in terms of fidelity, this is an ugly case.

Reparation is the duty to compensate others when we harm them. Madoff’s wife, Ruth, obviously didn’t

feel much of this. She walked away with $2.5 million.

The judge overseeing the case, on the other hand, filled in some of what Ruth lacked. To pay back bilked

investors, the court seized her jewelry, her art, and her mink and sable coats. Those things, along with the

couple’s three multimillion-dollar homes, the limousines, and the yacht, were all sold at public auction.

The Concept of Fairness

The final duty to be considered—fairness—requires more development than those already listed because

of its complexity.

According to Aristotle, fairness is treating equals equally and un-equals unequally. The treat equals

equally part means, for a professional investor like Madoff, that all his clients get the same deal: those

who invest equal amounts of money at about the same time should get an equal return. So even though

Madoff was sleeping with one of his investors, this shouldn’t allow him to treat her account distinctly from

the ones belonging to the rest. Impartiality must govern the operation.

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The other side of fairness is the requirement to treat un-equals unequally. Where there’s a meaningful

difference between investors—which means a difference pertaining to the investment and not something

extraneous like a romantic involvement—there should correspond a proportional difference in what

investors receive. Under this clause, Madoff could find justification for allowing two distinct rates of

return for his clients. Those that put up money at the beginning when everything seemed riskier could

justifiably receive a higher payout than the one yielded to more recent participants. Similarly, in any

company, if layoffs are necessary, it might make sense to say that those who’ve been working in the

organization longest should be the last ones to lose their jobs. In either case, the important point is

that fairness doesn’t mean everyone gets the same treatment; it means that rules for treating people

must be applied equally. If a corporate executive decides on layoffs according to a last-in-first-out

process, that’s fine, but it would be unfair to make exceptions.

One of the unique aspects of the idea of fairness as a duty is its hybrid status between duties to the self

and duties to others. While it would seem strange to say that we have a duty of gratitude or fidelity to

ourselves, it clearly makes sense to assert that we should be fair to ourselves. Impartiality—the rule of no

exceptions—means no exceptions. So a stock investor who puts his own money into a general fund he runs

should receive the same return as everyone else. A poor investment that loses 10 percent should cost him

no more than 10 percent (he has to be fair to himself), and one that gains 10 percent shouldn’t net him

any more than what the others receive (he has to be fair to others).

Modern Fairness: Rawls

The recent American philosopher John Rawls proposes a veil of ignorance as a way of testing for fairness,

especially with respect to the distribution of wealth in general terms. For example, in society as Madoff

knew it, vast inequalities of wealth weren’t only allowed, they were honored: being richer than anyone else

was something to be proud of, and Madoff lived that reality full tilt. Now, if you asked Madoff whether

we should allow some members of society to be much wealthier than others, he might say that’s fair:

everyone is allowed to get rich in America, and that’s just what he did. However, the guy coming into

Madoff’s office at 3 a.m. to mop up and empty the trash might see things differently. He may claim to

work just as hard as Madoff, but without getting fancy cars or Palm Springs mansions. People making the

big bucks, the suggestion could follow, should get hit with bigger taxes and the money used to provide

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educational programs allowing guys from the cleaning crew to get a better chance at climbing the income

ladder. Now, given these two perspectives, is there a way to decide what’s really fair when it comes to

wealth and taxes?

Rawls proposes that we try to re-imagine society without knowing what our place in it would be. In the

case of Madoff, he may like things as they are, but would he stick with the idea that everything’s fair if he

were told that a rearrangement was coming and he was going to get stuck back into the business world at

random? He might hesitate there, seeing that he could get dealt a bad hand and, yes, end up being the guy

who cleans offices. And that guy who cleans offices might figure that if he got a break, then he’d be the rich

one, and so he’s no longer so sure about raising taxes. The veil of ignorance is the idea that when you set

up the rules, you don’t get to know beforehand where you’ll fall inside them, which is going to force you to

construct things in a way that is really balanced and fair.

As a note here, nearly all children know the veil of ignorance perfectly. When two friends together buy a

candy bar to split, they’ll frequently have one person break it, and the other choose a half. If you’re the

breaker, you’re under the veil of ignorance since you don’t know which half you’re going to get. The result

is you break it fairly, as close to the middle as you can.

Balancing the Duties

Duties include those to

 develop abilities and talents,

 do ourselves no harm,

 avoid wronging others,

 honesty,

 respect others,

 beneficence,

 gratitude,

 fidelity,

 reparation,

 fairness,

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Taken on their own, each of these plugs into normal experience without significant problems. Real

troubles come, though, when more than one duty seems applicable and they’re pulling in different

directions.

Take Andrew Madoff, for example. Lying in bed at night and taking his ethical duties seriously, what

should he do in the wake of the revelation that his family business was in essence a giant theft? On one

side, there’s an argument that he should just keep on keeping on by maintaining his life as a New York

financier. The route to justifying that decision starts with a duty to him:

 Develop abilities and talents. As an expert in finance, someone with both knowledge of and

experience in the field, Andrew should continue cultivating and perfecting his talents, at least those he

had acquired on the legitimate side of the family’s dealings.

Beyond the duty to himself, Andrew can further buttress his decision to keep his current life going by

referencing a duty to others:

 Beneficence. This may demand that Andrew continue along the lines he’d already established because

they enabled his involvement with cancer research. He’s got money to donate to the cause and his very

personal experience with the disease allows rare insight into what can be done to help sufferers. To the

extent that’s true, beneficence supports Andrew’s decision to go on living as he had been.

On the other side, what’s the duty-based argument in favor of Andrew taking a different path by breaking

away from his old lifestyle and dedicating all his energy and time to doing what he can for the jilted

investors the family business left behind?

 Respect. The duty to treat others as equals demands that Andrew take seriously the abilities and lives of

all those who lost everything. Why should they be reduced to powerlessness and poverty while he

continues maximizing his potential as a stock buyer and nonprofit leader? Respecting others and their

losses may mean leaving his profession and helping them get back on their feet.

 

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 Reparation. This duty advances as the proposal for Andrew to liquidate his assets and divide the money

as fairly as possible among the ruined investors. It may be that Andrew didn’t orchestrate the family Ponzi

scheme, but wittingly or not, he participated and that opens the way to the duty to repayment.

So which path should Andrew follow? There’s no certain answer. What duties do allow Andrew—or

anyone considering his situation—to achieve is a solid footing for making a reasonable and defendable

decision. From there, the ethical task is to weigh the various duties and choose which ones pull harder and

make the stronger demand.

Where Do Duties Come From?

The question about the origin of duties belongs to meta-ethics, to purified discussions about the theory of

ethics as opposed to its application, so it falls outside this book’s focus. Still, two commonly cited sources

of duties can be quickly noted.

One standard explanation is that duties are written into the nature of the universe; they’re part of the way

things are. In a sense, they’re a moral complement to the laws of physics. We know that scientists form

mathematical formulas to explain how far arrows will travel when shot at a certain speed; these formulas

describe the way the natural world is. So too in the realm of ethics: duties are the rules describing how the

world is in moral terms. On this account, ethics isn’t so different from science; it’s just that scientists

explore physical reality and ethicists explore moral reality. In both cases, however, the reality is already

there; we’re just trying to understand it.

Another possible source for the duties is humanity in the sense that part of what it means to be human is

to have this particular sense of right and wrong. Under this logic, a computer-guided robot may beat

humans in chess, but no machine will ever understand what a child does when mom asks, “Did you break

the vase? Tell me the truth.” Maybe this moral spark children are taken to feel is written into their genetic

code, or maybe it’s something ineffable, like a soul. Whichever, the reason it comes naturally is because

it’s part of our nature.

What Are the Advantages and Drawbacks of an Ethics Based on Duties?

One of the principal advantages of working with an ethics of duties is simplicity: duties are fairly easy to

understand and work with. We all use them every day. For many of us these duties are the first thing

coming to mind when we hear the word ethics. Straightforward rules about honesty, gratitude, and

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keeping up our ends of agreements—these are the components of a common education in ethics, and most

of us are well experienced in their use.

The problem, though, comes when the duties pull against each other: when one says yes and the other

says no. Unfortunately, there’s no hard-and-fast rule for deciding which duties should take precedence

over the others.

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 Duties include responsibilities to one self and to others.

 Duties do not exist in isolation but in a network, and they sometimes pull against each other.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. Bernie Madoff was a very good—though obviously not a perfect—fraudster. He got away with a lot for a

long time. How could the duty to develop one’s own abilities be mustered to support his decision to

become a criminal?

2. In the Madoff case, what duties could be mustered to refute the conclusion that he did the right thing by

engaging in fraud?

3. Madoff gave up most of his money and possessions and went to jail for his crimes. Is there anything else

he should have done to satisfy the ethical duty of reparation?

4. In your own words, what does it mean to treat equals equally and un-equals unequally?

[1] Brian Ross, Anna Schecter, and Kate McCarthy, “Bernie Madoff’s Other Secret: His Hadassah CFO

Mistress,” ABCNews.com, April 16, 2011, accessed May 11,

2011,http://abcnews.go.com/Blotter/Madoff/story?id=8319695&page=1.

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2.3 Immanuel Kant: The Duties of the Categorical Imperative

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

1. Define Immanuel Kant’s categorical imperative.

2. Show how the categorical imperative functions in business.

3. Consider advantages and drawbacks of an ethics based on the categorical imperative.

Kant

 

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German philosopher Immanuel Kant (1724–1804) accepted the basic proposition that a theory of duties—

a set of rules telling us what we’re obligated to do in any particular situation—was the right approach to

ethical problems. What he set out to add, though, was a stricter mechanism for the use of duties in our

everyday experience. He wanted a way to get all these duties we’ve been talking about to work together, to

produce a unified recommendation, instead of leaving us confused between loyalty to one principle and

another. At least on some basic issues, Kant set out to produce ethical certainty.

Lying is about as primary as issues get in ethics, and the Madoff case is shot through with it:

 Bernie Madoff always claimed that the Ponzi scheme wasn’t the original idea. He sought money from

investors planning to score big with complicated financial maneuvers. He took a few losses early on,

though, and faced the possibility of everyone just taking their cash and going home. That’s when he

started channeling money from new investors to older ones, claiming the funds were the fruit of his

excellent stock dealing. He always intended, Madoff says, to get the money back, score some huge

successes, and they’d let him get on the straight and narrow again. It never happened. But that doesn’t

change the fact that Madoff thought it would. He was lying temporarily, and for the good of everyone in

the long run.

 Sheryl Weinstein had a twenty-year affair with Madoff. She also invested her family’s life savings with

him. When the Ponzi scheme came undone, she lost everything. To get some money back, she considered

writing a tell-all, and that led to a heart-wrenching decision between money and her personal life. Her

twenty-year dalliance was not widely known, and things could have remained that way: her husband and

son could’ve gone on without the whole world knowing that the husband was a cuckold and the son the

product of a poisoned family. But they needed money because they’d lost everything, including their

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home, in Madoff’s scam. So does she keep up the false story or does she turn the truth into a profit

opportunity?

What does Kant say about all this? The answer is his categorical imperative. An imperative is something

you need to do. A hypothetical imperative is something you need to do, but only in certain circumstances;

for example, I have to eat, but only in those circumstances where I’m hungry. A categorical imperative, by

contrast, is something you need to do all the time: there are ethical rules that don’t depend on the

circumstances, and it’s the job of the categorical imperative to tell us what they are. Here, we will consider

two distinct expressions of Kant’s categorical imperative, two ways that guidance is provided.

First Version of the Categorical Imperative

The first version or expression of the categorical imperative: Act in a way that the rule for your action

could be universalized. When you’re thinking about doing something, this means you should imagine

that everyone did it all the time. Now, can this make sense? Can it happen? Is there a world you can

imagine where everyone does this thing that you’re considering at every opportunity? Take the case of

Madoff asking himself, “Should I lie to keep investor money flowing in?” What we need to do is imagine

this act as universalized: everyone lies all the time. Just imagine that. You ask someone whether it’s sunny

outside. It is sunny, but they say, “No, it’s raining.” The next day you ask someone else. Again, it’s sunny,

but they say, “No, it’s snowing.” This goes on day after day. Pretty soon, wouldn’t you just give up listening

to what people say? Here’s the larger point: if everyone lies all the time, pretty soon people are going to

stop listening to anyone. And if no one’s listening, is it possible to lie to them?

What Kant’s categorical imperative shows is that lying cannot be universalized. The act of lying can’t

survive in a world where everyone’s just making stuff up all the time. Since no one will be taking anyone

else seriously, you may try to sell a false story but no one will be buying.

Something similar happens in comic books. No one accuses authors and illustrators of lying when Batman

kicks some bad guys into the next universe and then strips off his mask and his hair is perfect. That’s not a

lie; it’s fiction. And fictional stories can’t lie because no one expects they’ll tell the truth. No one asks

whether it’s real or fake, only whether it’s entertaining. The same would go in the real world if everyone

lied all the time. Reality would be like a comic: it might be fun, or maybe not, but accusing someone of

lying would definitely be absurd.

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Bringing this back to Madoff, as Kant sees it he has to make a basic decision: should I lie to investors to

keep my operation afloat? The answer is no. According to the categorical imperative, it must be no, not

because lying is directly immoral, but because lying cannot be universalized and therefore it’s immoral.

The same goes for Sheryl Weinstein as she wonders whether she should keep the lid on her familywrecking

affair. The answer is no because the answer is always no when the question is whether I should

lie. You might want to respond by insisting, “She’s already done the deed and Bernie’s in jail so it’s not

going to happen again. The best thing at this point would be for her to just keep her mouth shut and hold

her family together as

as best she can.” That’s a fair argument. But for Kant it’s also a loser because the

categorical imperative gives the last word. There’s no appeal. There’s no lying, no matter what.

One more point about the universalization of acts: even if you insist that a world could exist where

everyone lied all the time, would you really want to live there? Most of us don’t mind lying so much as

long as we’re the ones getting away with it. But if everyone’s doing it, that’s different. Most of us might

agree that if we had a choice between living in a place where everyone told the truth and one where

everyone lied, we’d go for the honest reality. It just makes sense: lying will help you only if you’re the sole

liar, but if everyone’s busy taking advantage of everyone else, then there’s nothing in it for you, and you

might just as well join everyone in telling the truth.

Conclusion. The first expression of the categorical imperative—act in such a way that the rule for your

action could be universalized—is a consistency principle. Like the golden rule (treat others as you’d like to

be treated), it forces you to ask how things would work if everyone else did what you’re considering doing.

Objections to the First Version of the Categorical Imperative

One of the objections to this ethical guidance is that a reality without lying can be awfully uncomfortable.

If your boss shows up for work on a Friday wearing one of those designer dresses that looks great on a

supermodel and ridiculous everywhere else, and she asks what you think, what are you going to say?

“Hideous”? Telling the truth no matter what, whether we’re at work or anywhere else, is one of those

things that sounds good in the abstract but is almost impossible to actually live by.

Then the problem gets worse. A deranged addict storms into your office announcing that he’s just received

a message from the heavens. While chewing manically on dirty fingernails, he relates that he’s supposed

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to attack someone named Jones—anyone named Jones. “What,” he suddenly demands, “is your name?”

Unfortunately, you happen to be named Sam Jones. Now what?

Second Version of the Categorical Imperative

The second expression of the categorical imperative is: Treat people as an end, and never as a means to an

end. To treat people as ends, not means is to never use anyone to get something else. People can’t be tools

or instruments; they can’t be things you employ to get to what you really want. A simple example of using

another as a means would be striking up a friendship with Chris because you really want to meet his wife

who happens to be a manager at the advertising company you desperately want to work for.

It’d be hard to imagine a clearer case of this principle being broken than that of Madoff’s Ponzi scheme.

He used the money from each new investor to pay off the last one. That means every investor was nothing

but a means to an end: everyone was nothing more than a way to keep the old investors happy and attract

new ones.

Madoff’s case of direct theft is clear cut, but others aren’t quite so easy. If Weinstein goes ahead and writes

her tell-all about life in bed with Madoff, is she using him as a means to her end (which is making

money)? Is she using book buyers? What about her husband and the suffering he would endure? It can be

difficult to be sure in every case exactly what it means to “use” another person.

Another example comes from Madoff’s son, Andrew, who donated time and money to the cause of treating

cancer. On one hand, this seems like a generous and beneficial treatment of others. It looks like he’s

valuing them as worthwhile and good people who deserve to be saved from a disease. On the other hand,

though, when you keep in mind that Andrew too had cancer, you wonder whether he’s just using other

peoples’ suffering to promote research so that he can be saved.

Summarizing, where the first of the categorical imperative’s expressions was a consistency principle (treat

others the way you want to be treated), this is a dignity principle: treat others with respect and as holding

value in themselves. You will act ethically, according to Kant, as long as you never accept the temptation

to treat others as a way to get something else.

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Objections to the Second Version of the Categorical Imperative

The principal objection to this aspect of Kant’s theory is that, like the previous, it sounds good in the

abstract, but when you think about how it would actually work, things become difficult.

Almost all businesses require treating people as means and not as ends. In the grocery store, the cashier

isn’t waiting there to receive your respectful attention. She’s there to run your items through the scanner

and that’s it. The same goes for the guy in the produce section setting up the banana display. Really,

just paying someone to do a job—no matter what the job might be—is treating them as a means to an end,

as little more than a way to get the work done.

If that’s right, then you’re not going too far by wondering whether the entire modern world of jobs and

money would unravel if we all suddenly became Kantians. Paying a janitor to clean up after hours, a

paralegal to proofread a lawyer’s briefs, a day-care worker to keep peace among children at recess, all

these treatments of others seem to fail Kant’s test.

Defenders of Kant understand all this perfectly and can respond. One argument is that providing someone

with a job is not treating them as a means to your ends; instead, by allowing them the opportunity to earn

a living, you’re actually supporting their projects and happiness. Seen this way, hiring people is not

denigrating them, it’s enabling. And far from being immoral in the Kantian sense, it’s ethically

recommendable.

 

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KEY TAKEAWAYS

 The first expression of Kant’s categorical imperative requires that ethical decisions be universalizable.

 The second expression of Kant’s categorical imperative requires that ethical decisions treat others as ends

and not means.

 Kant’s conception of ethical duties can provide clear guidance but at the cost of inflexibility: it can be hard

to make the categorical imperative work in everyday life.

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REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. Imagine Madoff lied to attain his clients’ money as he did, but instead of living the high life, he donated

everything to charity. For Kant, does this remove the ethical stain from his name? Why not?

2. Think back to your first job, whatever it was. Did you feel like you were used by the organization, or did

you feel like they were doing you a favor, giving you the job? How does the experience relate to the

imperative to treat others as an end and not a means?

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2.4 Rights

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

1. Define an ethical right.

2. Distinguish specific rights.

3. Show how ethical rights work in business.

4. Consider advantages and drawbacks of an ethics based on rights.

Rights

An ethics based on rights is similar to an ethics based on duties. In both cases specific principles provide

ethical guidance for your acts, and those principles are to be obeyed regardless of the consequences

further down the line. Unlike duties, however, rights-based ethics concentrate their force in delineating

your possibilities. The question isn’t so much What are you morally required to do; it’s more about

defining exactly where and when you’re free to do whatever you want and then deciding where you need

to stop and make room for other people to be free too. Stated slightly differently, duties tend to be ethics

as what you can’t do, and rights tend to be about what you can do.

My Property, My Religion, My Nonprofit Organization, My Health Care, My

Grass

Charles Edward “Eddy” Lepp is in jail now, in a prison not too far away from the site of the business that

got him in trouble: Eddy’s Medicinal Gardens and Ministry. What was Eddy Lepp the gardener and

minister up to on his twenty-acre property near a lake in California, about a hundred miles north from

San Francisco? Here are the highlights:

 Ministry. Lepp claims—and there doesn’t seem to be anyone who disputes him—that he’s an authentic

Rastafarian reverend.

 Rastafarianism. Developed over the last century in Africa and the Caribbean, the religion works within

the basic structure of Christianity but contains important innovations. Haile Selassie I was the emperor of

Ethiopia from 1930 to 1974 and, according to the faith, was also the reincarnation of Jesus Christ.

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Further, marijuana—called ganja by believers—accompanies religious meetings and ceremonies; it brings

adherents closer to God.

 Lepp’s Medicinal Gardens. In fact, this wasn’t a garden so much as a collective farm. Lepp oversaw

the work of volunteers—their numbers totaling about two hundred—and did some harvesting and

planting himself. Many of the farm’s marijuana leaves were smoked by the 2,500 members of his zonkedout

church as part of Rastafarian celebrations and meetings, and the rest was, according to Lepp,

distributed to individuals with serious health problems.

 Marijuana and health care. Studies indicate that in some patients marijuana may alleviate nausea

and vomiting, especially as connected with chemotherapy. There’s also a list of further symptoms and

maladies the drug could relieve, according to some evidence. It should be noted here that many suspect

the persons conducting these studies (not to mention the patients receiving the testing) are favorably

predisposed toward marijuana in the first place, and the prejudice may contaminate conclusions. What’s

certain is that from a strictly medical perspective, the question about marijuana’s utility remains

controversial. Among those who are convinced, however, smoking is a good remedy. That’s why in

California patients have been granted a legal right to possess and use marijuana medicinally, as long as

they’ve got a doctor’s approval. Unfortunately for Lepp, California law can’t bar federal prosecutions, and

it was the US Drug Enforcement Administration from all the way out in Washington, DC, that eventually

came after him. [1]

About retirement age now, Eddy Lepp is one of those guys who never really left Woodstock. Before being

incarcerated, he slumped around in tie-dyes and jeans. He liked wearing a hat emblazoned with the

marijuana leaf. Out on his semirural farm, he passed the days smoking joints and listening to Bob Marley

music.

Everyone seems to like the guy. A longtime activist for the legalization of marijuana, he’s even something

of a folk hero in Northern California. At his sentencing, the crowd (chanting “free Eddy!”) spilled out into

the courthouse hallways. The judge didn’t seem to mind the spectacle, and she went out of her way to say

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she didn’t want to hit him with ten years of jail time, but federal guidelines gave her no choice. Now

there’s talk of a pardon.

Like Bernie Madoff, Lepp was touched by cancer. Madoff’s son Andrew was stricken and so was Lepp’s

wife. She died. Also, like Madoff, Lepp was a businessman. Madoff made millions and lived in luxury

while robbing investors; Lepp made enough to scrape by from his ministry and farming enterprises.

What’s a Right?

One definition of a right in ethics is a justified claim against others. I have the right to launch a gardening

business or a church enterprise or both on my property, and you’re not allowed to simply storm in and

ruin things. You do have the right, however, to produce your own garden company and church on your

property. On my side, I have the right to free speech, to say whatever I want no matter how outrageous

and you can’t stop me. You can, however, say whatever you want, too; you can respond to my words with

whatever comes into your head or just ignore me completely. A right, in sum, is something you may do if

you wish, and others are morally obligated to permit your action.

Duties tend to be protective in nature; they’re about assuring that people aren’t mistreated. Rights are the

flip side; they’re liberating in nature, they’re about assuring that you’re as free as possible.

Because rights theory maximizes choices in the name of ethics, it’s not surprising that Lepp built his court

defense on that ground. Lepp fought the law by maintaining that his medical gardens business and church

operations involved his land and his religion. It wasn’t that he had a right to grow pot or pray to a specific

God; that had nothing to do with it. The point is he had a right to do whatever he wanted on that land,

and believe in whatever he wanted in his mind. That’s what rights are about. As opposed to duties that fix

on specific acts, rights ethics declares that there are places (like my land) where the acts don’t matter. As

long as no one else’s rights are being infringed on, I’m free.

Finally, duties tend to be community oriented: they’re about how we get along with others. Rights tend to

center on the individual and what he or she can do regardless of whether anyone else is around or not.

That explains why a duty-based ethics coheres more easily with a scene like the one Madoff provoked, a

situation that involves winners and losers, criminals and victims. On the other side, an ethics based on

rights is more convenient for Lepp and his gardening and religious enterprises. Though he ended up in

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jail, there were no obvious victims of his crimes; at least no one complained that they’d been mistreated or

victimized as individuals.

What Are the Characteristics of Rights?

English philosopher John Locke (1632–1704) maintained that rights are

 Universal. The fundamental rights don’t transform as you move from place to place or change with the

years.

 Equal. They’re the same for all, men and women, young and old.

 Inalienable. They can’t be taken, they can’t be sold, and they can’t be given away. We can’t not have

them. This leads to a curious paradox at the heart of rights theory. Freedom is a bedrock right, but

we’re not free to sell ourselves into slavery. We can’t because freedom is the way we are; since freedom is

part of my essence, it can’t go away without me disappearing too.

What Rights Do I Have?

The right to life is just what it sounds like: Lepp, you, and I should be able to go through our days without

worrying about someone terminating our existence. This right is so deeply embedded in our culture that it

almost seems unnecessary to state, but we don’t need to stretch too far away from our time and place to

find scenes of the right’s trampling. Between the world wars, Ukraine struggled for independence from

Joseph Stalin’s neighboring Russia. Stalin sealed the borders and sent troops to destroy all food in the

country. Millions died from starvation. Less dramatically but more contemporaneously, the right to life

has been cited as an argument against capital punishment.

The right to freedom guarantees individuals that they may do as they please, assuming their actions don’t

encroach on the freedom of others. In a business environment, this assures entrepreneurs like Lepp and

Madoff that they may mount whatever business operation they choose. Lepp’s garden and ministry were

surely unorthodox, but that can’t be a reason for its prohibition.

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Similarly, within a company, the right to freedom protects individuals against abuse. No boss can demand

more from an employee than what that employee has freely agreed—frequently through a signed

contract—to provide.

On the other side, however, there are questions about how deeply this basic right extends through day-today

working life. For example, the freewheeling Lepp probably wasn’t too concerned about the clothes his

volunteer workers chose to wear out in the garden, but what about clothes in Madoff’s investment house?

He was serving wealthy, urban clients in suits and ties. What would their reaction be to a junior

investment advisor just out of college who shows up for a meeting in a tie-dye and jeans? Some clients, it’s

safe to say, would head for the exit. Now, what recourse does boss Madoff have when the casual employee

says, “Look, it’s a free country; I can wear whatever I want”? Within a rights theory of ethics, it must be

conceded that the employee is correct. It’s also true, however, that Madoff has rights too—specifically, the

freedom to fire the guy. What can be taken from this is that, as a general rule, the enabling side of a right

ethics is that you can do whatever you want, but the limiting and controlling side is that the same goes for

everyone else.

From the right to freedom, other rights seem to derive naturally. The right to free speech is tremendously

important in the commercial world. Lepp’s messages to his Rasta flock may have provoked skepticism in

some listeners, but no one doubts that he had a right to voice his ideas. The same goes for Madoff’s

exuberant claims concerning his investing strategy. Crucially, the same also goes for those on the other

side of Madoff’s claims; the same freedom Madoff enjoyed also allowed whistle-blowers to answer back

that it’s impossible to legitimately realize such constant and high profits. In fact, in the case of Madoff’s

investment company, whistle-blowers did say that, repeatedly. No one listened, though. The right of free

speech doesn’t guarantee a hearing.

The right to religious expression also follows from basic freedom. It guaranteed Lepp the space he needed

to pioneer his particular brand of gardening Rastafarianism in Northern California. His is, obviously, a

weird case, but the right works in more traditional workplaces, too. USA Today [2] reported a case where

Muslim workers were fired from their jobs in several meatpacking plants in the Midwest because they left

the production line in the middle of the day without authorization to go outside and pray. The workers’

response? They filed a lawsuit claiming their right to religious expression had been violated.

No doubt it had been.

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But the company’s response is also weighty. According to the article, “The problem with the Muslim

prayer request is that it’s not one day or annual, it’s every day and multiple times. Further, those times

shift over the course of the year based on the sun’s position.”

The result, according to the company, is that scheduling becomes very difficult, and those who aren’t

Muslim find it nearly impossible to keep working when they’re getting abandoned so frequently during

the day. Here we’re confronted with a very basic conflict of rights. While no one doubts that freedom

exists to practice a religion, isn’t it also true that the company—or the company owners if we want to cast

this in personal terms—have a right to set up a business in whatever manner they choose, with breaks

scheduled for certain times and worker responsibilities strictly defined? In the end, the question about

Muslim workers leaving the work floor to pray isn’t about one kind of religion or another; it’s not

Christians against Muslims or something similar. The question is about which right takes precedence: the

owners’ right to set up and run a company as they wish or the employees’ right to express their beliefs how

and when they choose.

From an ethical perspective—which doesn’t necessarily correlate with a legal one—the resolution to this

dilemma and any clash about conflicting rights runs through the question of whether there’s a way to

protect the basic rights of both groups. It runs that way because rights are fundamentally about that,

about maximizing freedom. In this case, it seems that firing the workers does achieve that goal. The

owners’ initiative inside their company is protected, and the workers are now able to pray when they

desire.

To be sure, other ethical approaches will yield different outcomes, but in the midst of rights theory where

individual liberty is the guiding rule and the maximization of freedom is the overriding goal, it’s difficult

for other concerns to get traction. So it may be that the community as a whole is better served by looking

for a solution that allows Muslims to maintain their prayer schedule while also allowing the plant to

continue functioning in a normal way. Even if that’s true, however, it’s not going to affect a rights-theory

resolution very much because this kind of ethics privileges what you and I can do over what we can do

together. It’s an ethics of individualism.

The right to pursue happiness sits beside the right to life and the right to freedom at the foundation of

rights ethics. The pursuit gives final direction and meaning to the broad theory. Here’s how: it doesn’t do

much good to be alive if you’re not free, so freedom orients the right to life. It also doesn’t do much good

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to be free if you can’t pursue happiness, so the right to pursue happiness orients freedom. That’s the

organizing reasoning of ethical rights; it’s how the theory holds together. This reasoning leaves behind,

however, the difficult question as to exactly where the pursuit of happiness leads.

In an economic context, one way of concretizing the pursuit of happiness is quite important: it’s

our right to possessions and the fruits of our work. What’s ours, along with what we make or earn, we

have a right to keep and use as we wish. Among rights theorists, this particular right attracts a staunch

group of advocates. Called libertarians, they understand liberty as especially reflected in the right to

dominion over what’s ours.

Libertarianism is arguably the most muscular area of rights theory, and it’s the one where most conflicts—

and most stands in the name of personal rights and the pursuit of happiness—take place. This is definitely

where Lepp made his stand. A frequently viewed YouTube video reveals exactly what standing up for

libertarian rights looks like. In the clip, police have been called to Lepp’s Medicinal Gardens. The squad

car pulls up the long dirt road, and Lepp goes out to stop it. This is their conversation:

Lepp:

I am demanding that if you do not have a warrant that you leave. You are illegally on my

property and I am demanding that you leave!

Police

officer: (Into his radio) Can I get some help up here?

Lepp: This is private property. This is a church function. Again, I am asking, if you do not—

Police

officer: You can ask all you want, Mr. Lepp, but I’m not leaving.

Lepp:

Please leave my property! Under what authority are you standing here? Sir, I am demanding

that you tell me under what authority are you violating my rights!

Police

officer:

Under no authority, Mr. Lepp. As soon as my sergeant gets here, he’ll advise you of whatever he

wants to advise you of.

Lepp: Fine, then I suggests you go down and wait for him at the bottom of my property!

The officer stands there silently.

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This is the kind of scene that makes libertarians’ blood boil. Lepp, decked out in a t-shirt emblazoned with

a marijuana leaf, actually stays fairly mellow, but he makes his point. He makes two points actually, and

they need to be distinguished. The first is a legal point; it’s the question about whether the officer has a

warrant. The officer doesn’t, but the second point—“under what authority are you violating my rights”—

goes beyond the legal and into the ethical. Lepp believes the land is his and he’s not infringing on anyone

else’s freedoms, and therefore, he can do what he wants and the police should leave him alone.

The officer isn’t quite sure how to reply to this, which is understandable. It is because this case displays a

clear separation between the law on one side and an ethical reality on the other. Moreover, the two appear

not only separate but also incompatible; it’s difficult to see any way to bring them together. With respect

to the law, the case is clear: Lepp was growing massive amounts of marijuana on his farm and growing it

for distribution. Federal law explicitly prohibits both the growing and the distributing. It’s unambiguous.

It’s also clear that Lepp was doing it since you could see the crop from the public highway passing by his

fields. Everyone saw that marijuana was growing, that people were harvesting it, and that they were

planting more. As far as the law goes, Lepp really had no leg to stand on. Once the DEA found out about

him, they didn’t have any choice but to bring him in. But ethically—and in terms of rights theory—there

seems to be equal clarity going in the other direction. There were few complaints about Lepp’s activities.

No one was hurt, and it was his land. It’s hard to see within a libertarian perspective any way to justify the

police harassment, the legal proceedings, or the jail term Lepp ended up getting. This doesn’t mean Lepp

was treated unjustly; it only means that whatever justice was served on him, it wasn’t libertarian.

Libertarianism in the Economic World

Lepp wasn’t a big-time businessman. His medicinal garden enterprise produced enough income to get

him through the day and little more. When he went to court, he needed a public assistance attorney (not

that it would’ve made any difference). But the issues he brings forward reverberate through the business

world. Here are a few hypothetical scenarios where libertarian ethics comes into play:

 A massive brewery is constructed upstream from farmland and soaks up most of the water to make beer,

leaving the downstream farms with almost nothing for irrigation. It’s the brewery’s land, so can’t the

owners do what they want with the water running through it?

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A strong libertarian argument offers a reason to say yes. Even though it’s true that others will be severely

harmed by the act, an ethics that begins with the freedom to have what’s mine doesn’t buckle before the

demands of others. Now, compare this outcome with the guidance offered by Kant’s categorical

imperative, the idea that any act must be universalized. Within this framework the opposite conclusion is

reached because if everyone just dammed up the water channeling through his or her land, then the

brewer wouldn’t even have the choice: no water would be flowing across the land in the first place. So a

duty-oriented ethics leads toward a solution that is more favorable for the larger community, where a

rights-based perspective leaves more room for individuality but at the cost of the interests of others.

 Bernie Madoff didn’t start off rich. His father was a plumber in Queens. Even before launching his Ponzi

scheme, he became wealthy by working hard, being smart, and investing wisely. He grew an investment

house from scratch to being among the most prominent in New York. His annual income hit the millions

even without the Ponzi stuff. Possibly, there was an administrative assistant of some kind there with him

from the beginning. She was hired at, say, $32,000 annually. Years later, Madoff is rich, and she’s at

$36,000. She still arrives at work in her beater car while Madoff gets the limousine treatment. Is this fair?

A strong libertarian position gives Madoff a reason to say yes. The wealth did accumulate from his efforts,

not hers. If Madoff hadn’t been there the money wouldn’t have come in, but, if she’d quit on the first day,

he would’ve hired someone else and the end result probably wouldn’t have been much different. The

money, in other words, grew because of Madoff’s efforts, therefore it’s his, and therefore there’s no ethical

obligation to spread it around.

On the other hand, a duty-based orientation would generate concerns about gratitude and respect. These

perennial duties leave room for wealth redistribution. The argument is that Madoff owes the assistant a

higher wage not because of her work performance but as a show of gratitude for her contribution over the

years. Similarly, the duty of respect for others doesn’t demand that everyone be treated equally. It doesn’t

mean everyone should get the same wage, but it does demand that people be respected as equals. This

implies taking into account that the assistant’s efforts were prolonged and significant, just like Madoff’s,

and therefore she should receive a salary more commensurate with his.

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Negative and Positive Rights

The ethics of rights can be categorized as negative rights and positive rights. Negative rights are

fundamental. They require others to not interfere with me and whatever I’m doing. The right to life is the

requirement that others not harm me, the right to freedom is the requirement that others not interfere

with me, the right to speech requires that others not silence me, the right to my possessions and the fruits

of my labors require that others let me keep and use what’s mine.

Positive rights, by contrast, are closer to traditional duties. They’re obligations others have to help protect

and preserve my basic, negative rights. For example, the right to life doesn’t only require (negatively) that

people not harm me, but it also requires (positively) that they come to my aid in life-threatening

situations. If I’m in a car wreck, my right to life requires bystanders to call an ambulance. So if an

individual with a rights-based philosophy and an individual with a duty-based philosophy both arrive on a

crash scene, they’ll do the same thing—just for different reasons. The rights person calls for help to protect

the victim’s right to life; the duties person calls to fulfill the duty to beneficence, the duty to look out for

the welfare of others.

Positive rights can be drawn out to great lengths. For example, the argument is sometimes made that my

basic right to freedom is worthless if I don’t have my health and basic abilities to operate in the world.

This may lead a rights theorist to claim that society owes its member’s health care, education, housing,

and even money in the case of unemployment. Typically, these positive rights are called welfare rights.

Welfare, in this context, doesn’t mean government handouts but minimal social conditions that allow the

members to fully use their intrinsic liberty and pursue happiness with some reasonable hope for success.

The hard question accompanying positive rights is: where’s the line? At what point does my responsibility

to promote the rights of others impinge on my own freedom, my own pursuit of happiness, and my own

life projects?

Rights in Conflict

The deepest internal problems with rights ethics arise when rights conflict. Abortion is a quick, hot-button

example. On one side (pro-life), support comes from the initial principle: a human being, born or not, has

a right to life, which may not be breached. On the other side (pro-choice), every person’s original freedom

over themselves and their bodies ends all discussion. Now, one of the reasons this debate is so intractable

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is that both sides find equally strong support within the same basic ethical framework. There’s no way to

decide without infringing on one right or the other.

A complementary case arose around Lepp’s Rasta religious gatherings. Though many of his neighbors

didn’t care, there were a few who objected to having what was essentially mini-Woodstock on the land

next door. It was impossible, of course, for Lepp to entirely contain the noise, the smoke from fires, the

traffic congestion, and the rest entirely on his property. The question is when does my right to do what I

want on my land need to be curtailed so that your right to dominion over yours isn’t soiled?

Broadening further, there’s the question about Lepp growing marijuana for medicinal purposes. On one

side, a rights theory supports his inclination to grow what he wants on his land and sell the fruits of his

labors to other adults for their consenting use. His is a farming business like any other. But on the other

side, a theory of rights can extend into the realm of positive requirements. The right to the pursuit of

happiness implies a right to health, and this may require government oversight of medical products so

that society as a whole may be protected from fraudulent claims or harmful substances. The question of

marijuana shoots up right here. What happens when socially sanctioned entities like the US Food and

Drug Administration decide that marijuana is harmful and should therefore be prohibited? Which rights

trump the others, the negative right to freedom or the positive right to oversee medical substances?

A similar question comes up between Madoff and his investors. A pure libertarian may say that

individuals have the unfettered right to do as they choose, so if Bernie Madoff lies about investing

strategies and his clients go along with it, well, that’s their problem. As long as they weren’t forced, they’re

free to do whatever they wish with their money, even if that means turning it over to a charlatan. Again

here, however, a broader view of rights theory answers that in the complex world of finance and

investment, the right to the pursuit of happiness is also a right to some governmental oversight designed

to make sure that everyone involved in the financial industry is playing by a single set of rules, ones

prohibiting Ponzi schemes and similar frauds.

Examples multiply easily. I have the right to free speech, but if I falsely yell “fire!” in a crowded theater

and set off a life-threatening stampede, what’s happening to everyone else’s negative right to life and

positive right to health? Leaving the specifics aside, the conclusion is that, in general, problems with

rights theory occur in one of two places:

1. I have negative rights to life, freedom, and my possessions but they infringe on your rights to the same.

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2. I have a right to freedom and to do what I want but that right clashes with larger, society-level protections

put into place to assure everyone a reasonable shot at pursuing their happiness.

What Justifies a Right?

One justification for an ethics of rights is comparable with the earlier-noted idea about duties being part

of the logic of the universe. Both duties and rights exist because that’s the way things are in the moral

world. Just like the laws of physics tell us how far a ball will fly when thrown at a certain speed, so too the

rules of rights tell us what ought to happen and not happen in ethical reality. The English philosopher

John Locke subscribed to this view when he called our rights “natural.” He meant that they’re part of who

we are and what we do and just by living we incarnate them.

Another justification for an ethics of rights is to derive them from the idea of duties. Kant reappears here,

especially his imperative to treat others as ends and not as means to ends. If we are ends in ourselves, if

we possess basic dignity, then that dignity must be reflected somehow: it must have some content, some

meaning, and the case can be made that the content is our possession of certain autonomous rights.

Advantages and Drawbacks of an Ethics Based on Rights

Because of its emphasis on individual liberties, rights theory is very attractive to open-roaders and

individualists. One of the central advantages of a rights ethics is that it clears a broad space for you and

me and everyone else to be ourselves or make ourselves in any way we choose. On the other side of that

strength, however, there’s a disadvantage: centering ethics on the individual leaves little space of

agreement about how we can live together. An ethics of rights doesn’t do a lot to help us resolve our

differences, it does little to promote tolerance, and it offers few guarantees that if I do something

beneficial for you now, you’ll do something beneficial for me later on.

Another strong advantage associated with an ethics of rights is simplicity in the sense that basic rights are

fairly easy to understand and apply. The problem, however, with these blunt and comprehensible rights

comes when two or more of them conflict. In those circumstances it’s hard to know which rights trump

the others. In the case of Lepp’s business—the Medicinal Gardens—it’s hard to be sure when his use of his

land infringed on the rights of neighbors to enjoy their land, and it’s difficult to know when the health

product he offered—marijuana—should be prohibited in the name of the larger right to health for all

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individuals in a society. Most generally, it’s difficult to adjudicate between claims of freedom: where does

mine stop and yours begin?

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 Rights are universal and inalienable.

 Basic rights include those to life, freedom, and the pursuit of happiness.

 Rights theory divides negative from positive rights.

 Ethical rights provide for individual freedom but allow few guidelines for individuals living and working

together in a business or in society

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. How does the right to pursue happiness license Lepp’s Medicinal Gardens?

2. What is a libertarian argument against imprisoning Lepp?

3. One justification Lepp cited for his farm was the health benefits marijuana could provide. Assuming Lepp

was right about those benefits, how could they be combined with a rights-based ethics to justify his

activities?

4. How could the rights to freedom and the pursuit of happiness be set against Lepp’s business?

5. What are positive rights and how could they be mustered against Lepp’s farm?

6. If someone drives away from Lepp’s farm high as a kite and soon after drives off the road and into a tree,

does Lepp bear any ethical responsibility for this within a rights ethics?

 [1] Elizabeth Larson, “Lepp Sentenced to 10 Years in Federal Prison for Marijuana Case, “Lake County News, May

18, 2009, accessed May 11, 2011,http://lakeconews.com/content/view/8703/764/; Bob Egelko, “Medical Pot

Grower Eddy Lepp Gets 10 Years,” Cannabis Culture Magazine, May 18, 2009, accessed May 11,

2011,http://www.cannabisculture.com/v2/content/medical-pot-grower-eddy-lepp-gets-10-years.

 [2] Emily Bazar, “Prayer Leads to Work Disputes,” USA Today, October 16, 2008, accessed May 11,

2011, http://www.usatoday.com/news/nation/2008-10-15-Muslim_N.htm.

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2.5 Case Studies

Skin and Money

Source: Leslie Adams, http://www.ugo.com/the-goods/calculator-tattoo.

In the mid-1980s in Los Angeles, Somen “Steve” Banerjee and his friend Nick DeNoia pooled money to

start a new kind of strip club: men baring it for women. Since they had no idea what they were doing, it

didn’t go well. What finally helped were a couple of showmen from Las Vegas. Steve Merrit and his

partner (professional and romantic) Mark Donnelly came aboard and hatched the idea of a Vegas-type

song-and-dance show wrapped around the disrobing.

To find performers, they cruised the muscle beaches outside LA. They brought the guys back to a studio,

applied some Village People–style outfits (policeman, fireman, construction worker, and so on), and ran

the group through a line-dancing routine.

Their idea was simple but innovative: sex sells; but instead of making the show lustful, they made it

entertaining. Drawing on their Las Vegas experience, Merrit and Donnelly understood how to do it, how

to produce a fun theatrical fantasy instead of a crude flesh show. The general concept made sense and the

execution was professional, but on opening night, no one knew what would happen.

Chippendales exploded. Women went crazy for the performances, first in the United States, then Europe,

and then everywhere as Banerjee and DeNoia rushed to form multiple traveling versions of their

production. The time they didn’t spend together mounting the shows they spent in court fighting over who

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was entitled to how much of the profits and who really owned the suddenly very valuable Chippendales

name and concept. The dispute ended in 1987 after DeNoia was shot dead in his office.

One major problem Chippendales faced is that it wasn’t a hard show to copy. Get some muscled guys,

some uniform-store costumes, a pop music soundtrack, and pound it all together into a dance routine

with a little teasing; you don’t need a genius to do it. So others started.

Michael Fullington was a junior choreographer for Chippendales. He struck up a friendship with some of

the show guys, and they split away into a group called Club Adonis. The original choreographers—Merrit

and Donnelly—also got in on the act, forming their own traveling revue called Night Dreams.

Unhappy with these copycat acts, Banerjee hired a hit man to go around killing the whole bunch. The hit

man, it turned out, was an FBI informant. Banerjee ended up in jail. The ensuing investigation led to more

charges. There was arson (he’d burned down one of his own clubs for the insurance money some time

back) and also another count of conspiracy to murder since it was Banerjee who’d arranged to have his

original partner shot.

The case never got to trial. Banerjee agreed to plead guilty, absorb a twenty-six-year sentence, and give up

his rights to Chippendales along with nearly all his money and real estate holdings.

While the lawyers worked out the details, Banerjee’s wife Irene worked feverishly to organize a group of

character witnesses. By bringing a parade of people to testify about her husband’s good side at the

sentencing hearing, she was hoping to get the jail time reduced a little bit. Or maybe she was hoping to

hold on to more of the money and real estate they’d accumulated.

No one got the chance to testify. On the morning of the hearing, Banerjee hung himself in his cell.

Because the trial was never completed, the plea deal never went into effect. And because the guilty man

was dead, there was no one left to charge with any crime. Chippendales and all the money and property

associated with it went to Banerjee’s wife Irene.

 

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QUE STIONS

1. Is being a Chippendale’s dancer honorable work?

o How could the perennial ethical duties to the self—develop our abilities and talents and do

ourselves no harm—be mustered to support the idea that these men should be proud of what

they do?

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o Ethically, how does this job compare with working for the Metropolitan Opera in New York, an

outfit that calls itself “a vibrant home for the world’s most creative and talented artists working in

opera”?

2. Is hiring and training a Chippendale’s dancer honorable? Imagine you were one of the original

choreographers cruising California beaches in search of beefcake and dance talent. You bring the

guys in, choreograph their routine, and send them up on stage.

o Thinking just of the perennial duties to the self is hiring and training them honorable? Under what

conditions?

o Thinking just of the perennial duties to others—avoiding wrongful actions toward others, honesty,

respect, beneficence (promoting the welfare of others), gratitude, fidelity (keeping promises,

honor agreements), and reparation (compensating others when we harm them)—is hiring and

training them honorable? Why or why not?

3. With respect to the ethics of duties, is Chippendales a respectable company in terms of how it treats its

clients? How does this company compare with the Metropolitan Opera’s treatment of its clients (note that

the Met occasionally replaces the word clients with the more flattering patrons)?

4. Leaving aside the legal issues and using only the perennial duties, what ethical case could be made

in favor of Banerjee getting a hit man to eliminate the people who were copying his show?

o Should he have hired someone or done the job himself? Explain.

o What’s the difference between hiring a hit man and hiring a beefcake dancer?

o How would Kant respond to these questions?

5. The Club Adonis group worked for Chippendales before splitting to do the same thing elsewhere. Use

Kant’s categorical imperative to show that their action was wrong.

6. According to the perennial duties, did Banerjee do the right thing hanging him in the end?

7. According to Kant, did Banerjee do the right thing hanging him?

8. When Banerjee hung himself, he lost his life, but he did manage to preserves his life’s property and wealth

for his wife. Can a libertarian ethics be used to show that Banerjee did the right thing?

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Two at the Same Time

Source: Photo courtesy of Robert Fairchild, http://www.flickr.com/photos/coffeego/3545289824.

On a real estate discussion board, [1] someone with the sign-in name BriGuy23 asks, “Does anyone on here

find any issue with submitting two offers to buy two different apartments at the same time? My friend

thinks that it’s unfair due to the fact that one of the offers is definitely going to not go through which

means they’re tying up the seller’s time (and money in a way). From a seller’s standpoint I think I would

be annoyed but I really don’t see anything wrong with it from a buyer’s perspective. Thoughts?”

A response comes from middle-aged mom: “Sellers can negotiate multiple offers so there is no reason why

a buyer could not make multiple offers on different places. Assuming you are represented by a buyer’s

agent, I would use the same agent to make both offers. Make certain that your contract gives you an out in

the unlikely event both are accepted.”

QUE STIONS

1. What does BriGuy23 suspect might be unethical about submitting two offers to buy two different

apartments at the same time? Can you wrap this suspicion in the language of the duties?

2. Is middle-aged mom appealing to the concept of fairness to justify making multiple offers at the same

time? If she is, then how? If she isn’t, what is her reasoning?

3. If Kant decided to make a contribution to this discussion board, what do you think he would write?

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4. Middle-aged mom writes, “Make certain that your contract gives you an out in the unlikely event both are

accepted.” She means that when you make an offer to buy, you actually offer a signed contract to buy the

apartment; but there’s a catch, an escape clause that lets you pull out if you choose. Is that ethical,

offering a signed contract offering to buy a property that includes an “out”?

5. You need a date for Saturday night.

o Would you have any problem with inviting two different people at the same time (by, say, leaving

a message on both their phones)? Why or why not?

o Would you leave yourself an out in case both answers were yes? If not, why not? If so, what would

it be and how could it be justified ethically?

Working at American Apparel

Photo courtesy of Natalia Rivera, http://www.flickr.com/photos/96952704@N00/317531326/.

Dov Charney is an American immigrant success story, but he’s not exactly a “Give me your tired, your

poor” kind of immigrant. He’s a Canadian who came to America to attend an expensive private university.

He ended up founding American Apparel (AA), a clothing manufacturer producing trendy t-shirts and

basics selling mainly to a young, edgy crowd.

Based in Los Angeles, their factory is among the biggest clothes-making operations in the nation. It

employs almost five thousand workers. Those workers are well known for a number of reasons:

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 Just having workers sets AA apart. Nearly all US clothing manufacturers outsource their cutting and

sewing to poor countries. From Mexico to China, you can find factories paying locals fifty cents an hour to

do the same kind of work they do at AA. The difference is the sewers working in Los Angeles typically get

around fifteen dollars an hour. That’s not a lot in Southern California, but it’s enough to make them—

according to AA—the best paid garment workers in the world.

 The workers don’t report to bosses so much as each other. They organize as independent teams paid a

base wage of eight dollars an hour. On top of that they receive a bonus depending on how much they

produce. So they get together, set their own targets, and go for them. This liberating of the workforce led

to nearly a tripling of output and was matched by about a doubling of wages.

 The company features a generous stock options program to help workers buy shares in the enterprise.

 On its own initiative, the company provides basic health-care services through a clinic tucked into a

factory corner. It provides bikes to employees, helping them zip through the downtown traffic morass

without adding pollution to the infamous city smog. There are free telephones in the factory for employees

to use to call family members at home.

 Many of those employees’ family members are in other countries; AA has a very large immigrant

workforce.

 Many of those immigrants are in the country illegally, which partially explains why the company has been

on the forefront of amnesty campaigns, organizing public rallies and media events of all kinds for the

undocumented. Called Legalize LA, the campaign’s title references the fact that a tremendous number of

Southern Californians outside AA are also illegal immigrants.

 In 2009, the federal government indicated to AA that 1,800 of its workers were using Social Security

numbers and other identifying documents that had been purchased, stolen, or just plain invented. In any

case, they didn’t match up. The company was forced to fire the employees.

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QUE STIONS

1. Workers at Charney’s America Apparel are the highest-paid mass-production sewers in the world.

o In terms of Charney’s duties to the self, what ethical case can be made in favor of this high pay?

o In terms of Charney’s duties to others, what ethical case can be made in favor of this high pay?

o Are these wages fair? Why or why not?

2. In terms of duties—either the perennial duties or Kant’s categorical imperative—which is more

recommendable: keeping the AA plant where and how it is, or moving it to Mexico and cutting the

workers’ wages in half? Why is the decision you’ve made the better of the two?

A few factors to consider:

o In Mexico, the workers’ real pay in terms of local buying power would be much higher, even

though the actual amount is less than what they receive here.

o Many of the workers are illegal immigrants from Mexico; their legal situation would obviously be

remedied and proximity to family would increase.

o The national Mexican economy would benefit more from AA’s presence than does the US

economy.

3. Kant’s categorical imperative requires that others be treated as ends and never as means.

o In what way could the argument be made that the employees at AA are being treated as means,

and therefore Charney’s plant is unethical no matter how high his salaries may be?

o Besides high pay, the company provides workers with considerable freedom to set their own work

pace and schedule. The company also provides a stock purchase program. Do either or both of

these factors alleviate the charge that the workers are treated as means and not end? Why or why

not?

4. Eighteen hundreds of AA’s five thousand workers were using false papers and Social Security

numbers to get their job. Charney knew all about that but chose to overlook it.

o Leaving the law aside, how can that overlooking be justified ethically?

o Leaving the law aside, how can Kant are used to cast that action as ethically wrong in terms of

lying? In terms of stealing? In terms of using people as means instead of ends?

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o Charney and AA support illegal immigrants in two ways: by giving them jobs and by organizing

popular protests in favor of their legalization. Ethically, are these two activities recommendable or

not? Or is one recommendable and the other not?

5. Assuming it’s wrong for illegal immigrants to be working in America, who deserves the sterner ethical

reprobation, Charney or the illegal workers? Explain in ethical terms.

6. The basic and natural rights of mainstream rights theory include the following:

o Life

o Freedom

o Free speech

o Religious expression

o The pursuit of happiness

o Possessions and the fruits of our work

o How can these rights be mustered to support Charney’s hiring and keeping workers he knows are

in the country illegally?

o How can these rights be mustered to ethically denounce Charney for hiring and keeping workers

he knows are in the country illegally?

o Thinking about those workers, do these rights give them an ethical license to use false Social

Security numbers and identifying documents? Why or why not?

7. Eddy Lepp ended up in jail for his medicinal marijuana garden, yet Charney sleeps in a million-dollar beach

house. Is this fair?

Pirates

Source: Photo courtesy of Marco Gomes, http://www.flickr.com/photos/marcogomes/1346283989.

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The following is from an online discussion: [2]

overstand:

I’ve been having problems with copying cds and trying to burn them…when the copy process

gets to 4% the used read buffer will go down to zero and continue fluctuating…will someone

let me know the procedures on fixing this.

Retarded

chicken:

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May I ask what CDs are you copying? Usually big companies put copy protection on their CDs

so people don’t ILLEGALLY copy their CDs.

-=iNsAnE=-:

why do people post worthless crap like this? its none of your business what cd’s he’s

copying…don’t accuse him of making illegal copies of cd’s…maybe try posting something

useful next time

Flipside:

It’s not worthless crap mongloid…Copyright protection does prevent the copying of some

disks especially in main-stream programs such as Nero. Try using Clone CD—you may have

better luck with a pure duplication program (No fuss).

QUE STIONS

1. The unanswered question here is whether the CD being copied is copyright protected, in other words,

whether this is a piracy case. Assume it is. If retarded chicken had to fill out an ethical argument against CD

piracy that relied on either the perennial duties or Kant, what could he say?

2. While overstand may be pirating, no one doubts that the original disc is legitimately his. Maybe he bought

it or maybe someone gave it to him; either way, what’s the libertarian argument against retarded chicken?

How could a libertarian justify overstand’s copying?

3. Would a libertarian believe that the company producing the disc has a right to lace it with code that makes

duplication impossible? Explain.

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4. It sounds like Clone CD is specifically made to help pirates get around the copyright protections

manufacturers put on their discs.

o What’s the Kantian case for condemning Clone CD for their project?

o What’s the libertarian case for congratulating them?

Which of the two cases is stronger? Why?

5. Retarded chicken implies that overstand is a thief and -=iNsAnE=- calls retarded chicken’s post

“worthless crap.” Flipside calls -=iNsAnE=- a “mongloid.”

o Is there an ethical case that can be made against the tone of this discussion?

o Does online interaction foster this tone? If so, can an ethical case be made against the existence of

Internet discussion boards?

Gun Shop under Attack

Source: Photo courtesy of jaqian, http://www.flickr.com/photos/jaqian/478574894/.

The headline from a local Oakland newspaper reported that a gun shop is closing due to unfair

taxes. [3] The gun shop’s name was Siegle’s Guns. Closing was inevitable, according to owner Mara Siegle,

after Oakland residents passed Measure D, which levied a huge tax on gun dealers. They had to pay $24

for every $1,000 earned, in comparison to the $1.20 per $1,000 that all the other retailers in Oakland fork

over. “No one can stay in business paying that kind of tax,” Siegle said while preparing her going-out-ofbusiness

sale. “And that’s exactly what Oakland wanted.”

No one disputes the point.

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The disputes are about whether Oakland should want that and whether it’s fair for the city to use taxes as

a weapon.

 Tracy Salkowitz says yes to both. “Except for hunting rifles, the sole purpose of weapons is to kill people.”

Getting rid of gun shops, the logic follows, is a public welfare concern. And about the taxes that brought

the store down? She’s “delighted” by them.

 Mara Siegle’s opinion is that people who don’t hunt and shoot for recreation don’t understand that guns

are a legitimate pastime. “They don’t see this side,” she says, “because they don’t try to.” Further, she

asserts, over the years gun owners have told her that they own guns to defend themselves.

 Outside the store, mingling customers agreed with Siegle. They said closing gun stores was the wrong way

to fight crime and then cursed the city for the unjust taxes.

Amid the winners and losers, Mara Siegle certainly got the rottenest part of the deal. She has two sons,

fifteen and seventeen, and she doesn’t know what she’ll do for income. “I need a job,” she said.

A hand-lettered sign posted in the store’s backroom for the benefit of Siegle’s five full-time employees

displayed the phone number of the unemployment office. The sign said, “You paid for it, use it.”

QUE STIONS

1. With an eye on the concept of fairness, form an argument in favor of the drastically higher taxes imposed

on gun shops.

2. Kant’s categorical imperative prohibits killing. Can it be transformed into an argument against a gun shop

in Oakland?

3. Would an ethics of duties or an ethics of rights work better for Siegle as she defends her business? Why?

What might her argument look like?

4. Unemployment benefits are the result of unemployment insurance, which is not optional.

Workers are forced to pay a bit out of each paycheck to the federal government, and if they lose

their job, they get a biweekly check partially covering lost wages.

o Would a libertarian approve of the unemployment insurance program?

o Would it be right for a libertarian gun shop owner—someone defending her business on

libertarian grounds—to accept unemployment benefits after her shop is forced out of business by

extreme taxes? Explain.

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[1] “Ethical dilemma with submitting two offers at once? (contingency, clause, agent),” City-Data, accessed May

11, 2011, http://www.city-data.com/forum/real-estate/710433-ethical-dilemma-submitting-two-offers-once.html.

 [2] “My cd-burner won’t let me copy the cd…why…,” Hard forum, accessed May 11,

2011,http://www.hardforum.com/archive/index.php/t-711331.html.

 [3] Alexandra J. Wall, “Jewish Gun shop Owner Closing Store; Cites Unfair Taxes,” Jweekly, July 21, 2000, accessed

May 11, 2011,http://www.jweekly.com/article/full/13657/jewish-gunshop-owner-closing-store-cites-unfair-taxes.

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Chapter 3

Theories of Consequence Ethics: Traditional Tools for

Making Decisions in Business when the Ends Justify

the Means

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Chapter Overview

Chapter 3 “Theories of Consequence Ethics: Traditional Tools for Making Decisions in Business when the

Ends Justify the Means” examines some theories guiding ethical decisions in business. It considers ethics

that focuses on the consequences of what is done instead of prohibiting or allowing specific acts.

3.1 What Is Consequentialism?

L EARNING OBJECTIVE

1. Define consequentialism in ethics.

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Consequentialism Defined

What’s more important in ethics—what you do or what happens afterward because of what you did?

People who believe ethics should be about what happens afterward are labeled consequentialists. They

don’t care so much about your act; they want to know about the consequences.

If someone asks, “Should I lie?,” one answer is, “No, lying’s wrong. We all have a duty not to lie and

therefore you shouldn’t do it, no matter what.” That’s not the consequentialist answer, though.

Consequentialists will want to know about the effects. If the lie is about Bernie Madoff assuring everyone

that he’s investing clients’ money in stocks when really he plans to steal it, that’s wrong. But if a

defrauded, livid, and pistol-waving client tracks Madoff down on a crowded street and demands to know

whether he’s Bernie Madoff, the ethically recommendable response might be, “People say I look like him,

but really I’m Bill Martin.” The question, finally, for a consequentialist isn’t whether or not I should lie,

it’s what happens if I do and if I don’t?

Since consequentialists are more worried about the outcome than the action, the central ethical concern

is what kind of outcome should I want? Traditionally, there are three kinds of answers: the utilitarian,

the altruist, and the egoist. Each one will be considered in this chapter.

KEY TAKEAWAY

 Consequentialist ethicists focus on the results of what you do, not what you do.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. Under what scenario could a consequentialist defend the act of stealing?

2. Could a consequentialist recommend that a toy company lie about the age level a toy is designed for?

What would be an example?

3.2 Utilitarianism: The Greater Good

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

1. Define utilitarian ethics.

2. Show how utilitarianism works in business.

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3. Distinguish forms of utilitarianism.

4. Consider advantages and drawbacks of utilitarianism.

The College Board and Karen Dillard

“Have you seen,” the blog post reads, “their parking lot on a Saturday?” [1] Its packed. The lot belongs to

Karen Dillard College Prep (KDCP), a test-preparation company in Dallas. Like the Princeton Review,

they offer high schoolers courses designed to boost performance on the SAT. Very little real learning goes

on in these classrooms; they’re more about techniques and tricks for maximizing scores. Test takers

should know, for example, whether a test penalizes incorrect answers. If it doesn’t, you should take a few

minutes at each section’s end to go through and just fill in a random bubble for all the questions you

couldn’t reach so you’ll get some cheap points. If there is a penalty, though, then you should use your time

to patiently work forward as far as you can go. Knowing the right strategy here can significantly boost

your score. It’s a waste of brain space, though, for anything else in your life.

Some participants in KDCP—who paid as much as $2,300 for the lessons—definitely got some score

boosting for their money. It was unfair boosting, however; at least that’s the charge of the College Board,

the company that produces and administers the SAT.

Here’s what happened. A KDCP employee’s brother was a high school principal, and he was there when

the SATs were administered. At the end of those tests, everyone knows what test takers are instructed to

do: stack the bubble sheets in one pile and the test booklets in the other and leave. The administrators

then wrap everything up and send both the answer sheets and the booklets back to the College Board for

scoring. The principal, though, was pulling a few test booklets out of the stack and sending them over to

his brother’s company, KDCP. As it turns out, some of these pilfered tests were “live”—that is, sections of

them were going to be used again in future tests. Now, you can see how getting a look at those booklets

would be helpful for someone taking those future tests.

Other stolen booklets had been “retired,” meaning the specific questions inside were on their final

application the day the principal grabbed them. So at least in these cases, students taking the test-prep

course couldn’t count on seeing the very same questions come exam day. Even so, the College Board

didn’t like this theft much better because they sell those retired tests to prep companies for good money.

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When the College Board discovered the light-fingered principal and the KDCP advantage, they launched a

lawsuit for infringement of copyright. Probably figuring they had nothing to lose, KDCP sued back. [2]

College Board also threatened—and this is what produced headlines in the local newspaper—to cancel the

scores of the students who they determined had received an unfair advantage from the KDCP course.

As Denton Record-Chronicle reported (and as you can imagine), the students and their families freaked

out. [3] The scores and full application packages had already been delivered to colleges across the country,

and score cancellation would have amounted to application cancellation. And since many of the students

applied only to schools requiring the SAT, the threat amounted to at least temporary college cancellation.

“I hope the College Board thinks this through,” said David Miller, a Plano attorney whose son was

apparently on the blacklist. “If they have a problem with Karen Dillard, that’s one thing. But I hope they

don’t punish kids who wanted to work hard.”

Predictably, the episode crescendo with everyone lawyered up and suits threatened in all directions. In the

end, the scores weren’t canceled. KDCP accepted a settlement calling for them to pay $600,000 directly to

the College Board and provide $400,000 in free classes for high schoolers who’d otherwise be unable to

afford the service. As for the principal who’d been lifting the test booklets, he got to keep his job, which

pays about $87,000 a year. The CEO of College Board, by the way, gets around $830,000. [4] KDCP is a

private company, so we don’t know how much Karen Dillard or her employees make. We do know they

could absorb a million-dollar lawsuit without going into bankruptcy. Finally, the Plano school district in

Texas—a well-to-do suburb north of Dallas—continues to produce some of the nation’s highest SAT score

averages.

One Thief, Three Verdicts

Utilitarianism is a consequentialist ethics—the outcome matters, not the act. Among those who focus on

outcomes, the utilitarian’s distinguishing belief is that we should pursue the greatest good for the

greatest number. So we can act in whatever way we choose—we can be generous or miserly, honest or

dishonest—but whatever we do, to get the utilitarian’s approval, the result should be more people happier.

If that is the result, then the utilitarian needs to know nothing more to label the act ethically

recommendable. (Note: Utility is a general term for usefulness and benefit, thus the theory’s name. In

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everyday language, however, we don’t talk about creating a greater utility but instead a greater good or

happiness.)

In rudimentary terms, utilitarianism is a happiness calculation. When you’re considering doing

something, you take each person who’ll be affected and ask whether they’ll end up happier, sadder, or it

won’t make any difference. Now, those who won’t change don’t need to be counted. Next, for each person

who’s happier, ask, how much happier? Put that amount on one side. For each who’s sadder, ask, how

much sadder? That amount goes on the other side. Finally, add up each column and the greater sum

indicates the ethically recommendable decision.

Utilitarian ethics function especially well in cases like this: You’re on the way to take the SAT, which will

determine how the college application process goes (and, it feels like, more or less your entire life). Your

car breaks down and you get there very late and the monitor is closing the door and you remember

that…you forgot your required number 2 pencils. On a desk in the hall you notice a pencil. It’s gnawed and

abandoned but not yours. Do you steal it? Someone who believes it’s an ethical duty to not steal will

hesitate. But if you’re a utilitarian you’ll ask: Does taking it serve the greater good? It definitely helps you

a lot, so there’s positive happiness accumulated on that side. What about the victim? Probably whoever

owns it doesn’t care too much. Might not even notice it’s gone. Regardless, if you put your increased

happiness on one side and weigh it against the victim’s hurt on the other, the end result is almost certainly

a net happiness gain. So with a clean conscience you grab it and dash into the testing room. According to

utilitarian reasoning, you’ve done the right thing ethically (assuming the pencil’s true owner isn’t coming

up behind you in the same predicament).

Pushing this theory into the KDCP case, one tense ethical location is the principal lifting test booklets and

sending them over to his brother at the test-prep center. Everything begins with a theft. The booklets do

in fact belong to the College Board; they’re sent around for schools to use during testing and are meant to

be returned afterward. So here there’s already the possibility of stopping and concluding that the

principal’s act is wrong simply because stealing is wrong. Utilitarian’s, however, don’t want to move so

quickly. They want to see the outcome before making an ethical judgment. On that front, there are two

distinct outcomes: one covering the live tests, and the other the retired ones.

Live tests were those with sections that may appear again. When students at KDCP received them for

practice, they were essentially receiving cheat sheets. Now for a utilitarian, the question is, does the

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situation serve the general good? When the testing’s done, the scores are reported, and the college

admissions decisions made, will there be more overall happiness then there would’ve been had the tests

not been stolen? It seems like the answer has to be no. Obviously those with great scores will be smiling,

but many, many others will see their scores drop (since SATs are graded on a curve or as a percentile). So

there’s some major happiness for a few on one side balanced by unhappiness for many on the other. Then

things get worse. When the cheating gets revealed, the vast majority of test takers who didn’t get the edge

are going to be irritated, mad, or furious. Their parents too. Remember, it’s not only admission that’s at

stake here but also financial aid, so the students who didn’t get the KDCP edge worry not only that maybe

they should’ve gotten into a better school but also that they end up paying more too. Finally, the colleges

will register a net loss: all their work in trying to admit students on the basis of fair, equal evaluations gets

thrown into question.

Conclusion. The theft of live tests fails the utilitarian test. While a few students may come out better off

and happier, the vast majority more than balances the effect with disappointment and anger. The greater

good isn’t served.

In the case of the theft of “retired” tests where the principal forwarded to KDCP test questions that won’t

reappear on future exams, it remains true that the tests were lifted from the College Board and it remains

true that students who took the KDCP prep course will receive an advantage because they’re practicing the

SAT. But the advantage doesn’t seem any greater than the one enjoyed by students all around the nation

who purchased prep materials directly from the College Board and practiced for the exam by taking old

tests. More—and this was a point KDCP made in their countersuit against the College Board—stealing the

exams was the ethically right thing to do because it assured that students taking the KDCP prep course

got the same level of practice and expertise as those using official College Board materials. If the tests

hadn’t been stolen, then wouldn’t KDCP kids be at an unfair disadvantage when compared with others

because their test practices hadn’t been as close to the real thing as others got? In the end, the argument

goes, stealing the tests assured that as many people as possible who took prep courses got to practice on

real exams.

Conclusion. The theft of the exams by the high school principal may conceivably be congratulated by a

utilitarian because it increases general happiness. The students who practiced on old exams purchased

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from the College Board can’t complain. And as for those students at KDCP, their happiness increases since

they can be confident that they’ve prepared as well as possible for the SAT.

The fact that a utilitarian argument can be used to justify the theft of test booklets, at least retired ones,

doesn’t end the debate, however. Since the focus is on outcomes, all of them have to be considered. And

one outcome that might occur if the theft is allowed is, obviously, that maybe other people will start

thinking stealing exam books isn’t such a bad idea. If they do—if everyone decides to start stealing—it’s

hard to see how anything could follow but chaos, anger, and definitely not happiness.

This discussion could continue as more people and consequences are factored in, but what won’t change is

the basic utilitarian rule. What ought to be done is determined by looking at the big picture and deciding

which acts increase total happiness at the end of the day when everyone is taken into account.

Should the Scores Be Canceled?

After it was discovered that KDCP students got to practice for the SATs with live exams, the hardest

question facing the College Board was, should their scores be canceled? The utilitarian argument

for not canceling is straightforward. Those with no scores may not go to college at all next year. This is

real suffering, and if your aim is to increase happiness, then counting the exams is one step in that

direction. It’s not the last step, though, because utilitarian’s at the College Board need to ask

about everyone else’s happiness too: what’s the situation for all the others who took the exam but has

never heard of KDCP? Unfortunately, letting the scores be counted is going to subtract from their

happiness because the SAT is graded comparatively: one person doing well means everyone getting fewer

correct answers sees their score drop, along with college choices and financial aid possibilities. Certainly

it’s true that each of these decreases will be small since there were only a handful of suspect tests. Still, a

descent, no matter how tiny, is a descent, and all the little bits add up.

What’s most notable, finally, about this decision is the imbalance. Including the scores of KDCP students

will weigh a tremendous increase in happiness for a very few against a slight decrease for very many.

Conversely, a few will be left very sad, and many slightly happier. So for a utilitarian, which is it? It’s hard

to say. It is clear, however, that this uncertainty represents a serious practical problem with the ethical

theory. In some situations you can imagine yourself in the shoes of the different people involved and,

using your own experience and knowledge, estimate which decision will yield the most total happiness. In

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this situation, though, it seems almost impossible because there are so many people mixed up in the

question.

Then things get still more difficult. For the utilitarian, it’s not enough to just decide what brings the most

happiness to the most individuals right now; the future needs to be accounted for too. Utilitarianism is a

true global ethics; you’re required to weigh everyone’s happiness and weigh it as best as you can as far into

the future as possible. So if the deciders at the College Board follow a utilitarian route in opting to include

(or cancel) the scores, they need to ask themselves—if we do, how will things be in ten years? In fifty?

Again, these are hard questions but they don’t change anything fundamental. For the utilitarian, making

the right decision continues to be about attempting to predict which choice will maximize happiness.

Utilitarianism and the Ethics of Salaries

When he wasn’t stealing test booklets and passing them on to KDCP, the principal in the elite Plano

school district was dedicated to his main job: making sure students in his building receive an education

qualifying them to do college-level work. Over at the College Board, the company’s CEO leads a

complementary effort: producing tests to measure the quality of that preparation and consequently

determine students’ scholastic aptitude. The principal, in other words, is paid to make sure high schoolers

get an excellent education, and the CEO is paid to measure how excellent (or not) the education is.

Just from the job descriptions, who should get the higher salary? It’s tempting to say the principal.

Doesn’t educating children have to be more important than measuring how well they’re educated?

Wouldn’t we all rather be well educated and not know it than poorly educated and painfully aware of the

fact?

Regardless, what’s striking about the salary that each of these two actually receives isn’t who gets more;

it’s how much. The difference is almost ten times: $87,000 for the principal versus the CEO’s $830,000.

Within the doctrine of utilitarianism, can such a divergence be justified?

Yes, but only if we can show that this particular salary structure brings about the greatest good, the

highest level of happiness for everyone considered as a collective. It may be, for example, that objectively

measuring student ability, even though it’s less important than instilling ability, is also much harder. In

that case, a dramatically higher salary may be necessary in order to lure high-quality measuring talent.

From there, it’s not difficult to fill out a utilitarian justification for the pay divergence. It could be that

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inaccurate testing would cause large amounts of unhappiness: students who worked hard for years would

be frustrated when they were bettered by slackers who really didn’t know much but managed to score well

on a test.

To broaden the point, if tremendous disparities in salary end up making people happier, then the

disparities are ethical. Period. If they don’t, however, then they can no longer be defended. This differs

from what a libertarian rights theorist might say here. For a libertarian—someone who believes

individuals have an undeniable right to make and keep whatever they can in the world, regardless of how

rich or poor anyone else may be—the response to the CEO’s mammoth salary is that he found a way to

earn it fair and square, and everyone should quit complaining about it. Generalized happiness doesn’t

matter, only the individual’s right to try to earn and keep as much as he or she can.

Can Money Buy Utilitarian Happiness? The Ford Pinto Case

Basic questions in business tend to be quantitative, and money is frequently the bottom line: How many

dollars is it worth? What’s my salary? What’s the company’s profit? The basic question of utilitarianism

is qualitative: how much happiness and sadness is there? Inevitably, it’s going to be difficult when

businesses accustomed to bottom-line number decisions are forced to cross over and decide about general

happiness. One of the most famous attempts to make the transition easier occurred back in the 1970s.

With gas prices on the rise, American car buyers were looking for smaller, more efficient models than

Detroit was manufacturing. Japanese automakers were experts in just those kinds of vehicles and they

were seizing market share at an alarming rate. Lee Iacocca, Ford’s president, wanted to rush a car into

production to compete. His model was the Pinto. [5]

A gas sipper slated to cost $2,000 (about $12,000 today); Ford rushed the machine through early

production and testing. Along the way, unfortunately, they noticed a design problem: the gas tank’s

positioning in the car’s rump left it vulnerable to rear-end collisions. In fact, when the rear-end hit came

faster than twenty miles per hour, not only might the tank break, but gasoline could be splattered all the

way up to the driver’s compartment. Fire, that meant, ignited by sparks or anything else could engulf

those inside.

No car is perfectly safe, but this very scary vulnerability raised eyebrows. At Ford, a debate erupted about

going ahead with the vehicle. On the legal end, the company stood on solid ground: government

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regulation at the time only required gas tanks to remain intact at collisions under twenty miles per hour.

What about the ethics, though? The question about whether it was right to charge forward was

unavoidable because rear-end accidents at speeds greater than twenty miles per hour happen—every day.

The decision was finally made in utilitarian terms. On one side, the company totaled up the dollar cost of

redesigning the car’s gas tank. They calculated

 12.5 million automobiles would eventually be sold,

 eleven dollars would be the final cost per car to implement the redesign.

Added up, that’s $137 million total, with the money coming out of Pinto buyers’ pockets since the added

production costs would get tacked onto the price tag. It’s a big number but it’s not that much per person:

$11 is about $70 today. In this way, the Pinto situation faced by Ford executives is similar to the test

cancellation question for the College Board: one option means only a little bit of suffering for specific

individuals, but there are a lot of them.

On the other side of the Pinto question—and, again, this resembles the College Board predicament—if the

decision is made to go ahead without the fix, there’s going to be a lot of suffering but only for a very few

people. Ford predicted the damage done to those few people in the following ways:

 Death by burning for 180 buyers

 Serious burn injuries for another 180 buyers

 Twenty-one hundred vehicles burned beyond all repair

That’s a lot of damage, but how do you measure it? How do you compare it with the hike in the price tag?

More generally, from a utilitarian perspective, is it better for a lot of people to suffer a little or for a few

people to suffer a lot?

Ford answered both questions by directly attaching monetary values to each of the injuries and damages

suffered:

 At the time, 1970, US Government regulatory agencies officially valued a human life at $200,000. (That

would be about $1.2 million today if the government still kept this problematic measure.)

 Insurance companies valued a serious burn at $67,000.

 The average resale value on subcompacts like the Pinto was $700, which set that as the amount lost after a

complete burnout.

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The math coming out from this is (180 deaths Å~ $200,000) + (180 injuries Å~ $67,000) + (2,100 burnedout

cars Å~ $700) = $49 million. The result here is $137 million worth of suffering for Pinto drivers if the

car is redesigned and only $49 million if it goes to the streets as is.

Ford sent the Pinto out. Over the next decade, according to Ford estimates, at least 60 people died in fiery

accidents and at least 120 got seriously burned (skin-graft-level burns). No attempt was made to calculate

the total number of burned vehicles. Shortly thereafter, the Pinto was phased out. No one has final

numbers, but if the first decade is any indication, then the total cost came in under the original $49

million estimate. According to a utilitarian argument, and assuming the premises concerning dollar

values are accepted, Ford made the right decision back in 1970.

If every Pinto purchaser had been approached the day after buying the car, told the whole Ford story, and

been offered to change their car along with eleven dollars for another one without the gas tank problem,

how many would’ve handed the money over to avoid the long-shot risk? The number might’ve been very

high, but that doesn’t sway a utilitarian conclusion. The theory demands that decision makers stubbornly

keep their eye on overall happiness no matter how much pain a decision might cause certain individuals.

Versions of Utilitarian Happiness

Monetized utilitarianism attempts to measure happiness, to the extent possible, in terms of money. As the

Ford Pinto case demonstrated, the advantage here is that it allows decisions about the greater good to be

made in clear, objective terms. You add up the money on one side and the money on the other and the

decision follows automatically. This is a very attractive benefit, especially when you’re dealing with large

numbers of individuals or complex situations. Monetized utilitarianism allows you to keep your happiness

calculations straight.

Two further varieties of utilitarianism are hedonistic and idealistic. Both seek to maximize human

happiness, but their definitions of happiness differ. Hedonistic utilitarian’s trace back to Jeremy Bentham

(England, around 1800). Bentham was a wealthy and odd man who left his fortune to the University

College of London along with the stipulation that his mummified body be dressed and present at the

institution. It remains there today. He sits in a wooden cabinet in the main building, though his head has

been replaced by a wax model after pranking students repeatedly stole the real one. Bentham believed

that pleasure and happiness are ultimately synonymous. Ethics, this means, seeks to maximize the

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pleasures—just about any sensation of pleasure—felt by individuals. But before dropping everything and

heading out to the bars, it should be remembered that even the most hedonistic of the utilitarian’s believe

that getting pleasure right now is good but not as good as maximizing the feeling over the long term.

(Going out for drinks, in others words, instead of going to the library isn’t recommendable on the evening

before midterms.)

A contemporary of Bentham, John Stuart Mill, basically agreed that ethics is about maximizing pleasure,

but his more idealistic utilitarianism distinguished low and highbrow sensations. The kinds of raw, good

feelings that both we and animals can find, according to Mill, are second-rate pleasures. Pleasures with

higher and more real value include learning and learnedness. These aren’t physical joys so much as the

delights of the mind and the imagination. For Mill, consequently, libraries and museums are scenes of

abundant pleasure, much more than any bar.

This idealistic notion of utilitarianism fits quite well with the College Board’s response to the KDCP

episode. First, deciding against canceling student scores seems like a way of keeping people on track to

college and headed toward the kind of learning that rewards our cerebral inclinations. Further, awarding

free prep classes to those unable to pay seems like another step in that direction, at least if it helps get

them into college.

Versions of Utilitarian Regulation

A narrow distinction with far-reaching effects divides soft from hard utilitarianism. Soft utilitarianism is

the standard version; when people talk about a utilitarian ethics, that’s generally what they mean. As a

theory, soft utilitarianism is pretty laid back: an act is good if the outcome is more happiness in the world

than we had before. Hard utilitarianism, on the other hand, demands more: an act is ethically

recommendable only if the total benefits for everyone are greater than those produced by any other act.

According to the hard version, it’s not enough to do well; you must do the most good possible. As an

example, think about the test-prep company KDCP under the microscope of utilitarian examination.

 When a soft utilitarian looks at KDCP, the company comes out just fine. High schoolers are learning testtaking

skills and tricks that they’ll only use once but will help in achieving a better score and leave behind

a sense that they’ve done all they can to reach their college goals. That means the general happiness level

probably goes up—or at worst holds steady—because places like KDCP are out there.

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 When a hard utilitarian looks at KDCP, however, the company doesn’t come off so well. Can we really say

that this enterprise’s educational subject—test taking—is the very best use of teaching resources in terms

of general welfare and happiness? And what about the money? Is SAT prep really the best way for society

to spend its dollars? Wouldn’t a hard utilitarian have to recommend that the tuition money collected by

the test-prep company get siphoned off to pay for, say, college tuition for students who otherwise wouldn’t

be able to continue their studies at all?

If decisions about businesses are totally governed by the need to create the most happiness possible, then

companies like KDCP that don’t contribute much to social well-being will quickly become endangered.

The demands of hard utilitarianism can be layered onto the ethical decision faced by the College Board in

their courtroom battle with KDCP. Ultimately, the College Board opted to penalize the test-prep company

by forcing it to offer some free classes for underprivileged students. Probably, the result was a bit more

happiness in the world. The result wasn’t, however, the most happiness possible. If hard utilitarianism

had driven the decision, then the College Board would’ve been forced to go for the jugular against KDCP,

strip away all the money they could, and then use it to do the most good possible, which might have meant

setting up a scholarship fund or something similar. That’s just a start, though. Next, to be true to hard

utilitarianism, the College Board would need to focus on itself with hard questions. The costs of creating

and applying tests including the SAT are tremendous, which makes it difficult to avoid this question:

wouldn’t society as a whole be better off if the College Board were to be canceled and all their resources

dedicated to, for example, creating a new university for students with learning disabilities?

Going beyond KDCP and the College Board, wouldn’t almost any private company fall under the threat of

appropriation if hard utilitarian’s ran the world? While it’s true, for example, that the money spent on

steak and wine at expensive Las Vegas restaurants probably increases happiness a bit, couldn’t that same

cash do a lot more for the general welfare of people whose income makes Las Vegas an impossibly

expensive dream? If it could, then the hard utilitarian will propose zipping up Las Vegas and rededicating

the money.

Finally, since utilitarianism is about everyone’s total happiness, don’t hard questions start coming up

about world conditions? Is it possible to defend the existence of McDonald’s in the United States while

people are starving in other countries?

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Conclusion. In theory, there’s not much divergence between soft and hard utilitarianism. But in terms of

what actually happens out in the world when the theory gets applied, that’s a big difference. For private

companies, it’s also a dangerous one.

Two further versions of utilitarian regulation are act and rule. Act utilitarianism affirms that a specific

action is recommended if it increases happiness. This is the default form of utilitarianism, and what

people usually mean when they talk about the theory. The separate rule-based version asserts that an

action is morally right if it follows a rule that, when applied to everyone, increases general happiness.

The rule utilitarian asks whether we’d all be benefitted if everyone obeyed a rule such as “don’t steal.” If

we would—if the general happiness level increases because the rule is there—then the rule utilitarian

proposes that we all adhere to it. It’s important to note that rule utilitarian’s aren’t against stealing

because it’s intrinsically wrong, as duty theorists may propose. The rule utilitarian is only against stealing

if it makes the world less happy. If tomorrow it turns out that mass stealing serves the general good, then

theft becomes the ethically right thing to do.

The sticky point for rule utilitarian’s involves special cases. If we make the rule that theft is wrong,

consider what happens in the case from the chapter’s beginning: You forgot your pencil on SAT test day,

and you spot one lying on an abandoned desk. If you don’t take it, no one’s going to be any happier, but

you’ll be a lot sadder. So it seems like rule utilitarianism verges on defeating its own purpose, which is

maximizing happiness no matter what.

On the other hand, there are also sticky points for act utilitarian’s. For example, if I go to Wal-Mart

tonight and steal a six-pack of beer, I’ll be pretty happy. And assuming I don’t get caught, no one will be

any sadder. The loss to the company—a few dollars—will disappear in a balance sheet so huge that it’s

hard to count the zeros. Of course if everyone starts stealing beers, that will cause a problem, but in

practical terms, if one person does it once and gets away with it, it seems like an act utilitarian would have

to approve. The world would be a happier place.

Advantages and Disadvantages of Utilitarian Ethics in Business

Basic utilitarianism is the soft, act version. These are the theory’s central advantages:

 Clarity and simplicity. In general terms, it’s easy to understand the idea that we should all act to

increase the general welfare.

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 Acceptability. The idea of bringing the greatest good to the greatest number coheres with common and

popular ideas about what ethical guidance is supposed to provide.

 Flexibility. The weighing of individual actions in terms of their consequences allows for meaningful and

firm ethical rules without requiring that everyone be treated identically no matter how different the

particular situation. So the students whose scores were suspended by the College Board could see them

reinstated, but that doesn’t mean the College Board will take the same action in the future (if, say, large

numbers of people start stealing test booklets).

 Breadth. The focus on outcomes as registered by society overall makes the theory attractive for those

interested in public policy. Utilitarianism provides a foundation and guidance for business regulation by

government.

The central difficulties and disadvantages of utilitarianism include the following:

 Subjectivity. It can be hard to make the theory work because it’s difficult to know what makes happiness

and unhappiness for specific individuals. When the College Board demanded that KDCP give free classes

to underprivileged high schoolers, some paying students were probably happy to hear the news, but

others probably fretted about paying for what others received free. And among those who received the

classes, probably the amount of resulting happiness varied between them.

 Quantification. Happiness can’t be measured with a ruler or weighed on a scale; it’s hard to know

exactly how much happiness and unhappiness any particular act produces. This translates into confusion

at decision time. (Monetized utilitarianism, like that exhibited in the case of the Ford Pinto, responds to

this confusion.)

 Apparent injustices. Utilitarian principles can produce specific decisions that seem wrong. A quick

example is the dying grandmother who informs her son that she’s got $200,000 stuffed into her mattress.

She asks the son to divide the money with his brother. This brother, however, is a gambling alcoholic

who’ll quickly fritter away his share. In that case, the utilitarian would recommend that the other

brother—the responsible one with children to put through college—just keep all the money. That would

produce the most happiness, but do we really want to deny grandma her last wish?

 The utilitarian monster is a hypothetical individual who really knows how to feel good. Imagine that

someone or a certain group of people were found to have a much greater capacity to experience happiness

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than others. In that case, the strict utilitarian would have no choice but to put everyone else to work

producing luxuries and other pleasures for these select individuals. In this hypothetical situation, there

could even be an argument for forced labor as long as it could be shown that the servants’ suffering was

minor compared to the great joy celebrated by those few who were served. Shifting this into economic and

business terms, there’s a potential utilitarian argument here for vast wage disparities in the workplace.

 The utilitarian sacrifice is the selection of one person to suffer terribly so that others may be pleasured.

Think of gladiatorial games in which a few contestants suffer miserably, but a tremendous number of

spectators enjoy the thrill of the contest. Moving the same point from entertainment into the business of

medical research, there’s a utilitarian argument here for drafting individuals—even against their will—to

endure horrifying medical experiments if it could be shown that the experiments would, say, cure cancer,

and so create tremendous happiness in the future.

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 Utilitarianism judges specific decisions by examining the decision’s consequences.

 Utilitarianism defines right and wrong in terms of the happiness of a society’s members.

 Utilitarian ethics defines an act as good when its consequences bring the greatest good or happiness to

the greatest number of people.

 There are a variety of specific forms of utilitarianism.

 Theoretically, utilitarianism is straightforward, but in practical terms it can be difficult to measure the

happiness of individuals.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. What is a utilitarian argument in favor of a college education? How does it differ from other reasons you

might want to go to college or graduate school?

2. How could a utilitarian justify cheating on an exam?

3. What is a “global ethics”?

4. What practical problem with utilitarianism is (to some degree) resolved by monetized utilitarianism?

5. What are two advantages of a utilitarian ethics when compared with an ethics of duties?

6. What are two disadvantages of a utilitarian ethics when compared with an ethics of duties?

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7. What’s an example from today’s world of a utilitarian monster?

8. What’s an example from today’s world of a utilitarian sacrifice?

 [1] “CB-Karen Dillard Case Settled-No Cancelled Scores,” College Confidential, accessed May 15,

2011, http://talk.collegeconfidential.com/parents-forum/501843-cb-karen-dillard-case-settled-no-cancelledscores.

html.

 [2] Paulina Mis, “College Board Sues Test-Prep Company, Countersuit Filed,” Scholarships.com, February 26, 2008,

accessed May 15, 2011,http://www.scholarships.com/blog/high-school/college-board-sues-test-prep-companycountersuit-

filed/161.

 [3] Staci Hupp, “SAT Scores for Students Who Used Test Prep Firm May Be Thrown Out, “Denton Record Chronicle,

February 22, 2008, accessed May 15, 2011.

 [4] “AETR Report Card,” Americans for Educational Testing Reform, accessed May 15,

2011, http://www.aetr.org/college-board.php.

[5] Case facts taken from Manuel Velasquez, Business Ethics, Concepts and Cases, 6th ed. (Upper Saddle River, NJ:

Pearson Prentice Hall, 2006), 60–61.

3.3 Altruism: Everyone Else

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

1. Define altruistic ethics.

2. Show how altruism works in and with business.

3. Consider advantages and drawbacks of altruism.

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TOMS Shoes

There is no Tom at TOMS Shoes. The company’s name actually came from the title for its social cause:

Shoes for Tomorrow. Tomorrow shoes—TOMS Shoes. The shoes are given away to needy children in

Argentina at a one-to-one rate: for every pair bought in the United States, TOMS delivers a pair down

there.

They’re needed in Argentina’s poverty-stricken regions to prevent the spread of an infectious disease, one

that flourishes in the local soil and rises up through the feet. A pair of shoes is all that’s needed to block

the problem.

The project started when young Texan entrepreneur Blake Mycoskie vacationed in Argentina. Not the type

to luxuriate in the hotel pool, he got out and learned about the country, good and bad, the food, the

sweeping geography, the poverty and diseases. The foot infection, he discovered, was so devastating yet so

easy to block that, according to his company’s website, he decided he had to do something about

it. [1] Initially, he contemplated a charitable fund to buy shoes for the needy children, but that left his

project subject to the ebb and flow of others’ generosity. It’d be better and more reliable, he determined,

to link the community-service project with private enterprise and use revenues from a company to fund

the charity. Quickly, Mycoskie determined that he could make the whole machine work most efficiently by

starting a shoe company. Simultaneously, he could produce shoes for donation and shoes for sale to

finance the effort. So we have TOMS Shoes.

Next, a kind of shoe to produce and sell was required. Mycoskie found inspiration in Argentina’s

traditional alpargata. This is a cheap, workingman’s shoe, a slip-on made from canvas with rope

soles. [2] For the American adaptation, Mycoskie strengthened the sole, styled and colored the canvas, and

added a brand label. The price also got jacked up. The originals cost a few dollars in Argentina; the

adaptations cost about forty dollars here.

They’re a splashy hit. You find TOMS Shoes at trendy footwear shops, at Whole Foods grocery stores, and

all over the Internet. At last check, about half a million pairs have been sold and an equal number

donated. Total sales in seven figures aren’t far off, and the company was recently featured on a CNBC

segment as an American business success story. Notably, TOMS achieved recognition on national TV

sooner after its inception than almost any other enterprise in the program’s history. It all happened in

fewer than four years.

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Question: how did it get so big so fast? How did some guy transform from a wandering tourist to a captain

of the shoe industry in less time than it takes to get a college degree? Answer: celebrities.

Blake Mycoskie’s got a warm, round face and a perfect smile. He’s got money from his pre-shoe projects

and he’s smart too. He’s also got that contemporary bohemian look down with his bead necklace and

wavy, shoulder-length hair. There’s no letdown beneath the chin line either; he’s fit (he was a tennis pro

until nineteen). You get the idea. He commands attention from even Hollywood women, and he ended up

 

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coupled with the midrange star Maggie Grace. He introduced her to his TOMS Shoes concept, gave her a

few pairs to wear around and show friends, and the ball started rolling. [3]

A few parties later, Scarlett Johansson, Jessica Biel, Benicio Del Toro, Tobey Maguire, Sienna Miller, and

Karl Lagerfeld were parading around in TOMS Shoes. There was no stopping it. [4]

Today, when Blake Mycoskie introduces himself, it’s not as the CEO of his company; he says he’s the Chief

Shoe Giver at TOMS Shoes, reflecting the idea that charity drives the thriving business, not the other way

around.

Is TOMS Shoes Altruistic?

An action is morally right according to the altruist, and to the ethical theory of altruism, if the action’s

consequences are more beneficial than unfavorable for everyone except the person who acts. That means

the actor’s interests aren’t considered: the altruist does whatever can be done so that others will be

happier.

It’s common to imagine the altruist as poverty stricken and self-sacrificing. When you live for everyone

else as the altruist does, it’s no surprise that you can end up in pretty bad shape. You might get lucky and

run into another altruist like yourself, but if you don’t, there’s not going to be anyone particularly

dedicated to your well-being. On the positive side there’s nobility to the idea of dedicating everything to

everyone else, but the plain truth is not many of us would choose to live like Gandhi or Mother Teresa.

It doesn’t have to be that way, though. A suffering life may be an effect of altruism, but it’s not a

requirement. Living for others doesn’t mean you live poorly, only that there’s no guarantee you’ll live well.

You might, however, live well. Blake Mycoskie demonstrates this critical element at the heart of altruism:

it’s not about suffering or sacrificing; it’s about making clear-eyed decisions about the best way to make as

many others as happy as possible. If you happen to live the good life along the way—partying with Maggie

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Grace, Sienna Miller, and friends because that’s the fastest route to publicize the TOMS Shoes

enterprise—that doesn’t count against the project. It doesn’t count in favor either. All that matters, all that

gets tallied up when the question gets asked about whether the altruist did good, is how things ended up

for everyone else.

In the case of TOMS Shoes, the tallying is easy. The relatively wealthy shoe buyers in the United States

come off well; they get cool, politically correct footwear to show friends along with a psychological lift

from knowing they’re helping the less fortunate. On the other side, the rural Argentines obviously benefit

also.

Some Rules of Altruism

Altruism is a consequentialist ethics. Like utilitarianism, no specific acts are prohibited or required; only

outcomes matter. That explains why there aren’t lifestyle requirements for the altruist. Some live stoically

like Gandhi while others like Mycoskie get the high life, but they’re both altruists as long as the goal of

their lives and the reason for their actions is bringing happiness to others. Similarly, the altruist might be

a criminal (Robin Hood) or a liar (see Socrates’ noble lie).

Like the utilitarian, most of the hard questions altruists face concern happiness. They include:

 The happiness definition. Exactly what counts as happiness? In the case of TOMS donating shoes to rural

Argentines, the critical benefit is alleviation of disease and the suffering coming with it. Happiness, in

other words, is defined here as a release from real, physical pain. On the other hand, with respect to the

shoes sold in the States, the happiness is completely different; it’s a vague, good feeling that purchasers

receive knowing their shopping is serving a social cause. How do we define happiness in a way that ropes

in both these distinct experiences?

 Once happiness has been at least loosely defined, another question altruist’s face is the happiness

measure: how do we know which is worth more, the alleviation of suffering from a disease or the warm

happiness of serving a good cause? And even if the answer to that question is clear, how great is the

difference, how can it be measured?

 Another altruism difficulty is happiness foresight. Even if donating shoes helps in the short term, are the

recipients’ lives really going to be happier overall? Conditions are hard in the abandoned regions of the

third world, and alleviation of one problem may just clear the way for another. So TOMS Shoes saves

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poverty-stricken Argentines from suffering a debilitating foot disease, but how much good are you really

doing if you save people only so that they’re free to suffer aching hunger, miserable sickness in places

lacking antibiotics, and hard manual labor because there’s no other work?

Altruism is a variety of selflessness, but it’s not the same thing; people may deny themselves or they may

sacrifice themselves for all kinds of other reasons. For example, a soldier may die in combat, but that’s not

altruism; that’s loyalty: it’s not sacrificing for everyone else but for a particular nation. The same may go

for the political protestor who ends up jailed and forgotten forever. That’s self-sacrifice, but she did it for

the cause and not for all the others. The fireman may lose his life rescuing a victim, but this is because he’s

doing his job, not because he’s decided to live for the sake of others. All altruists, finally, are selfless, but

not all those who sacrifice themselves are altruists.

Personal versus impersonal altruism distinguishes two kinds of altruists: those who practice altruism on

their own and leave everyone else alone and those who believe that everyone should act only to benefit

others and without regard to their own well-being.

The Altruist in Business and the Business That Is Altruistic

TOMS Shoes shows that a business can be mounted to serve the welfare of others. A company aiming to

serve an altruistic purpose doesn’t have to be organized altruistically, however. An individual truly

dedicated to everyone else could start a more traditional company (a real estate firm, for example), work

like a dog, turn massive profits, and in the end, donate everything to charity. It may even be that during

the profit-making phase the altruist CEO is ruthless, exploiting workers and consumers to the maximum.

All that’s fine as long as the general welfare is served in the end when all the suffering is toted up on one

side and the happiness on the other. A business operation that isn’t at all altruistic, in other words, can be

bent in that direction by an altruistic owner.

Going the other way, the business operation itself may be altruistic. For example, this comes from the

College Board’s website, the About Us page: The College Board is a not-for-profit membership association

whose mission is to connect students to college success and opportunity. [5]

That sounds like a good cause. The company doesn’t exist to make money but to implement testing that

matches students with their best-fit colleges. It is, in other words, an altruistic enterprise, and the world,

the argument could be made, is a better place because the College Board exists. But—and this is the

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important distinction—that doesn’t mean everyone who works at the College Board is selfless. Far from it,

the CEO takes home $830,000 a year. That money would buy a lot of shoes for the poverty-stricken in

Argentina. So, there can be altruistic business organizations driven by workers who aren’t altruists.

A church is also a business organization with cash flows, budgets, and red and black ink. The same goes

for Goodwill. Here’s their mission statement: “Goodwill Industries International enhances the dignity and

quality of life of individuals, families and communities by eliminating barriers to opportunity and helping

people in need reach their fullest potential through the power of work.” [6] So, the Salvation Army fits into

the group of altruistic enterprises, of organizations that exist, like the College Board, to do public good.

It’s distinct from the College Board, however, in that a very healthy percentage of those working inside the

organization are themselves altruists—they’re working for the cause, not their own welfare. Think of the

Salvation Army red kettle bell ringers around Christmas time.

Conclusion. Altruism connects with business in three basic ways. There are altruists who use normal,

profit-driven business operations to do well. There are altruistic companies that do good by employing no

altruistic workers. And there are altruistic organizations composed of altruistic individuals.

Advocating and Challenging Ethical Altruism

The arguments for and against an altruistic ethics overlap to a considerable extent with those listed under

utilitarianism. The advantages include:

 Clarity and simplicity. People may disagree about exactly how much good a company like TOMS Shoes

is really doing, but the overall idea that the founder is working so that others can be happier is easy to

grasp.

 Acceptability. The idea of working for others grants an ethical sheen. No matter what you might think of

someone as a person, it’s very difficult to criticize them in ethical terms if they really are dedicating

themselves to the well-being of everyone else.

 Flexibility. Altruists have many ways of executing their beliefs.

The disadvantages of altruism include:

 Uncertainty about the happiness of others. Even if individuals decide to sacrifice their own welfare

for the good of others, how do they know for sure what makes others happy?

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 Shortchanging yourself. Even though altruism doesn’t require that the altruist live a miserable life,

there doesn’t seem to be any clear reason why the altruist shouldn’t get an at least equal claim to

happiness as everyone else (as in a utilitarian approach). Also, some critics suspect that altruism can be a

way of escaping your own life: if you spend all your time volunteering, could it be that deep down you’re

not a good soul so much as just afraid of going out into the competitive world and trying to win a good

place for yourself?

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 Altruism defines ethically good as any act that ends up increasing net happiness (or decreasing net

unhappiness) when everything is taken into account except the actor’s increased or diminished happiness.

 Altruism doesn’t require living a miserable life.

 Altruism intersects with the business world in various ways.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. Theoretically, could the most devoted altruist in a society also be its richest and happiest member? How?

2. Does Blake Mycoskie have to be an altruist for TOMS Shoes to be considered an altruistic enterprise?

3. Does TOMS Shoes have to be an altruistic enterprise for Mycoskie to be considered an altruist?

4. What are some other motives that may lead someone to live the life of an altruist?

 [1] TOMS Shoes, “One for One Movement,” accessed May 15, 2011,http://www.toms.com/our-movement.

 [2] TOMS Shoes, accessed May 15, 2011,http://cdn2.tomsshoes.com/images/uploads/2006-oct-vogue.jpg.

 [3] Sharon_b, December 14, 2008 (5:24 p.m.), “Blake Mycoskie—he’s handsome, rich and helps children in the

 

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Third World,” Gossip Rocks, accessed May 15, 2011,http://www.gossiprocks.com/forum/news/90958-blakemycoskie-

hes-handsome-rich-helps-children-third-world.html.

 [4] Lesley M. M. Blume, “You Are What You Wear,” Huffington Post, July 30, 2008, accessed May 15,

2011, http://www.huffingtonpost.com/lesley-m-m-blume/you-are-what-you-wear_b_65967.html.

 [5] “About Us,” College Board accessed May 15, 2011, http://about.collegeboard.org.

[6] “Our Mission,” Goodwill Industries International, Inc., accessed May 15, 2011,http://www.goodwill.org/aboutus/

our-mission.

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3.4 Egoism: Just Me

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

1. Define ethical egoism.

2. Show how egoism works in and with business.

3. Consider advantages and drawbacks of egoism.

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Ethical Egoism

Ethical egoism: whatever action serves my self-interest is also the morally right action. What’s good for

me in the sense that it gives me pleasure and happiness is also good in the sense that it’s the morally right

thing to do.

Ethical egoism mirrors altruism: If I’m an altruist, I believe that actions ought to heighten the happiness

of others in the world, and what happens to me is irrelevant. If I’m an egoist, I believe that actions ought

to heighten my happiness, and what happens to others is irrelevant.

Could someone like Blake Mycoskie—someone widely recognized as an altruistic, social-cause hero—

actually is an egoist? Yes. Consider things this way. Here’s a young guy and he’s out looking for money,

celebrity, good parties, and a jaw-dropping girlfriend. It wouldn’t be the first time there was a guy like

that.

Put yourself in his shoes and imagine you’re an ethical egoist: whatever’s good for you is good. Your

situation is pretty clear, your moral responsibility lists what you should be trying to get, and the only

question is how can I get it all?

That’s a tall order. Becoming a rock star would probably work, but there are a lot of people already out

there going for it that way. The same goes for becoming a famous actor. Sports are another possibility;

Mycoskie, in fact, made a run at pro tennis as a younger man, but like most who try, he couldn’t break into

the upper echelon. So there are paths that may work, but they’re hard ones, it’s a real fight for every step

forward.

If you’re smart—and Mycoskie obviously is—then you might look for a way to get what you want that

doesn’t force you to compete so brutally with so many others. Even better, maybe you’ll look for a way that

doesn’t present any competition at all, a brand new path to the wish list. The idea of a celebrity-driven

shoe company that makes a profit but that also makes its founder a star in the eyes of the Hollywood stars

is a pretty good strategy.

Obviously, no one can look deep into Mycoskie’s mind and determine exactly what drove him to found his

enterprise. He may be an altruist or an egoist or something else, but what’s important is to outline how

egoism can actually work in the world. It can work—though of course it doesn’t work this way every time—

just like TOMS Shoes.

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Egoism and Selfishness

When we hear the word egoist, an ugly profile typically comes to mind: self-centered, untrustworthy,

pitiless, and callous with respect to others. Some egoists really are like that, but they don’t have to be that

way. If you’re out to maximize your own happiness in the world, you might find that helping others is the

shortest and fastest path to what you want. This is a very important point. Egoists aren’t against other

people, they’re for themselves, and if helping others work for them, that’s what they’ll do. The case of

TOMS Shoes fits right here. The company improves the lives of many; it raises the level of happiness in

the world. And because it does that, the organization has had tremendous success, and because of that

success, the Blake Mycoskie we’re imagining as an egoist is getting what he wants: money, great parties,

and everyone loving him. In short, sometimes the best way to one’s own happiness is by helping others be

happier.

That’s not always the way it works. Bernie Madoff destroyed families, stole people’s last dimes, and lived

the high life all the way through. For an ethical egoist, the only blemish on his record is that he got caught.

Madoff did get caught, though, and this too needs to be factored into any consideration of egoists and how

they relate to others. Just as egoists may help others because that serves their own interests, so too they

may obey social customs and laws. It’s only important to note that they obey not out of deference to others

or because it’s the morally right thing to do; they play by the rules because it’s the smart thing to do. They

don’t want to end up rotting in jail.

 

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A useful contrast can be drawn in this context between egoism and selfishness. Where egoism means

putting your welfare above others’, selfishness is the refusal to see beyond yourself. Selfishness is the

inability (or unwillingness) to recognize that there are others sharing the world, so it’s the selfish person,

finally, who’s callous and insensitive to the wants and needs of others. For egoists, on the other hand,

because working with others cooperatively can be an excellent way to satisfy their own desires, they may

not be at all selfish; they may be just the opposite.

Enlightened Egoism, Cause Egoism, and the Invisible Hand

Enlightened egoism is the conviction that benefitting others—acting to increase their happiness—can

serve the egoist’s self-interest just as much as the egoist’s acts directly in favor of him or herself. As

opposed to altruism, which claims that it’s our ethical responsibility to serve others, the enlightened

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egoist’s generosity is a rational strategy, not a moral imperative. We don’t help others because we ought

to: we help them because it can make sense when, ultimately, we only want to help ourselves.

One simple and generic manifestation of enlightened egoism is a social contract. For example, I agree not

to steal from you as long as you agree not to steal from me. It’s not that I don’t take your things because I

believe stealing is morally wrong; I leave you alone because it’s a good way to get you to leave me alone.

On a less dramatic level, all of us form mini social contracts all the time. Just think of leading a group of

people through one of those building exits that makes you cross two distinct banks of doors. If you’re first

out, you’ll hold the door for those coming after, but then expect someone to hold the next door for you.

Sure, some people hold the door because it’s good manners or something like that, but for most of us, if no

one else ever held a door open for us, pretty soon we’d stop doing them the favor. It’s a trivial thing, of

course, but in the real world people generally hold doors open for others because they’ve agreed to a social

contract: everyone else does it for me; I’ll do it for them. That’s enlightened egoism, and it frequently

works pretty well.

TOMS Shoes can be understood as a more sophisticated version of the same mentality. It’s hard to discern

exactly what the contract would look like if someone tried to write it down, but it’s not hard to see the

larger notion of enlightened egoism. Shoes are donated to others not because of a moral obligation but

because serving the interests of others helps Blake Mycoskie serve his own. As long as shoe buyers keep

holding up their end of the bargain by buying his product, Mycoskie will continue to help them be

generous and feel good about themselves by donating pairs to people who need them.

Cause egoism is similar to, but also distinct from, enlightened egoism. Enlightened egoism works from the

idea that helping others is a good way of helping me. Cause egoism works from the idea that giving

the appearance of helping others is a promising way to advance my own interests in business. As opposed

to the enlightened egoist who will admit that he is out for himself but happy to benefit others along the

way, the cause egoist claims to be mainly or only interested in benefiting others and then leverages that

good publicity to help him. Stated slightly differently, enlightened egoists respect others while pursuing

their own interests, while cause egoists just fake it.

Adam Smith (1723–90) is known for making a connected point on the level of broad economic trade and

capitalism. In the end, it usually doesn’t matter whether people actually care about the well-being of

others, Smith maintains, because there exists an invisible hand at work in the marketplace. It leads

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individuals who are trying to get rich to enrich their society as well, and that enrichment happens

regardless of whether serving the general welfare was part of the original plan. According to Smith, the

person in business generally

Intends only his own gain, but is led by an invisible hand to promote an end which was no part of

the original intention. By pursuing his own interest he frequently promotes that of the society and

does so more effectively than when he directly intends to promote it. [1]

What’s the invisible hand? It’s the force of marketplace competition, which encourages or even requires

individuals who want to make money to make the lives of others better in the process.

The invisible hand is a central point defenders of egoism in business often make when talking about the

virtues of a me-first ethics. Egoism is good for me, but it frequently ends up being good for everyone else,

too. If that’s right, then even those who believe the utilitarian ideal of the general welfare should guide

business decisions may be forced to concede that we should all just become egoists.

Here’s a quick example. If you open a little takeout pizza shack near campus and your idea is to clear the

maximum amount of money possible to pay your tuition, what kind of business are you going to run?

Does it make sense to take a customer’s twelve dollars and then hand over an oily pie with cheap plastic

cheese and only three pepperonis? No, in the name of pursuing your own happiness, you’re going to try to

charge a bit less than Domino’s and give your customers something slightly better—maybe you’ll spread

richer cheese, or toss on a few extra pepperonis. Regardless, you’re not doing this for the reason an

altruist would; you’re not doing it because you sense an ethical obligation to make others’ lives better. As

an egoist, you don’t care whether your customers are happier or not. But if you want your business to

grow, you better care. And because you’re ethically required to help your business grow in order to make

tuition money and so make yourself happier, you’re going to end up improving the pizza-eating

experience at your school. Better food, less money. Everyone wins. We’re not talking Mother Teresa here,

but if ethical goodness is defined as more happiness for more people, then the pizza place is ethically

good. Further, anybody who wants to start up a successful pizza restaurant is, very likely, going to end up

doing good. If you don’t, if you can’t offer some advantage, then no one’s going to buy your slices.

Going beyond the quality-of-life benefits of businesses in society, Smith leaned toward a second claim

that’s far more controversial. He wrote that the entrepreneur trying to do well actually promotes society’s

well-being more effectively than when directly intending to promote it. This is startling. In essence, it’s

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the claim that for the most dedicated altruist the most effective strategy for life in business is…to act like

an egoist. Within the economic world at least, the best way for someone who cares only about the wellbeing

of others to implement that conviction is to go out and run a successful profit-making enterprise.

Clearly, this is a very powerful argument for defenders of ethical egoism. If it’s true that egoists beat

altruists at their own game (increasing the happiness of everyone else), then egoism wins the debate by

default; we should all become egoists. Unfortunately, it’s impossible to prove this claim one way or the

other. One thing is clear, however: Smith’s implicit criticism of do-gooders can be illustrated. Sometimes

individuals who decide to act for the good of others (instead of seeking profit for themselves) really do end

up making the world a worse place. Dr. Loretta Napoleoni has shown how attempts by Bono of U2 to help

the destitute in Africa have actually brought them more misery. [2] Bono threw a benefit concert and

dedicated the proceeds to Africa are most needy. The intention was good, but the plan wasn’t thought all

the way through and the money ended up getting diverted to warlords who used it to buy guns and bullets.

Still, the fact that some altruistic endeavors actually make things worse doesn’t mean they’re all doomed.

Just as surely as some fail, others succeed.

The same mixed success can be attributed to businesses acting only for their own welfare, only for profit.

If it’s true that the pizza sellers help improve campus life, what about the entrepreneurial honor student

who volunteers to write your term paper for a price? It’s hard to see how a pay-for-grades scheme benefits

students in general, even though the writer may make a tidy profit, and that one student who paid for the

work may come out pretty well.

The invisible hand is the belief that businesses out in the world trying to do well for themselves tend to do

good for others too. It may even be that they do more good than generous altruists. It’s hard to know for

sure, but it can be concluded that there’s a distance between ethical egoism in reality and the image of the

egoist as a ruthless destroyer of broad social happiness.

Some Rules of Egoism

Egoism, like altruism, is a consequentialist ethics: the ends justify the means. If an egoist were at the helm

of TOMS Shoes and he cared only about meeting beautiful people and making huge money, he’d have no

scruples about lying all day long. There’d be no problem with smiling and insisting that the reason TOMS

Shoes exists is to generate charitable shoe donations to the poor. All that matters for the egoist is that the

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lie works, that it serves the goal of making TOMS as attractive and profitable as possible. If it does, then

deviating from the truth becomes the ethically recommendable route to follow.

Personal egoism versus impersonal egoism distinguishes these two views: the personal egoist in the

business world does whatever’s necessary to maximize his or her own happiness. What others do,

however, is considered their business. The impersonal egoist believes everyone should get up in the

morning and do what’s best for themselves and without concern for the welfare of others.

An impersonal egoist may find comfort in the invisible hand argument that the best way for me to do right

with respect to society in general is to get rich. Of course it’s true that there’s something crude in

shameless money grubbing, but when you look at things with rational eyes, it is hard to avoid noticing

that the kinds of advances that make lives better—cars affordably produced on assembly lines; drugs from

Lipitor to Chap Stick; cell phones; spill-proof pens; whatever—often trace back to someone saying, “I want

to make some money for myself.”

Rational egoism versus psychological egoism distinguishes two reasons for being an ethical egoist. The

rational version stands on the idea that egoism makes sense. In the world as it is, and given a choice

between the many ethical orientations available, egoism is the most reasonable. The psychological egoist

believes that, for each of us, putting our own interests in front of everyone else isn’t a choice; it’s a reality.

We’re made that way. Maybe it’s something written into our genes or it’s part of the way our minds are

wired, but regardless, according to the psychological egoist, we all care about ourselves before anyone else

and at their expense if necessary.

Why would I rationally choose to be an egoist? Maybe because I figure that if I don’t look out for myself,

no one will. Or maybe I think almost everyone else is that way, too, so I better play along or I’m going to

get played. (The Mexicans have a pithy phrase of common wisdom for this, “O te chingas, o te chingan,”

which means “either you screw everyone else, or they’ll screw you.”) Maybe I believe that doing well for

myself helps me do well for others too. The list could be drawn out, but the point is that there are

numerous reasons why an intelligent person may accept ethical egoism as the way to go.

As for those who subscribe to the theory of psychological egoism, obviously there’s no end of examples in

business and history to support the idea that no matter how much we may want things to be otherwise,

the plain truth is we’re made to look out for number one. On the other hand, one problem for

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psychological egoists is that there do seem to be examples of people doing things that are irreconcilable

 

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with the idea that we’re all only trying to make ourselves happier:

 Parents sacrificing for children. Any mom or dad who works overtime at some grinding job for cash to pay

their children’s college tuition seems to be breaking the me-first rule. Here, the psychological egoist

responds that, when you really think about it, there may be something there for the parents after all: it

could be the pride in telling friends that their children are getting their degrees.

 Mother Teresa or similar religious-based advocates for the needy. Anyone spending their time and energy

making things better for others, while living painfully modestly, seems like a good candidate to break the

rule of psychological egoism. Here, the psychological egoist responds that perhaps they see a different

reward for themselves than earthly pleasures. They may believe, for example, that their suffering on this

earth will be more than compensated by paradise in heaven.

The Four Relations between Egoism and Business

Structurally, there are four possible relations between ethical egoism and business life:

1. You can have egoists in egoist organizations. This is mercenary capitalism. Individuals do whatever work

is required so long as it benefits them to the maximum. Naturally, this kind of person might find a good

home at a company entirely dedicated to maximizing its own health and success, which can mean one

looking to maximize profits without other considerations. A good example is executives at the

Countrywide mortgage firm. They OK’ed thousands of mortgages to clients who had no way to repay the

money. Then they bundled and sold these mortgages to banks and other financial institutions, making a

quick profit. When the loans later collapsed, those institutions fell into bankruptcy. The Countrywide

executives quickly formed a new company to buy those same loans back at pennies on the dollar, thus

once again turning millions in profits. [3]

2. You can have egoists in nonegoist organizations. Possibly, the CEO of the College Board fits into this

category. His salary of just under a million dollars annually sounds pretty good, especially when you

consider that he gets it working for a nonprofit company that exists to help high school students find the

college best fitted to them. It’s also possible that Blake Mycoskie of TOMS Shoes fits this profile: he lives

an extremely enviable life in the middle of a company set up to help people who almost no one envies.

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3. You can have nonegoists in egoist organizations. Somewhere in the Countrywide mortgage company we

could surely find someone who purchased shoes from TOMS because they wanted to participate in the

project of helping the rural poor in Argentina.

4. You can have nonegoists in nonegoist organizations. Think of the red kettle bell ringers popping up

outside malls around the holiday season.

Advocating and Challenging Ethical Egoism

The arguments for an egoistic ethics include the following:

 Clarity and simplicity. Everybody understands what it means to look out for them first.

 Practicality. Many ethical theories claim to protect our individual interests, but each of us knows

ourselves and our own interest’s best. So doesn’t it make sense that we as individuals take the lead?

Further, with respect to creating happiness for ourselves, there’s no one closer to the action than us. So,

again, doesn’t it make sense that each of us should be assigned that responsibility?

 Sincerity. For those subscribing to psychological egoism, there’s a certain amount of honesty in this

ethics not found in others. If our real motive beneath everything else is to provide for our own happiness

first, then shouldn’t we just recognize and say that? It’s better to be sincere and admit that the reason we

don’t steal is so that others don’t steal from us instead of inventing some other explanations which sound

nice but are ultimately bogus.

 Unintended consequences. In the business world, the concept of the invisible hand allows egoists to

claim that their actions end up actually helping others and may help them more than direct charity or

similar altruistic actions.

 Finally, there’s a broad argument in favor of egoism that concerns dignity. If you’re out in the world being

altruistic, it’s natural to assume that those benefiting from your generosity will be grateful. Sometimes

they’re not, though. Sometimes the people we try to help repay us with spite and resentment. They do

because there’s something condescending about helping others; there’s a message wrapped up in the aid

that those who receive it are incapable of taking care of them and need someone superior to look out for

them. This is especially palpable in the case of panhandlers. If you drop a dollar into their hat, it’s hard to

not also send along the accusation that their existence is base and shameful (you refuse to look them in

the eye; you drop the money and hurry away). To the extent that’s right, an egoism that expects people to

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look out for themselves and spurns charity may actually be the best way to demonstrate respect for others

and to acknowledge their dignity.

Arguments against ethical egoism include the following:

 Egoism isn’t ethics. The reason we have ethics is because there are so many people in the world and in

business who care only about themselves. The entire idea of ethics, the reasoning goes, is to set up some

rules for acting that rescue us from a cruel reality where everyone’s just looking out for number one.

 Egoism ignores blatant wrongs. Stealing candy from a baby—or running a company selling crappy

baby food—strikes most of us as unacceptable, but the rules of egoism dictate that those are

recommendable actions as long as you can be assured that they’ll serve your interests.

 Psychological egoism is not true. The idea that we have no choice but to pursue our own welfare

before anything else is demonstrated to be false millions of times every day; it’s wrong every time

someone makes an anonymous contribution to a cause or goes out of their way to help another without

expecting anything in return.

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 Egoism defines ethically good as any act that raises the actor’s overall happiness (or decreases

unhappiness) without counting anyone else’s increased or diminished happiness.

 Egoism does not mean ignoring the existence and welfare of others, though they are not necessarily

advocated either.

 Though egoists act in the name of their own happiness, others may benefit.

 Egoism intersects with the business world in various ways.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. What’s the difference between egoism and selfishness?

2. In what situation would an egoist decide that a lie is morally wrong?

3. In the real world, is there any way to distinguish an enlightened egoist from a cause egoist?

4. What are some reasons someone may become a rational egoist?

5. What is the invisible hand?

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6. If you were starting a small business, would you prefer that your partner is a utilitarian, an altruist, or an

egoist? Why?

 [1] Adam Smith, An Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of the Wealth of Nations (London: Strahan and Cadell,

1776), bk. 4, chap. 2.

 [2] Can Tran, “Celebrities Raising Funds for Africa End Up Making Things ‘Worse,’” Ground Report, May 14, 2008,

accessed May 15, 2011,http://www.groundreport.com/World/Celebrities-Raising-Funds-For-Africa-End-Up-

Making/2861070.

 [3] Eric Lipton, “Ex-Leaders of Countrywide Profit from Bad Loans,” New York Times, March 3, 2009, accessed May

15, 2011,http://www.nytimes.com/2009/03/04/business/04penny.html.

3.5 Case Studies

Cheaters

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KDCP is Karen Dillard’s company specialized in preparing students to ace the Scholastic Aptitude Test. At

least some of the paying students received a solid testing-day advantage: besides teaching the typical tips

and pointers, KDCP acquired stolen SAT tests and used them in their training sessions. It’s unclear how

many of the questions that students practiced on subsequently turned up on the SATs they took, but some

certainly did. The company that produces the SAT, the College Board, cried foul and took KDCP to court.

The lawsuit fell into the category of copyright infringement, but the real meat of the claim was that KDCP

helped kids cheat, they got caught, and now they should pay.

The College Board’s case was very strong. After KDCP accepted the cold reality that they were going to get

hammered, they agreed to a settlement offer from the College Board that included this provision: KDCP

would provide $400,000 worth of free SAT prep classes to high schoolers who couldn’t afford to pay the

bill themselves. [1]

QUE STIONS

1. Can you form a quick list of people who’d benefit because of this decision and others who’d end up on the

losing side? Then, considering the situation globally and from a utilitarian perspective, what would need to

be true for the settlement offer to be ethically recommendable?

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2. As for those receiving the course for free—it’s probably safe to assume that their happiness

increases. Something for nothing is good. But what about the students who still have to pay for

the course? Some may be gladdened to hear that more students get the opportunity, but others

will see things differently; they’ll focus on the fact that their parents are working and saving

money to pay for the course, while others get it for nothing. Some of those who paid probably

actually earned the money themselves at some disagreeable, minimum wage McJob. Maybe they

served popcorn in the movie theater to one of those others who later on applied and got a

hardship exemption.

o Starting from this frustration and unhappiness on the part of those who pay full price, can you

form a utilitarian case against the settlement’s free classes?

o From a utilitarian perspective, could the College Board have improved the settlement by adding

the stipulation that the settlement’s terms (and therefore the free classes) not be publicly

disclosed?

o Once word got out, could a utilitarian recommend that the College Board lie or that it release a

statement saying, “No free classes were part of the settlement”?

3. There was talk about canceling the scores of those students who took the SAT after benefitting from the

KDCP classes that offered access to the stolen exam booklets. The students and their parents protested

vigorously, pointing out that they’d simply signed up for test prep, just like students all across the nation.

They knew nothing about the theft and they presumably didn’t know they were practicing on questions

that might actually appear on their exam day. From the perspective of rule utilitarianism, what’s the case

for canceling their scores? From the perspective of act utilitarianism, what’s the case for reinstating the

scores?

4. The College Board CEO makes around $830,000 a year.

o What is a utilitarian case for radically lowering his salary?

o If you were a utilitarian and you had the chance—and you were sure you wouldn’t get caught—

would you steal the money from the guy’s bank account? Why or why not?

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5. It could be that part of what the College Board hoped to gain through this settlement requiring

free classes for the underprivileged was some positive publicity, some burnishing of their image as

the good guys, the socially responsible company, the ones who do the right thing.

o Outline the case for this being an act of an altruistic company.

o Outline the case for this being an act of an egoistic company.

UFC

 

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Ultimate Fighting Championship (UFC) got off to a crushing start. In one of the earliest matches, Tank

Abbott, a six-footer weighing 280 pounds, faced John Matua, who was two inches taller and weighed a

whopping four hundred pounds. Their combat styles were as different as their sizes. Abbott called himself

a pit fighter. Matua was an expert in more refined techniques: he’d honed the skills of wrestling and

applying pressure holds. His skill—which was also a noble and ancient Hawaiian tradition—was the

martial art called Kuialua.

The evening went poorly for the artist. Abbott nailed him with two roundhouses before applying a skullcracking

head butt. The match was only seconds old and Matua was down and so knocked out that his

eyes weren’t even closed, just glazed and staring absently at the ceiling. The rest of his body was

convulsing. The referee charged toward the defenseless fighter, but Abbott was closer and slammed an

elbow down on Matua’s pale face. Abbott tried to stand up and ram another, but the referee was now close

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enough to pull him away. As blood spurted everywhere and medics rushed to save the loser, Abbott stood

above Matua and ridiculed him for being fat. [2]

The tape of Abbott’s brutal skills and pitiless attitude shot through the Internet. He became—briefly—

famous and omnipresent, even getting a guest appearance on the goofy, family-friendly sitcom Friends.

A US senator also saw the tape but reacted differently. Calling it barbaric and a human form of

cockfighting, he initiated a crusade to get the UFC banned. Media executives were pressured to not beam

the matches onto public TVs, and doctors were drafted to report that UFC fighters (like professional

boxers) would likely suffer long-term brain damage. In the heat of the offensive, even diehard advocates

agreed the sport might be a bit raw, and the UFC’s original motto—“There are no rules!”—got slightly

modified. Head butting, eye-gouging, and fish-hooking (sticking your finger into an opponent’s orifice and

ripping it open) were banned.

No matter what anyone thinks of UFC, it convincingly demonstrates that blood resembles sex. Both sell

and people like to watch. The proof is that today UFC events are among the most viewed in the world,

among the most profitable, and—this is the one part that hasn’t changed since the gritty beginning—

among the most brutal.

QUE STIONS

1. Two of the common arguments against ultimate fighting—and the two main reasons the US

senator argued to get the events banned—are the following:

o They’re brutal; UFC celebrates violence and hatred and injury, and therefore, it’s immoral.

o Besides the bumps, bruises, and broken bones—which usually heal up—the fighters also suffer

long-term and incurable brain damage. Therefore, the sport is immoral even though it might be

true that in their prime, the fighters make enough money to compensate the physical suffering

endured in the octagon.

How could a utilitarian defend the UFC against these two criticisms?

2. How could the concept of the utilitarian sacrifice apply to John Matua?

3. How would a hedonistic utilitarian’s reaction to UFC differ from an idealistic utilitarian’s reaction? Is there

anything at all in UFC that might convince an idealistic utilitarian to promote the sport as ethically

positive?

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4. How could a proponent of monetized utilitarianism begin portioning up the experiences of Abbott, Matua,

the UFC sponsors, and the spectators in order to construct a mathematical formula (like Ford did with the

Pinto) to decide whether UFC should be banned?

5. Think of UFC as a business, one compared to a biotech company that pioneers cutting-edge, life-saving

drugs. Now, how would a utilitarian decide which one of these two companies was the more ethically

respectable?

6. Why might an altruist sign up to be a UFC fighter? Why might an egoist sign up to be a UFC fighter?

Lottery

Source: Photo courtesy of Alan Levine, http://www.flickr.com/photos/cogdog/81199624.

In her blog Majikthise, Lindsay Beyerstein writes, “State lotteries are often justified on the grounds that

they raise money for social programs, especially those that target the neediest members of society.

However, the poorest members of society tend to spend (and, by design lose) the most on lottery tickets.

Some state lottery proceeds fund programs that benefit everyone, not just the poor. Often state lottery

money is being systematically redistributed upward—from lotto players to suburban schools, for

example.” [3]

QUE STIONS

1. How is the lottery an example of the utilitarian monster?

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2. How can you set yourself up to argue in favor of or against the ethical existence of the lottery in terms of

monetized utilitarianism?

3. Lotteries are about money and about fun—that is, even for the losers, there’s a benefit in the thrill of

watching the numbers turn up. Could the case be made that, from a hedonistic utilitarian standpoint, the

lottery is ethically recommendable because it serves the welfare not only of the winner but also of the

millions of losers?

4. One of Lindsay Beyerstein’s concerns is that the lottery tends to redistribute money from the poor

toward the rich.

o Does a utilitarian necessarily consider this redistribution unethical?

o What kinds of things would a utilitarian have to look into to decide whether the inverse Robin

Hooding is necessarily a bad thing?

5. The lotteries under discussion here are run by states, and Lindsay Beyerstein is not a big fan. She calls

these lotteries “a tax on idiocy” meaning, presumably, that people are just throwing their money away

every time they buy a ticket. Now, one of the arguments in favor of egoism as an ethical stance is that no

one knows what makes each of us happy better than each of us. So, it follows, we should all just try to get

what we want and leave other people alone. How can this view of egoism be fashioned to respond to the

idea that the lottery is a tax on idiocy?

Honest Tea

Source: Photo courtesy of Arnold Gatilao, http://www.flickr.com/photos/arndog/1210077306/.

Seth Goldman founded Honest Tea in 1998. He calls himself the Tea EO (as opposed to CEO) and his

original product was a bottled tea drink with no additives beyond a bit of sugar. Crisp and natural—that

was the product’s main selling point. It wasn’t the only selling point, though. The others aren’t in the

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bottle; they’re in the company making it. Honest Tea is a small enterprise composed of good people. As

the company website relates, “A commitment to social responsibility is central to Honest Tea’s identity

and purpose. The company strives for authenticity, integrity and purity, in our products and in the way we

do business…Honest Tea seeks to create honest relationships with our employees, suppliers, customers

and with the communities in which we do business.” [4]

Buy Honest Tea, the message is, because the people behind it are trustworthy; they are the kind of

entrepreneurs you want to support.

The mission statement also relates that when Honest Tea gives business to suppliers, “we will attempt to

choose the option that better addresses the needs of economically disadvantaged communities.” [5] They’ll

give the business, for example, to the company in a poverty-stricken area because, they figure, those

people really need the jobs. Also, and to round out this socially concerned image, the company promotes

ecological (“sustainability”) concerns and fair trade practices: “Honest Tea is committed to the well-being

of the folks along the value chain who help bring our products to market. We seek out suppliers that

practice sustainable farming and demonstrate respect for individual workers and their families.” [6]

Summing up, Honest Tea provides a natural product, helps the poor, treats people with respect, and saves

the planet. It’s a pretty striking corporate profile.

It’s also a profile that sells. It does because when you hand over your money for one of their bottles, you’re

confident that you’re not fattening the coffers of some money grubbing executive in a New York penthouse

who’d lace drinks with chemicals or anything else that served to raise profits. For many consumers, that’s

good to know.

Honest Tea started selling in Whole Foods and then spread all over, even to the White House fridges

because it’s a presidential favorite. Revenues are zooming up through the dozens of millions. In 2008, the

Coca-Cola Company bought a 40 percent share of Honest Tea for $43 million. It’s a rampantly successful

company.

Featured as part of a series in the Washington Post in 2009, the company’s founder, Seth Goldman, was

asked about his enterprise and his perspective on corporate philanthropy, meaning cash donations to

good causes. Goldman said, “Of course there’s nothing wrong with charity, but the best way for companies

to become good citizens is through the way they operate their business.” Here are two of his examples: [7]

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 Switching from Styrofoam to postconsumer waste might help a packaging company make a more

meaningful contribution to sustainability than a token donation to an environmental nonprofit.

 Investing in a local production facility or even a community bank could help support a local economy

more effectively than a donation to a nearby jobs program.

Organizations in the economic world, Goldman believes, can do the most good by doing good themselves

as opposed to doing well (making money) and then outsourcing their generosity and social responsibility

by donating part of their profits to charities. That may be true, or it may not be, but it’s certain that

Goldman is quite good at making the case. He’s had a lot of practice since he’s outlined his ideas not just

in the Post but in as many papers and magazines as he can find. Honest Tea’s drinks are always featured

prominently in these flattering articles, which are especially complimentary when you consider that

Honest Tea doesn’t have to pay a penny for them.

QUE STIONS

1. Make the case that Seth Goldman founded Honest Tea as an expression of his utilitarian ethics.

o What kinds of people are affected by the Honest Tea organization? Which groups might benefit

from Honest Tea and how? Which groups might not benefit?

o Would this be a hedonistic or idealistic utilitarianism? Why?

o Would it be possible to construe Honest Tea within a framework of monetized utilitarianism?

o Would this be a soft or hard utilitarianism?

2. Make the case that Seth Goldman founded Honest Tea as an expression of his ethical altruism.

o Altruists serve the welfare of others. How does Honest Tea serve people’s welfare?

o What would have to be true about Goldman in terms of his particular abilities and skills for this

enterprise to fall under the heading of altruism?

o Does Goldman sound more like a personal or an impersonal altruist?

3. Make the case that Seth Goldman founded Honest Tea as an expression of his ethical egoism.

o What are some of the benefits Goldman could derive from Honest Tea?

o Before running Honest Tea, Goldman was a big-time mutual fund manager. What kind of benefits

could Honest Tea have offered that he couldn’t find in the world of finance?

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o Does Goldman sound more like a personal or an impersonal egoist?

o In the real world, does it make any difference whether Goldman does enlightened egoism or

cause egoism?

4. In this case study, two kinds of drink manufacturers are contrasted: Honest Tea and the hypothetical drink

company run by some mercenary businessman lacing drinks with bad chemicals to maximize profits.

Looking at this contrast, how could a defender of egoism claim that the best way for healthy drinks to

make their way into the general public’s hands (in the medium and long term, anyway) is for

Goldman and the mercenary businessman and everyone else to all be egoists?

5. Assume that Seth Goldman is a cause egoist, someone faking concern for the general welfare in order to

provide for his own happiness and pleasure. How could the concept of the invisible hand be introduced to

make the claim that Goldman is actually doing more good for the general welfare than he would if he were

a utilitarian or even an altruist?

Your Business

Source: Photo courtesy of Paul Sapiano, http://www.flickr.com/photos/peasap/935756569.

Think about something you do with passion or expertise—a dish you like to cook and eat, a sport you play,

any unique skill or ability you’ve developed—and figure out a way to turn it into a small business. For

example, you like baking cookies, so you open a bake shop, or you like hockey and could imagine an

improved stick to invent and market.

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QUE STIONS

1. If your business is like most others, you’re going to need some money to get it up and going, more money

than you’ve got right now. That means you’ll need to find a partner for your venture, someone to help you

get the cash together and then run things afterward. Would you prefer a utilitarian, an altruist, or an

egoist for your partner? Why?

2. Do you think the invisible hand would be in effect for your business? Just by trying to make money, do you

imagine you’d end up improving people’s lives? If this business works, is it even possible that you’d help

others more than you would by volunteering time for a charity organization? Elaborate.

3. Assume that doing well in society and not just doing well (making money) is important to you.

Within the business you have in mind, with which of these three options do you suspect you’d

accomplish more general good?

o Just making money and trusting the invisible hand to take care of the rest

o Making money and donating part of it to charity—that is, to people specialized in serving the

general welfare

o Attempting to do good within your business by, for example, buying recycled materials or by

paying wages slightly above what people could get for the same work at other companies

4. Is there a potential cause egoism angle to your business? Could you set it up to make it seem like

the reason you’re running your enterprise is to help others when really you’re just trying to make money?

For a consequentialist, is there anything wrong with that?

 [1] missypie, April 29, 2008 (2:22 p.m.), “CB-Karen Dillard case settled-no cancelled scores,” College Confidential,

accessed May 15, 2011,http://talk.collegeconfidential.com/parents-forum/501843-cb-karen-dillard-case-settledno-

cancelled-scores.html.

 [2] David Plotz, “Fight Clubbed,” Slate, November 17, 1999, accessed May 15,

2011,http://www.slate.com/id/46344.

 [3] Lindsay Beyerstein, “Lotteries as Regressive Taxes,” Majikthise (blog), January 23, 2006, accessed May 15,

2011,http://majikthise.typepad.com/majikthise_/2006/01/lotteries_as_re.html.

 [4] “Our Mission,” Honest, accessed May 15, 2011,http://www.honesttea.com/mission/about/overview.

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[5] “Our Mission,” Honest, accessed May 15, 2011,http://www.honesttea.com/mission/about/overview.

 [6] “Our Mission,” Honest, accessed May 15, 2011,http://www.honesttea.com/mission/about/overview.

[7] “On Leadership: Seth Goldman,” Washington Post, accessed May 15,

2011,http://views.washingtonpost.com/leadership/panelists/2009/11/the-biggest-dollars.html.

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Chapter 4

Theories Responding to the Challenge of Cultural

Relativism

Chapter Overview

Chapter 4 “Theories Responding to the Challenge of Cultural Relativism” examines some theories guiding

ethical decisions in business. It considers reactions to the possibility that there are no universal

definitions of right and wrong, only different customs that change from one society to another.

4.1 What Is Cultural Relativism?

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

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1. Define cultural relativism.

2. Show how cultural relativism defies traditional ethics.

Nietzsche and the End of Traditional Ethics

“God is dead,” the declaration attributed to Friedrich Nietzsche, stands along with “I think, therefore I

am” (René Descartes, 1641) as philosophy’s most popularized—and parodied—phrases. The t-shirt

proclaiming “Nietzsche is dead, signed, God” is funny, but it doesn’t quite answer what Nietzsche was

saying in the late 1800s. What Nietzsche meant to launch was not only an assault on a certain religion but

also a suspicion of the idea that there’s one source of final justice for all reality. Nietzsche proposed that

different cultures and people each produce their own moral recommendations and prohibitions, and

there’s no way to indisputably prove that one set is simply and universally preferable to another. The

suspicion that there’s no final appeal—and therefore the values and morality practiced by a community

can’t be dismissed as wrong or inferior to those practiced elsewhere—is called cultural relativism.

Example: For most of us, the killing of a newborn would be among the most heinous of immoral acts; a

perpetrator would need to be purely evil or completely mad. The Inuit Eskimos, however, regularly

practiced female infanticide during their prehistory, and it was neither evil nor insane. Their brutal living

conditions required a population imbalance tipped toward hunters (males). Without that gender

selecting, the plain fact was the entire group faced starvation. At another place and time, Bernal

Diaz’s The Conquest of New Spain recounts the Spanish invasion of the Americas and includes multiple

reports of newborns sacrificed in bloody ceremonies that made perfect sense to the locals, but left

Spaniards astonished and appalled. The ethics of infanticide, the point is, differ from one culture and time

to another. Further, these differences seem irreconcilable: it’s extremely difficult to see how we could

convince the Inuit of the past to adopt our morality or how they could convince us to adopt theirs. And if

that’s right, then maybe it no longer makes sense to talk about right and wrong in general terms as though

there’s a set of rules applying to everyone; instead, there are only rights and wrongs as defined within a

specific society.

Finally, if you accept the cultural relativist premise, then you’re rejecting the foundation of traditional

ethics. You’re rejecting the idea that if we think carefully and expertly enough, we’ll be able to formulate

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rules for action that everyone—people in all times, places, and communities—must obey if they want to

consider themselves ethically responsible.

Cultural Relativism in Business Ethics

In the world of international business, Entrepreneur magazine introduces the pitfalls of ethical variation

across cultures with this statement from Steve Veltkamp, president of Biz$hop, an American importexport

business: “Bribery is a common way of doing business in a lot of foreign places.” [1]

If that’s true, then US businesses trying to expand into markets abroad—and competing with local

businesses already established there—are probably going to consider doing what everyone else is doing,

which means getting in on the bribery action. As the Entrepreneur article points out, however, this leads

to a problem: “While bribes are expected in many countries, the United States’ 1977 Foreign Corrupt

Practices Act prohibits payments made with the aim of gaining or maintaining business.”

So American hands are tied. If a construction company is bidding on the contract to build an airport in a

foreign nation, one where the local politicians will be expecting to get their palms greased, they’re at a

distinct disadvantage since they’re not allowed to play by the local rules. Still there is (as there almost

always is) a loophole: “Not all payments are prohibited by the act. Some payments are acceptable if they

don’t violate local laws. Gifts, for instance, to officers working for foreign corporations are legal.”

There’s no bribing, but gifting, apparently, gets a green light. There’s a problem here, too, however: “It can

be difficult to determine the difference between a gift and a bribe in a given situation. ‘If you give a gift to

someone and it leads to a business deal, is that a bribe or a gift?’ asks Veltkamp. ‘In some cultures, giftgiving

is an entrenched part of doing business. If you look at it in a certain sense, maybe it’s a bribe, since

they won’t talk to you until you’ve made that gesture.’”

Now what? Over there, cash changes hands and it’s called an acceptable gift, while those watching from

back here see an illegal bribe.

There are two ways of looking at this dilemma. One is to say, well, this has to be one or the other, either a

gift or a bribe; it has to be either moral or immoral. Given that, we need to take out our traditional tools—

our basic duties, the utilitarian doctrine that we should act to serve the greater good, and so on—and

figure out which it is. Nietzsche went the other way, though. He said that situations like this don’t show

that we need to use ethics to figure out which side is right; instead, the situation shows what moral

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rules really are: just a set of opinions that a group of people share and nothing more. In the United States

we believe it’s wrong to grease palms, and so it is. In some other places they believe it’s honorable to hand

money under the table, and so it is.

If that’s true, then specific convictions of right and wrong in business ethics will never be anything but

cultural fashions, beliefs some community somewhere decides to hold up for a while until they decide to

believe something else. Anything, the reasoning goes, may be morally good or bad in the economic world;

it just depends on where you happen to be, at what time, and who else is around.

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 Cultural relativism is the suspicion that values and morality are culture specific—they’re just what the

community believes and not the result of universal reason.

 For cultural relativists, because all moral guidelines originate within specific cultures, there’s no way to

dismiss one set of rules as wrong or inferior to those developed in another culture.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. Why do you imagine the term cultural relativism was chosen to mean what it does?

2. Do you believe cultures are irreconcilably different? Or is it that deep down people are people and we’re

really all the same? How does this distinction relate to the difference between cultural relativism and

traditional theories of ethics?

[1] Moira Allen, “Here Comes the Bribe,” Entrepreneur, October 2000, accessed May 12,

2011, http://www.entrepreneur.com/magazine/entrepreneur/2000/october/32636.html.

4.2 Nietzsche’s Eternal Return of the Same

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

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1. Define Nietzsche’s eternal return of the same.

2. Show how the idea of the eternal return provides guidance for professional life.

3. Consider the advantages and a drawback of the eternal return.

Responding to Cultural Relativism by Leaving Common Morality Behind

If, along with cultural relativists, you accept that rules distinguishing right from wrong shift around from

place to place and time to time, it becomes difficult to keep faith in morality. It’s difficult because verdicts

seem flimsy and impermanent, and because this hard question seems inescapable: Why should I go out of

my way to do the right thing today if what counts as the right thing might change tomorrow?

One response to the question is to give up on morality, disrespect the whole idea by labeling all the

customary regulations—don’t lie, don’t steal, strive for the greatest good for the greatest number—a giant

sham. Then you can live without the inhibiting limits of moral codes. You can go beyond any idea of good

and evil and lead an unconstrained life exuberantly celebrating everything you want to do and be.

Wallace Souza: TV Reporter, Politician, and Dealer

Some careers are more vivid and alive than others. TV crime reporting is intense work, especially the

action-type shows where the reporter races to the scene, interviews witnesses, and tracks down shady

characters. Politics is another throbbing life; the adrenalin of crime chasing isn’t there, but you get the

brimming confidence and energy that comes with power, with deciding what others can and can’t do.

Drug dealing excites too, in its way, with thrilling danger and the pleasures of fast money. People, finally,

who want to live exuberantly, who prefer risk to caution and find it easy to say things like “you only go

around once” are probably going to find something attractive in these lines of work and may opt for one or

another.

Then there’s Wallace Souza. He opted for all three. At the same time. The most visible of his roles—TV

reporter—also yielded the most visible success. His program aired from the Brazilian state of Amazonas, a

jungley place far from cosmopolitan São Paulo and touristy Rio de Janeiro. Known as a haven for cocaine

cartels, and as a training ground for revolutionary militants charging into neighboring Columbia and

Venezuela, it’s a natural spot to bring cameras and look for dramatic action. A number of reporters were

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stationed in the region, but none seemed so uncannily skilled at reaching scenes first and getting video

over the airwaves than Mr. Souza. In fact, on occasion, he even reached scenes before the police.

The dogged TV reporting, along with Souza’s editorializing complaints about the region’s jaded criminals,

made him a popular hero and sealed his bid for a seat in the local congress. He didn’t allow his state

capital work to interfere with his TV role, however. Actually, the two jobs fit together well: one day he was

reporting on the deplorable free-for-all in the jungle and the next he was in the capital meeting with highranking

police officers, reviewing their strategies and proposing laws to fix things.

The perfect image began to crack, though, when it was revealed that the reason Souza so frequently

reached the best crime scenes first is that he was paying hit men to assassinate local drug dealers. He

wasn’t, it turned out, just the first to know about the crimes, he knew even before they happened. In an

especially brazen move, during one of his last TV programs, he put up pictures of several notorious

criminals and asked his viewers to phone in and votes on which one they’d like to see killed.

At this point, Souza seemed like an overzealous crusader: he was drawing vivid attention to the crime

plague and doing something about it with his hit men. You could doubt his methods, but his dedication to

his community’s welfare seemed noble—until it was revealed that he was actually also a major drug

dealer. And the criminals getting killed and shown on his program weren’t just random outlaws; they were

Souza’s drug-trade competitors. [1]

What Is the Eternal Return of the Same?

One report on Souza’s exploits included the suggestion that his willingness to cross every moral line—to

lie, traffic drugs, order killings, whatever—fit him for the title of the Antichrist. [2]

That title, as it turns out, was one Nietzsche enjoyed assigning to himself. It’s definitely also a fit for Souza

in the sense that he seemed to live without shame, fear, or regard for good and evil. What’s notable about

Souza’s business ventures is that they pay no heed to the very idea of morals. It’s not that they skirt some

rules or follow some guidelines while disobeying others; it’s not like he’s trying to get away with

something—it’s much more like morality doesn’t exist. Now, bringing this back to Nietzsche, who shared

the sentiments, the question Nietzsche asked himself was, if morality really is canceled, then what? How

should we live? The answer was a thought experiment called the eternal return of the same.

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Imagine, Nietzsche proposed, that every decision you make and everything you feel, say, and do will have

to be repeated forever—that is, at the end of your life, you die and are immediately reborn right back in

the same year and place where everything started the time before, and you do it all again in exactly the

same way. Existence becomes an infinite loop. With that disturbing idea established, Nietzsche converted

it into a proposal for life: we should always act as though the eternal return were real. Do, Nietzsche says,

what you would if you had to live with the choice over and over again forever. The eternal return, finally,

gives us a reason to do one thing and not another: it guides us in a world without morals.

How Does the Eternal Return Work?

Start with the eternal return as it could be applied to an altruist, to someone dedicating life to helping

others. One way to do altruism would be by working for a nonprofit international organization that goes

to poverty-wrecked places like Amazonas and helps coca farmers (the coca leaf is the base for cocaine)

shift their farms to less socially damaging crops. This would be difficult work. You might figure on doing it

though, getting through it, and feeling like you’ve done some good in the world. But would you do it

infinitely? Would you be willing to suffer through that existence once and again forever? Remember, the

world would never get better; every time you’d just go back to being born on earth just the way it was

before. Obviously, people can make their own decisions, but it seems fairly likely that under the condition

of the eternal return there’d be fewer people dedicating themselves—and sacrificing their own comfort

and interests—to social well-being.

What about some other lines of work? Would there be fewer snowplow operators, long-haul pilots,

teachers willing to work in troubled schools? What kind of professional lives, Nietzsche forces us to ask,

would be too hellish, bothersome, or exhausting to be repeated forever? Those lives, whatever they are,

get filtered by the eternal return; they get removed from consideration.

If certain careers and aspirations are out, then what’s in? What kind of existence in the economic world

does the eternal return recommend? One possibility is Wallace Souza. The question is, why

would his career trajectory fit the eternal return?

The job of a reporter is fast and dramatic, the kind of thing many imagine themselves doing if they weren’t

tied down by other commitments. People with children frequently feel an obligation to get into a safe and

conservative line of work, one producing a steady paycheck. Others feel a responsibility toward their aged

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parents and a corresponding obligation to not stray too far just in case something goes wrong. So trekking

off into the Brazilian jungle in search of drug operations may well be exciting—most of us would probably

concede that—but it’d be irreconcilable with many family responsibilities. One thing the eternal return

does, however, is seriously increase the burden of those responsibilities. When you sacrifice something

you want to do because of a sense of obligation, you may be able to swallow the loss once, but Nietzsche is

demanding that you take it down over and over again. Family responsibilities may count, but at what

point do you say “enough”? Can anyone oblige you to sacrifice doing what you really want forever?

Taking the next step into Souza’s amoral but dramatic career, assuming you do decide to become a crime

reporter, and you’re inside the eternal return where everything will recur infinitely, then aren’t you going

to go about making your reporting work as exciting and successful as possible? Probably, yes. So why not

hire some hit men to fire things up a bit? Normally, of course, our moral compass tells us that killing

others to get ahead isn’t really an option. But with all morality canceled, it becomes an option, one just

like any other. Be a banker, be a reporter, be a killer, there’s no real difference. Just choose the one you’d

most like to do repeatedly without end.

Souza also chose to be a drug dealer. Again, this is one of those jobs many would find exciting and

satisfying. Thrills and easy money are attractive; that’s part of the reason Hollywood produces so many

films about traffickers and their lives. Most of us wouldn’t actually do something like that, though, at least

partially because dealing drugs feels morally wrong. But inside the eternal return, that shame factor falls

away; when it does, the number of people entering this field of work might well increase.

It’s critical to note that Nietzsche’s eternal return is not the idea that you should go off and be a crimereporting,

hit man–hiring drug dealer. Instead, Souza’s life just exemplifies one thing that could happen

in the world of your career if you accept Nietzsche’s proposal of living beyond any traditional moral limit.

Regardless, what the eternal return definitely does do is force you to make decisions about your

professional life in very different terms than those presented by traditional ethical theories. There’s no

consideration of sweeping duties; there’s just you and a simple decision: the life you choose now will be

repeated forever, so which will yours be?

What’s the Reward of Morality?

One of the strengths of Nietzsche’s idea is that it forces a very important question: Why should I want to

be morally responsible? Why should a salesman be honest when lying could win her a healthy

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commission? Why should a factory owner worry about pollution spewing from his plant when he lives in a

city five hundred miles away? Now, a full elaboration of this question would be handled in an airy

philosophy class, not an applied course in business ethics. Nietzsche, however, allows a taste of the

discussion by puncturing one of the basic motivations many feel for being virtuous: the conviction

that there’ll be a reward later for doing the right thing today.

The certainty of this reward is a critical element of many religious beliefs: when you die, there’ll be a final

judgment and you’ll enjoy heaven or suffer punishment at the other extreme, depending on how you

behaved on earth. A similar logic underwrites Hinduism’s concept of reincarnation: the life you are born

into next will be determined by the way you live now. This discussion could be drawn out in more

directions, but no matter what, Nietzsche spoils the idea that you take the moral high road because you’ll

be repaid for it later. Within the eternal return, there is no later; all that ever happens is exactly the same

thing again.

Advantages and a Drawback of the Eternal Return

One advantage of the eternal return is that it adds gravity to life. Forcing you to accept every decision you

make as one you’ll repeat forever is compelling you to take those decisions seriously, to think them

through. Another connected advantage of the eternal return is that it forces you to make your own

decisions. By getting rid of all guidelines proposed by ethics, and by making your reality the one that will

repeat forever, Nietzsche forces you to be whom you are.

The disadvantage of the eternal return is Wallace Souza. If everyone is just out there being themselves,

how are we going to live together? How can we make peaceful and harmonious societies when all anyone

ever thinks about is what’s best for themselves forever?

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 The eternal return is a thought experiment in which you imagine that the life you choose will repeat

forever.

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 According to the eternal return, when faced with a dilemma in the business world—what career should I

choose, should I kill (or maybe just lie or cheat) to get ahead?—you should imagine living the decision over

and over again forever.

 The eternal return maximizes individuality but does little to help individuals live together in a community.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. In your own words, what is the eternal return?

2. Why might the eternal return be considered a reasonable response to cultural relativism?

3. Write down some factors leading to a significant decision you’ve made. It could be about choosing a field

of study or a career path. Now, can you walk through each of the factors within the eternal return? Are

there any decisions you made that you’d take back and change?

4. If you knew the eternal return was true, could you still make the reasonable decision to choose an

altruistic profession? Why or why not?

 [1] Dom Phillips, “Brazil Crime Show Host ‘Used Murder to Boost Ratings,’” Times, August 13, 2009, accessed May

12, 2011,http://www.timesonline.co.uk/tol/news/world/us_and_americas/article6793072.ece.

 [2] Danny Gallagher, “Brazilian Crime Show Host Kills for Ratings?,” TV Squad, August 14, 2009, accessed May 12,

2011, http://www.tvsquad.com/2009/08/14/brazilian-crime-show-host-kills-for-ratings.

4.3 Cultural Ethics

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

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1. Define cultural ethics.

2. Consider how cultural ethics works in the business world.

3. Examine the truth of cultural ethics.

4. Consider advantages and drawbacks of a culturist’s ethics.

What Is Cultural Ethics?

Culturists embrace the idea that moral doctrines are just the rules a community believes, and they accept

that there’s no way to prove one society’s values better than another. Culturists don’t, however, follow

Nietzsche in taking that as a reason to turn away from all traditional moral regulation; instead, it’s a

reason to accept and endorse whichever guidelines are currently in effect wherever you happen to be. The

old adage, “when in Rome, do as the Romans do,” isn’t too far from where we’re at here.

Gift or Bribe or Both?

The Entrepreneur magazine article posed a problem for Americans going overseas to do business. In

some places, passing money under the table is necessary to spark negotiations and win contracts.

However, bribery is illegal in the United States, and US law makes it illegal for Americans to do that kind

of thing abroad. Gifts, on the other hand, are allowed. But, according to the Entrepreneur article, it can be

difficult to determine the difference between a gift and a bribe. In some cultures, a gesture may be seen as

a gift, and in others it looks like a bribe.

Looking at this uncertainty, what a culturist sees is not ambiguity about whether handing the money over

to a potential client is a legal gift or an illegal bribe. That’s not it at all. A culturist sees it as both a gift and

a bribe. In one culture—a nation overseas where the payment is occurring and where similar payments

always occur when business is getting done—there are no moral qualms. It’s right to give a cash gift

because that’s the rule of the country; it’s the way things are commonly and properly done there. By

contrast, from the perspective of American business culture, the conclusion that’s drawn with equal force

is that it’s an immoral bribe because that’s what US customs and normal practices tell us.

Cultural Ethics and International Bribery

Culturists see moral rules as fixed onto specific societies, but that doesn’t help anyone know what to do

when confronted with an unfamiliar set of beliefs. How, the really important question is, does a

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culturist act when forced to make decisions in a place and among people whose beliefs are different and

unfamiliar? The Entrepreneur interview with Steve Veltkamp provides one answer.

What can you do if your overseas associate demands a bribe? Veltkamp doesn’t recommend

asking embassies or consulates for assistance, as “they have to stick to the official line.” Instead,

he believes “the best resource in almost every country of the world is the U.S. Chamber of

Commerce, where you can find Americans who live in the country and understand how things

are done.” [1]

Immediately you can see how different the culturist approach is to moral dilemmas. The message is: get in

touch with the locals and try to do as they would in the same situation.

Most traditional ethical theories go in exactly the opposite direction. They say that it doesn’t necessarily

matter what people are actually doing. Stronger, the entire point of studying ethics has normally been

to escape conventional wisdom and ingrained habits; the idea of doing what we ought to do requires a

step away from those things and a cold, rational look at the situation. So, a morality based on duties sets

up guidelines including don’t lie, don’t steal and appeals to men and women in business to follow them.

Acting in an ethically responsible way in the world means obeying the dictates and refusing to be swayed

by what the guy in the next cubicle is up to. Handing someone money under the table, consequently, while

publicly insisting that everything’s on the up and up can’t be condoned no matter what anyone else does;

it can’t be right because it entails at least implicit lying.

More specifically for the culturist, Entrepreneur advises overseas business people to avoid seeking

guidance from embassies or consulates because those people have to stick to “the official line.” What’s the

official line? Presumably, it’s the set of practices delineated and approved by the State Department back in

Washington, DC. The strength of these practices is that they’re formed to be universal, to work at every

embassy everywhere in the world. A culturist, however, looks at that and says it’s silly. There are no

practices that work everywhere in the world. The advice government bureaucrats give is worthless; it’s

less than worthless because it departs from the error of conceiving ethics as a set of rules fitting a

transnational reality. What people in business should actually do is get in contact with people who really

know something about ethics, and that requires turning to the locals, including the chamber of commerce,

because they’re on the scene.

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Conclusion. The culturist deals with the question about whether a bribe is ethically respectable by

ignoring all dictates received from other places and obeying the customs and standard practices of those

who live and work where the decision is being made.

Cultural Ethics and the News Reporting of Wallace Souza

Another example of how culturist ethics works comes from the flamboyant TV reporter Wallace Souza.

Like many action crime reporters the world over, he raced to violent scenes hoping to get the first and best

video. What counts, however, as good video in Brazil is different from what typically gets shown in the

United States. Here’s a description of what Souza sent over the airwaves: “In one of Mr. Souza’s shows on

his Canal Livre programme, a reporter approached a still-smoldering body in a forest. ‘It smells like a

barbecue,’ he says. ‘It is a man. It has the smell of burning meat. The impression is that it was in the early

hours…it was an execution.’” [2]

This is not the kind of report we see in the US media, and one of the differences is the ethics. Typically in

the United States, a certain respect is accorded to the deceased, even if they’re criminals. It’s considered

an exploitation to directly show dead bodies, especially smoldering ones. There’s quite a bit of cultural

analysis that would go into this prohibition, but simplifying, it’s not just that reporters hold an ethical

responsibility to others to not exploit their deaths graphically; they also have a responsibility to viewers to

not show images that may be (or probably would be) disturbing. By contrast, and as the Souza report

shows, in Brazil the rules are different and this kind of visual makes it over the airwaves without raising

eyebrows or triggering moral objections.

More generally, the question about what you’re allowed to show on TV to boost the ratings and so make

more money is an extremely rich area of examples for cultural ethics. How graphic is the violence allowed

to be on CSI Miami? How far is the wardrobe malfunction allowed to go on the Real Housewives of

Orange County? These kinds of basic questions about decency and ratings (which means advertising

revenue) seem tailor made for those who believe the answers don’t depend on anything more than what

people in a certain culture will accept. They seem cut out for those believing that the value we call decency

is nothing more (or less) than the line drawn between the number of people who will watch and the

number who turn the TV off in disgust.

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Is Culturalist Ethics True?

If it’s true that there’s no ethics but the kind a culturalist proposes, then this book loses a good deal of its

usefulness. It’s lost because the main object is to help readers form and justify rules to guide their

professional lives. Conceding that the culturalists are right, however, is also admitting that there’s no

reason to carefully analyze problems: you’re far better served just checking around to see what most other

people are doing in similar situations. Ethics isn’t a test of your ability to think reasonably and

independently; it’s more a responsibility to follow the crowd.

Culturalism isn’t true, however, at least not necessarily. You can see that in the reasoning underneath the

cultural approach. The reasoning starts with an observation:

In certain societies, handing money under the table is commonly considered an appropriate,

ethically respectable part of business activity, and in others it’s considered both illegal and

unethical.

And moves quickly to a conclusion:

Right and wrong in the business world is nothing more than what’s commonly considered right

and wrong in a specific community.

On the surface, this argument looks all right, but thinking it through carefully leads to the conclusion that

it’s not valid. A valid argument is one where the conclusion necessarily follows from the premises. For

example, if you start from the definition that all unmarried men are bachelors, and then you observe that

your friend John is an unmarried man, you can, in fact, conclude that he’s a bachelor. You must conclude

that. But that’s not the situation with the culturalist argument because the conclusion doesn’t necessarily

follow from the premise. Just because no broad international agreement has been reached about what

counts as bribery doesn’t mean no agreement will ever be reached. Or making the same point more

generally, just because no trans-cultural theory based on universal reason has yet to conquer all local

beliefs and habits everywhere on the globe doesn’t mean no such theory will ever accomplish that goal.

Taking the same situation in the less ambiguous world of the physical sciences, there was a time when

some believed the earth centered the sun and planets, while others believed the sun was at the center, but

that didn’t mean the dispute would linger forever. Eventually, tools were found to convince everyone that

one side was right. So too in business ethics: one day an enterprising ethicist may find a way to

indisputably prove on the grounds of a universal and reasonable argument that greasing palms is a bribe

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and not a gift, and it’s immoral, not moral. We don’t know if that will happen, but it might. Consequently,

the fact that we’re unsure now as to whether any single ethics can deal with the whole world doesn’t

require shooting to the other extreme and saying there’ll never be anything but what people in specific

nations believe and that’s it. The culturalist argument, in other words, isn’t necessarily persuasive.

It is worrisome, though. And until someone can find a way to do for ethics what scientists did for the

question about the earth’s relation to the planets, there will always be individuals who suspect that no

such proof will ever come. Count Nietzsche among them. In the field of contemporary philosophy and

ethics, those who share the suspicion—those who doubt that no matter how hard we try we’ll never be able

to get beyond our basic cultural perspectives and disagreements—belong to a movement

named postmodernism.

What Are Some Advantages and Drawbacks of Culturalist Ethics?

One general advantage of a culturalist ethics is that it allows people to be respectful of others and their

culture. A deep component of any society’s existence, uniqueness, and dignity in the world is its signature

moral beliefs, what the people find right and wrong. A culturalist takes that identity seriously and makes

no attempt to change or interfere. More, a culturalist explicitly acknowledges that there’s no way to

compare one culture against another as better and worse. Though you can describe differences, you can’t

say one set of moral truths is better than another because all moral truths are nothing more than what a

society chooses to believe.

A more specific advantage of a culturalist ethics in the economic and business world is that it adapts well

to contemporary reality. Over the last decades we’ve seen an explosion of international commerce, of large

corporations tearing loose from specific nations and functioning globally. This economic surge has

outpaced the corresponding understanding surge: we have no trouble switching dollars for euros or for

yen, and we can buy Heineken beer from Germany and ride in a Honda made in Japan, but few of us

speak English, German, and Japanese. In that kind of situation, one where some dilemmas in business

ethics end up involving people we can’t really talk to, culturalism provides a reasonable way to manage

uncertainties. When we’re in the United States, we follow American customs. If we’re sent on an overseas

trade venture to Germany or Japan, we pretty much do as they normally do there. Just in practical terms,

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that may well be the easiest way to work and succeed in the world, and a

culturalist ethics allows a

coherent justification for the strategy.

The Disadvantages

The major disadvantage of a culturalist ethics is that it doesn’t leave any clear path to making things

better. If a community’s recommended ethical compass is just their customs and normal practices, then

it’s difficult to see how certain ingrained habits—say business bribery—can be picked up, examined, and

then rejected as unethical. In fact, there’s no reason why bribery should be examined at all. Since moral

right and wrong is just what the locals do, it makes no sense to try to change anything.

This view stands in stark contrast with what we usually believe—or at least would like to believe—about

ethics: there can be progress; we can become better. In science, we know progress occurs all the time. Our

collective knowledge about the sun’s position relative to the planets went from wrong to right with time

and effort, and we’d like the same to happen for moral uncertainties. That’s why it’s so easy to imagine

that bribery is a dirty, third-world practice, and part of our responsibility as a wealthy and developed

nation is to lead the way in cleaning it up. We clean the moral world of bad business ethics just like our

scientists rid the physical world of misperceptions. More, that’s a central aim of America’s anti-bribery

legislation as it applies to overseas acts: it’s to cure other cultures of their bad habits. If you’re a

culturalist, however, then the bad habit isn’t bribery; it’s one nation trying to impose a morality on

another.

However you may come down on the question about whether nations should be trying to improve ethical

customs in other places, what’s inescapable is that if you’re a culturalist, you don’t have any ground to

stand on when it comes to criticizing the moral practices of businessmen and women in foreign countries.

You don’t because what’s going on elsewhere is an independent and legitimate ethical system and can’t be

judged inferior to our own.

Another problem with a culturalist ethics is that it provides few routes to resolving conflicts within a

society. For example, should I be allowed to go into business for myself on the land I bought in the middle

of a residential neighborhood by opening a motorcycle bar? In Houston, the answer’s yes. There’s a

community consensus there that owning a piece of land allows you to do (almost) whatever you want with

it. In legal terms, that translates into Houston being the only major American city without zoning

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regulations. Up the road in Dallas, however, there’s a similar community consensus that the rights of

landownership are curtailed by the rights of nearby landowners. The result is strict zoning laws likely

prohibiting Harley conventions in the middle of family neighborhoods. At this point, a culturalist has no

problem; people in Houston have their codes of right and wrong and people in Dallas have theirs. What

happens, though, in Austin, Texas, which is about midway between Houston and Dallas? What if about

half the population believes in landowner rights at all costs and the other half goes for a more communityoriented

approach? A cultural ethics provides few tools for resolving the dispute beyond sitting and

waiting for one side or the other to take control of the town. This means ethics isn’t helping us solve

disagreements; it only arrives when, really, it’s no longer needed.

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 Proponents of cultural ethics embrace the idea that moral doctrines are just the rules, beliefs, and

customs of specific communities.

 Doing the right thing within a culturalist framework relies less on traditional ethical reasoning and more on

detecting local habits.

 The culturalist view of ethics is neither true nor false. It’s a reaction to the world as it is: a place with vastly

divergent sets of moral codes.

 A culturalist ethics respects other societies and their practices but loses solid hope for ethical progress.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. If you’re doing business overseas as a cultural ethicist, why would it make sense to consult the local

chamber of commerce? Who else might you consult for moral guidance? Why?

2. You go abroad to win a contract and discover that a cash gift is necessary, so you hand it over and win the

business. On returning to the United States, you put the $200 gift on your expense report. The boss is

infuriated, calls your act an “unethical, wrongheaded bribe” and says she won’t reimburse you the $200.

What arguments could you use to convince her that you did the right thing and should be reimbursed?

3. Souza’s bloody TV program is popular in Brazil, especially the parts where he shows video of horridly dead

bodies. How could a culturalist argue that the episodes should not be shown on American TV?

4. A cultural ethics is neither true nor false. Explain.

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[1] Moira Allen, “Here Comes the Bribe,” Entrepreneur, October 2000, accessed May 12,

2011, http://www.entrepreneur.com/magazine/entrepreneur/2000/october/32636.html.

 [2] Dom Phillips, “Brazil Crime Show Host ‘Used Murder to Boost Ratings,’” Times, August 13, 2009, accessed May

12, 2011,http://www.timesonline.co.uk/tol/news/world/us_and_americas/article6793072.ece.

4.4 Virtue Theory

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

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1. Define virtue ethics.

2. Elaborate basic virtues and show how they work in business.

3. Indicate how virtue is acquired.

4. Note an advantage and drawback of the theory.

What Is Virtue Ethics?

Contemporary virtue ethics is an updated version of a theory first proposed in ancient Greece. Today’s

proponents acknowledge that it’s very difficult to set up a list of moral rules that are going to solve ethical

dilemmas across cultural lines. Typically, they don’t go quite so far as the culturalists; they don’t believe

that basic regulations of right and wrong are completely independent from one community to another. In

practical terms, however, there’s agreement that the world is too diverse and changing to be controlled by

lists of recommendations and prohibitions. So proponents of virtue suggest that we change the focus of

our moral investigations. Instead of trying to form specific rules for everyone to follow—don’t bribe, don’t

exploit the deceased on TV—they propose that we build virtuous character. The idea is that people

who are good will do the good and right thing, regardless of the circumstances: whether they’re at home

or abroad, whether they’re trying to win new clients or making a decision about what kind of images are

appropriate for public TV.

In a vague sense, we all know what it means to have a virtuous character; we all know people who can be

counted upon to do the right thing. Think of a business situation where true character shines through. A

local TV station has seen advertising revenue plummet and layoffs have to be made. Who should go?

Should Jim get to stay because his wife just had their first child? Should Jane get to stay because she’s

fifty-seven and probably won’t be able to find another job? Should John—who’s a tireless worker and the

station’s best film editor—be laid off because he was hired only two months ago? It’s a hard choice and

there’s no way to know for sure what’s right. It is certain, however, that there are better and worse ways of

handling the situation.

One strategy is to not think too much about it, to just know that two employees have to go, so you take the

names that happen to come to mind, you send them an e-mail, and you instruct security to make sure

they’re escorted from the building. Then you go hide in the bathroom until they’re gone. In other words,

you weasel out. In the same situation, another person will draw up criteria for making the decision and

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will stand up and inform those who are being let go why the decision was made. The thoughts

(complaints, regrets, excuses) of those being released will be honored and heard attentively, but the

decision will stand. From the person in charge of deciding, there’ll be honesty, respect, and firmness. This

is virtue. You can’t read it in a book, you can’t memorize principles, and you can’t just follow some

precooked decision-making process. You have to have certain qualities as a person to do the right thing in

a hard situation.

Virtue ethics is the idea that we can and should instill those qualities in people and then let them go out

into the complex business world confident that they’ll face dilemmas well. What decisions will they make?

What will they do when faced with questions about who should be laid off or, in another case, whether to

hand over a bribe in a place where everyone is bribing? We don’t know. But we rely on their good

character to be confident they’ll do right.

Under this conception, these are the primary tasks of ethics:

 Delineate what the virtues are.

 Provide experience using the virtues.

The experience is especially important because virtue isn’t so much a natural characteristic like height or

hair color; it’s more of an acquired skill: something you need to work at, practice, and hone. Also, like

many acquired skills, doing it—once a certain level of mastery has been reached—is rewarding or

satisfying. Typically, a person driven by virtue has nurtured a moral instinct for acting in consonance with

the virtues. Doing right feels right. Conversely, not acting in consonance with the virtues is discomforting;

it leaves a bad taste in the mouth. At the risk of trivializing the subject, there’s a very limited comparison

that can be made between learning virtue and learning more rudimentary activities like golf or dancing.

When someone has acquired the skill, hitting a good shot or taking the right steps in perfect time feels

good. Conversely, missing a putt or stepping on your partner’s foot leaves you consternated.

What Are the Virtues and Vices?

Every advocate of virtue ethics will present a constellation of virtues that they believe captures the essence

of what needs to be acquired to be virtuous. Typically, there’ll also be a set of anti-virtues or vices to be

avoided to fill out the picture. Here’s a set of virtues overlapping with what most proponents will offer:

 Wisdom (both theoretical and practical)

 Fairness

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 Courage

 Temperance

 Prudence

 Sincerity

 Civility

On the outer edges, here’s a common pair of vices to be avoided. Notice that what counts as a vice here

isn’t synonymous with the common use of the word, which implies a weakness of the physical body

manifested as the inability to resist drunkenness, drugs, and similar:

 Cowardice

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nsensibility

How Do the Virtues and Vices Work in a Business Environment?

Wisdom as a virtue is frequently divided into theoretical and practical variations. Theoretical wisdom is

what you get reading books and hearing college lectures. It’s the acquired ability to concentrate and

understand sentences like the one you’re reading now, even though it’s not very exciting and allows

almost no cheap thrills—words like sex and drugs don’t come up much. Those possessing theoretical

wisdom know the scholarly rules of the world in the abstract but not necessarily in practice. In the world

of business, for example, someone may be able to explain the fine points of Immanuel Kant’s complicated

and dense ethical ideas, but that doesn’t mean they’ll be able to apply the lessons when sitting in

someone’s office in a foreign country.

Practical wisdom (sometimes called prudence) is the learned ability to take a deep breath and respond to

situations thoughtfully. For example, everyone feels like exploding sometimes, especially at work after

you’ve had too much coffee and you didn’t get the raise you wanted. After that, some guy in a meeting

takes a cheap shot and jokes about how you didn’t win an overseas account because you didn’t bribe the

right person. What do you do? Scream the guy’s head off? Talk about it quietly after the meeting? Let it

pass like nothing happened? Practical wisdom doesn’t give an answer, but in the heat of the moment, it’s

the virtue of making the decision coolly, of doing something you won’t regret later. Frequently, an

association is set between practical wisdom and finding a spot between extremes. In this case, perhaps it

would be excessive to go off right there in the meeting room (because the outburst would tend to confirm

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that you’re not real smart), but it might also be excessive to let the jab go as though nothing had happened

(because the same guy may feel emboldened to keep poking at you). So practical wisdom would be the

ability to navigate a middle, prudent, route—perhaps one leading to the decision to discuss the matter

quietly but sternly after the meeting.

Fairness is the virtue of judging people’s acts dispassionately, evenhandedly, and from all points of view.

When forming judgments about a potential client who seems to be asking for a bribe, the verdict is going

to partially depend on where the client is. If he’s in the United States, that’s one thing; if he’s in a country

where clients customarily get cash under the table, that’s another. No one is saying the first is wrong and

the second right, but the different contexts need to be considered, and fairness is the ability to consider

them, to make evenhanded judgments even in very different situations.

Courage is the virtue of moderate boldness. If you’re an action crime reporter, you won’t hide in a bush

while pushing your cameraman out into the open to try to get some exciting footage. You won’t, in other

words, be a coward. At the same time, you won’t be rash either, you’ll know that sometimes you need to

take a risk to get a good story, but it doesn’t make a lot of sense to stand up and film from the middle of a

gunfight.

Temperance is the virtue of self-control with respect to pleasure, especially the pleasures of the body and

the senses. Curiously, Wallace Souza stands as an embodiment of this skill. As a major league drug dealer,

he no doubt had constant access to good, cheap, feel-good substances. Even so, he managed to control his

intake, not letting it interfere with his day job as a TV reporter, and his other day job as a legislator.

More generally in the workplace, temperance mixes well with the learned ability to delay gratification. For

example, doing good work is frequently rewarded with a better job, but it’s hard to find someone who feels

as though they get everything they deserve every time. Temperance enters here as the ability to bear down

and keep trying. It’s also, on the other side, the ability to know when a larger change (perhaps looking for

work at another company) may be necessary to get ahead.

Sincerity is the ability to reveal yourself to others with confidence that you’ll be respected. It fits between

the extremes of frigidity and emoting. Souza or any TV reporter has to do more than just give cold facts;

some human, emotional component must be added to the mix. On the other hand, no one’s going to watch

a reporter who arrives at a crime scene, reports that he feels sad, and breaks down in tears. Similarly in

international business negotiations, to establish good contact across cultures, there has to be some

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sharing of humanity. You need to reveal what kind of food you like or something similar to the people on

the other side. You don’t want to go too far, though, and talk about how Japanese food reminds you of a

childhood vomiting episode (especially when doing business in Tokyo).

Civility is the virtue of showing consideration for others without humiliating yourself. As a virtue it

doesn’t mean eating with the right fork or remembering to say “thank you” to clients. Instead, it’s the

disposition to show others that you take them seriously while also respecting yourself. This means

establishing ground rules for behavior that are independent and neutral. In essence, the idea is, when

having lunch with your boss, you don’t eat like you’re sitting in front of the TV in your family room; you

respect her, and you expect the same from her. Civility is the virtue of habitually being and expressing

yourself in a way that establishes your presence solidly without threatening or impinging on others.

Vices

On the outside of the virtues, there are vices. Just as the accomplishment of a virtue—acting in harmony

with it—yields a sense of satisfaction and confidence that you’re living well, living a good life, so too the

vices produce a sensation of unease. It’s not exactly a sting of conscience (like a child feels when caught

stealing); it’s more a sense of weakness, deflation, and failure. Cowardice, for example, is a vice. It may

save your job if you mess up and don’t confess to the problem being your fault; but for the person trained

in virtue, the job will have lost its dignity. Insensibility is another vice. Had Souza understood that, he

may have thought twice about those people’s dead bodies he rolled out for television. He may have

thought of their living parents, their children. And even if he hadn’t, after he’d presented the images he

would’ve felt that he’d lapsed, that he hadn’t done as well as he could.

How Do I Become Virtuous?

Virtues aren’t a list of actions you can write on the back of your hand and refer to; they’re ways of living,

and the only route to becoming virtuous is to actually live those ways. Every society will have its own

institutions for instilling virtue, and within societies different institutions will seem more apt for some

than for others. In the United States, the kinds of groups that are sought out as instillers of virtue include

the family, churches, schools, sports teams, Boy and Girl Scouts, volunteer and community organizations,

the armed forces, AmeriCorps, and similar.

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Companies play a role, too. The virtuous organization will be led by individuals who are virtuous, and it

will reward workers—at least partially—based on their progress toward being good people. This kind of

organization won’t rely on employee handbooks and compliance rules to dictate behavior; instead, it will

devise strategies for nurturing the skills of a good life. They may include mentor programs, carefully

calibrated increases in responsibility and independence for employees, and job performance assessments

that not only measure numerical results but also try to gauge an individual’s moral contributions to the

organization’s undertaking.

Finally, when confronted with moral questions—“What kind of images should I broadcast on my TV

report?” or “Should I hand money under the table?”—the answer won’t be yes or no. It’s never a yes or no;

it’s always to do what my good character dictates.

An Advantage and Drawback of Virtue Ethics

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The principal advantage of virtue ethics is its flexibility, the confidence that those who are virtuous will be

equipped to manage unforeseeable moral dilemmas in unfamiliar circumstances. The principal drawback

is the lack of specificity: the theory doesn’t allow clear, yes-or-no responses to specific problems like

whether I should offer a bribe.

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 Virtue ethics concentrates on forming good character and then trusting people to do the right thing. At the

heart of ethics, the formation of good character replaces the defining of specific guidelines for action.

 A society’s institutions play a key role in instilling virtue.

 The basic virtues tend to stress moderation, the ability to avoid taking extreme action in the face of

dilemmas.

 Virtue ethics grants flexibility insofar as those who are virtuous should manage any situation well.

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REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. Would you call Souza’s colorful professional life a profile of the virtue of courage? Why or why not?

2. How might the virtue of civility come forward in the case of international bribery, in the case that you’ve

gone abroad in pursuit of a contract and the prospective client demands some cash under the table?

3. What are some societal institutions you’ve come in contact with that could be understood as teaching

virtue? What virtue(s) do they instill, and how?

4.5 Discourse Ethics

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

1. Define discourse ethics.

2. Show how discourse ethics can function in a business context.

3. Note an advantage and drawbacks to the theory.

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What Is Discourse Ethics?

Proponents of discourse ethics reverse the order in which we normally address ethical uncertainties.

Instead of starting with one theory or another and then taking it out into the world to solve problems, they

start with a problem and try to create a moral structure to solve it. Ethical solutions become ad hoc,

custom generated to resolve specific conflicts. It doesn’t matter so much, therefore, that people come to an

issue like bribery from divergent moral terrains because that difference is erased by the key element of

discourse ethics: a foundational decision to cut away from old ideas and make new ones.

How Does Discourse Ethics Work?

When a dilemma is faced, those involved gather and try to talk it out. The discussion is constrained by two

basic limits: conversation must be reasonable and civil, and the goal is a peaceful and consensual

resolution. As long as these ideals control what we say, we can call the result ethically respectable.

Take the dilemma of international bribery: you’ve left your home office in New Jersey and gone to

Somalia seeking to win construction business on a new airport. As the recent Transparency

International Corruption Perception Index shows, [1] you’re going to discover that its customary to pass

some cash to a prospective client before he’ll be willing to do serious business. Company policy, however,

prohibits bribes.

What do you do? If you’re playing by hometown, American rules, your responsibility to company policy

and to broad honesty and fairness requires you to walk away. But if you’re playing Somali rules where

greasing a palm seems fair and acceptable, your obligation to win contracts for the company that’s paying

your salary requires you to pass some cash. Discourse ethics comes in here with this: instead of trying to

impose one side’s convictions on the other, the effort will be to overcome the divide by constructing a new

and encompassing moral framework through common agreement. American rules and Somali rules are

both thrown out, and new ones get sought. Here are steps on the way:

1. Define the immediate stakeholders—that is, those who’re most affected by the dilemma and may be

gathered to resolve it. In this case, they include you and your client. Since your responsibilities to the

company are reported through your supervisor, she too could be included.

2. Establish a language for discussion. In the international world this is actually a real problem. Sensibilities

must be respected, and if you’re in Somalia, just assuming that everyone will speak English might be a

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step backward. On the other hand, you probably don’t speak Somali. This step then becomes a rehearsal

for the larger problem—just as you’re separated by moral codes, so too you’re separated by languages—

and you’re going to have to find a solution. You may choose a third language, you may hire an interpreter,

or maybe your client will be able to speak English. In any case, an agreement must be reached.

3. Establish the goal, which in discourse ethics is always the peaceful and consensual resolution to the

dilemma.

4. Define the problem. Here, it’s that when cash passes from you to the client, you feel like you’re handing

over an illegitimate bribe, but he feels like he’s receiving a typical and acceptable gift. This stage of the

process would require fairly lengthy elaborations by all those involved of exactly what they understand

their obligations and interests to be. Your supervisor would need to explain the company policy, why it

exists and how she’s responsible for upholding it. Your client might point out that his salary is quite low,

and the reason for that is simple: everyone accepts that his income will be supplemented by gifts. (Here,

he might sound something like a waitress in New York City explaining to a foreign diner that her salary is

absurdly small, but everyone expects there’ll be some tipping, and it’ll be more than two shiny quarters.)

You, finally, explain how you’re being stretched between two obligations: the one to respect company

policy and the other to do the job of winning contracts.

5. Propose solutions. Discourse ethics is open, a kind of ethical brainstorming: those involved offer

solutions, modify each other’s’ proposals, and try to discern whether a common ground can be mapped. In

this case, someone may propose that the prospective client offer substantial evidence that money is

expected and customary for someone in his position in Somalia. If the evidence can be produced, if it

shows that payments are nearly universal, and it shows about how much they normally are, then perhaps

all parties can be satisfied. Your supervisor, seeing that the amount actually forms part of a normal salary

and isn’t some extraordinary payment, may be able to reason that the money isn’t a bribe because it’s not

doing what bribes typically do, which is afford an unfair advantage. In this case, if everyone’s paying, then

no advantage will be had. It’s important to note here that the logic isn’t if everyone does it then it’s all

right, because discourse ethics doesn’t generalize like that. All conversations and solutions are about

getting agreement on this one case. So your supervisor feels like handing cash over isn’t a bribe any more

than tipping a waitress is. Your client, having received the money, will obviously be satisfied. You, finally,

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will be free to fulfill your professional obligation to win the client without sacrificing your obligation to

respect company policy and your obligation to yourself to work in a way that’s honest.

If this—or any—solution is reached, then discourse ethics will have done what it promised: open a way for

concerned parties to reach agreements alleviating conflicts. Whatever the agreement is, it’s an ethically

recommendable solution because the definition of what’s ethically recommendable is just agreements

reached through discussion.

 

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existence in the suburb,

about two hundred people were struck by moving vehicles, and twenty were killed. From the

perspective of the ethics of care, can these numbers be used to form an argument against this

policy and in favor of a return to the previous, corrupted reality?

Money for Nothing

Source: Photo courtesy of Richard Riley, http://www.flickr.com/photos/rileyroxx/2969244149/.

In his blog the z spot, author Z raises two questions about people receiving unemployment paychecks.

Both are laced with suspicion of fraud. First, people who are collecting unemployment checks are required

to show they’re at least trying to get a job, but Z writes that some are “showing up for interviews in jeans

and t-shirts.” Then he asks, “Do these people really want the job, or are they just showing up to say that

they are actively seeking work?” [7]

He goes from there to a second critical point. “Some people,” Z says, “are collecting unemployment checks

even though they’re actually working.” What they do is turn in their unemployment form listing the days

they worked, and those are deducted from the check they receive. That sounds OK in the abstract, but, he

adds, “The problem is that these people who are ‘on call’ are not taking shifts that are offered to them.

Those shifts don’t get deducted from their unemployment. So, while there are people who are actually

unemployed, struggling and looking to find work, there are Union employees sitting at home deciding

when they do and don’t want to come in. And collecting unemployment.”

From the posting’s response section, here are two contributions:

1. It’s not easy for me to swallow that my taxes are supporting people who could be working.

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2. I have a question. I live in Wisconsin and I know of somebody who is collecting unemployment but is not

actually going to any job interviews or is even applying for jobs. Is this illegal? If so, how can I report this

without them knowing?

QUE STIONS

1. If you were using the eternal return to chart your way through life, would you have any problem “sitting at

home deciding when you do and don’t want to come in while collecting unemployment”? If you’re all right

with that, how would you respond to the complaint from the response section that someone is paying

taxes to support your lifestyle?

2. Thinking about the people showing up for job interviews in jeans and t-shirts, what might be lacking in

their character according to a virtue ethicist? If the government is one of those institutions proponents of

virtue look to for the instillation of good character, what might the government do in this situation in the

name of encouraging virtue?

3. The second cited response to Z is a question about how an unemployment cheat can be reported

“without them knowing.”

o About this silent reporting, why is this not what a proponent of discourse ethics would

recommend?

o How could the five-step process of discourse ethics be applied to the situation? Would the guy

complaining about paying taxes be included in the discussion? What kind of proposals might be

voiced to rectify the situation?

4. Starting from the ethics of care, is there a situation you could imagine that would justify the actions of

workers who take some shifts but decline others, and collect unemployment for those declined hours?

A Single Parent in the Army

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Source: Photo courtesy of US Army Africa, http://www.flickr.com/photos/usarmyafrica/4034104565/.

The post of cook in the mess hall is probably one of the Army’s least dangerous assignments, the closest

you get to actual battle is a food fight, but it’s still a military job where you go and do what your orders

command. For Specialist Alexis Hutchinson, a twenty-one-year-old Army cook, that meant catching a

flight to Afghanistan. She missed hers, though, intentionally. She regretted abandoning her unit, but felt

she had no choice. The single mother of a ten-month-old, she says she couldn’t find anyone to care for her

child during the absence; the only potential help, her mother, was already overwhelmed by caring for

three other relatives with health problems. Hutchinson’s fear, according to her lawyer, was that if she

showed up at the airport, the Army “would send her to Afghanistan and put her son with child protective

services.”

For its part, a military spokesman says, “the Army would not deploy a single parent who had nobody to

care for a child.”

The situation is under review, but for the present, just like anyone else who refuses deployment, she’s

under military arrest on her base in Georgia. [8]

QUE STIONS

1. Virtue ethics

o The military is cited by virtue ethicists as a potential character-building institution, one of the

places a society molds a good citizenry. What are some of the virtues the military could be

expected to instill? How are those reflected in this situation?

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o Families are a cited source of virtue. What values should we expect family life to instill? How are

those virtues reflected in this situation?

o Is there any way to bring the military virtues and the family virtues together for Hutchinson? If so,

what might it be? If not, why not and what should she do?

2. Proponents of discourse ethics walk through a five-step process on the way to reaching a negotiated

settlement to moral conflicts. What might the five steps look like here?

3. One of the objections to discourse ethics is that it can set up a slippery slope—that is, the people involved

can form a solution that bends the rules a little bit, and next someone else wants a little flexibility too, and

then someone wants a little more, and before long, the rules have completely disappeared and everyone’s

doing whatever they want. Could you sketch out how this process could happen here, with the end result

being the Army more or less losing the values at the core of its existence?

4. Ethics of care

o One of the key elements composing an ethics of care and distinguishing it from traditional ethical

theories is this: At the center of attention, independent actors are replaced by a web of

interrelated individuals. Ethics, in other words, isn’t about me and you, it’s about us. In

Hutchinson’s case, she finds herself in the midst of at least two networks of “us,” two

communities of people to whom she owes an allegiance and care. Describe these communities

and the links binding them.

o Another of the key elements composing an ethics of care and distinguishing it from traditional

ethical theories is this: The impartial application of abstract principles is replaced by the

maintenance and harmonizing of human relationships. Ethics, in other words, is less about the fair

imposition of rules and more about crafting social integration. Can you find an example of this

conflict between an ethics of rules on one side, and an ethics of relationships on the other, in

Hutchinson’s situation?

o Another of the key elements composing an ethics of care and distinguishing it from traditional

ethical theories is this: Tensions between the rights of individuals get replaced by conflicts of

responsibility to others in established relationships. Ethical tensions, in other words, aren’t my

rights versus yours, it’s me torn between those I care for. In the case of Hutchinson, how is she

torn?

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o In general, do you believe there’s a place for an ethics of care in the military? If so, where? If not,

why not?

 [1] “Tamica Tanksley, SCT ’00,” Temple University, accessed May 12,

2011,http://www.myowlspace.com/s/705/index.aspx?sid=705&gid=1&pgid=1021&cid=1612&ecid=

1612&ciid=3725&crid=0.

 [2] Business Ethics Workshop video, accessed May 12,

2011,http://businessethicsworkshop.com/Chapter_4/Mordida%20in%20the% 20booklet.html.

 [3] Business Ethics Workshop video, accessed May 12,

2011,http://businessethicsworkshop.com/Chapter_4/How_to_purchase_a_police_ officer.html.

 [4] Business Ethics Workshop video, accessed May 12,

2011,http://businessethicsworkshop.com/Chapter_4/Quick_mordida.html.

 [5] Alejandro Almazán, “Fin de la mordida,” El Universal, November 16, 2003, accessed May 12,

2011, http://www2.eluniversal.com.mx/pls/impreso/noticia.html?id_nota= 54910&tabla=ciudad.

 [6] Business Ethics Workshop video, accessed May 12,

2011,http://businessethicsworkshop.com/Chapter_4/Mordida%20in%20the% 20booklet.html.

 [7] Business Ethics Workshop, accessed May 12,

2011,http://businessethicsworkshop.com/Chapter_4/Unemployment_fraud.html.

[8] “Mother Refuses Deployment,” New York Times, November 16, 2009, accessed May 12,

2011, http://www.nytimes.com/2009/11/17/us/17soldier.html.

Chapter 5

Employee’s Ethics: What’s the Right Job for Me?

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Chapter Overview

Chapter 5 “Employee’s Ethics: What’s the Right Job for Me?” examines some ethical decisions facing

employees. It considers the values that underlie and guide choices about the kind of work you choose to

pursue.

5.1 Finding Jobs to Want

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

1. Delineate ethical dilemmas and considerations in job seeking.

2. Discuss how values guide the search for a job.

3. Define job sequencing.

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What Kind of Work Is Out There?

A question posed on a web discussion board: What Is Your Nightmare Job? Here are some answers:

 Lung gunner (in a poultry processing plant: ram a nozzle down the chopped neck of a chicken and suck

out the lungs)

 Roofer (Miami, summertime)

 Urinalysis monitor (watch guys pee for eight hours, making sure no one’s switching their own for some

friends who hasn’t been using drugs)

 Toll booth operator (apparently evil drivers heat quarters with cigarette lighters and drop them into the

hands of unsuspecting operators) [1]

That last part about hot coins may be urban legend, but no matter what, there are jobs on the list that are

going to make you cringe.

The Wall Street Journal has a similar list, but theirs includes both a top and bottom twenty—the best and

worst jobs you can try to get or struggle to avoid.[2] Here are a few from one group:

 Child-care worker

 Lumberjack

 Butcher

 Seaman

 Nuclear decontamination tech

 Nurse

 Firefighter

And a few from the other group:

 Actuary

 Parole officer

 Accountant

 Medical laboratory technician

 Paralegal assistant

 Meteorologist

 Historian

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Can you tell which jobs belong in the twenty best and which are among the twenty worst? You might have

a fix on the answer, but probably there’s one or two on each list that don’t seem to fit. That’s because once

you get away from the extremes—the horribly bad and enviously good jobs—it’s difficult to define exactly

what counts as good work.

Let’s take a look at two jobs: child-care worker and actuary. It’s probably true that no one really likes

changing diapers at the day care center, and certainly it’s smellier and dirtier than being an actuary, which

is a statistical job. Actuaries take a calculator and reams of data and try to figure out how old people are

likely to be when they die. This is important information for companies selling life insurance since they’ve

got to make sure their clients live long enough—and pay long enough—to more than cover the lump sum

that gets doled out at the end. Now there’s a fair amount of money at stake here, and that’s why good

actuaries get paid big money. The money is one reason being an actuary gets ranked as one of the best

jobs by the Wall Street Journal. So the actuary advantages are the money, it’s not stinky work, and also

it’s worth noting that there’s not much stress since no one will know for sure whether your calculations

are right or wrong for decades. Add it all up and you’ve got a potentially desirable job and career path, the

kind you may want to put at the center of your working life.

Still, is it really better than a bottom-twenty job as a day care worker? If you do go the day care route, it’s

true that you’ve got to wash your hands constantly, but the rest of the day, being with excited children,

helping them take their first steps, recite the alphabet, and learn how to play with one another, that must

be worth something; there must be a human, emotional reward in it. Undeniably, when you punch out

from the day care center on Friday night you won’t have as much money to spend as your friend whose

charting future death rates, but it’s also true that when you come back on Monday you’ll be engaged with

young lives instead of death. You’ll be human for the day instead of a calculator.

On the other hand, no one likes poop under the fingernails. It’s hard to get away from that.

Finally, what’s really curious about that first list taken from the Internet discussion board is that for

almost all of them, there’s some lone voice speaking up in favor in the comments part of the web page. A

toll booth operator, for example, wrote in to say that he likes his job because there’s no boss staring over

his shoulder. And roads don’t go out of business, so he doesn’t have to worry too much about corporate

downsizing or economic recessions. Nearly every job, it seems, looks OK to someone. Even in the worlds

of lung gunners and urinalysis monitors, there are people who are decently happy with what they’re doing.

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Why Is a Career Decision Ethical Instead of Just a Personal Decision about Jobs?

Normally we think of ethics as providing guidelines for how to treat other people—don’t steal, don’t lie.

But ethics is also about how we treat ourselves and the responsibilities we have to ourselves. One of the

deepest of the responsibilities is making thoughtful and independent decisions about what’s worth doing

and what isn’t. Narrowing this to economic reality, the most tangible choice you’re going to have to make

is where am I going to go to work when I wake up in the morning? This decision—choosing a job and a

career path—is about value. Every time the alarm goes off, you affirm what definitely matters in your life

and what’s really not so important.

These value judgments are rehearsed in comparing the so-called bottom-twenty job in the day care center

with the so-called top-twenty job of an actuary. There are big advantages to being an actuary: money and

relatively fixed hours (no parents get stuck in traffic and leave you with a screeching three-year-old until

8:00 p.m.). But day care also has advantages: you work in a life-affirming profession while reaping the

human reward of helping children learn.

It’s true that on paper being an actuary probably looks better. But life doesn’t happen on paper. That’s

why, every day, people make the decision to go work at the day care center, despite everything. Or to be a

teacher at an inner-city junior high school. Or to be a lumberjack because the opportunity to work

outdoors outweighs the sore muscles. The possibilities are nearly endless.

In the end, you’re the only one who can decide what to do when the alarm goes off, and you have an

ethical responsibility to yourself to make the best decision you can.

Seven Values for Ranking Jobs

To start thinking about jobs in terms of the values they respond to, these questions are pivotal. For me,

how important is it that my work

1. is meaningful,

2. allows leisure time,

3. accumulates money,

4. bestows power,

5. radiates prestige,

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6. is comfortable,

7. provides security?

The question about meaningful work is the hardest to cleanly answer. Even defining exactly what counts

as “meaningful” isn’t easy. Definitely, its work that holds significance for you or the larger community

apart from how much you’re paid, how big your office is, how long your vacations stretch. Still, it’s

difficult to pin down exactly what counts as a meaningful job. Unlike money, which you can just add up,

meaning is more like a color: hard to describe, changes a bit depending on the light and people tend to

have their own palettes of good and bad.

On her blog, Kendra Kinnison writes that she “believes her purpose in life is to use her ability to discover

connections and present them in an innovative way to support the creation and building of healthy

businesses and to inspire others to accept Jesus Christ and to discover and utilize their gifts.” [3]

She’s got it down. There’s nothing about salary or how many employees she has working underneath her.

She does want to be in business; it’s not like her religion has led her off to be a missionary. But at the same

time she wants to work on her terms and within her priorities. Probably, there are career slots where she

wouldn’t fit too well (imagine her trying to help others and spread her faith while working at a used car

dealership), but maybe starting up a local day care center would suit her ideals. True, the Wall Street

Journal tells us that are a bad job, but it doesn’t sound like it would be a bad one for her.

Look at the Greenpeace recruitment page: http://greenpeace.org/international/about/jobs. Their job

openings read like anti-ads, like they’re trying to discourage your application. There are some uplifting

parts about “challenging work,” but nothing about the potential for huge, year-end bonuses, or rapid

advancement, or generous health insurance, or comfortable working conditions. In all those terms,

working for Greenpeace sounds pretty bleak. Which is part of the reason it’s so clear that this is a job for

people who want meaning in their professional lives, a purpose separate from their own comfort, and one

involving the environment?

Not all meaningful work has to be based on faith or tied to internationally known advocacy organizations.

Chances are there’s a woman not too far from where you live who’s in the music business at the grassroots

level: she offers piano lessons. Knock on her door and ask why she does it year after year; she may say she

believes in music, its beauty, and its contribution to what she considers a full life. Your college athletic

director might say something similar about sports. Or go to the nearest farmer’s market—you won’t find a

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lot of money changing hands; it’s definitely not big business, but you’ll probably run into someone eager

to discuss the virtues of organic food in terms that sound more like a crusade than a menu choice.

Actually, organic food is big business. Beyond seeds in the fields and the scattered crates of the farmers’

market, there’s a growing, and growingly profitable business in the massification of the organic. Anyone

walking through the local Whole Foods will see a lot of the color green. What won’t be seen—but what’s

definitely up above—is an impressive corporate structure with big-salary managers making million-dollar

stocking decisions every day. As far as money goes, they’re doing well for themselves—like any

multibillion-dollar corporation, Whole Foods pays its leading executives big money. [4] But hunched over a

desk and tapping on a keypad, hasn’t their work been bleached of the meaning and devotion that abides

with the vegan wearing dirty overalls and trying to sell strawberries in an empty parking lot Saturday

mornings? Maybe. Or maybe not. Meaningful work doesn’t require that the only jobs you’ll accept are low

paying.

More jobs and kinds of work could be added here, but whatever you believe in, you should be able to find

some employment that lets you approach it. As for how close you can get to truly meaningful work that

will probably depend to some extent on trade-offs, on how much you’re willing to give up in terms of

leisure time, job security, and other comforts. Regardless, the real key is that meaningful work sets a

specific purpose before everything else. With respect to lining up a career path, you don’t start with a list

of jobs and then find one that suits your interests; it’s the opposite: you start with your deep interest and

then find a job that lets you pursue it.

Finally, two cautionary points: While it’s true that people devoted to meaningful work frequently sacrifice

money, leisure time, and job security, the logic doesn’t work the other way. Most of the time, low pay,

short vacations, and a constant threat of unemployment don’t mean you’ve chosen a noble career; they

just mean you’ve got a crappy job.

And on the other side, there are the holy grails out there. Probably, some higher-ups at Whole Foods got

into the line of work because they find the promotion of organic food meaningful, and they ended up with

enviable salaries as well (in other words, they’re in it for the organic cause more than the money, but

they’re happy to get the money). In a different direction, Michael Jordan loved basketball and also ended

up getting paid handsomely to play. The photographer Annie Leibovitz loves and is dedicated to

photography, but she’s not making many sacrifices to do it: traveling to exotic places, living well, and

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meeting interesting people. Former vice president Al Gore believes in saving the planet as much as any

sweating deckhand on the Greenpeace boat; the difference is he wrote a book about it that sold millions of

copies and made him millions of dollars.

Conclusion about meaningful work: dedicating your professional life to a cause or activity that you believe

in doesn’t mean low wages and long hours. A lot of times it does, but that’s not the point.

Another question shaping job seeking is leisure time. How important is it? In a sense, this is the mirror

image of meaningful work. If you believe in something like promoting organic food, playing basketball,

taking pictures, saving the planet, or even watching game shows on TV, it’s perfectly reasonable to find a

job in some other field that provides the income you need in the fewest hours possible and then lets you

get out and do what you really want with the rest of your time. More or less, what you say here is I’m just

going to X out that part of my life where I’m working. In the extreme case, the attitude is, “I don’t care

how bad it is, I just want to get through it.”

The Discovery Channel series The Deadliest Catch about crab fishing in the Arctic shows how cold, smelly,

and ugly work can be; but a few months of it and you get a year’s worth of wages and the free time to

spend it. One important concept here is instrumentalism, which means that work becomes an

instrument—a tool allowing you to get or do something else.

The third question about jobs and values involves money. Like sacrificing hours of work to get leisure,

punching the clock to accumulate cash makes your job an instrument. Money is also the easiest way to

organize your professional life. You can count it; if one job pays more than another, its better.

But this easiness can also be a trap. For anyone just out of college and facing a hazy and unclear world

where all the decisions seem so difficult, it’s easy to get tempted by the smoothest route: just check the

possibilities out there and go for whatever pays the most. At least that way you know you’re not messing

things up completely. So there’s something to be said for going that safe route, but this also needs to get

underlined. From the perspective of your responsibilities to yourself, the better-paying job is only the

better job if you’ve already made the decision to value career options in terms of how much they pay.

There’s nothing necessarily wrong with that decision. Of course the Hollywood movies and the Habitat for

Humanity volunteers hanging around campus looking for recruits are all going to tell you that you’ve got

to follow your heart, do meaningful work, and contribute to society. And if you face them up and flat out

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say you’re just in it for the money, there are always going to be whispers about greed and accusations like

being a sellout.

In defense of money, though, dedicating your career to getting it makes a lot of sense, and it can do a lot of

good, too:

 If you’ve got student loans, it’s good to be able to pay them back, as it’s the fulfillment of a duty to fidelity.

 If you do feel a need to support causes like protecting the planet, most advocacy organizations will be

happy to receive a cash donation. The truth is, they’d probably rather have the money than a few

volunteer hours.

 

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 Making money means participating in an economy that’s getting richer, and doesn’t that end up making

life better for everyone? Faced with Habitat for Humanity volunteers who ask you to join them in building

shelter for the needy, couldn’t you even make the case that contributing to an economy that functions well

actually helps people more—at least in the long run—by producing jobs so they can purchase their own

home instead of relying on volunteers to build one?

 You may have children. Clothes are expensive. Summer camp is expensive. The holidays are expensive.

True, little ones might still be a long way off, but when they come, a new set of responsibilities arrive, too,

and just about the only way you can begin preparing for them now is by making sure that, on the money

side at least, the house is in order.

There’s more to this list, but when it comes to choosing a job with an eye on the salary factor, it’s

important to spend some time with this question: Why is it, exactly, that money has value for me?

If you’re looking for power, you could do a lot worse than being a judge. True, you spend your days

listening to lame excuses for shoplifting and the bogus assurances of repentance from drug dealers, but

with the pound of a (little wooden) hammer, you get a police officer to rumble over and haul people off to

jail. In court, even someone mouthing off is enough to slap them with contempt and assign them to a few

hours of lockup.

The military, politics, policing: all these fields will appeal to anyone who sets the possession of power as

one of the most valuable aspects of a job. Less directly, people in the news media can decide which issues

center popular attention by mentioning them on the radio broadcast, the TV news show, or the current

affairs blog. That’s serious influence, shaping what people are thinking and talking about in our shared

world.

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Obviously, bosses in most fields of work have power. Usually they like to say that they have

“responsibilities,” but frequently part of holding the responsibility to carry out a project is having the

ability to hire and fire the people participating. Advertising is also about power. It’s not as explicit as the

ability to get someone hauled off to jail or sent to the unemployment line, but masters of the craft can get

people to believe that they really need some electronic device that they didn’t even know existed thirty

seconds ago. There’s power in schools, too. If you’re in this class as a distribution requirement, that means

someone has decided for you what you’re supposed to know.

The bottom line is that power—and the various jobs that grant it—exist in many places, and some are

more transparent holders of force than others. So one of the keys to understanding power as a career

option is being sensitive to the different ways it works. Commanding a platoon of soldiers fits the bill, but

so does sending out an army of TV commercials.

Even more than money, power is vilified as a career goal. If you tell your friends that all you care about is

money, they might think you’re greedy, but they’ll probably keep in touch over the years, figuring you

could invite them to your Hamptons beach house for a great weekend. If you tell everyone that all you care

about is power, though, they’ll probably think you’re weird and drop you off their Facebook friends list.

The image we get from popular culture of a power-hungry careerist is a drooling madman with clenched

fists, too much caffeine, and maybe a copy of Machiavelli’s The Prince on the nightstand. And it’s not just

the movies. Deborah Gruenfeld, a professor in the Stanford Graduate School of Business and expert in the

psychology of power in the workplace believes: “Those in positions of power can be observed to act in a

manner that is peculiar and that often has no connection to reality.” [5]

Ouch.

There must be something there, though. If power were really so bad, we wouldn’t have to worry about it

since no one would want it. But people do want it; it’s just that hardly anyone wants to admit it.

In a sense, prestige is the opposite of power. Almost everyone says they’d love a job granting prestige, but

not many are willing to give up much for it. Going all the way back to the Wall Street Journal article,

“historian” is on the top-twenty list of desirable jobs, and “philosopher” is there, too, on the longer, uncut

version of the story. Salary isn’t the reason they’re included among the twenty best, and there’s not much

direct power to those jobs either. (Despite what you think, professors don’t get any rush out of failing

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people. Only rarely, anyway.) There is job security if you’re a tenured university professor, but the main

benefit of a prestigious job is the “wow” factor:

“What do you do for a living?”

“I’m a historian.”

“Wow.”

After a few minutes in which everyone in the conversation acknowledges that this is very interesting, the

talk switches back to more normal topics. Later on, people quietly wonder why anyone would choose to

spend more or less his or her entire life in school. That doesn’t detract from the prestige of the career

path, though.

Being a doctor is prestigious, and (even if we hate to admit it) being a lawyer is, too, although it’s also true

that part of the prestige accrues from the fact that you know people who have these jobs probably have

some money too.

The Paul Teutuls (father and son), along with Mikey Teutul, hold prestige jobs at Orange County

Choppers, and they were prestigious even before the TV show.

One of the thorny parts of prestige as a career goal is the difficulty in finding jobs that straight-out

specialize in that. Frequently, what makes this kind of job attractive isn’t purely prestige, usually there’s

something else mixed in. Being a judge is prestigious, but partially because you know there’s some real

power there. Being a struggling rock musician is pretty good in terms of prestige, but only if there’s some

sober hope that one day you’ll convert into a legitimate star and not just end up with no money and

damaged eardrums. On the other end of the musical spectrum, a jazz musician who tells people that’s

what he does for a living can usually count on getting a few people to say “that’s cool” or “that’s so

interesting,” but again, part of the reason is the mixing of the music with the sense that this person has

found meaningful work, something they’d probably be doing for free if no one was paying.

Finally, the signature difference between prestige and meaningful work is that prestigious jobs by

definition demand an audience. People dedicated to a meaningful cause like protecting the welfare of

animals can labor in obscurity all their lives doing simple things that virtually no one notices, like running

a kennel for out-of-town dog owners where the pets get treated with extraordinary levels of respect. But

for this work to cross from meaningful into prestige, someone at some point has to look and say, “Wow.”

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Comfort on the job comes in all forms, spanning from the size of your desk, to how often you need to

travel in cramped airplanes, to the clothes you need to wear while on the clock. The Wall Street

Journal article grades jobs to some extent on comfort, though they call the category “Environment.” Here

are some components of an (un)comfortable workday:

 Physical demands (crawling, stooping, bending, etc.)

 Work conditions (toxic fumes, noise, etc.)

 Physical environment extremes

 Stamina required

 Degree of confinement

This is a good list of factors that move the needle on the comfort scale, but there’s something very

important missing from it. On the comfort scale, Arctic fishermen aren’t going to score highly in terms of

physical working conditions; they’re cold and wet and living in a cramped space. The food’s bad. On the

other hand, it takes a certain type of person to sign up for a job like that—a very, very specific kind of

person. And if you’re seriously thinking about it, there’s a decent chance you’re going to hit it off with—

you’re going to feel comfortable with—the other people who are doing it. The boat, consequently, will be

uncomfortable, but the company of people you’re with may be comforting.

Looking not just at the physical characteristics of the job but the other characters that’ll be there doing it

with you is important for the obvious reason: you spend a lot of time at work. (“I spend more time with

you guys than with my husband/wife” is a constant refrain in some offices.) So if your sense of humor

works well with a bunch of people you happen to know, and it turns out that many of them are nurses,

which tell you something about how you’re going to feel about seeing them bright and early every

morning, Monday through Friday.

In his book Vital Friends: the People You Can’t Afford to Live Without, Tom Rath organizes data from

Gallup polls and studies to show that employees who have good friends in the office tend to stay longer in

a job. It’s difficult to prove things about happiness, of course. It’s even hard to know exactly what

happiness is, but it seems fair to suspect that there might be a connection between duration in a job and

happiness with the job. And if there is, then feeling comfortable with the people you work with—laughing

when they laugh, watching the same TV shows, whatever—should be a job consideration.

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Pushing the importance of workmates in a different direction, in a blog post, a woman calling herself

Penelope (she doesn’t give a last name) makes a point about flourishing at work: “You’ll learn the most on

a job by having a great mentor looking after you.” [6] If that’s true, then if you choose to work in a

profession that’s full of the kind of people you respect, admire, understand, and get along with, you’re

likely to do better for yourself than working with the kind of people you don’t take seriously (or who don’t

take you seriously).

Fitting in, the point is, with the people at work isn’t just a fringe benefit; it’s a critical value to factor into

the selection of one or another career line.

For the young, job security seems like a distant virtue, a fuddy-duddy aspiration for the over-the-hill

crowd. In fact, even for the not-so-young it’s fuddy-duddy. It’s also one of the most volatile of the values

you can assign to your job search, one of the most prone to surges and retreats.

When you wake up at 3 a.m. and then can’t get back to sleep because there’s a recession and you know

cutbacks are coming, all of a sudden holding a position that maybe isn’t too glamorous but is certainly

necessary—like being a day care worker—doesn’t seem so bad.

The day you learn your family will be growing by one is another of those moments when security’s

importance blows up. And the day your husband loses his job, that’ll be another security surge.

Then there’s age. It’s a delicate subject—for legal reasons no employer wants to go on record saying they

won’t hire people older than fifty—but there comes a point when years become a disadvantage for job

seekers, which explains why an entire subfield of the résumé-writing business has now sprung up to

manage the problem. Jeanne Knight, a certified career coach and résumé expert, says, “What candidates

can do to make themselves look younger in a résumé is only list ten to fifteen years of work experience.

Also, drop graduation dates and make sure you list any seminars or workshops that focus on new

technology.”[7]

So you can figure that if older people are going that far to camouflage their overabundant experience, it

must be hard to get hired after fifty. And if that’s true, you better have good job security at forty-nine.

Finally, the easiest way to define job security is just the confidence that you won’t be fired next week, but

the discussion broadens very naturally. For example, demographic trends tell us that the American

population is aging, so if you’re deciding between studying to be an athletic trainer or a nurse, you may

well figure that over the next twenty years it’s probably going to be easier to find work in the nursing

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home than the gymnasium, and that holds regardless of how secure any single job may appear right now.

Or again, computer technologies keep entering our lives faster and from more directions, and that’s a

good clue about future job prospects.

In any case, if you’re reading this, it’s possible that you’re what marketers are calling a millennial,

meaning someone born between 1980 and 1995, more or less. If you fit the category, the TV show 60

Minutes believes you think this: “We have options. We can keep hopping jobs. No longer is it bad to have

 

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four jobs on your résumé in a year. Whereas for our parents or even generation X, that was terrible. But

that’s the new reality for us. And we’re going to keep adapting and switching and trying new things until

we figure out what it is.” [8]

Probably, the value of job security arrives along with the realization that companies can say the same

thing about employees. A lot of them do.

Balancing the Values

One factor can be chosen to weigh more heavily than everything else combined when sorting out the

values for initiating a job search. The imbalance would go a long way toward efficiently filtering career

possibilities. For many, however, the priorities won’t sort out so easily: it’ll be necessary to balance

competing values, to trade one against another when considering specific jobs and career paths. Someone

may, for example, value both money and comfort, but that doesn’t help answer the question about

whether a job on an Alaskan crabbing ship is more or less attractive than a summer on the beach in the

lifeguard stand. In the longer term, holding the two values won’t help to decide between the career of an

undersea welder or an office worker.

How can individuals get a grip on what their own priorities are, and how much each weighs? In his essay

“Strategic Planning—For the Good Life,” Robert Solomon offers a provocative question: “Looking back

over your life from a rocking chair, what would you like to remember—and how would you like to be

remembered?” [9]

Of course, the idea isn’t to lock you into a life plan based on how things might look in the distant future.

You have no way of knowing how things will be, and if you’re a millennial, we know you don’t like life

plans anyway. Instead, the idea is to try to get a revealing angle on the question of what values in work

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really matter for you. The aim is to step away from everything and get a different perspective, a fresh look

at the problem.

That’s important because real life, moving along fast as it does, can narrow your perspective, get you

caught seeing things more or less the way everyone around you does. Faced with a career center job board

filled with interview schedules of visiting corporate recruiters, isn’t it easiest just to sign up for the ones

your friends are signing up for? If everyone in your sorority is talking about going to work at one agency

or another, or if half the people you know are getting teaching degrees, the temptation’s there to just

follow along.

When looking at things from extreme or unusual angles, those herding forces recede. At least for a bit you

can make yourself turn away from what everyone else is doing, leaving you no choice but to arrange your

own priorities for determining the kind of work you want to get involved with. Importantly, the idea isn’t

to eliminate other people from consideration but to eliminate consideration that just imitates what other

people are thinking. Here’s the beginning of a list of questions aiming to do that, aiming to shake up

thinking about the career choice and force some sorting of the basic values determining which way the

choice is going to go:

 Of the seven discussed values—meaning, leisure time, money, power, prestige, comfort, security—can you

rank them, or at least group them, from the most to least important for you? Can you take some of the

jobs or careers you’ve been considering and loosely rank them in terms of how well they fit with your list

of values?

 To make the list of values more manageable, can you cut it down by just eliminating some concerns that

you really don’t share?

 Are there any values you think should be added to the list?

 Can you make a short list of other people whose opinions are important to you, and then loosely imagine

how they would rank the seven values for evaluating jobs? If you can, is their ranking similar to yours or

different? If it’s similar, are you sure you’re thinking for yourself? If it’s different, are you sure your values

for work align with the kind of life that you respect?

 What would you like to tell your parents you’ve decided to do for a living?

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 Career day at the elementary school. You’re standing in front of your own child’s class talking about your

work. What kinds of things would you like to report and be proud to say? Looking back at your original

list of values for jobs, does it correspond with the classroom scene?

 You’ve got six months to live: what do you do? Is it something that might be related to work or is it a pure

leisure activity? (Can you imagine any job that would allow you to do that activity, whatever it is,

throughout your career?)

 You’ll live 600 years—and have to work during 550 of them—does that change your work priorities?

Should it?

 You’ll live 600 years—and have to work during 55 of them—does that change your work priorities? Should

it?

 For you, is the term couch potato a slur or just the name of a comfortable lifestyle? Are there anti–couch

potato and pro–couch potato career tracks?

 Your rich uncle dies and leaves you a sum of money and private instructions to use it to put poor children

through school in Mexico. It’s also enough to pay your college and leave a good amount left over for

whatever. No one’s watching—no one will ever know. What do you do? What does this tell you about the

place money have in your life?

 Madonna and Mick Jagger are among the world’s two richest rock stars. Imagine you could have all their

money, but be a complete unknown and have no sense of rhythm. Would you prefer that or would you

trade all the money to have their success, voice, and rhythm for one year on a world tour? Does the

decision correspond with your original ranking of the seven values?

 For you, which would be better: spending big money or having people know you’ve got big money to

spend? If it’s the second, is there a way to command respect from others that’s easier to achieve than

wealth?

 Friday night, you’re with a new group of people who know little about you. Would you rather tell them

you’ve been invited to a dinner at the White House for notable citizens or you’ll be having dinner

tomorrow at your own expansive beach house?

 You sign up for a blind dating service, hoping to meet someone to marry. The only thing you get to choose

about the man or woman you’ll be paired with is his or her job. What job would you choose to match you?

Next, imagine that you’re not ready for marriage, still exploring, and you go to the same service. What’s

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the job this time? If the two jobs are really different, does that reflect anything about where you’re at with

respect to the kind of work you want for yourself?

 Do you like being in charge, no one is telling you what to do, even telling other people what to do? Be

honest, no one’s listening. By the way, would your answer change if people were listening?

 A brutally long Friday at work comes to an end at 9 p.m. On the elevator ride down with some people in

the office, there’s a power outage. No one’s around to fix the machinery or let you out. What kind of

people would you like to have in the elevator with you? Is it possible to match these people up with the

kind of people frequently involved in one or another profession? (Alternatively, what kind of people would

lead you to investigate how your keys or the pen in your pocket could be used as a suicide implement?)

 If you could wear anything you wanted to work every day, nose rings included, what would it be? Is there

really an office anywhere where people do dress that way? What would you be willing to give up to work

there, and what does that tell you about the importance of environment (or comfort in the broad sense)

for your work?

 At the end of every month, your boss gives you a choice. You can have your $4,000 check or you can spin

a lottery wheel with a range of numbers from $1 to $8,000. Would you take the $4,000 check or spin?

Does this tell you anything about the importance of job security?

 If you’ve had time to read through this entire list of questions, do the answers you gave more or less

correspond with the ranking of the seven values—meaning, leisure time, money, power, prestige, comfort,

security—that you set up at the beginning?

Whose Job Is It, Anyway?

No one can decide for you what line of work to start down; it’s a decision only you can make and that you

have to make for yourself. This doesn’t mean, however, that your life is the only one involved in the

decision. Here’s a blog post: “I think people need to find the right job for them, the one that will make

them happy. My parents are always telling me to get a successful and well-paying job, however the job

that I really want to do probably isn’t the best paying job, but it would make me happy if I fulfill my

dream. I think people need to go out and do what they want and they will be successful in different

ways.”[10]

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Sounds good, but is it right? If you’ve adopted egoism (morality = self-interest) as your ethical compass,

then it is. Egoism makes the job search relatively easy; just find the one that will make you most happy.

On the other hand, if you think of yourself as more of a utilitarian—someone guided by the conviction that

the morally recommendable act is the one bringing the greatest good to the greatest number—then it’s not

clear whether this is the right way to go or not. On one side, it’s true that pursuing your dream of

professional satisfaction is good, but your parents’ satisfaction—everyone’s satisfaction—has to be

factored in too. It could be that your parents’ wishes—and the happiness they enjoy if you follow their

advice—outweigh the happiness and welfare you take from a career they recommend against.

Staying with the parents, and taking their side, what kind of ethical arguments can they launch against

your career choice? One of the strongest is going to be obligation in the sense of gratitude, in the sense

that we have a duty to repay those who’ve given to us. Most of us sense this as the courtesy of returning

favors. Sometimes we feel it in an inverted form as the desire to decline a gift that seems so great we won’t

be able to pay it back. The case could be made that this sense of obligation and gratitude is a virtue, the

result of a proper upbringing. Or it may be more like a duty, a sense of fairness inherent in the idea of

ethics in the first place. Regardless, it’s too late to go back now for you and your parents. All you can do is

add up everything they’ve done for you and everything you’ve done for them. It’s doubtful that there’s any

kind of balance.

In Portuguese, the word commonly used to say “thank you” is obligado, meaning I’m obligated, and there

aren’t many instances where the word is more apt than the parental relation with children. Faced with the

obligation, these are possible responses:

 I accept my obligation and will follow the career path my parents’ desire.

 I accept my obligation, but I’ll pay it off by bringing up my own children and letting them off the hook

when they hit adulthood (or through some other mechanism of repayment).

 I accept my obligation, but I won’t respect it.

Of course people are always free to pursue that last course, to say the obligation is there and I don’t care.

But if you want to continue acting ethically, that shifts the burden onto you to build a structure

for justifying walking away.

Moving from parents to others, what kind of ethical responsibilities do you hold to your spouse if you’re

married and to children if they arrive? There’s nothing wrong with being, say, a starving actor working for

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that one break on the way to fame. But it’s a different thing entirely when you’re asking someone else to

starve too so that you can go on trying to be the next Johnny Depp.

Do you owe anything to that math teacher who saw that you had exceptional ability with numbers and

used her own time after class to patiently tutor you on the subject? She probably wouldn’t have bothered if

she knew you were going to end up working at something that doesn’t involve math-related skills. She did

bother, though, so does that create a responsibility—even if it’s only a small one—to use that ability in

your professional life, to find a job that exploits your skill with numbers that she helped you acquire?

Finally, at the broadest level, what obligations do you have to the impersonal community around you, to

all those people you barely know or have never met—the woman behind the counter at the gas station, the

plant worker in Germany who helped assemble your car, some taxi driver in Thailand whose life will never

touch yours in any way? Do you owe anything to them when thinking about your long, eight-hour days?

This Is the Perfect Job for Me…Right Now

One way of dividing up the responsibility felt to yourself and to the others who share your world

is career sequencing—that is, defining zones of life and evaluating each separately in terms of work

priorities and aspirations. Meaningful labor—signing up for a rugged, low-paying trip on the Greenpeace

ship—may fit with your values right out of school. The trip allows a broad ethical vision of work, one

seeking to incorporate the welfare of others at a good time for you, while your own needs are limited.

Later on, lucrative work—signing up for a desk job administering a tourist cruise ship where the hours are

fewer and the pay higher—might prove the better fit.

Making the move from meaningful work to a more salary-centered vision of the workplace may simply

correspond to the realization that walking around in ripped jeans and a t-shirt doesn’t work with a

receding hairline. Or it may be that the others you hope to benefit with your time have come closer to

home: it’s not that you want to make the world a better place anymore so much as make the world better

for your family.

The Tuck School of Business has published a report on sequencing in today’s world. [11] Among the

findings: employees, led by women especially, are professionalizing the movement in and out of the

workplace. Exiting the daily grind to have a child is no longer understood so universally as leaving work

so much as a planned interruption to pursue personal goals. The difference between leaving and

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interrupting is that many women now step off the career track fully intending to return in the not-sodistant

future and to resume the professional trajectory already established. It’s not putting on the brakes

so much as taking a detour.

Men, the study finds, are following suit. Some are taking paternity leaves, more or less along the lines

pioneered by women, but the study also finds workers interested in professional detouring for the

following reasons:

 An avocation outside of work

 Stress and burnout

 Entrepreneurship

In all three cases, space along the career’s way is being pried open for different values to enter and at least

temporarily redefine the relation with work.

Why don’t people sequence? What keeps them in jobs they’d like to get away from, at least temporarily?

Fear that they won’t be able to get their jobs back leads the list. The study also shows, though, that many

employees in essence think that sequencing is wimpy, and it’ll mark them as unreliable and, therefore, unpromotable.

That perception may not be right, though. The study is a snapshot of a changing situation, so

it’s difficult to draw too many conclusions, but the authors do sense that that the direction of evolution

is toward sequencing, not away. More and more higher-level managers are willing to accommodate

employees who want to take detours; they’re willing to make space for them to come and go (as long as the

coming and going isn’t constant).

To the extent that’s right, the ethical relation with job selection transforms. It’s no longer the formation of

values for choosing a career track leading into the indefinite future; instead it’s a process. The ethical

question about your work, “What’s the right kind of job for me?,” is now a lingering concern, and

answering is a constant responsibility.

Do I Have to Decide?

Some millennial are big on job hopping, on experimenting with work first and then deciding on a path

instead of doing all the ethical considering up front. This is an attractive option.

There’s a risk here, though: it’s the trivialization of professional life. If you’re just going to take whatever

job comes along and see how it works out, then why bother even thinking about it at all? In fact, why

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bother switching? If you’re not going to do the work beforehand to get a grip on the kind of employment,

on the general direction of professional interest that supports the values you’ve decided to live by, then

how are you going to know the right job when you find it? Why switch jobs, in other words, when you

don’t know what you’re looking for?

This was one of Saint Augustine’s (AD 400) durable pieces of wisdom. It’s very simple: if you don’t know

what you’re seeking before you start looking, then how are you going to know when you’ve found it? Trial

and error, in other words, when you’re looking for the right kind of job (or the right romantic partner, or

the right beer, or whatever) only works if you already know what’s going to count as an error and what

counts as success.

Of course no one’s going to get everything down perfectly at the beginning. Ethically, there’s a kind of

bind here paralleling the first job and experience catch (you can’t get your first job without experience,

and you can’t get experience without your first job). Similarly, you can’t know exactly what kind of work

fits your values and outlook until you’ve learned how things really are out there in the nine-to-five world,

but that’s not a convincing reason to fall off the other extreme and just spin the wheel, take whatever

comes your way, and switch jobs without thinking.

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 Pursuing a specific job is an economic and also an ethical decision.

 Specific values shape the ethics of the job search.

 Job seekers hold ethical responsibilities both to themselves and to others.

 Job sequencing allows workers to manage shifting ethical responsibilities as their lives evolve.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. What are some of the differences between a job that provides meaningful work, and one that provides

prestige?

2. Can leisure time—maximizing it—be pursued on its own as a value in the job search, or does it need to be

combined with other values? If it needs to be combined, which values might work best?

3. If money is selected as the prime value a job seeker decides to pursue, what other values may become

easier to reach because of the money, and which values may be pushed further away?

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4. What’s the difference between power and prestige? Can you think of a job that grants power but little

prestige and one that grants prestige but little power?

5. For you, what are the components of comfort—do they include flexible hours, working in an office instead

of outside, something else? Can you rank the components as more and less important?

6. What responsibilities to others may a job seeker consider when looking for a job?

7. What is career sequencing? What are some reasons a person may choose to sequence, and what are some

reasons a person may choose not to be a sequencer?

 [1] Michael Froomkin, “What Is Your Nightmare Job?,” Discourse.net, July 19, 2007, accessed May 16,

2011,http://www.discourse.net/archives/2007/07/what_is_your_nightmare_job.html.

 [2] Sarah E. Needleman, “Doing the Math to Find the Good Jobs,” Wall Street Journal, January 6, 2009, accessed

May 16, 2011,http://online.wsj.com/article/SB123119236117055127.html.

 [3] About Kendra, accessed May 16, 2011,http://businessethicsworkshop.com/Chapter_5/Kinnison_bio.html.

 [4] Hannah Clark, “Whole Foods: Spinning CEO Pay,” accessed May 16,

2011,http://www.forbes.com/2006/04/20/john-mackey-pay_cx_hc_06ceo_0420wholefoods.html.

 [5] Psychology of Power, accessed May 16,

2011,http://businessethicsworkshop.com/Chapter_5/Power_in_business.html.

 [6] “How to Pick the People You Work With,” Penelope Trunk (blog), May 6, 2009, accessed May 16,

2011, http://blog.penelopetrunk.com/2009/05/06/how-to-pick-the-people-you-work-with.

 [7] Ric Romero, “‘Get the Job’ Pt. 4: De-Aging Resumes,” ABC7, September 3, 2008, accessed May 16,

2011, http://abclocal.go.com/kabc/story?section=news/7_on_your_side&id=6369394.

 [8] “The Millennial Are Coming,” 60 Minutes, CBS News.com, May 23, 2008, accessed May 16,

2011, http://www.cbsnews.com/stories/2007/11/08/60minutes/main3475200.shtml.

[9] Joanne B. Ciulla, Clancy Martin, and Robert Solomon, eds., “Strategic Planning—for the Good Life,” in Honest

Work: A Business Ethics Reader (Oxford: Oxford University Press, 2007), 106–7.

[10] Karen Sternheimer, “How Great Is Being a Sociologist?,” Everyday Sociology (blog), January 24, 2009, accessed

May 16, 2011,http://nortonbooks.typepad.com/everydaysociology/2009/01/how-great-is-being-asociologist.

html.

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[11] Tuck Executive Education, Changing the Career Ladder: Paving Flexible Pathways for Today’s Talent (Hanover,

NH: Dartmouth, 2011), accessed May 16, 2011,http://worklifefit.com/pdf/TuckSurveysummary.pdf.

5.2 Working for Ethically Complicated Organizations

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

1. Define reasons why an organization’s work may be viewed as unethical.

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2. Consider how working for ethically troubling organizations can be managed.

The Psilocybin Project

The Harvard Psilocybin Project began in 1960 and included some of the university’s leading and most

innovative professors, especially from the psychology and related departments. One of their projects—the

Concord Prison Experiment—used the newly developed drug psilocybin on inmates. Professors wanted to

discover whether the medication could reduce antisocial behavior and recidivism. Another project, this

one carried out in tandem with the Harvard Divinity School, used the same drug to experiment with the

bond felt between young theology students and their chosen profession. In both cases, significant, even

mind-blowing success was initially reported.

The experiments didn’t last. Other Harvard professors raised questions about the ethics of using this drug

on humans. An intense conflict erupted in the university. The ethical propriety of the entire Psilocybin

Project, the decision came down, was, in fact doubtful. That quickly led to the project’s shuttering and

then to the dismissal of several well-known professors who protested too loudly in favor of their work and

its value, both scientific and moral.

Not all of those fired professors just went away. Outside the university some continued defending their

work with principled stands and meticulous arguments. One of those defenders, Dr. Leary, achieved such

broad public recognition that he ended up being mentioned in a song by The Who.

Not only did Timothy Leary defend the Psilocybin Project from outside university walls, he also continued

with his avid experimentation. Pretty soon the experiments weren’t only outside the university; they were

also outside the law because psilocybin, like its close relative LSD (lysergic acid diethylamide), was

categorized as an illegal substance.

Is it immoral to experiment on people—especially on prisoners who may feel pressured to participate—

with psychedelic drugs, concretely with magic mushrooms (the organic source of psilocybin)? Assume just

for the sake of argument that it is wrong and the experiments were immoral. Now who should feel guilty?

The leaders of the Psilocybin Project seem like good candidates since they knew exactly what was going

on, and they were the ones handing the doses over. What about the graduate students who followed their

professor’s lead and joined in the distribution and application of the drugs? Or the administrators at the

university who financed the project but maybe didn’t know exactly what the experiments involved? What

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about the undergrads whose tuition money paid for all this? What about the chemists who derived the

substance from mushrooms? Or the lab techs who actually made the stuff? What about the secretary who

happened to be assigned to work in the psych department and processed some of the paperwork? Where

do we draw the line?

One of the most difficult constellations of questions facing conscientious job seekers is: what kind of

organization is it OK to work for? Specifically, to what extent am I personally responsible for the things

my company does? There are the two questions here:

1. What makes a company’s work—or universities, or a nonprofit organization’s—unethical?

2. I’ve got an attractive job offer from an unethical organization: can I work there anyway?

What Makes an Organization’s Work Unethical?

In a world spattered with poverty and desperation, exploitation of workers is one of the most frequently

cited areas of corporate abuse. Advocacy organizations peopled by volunteers who enjoy traveling have

proven very effective at locating and drawing attention to overseas sweatshops. The Nike company pays

athletes millions to break a sweat for a few hours so they can get some good action video for commercials

selling athletic shoes, but they pay sewers in Asia only a few dollars to sweat all day long making those

shoes. And what about the cameraman hired to shoot the commercial? He’s earning a lot more than the

sewer, but his wages are still closer to the sweatshop level than the NBA star level.

In An Economic Analysis of a Drug-Selling Gang’s Finances, authors Steve Levitt and Sudhir Alladi

Venkatesh report on a drug gang studied over the course of several years. It turned out that the street

dealers weren’t even getting minimum wage for their dangerous efforts: about $200 a month for dealing.

Above them, however, the gang leader made between $4,000 and $11,000 a month. It’s unclear whether

he paid taxes. [1]

Questions about wages and sweatshops will be pursued more fully in later chapters, but here it’s enough

to note that vast discrepancies in wages throughout a company raise concerns that the organization is

exploiting employees. That may lead job seekers to think twice before signing on, even if they’re not the

ones being exploited.

Exploitation of consumers is another murky direction. It’s true that many immigrants from Asia, Latin

America, and elsewhere received interest-only home loans in the early 2000s with repayment schedules

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beginning low but later ballooning to monstrous levels. It’s also true that no one forced them to sign the

contract; they hold responsibility for their acts, no doubt. However, considering their imperfect English

and little knowledge of the American world, is it fair for the mortgage company to even offer these kinds

of loans, which seem more predatory than cooperative?

Tobacco companies selling addiction sticks, which sometimes become cancer sticks, aren’t clearly

removed from charges of exploiting their own buyers.

Breakfast cereals aimed at children frequently boast on the box that the nuggets or the puffs contain 100

percent of the recommended daily allowance of various vitamins and minerals. They don’t say anything

about sugar highs and crashes. In all these cases, questions about whether consumers are being respected

may lead potential employees to question whether they want to get involved in the operation.

Environmental exploitation is frequently invisible in the sense that few people suffer direct consequences

of pollution, deforestation, and poisoned water and soil. There are orange alert days in many cities now

when children are told not to play outside. But for the most part, companies that pollute may carry on

without being held directly responsible for harmful consequences. Of course there are extreme cases like

the Love Canal, the neighborhood constructed on a landfill covering thousands of rusting steel barrels of

industrial waste. Families living there reported acid slicks running down the street during rains, puddles

of rancid chemicals forming in their yards, and birth defects at astronomical levels. Whether, finally, an

organization exploits the environment in obvious or not-so-obvious ways, workers may ask if ethical

obstacles stand between them and continued employment.

Ethically dubious missions and connections is another category of corporate irresponsibility. The case of

Harvard experimenting with acid fits here. So too the drug gang studied by Levitt and Venkatesh.

Questions could also be directed toward organizations specializing in reuniting families across borders

(people smuggling).

Almost any social hot-button issue is going to double as a source of ethically challenged industries; there’ll

be people for it and others against it, but either way the questions are there. Circles of controversy

surround

 abortion doctors,

 judges sending inmates to death row,

 advocates of assisted suicide.

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One thing all these people, professions, and institutions have in common (besides inciting ethical debates)

is that they need to hire workers—telephone operators, assistants and administrators, marketers and

finance people—just like any other business. You can work for them.

You could also work for a specific kind of lawyering outfit, the one specializing in clients who are very

wealthy and very guilty: there’ll always be law firms—especially in the field of tax law—specializing in

raising a reasonable doubt where there really isn’t any.

Massage parlors need receptionists and janitors just like every other business. The horse racetrack hires a

small army of diverse workers to keep taking bets. The state lottery contracts actors, directors, film

editors, and media experts to make and run ads showing jubilant winners tossing money in the air; on the

other hand, they don’t spend much time hiring statisticians to explain to the public what the small print

on the back of their ticket means: “Really, the chances you’ll haul in the Super Magnum Jackpot are about

zero.”

Conclusion. Ethically conscientious individuals don’t have to look too hard to find jobs that make them

ask, am I participating in something that’s wrong?

I’ve Got a Job Offer at an Unethical Company; Can I Work There Anyway?

Yes. The question is how.

Ignore it all is one option, pretend like the ethical stain isn’t there or at least that you don’t see it. Here’s

an example of what that strategy can look like. Most cities have at least one free and local alternative

culture publication, usually published on newspaper-grade paper; it comes out on Thursdays and is called

The Observer or something like that. Their reporters hit the street to get the latest on the alternative

music scene and idealistic political grassroots operations and government abuses and, above all, altruistic,

principled causes. The Dallas Observer is the Dallas version. In the November 5, 2008, publication

there’s an article called “Pole Dancing—Good for the Body, But What About a Woman’s Soul?” It comes

with an honest and thoughtful objection to the caricature of femininity that was developed and mass

produced with the express goal of turning on a male audience. [2]

A few pages after the author finishes making a strong moral case against the exploitation of this

caricature, the full-page spread devoted to Debbie comes. She’s looking tight in her white bikini. She

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wants to talk to you, and her phone number’s right there on the page. In little print it says it costs $1.49

per minute. On the next page there’s Robert. He’s wearing even less. The phone call costs the same.

It’s not anybody’s fault that Debbie and Robert (or whatever their real names are) figure so prominently

on the advertising pages of a newspaper that’s so set against stereotypes like Debbie and Robert. It’s only

a fact that that’s where the money comes from to keep the otherwise idealistic and ethically elevated paper

in business. So what can the reporters do? They can object to the ads; but without them and their revenue,

there won’t be any publication left to print their articles decrying these kinds of ads. It’s a tough spot.

There’s no clear way out, which is why it’s understandable to go forward pretending you don’t see the

contradiction.

There are pacifists working for Boeing, the same company that makes warplanes. Somewhere there must

be a volunteer at the Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals who holds down a day job at L’Oreal,

a company vilified on Internet petitions for its animal testing. [3] There are parents working at General

Mills who’d die before giving their kids Cocoa Puffs. There are strict Catholics working for the

pharmaceutical company that manufactures birth control pills. The list will never end because it’s always

possible to pretend you don’t see the conflict between your own moral convictions on one side and the

actions of the company you work for on the other.

But the decision to remain blind is difficult because pretending you don’t see essentially means you’re

lying—lying to yourself. The question raised here is this: can that lying be justified ethically?

If you’re a strict believer in the standard duties, which normally include the duty to honesty, you’re going

to have problems. You can, however, argue that you have a still more compelling duty to provide for your

family and loved ones. So if the job you have is the best one you can get, and then you can make the case

that your responsibility to them is greater than your responsibility to be honest with yourself. Making a

similar argument but from a slightly different direction, a utilitarian can point out the benefits a paycheck

brings—not just for the worker but also for the family and the economy generally—and from there say that

lying to yourself is good because it produces a greater general good.

Of course there are arguments that could be raised against these justifications and so the debate rolls on.

What’s important is that pretending an ethical conflict between your convictions and your company

simply isn’t there may be justifiable.

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Explicitly Accepting Employment at an Ethically Difficult Workplace

Another option for accepting a job offer in an organization you consider to be morally stained is to

explicitly accept that I work at an ethically difficult company and go on to justify the decision. There are

two directions for consideration here:

1. How seriously wrong do I believe the company’s actions are?

2. How close is my work to those actions I believe wrong?

There’s a difference between working for a firm that experiments on animals (L’Oreal) and working for

one that experiments on humans (the Harvard psychedelic drug project). Most ethically challenged jobs

are more like the former than the latter. That’s not a license to simply discount the reality that the work

may participate in a larger and objectionable process, but it does open the way to a move from an absolute

to a balanced ethical stance: it’s not that “something’s going on there that’s wrong and therefore I can’t be

involved at all”; instead “something’s going on there that’s wrong, but things could be a lot worse, plus,

the right and good things I can achieve by taking this job are pretty significant.” So start with the idea that

even if you think experimenting on animals is wrong, it’s not as bad as experimenting on humans. Then

add the good things that could come from working for an animal-abusing company. Here are two

possibilities:

1. The post allows me to maximize the use of my personal strengths. Ethics isn’t only about duties to others;

there are also duties to you. Maximizing your own potential is one of them.

2. The post allows me to better equip myself to get an improved job further down the line. If you really want

to avoid touching unethical work, then your best option may be to do whatever’s necessary to build the

strongest résumé possible. Once you’ve done that, your options for working will increase and

correspondingly the possibilities for ethically satisfying employment.

Moving to the next question—how close is my work to those actions I believe are wrong?—there’s a

difference between experimenting on animals and preparing the tax return for a company that

experiments on animals. Making this point sharper, if you adamantly refused to participate

in any company that has anything to do with animal testing, then you’re not going to be able to

participate in anything. You’re not going to be able to buy paper from the company that sells paper to the

animal testers. You’re not going to be able to use Google because people at the animal testing company

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buy advertisements on Google search pages. The list is endless in an economy that’s totally interlinked,

and our economy is pretty close to totally interlinked.

Now, if that’s right, then the relationship between you and the immorality that indisputably exists in the

economic world—and probably in the company you work for in one way or another—isn’t an issue of right

and wrong so much as a question of distance. In other words, when you’re contemplating a job, the

question isn’t whether something bad is happening there; it’s “how close does the stink get to my office?”

More, it may even be that accepting a job at a company can be a route to changing that company’s policy.

Of course that’s going to be more than difficult at a giant concern like L’Oreal, but if you’re interested in

the environment, you may end up at a small local firm that sells plastic (not biodegradable) bottles of

water, and you can advocate the forming of a company recycling program. It’s a small thing. Almost

absurd. But it’s no closer to absurd than the other choice, which is the big thing: simply refusing to work

for any company that acts objectionably in the world in one way or another.

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 There is a wide range of reasons why an organization’s work may be viewed as unethical.

 There are multiple strategies for managing concerns about working for ethically troubling organizations.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. What are four reasons an organization’s actions may be viewed as ethically troubling?

2. Ethically, how could you justify ignoring the fact that there’s a conflict between your convictions and the

actions of the company you work for?

3. Why might a potential employee of an ethically troubling organization ask how seriously wrong the

organization’s actions are?

4. Explain why working for almost any organization may be ethically troubling.

5. If someone were working for an organization involved in ethically troubling activities, what questions may

they ask themselves as they consider whether they should continue working there?

 [1] Steven D. Levitt and Sudhir Alladi Venkatesh, “An Economic Analysis of a Drug-Selling Gang’s

Finances,” Quarterly Journal of Economics 115 (August 3, 2000): 755–89.

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[2] Megan Feldman, “Pole Dancing—Good for the Body, but What about a Woman’s Soul?,” Dallas Observer,

November 6, 2008, accessed May 16, 2011,http://www.dallasobserver.com/2008-11-06/news/pole-dancingclasses-

mdash-good-for-the-body-but-what-about-a-woman-s-soul.

 [3] Cherry Marrone, “Stop L’Oreal’s Animal Testing,” Care 2 Petition Site, accessed May 16,

2011, http://www.thepetitionsite.com/1/stop-loreals-animal-testing.

5.3 Case Studies

The Ethics of Grunge Work

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Source: Photo courtesy of ictsan, http://www.flickr.com/photos/ictsan/3025080337/.

Jason Everman (b. 1967), Kodiak, Alaska

In February 1989, Jason Everman joined a new act called Nirvana as a backup guitarist. A few months

later the group’s first record, a raw and noisy effort titled Bleach, was recorded and released by an obscure

local distributor.

Everman played in the 1989 summer tour supporting Bleach, then was kicked out of the band: the rest of

the guys found him too show bizzy on stage and too introverted off it. Bleach scored a minor success on

the college radio circuit.

Nirvana’s 1991 follow-up, Never mind, is one of the more important and financially lucrative pieces of

recorded music in history.

In 1990, Everman joined Sound garden to play bass on their promotional tour for the EP Loudest Love.

Not meshing with the other band members, he was sent packing after the tour’s end.

Sound garden’s 1991 release Bad motor finger scored a moderate success with the indie crowd. The 1994

follow-up, Super unknown, debuted at number one on the Billboard 200 album chart. It stayed there.

In 1994, Everman joined the US Army Rangers and then a Special Forces unit. He toured in Afghanistan

and Iraq. He was honorably discharged in 2006.

Fifteen minutes of fame came to Everman on November 10, 2008, when he was featured in a New

Yorker piece titled “Theatre of War.” While being interviewed to provide a veteran’s perspective on war, a

friend of Everman’s breaks in to add that besides being a warrior, Everman had once been a musician. The

article’s author was skeptical. But, she writes, later investigation revealed that Everman had, in fact, been

a small-time rock star.

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During the interview Everman related that he’s a devotee of the Renaissance intellectual Benvenuto

Cellini, who believed that in order to live a full life, you must develop each of the soul’s three parts: the

artist, the warrior, and the philosopher. At the time of the interview, Everman—bearded and heavily

tattooed—was studying philosophy at Columbia University in New York City.

Kurt Cobain (b. 1967), Aberdeen, Washington

Cobain was born into a broken home and eventually lived with a born-again Christian family. He adopted

the religion. The faith didn’t last; soon he was spray painting “God is Gay” onto random pickup trucks in

the neighborhood.

In 1981, his uncle gave him a choice between a bike and a guitar for his birthday. He went for the guitar.

By March 1988, Cobain had formed a noisy outfit called Nirvana. They were playing dives around Seattle,

doing bad covers, and making up some of their own songs. They decided to make a record. No one wanted

to sponsor them. They decided to go ahead anyway and pay for it themselves. None of them had any

money.

In 1989, another local musician, Jason Everman, agreed to pay the $606.17 it cost to make the record if

they’d let him join the group. They did. They recorded Bleach. Though he’s named on the credits and

pictured (hazily) on the cover, Everman didn’t actually play on any of the tracks. Cobain said the credit

was a symbolic thanks to Everman for paying the $600 it cost to record the album. Everman never got his

money back.

The group took the music on the road, and when they returned home, they kicked Everman out.

The group’s next record, Never mind, knocked Michael Jackson’s disco sensation Dangerous off the top

of the charts in January 1992.

In 1991, Cobain met Courtney Love. They did massive drugs, got married, and she got pregnant.

While revolving through detox programs and heroin binges, Cobain wrote music for the next album. In

Utero debuted at number one in 1993.

In 1994, Cobain committed suicide with a shotgun. These are fragments of his note:

I haven’t felt the excitement of creating music for too many years now. For example when we’re

backstage and the lights go out and the roar of the crowds begins, it doesn’t affect me the way it

used to. The fact is, I can’t fool you, any one of you. It simply isn’t fair to you or me. The worst

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crime I can think of would be to rip people off by faking it and pretending as if I’m having 100%

fun. Sometimes I feel as if I should have a punch-in time clock before I walk out on stage.

I can’t stand the thought of the self-destructive death rocker I’ve become. I don’t have the passion

anymore, and so remember, it’s better to burn out than to fade away. [1]

QUE STIONS

1. Consider the seven values used for ethically defining jobs: meaningful work, leisure time, money,

power, prestige, comfort, and security.

o Just from what you’ve read about Everman and Cobain, which values do, they share? Where do

they diverge?

o Are there any values not on the list that could be added to apply to the careers of either Everman

or Cobain?

2. Everman worked to live; Cobain lived to work.

o What does that mean?

o Do you think it’s true? Explain.

o Does this split also divide up the seven values used for ethically defining jobs? If not, why not? If

so, what’s the split?

3. Everman is a sequencer; he wholeheartedly followed one career path, then a second, and a third.

He’s a different kind of sequencer than the more standard version: a man or woman following a

single main career path interrupts it to do something else (have a child, start a small company,

travel around the world) and then returns to the old job.

o What’s the difference between these two kinds of sequencing in terms of the value of work and

what it can give you?

o Would it be useful to have different names for these two types of sequencers, or would that be

splitting hairs?

4. According to Everman, Cellini believed that in order to live a full life, you must develop each of the soul’s

three parts: the artist, the warrior, and the philosopher. Assuming this is true; must it necessarily involve

one’s work life? Is it possible to define a full life that doesn’t include any reference to your gainful

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employment (in other words, is it possible to live fully without worrying about what your job is)? What

values for work are implied by your response?

5. Cobain comes to believe that he’s unethically exploiting consumers.

o In what sense is he unethically exploiting consumers?

o What does Cobain’s feeling reveal about the values he associates with his work life?

o Was Cobain’s response to his perceived failure justifiable? Explain.

6. Whose career would you rather have: Everman’s or Cobain’s? Why? What does that tell you

about your values?

7. In the career you’ve chosen for yourself (just pick one, if you haven’t), what would it mean to burn out?

What would it mean to fade away?

8. Is it better to burn out or fade away? Justify in terms of the values that can be attached to working life.

Cop or Drug Dealer?

Source: Photo courtesy of Todd Huffman, http://www.flickr.com/photos/oddwick/1954905403/.

Roberto Pulido, a ten-year veteran of the Boston Police Department, was arrested by the FBI and charged

with protecting drug dealers, cocaine dealing, identity theft, obstruction of justice, robbery, assault and

battery, and money laundering. [2]

QUE STIONS

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1. What are some of the advantages to being a policeman? What are some of the advantages to

being a drug dealer? Presumably, Pulido started out being an honest cop, and over the course of

ten years fell (or climbed) into the illegal drug business. Can you imagine how the seven values of

his work might have shifted as this transformation developed?

o Which values grew in importance?

o Which might have fallen away?

o Could any of the values have been maintained through the shift in professions?

2. Officer Pulido is a career sequencer, but it’s a unique kind of sequencing because his two careers actually

contradict each other. It’s not that he took time off to follow some outside interest, and it’s not that he

pursued various jobs that all fit into a larger plan. He did one thing and then the opposite. Is there a sense

in which he has canceled out his professional life? Explain.

3. Imagine that you are considering two career directions: joining the police academy or growing

some pot in the basement and getting a start in the drug-dealing business.

o Regardless of whether you’d ever actually do it, what ethical theory (duties, rights, utilitarianism,

some other) could be employed to justify the decision to go the drug route?

o What ethical theory (duties, rights, and utilitarianism, some other) could you employ to justify the

decision to go the police route?

4. Apply Nietzsche’s theory of eternal recurrence to the cop/drug-dealer choice. You would have to choose

one life and live it over and over forever. Which would you choose? Why? Does that tell you anything

about what you should do with the one and only life you have?

5. Doctors and pharmacists deliver powerful, addictive drugs that send waves of tremendous pleasure

through the users’ bodies (and sometimes those meds result in abuse and death). So that makes three

career directions that have something in common: doctor, pharmacist, and street drug dealer. Now, in

terms of the seven values of work, what do the jobs have in common, and where do they diverge?

6. From the newspaper report on the Pulido case, “Pulido bought a Hyde Park building where his

wife began teaching dance to children—and where once a month for the next several years Pulido

hosted and provided protection for drug-and-sex parties. Admittance ran from twenty to forty

dollars, and narcotics were often in open use. Lap dances in the “boom-boom room” cost an

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additional twenty dollars. As many as one hundred people attended on a given night, including

well-known felons, drug dealers, and law-enforcement officers—some in uniform.”

Compare and contrast Pulido’s wife’s job and Pulido’s. Which post is most desirable for the person

valuing prestige?

7. How could Pulido’s drug operation be characterized as unethical in terms of the exploitation of

consumers?

8. In a sense, Pulido’s wife worked for her husband. By running a dance school out of the building

where Pulido operated, she provided cover for his operation.

o How could the argument be made that she has an ethical responsibility to resign from her job by

shutting down the dance classes so that her husband could no longer use the space to sell drugs?

o In ethical terms, how could she justify pretending not to know what was going on in her building

once a month?

o In ethical terms, and assuming she explicitly recognizes and accepts that she’s providing space and

cover for her husband’s activities, how could she justify continuing to work for his operation?

9. Assuming you were a drug dealer, who would you sell to, and not sell to? Why? Does this tell you anything

about how willing you might be in the future to work for an ethically challenged corporation?

10.

Investigative Fashion Journalism

Source: Photo courtesy of Dave Bleasdale, http://www.flickr.com/photos/sidelong/4110738292/.

The blogger Dahlia (she doesn’t provide her last name) wants to invent a new career. She calls it

investigative fashion journalism. In condensed and slightly altered form, here’s what she writes:

Investigative Fashion Journalism is a different kind of job. When people talk investigative

journalism they think Watergate, Area 51, etc. Also, due to watching too many movies, there’s the

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fear that the consequences of investigative journalism include losing your job, your family, your

money, and on the very rare occasion—your life. (Though last I’ve heard, the fashion journalists

that I’ve admired are still very much alive.) Part of the fun is being your own detective by trying

to dig up evidence, to see what the big cover up is about. I mean, how many of you were actually

aware that illegal immigrants working long hours in manufacturing jobs were happy being paid

minimum wage in Europe?

We love scandals. And what better scandals can you uncover than the fashion industry? I mean I

know celebrity gossip is hot right now, but exposing a multi-billion dollar industry gives me a

bigger high, but that’s just me. Also, by exposing the corruption like those working illegal

immigrants, you can change how the industry works and perhaps enforce better practices for all

current and new companies coming into the mix. If you lead by good example others will follow,

right?

If local universities would offer such a program in journalism, I’d sign up for it in a heartbeat.

Unfortunately, for now, I’m resolved to my fashion blog. [3]

QUE STIONS

1. “Part of the fun,” she writes, “is being your own detective by trying to dig up evidence, to see what the big

cover up is about.” Is there a connection between “fun” and meaningful work? Where does fun fit in the

consideration of values to be weighed when considering a career track?

2. What career-related values do you suspect light up Dahlia and, more generally, the kinds of people who

try to make up jobs for themselves?

3. Ethically troubling exploitation in the fashion industry.

o Do you think she thinks there’s exploitation in the fashion industry? Where?

o If there is exploitation—if something ethically reproachable is going on—what’s her relation to

that blemish? Is she guilty too? Explain.

Octomom

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Source: Photo courtesy of mangpages, http://www.flickr.com/photos/mangpages/3701097713/.

In January 2009, the woman known as Octomom gave birth to octuplets. Her real name is Nadia

Suleman; she’s a single mother who’d split from her husband because they were unable to have children

together. She was on welfare when she conceived the children via in-vitro fertilization. She already had six

young ones at home.

All her children were implanted by Dr. Michael Kamrava.

The delivery required forty-six doctors, nurses, and attendants.

In 2009, she was offered $1 million to star in a pornographic movie. She refused, but later that year she

signed a contract for each of her children to earn $250 a day to star in a reality show.

QUE STIONS

1. Make the ethical case that a nurse should not seek employment in the office of Dr. Michael Kamrava, even

though he pays well.

2. Justify a nurse’s decision to work in the office of Dr. Michael Kamrava, because he pays well.

3. What alignment of work-related values may have led Nadia Suleman to reject work as a porn star but

accept the role of reality TV actress (along with her many children)?

Paralegal or Lawyer?

Source: Photo courtesy of Tami Vroma, http://www.flickr.com/photos/32314864@N02/3253051215/.

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Sally Kane, an attorney and writer, drew up a list comparing the practical realities of two careers,

paralegal and lawyer. Here’s a summary:

Paralegal: A few months training.

Lawyer: A few years of school after college.

Paralegal: Low-cost education.

Lawyer: Law school is EXPENSIVE.

Paralegal: Earning limit under $100,000 in most markets.

Lawyer: The sky.

Paralegal: A paralegal now is pretty much a paralegal forever.

Lawyer: Working as a lawyer opens doors to other careers.

Paralegal: One of the fastest-growing careers in United States.

Lawyer: Job outlook above average.

Paralegal: Limited responsibility and stress.

Lawyer: High responsibility and stress.

Paralegal: Overtime pay.

Lawyer: If there’s work until 11 pm, you work to 11 pm.

Paralegal: Once you’ve got the job, no more school.

Lawyer: You need to keep updating your knowledge (every year, if you’re a tax attorney).

Paralegal: Shorter learning curve and your work is routine and mundane.

Lawyer: Long learning curve and your work is intellectually challenging and varied.

Paralegal: Cubicle.

Lawyer: Private office. [4]

QUE STIONS

1. This comparison is a list of facts. Can you go through the list and attach ethical value to the facts?

In terms of what value(s) does each fact make a job more or less desirable?

o Make the ethical case that it’s better to go the paralegal route.

o Make the ethical case that it’s better to go the lawyer route.

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2. If you’ve developed a short list of career options, can you go through and make up a sort of career

decision spreadsheet that resembles the one just constructed for lawyers and paralegals? It would list the

two or three jobs you’re considering. Then one column would list the factual advantages and

disadvantages of each one, things about vacation time, salary, working conditions, and so on. Finally,

there’d be your unique part: the notation of which of those facts held value and importance in your life

and with respect to the role you imagine work to have for you in the coming years.

 [1] Wikipedia, “Death of Kurt Cobain,” accessed May 16,

2011,http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Death_of_Kurt_Cobain#Suicide_note.

 [2] David S. Bernstein, “Cop or Drug Dealer?,” Phoenix Boston, November 9, 2006, accessed May 16,

2011, http://thephoenix.com/Boston/News/26961-Cop-or-drug-dealer/?rel=inf.

 [3] Dahlia, “Investigative Fashion Journalism,” Dualité, July 7, 2008, accessed May 16, 2011.

 [4] Sally Kane, “Should You Become a Paralegal or Lawyer?,” About.com, accessed May 16,

2011, http://legalcareers.about.com/od/legalcareerbasics/a/paralegallawyer.htm.

Chapter 6

Employee’s Ethics: Getting a Job, Getting a Promotion,

Leaving

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Chapter Overview

Chapter 6 “Employee’s Ethics: Getting a Job, Getting a Promotion, Leaving” examines some ethical

decisions facing employees. It considers the values that underlie and guide choices about how you go

about getting a job, how you maneuver for a better one, and what the right moment is for leaving.

6.1 The Résumé Introduction

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

1. Define ways job seekers may misrepresent themselves on a résumé.

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2. Construct an ethical framework for managing the dilemmas of crafting a résumé.

Robert Irvine’s Stretched Résumé

For many job seekers the first—and maybe the only—chance they get to impress a potential employer is a

résumé. What are the ethics of presenting your qualifications on a sheet of paper?

Robert Irvine is a muscled chef from England who you may have seen hosting the Food Network’s

popular Dinner: Impossible. It’s a good job. The TV show generates free publicity for his

cookbook Mission: Cook! and affords him the kitchen credibility to open his own restaurants. That was

the idea he brought to St. Petersburg, Florida, in 2008. His concept for south Florida, actually, was two

restaurants: Ooze and Schmooze. Ooze was going to be the accessible, entry-level place and Schmooze the

highbrow complement. His biography—the summary of his professional life and experiences that he

presented to potential investors—was impressive. According to the St. Petersburg Times, he advertised

his résumé as including:

 A bachelor’s of science degree in food and nutrition from the University of Leeds.

 Royal experience working on the wedding cake for Prince Charles and Princess Diana.

 He was a knight, as in Sir Robert Irvine, Knight Commander of the Royal Victorian Order, handpicked by

the Queen.

 For several consecutive years, he’d received the Five Star Diamond Award from the American Academy of

Hospitality Sciences.

 He’d served as a White House chef. [1]

Everything came to an end, though, at least temporarily, when Food Network fired him for résumé lies.

Here’s the truth about the listed items:

 The claimed BS degree? According to a press officer at the University of Leeds, “We cannot find any

connection in our records between Robert and the university.”

 The royal wedding cake? Well, he did help pick some of the fruit that went into it.

 The knighthood? No.

 The Five Star Diamond Award? True, but it’s not the AAA’s prestigious Five Diamond Award or Mobil’s

five stars. The American Academy of Hospitality Sciences is actually a guy’s apartment in New York, and

the award is granted to anyone who pays a fee.

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 White House chef? Kind of. But he didn’t prepare sophisticated dishes for the president or anything like

that; he cooked food for the cafeteria line, serving military workers at the White House.

Certainly, Robert Irvine isn’t the first guy to stretch his résumé, but he does an excellent job of exploring

the many ways people can misrepresent themselves when trying to get a job. Generally, there are two

kinds of résumé abuses. Positive résumé misrepresentations are those items on a résumé that simply

aren’t true. Examples include:

 False credentials. These are certificates of accomplishment that don’t exist. Irvine said he had a BS

degree. He didn’t. This kind of misrepresentation is especially tempting for job seekers who didn’t quite

finish their degree. One of the obvious practical problems is that claims like this can be verified or

disproven by human resource departments. (Or, as in Irvine’s case, by enquiring newspaper reporters.)

 False experience. Untruthfully claiming to have participated in projects. Irvine asserted that he’d been

a White House chef, meaning he’d planned sophisticated menus and prepared dishes for dignitaries. He

didn’t. He cooked assembly-line food in the cafeteria for White House staff workers.

 Embellished experience. This is the easiest kind of résumé misrepresentation. Irvine really did work

on the royal wedding cake, but only picking fruit, not actually making it. His claim, therefore, isn’t directly

false, but incredibly misleading. The same could be said about the Five Star Diamond Award. While

technically true, it’s not the meaningful award that people imagine it to be.

 False chronology. Anyone who’s suffered long periods of unemployment—or just been fired from a job

and taken a while to find another one—has surely been tempted to adjust the dates on their résumé to

make it seem as though they went smoothly from one post to another.

 False references. Listing someone to vouch for your experience who really won’t or can’t. Irvine said

he’d been selected by the Queen of England for a knighthood. It never got to the point where someone

actually called her to ask, but if they would’ve, she would’ve drawn a blank. Of course people don’t

normally list royalty as a reference, but in everyday life, it’s easy to commit the same misrepresentation.

One fraternity brother could list another as a former boss. A woman could list a brother-in-law.

Negative résumé misrepresentations are those items that would appear on a complete résumé, one listing

all your working experience, but that conveniently get left out of the one you submit to a potential

employer. If you were fired from your first job at McDonald’s years ago because you kept forgetting to take

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the fries out of the oil pit, no one’s going to object when you drop those months off your work history. On

the other hand, if, up until two months ago, you were in charge of the vehicle fleet for a hotel, and you

were fired for taking your girlfriend out in the company limo after hours, leaving that off your résumé is

misleading new prospective employers.

In the case of Irvine, things worked out for him in the end. After he publicly recognized the truth and

cleaned up the most outrageous resume claims, he got his TV show back.

The Ethics of Stretching the Résumé

It’s hard to define all the ethical lines dividing what should and shouldn’t be included in a job applicant’s

résumé, but steps can be taken to control the situation. If you’re sitting at your desk trying to figure out

whether there should be any deleting, fudging, or exaggerating, two questions can help get a hold of the

situation:

1. Who will be affected by my decision?

2. Does it matter what everyone else is doing?

The first person affected by your decision is you, and everyone’s closest ethical responsibility is the one

they hold to themselves, the responsibility to respect their own dignity and abilities. One way of taking

that responsibility seriously is to look back at the jobs you’ve held and ask what kinds of tasks they

entailed and how those experiences and the skills taken from them might be stated in a broad and

appealing way. Probably, Irvine went overboard when he translated the fact that he’d chosen fruit

included in a royal wedding cake into the claim that he participated in assembling and cooking it. But it

also seems like it’d be a mistake to say that he’d been a simple “fruit picker” on a wedding cake job. In the

culinary world, his was important fruit picking. Irvine’s mistake, in other words, wasn’t that he tried to

make himself look good, it’s that he couldn’t find a way to do it without essentially lying about his

experience.

The duty to present yourself positively to potential employers may also justify the decision to leave

certain, let’s say, unfortunate aspects of your professional life off the résumé. Irvine doesn’t talk much

about how his endeavor to create restaurants in St. Petersburg fell apart in a sorry mess. If tomorrow he

goes out and tries to stir up investors for a new pair of restaurants somewhere else, he has an obligation to

be honest with them about what happened last time. But if he’s looking for a job as a TV cook, or just as a

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cook in a restaurant, then he may be able to justify leaving that bad episode unmentioned. The reasoning?

The fact that he’s bad at mounting restaurants doesn’t mean he’s a bad TV personality or an error-prone

cook. The one job has little in common with the others. So if he’s applying to be a cook, he could possibly

leave the negative information about his other business ventures out based on the idea that it’s simply not

applicable to the employment being sought.

The duty to you, finally, points toward a résumé presentation that sets your accomplishments and skills in

boldface while not dwelling on extraneous shortcomings.

Another person affected by your résumé decisions—the choice about how much truth to tell and hide—is

the person doing the hiring. If you claim experience you don’t really have and skills you don’t possess, the

supervisor who oversaw your contracting won’t just be disappointed and angry as he watches you stumble

and trip over tasks that should be easy. The botched hiring will also reflect negatively on him when

superiors evaluate his performance and make decisions about pay raises and promotions. He’s going to

suffer because you lied. There is, in other words, a loser when you scam to get a job that you’re not really

qualified for. More, that harm accrues to the company as a whole. Maybe costs will increase because more

training than expected will be necessary. Maybe an account will be lost when you fumble an assignment

that should be automatic.

Your potential future workmates also have a stake in your application for a job. If you claim, as Irvine did,

to have worked on the Charles and Diana wedding cake, it seems fair for your boss to assume you’ll be

able to manage producing first-rate cakes for ordinary people. If you can’t, if you have no idea how to

serve up even a simple layer cake, someone else on the team is going to have to step in and do your work

for you. They probably won’t get your paycheck at the end of the month, however.

Other applicants for a job also have a stake in your own application. It’s a competitive world, and while

you’re the one who can best make the case for your ability, making false claims doesn’t just give you an

opportunity you may not otherwise receive: it takes an opportunity away from someone else.

What’s Everyone Else Doing?

The first step in getting control of your résumé’s relation with the hard truth is working through how any

particular decision affects those involved. The second step is determining whether it matters what

everyone else is doing. The question is important because applying for jobs doesn’t happen in a vacuum.

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If everyone stretches their qualifications to the extent Irvine demonstrated, then obviously you may want

to consider whether you need to do the same just to get a fair shake.

A web page with a very truthful URL, Fakeresume.com, and takes up the question about how much

fibbing is going on out there. Under the heading “The UGLY Truth About How People Are Outsmarting

You!” they assert,

Over 53% of job seekers lie on their résumés. Over 70% of college graduates admit to lying on

their résumés to get hired. Can you afford not to know the techniques, tricks and methods they

use? [2]

Fair question. Of course no one knows exactly how much cheating goes on, but as Irvine attests, there’s

definitely some out there. So should you get in on it? The argument in favor roughly corresponds with the

web page’s pitch. If everyone’s doing it—if exaggeration is expected—then employing the same

misrepresentations that guide everyone else isn’t really lying. Like driving sixty down a fifty-five-milesper-

hour highway when all the other cars are going that fast too, your exaggerations are following the

rules as everyone seems to understand them. From this point of view, you may even have a duty to

exaggerate because not doing so, as the web page claims, isn’t being an ethical hero, it’s just being

outsmarted. And in a competitive environment, you at least have the moral obligation to not let yourself

be snookered.

On the other side, where do these percentages—53 percent, over 70 percent—come from? The web page

doesn’t say, and if they’re not true, then doesn’t the whole argument—do it because everyone else is doing

it—reduce to an excuse to lie?

In the case of Fakeresume.com, it couldn’t be more obvious what’s going on. The site is offering you a way

to not tell the truth and not feel bad about it. Instead of offering moral guidance, it’s inventing a way for

you to justify taking the easy path, to justify padding the résumé without having to consider whether that’s

the right thing to do.

Conclusion. In the midst of résumé-stretching dilemmas, what other people are doing matters. Hiring is

relative; there’s hardly anyone who’s perfect for any job, recruiters take the applicant who’s best suited.

Your obligation—to yourself and to the recruiter—is to show why you may be the best suited of the

applicants. That may mean (using the language of Fakeresume.com) use the résumé-enhancing

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techniques commonly employed. It doesn’t mean, however, just imagining that everyone else is laying

their pants off and then using that as an excuse to lie yourself.

Résumé Verification and the Law

One problem Robert Irvine faced was his very public personality. To stir up interest in the restaurants he

planned for St. Petersburg, he had to stir up interest in himself. All the commotion drew the attention of a

local newspaper reporter who ended up blowing the whistle on the résumé exaggerations and concoctions.

More ordinarily, job applicants don’t need to worry about reporters prying into their claims. Most

medium and larger companies do, however, pass résumés through human resources departments and

they typically confirm the significant, objective claims of job seekers. Items like degrees obtained can

typically be verified. So too dates of previous employment and job titles. Every company will follow its

own internal guidelines, of course, so it’s impossible to make a table listing the misrepresentations that

will and won’t slip through, but it’s certain that objectively false information may come to light sooner or

later.

If false information does come to light, are there legal complications? Probably not. Because résumés

aren’t binding, signed agreements between the applicant and employer, they’re generally protected by

free-speech guidelines. In the case of Irvine, if he claimed he was Superman, there’s nothing the police

could do about it. That said, efforts have been made to take some action against the most extreme cases of

résumé misrepresentations. A number of legislative measures have been proposed to punish those who lie

about a military record and honors received. Also, in Washington State in 2006, legislation was advanced

to fine and briefly imprison applicants found guilty of claiming advanced degrees they didn’t actually

earn. The measure ultimately failed. [3]

Conclusion. Most résumé misrepresentations don’t cross into illegality. This is one of those areas in the

business world where legal right and wrong diverges clearly from ethical right and wrong.

Ethical Egoism and Résumé Misrepresentations

Ethical egoism means your moral responsibility is to act in your own interest no matter what that may

require. This provides a license for outright résumé invention (a false BS degree and imaginary

knighthood for Irvine). But, as is always the case with egoism, the question must be asked whether job

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seekers really serve their own interests when they claim things that may later be revealed to be false or

when they land jobs they later won’t be able to perform because their qualifications were fake.

One specific warning for the egoist comes from the admissions department at the Massachusetts Institute

of Technology. One of the world’s elite universities, the task of selecting each year’s freshman class is as

daunting as it is important for a school dedicated to preserving its reputation. The head of that office in

2007 was Marilee Jones. One of her central skills was the ability to distinguish high schoolers who’d truly

excelled from those who got great grades by taking easy classes. Her widely admired skill, in other words,

was filtering out grade sheets (which are students’ résumés) that misleadingly stretched the students’

classroom accomplishments. She went on using that skill until it was discovered that twenty-eight years

earlier, when she’d first applied to work at the school, she’d invented a few degrees for herself. She was

fired on the spot. [4]

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 There are multiple kinds of positive résumé misrepresentations and negative résumé misrepresentations.

 Managing the dilemmas of crafting a résumé requires accounting for obligations to all those who will be

affected by the résumé.

 Circumstances involving the specific post being sought, along with commonly accepted practice, may

determine the extent to which misrepresentations are ethically objectionable.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. Who are the people affected by résumé truth decisions?

2. What are five distinct ways you may choose to misrepresent yourself on your résumé?

3. What’s the difference between legal and ethical approaches to the question about padding the résumé?

4. Why might a job seeker have a duty to blur parts of his or her work history?

5. Why might an egoist lie on the résumé, and why not?

 [1] Ben Montgomery, “TV Chef Spiced Up His Past Exploits,” St. Petersburg Times, February 17, 2008, accessed May

17, 2011,http://www.sptimes.com/2008/02/17/Southpinellas/TV_chef_spiced_up_his.shtml.

 [2] Fakeresume.com accessed May 17, 2011, http://fakeresume.com.

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[3] Candace Heckman, “Lying on Résumé Could Land You in Jail,” SeattlePI, March 3, 2006, accessed May 17,

2011, http://www.seattlepi.com/local/261747_diplomamill04.html.

 [4] Marcella Bombardieri and Andrew Ryan, “MIT Dean of Admissions Resigns for Falsifying Resume,” Boston

Globe, April 26, 2007, accessed May 17,

2011,http://www.boston.com/news/globe/city_region/breaking_news/2007/04/mit_dean_of_adm.html.

6.2 What Am I Worth?

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L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

1. Distinguish the free market from other methods for determining a just salary.

2. Consider the justification of wage demands.

Bogus Job Offer Converted into a Real Raise?

In her blog Female Science Professor, the author considers a problem. She’s got a lab research assistant

whom she calls post doc, which presumably means he got his PhD, but he’s still hanging around the

university and working for low pay. She wants to give him a raise. The higher-ups, however, won’t

approve it. So she writes,

I’m pretty sure I could get a colleague at another institution to send my post doc an e-mail

expressing an interest in hiring him away from my institution (but without any real intention of

doing so). With such a letter in hand, there’s a good chance I could get the raise approved.

Ethical? No. Should I do it anyway? [1]

Actually, the ploy may be considered ethical within a purely market-driven framework for setting salaries.

Cutting the details and reducing to the situation’s essence, the worker is in effect threatening to not show

up for work anymore unless there’s a larger paycheck. That means the employer is being forced to

determine if the employee is worth the extra money. The answer will follow from a survey of available

workers in the market, and an answer to the question as to whether another can be found to perform the

same duties equally well without demanding more pay. If not, then the increase will probably be granted.

If a replacement can be found, then things will get awkward as the lab assistant tries to walk back his

threat. The walking back is an etiquette problem, though, not an ethical one. From this perspective, in

terms of ethics, all that happened is the worker tried to get a raise and didn’t.

Obviously there’s a loose end here; there’s the question about whether the lying is ethical. It depends.

Placing the question in the context of organized labor, is it ethical for a union organization to bluff, to say

they’ll go on strike while knowing they really won’t? What about less direct lies? An employee that’s

actually satisfied with her salary may feign unhappiness in order to squeeze out a little extra. Further,

almost all hard-nosed business negotiation entails a bit of posturing. Not many cars have been sold

without the seller at least initially insisting, “Well, I can’t possibly go below x price for this fine

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automobile.” And then, after a visit with the manager or some other contrived breakthrough, the seller

decides, “Well, in this special case, maybe I can do a little better.”

In one form or another, a pure market economy occasionally (or maybe frequently) reduces to both sides

insisting that they can’t pay more or give less, and in the end, both sides meet somewhere in the middle.

As for the previous claims about other jobs or threats to go on strike or insisting that the price can’t

possibly come down or whatever, all that washes away when hands finally shake.

The ethical foundation undergirding and justifying participating in business this way is libertarian in

nature. It starts with the premise that we’re all independent actors out in the business world trying to

accrue the most for ourselves, and others are out to do the same thing. We all know the rules, we’re all

adults. When we negotiate a pay raise, we may exaggerate circumstances or say some things that aren’t

true. But at the end of the day, no one forces the employer to pay more; it’s the employer’s choice. As for

the employee, the empty threat to leave may be presented at the bargaining table, but it’s not so much a lie

as a commonly used negotiating technique, just a way of upping the pressure. It is, therefore, ethically

acceptable to invent another job offer but only within the confines of business negotiating and only

because everyone knows the give-and-take happens that way.

There is another side to this, however. If you don’t accept that negotiating in business is a kind of specialrules

game where posturing and exaggerating are customary, then you may want to argue that talking

about salaries isn’t any different from any other kind of conversation. If it’s not, then the ethical argument

against leveraging an imaginary job offer to force a pay raise finds a solid foundation on the bedrock duty

not to lie regardless of the circumstances. For anyone who begins from the ethical foundation that any

morally acceptable act must not breach certain ironclad principles—don’t lie, don’t steal, and similar—it

becomes impossible to justify making up a nonexistent job offer, even if that’s the way the game of

business is being played by others.

The Role of the Larger Community in Determining Wages

There are two broad ways to get a fix on your own economic worth. One operates within the open market:

economic free agents meet and sessions of no-holds-barred negotiations result in an answer. The other

broad approach to setting wages places the issue within the context of a larger community. Here, it’s not

so much that we’re bargaining individuals dealing to get the best possible result; instead, we’re part of a

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business organization and a larger society, and wages get distributed across it in accordance with

guidelines and norms. There are multiple kinds of guidelines. They include

 my value to the organization,

 the ability of the organization to pay,

 the community wage level,

 the wages paid to other employees in the organization,

 my experience and seniority relative to others in the organization,

 the future jobs a post may prepare me for.

Trying to determine what a fair salary would be for post doc in terms of his

value to the organization requires determining how much of the organization’s profit he actually

produces. A researcher in a science lab may, under this system, labor for years without any pay at all if his

investigative work fails to produce a marketable product. On the other hand, if after years of labor his

research finally yields a breakthrough, his wages conceivably shoot to astronomical levels.

Needless to say, this wage-determining structure won’t work very well for lab researchers or for any kind

of job that requires years of labor before any return may be anticipated. It does function, however, for

businesses like American Apparel. They pay their clothing sewers a small base wage, and then a large

secondary amount that rises or falls depending on their output, on the number of garments they add to

the inventory. In essence, each week workers bring home a paycheck corresponding with the value they’ve

added to the company. That means the relation between the sewers and American Apparel is

fundamentally cooperative; it’s not a worker negotiating against the organization but the two laboring

together and splitting the fruits of the efforts.[2]

Another broad context into which the wage question may be fitted is the organization’s ability to pay.

A lab assistant may choose, for example, to accept a pay cut to help the firm weather a period when no one

seems able to invent anything that can be sold. The hope would be that, later on, when someone finally

gets that breakthrough and profits zoom, everyone’s wages will shoot up too.

A third context for setting wages is the community wage level. Going back to American Apparel, their Los

Angeles factory pays workers more than twice the US minimum wage, plus benefits. That’s not a lot of

money for California, but it’s ten times more than what sewers in countries including China make for

similar work, which doesn’t mean, within this context, that those overseas workers are being abused, only

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that salaries should be comparable with what others in the immediate area make. Two employees may

receive, therefore, radically different paychecks for the same work, but that’s ethically appropriate if the

wage levels are initially set to correspond with local costs of living and standard practices.

Organizational wage level is another way of standardizing employee pay. In this case, a lab researcher

would base demands for a raise on the argument that others working in the same lab are being paid more

than he is. It doesn’t matter, it follows, and how much researchers are being paid at other, competing

locations. They may receive more, or possibly less. Regardless, the standard is set within that single

organization, and people with comparable experience doing comparable work should receive similar

checks.

Seniority relative to others in the organization also provides a salary framework. Here, the

emphasis doesn’t rest so much on abilities or contribution to the organization, it’s the amount of time an

employee has been doing it that counts most. In a research lab like the one Female Science Professor is

blogging about, her assistant’s demand for a raise would be based on the idea that he should be getting

more than those hired after him, and less than those who’ve been employed longer. There’s a comforting

sense of fairness here as the wages get aligned with factors that aren’t subjective; it’s much easier to tally

an employee’s time working than to determine how much he might get paid elsewhere or measure his

exact contribution to the organization. One drawback to this approach is that it allows little room for

rewarding exceptional ability or effort. Potentially, the only reward an employee receives for working

more efficiently than others is that he gets more work to do.

This particular drawback to a seniority system for determining wages is called a perverse incentive; it’s a

system of rewards that actually encourages workers to perform poorly or inefficiently. Take the case of

American Apparel’s sewers and imagine that wages were determined solely based on the length of their

employment. Sewers would have little reason to produce more garments than their workmates. They may

even feel like their main task at work each day is to find as many ways as possible to rest and not do

anything. Why not? Their wages won’t be affected. Obviously, in most private enterprises, slackers like

these find themselves out of a job. But in sectors where firing individuals is extremely difficult—

government jobs being a prime example—a seniority system for setting wage levels threatens to

incentivize glum, nonresponsive employees.

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Finally, pay may be calibrated by the future prospects the post creates. Here, the lab assistant may

complain about low pay, but the response may be that the particular lab where he’s working is quite

prestigious, and gaining experience there will allow an advantage against other candidates when he goes

out to find employment elsewhere later on. The wages lost now, the reasoning goes, will be more than

recouped in the future.

An extreme form of this future-prospects salary structure is an internship. This is a short-term job with

little pay and few benefits. Sometimes, there’s no pay at all. The upside is the experience. When it’s added

to the résumé, it should make a job seeker more attractive to employers. If everything works, the time may

be a good investment, a good way to get into a line of work, or get in at a higher level. The ethical problem,

however, lies in the possibility of abuse that’s unavoidable when someone is working essentially for

nothing. Here’s a snippet from an entry on Craigslist:

I agree that calling work for no pay an ‘internship’ is just a fancy spin for disrespecting the

talents and the person being ‘used’. Unfortunately, in this society…many people think it’s ok to

offer no pay for legitimate work. [3]

He might be right. This complaint is definitely right if the organization offering the internship knows

beforehand that the worker’s prospects in the market won’t really be improved by the experience

acquired. In that case, it seems like an internship really is just a “fancy spin for disrespecting the talents

and the person being used.”

There are two kinds of questions to ask about a worker who’s laboring for low (or no) wages with the idea

that the experience will pay off in the long run. The first involves employers implying there’ll be improved

job prospects while knowing there probably won’t be. The other is more prudential: assuming the

employer is acting in good faith, the worker still needs to ask, “Is it worth it?” It’s impossible to know the

answer beforehand, but by making the best judgment possible you can get a grip on the question about

whether a higher wage ought to be demanded.

Conclusion. For employees trying to measure their worth in business—how much they ought to be paid for

their work—the guiding question is, “What are the criteria used to measure whether a paycheck is too fat

or too lean?” Are wages set by the market, or is it my value to the organization or something else that

determines the pay scale?

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KEY TAKEAWAY

 An appropriate salary level may simply be the result of the hardest negotiating possible, or it may be

determined by broader guidelines.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. How can an employee ethically justify inventing a job offer in order to pressure the boss into granting a

raise?

2. From the employee’s perspective, in what line of work might value to the organization function not very

well as a gauge for setting salary levels?

3. How could a company justify paying accountants in its St. Louis office less than accountants in the New

York City office?

4. From the employee’s perspective, in what line of work might experience and seniority function well as a

gauge for setting salary levels?

5. Does an employer have an ethical responsibility to offer an intern a job at full pay once the internship is

successfully completed? Why or why not?

 [1] “Proposed Ethical Lapse,” Female Science Professor (blog), July 1, 2009, accessed May 17, 2011, http://scienceprofessor.

blogspot.com/2009/07/proposed-ethical- lapse.html.

 [2] Nick Schou, “The Low Cost of High Wages,” American Apparel, OC Weekly, December 28, 2005, accessed May

17, 2011,http://www.americanapparel.net/presscenter/articles/20051228ocweekly.html.

 [3] Craigslist San Diego, “Comments RE: internship posts& low pay,” January 5, 2010.

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6.3 Plotting a Promotion

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

1. Distinguish two job promotion tracks.

2. Define ethical responsibilities of those seeking a job promotion.

Two Kinds of Job Promotions

Two major promotion tracks run through many organizations: one based on accomplishment, the other

on competition. Accomplishment promotions are those scheduled for workers attaining specific,

predetermined goals. For example, in an office of stockbrokers those who achieve a certain number of

clients or reach a level of total investment money under their direction may automatically be elevated.

An account executive could become a vice president of accounts after she’s gathered more than ninetynine

clients or has garnered accounts valued at more than a million dollars. Along with the new title, there

may come a pay raise and additional benefits.

The ethical questions rising around this system are fairly straightforward and tend to involve

transparency—that is, a clear explanation of the rules and rewards from the beginning. Does it count, for

instance, if a broker games the system by signing up one hundred clients who each invest only piddling

amounts? That could lead to a system where a vice president oversees one hundred clients but only $500

of assets, while a lowly account executive labors with ninety clients and $900,000 in assets.

Every industry and organization will have its quirks and ways of twisting the numbers to make things

appear better (or worse) than they really are. Keeping those angles under control is a manager’s concern,

however. Establishing a level playing field, that’s the kind of thing managers are paid to take care of, and

the dilemmas surrounding this subject, will be considered from their perspective in later chapters. From

the employee’s perspective, there aren’t many problems: if the goals are set, then you have every right to

try to meet them as best as you can to get the step up.

The stickier ethical territory comes with competitive promotions. These are situations where workers

within a group aren’t only teammates laboring to reach the organization’s goals but also competitors vying

for that one slot that comes open on the hierarchy’s next level up. In this situation, what are the ethics of

trying to get the promotion?

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Dirty Tricks

Colin Gautrey has written a book with a captivating title: 21 Dirty Tricks at Work. In a short article, he

summarizes two of the most commonly used by stealthy promotion seekers to either inflate them or

sabotage their coworker competitors.

 The creative magpie. This time-honored strategy of self-service is exaggerating involvement in

successful ideas—or flat out stealing credit for them—while steadfastly forgetting to mention others’

contributions.

 E-mail to the gods. A contemporary and clever scheme for ruining your colleagues’ advancement

chances, it entails writing an e-mail incidentally detailing a colleague’s work-related failure and

“accidentally” copying the message to supervisors and clients. [1]

The business of getting a promotion, if Gautrey’s tricks are any indication, can get pretty rough. One way

to determine what you’re willing to do is by separating and looking at each one of the ambitious worker’s

ethical responsibilities with respect to self-advancement. In broad strokes, those seeking promotion at the

cost of others in their work group are located at the center of four responsibilities: those to

 themselves,

 their coworkers,

 their managers,

 the organization in general.

The Four Responsibilities

What do ambitious employees owe themselves? Most ethical theories encourage those who desire to

advance at work to go after the success. Duty-based ethical structures, for example, include the

responsibility all of us should have to respect our own skills and dignity, and if professional excellence is

among them, then there’s a responsibility to excel, to do well at work. So if getting the promotion requires

acting to be sure superiors know when you’ve done a good job—and in competitive environments it does—

then there’s a moral imperative there to act, to ensure that credit is received. There’s no shame, in others

words, in at least discreetly blowing your own horn. Of course there’ll always be people in the workplace;

perhaps this is even the majority, whose ambitions for their lives aren’t about professional success so

much as having a fulfilling family life or pursuing an after-five interest. For these individuals, just

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avoiding the whole career advancement race—even if it means getting less money at the end of the month

than others—makes perfect sense.

What do ambitious employees owe their workmates? To begin, the same ethical framework of duties

requiring individuals to respect their own ability and dignity also demands that much for others. So while

it may be that singing your own praises and advertising your accomplishments as the creative magpie

does is respectable, it’s harder to justify obscuring the accomplishments of others. Further, if the respect

for yourself is balanced by the same respect for others, it seems like there’s an obligation to actively ensure

that superiors are aware of not only your own contributions but also those made by another. There is, in

essence, a good sportsmanship rule in effect. (And certainly, any ethics functioning from a base of respect

for ourselves and others will prohibit the outright stealing of others’ ideas and accomplishments.) On the

other hand, an ethical egoist—someone insisting that individuals are free agents and the world will work

out for the best if everyone steadfastly pursues their own interests—will see things somewhat differently.

From this point of view, the responsibility to trumpet the accomplishments of others falls to those others.

If they want to claim credit for a job well done, they may, but if they don’t, it’s no one else’s responsibility

to do it for them. Finally, what’s important to see is that there are different intermediate points between

trumpeting your own accomplishments and claiming the accomplishments of others as your own. Acting

ethically requires determining which point you’re at and justifying the stance.

The responsibilities workers hold to their superiors start with honesty. The basic problem with the

creative magpie strategy on this ethical front is that it means passing on to managers misleading or false

information about who contributed how much to a project. This affects managers negatively—

potentially very negatively—because next time something needs to get done urgently and at the highest

possible level, they may not aim the assignment at those employees most apt to produce the best results.

Their performance as a manager, it follows, will be adversely affected when the work performed under

their direction comes in at a quality level below expectations. The career prospects of a manager, finally,

will be hindered when a subordinate sacrifices honesty in the attempt to advance his or her own career.

The last responsibility that employees looking to be promoted ought to consider is their obligation to the

organization in general. Here, both the magpie strategy and the e-mail to the gods trick raise serious

questions. The worker’s central obligation to the organization is to help it flourish: they’re being paid to

help the enterprise reach its goals. The problem with the magpie strategy on this front is the same as the

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problem experienced by managers. When workers who do the best work see the credit stolen by others,

the organization loses some of its ability to produce at the highest possible level. Moving on to the e-mail

to the gods strategy (the appending of harmful information about other workers to e-mails and then

seeing that clients receive the information), this is especially damaging. Even if the information is true,

and should perhaps be shared with managers inside the organization, it’s nearly impossible to see how

any organization can benefit when clients find out the work being done is substandard.

Conclusion. For ambitious employees looking to advance quickly in a situation where they’re competing

against their own coworkers, the recipe for success is obvious: get credit for doing better work than the

others. One way to accomplish that is to actually do better work and make sure superiors know about it.

There are other ways too. Navigating the ethics of those ways requires workers to carefully evaluate their

obligations to themselves, their coworkers, their managers, and their organization.

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 Accomplishment promotions and competitive promotions are distinct and occur on different ethical

terrains.

 Those pursuing competitive promotions ought to consider their responsibilities to themselves, their

coworkers, their managers, and their organization.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. Who is hurt by the creative magpie strategy and in what specific ways?

2. You’re working on a project with another worker and he’s not doing well. His contributions need constant

correction. Does your obligation to the organization’s well-being provide ethical justification for informing

superiors about the shortcomings? Does the ethical situation change if you’re also competing with that

workmate for a promotion? If it changes, how and why? If not, why not?

[1] Colin Gautrey, “Dirty Tricks at Work—Five Ways to Protect Yourself,” EzineArticles.com, accessed May

17, 2011, http://ezinearticles.com/?Dirty-Tricks-at- Work—Five-Ways-to-Protect-Yourself&id=2703788.

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6.4 Looking for a Better Job Outside the Company

L EARNING OBJECTIVE

1. Consider ethical dilemmas confronting employees as they move from one organization to a competitor.

Ethical Issues along the Way to a New Job

Most people who leave one job for another make the transition smoothly; they learn of a new position,

apply, interview, and win the post. Notice is provided to the current employer. The split is amicable.

Everyone goes forward. On some occasions, however, ethical turbulence occurs because obligations to the

current employer are broken along the way out. These are some of the most commonly encountered

flashpoints:

 Time abuse. The use of company time to seek another job.

 Equipment-use abuse. Using the firm’s equipment as part of the effort to find a job elsewhere.

 Skill theft. Taking specific, job-related abilities acquired at one company to another.

 Client adoption. Moving to a new company and helping it appropriate part of the former company’s

client base.

 Market adoption. Moving to a new company and helping it appropriate part of the former company’s

market.

 Idea appropriation. Taking ideas belonging to the old company to the new one.

Musical Chair Stockbrokers

Successful stockbrokers share some basic skills. One is the ability to manage reams of information about

diverse investments. The options they need to organize run from humdrum treasury bills, which are safe

investments but don’t earn very much, to stock in companies like Google, which first went on sale in 2004

at a price of $85. By 2007, that same share cost more than $600. Other start-up companies also began

selling shares in 2004, but it’s harder to remember their names since they went broke. Now it’s not the

stockbrokers’ job to determine which investments are reliable and which more explosive; that’s handled

by specialized analysts. What stockbrokers do is arrange the possibilities into clear groups of more and

less speculative investments, then they provide options to their clients.

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Talking and helping clients choose good options is another key stock broking skill. To do that, brokers

need to understand clients’ situations and aspirations. If you’re a young client with some extra cash, you

may want to take a risk. But if you’re nearing retirement, you may figure it’s best to play it safe.

Regardless, the stockbroker-client relationship tends to be fairly sticky once it’s fully established because

they’ve spent real time talking seriously: to help their broker work, clients need to open up about

themselves, their current reality, and their hopes for the future. After that, it’s difficult to just switch out of

the relationship.

How do stockbrokers make money? They get a small percentage of every investment they oversee, and the

larger brokerage firm, say, Smith Barney, gets a cut too. At least that’s the way it works on a day-to-day

basis. There is, however, another option for brokers, at least for ones who’ve accumulated a good, trusting

client list. They can switch firms for money. For a lot of money because brokerage houses fall over

themselves rushing to offer large signing bonuses to those employees who can bring a long client list with

them.

After a deal to jump to another brokerage house has been struck, the stealth begins. One way or another,

the broker needs to get his or her client files. It’s a delicate operation; computers in most brokerages don’t

have USB drives, so you can’t just pull the information off the hard drive. You’ve got to print it all out or

find some way to access the mainframe with a thumb drive. Regardless, brokers need to get those files

because they hold each client’s investment history and notes brokers use to remember their clients’

stories, their family members, and all the little things that make the personal relationship work.

With the client information in hand, the broker prepares for the nail-biting day of the actual switch. A

letter is written to clients (though not yet sent) reporting the broker’s move to the new firm, and

explaining why it’s a good change—or just not bad—for the clients’ interests. Instructions and the

necessary forms are included for clients to transfer their accounts easily and fast. The day before the

change, the letters are delivered to the central post office. The next morning, the broker resigns and

hurries out of the office. With the first step outside, she hits the call button on her cell phone. A long and

frantic day has begun: starting with the largest investor and running down the list, she telephones to

explain what’s happening, and to ask each client to stick with her through the switch.

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Back at the old office, intense damage control begins. The manager rushes to divide up the ex-worker’s

client list among the remaining brokers, and they start phoning, pleading with the clients to stay with the

old, reliable firm.

Usually, most clients go.

For the moment, that’s the end of it. But the switching will fire up again because a brokerage house that’s

lost a rainmaker may go after one of the major brokers at another house. More, a broker who’s jumped

ship once for money might be tempted to do it again. Eventually, the wheel may get going so fast that no

one can keep straight who’s working where.

Facing the possibility that the whole thing could spin out of control, the poaching brokerage houses

mutually disarmed in 2004 by drawing up a protocol for broker recruiting. The legally binding

agreement—which all employees were asked to sign—allowed brokers to take their clients’ names and

contact information when changing jobs, but nothing else, none of the investment history. That made the

switch much more difficult since office-jumping brokers would need to rebuild their client relationships

almost from scratch.

Neither Bernadette Holland nor Amy Villani wanted to do the rebuilding when they jumped from the

Smith Barney brokerage house in Bethlehem, Pennsylvania, to Janney Montgomery Scott LLC of

Philadelphia in late 2008, so they took their client files with them. At least that’s what Smith Barney

maintained when they filed a lawsuit against the two women. Their complaint alleged, “The brokers took

with them customer files and information, despite their written assurances that they had complied with

the protocol for broker recruiting, which expressly prohibits them from taking such files.” [1]

Time Abuse

Time abuse is the use of company time to seek another job. On the surface, it’s unethical. We need to be

careful here, however, to distinguish exactly what “company time” means. Many jobs and work contracts

are task related instead of time defined. That is, workers are hired to accomplish certain goals. In the

construction business, a roofer may be signed up to get shingling done on a building before a certain

deadline. In a case like that, there is no such thing as company time. The roofer’s free to work whenever

and consequently to not work whenever. As long as the job gets done by the deadline, the obligation is

fulfilled. So if he wants to sit up on the roof and field calls for new jobs, it’s hard to see ethical problems.

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Problems do rise when workers are paid for their time. Most stockbrokers receive a base salary, a benefits

package, or both as part of their work agreement. In exchange, they’re supposed to use the working day to

pursue the brokerage’s interests, which means finding new clients and serving those already held. If

Holland and Villani sat in the office talking with competing brokerage houses, they were breaking their

obligation of fidelity—that is, their duty to honor their professional agreements. Of course they could

respond that all workers take breaks. They eat a snack, sneak out for a cigarette, extend lunch. All those

things are true. It’s also true, however, that the case can be made that those departures

actually help employees do their job by providing the refreshment that comes with the occasional break

from work. In the cases of Holland and Villani, it seems almost impossible for them to find a way to fold

conversations with competing brokerages into the obligation to their current one.

Could those conversations be justified even while recognizing that they breach the duty to fidelity? Yes.

The brokers could argue that another obligation simply outweighs their responsibility to maintain their

working agreement with Smith Barney. Scratching the surface a bit on the Smith Barney situation

provides an example. According to a story detailing the case in the Investment News,

Recruiters and executives from rival firms said the Smith Barney reps and advisers are

continuing to leave the firm this year as it prepares to take the minority stake in a joint venture

with Morgan Stanley, also of New York. Citigroup will exchange Smith Barney for a 49% stake in

the new firm, dubbed Morgan Stanley Smith Barney, and a $2.7 billion cash payment. [2]

Smith Barney, this means, was being taken over by Morgan Stanley, and Smith Barney brokers were

fleeing in droves.

Of course every ship-jumping broker will have unique reasons for leaving, but it does seem plausible that

at least some brokers believed this new management wouldn’t serve their interests well, and, by

extension, their clients’ interests. On this foundation, Holland and Villani could build an argument. Once

it became clear that the kind of service they’d been offering their clients would be impossible under the

new management, they could conclude that their service responsibility to clients outweighed their

responsibility to honor a commitment to Smith Barney. From there, the case may be made for the two to

use company time to pursue the possibility of working for another brokerage.

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Finally, it’s easier from an ethical perspective if the two could just isolate any discussions with potential

future brokerage houses to non-business hours, to lunch breaks, and after 5:00 p.m. If that’s not possible,

however, then the decision to impose on the working day will have to find an ethical justification.

Equipment-use abuse is occupying an employer’s computers, telephones, and similar as part of the effort

to find a job elsewhere. In the case of the two Smith Barney brokers, just as they may have used hours, so

too they may have used Smith Barney’s equipment to negotiate their moving to another firm. This isn’t a

strong form of theft (assuming Holland and Villani didn’t carry the machines out the door), but it’s a

betrayal of the obligation they received when they accepted the equipment—the obligation to use it to

serve Smith Barney’s interests. Or to at least to not subvert Smith Barney. Visiting Facebook once in a

while, in other words, is OK, but sending e-mails to competitors, not so much.

Skill Theft

Skill theft is taking specific, job-related abilities acquired at one company to another. Stock broking—like

many posts—requires extensive, job-specific training, and it can’t be picked up along the way: legally, you

can’t work in the field until you’ve completed the required courses and passed subsequent exams.

Typically, the company pays for the learning. The larger houses organize their own stock broking

universities: new recruits are gathered and privately hired teachers lead them through the materials.

What’s learned? Beyond the Wall Street knowledge about stocks and bonds, there are guidelines to master

about providing recommendations and specific rules to follow that ensure clients understand the risks

involved in creating a portfolio, especially on the more speculative side of the investment spectrum. Stock

broking is also a job in sales: brokers need to learn the delicate art of touting their own services without

making promises about returns that can’t necessarily be kept. Finally, there’s quite a bit of technical

knowledge that needs to be acquired so brokers can adeptly manage job-related and sometimes

complicated software programs. All of this is expensive. When a company hires, they’re making a major

commitment and incurring a real cost.

What obligations does the cost create? The answer divides onto a legal side and an ethical one. With

respect to the law, many hiring organizations incurring significant training costs write clauses into job

contracts protecting against the loss if a fresh employee comes aboard for the training and then tries to

leave and work elsewhere. Called a repayment clause, it stipulates that departing workers may be billed

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for their training. In a typical clause, the cost must be repaid completely if the employee leaves

immediately, and then a declining percentage are repaid if the departure occurs after three, six, nine

months, and so on. (Here’s an Internet board where workers discuss the clause and ways of getting out of

it: http://www.i-resign.com/uk/discussion/new_topic.asp?t=648. [3])

Frequently, ethics and the law fail to overlap. In this case, however, an ethical solution to the problem of

leaving an organization and taking your training with you may correspond with the strictly legal one. To

the extent it’s possible to monetize the investment an employer makes in an employee, returning the

money could satisfy several fundamental moral duties. The duty to not harm others is satisfied because

the recouped funds may be applied by the organization to hire and train another employee. The duty of

fidelity—keeping obligations—is satisfied insofar as the contract’s clauses are honored. Finally, the duty to

reparation—to repay others when we harm them—is explicitly satisfied. The conclusion is that a

stockbroker who takes a firm’s training and leaves may justifiably claim that the action was ethically

acceptable because the contractual obligation was honored.

What if the contractual obligation isn’t honored? Is there any way for an employee to build an ethical case

against repaying the company for training received? On the discussion board just mentioned, two routes

are indicated. The first works from a utilitarian ethics, from the idea that the right action is the one

bringing the greatest good to the greatest number. A contributor called there_are_many_questions

writes,

I recently took a promotion at my current job and part of this was to study a level 4 course they

had chosen. I had also applied to university, and due to the competitiveness of the course I wasn’t

sure that I would get in. Hence the reason I agreed to go for the promotion. As it happens I have

been accepted into university and I begin my course shortly. I knew that I would be required to

pay back the cost of the course fees but it turns out, that they were more then I was originally

told. To add, because I am becoming a full time student I am unlikely to have a permanent

income. [4]

So this person applied to a competitive university and wasn’t sure about getting in. Faced with the

uncertainty, he or she took a promotion at the current company, which required company-provided

training. In the end, as it turned out, there_are_many_questions got into the university and so left the

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company. Now the company wants the course fees back. As the writer notes, it’s probable that he or she

won’t be able to pay them while enrolled as a student.

Looking at this situation, there’s no doubt here that the abandoned company has a strong ethical case.

“Why is there_are_many_questions paying a university for classes when he or she already owes us for

classes taken?” Good question. Here’s a utilitarian response: when everyone’s interests are fully taken into

account, the decision to go to university and shaft the company does, in fact, serve the greater good. The

abandoned company is damaged, no doubt, but really, unless it’s a small company on the brink of

bankruptcy, it seems likely that they’ll absorb the loss and move on. Further, there_are_many_questions

had just been promoted by the company, so, obviously, he or she had been doing good work for them; it’s

not as though the entire professional relationship will be a pure loss. The jilted company, finally, will

suffer the employee’s abandonment, but probably get over it without suffering lasting damage.

There_are_many_questions, on the other hand, has a singular opportunity. The university is

competitive—so much so that there was real uncertainty about gaining admission. To leave that

opportunity behind simply to honor the clause of a contract seems like a choice causing real unhappiness,

one that will continue over the long term. There’ll always be that feeling of “what if?,” as in “What if I’d

just walked and gone to the university to learn to do what I really wanted?” In sum, when you weigh on

one side the damage caused to the company by a departing employee who doesn’t refund training costs,

and on the other side you weigh the damage done to there_are_many_questions if the university course is

abandoned to repay the company’s training, it feels like there’s an imbalance. When viewed

dispassionately from outside the situation, the greater good really is served by walking away from the debt

and going to the university. No one is saying that walking away from debts is ethical, but it would be

more unethical to let the university opportunity pass.

Another justification for walking away from the debt to the company could emerge along the lines of

ethical egoism indicated by a contribution coming from Suze. She says the employee should hand over a

bit of money and then “tell them to whistle for the rest, or else you will see them in court. I doubt they will

pursue it.” [5]

Solid ethical egoism. The right thing to do is the right thing for you, and that’s it. If you can get away with

not paying, Suze says, and then go for it. The reasoning is the company “probably won’t pursue it.” If they

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do, well then you might have to come up with the money. Until that happens, though, her advice is to

protect your own interests, let the company take care of theirs, and see where things end up.

Client Adoption

Client adoption is moving to a new company and helping it appropriate part of the former company’s

client base. Holland and Villani are perpetrators. In fact, this is the central idea behind their move: to

transfer clients along with them.

With respect to the law, Holland and Villani are completely free to take their clients. It’s a black-and-white

legal situation. All that’s in dispute is how much client information they can carry to their new office. And

the ethics? The situation here seems fairly clear also, at least with respect to the brokers and the

brokerage. There’s no doubt that both Holland and Villani on one side, and the Smith Barney brokerage

house on the other, have a certain claim on the clients. While it’s true that the brokers did most of the

work, the brokerage provided the infrastructure and opportunity. One way to adjudicate these competing

claims when the broker and brokerage split is to check whether any prior agreements regulate the

separation. In this case, an agreement does exist: the protocol for broker recruiting. The fact that the

agreement is there indicates that all parties involved accept that brokers transferring and taking clients is

part of the way things normally work: it’s fair. What needs to be settled, and what the protocol does

presumably settle, are the rules for the process.

One difference, however, between ethics and the law in this situation is that ethical considerations open a

broader scope onto the situation: the stakeholders increase. Where the law is concerned only with the

brokerage house and the brokers, an ethical evaluation incorporates the clients as important since they’re

tangibly affected by any decision. So what are the clients’ rights? How are they exposed by shifting

brokers? Their first clear right is to say “no.” They’re under no obligation to follow when a broker changes

firms, and there’s good reason to stay put. The paperwork involved in moving is significant. More, not all

houses offer the same investments instruments, so there may actually be a cost involved as items in the

portfolio are sold on one side so that a comparable product may be purchased from the new brokerage.

This means the client really loses when they move along with a broker.

The clients are in a tough spot, though. Typically, they’ve invested a good bit of their own energy and time

in fostering a broker-client trust and mutual understanding. There’s no guarantee—and this is especially

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true for longtime clients—that another broker would easily understand how the current portfolio fits

together with the client’s life. If that’s right, then any client choosing to remain with the old firm will more

or less have to start over by rebuilding their investments in consultation with whichever new stockbroker

gets assigned to their case. More complications could be added, but the point is, the clients aren’t just

bystanders. The brokers’ decision to change houses is going to affect them, and they may end up losing

either way.

How do the clients’ interests—and the ethical responsibility to consider them—fit into the stockbrokers’

job switching? One way to begin reasoning toward an answer comes from Immanuel Kant’s categorical

imperative, specifically the idea that we are to treat others as ends and never as means. Kant’s proposal is

that we’re obligated, regardless of circumstances, to not treat others as tools or instruments; treating

another as a “means” is just using them to get something else. So the question here for brokers when

considering whether they hold an ethical license to do all they can to carry clients to a new firm becomes

relatively simple. It would not be ethically recommendable if the change failed to serve the clients’

interests. If it doesn’t, if it turns out that the only people who come out ahead in all this are the brokers

because they get a nice bonus from the new brokerage house for bringing over a busload of new investors,

then what’s happening is the clients are reducing to mere means. They’re the tools the brokers use to get a

payoff for them.

On the other hand, if the change does serve the clients’ interests, then Holland and Villani can say that

they aren’t reducing the clients to nothing more than a payday, they’re actually treating the clients the way

they themselves would want to be treated in that situation. In Kant’s language, the clients become “ends,”

they’re no longer tools, and their interests can be considered a reason for Holland and Villani to make the

switch. Now, we know from the case that Smith Barney was in the process of being engulfed by Morgan

Stanley when Holland and Villani were making their move. If the brokers really believed that the services

they could provide would be harmed by the change in corporate structure as Smith Barney became

Morgan Stanley, and if they really believed their client services could be bettered by shifting over to the

new brokerage house, then there’s space for claiming that bringing the clients along is morally right.

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Market Adoption

Market adoption occurs when an employee moves from one company to another and helps the new

employer appropriate part of the former company’s market. On the surface, this resembles client

adoption. A firm’s market—the people to whom they deliver goods or services—is a collection of clients, a

set of people who pay for the company’s efforts. Even so, there are important differences between a

market and a client, and they result in radical changes to the ethical atmosphere.

The fundamental difference between a client and a market is that clients have names and markets have

definitions. Clients are individuals with whom a company has cultivated a relationship; markets are

aggregates of people at whom companies aim their products. When Holland and Villani changed

brokerage houses, they tried to take clients with them because they were people they’d really talked to;

they knew their phone numbers and life stories. A market, on the other hand, is composed of people you

don’t know; it’s just anyone who shares a set of characteristics. For example, a brokerage house may want

more business from middle-aged adults starting to think about retirement. So what do they do? They put

up TV ads showing a fiftyish husband and wife at the dinner table talking about something they’d like to

do together, say, visit China for a month. They can’t go now. They’re both working full time scraping

money to pay for the kids’ college and making mortgage payments. When they retire, though, they’ll have

the time; the kids will be done with school, the house will be paid for. What they need to do now is plan

the financial landscape. They have a question: what kind of investments guarantees their trip? The

commercial ends with a tagline: “Smith Barney: For the Journey of Your Life.” That’s a bad commercial,

but it shows what a market is. Smith Barney doesn’t care who shows up at their branch offices the next

day. They don’t care if it’s Sam Smith or Jane Jones; they just want fifty-year-olds with some money to

invest.

Many companies are constantly trying to convert markets into clients, trying to replace purely economic

relationships with personal ones because people tend to stick with their brands. Markets, by contrast,

shift easily; whichever company has the best TV commercial or the lowest prices, that’s the one that gets

the largest chunk.

Our economy is built on the idea of competition for markets: the premise that they’re open and may be

pursued by any organization is the basis for business activity. Obviously, there are islands of exception,

things like trash collection performed by the city government. But for the most part, it’s nearly impossible

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to form an ethical argument against employees leaving one company and going to another and then

chasing the same market. To be against it isn’t to be against one action or another on the part of an

employee; it’s to be against the entire economic structure in which we live. (It’s possible to be against that

structure, but that’s a different debate.)

Idea Appropriation

Idea appropriation occurs when an idea belonging to the old company is given over to the new one. If a

chemist at Coca-Cola accepts a job at Pepsi and promptly reveals Coke’s secret formula, that’s idea theft.

In the brokerage business at the level Holland and Villani worked, there probably weren’t too many

secrets to steal. Clients yes, but no shadowy formulas for stock picking or anything like that.

Higher up in Smith Barney, however, it’s perfectly possible that analysts responsible for selecting stock

winners (and weeding out losers) had developed an algorithm, a kind of recipe of numbers to produce

answers. In the finance industry, those who rely on numbers—share price, a company’s annual earnings,

and so on—to make stock predictions are called quants, which is short for quantitative data analyst. They

take these numbers, stick them into a secret mathematical formula, and out pops another number

presumably showing whether the stock is a good buy or not. These formulas are a brokerage’s concealed

idea and, presumably at least, a key to their success: clients are going to flock to those brokerages

consistently providing good stock-buying tips. Now if you happen to be a quant at Smith Barney, and

you’re offered a similar position at a competing firm, can you take the formula with you?

This is a knotted question, both legally and ethically. Starting with the law, a company’s ideas are broadly

divided into two categories: trade secrets and patented or copyrighted information. Trade secrets consist

of nonpublic information that

 concerns a company’s own activities and that if known by competitors would negatively affect the

company’s ability to compete against them;

 is owned by the company (though it may not be copyrighted or patented) because it was developed by the

company or purchased from another company;

 is meant to remain secret as is made clear by explicit directives, security measures, or contractual

agreements with employees. [6]

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Trade secrets (which are sometimes called proprietary data) are ideas a company develops and uses, and

that they don’t want anyone to know about. In the case of the quants at Smith Barney, a formula for

picking stock winners kept under lock and key would be a trade secret.

The other broad category of ideas belonging to companies is patented or copyrighted information. This is

more or less a trade secret but without the secret. It’s an idea a company develops that helps it compete,

but the strategy for protecting the idea from competitors is different. Instead of pretending like the idea

doesn’t exist, or doing everything possible to make sure the details don’t leak, what the company does is

make the idea public by registering it with the government, claiming thereafter the sole right to use the

idea. After registration, the idea’s no longer a secret, but that doesn’t matter since anyone else who tries to

use it is vulnerable to being sued.

So the recipe for Coke is a trade secret but not patented. If you can figure out what it is, you’re free to use

it. The word Coke, on the other hand, is copyrighted. Everyone knows what it is, but you’re not allowed to

use it, or at least not use it to label your own soft drink. The result of all this for an employee switching

companies is that the legal questions involving stolen ideas tend to involve trade secrets. You can’t steal

an idea that’s copyrighted because everyone knows that idea already. But a trade secret—the recipe for

Coke, the formula an investment house like Smith Barney uses to pick stocks—that definitely can be

stolen; it can be revealed to the new company.

The Economic Espionage Act of 1996 makes the theft of trade secrets a federal crime. The law is clear on

the issue. The problem is it’s hard to prove that a trade secret is stolen. If you steal the recipe for Coke,

you might disguise the theft by adding a tad more sugar to the version you make. Or, if you steal one of

Smith Barney’s quantitative stock-picking formulas, maybe you adjust the numbers slightly: not so much

that it effects the predictions, but enough to make the formula different. In these cases it’s going to be

hard to absolutely prove the formula is stolen. In broad strokes, finally, the law of intellectual property is

clear. When you get down into specific cases, however, things rapidly get twisted.

What are the ethics? If you’re a quant at Smith Barney and you get a call from your broker friends—

Holland and Villani—saying that they’re taking their clients to a new firm and they’d like you to come

along, bringing Smith Barney’s secret formula for stock picking as well, what kind of ethical responses are

possible?

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The “no” response is easily justified on moral grounds. The trade secret is company property, really no

different from a computer or a desk, and taking it—even if you’re taking it by memorizing it and carrying

it out in your mind—is theft just like stealing objects. Further support for the no answer comes from the

responsibility to fidelity, the responsibility to maintain agreements. Almost all companies that work with

trade secrets write a clause into employment contracts stipulating confidentiality on sensitive matters. So

the ethical obligations not to steal, and to keep our word, make a good case for declining the request to

steal an idea.

Going the other way, some situations allow a reasonable argument to be mounted in favor of leaving with

the trade secret or proprietary data. One justification is authorship. Someone who provides a company

with an invention can fairly expect to be rewarded by the company. Inventing an idea is labor like any

other, and in any field people who do exemplary work can expect promotions and rewards from the larger

organization. If, unfortunately, an inventor feels as though the company isn’t providing a reward—a

promotion, a healthy bonus, or similar—then he or she may feel justified in leaving with his or her work,

just as a good accountant may feel the need to look for employment elsewhere after being repeatedly

passed over for promotion. The basic argument here is one of fairness. If a quant at Smith Barney invents

an algorithm for stock picking that produces excellent results and then sits by and watches others who’ve

contributed less receive larger year-end bonuses, the conclusion may be reached that for balance to be

restored, it’s necessary to take the algorithm to another firm where a reward will be guaranteed.

Another ethical argument could be located in the difficulty that may exist in separating the skills an

employee gains on the job from an idea or a certain kind of knowledge developed on the job. A quant who

figures out a good algorithm may be able to claim that, as a skilled manipulator of numbers as they relate

to economic markets, his ability as an analyst allows him to take the strategy with him. Stated differently,

because of the unique skills possessed, when the quant is hired for a new brokerage, he would be able to

just reinvent the algorithm. That’s possible because of the rare analytic talents the quant possesses, not

because the old algorithm is being stolen. In general, it can be very difficult to separate skills as they relate

to ideas from the ideas themselves. And in this case, it may be that the quant’s skills provide a license to

regenerate the stock-picking algorithm for whatever firm is paying the salary.

Finally, an ethical case for the revelation of a trade secret may be made on humanitarian grounds. It’s

difficult to envision a good example of this is in the world of stock picking, but in the no-less-lucrative

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field of medical research, a humanitarian context for taking an idea easily comes into focus. If a cure for

cancer were invented by a private company, the stock value would blow through the roof, but only if they

kept the drug formula secret and sold the serum at a fairly high price. In this case, a worker in the

company may feel justified in taking a job with an international health nonprofit, and then revealing the

serum’s formula and the technique for its production so that it could be made and distributed at a low cost

to all those in need throughout the world. A theft would be committed and a wrong done, but an

obligation to the greater good, to the health benefits the theft would allow, may justify a departing

worker’s carrying a company’s secret out the door.

KEY TAKEAWAYS

 Using time and equipment paid for by a current employer to look for a new job is ethically problematic.

 Job skills provided by employers may create employee obligations.

 Employees transferring from one company to another—and asking established clients to follow—face a

broad range of ethical concerns.

 Ideas belonging to an organization may not be taken to another without raising ethical concerns.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. Ethically, is there a difference between a worker sitting at her desk during office hours and working on her

Facebook page and one who’s trolling Monster, looking to find a new job somewhere else? If not, why

not? If so, what’s the difference?

2. If a company pays for your job training, is there a way to calculate how long you need to work there to

satisfy the obligation to use the training for the company’s benefit?

3. In business terms, what’s the difference between trying to steal clients from your old employer and trying

to steal market share? In ethical terms, what’s the difference?

4. What’s the difference between a trade secret and a patented idea?

 [1] Bruce Kelly, “Smith Barney Seeks Restraining Orders against Four Ex-Reps,” investmentnews.com, accessed

May 17, 2011.http://www.investmentnews.com/article/20090224/REG/902249971.

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[2] Bruce Kelly, “Smith Barney Seeks Restraining Orders against Four Ex-Reps,” investmentnews.com, accessed

May 17, 2011.http://www.investmentnews.com/article/20090224/REG/902249971.

 [3] “Repayment of Course Fees,” I-resign.com, accessed May 17, 2011, http://www.iresign.

com/uk/discussion/new_topic.asp?t=648.

 [4] There_are_many_questions, April 4, 2009 (4:26 p.m.), “Repayment of Course Fees,” I-resign.com, accessed May

17, 2011, http://www.i-resign.com/uk/discussion/new_topic.asp?t=648.

 [5] Suze, January 6, 2005 (5:42 p.m.), comment to bradley, “Repayment of Course Fees,” I-resign.com, accessed

May 17, 2011, http://www.i-resign.com/uk/discussion/new_topic.asp?t=648.

 [6] Manuel Velasquez, Business Ethics: Concepts and Cases 6th Edition (Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson, 2006),

357. List adapted for this text.

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6.5 Take This Job and…

L EARNING OBJECTIVE

1. Define and consider ethical issues surrounding the decision to quit.

The Ethics of Quitting

There’s a difference between giving a few weeks’ notice that you’ve decided to leave your job in cold

Minneapolis to try your luck in Florida, and suddenly walking out three days before the year’s most

important presentation, the one your team was responsible for creating. The first scenario won’t cause

many objections, but the second raises this question: what do departing workers owe employers?

If the answer is sought through a prism of fairness—through the idea that justice in the workplace

requires equal treatment all around—the answer might be “not very much.” Since most work contracts

offer employment only at will, employers are typically positioned to let workers go at any time for any

reason that’s convenient. And they do.

When Ameritech was letting people go they would call them into a conference room and say their

services were no longer needed. They would then show them to the door. Any coats or personal

effects left at their desk would be shipped to them. [1]

Especially in larger organizations where layoffs can come massively, the employee’s pleading, “You

shouldn’t fire me because we just bought a house and had our first child,” isn’t going to persuade too

many CEOs. If it doesn’t, it’s going to be difficult to justify the demand that employees, no matter how

vital they may be to the company, come in to work when they plainly don’t want to.

It’s also true, however, that many employers extend benefits going beyond contractual obligations, and

yes, some bend over backward to keep their workers on, even when it doesn’t make strict business sense.

When Malden Mills burned to the ground, owner Aaron Feuerstein spent millions keeping all three

thousand employees on the payroll with full benefits for months. Some asked whether he was a

fool. [2] Maybe he was, but he proves that every situation is different: some employers are cutthroats,

others doggedly loyal when it comes to the people doing the work.

This is the important point for anyone thinking about leaving their organization in a lurch. If the ethical

justification for splitting is built on the idea of fairness—which in this case reduces to the principle that

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the employee owes the organization the same loyalty that the organization displays for the employee—

then it’s the worker’s responsibility to ask how the organization responds to employees’ needs.

It should be underlined that this ethical attitude isn’t quite a form of turnabout is fair play: the argument

isn’t so much that if a company has screwed (or not) people in the past, then they should get screwed (or

not) now. The argument from fairness is simply that the weight of self-interest when set against the

interests on the other side should be more or less balanced.

A different framework for considering the question of walking out on a job virtually without warning

comes from the utilitarian perspective, from the idea that in any situation the morally right act is the one

increasing happiness for all those involved. Looking at the question this way, workers considering leaving

need to weigh their benefit from walking out against the suffering incurred by everyone else.

The “everyone else” includes the worker’s fellow employees. If a presentation really does need to be done

and given in three days and you disappear, there’s just not going to be time to hire someone else and get

them up to speed; those who are already there and on the project are going to have to do your share. It’s

worth noting here that the concern about whether the company has previously demonstrated loyalty to its

workers doesn’t arise within this perspective. What matters is a calculation of what serves everyone’s best

interest now and going forward. So even if you feel no loyalty to the company—and even if the company

demonstrates no loyalty to its employees—you may still decide to stay on until a more convenient

separation time can be found just so that you don’t wrong those who work with you.

%$&^*#!

Everyone who’s ever worked anywhere has felt the temptation at one point or another to not just quit but

to go out in flames: march into the boss’s office, let loose an avalanche of %$&^*#!, and storm out. It

would feel good. But should it leave you feeling guilty afterward? Within a utilitarian scheme, the answer

is “maybe not.” If ethical justification is based on the idea that the right path is the one bringing the

greatest good to the greatest number, then it might just be that the release and clean break the outburst

allows is worth the scene and the discomfort (or maybe the private joy) others feel about the whole thing.

Of course, by the same reasoning, anyone standing outside that door and taking one last breath before

storming through better consider their own long-term happiness. Probably, bawling out the boss isn’t

going to help your future job-seeking prospects.

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KEY TAKEAWAYS

 Most ethical issues surrounding the quitting of a job gather around those cases where the leaving is

abrupt.

 The ethics of leaving a job involves a range of people and their interests.

REVIEW QUE STIONS

1. If you feel as though you’ve been mistreated at work, can an ethical justification be formed for walking

away at a moment of maximum pain for the company? Explain.

2. Can you think of a kind of job or line of work where any employee could walk off at any time without

ethical qualms? What characteristics of the job allow that freedom?

 [1] James Carlini, “Ready to Leave? Why You Shouldn’t Give Two Weeks’ Notice,” WTN News, April 27, 2005,

accessed May 17, 2011, http://wistechnology.com/articles/1757.

 [2] “Malden Mills: A Study in Leadership,” Organizational Productivity Institute, Inc. ,Quality Monitor Newsletter,

October 1996, accessed May 17, 2011, http://www.opi-inc.com/malden.htm.

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6.6 Case Studies

Cooking a Résumé

Source: Photo courtesy of cloudsoup, http://www.flickr.com/photos/cloudsoup/2762796137/.

Chef Robert Irvine’s résumé was impressive. According to the St. Petersburg Times, he advertised his

experience as including:

 A bachelor’s of science degree in food and nutrition from the University of Leeds.

 Royal experience working on the wedding cake for Prince Charles and Princess Diana.

 He was a knight, as in Sir Robert Irvine, Knight Commander of the Royal Victorian Order, handpicked by

the Queen.

 For several consecutive years, he’d received the Five Star Diamond Award from the American Academy of

Hospitality Sciences.

 He’d served as a White House chef.

The truth—when the newspaper revealed it on a splashy front-page article—wasn’t quite so overpowering:

 The claimed BS degree? According to a press officer at the University of Leeds, “We cannot find any

connection in our records between Robert and the university.”

 The royal wedding cake? Well, he did help pick some of the fruit that went into it.

 The knighthood? No.

 The Five Star Diamond Award? True, but it’s not the AAA’s prestigious Five Diamond Award or Mobil’s

five stars. The American Academy of Hospitality Sciences is actually a guy’s apartment in New York, and

the award is granted to anyone who pays a fee.

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 White House chef? Kind of. But he didn’t prepare sophisticated dishes for the president or anything like

that; he cooked food for the cafeteria line, serving military workers at the White House. [1]

After the truth came out, Chef Irvine was fired from his popular TV show on the Food Network, Dinner:

Impossible. A few months later, however, after the scandal blew over and he’d corrected his résumé, he

reapplied for his old job, was rehired, and he’s on TV today.

QUE STIONS

1. When Irvine first applied for the job as TV show chef, he had to consider whether he should “embellish”

his résumé, and if so, how far he should go. What ethical responsibilities should he have considered? To

whom?

2. The five types of positive résumé misrepresentations are

o false credentials,

o false experience,

o false chronology,

o embellished experience,

o false references.

Negative résumé misrepresentations have also been discussed. Looking back at Irvine’s résumé

adventure, can you label each of his transgressions?

3. Are some of the lies worse than others in the sense that they relate directly to his ability to be a successful

TV chef? Are others less objectionable because they don’t relate to the job he was applying for? Why or

why not?

4. It’s better to seek forgiveness than ask permission. In a sense, that’s what Irvine did. He lied on his résumé,

got the job, did well, got caught having lied on the résumé, got fired, sought forgiveness, got it, and got

back a TV show job he might never have received had he not lied in the first place. Ethically, how could

you go about justifying his course of action?

5. The Internet site Fakeresume.com includes the following advice for job seekers: “Hiring Managers

Think You’re Lying Anyway!! Yep that’s right, the majority of human resources managers assume

that EVERYONE embellishes, exaggerates, puffs up and basically lies to some extent on your

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résumé. So if you’re being totally honest you’re being penalized because they’re going to assume

that you embellished your résumé to a certain extent!” [2]

Assume you believe this is true; can you make the ethical case for being honest on your résumé

regardless of what hiring managers think?

6. Assume Fakeresume.com is right. Everyone “embellishes, exaggerates, puffs up and basically lies to some

extent on their résumé.” On the basis of the obligations you hold to others (hiring managers, coworkers,

and other applicants) and to yourself, could you form the argument that you have an ethical responsibility

to lie?

7. You have a friend you like and respect. You’ve spent a lot of time with him over the years in school and

you know he’s very responsible, a hard worker, and smart. He’d be good at almost any entry-level type

job; you’re sure of it. He comes to you and asks you to fake having been his boss for a pizza delivery

business. “I just want,” he says, “someone out there who I can count on to say I’m the good, responsible

type. You know someone who’s always on time for work, that kind of thing.” Would you do it? Justify your

answer.

Inmate Wages

Source: Photo courtesy of Tomáš Obšívač, http://www.flickr.com/photos/toob/38893762/.

An Internet posting carries a simple Q&A thread: someone’s searching for a good upholstery shop in

Maryland. An unexpected answer comes back from Fenny L: criminals. A local jail has a job-training

program for their inmates and they contract the men at $1.50 per hour. [3]

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The responses to the suggestion are intense and all over the place, but many circle around the ethics of the

numbingly low wage, leading Fenny L to introduce a new thread. Here are the three main points she

makes.

 While I object to slave labor…at the same time, I don’t see this as slave labor. If I wished to become a

professional uhhh…upholsterer (what do they call themselves?!?) I would need to spend money on the

classes and etc. The Dept. of Corrections doesn’t charge the inmates for these classes—thusly; I don’t see a

problem with only paying the inmates $1.50 for their work.

 Also, we use free/cheap labor ALL the time…in the form of Interns. Interns are often paid nothing, or

extremely little—because they want the job experience…that is their compensation. In turn, I feel that the

inmates are getting job experience so that they can earn an honest living once they get out.

 Finally, I think that the Dept. of Corrections has to make the wages obscenely low—because let’s be

honest…how many people would feel comfortable with having a convict in their home to do work? The

only way they can be competitive and offer the inmates this opportunity, is to make it worth the consumer

to utilize them—by having obscenely low wages. [4]

QUE STIONS

1. Suppose you made a mistake and ended up in jail for a few months. While there, you participated

in this program. Now you’re out and seeking an upholstering job.

o You’re considering leaving the jail part of this episode off your résumé. Whose interests should

you consider before going ahead? What ethical case could you make for leaving it off your

résumé?

o Given the kind of work you’d be doing—going into peoples’ homes and upholstering—does the

nature of your “mistake” (drunk driving versus shoplifting, for example) influence the ethical

consideration of whether you ought to acknowledge this part of your life on your résumé? How?

o Maybe for the first several years you should leave your prison training on your résumé, but is

there a kind of statute of limitations, a certain amount of time that, once passed, gives you an

ethical license to leave something negative off your résumé? How would you calculate the

amount of time and based on what factors?

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2. Sometimes a split opens between a community-wage level (what people in general in a certain

place are paid for certain labor) and an organizational-wage level (what people at a specific

organization are paid for the same labor). The split clearly opens here; the prisoners are paid

much less than other upholsterers in the larger community.

o Fenny L believes this split is justified by the ethics of a market economy. She makes the point that

most people really don’t want crooks wandering around their house, so in order to get business;

the prison needs to make its offer attractive by cutting labor prices. She’s probably right in terms

of economics, but in terms of ethics, do you find this reasoning convincing? Why or why not?

o Can you form an ethical argument in favor of the prisoners demanding a pay raise to make their

salary comparable with other upholsterers?

3. If you were an upholsterer and your company had a practice of hiring ex-convicts because they’d work for

lower wages, could you make the ethical argument that you deserve a higher wage than those other

workers with similar experience and skills because you’d never had trouble with the law? What would

your argument look like?

4. If you were an upholsterer looking to wiggle a pay hike, would you ask a friend to pose as the boss from a

competing outfit and offer you the same job at a higher salary? In considering the question, what are the

specific ethical obligations tugging one way or the other, and to whom do you have the obligations?

5. Fenny L. believes the workers are receiving a fair wage because they’re getting valuable training

and experience that will improve their future job prospects. That’s probably true, but the fact

remains that the workers are being paid much less money, for the same work, than others.

o Is an internship—or any post where you receive less than the community-wage level for a certain

kind of work—a humiliation? Why or why not?

o Is there an ethical objection to allowing you to be humiliated? Explain.

6. Many jobs require company-sponsored training, and frequently employees enrolling in corporate training

programs sign repayment clauses, promising to repay the training’s cost if they leave before a certain

amount of time has passed, say, one year. Is there an ethical argument here for the idea that repayment

clauses are a form of prison and therefore unethical? Why or why not?

7. Upholstering is not a job where experience counts very much. Yes you need some initial training and

practice, but once you’ve got that, ten years more experience isn’t going to make you a significantly better

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upholsterer of common items. Accepting that reality, if you were the upholsterer who’d been with the

company the longest, could you still translate your seniority into an ethical argument that you deserve a

higher wage than others who’ve been around less time? Explain.

Dirty Tricks

Source: Photo courtesy of Henk de Vries, http://www.flickr.com/photos/henkdevries/2662269430/.

In his book 21 Dirty Tricks at Work, author Colin Gautrey gives his readers a taste of how intense life at

the office can get. Here are two of his favorite tricks. [5]

QUE STIONS

1. The exposure trick. Coercing a coworker by threatening to make public a professional or personal

problem

If you’re angling for a raise, and you know something damaging about your supervisor, you may

be tempted by the tactic of exposure. Imagine you know that your supervisor has a prescription

drug habit and it’s getting worse. Her performance at the office has been imbalanced but not so

erratic as to raise suspicions. You plan to confront her and say you’ll spill the beans unless she gets

you a raise. Whose interests are involved here? What responsibilities do you have to each of

them? What ethical justification could you draw up to justify your threat?

2. The bystander trick. Knowing that someone is in trouble but standing on the sidelines and doing

nothing even when intervention is clearly appropriate and would be helpful to the business

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At an upholstering company you’re in competition for a promotion with a guy who learned the

craft in jail, through the Department of Corrections’ job-training course. He hadn’t revealed that

fact to anyone, but now the truth has come to light. You’ve worked with him on a lot of

assignments and seen that he’s had a chance to make off with some decent jewelry but hasn’t

taken anything. You could speak up to defend him, but you’re tempted to use the bystander trick

to increase the odds that you’ll win the duel. What ethical argument could you draw up to

convince yourself that you shouldn’t stand there and watch, but instead you should help your

adversary out of the jam?

The End of Destiny’s Child

Source: Photo courtesy of Alex Johnson, http://www.flickr.com/photos/89934978@N00/2997961865/.

The R&B group Destiny’s Child was composed of Beyoncé Knowles, Kelly Rowland, and Michelle

Williams. They started slow in 1990 (Beyoncé was nine), giving mini-concerts in crumbling dance halls

around Houston, and then kept at it through small-time talent shows, promised record deals that never

materialized, and the disintegration of Rowland’s family (Beyoncé’s parents took her into their home).

They finally got a crummy but real record deal in 1998 and made the most of it.

By 2002 they’d become a successful singing and dance act. But soon after, they broke up under the

pressure of Beyoncé’s solo career, which seemed to be speeding even faster than the group effort.

In 2004 they reunited for a new album, Destiny Fulfilled, which went triple platinum. On the European

leg of the subsequent world tour, Beyoncé quit more definitively. She took the fan base with her and began

evolving into the hugely successful Beyoncé we know now: pop music juggernaut, movie celebrity,

clothing design star…The other two members of the original group? Today they appear on B-list talk

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shows (when they can get booked) and are presented to viewers as Kelly Rowland, formerly of Destiny’s

Child, and Michelle Williams, formerly of Destiny’s Child.

According to the New York Times it shouldn’t be surprising that things ended up this way: “It’s been a

long-held belief in the music industry that Destiny’s Child was little more than a launching pad for

Beyoncé Knowles’s inevitable solo career.” [6]

Which leads to this question: Why did she go back in 2004 and do the Destiny Fulfilled album with her

old partners? Here’s what the New York Times reported: “Margeaux Watson, arts and entertainment

editor at Suede, a fashion magazine, suggests that the star does not want to appear disloyal to her former

partners, and called Beyoncé’s decision to return to the group a charitable one.” But “from Day 1, it’s

always been about Beyoncé,” Ms. Watson said. “She’s the one you can’t take your eyes off of; no one really

cares about the other girls. I think Beyoncé will eventually realize that these girls are throwing dust on her

shine.” [7]

QUE STIONS

1. Destiny’s Child rolled money in, and it needed to be divided up. Assume the three singers always

split money equally, going way back to 1990 when it wasn’t the profits they were dividing but the

costs of gasoline and hotel rooms, which added up to more than they got paid for performing.

About the money that finally started coming in faster than it was going out, here are two common

theories for justifying the payment of salaries within an organization: Money is apportioned

according to the worker’s value to the organization, and money is apportioned according to the

experience and seniority relative to others in the organization.

o How would these two distinct ways of divvying up the revenue change the salary assigned to the

three singers?

o When success came, how could Beyoncé ethically justify demanding a greater share of the pie?

o How could you justify experience and seniority as the ethically preferable route to follow when

paying the three singers making up Destiny’s Child?

2. There are a lot of rhythm and blues groups out there, singing as hard as they can most nights on

grimy stages for almost no audience, which means the organizational-wage level of Destiny’s Child

was way, way above the wage level of other organizations in the same line of work.

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o When the members of Destiny’s Child cash their paychecks, should they feel guilty about getting

so much more than others in their profession who work just as hard as they do, but in different

organizations where the pay is less? Why or why not?

o Cashiers at Whole Foods Market get paid more than cashiers at Wal-Mart. Should the Whole

Foods cashiers feel guilty? Why or why not?

3. Beyoncé didn’t break clean from Destiny’s Child. She rejoined the organization because, according to

Watson, “she didn’t want to appear disloyal to her former partners.” Beyoncé felt an ethical responsibility

to mind the interests of Kelly Rowland and Michelle Williams. As she thought about leaving the group

more definitively, what other people (if any) do you suppose she should have considered in order feeling

ethically justified in finally and permanently taking off on her own? What are the obligations she holds to

Rowland, Williams, and any others you have added to the list?

4. Destiny’s Child was a pop group; their hits included “Say My Name,” which isn’t too different from

Beyoncé’s smash “Single Ladies (Put a Ring on It).” The videos are pretty close, too: nearly

identical mixes of rhythm, dancing, fun, and sexy provocation. After comparing the video of “Say

My Name” [8] with “Single Ladies,” [9] it’s hard to deny that Beyoncé benefited from her time in

Destiny’s Child. Very possibly, she feels as though she owes Rowland and Williams part of her

success, and that’s why she did the reunion record and tour. Now, if you were Rowland or

Williams, could you form an ethical argument that Beyoncé owes you more than that based on

the following:

o Client appropriation. When Beyoncé left, she benefited from a group of devoted listeners

constructed by Destiny’s Child. Do you suppose these would be clients, a market, or some mix?

How do you imagine Beyoncé benefited from them and what should she do to repay the

obligation?

o Skill theft. When Beyoncé left, Destiny’s Child still had gas in its engine: the group was selling CDs

and touring successfully. It could do that because of the skills the three members learned years

earlier through tireless rehearsals and small-time concerts. During all those years they were

training for musical success, but when they got it, Beyoncé quickly left the organization. She went

out on her own and kept doing what she’d learned to do with Rowland and Williams. Given that,

use an ethical theory to make the case that Beyoncé is significantly obligated to the other two.

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What is her obligation? Is there some point—either after a certain amount of time has passed or

an amount of money has been paid or something else—where the obligation will have been

satisfied? Explain.

Stolen Intel

Source: Photo courtesy of ctitze, http://www.flickr.com/photos/ctitze/329928527/.

Biswamohan Pani, a low-level engineer at Intel, apparently stole trade secrets worth a billion dollars from

the company.

His plot was simple. According to a Business week article, he scheduled his resignation from Intel for

June 11, 2008. He’d accumulated vacation time, however, so he wasn’t actually in the office during June,

even though he officially remained an employee. That employee status allowed him access to Intel’s

computer network and sensitive information about next-generation microprocessor prototypes. He

downloaded the files, and he did it from his new desk at Advanced Micro Devices (AMD), which is Intel’s

chief rival. Pani had simply arranged to begin his new AMD job while officially on vacation from Intel.

Why did he do it? The article speculates that “Pani obtained Intel’s trade secrets to benefit himself in his

work at AMD without AMD’s knowledge that he was doing so, which is a fairly frequent impulse among

employees changing jobs: to take a bit of work product from their old job with them.”[10]

According to Nick Akerman, a New York lawyer who specializes in trade secret cases, “It’s amazing how

poorly most companies [protect their trade secrets].” [11]

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After being caught, Pani faced charges in federal court for trade secret theft, with a possible prison term of

ten years. He pleaded innocent, maintaining that he downloaded the material for his wife to use. She was

an Intel employee at the time and had no plans to leave.

QUE STIONS

1. Can the fact that Pani got the information so easily be used to build an ethical case that what he did

wasn’t wrong? If not, why not? If so, what does the case look like?

2. Ethically, does it matter whether Pani was a key author of the taken documents? Why or why not?

3. According to the article, a lot of people do what Pani did. Is that a justification for his action? Explain.

4. Did Pani have a responsibility to formally end his employment status with Intel before joining AMD, or is it

OK for him to be vacationing from Intel while working at AMD? Whose interests need to be considered to

answer this question thoroughly?

5. As James Carlini, a professor at Northwestern University, points out in an essay, [12] it is accepted wisdom

in the world of business ethics that employees leaving a company ought to provide two-week’ notice to

employers. Use the Pani case to make the argument that employees should notify employers that they’re

leaving only at the last moment.

6. Pani left Intel after receiving a poor job review. Probably he was mad about that. From a utilitarian

perspective—one that defines the ethical good as the greatest good for the greatest number over the long

haul—would Pani have acted more ethically had he stormed into his boss’s office and screamed at the guy

and quit instead of biting his tongue, getting a job elsewhere, and doing what he did? Explain.

 [1] Ben Montgomery, “TV Chef Spiced Up His Past Exploits,” St. Petersburg Times, February 17, 2008, accessed May

17, 2011,http://www.sptimes.com/2008/02/17/Southpinellas/TV_chef_spiced_up_his.shtml.

 [2] Fakeresume.com accessed May 17, 2011, http://fakeresume.com.

 [3] Fenny L., April 7, 2009, “Searching for good upholstery shop in MD,” accessed May 17,

2011, http://www.yelp.com/topic/gaithersburg-searching-for-good-upholstery- shop-in-md.

 [4] Fenny L., April 17, 2009, “Ethics of Inmate Wages,” accessed May 17,

2011,http://www.yelp.com/topic/washington-ethics-of-inmate-wages.

 [5] “21 Dirty Tricks,” The Gautrey Group, accessed May 17, 2011,http://www.siccg.com/fre/DirtyTricks.php.

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[6] Lola Ogunnaike, “Beyoncé’s Second Date with Destiny’s Child,” New York Times, November 14, 2004, accessed

May 17, 2011,http://www.nytimes.com/2004/11/14/arts/music/14ogun.html?_r=1.

 [7] Lola Ogunnaike, “Beyoncé’s Second Date with Destiny’s Child,” New York Times, November 14, 2004, accessed

May 17, 2011,http://www.nytimes.com/2004/11/14/arts/music/14ogun.html?_r=1.

 [8] “Destiny’s Child—Say My Name,” YouTube video, 4:00, posted by “DestinysChildVEVO,” October 25,

2009, http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=sQgd6MccwZc.

 [9] “Beyoncé—Single Ladies (Put a Ring on It),” YouTube video, 3:19, posted by “beyonceVEVO,” October 2,

2009, http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=4m1EFMoRFvY.

 [10] Michael Orey, “Lessons from Intel’s Trade-Secret Case,” Bloomberg Businessweek, November 18, 2008,

accessed May 17,

2011,http://www.businessweek.com/print/technology/content/nov2008/tc20081118_067329.htm.

 [11] Michael Orey, “Lessons from Intel’s Trade-Secret Case,” Bloomberg Businessweek, November 18, 2008,

accessed May 17,

2011,http://www.businessweek.com/print/technology/content/nov2008/tc20081118_067329.htm.

[12] James Carlini, “Ready to Leave? Why You Shouldn’t Give Two Weeks’ Notice,” WTN News, April 27, 2005,

accessed May 17, 2011, http://wistechnology.com/articles/1757.

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Chapter 7

Employee’s Ethics: Making the Best of the Job You

Have as You Get from 9 to 5

Chapter Overview

Chapter 7 “Employee’s Ethics: Making the Best of the Job You Have as You Get from 9 to 5” examines

some ethical decisions facing employees. It considers the values guiding choices made over the course of a

workday.

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7.1 Taking Advantage of the Advantages: Gifts, Bribes, and

Kickbacks

L EARNING OBJECTIVE S

1. Define a conflict of interest.

2. Show how gifts in the business world may create conflicts of interest.

3. Delineate standard practices for dealing with gifts.

4. Consider how receiving gifts connected with work may be managed ethically.

5. Define bribes and kickbacks in relation to gifts.

6. Show how the ethics of bribes and kickbacks can be managed inside the ethics of gifts.

Living the High Life

If you’re young, looking for work, and headed toward a big city (especially New York), then you could do a

lot worse than landing a job as a media buyer for an advertising agency. According to an article in New

York magazine, it’s working out well for twenty-four-year-old Chris Foreman, and it’s working out despite

a salary so measly that he can’t afford his own place, a ticket to a movie, or even to add meat to his

homemade spaghetti. [1]

This is what makes the job click for Foreman: as a media buyer, he oversees where big companies like

AT&T place their advertisements. And because those ads mean serious money—a full page in a glossy,

top-flight magazine costs about five times what Foreman earns in a year—the magazines line up to throw

the good life at him. Thanks to the generosity of Forbes magazine, for example, Foreman spends the

occasional evening on the company’s vast Highlander yacht; he drinks alcohol almost as old as he is,

munches exquisite hors d’oeuvres, and issues orders to white-suited waiters. While guests arrive and

depart by helicopter, Foreman hobnobs with people the rest of us see only on movie screens. A scan of the

Highlander guest book turns up not just celebrities but serious power too: Margaret Thatcher was a guest

once.

A night on the Highlander is a good one, but it’s far from the only event lighting up Foreman’s glitzy life. A

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expenses-paid ski weekend (worth almost $1,000, in Foreman’s estimation); tickets to see Serena

Williams at the US Open ($75 each); invites to the Sports Illustrated Swimsuit Issue party, where he

chatted with Heidi Klum and Rebecca Romijn-Stamos; prime seats for sold-out Bruce Springsteen

concerts ($500 each); dinners at Cité, Sparks, Il Mulino, Maloney & Porcelli, and Monkey Bar, to name a

few of his favorites ($100 a pop).

Foreman observes the irony of his life: “It’s kind of crazy, I had dinner at Nobu on Monday [the kind of

restaurant few can afford, even if they’re able to get a reservation], but I don’t have enough money to buy

socks.” [2]

The Highlander’s spectacularly wealthy owner is Steve Forbes. If he invites former British Prime Minister

Margaret Thatcher aboard for a holiday weekend, you can understand why: she’s not just an interesting

person; she’s living history. Serena Williams would be an interesting guest, too, in her way. The same goes

for Heidi Klum and Ms. Romijn-Stamos, in a different way. What they all have in common, though, is that

you know exactly what they’ve got, and why a guy with a big bank account would treat them to an evening.

But what, exactly, does Mr. Forbes expect to get in return for inviting media buyer Chris Foreman? The

answer: “We media buyers are the gatekeepers—no one at AT&T actually purchases the ads. If at the end

of a buying cycle, your budget has an extra $200,000, you’ll throw it back to the person who treated you

best.” [3]

The answer, in a word, is money.

What’s Wrong with Gifts and Entertainment?

The fundamental problem with the gifts Foreman received and the free entertainment he enjoyed is that

they create a conflict of interest, a conflict between professional obligations and personal welfare. As a

paid media buyer, it’s Foreman’s job and obligation to buy ads in the magazines that will do his clients the

most good, that’ll deliver the biggest bang for the buck. But against that, as a single twenty-four-year-old

guy in New York City, it’s in his personal interest to purchase ads in Forbes magazine since that probably

gets him invited back to the Highlander with its free drinks, exquisite dinners, and, if he’s lucky, some face

time with women he’s already seen quite a bit of in Sports Illustrated. This is a tough spot, and there are

two broad ways it can play out:

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1. Foreman can do the parties at night, go home, sleep, wake up with a clear head, and buy the best ads for

his client. Let’s say the advertising money he’s spending belongs to AT&T and they’re trying to attract new

clients in the forty-five to fifty-five demographic of heavy cell phone users. He takes that target, checks to

see what magazine those people like to read more than any other, and buys a full pager there. If the

magazine happens to be Forbes, great, if not, then Forbes doesn’t get anything back for its party. In this

case, Foreman knows he’s done right by AT&T and his employer. To the best of his ability, he guided

advertising money to the spot where it’ll do the most good. There remains a potential problem here,

however, which is the appearance of a conflict of interest. Even though Foreman didn’t let the parties

affect his judgment, someone looking at the whole thing from outside might well suspect he did if it

happens that Forbes gets the ad buy. This will be returned to later on in this chapter.

2. The darker possibility is that Forbes isn’t the best media buy, but they get the ad anyway because

Foreman wants to keep boarding the Highlander. In this case, Foreman is serving his own interest but

failing his obligations to his employer and to his client.

In pure ethical terms, the problem with the second possibility, with selling out the client, can be reduced

to an accusation of lying. When Foreman or any employee signs up for a job, shows up for work, and then

accepts a paycheck, they’re promising to be an agent for the organization, which is formally defined in

commercial law as someone acting on behalf of the organization and its interests. In some situations it

can be difficult to define exactly what those interests are, but in Foreman’s it’s not. He does well for his

employer when he gives the clients the best advice possible about spending their advertising dollars.

That’s his promise and he’s not fulfilling it.

Redoubling the argument, in the case of the typical media buyer, there’s probably also an explicit clause in

the employment contract demanding that all media advice be objective and uncorrupted by personal

interest. Even without that formal step, however, the shortest route to an ethical condemnation of buying

ads because a night on the Highlander (or some other gift) has been received is to underline that the act

turns the media purchaser into a liar. It makes him or her dishonest every time they come into work

because they’re not providing the objective and impartial advice they promise.

In discussing conflicts of interests, it’s important to keep in mind that those who find themselves caught

up in one haven’t necessarily been corrupted. Just because Foreman finds himself torn between giving

impartial advice to his client and giving the advice that gets him good parties doesn’t mean his judgment

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is poisoned. That said, it’s extremely difficult to walk away from a conflict of interest unstained: any time

serious gifts or rich entertainment gets injected into a business relationship, suspicious questions about

professionalism are going to seep in too.

Finally, there are two broad ways of dealing with gifts, especially those creating conflicts of interest. They

can be flatly refused, or rules can be formulated for accepting them responsibly.

Refusing Gifts and Entertainment

One way to avoid the gift and conflict of interest problem altogether for Chris Foreman or anyone in a

similar situation is to simply refuse any gifts from business partners. Far more frequently than private

businesses, government organizations take this route. The approach’s advantage, obviously, is that it

wipes out the entire question of wrongdoing. The disadvantage, however, is that it dehumanizes work; it

seems to forbid many simple and perfectly appropriate gestures of human interaction.

Here’s an example of what can happen when efforts to eradicate conflicting interests go to the extreme:

it’s from a New York Times front-pager about the state governor:

Governor David A. Paterson violated state ethics laws when he secured free tickets to the opening

game of the World Series from the Yankees last fall for himself and others, the New York State

Commission on Public Integrity charged on Wednesday. [4]

So, the governor is in trouble because he got some tickets to watch his home team play in the baseball

championship? That’s going to make Chris Foreman’s head swim. Without getting into the details of the

Paterson case, accepting these tickets doesn’t seem like a huge transgression, especially for someone

whose job pays well and is already packed with gala events of all kinds. It’s not as though, in other words,

Peterson’s going to be blown away by the generosity or become dependent on it. In the case of Foreman

who could barely afford to eat, it’s reasonable to suspect that he may come to rely on his occasional trip to

the Highlander, but it just doesn’t seem likely that the governor’s judgment and ability to fulfill

professional obligations are going to be distorted by the gift provided by the New York Yankees baseball

club. More, as the state’s elected leader, a case could probably be made that the governor actually had a

professional responsibility to show up and root for the home team (as long as the visitors aren’t the Mets).

As a final note, since the now former governor is legally blind, the value of the gift seems limited since he

couldn’t actually see the game he attended.

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Despite this case’s apparent frivolity, the general practice of eliminating conflict of interest concerns by

simply banning gifts can be justified. It can be because so many gifts, just by existing, create the

appearance of a conflict of interest. An appearance of conflict exists when a reasonable person looking at

the situation from outside (and without personal knowledge of anyone involved) will conclude from the

circumstances that the employee’s ability to perform his or her duties may be compromised by personal

interest. This is different from an actual conflict because when there’s really conflict, the

individual feels torn between professional obligations and personal welfare. Almost certainly, Foreman

was tempted to help out Forbes because he really liked the parties. But the case of Governor Paterson

presents only the appearance of a conflict of interest because we don’t know whether he even wanted the

tickets to the Yankees game. Given the fact that he’s blind, he may well have preferred staying home that

night. Still, for those of us who can’t know his true feelings, it does seem as though there might,

potentially, be some incentive for Paterson to return the Yankee favor and provide them some special

advantage. It’s almost certain that at some time in the future, the baseball club will have an issue up for

debate by the state government (perhaps involving the construction of a stadium or maybe just a license

to sell beer inside the one they currently have), and as soon as that happens, the appearance of conflict is

there because maybe Paterson’s response will be colored by the tickets he got.

Conclusion. Refusing to accept any gifts from business associates is a reasonable way of dealing with the

ethical dilemma of conflicting interests. By cutting the problem off at the roots—by eliminating not only

conflicts but the appearance of them—we can go forward with confidence that a worker’s promise to

represent the organization faithfully is uncorrupted by the strategic generosity of others.

What Other Remedies Are Available for Conflict of Interest Problems Stemming

from Gifts?

Categorically refusing gifts may be recommendable in some cases, but in most economic situations a total

ban isn’t realistic. People make business arrangements the same way they make friendships and romance

and most other social things—that mean invitations to the Highlander if you’re lucky, or just to a few

Budweiser’s in the hotel bar. And if you turn everyone down every time, it’s probably going to dampen

your professional relationships; you may even lose the chance to get things done because someone else

will win the contract between drinks.

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So where does the line get drawn for accepting gifts with ethical justification? Whether you happen to be a

renowned politician in a large state or someone just out of school trying to make a go of it in the world,

there are a number of midpoints between Governor Paterson’s obligation to refuse tickets to a game he

couldn’t see anyway and Chris Foreman’s raucous partying on the Highlander. Three of the most common

midpoints are

1. transparency,

2. recusal,

3. organizational codes.

REVIEW QUE STIONS
1. Why might someone’s social skills be considered a factor in receiving a promotion?
2. What are some advantages and disadvantages of seniority promotion?
3. Why might a promotion be based on projected performance?
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[1] Maya, “Alcohol: Income Booster?,” Monster (blog), September 20, 2006, accessed May 24,
2011, http://monster.typepad.com/monsterblog/2006/09/alcohol_ income_.html.
[2] Bethany L. Peters and Edward Stringham, “No Booze? You May Lose,” Reason Foundation, September 1, 2006,
accessed May 24, 2011,http://reason.org/news/show/127594.html.
[3] Bethany L. Peters and Edward Stringham, “No Booze? You May Lose,” Reason Foundation, September 1, 2006,
accessed May 24, 2011,http://reason.org/news/show/127594.html.
[4] Maya, “Alcohol: Income Booster?,” Monster (blog), September 20, 2006, accessed May 24,
2011, http://monster.typepad.com/monsterblog/2006/09/alcohol_ income_.html.
[5] Deloitte Consulting: WetFeet Insider Guide (San Francisco: WetFeet), accessed May 24,
2011, http://www.wellesley.edu/Activities/homepage/consultingclub/wetfeet%20-%20deloitte_consulting.pdf.
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8.4 Firing
L EARNING OBJECTIVE S
1. Define legal guidelines on firing employees.
2. Elaborate justifiable reasons for deciding to fire.
3. Set standards for the actual firing process.
4. Consider ways of limiting the need to terminate employees.
Optimal Level Firing
A study funded by the CATO Institute and titled “The Federal Government Should Increase Firing Rate”
concludes this way: “The rate of ‘involuntary separations’ is only about one-fourth as high in the federal
government as in the private sector. No doubt private-sector firing is below optimal as well since firms are
under threat of expensive wrongful discharge lawsuits.” [1]
There is, in other words, an optimal level for firing, and in both the public and private sectors it’s not
being met. People aren’t being fired enough.
The strictly economic question here is, “What is the optimal firing level?” No matter the answer, there’s an
ethical implication for the workplace: firing workers is a positive skill. For managers to perform well—for
them to serve the interest of their enterprise by maximizing workplace performance—the skills of
discharging employees must be honed and applied just like those of hiring and promoting.
On the ethical front, these are the basic questions:
 When can an employee be fired?
 When should an employee be fired?
 How should an employee be fired once the decision’s been made?
 What steps can management take to support workers in a world where firing is inevitable?
When Can an Employee Be Fired?
In the world of for-profit companies, most work contracts offer at-will employment. Within this scheme, a
clause is written into the contract offering employment only as long as the employer desires. Stated more
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aggressively, managers may discharge an employee whenever they wish and for whatever reason. Here’s a
standard version of the contractual language:
This is an “At Will” employment agreement. Nothing in Employer’s policies, actions, or this
document shall be construed to alter the “At Will” nature of Employee’s status with Employer,
and Employee understands that Employer may terminate his/her employment at any time for
any reason or for no reason, provided it is not terminated in violation of state or federal law.
The legal parameters for firing seem clear.
Things blur, however, once reality hits. As the Cato study authors note, simply the fear of a possible
lawsuit does impinge to some extent on the freedom to fire, especially when the discharged worker fits
into a protected group. This means older workers, foreigners, or disabled workers may protest that no
matter what reasons are given for termination—assuming some are given—the real reason is their age,
nationality, or disability. Further, gender protection may be claimed by women fired from largely male
companies and vice versa.
Another round of blurring occurs on the state level where legislation sometimes adds specific employee
protections, and so curtails employers’ rights. In Minnesota, for example, firing may not be based on a
worker’s participation in union activities or the performance of jury duty.
These varied and frequently changing legal protections are the reason managers are typically instructed to
keep detailed records of employee performance. If those can be produced to show a pattern of
incompetence or simply inadequate results, they can justify a dismissal before a judge, if it ever comes to
that.
Even though legal complexities mean managers are well advised to be careful about firing workers, and
it’s prudent to be sure that there are directly work-related reasons for the dismissal, none of that changes
the fact that at-will hiring gives wide latitude to the company, and fired workers are typically left with few
good avenues of protest. One way to see how tilted the table is toward the employer and away from the
employee is to compare the American at-will firing system with the European model, where a reasonable
cause for termination must be demonstrated. In the United States, employers may more or less fire
anyone for any reason, and the burden of showing the termination was illegal or unfair falls entirely on
the worker. In Europe, by contrast, the legal burden falls largely on the employer. Instead of the worker
having to show the firing was wrong, now the company has to show the firing was right. This is a big deal.
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It’s like the difference between innocent until proven guilty and guilty until proven
innocent. Just because firing means the company holds the burden of proof: it must demonstrate that the
worker wasn’t holding up his or her end of the employment contract. That’s a lot harder to do than just
producing some work evaluations to buttress the claim that she wasn’t fired because she’s Jewish or he
wasn’t let go because he’s Asian. As opposed to the European reality, the conclusion is, employees in the
United States hired at will have little recourse against a company that wants them out.
Finally, it’s worth noting that elements of just cause law have been working their way into the American
legal system in recent years.
When Should an Employee Be Fired?
Because the legal footing is usually more or less solid for American managers, the real hard questions
about terminating employees aren’t legal ones about what can’t be done but ethical ones about what
should be done.
Sometimes firing is unavoidable. Economic slowdowns frequently bring furloughs and terminations.
When the company’s books turn red, and after the entire easy cost cutting has been done, people need to
be cut. Who? There are three broad philosophies:
1. Inverted seniority
2. Workload
3. Recovery preparation
Inverted Seniority occurs when the last worker hired is the first released. This works especially well for
assembly-line-type labor where one worker can replace another easily. As long as replacement is possible,
dismissing the most recently hired allows clear and impersonal rules to make downsizing orderly.
Workload firings focus the pain of job cuts on that part of the company suffering most directly from a
falloff in business. An office furniture supply company may find its line of hospital products unaffected by
an economic downturn (people keep getting sick even if they don’t have a job) so layoffs are taken from
other divisions. This may mean losing workers with higher seniority or better job performance, but it
minimizes cash-flow disruption.
Recovery preparation takes the long view on an economic slowdown: firings and layoffs are executed not
so much to compensate for the present downturn but to sharpen the company for success when the
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economy bounces back. Staying with the office furniture supply company, the owner may see better longterm
opportunities for profits in the nonhospital units, so the downsizing may occur across the board. The
idea is to keep those slow-moving units at least minimally prepared to meet new demand when it
eventually comes.
Sometimes economic slowdowns don’t reflect a problem with the larger economy, they’re the result
of fundamental changes in the market, frequently brought on by technological advance. For example, the
popularization of digital photography has shrunk the market for old fashioned film. Seeing this coming,
what can a company like Kodak do? They’re probably going to let workers from the old film side go to
create room for new hires in the digital division. This is potentially unfair to terminated workers because
they may be doing exemplary work. Still, it would be unfair—and financially disastrous—to the company
as a whole to not change with the times.
Rank and yank is a management philosophy promoted by former General Electric Company CEO Jack
Welch. Every year, he counsels, the entire workforce should be ranked and the bottom 10 percent
(“There’s no way to sugarcoat this,” he says) should be fired to make room for new employees who may be
able to perform at a higher level. Here, the responsibility to the company is being weighed far heavier than
the one to the employee because, theoretically at least, those in the bottom 10 percent may be doing fine
on the job—fulfilling their responsibilities adequately—it’s just that others out there who could be hired to
replace them may do it better. In the hope they will, workers who’ve done nothing wrong are sacrificed. [2]
There are two main criticisms of this practice. First, it’s a betrayal of employees who are fulfilling their
contractual obligations (they’re just not over performing as well as others). Second, it’s counterproductive
because it lowers morale by drowning workers in the fear that even though they’re doing what’s being
asked, they may end up in that dreaded bottom 10 percent.
Employee misbehavior is the least controversial reason to fire a worker. Here, the ethics are relatively
clear. Employees aren’t being mistreated when they’re dismissed because it’s their own actions that lead
to their end. Standard definitions of misbehavior include
 rudeness toward clients or customers,
 drinking or drugs on the job,
 theft of company property or using company property for personal business,
 frequent and unexplained absences from work,
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 entering false information on records,
 gross insubordination,
 fighting or other physical aggression,
 harassment of others (sexual, sexual orientation, religious, racial, and similar).
How Should an Employee Be Fired Once the Decision’s Been Made?
At the Friday all-staff meeting the office manager stands up to announce, “The good news is the following
people have not been fired!” He reads a list of seventeen names. There are nineteen people at the meeting.
That’s from a (perhaps unemployed) comic’s stand-up routine. Unfortunately, people have written into
the CNNMoney.com with real stories that aren’t so far removed:
 An employee received news of her firing in a curt letter delivered to her home by FedEx.
 A man tells of being halted at the building door by security and being humiliatingly sent away.
 People report that they arrived at their office to find the lock changed and their stuff thrown in a box
sitting on the floor. [3]
All these are inhumane firings in the sense that no flesh and blood person took the trouble to present the
bad news.
It’s easy to understand why inhumane firings occur: not many people enjoy sitting down with someone
and telling them they’re out. So it’s tempting to yield to cowardice. Instead of facing the worker you’ve
fired, just drop a note, change the lock, and talk to security. On the ethical level, however, firing an
employee is no different from working with an employee: as a manager, you must balance your duties to
the company and the worker.
How can the manager’s duty to the organization be satisfied when terminating a worker? First, to the
extent possible, the fired person should leave with a positive impression of the organization. That means
treating the employee with respect. No mailed notices of termination, no embarrassing lockouts, just a
direct, eye-to-eye explanation are probably the most reliable rule of thumb.
Second, the terminated employee should not be allowed to disrupt the continued work of those who
remain. If deemed necessary, security personnel should be present to ensure the ex-worker leaves the
premises promptly. Also, if the worker is involved in larger projects, a time for severance should be found
when their contribution is minimal so that other members of the team will be able to carry on near
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normally. (It may be recommendable to arrange the termination to coincide with the finishing of a larger
project so that everyone may start fresh with the new, substitute employee.)
Third, the financial costs of the termination should be minimized. This means having clear reasons for the
termination and documents (pertaining to worker performance or behavior) supporting the reasons to
guard against lawsuits. Also, there should be clear understandings and prompt payment of wages for work
done, as well as reimbursements for travel expenses and the full satisfaction of all monetary obligations to
the employee. This will allow the human resources department to close the file.
With duties to the company covered, how can the manager’s duty to the employee be satisfied?
Consultants—both legal and ethical—typically share some bullet-point answers. First, the employee
should be addressed honestly and directly with a clear explanation for termination. Speak firmly, the
advice is; don’t waver or provide any kind of false hope. Further, the termination should not come as a
total surprise. Previous and clear indications should have been given concerning employee performance
along with specific directions as to what areas require improvement. Many companies institute a structure
of written warnings that clearly explain what the employee’s job is and why their work is not meeting
expectations.
Second, getting fired is embarrassing, and steps should be taken to minimize the humiliation. The
employee should be the first to know about the discharge. Also, the severance should occur in a private
meeting, not in view of other workers. To the extent possible, the employee should have an opportunity to
say good-bye to workmates or, if this is the preference, to leave discreetly. For this reason, a meeting late
in the day may be chosen as the appropriate time for notice to be given.
Third, to the extent possible and within the boundaries of the truth, an offer should be extended to
provide a recommendation for another job.
Fourth, make sure the employee gets all the money coming for work done, without having to jump
through hoops.
What Steps Can Management Take to Support Workers in a World Where Firing
Is Inevitable?
One response to the inescapable reality that firing happens is preemptive; it’s to reduce the moral
uncertainty and hardship before they arise. Two strategies serve this purpose: actions can be
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implemented to minimize the occasions when firing will be necessary, and steps can be taken to reduce
the severity of the firing experience for employees when it happens.
In her book Men and Women of the Corporation, Rosabeth Moss Kanter generates a list of measures that
corporations use to diminish firings, and reduce the professional impact for those who are let go. Here’s
an abbreviated selection of her recommendations, along with a few additions:
 Recruit for the potential to increase competence, not simply for narrow skills to fill today’s slots.
 Rotate assignments: allow workers to expand their competence.
 Retrain employees instead of firing them.
 Offer learning opportunities and seminars in work-related fields.
 Subsidize employee trips to work-related conferences and meetings.
 Provide educational sabbaticals for employees who want to return to school.
 Encourage independence and entrepreneurship: turn every employee into a self-guided professional.
 Keep employees informed of management decisions concerning the direction of the company: What units
are more and less profitable? Which ones will grow? Which may shrink?
 Ensure that pensions and benefits are portable. [4]
KEY TAKEAWAYS
 At-will firing grants employers broad legal latitude to discharge employees, but it does not erase ethical
concerns.
 Justifiable worker firings include cases where workers bear none, some, or all of the blame for the
discharge.
 The act of firing a worker requires managers to weigh responsibilities to the organization and to the exemployee.
 Steps can be taken to limit the need for, and effects of, employee discharge.
REVIEW QUE STIONS
1. What’s the difference between at-will and just cause firing?
2. How might fundamental changes in the marketplace require a company to fire workers?
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3. What is rank and yank?
4. When managers fire employees, what duties do they hold to the organization, and what are the duties to
the dismissed worker?
5. What are some steps organizations can take to protect their workers from the effects of discharge if firing
becomes necessary?
[1] Chris Edwards and Tad DeHaven, “Federal Government Should Increase Firing Rate,” Cato Institute, Tax and
Budget, no. 10 (November 2002), accessed May 24, 2011,http://www.cato.org/pubs/tbb/tbb-0211-10.pdf.
[2] Allan Murray, “Should I Rank My Employees?,” Wall Street Journal, accessed May 24,
2011, http://guides.wsj.com/management/recruiting-hiring-and-firing/should-i- rank-my-employees.
[3] “Worst Ways to Get Fired,” CNNMoney.com, September 6, 2006, accessed May 24,
2011, http://money.cnn.com/blogs/yourturn/2006/09/worst-ways-to-get-fired.html.
[4] List adapted from Rosabeth Moss Kanter, Men and Women of the Corporation (New York: Basic Books, 1993),
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8.5 Case Studies
Fashionable
Source: Photo courtesy of Ralph Aichinger, http://www.flickr.com/photos/sooperkuh/3275153928/.
In her blog Love This, MJ (full name not provided) relates that she’s been an aspiring clothes designer
since she started sewing tops for her Barbie dolls. Things weren’t going well, though, as she tries to break
into the industry. One thing she notices is that there aren’t a lot of female fashion designers out there—
Vera Wang, Betsey Johnson, and a few more. Not many. So she starts trying to figure it out with questions
like these:
 Do women want straight guy designers to dress them because they dress to please the men? It could make
sense: what that designer likes, the man in her life is going to love too.
 Do women prefer gay men to dress them because gay men are their new girlfriends? Gay men are usually
more receptive to trends and physical appearances too.
 Do women prefer women designers because she knows a woman’s body better?
 Do men have the same issue? Do some men prefer a lesbian designer? Would they balk at being dressed
by a gay designer? [1]
QUE STIONS
1. Assume MJ is right when she hypothesizes that most women like straight male designers because straight
guys are the ones they’re trying to impress, so they want clothes straight guys like. Now imagine you’ve
been put in charge of a new line of women’s clothes. Your number one task: sales success. You’ve got five
applicants for the job of designing the line. Of course you could just ask them all about their sexual
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orientation(s), but that might leave you open to a discrimination lawsuit. So could you devise a test for
new applicants that’s fair—that gives everyone an equal chance—but still meets your requirement of
finding someone who produces clothes that straight guys get excited about?
2. Four standard filters for job applicants are
o education level,
o high-risk lifestyle,
o criminal record,
o flamboyant presence in social media.
Which of these might be used to winnow out applications for a job as a clothes designer? Explain
in ethical terms.
3. MJ wonders whether women might prefer women designers because she knows a woman’s body better. Is
there a bona fide occupational qualification for a women’s fashion company to hire only women
designers? Is there a difference between a BFOQ based on sex and one based on sexual orientation?
4. MJ asks, “Do women prefer gay men to dress them because gay men are their new girlfriends?” Assume
you think there’s something to this. Could you design a few behavioral interview questions that test the
applicants’ ability to become girlfriends (in the sense that MJ means it) with their clients? Would these be
ethically acceptable interviews, or do you believe there’s something wrong and unfair about them?
God at Work
Source: Photo courtesy of Geoff Stearns, http://www.flickr.com/photos/tensafefrogs/1523795/.
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The University of Charleston is a private, nonreligious institution with a very particular job opening: the
Herchiel and Elizabeth Sims “In God We Trust” Chair in Ethics. According to the job description, the
successful candidate for this job as a professor “must embrace a belief in God and present moral and
ethical values from a God-centered perspective.” [2]
QUE STIONS
1. You’re in charge of getting applicants for this post and you’ve got a small advertising budget. What ethical
responsibilities should you consider when determining where to place the ad? How broadly should you
advertise the position?
2. According to Erwin Chemerinsky, a law professor at Duke University, “The description that
‘candidates must embrace a belief in God and present moral and ethical values from a Godcentered
perspective,’ violates the Civil Rights Act as religious discrimination in
employment.” [3] Imagine you’re in charge of every step of the process of filling this job. How
could you respond in terms of
o bona fide occupational qualifications (BFOQs),
o testing,
o interviewing?
3. You’re the university president. The person who currently holds the In God We Trust
Professorship has, by all accounts, been doing a mediocre to poor (but not directly unacceptable)
job. One day you happen to trip across the person’s blog page and notice that your professor
claims to be a sadist and practices a mild form of devil worship (also, the prof’s favorite movie
is The Omen). Right now the In God We Trust Professor of ethics is down the hall lecturing to
seventy-five undergrads. You sneak to the door and listen from outside. The professor sounds just
like always: dull and passionless, but the talk is about the Bible, and nothing’s being said that
seems out of line with the job description. Still, you decide to terminate the relationship.
o In a pure at-will working environment, you can just fire the professor. But imagine you want to
demonstrate just cause. How does this change the way you approach the situation? What would
your just causes be?
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o The professor’s classes are passionless because he doesn’t believe in what he’s teaching. Still, his
teachings are not directly wrong. Does this case show why a manager may be ethically required in
certain situations to implement a strategy of rank and yank? Explain.
Testing Baseball Players’ DNA
Source: Photo courtesy of katkimchee,http://www.flickr.com/photos/midwestkimchee/206762729/.
The New York Times reports that there’s a “huge difference between sixteen and nineteen years old,”
when you’re talking about prospects for professional baseball. A kid whose skills knock your socks off for a
sixteen-year-old just looks modestly good when he practices with nineteen-year-olds. [4]
This is a significant problem in the Dominican Republic, which produces excellent baseball players but
little in the way of reliable paperwork proving who people really are and when they were born. The
Cleveland Indians learned all about that when they gave a $575,000 bonus to a seventeen-year-old
Dominican named Jose Ozoria, only to later find out he was actually a twenty-year-old named Wally
Bryan.
This and similar cases of misidentification explain why baseball teams are starting to apply genetic tests to
the prospects they’re scouting. Typically, the player is invited to provide a DNA sample from himself and
his parents to confirm that he’s no older than he claims. The player pays for the test and is reimbursed if
the results show he was telling the truth.
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QUE STIONS
1. Many experts in genetics consider testing an unethical violation of personal privacy.
o What does it mean to “violate personal privacy”?
o Can a utilitarian argument (the greatest good for the greatest number should be sought) in favor
of DNA testing in the Dominican Republic be mounted? What could it look like?
2. In the baseball world, other tests that clearly are allowed as part of the hiring process include testing a
player’s strength and speed. Is there anything in the fair application of these tests that may ethically
allow—even require—that baseball teams extract DNA to confirm the age?
3. Assume you accept that testing a prospect’s age is a bona fide occupational qualification (after all,
the job is to be a prospect: a developing player, not an adult one). Once you accept that, how do
you draw the line? Couldn’t teams be tempted to use DNA facts for other purposes?
The Times article interviews a coach who puts it this way:
I know [the baseball teams taking the DNA samples] are looking into trying to figure out
susceptibility to injuries, things like that. If they come up with a test that shows someone’s
connective tissue is at a high risk of not holding up, can that be used? I don’t know. [5]
Can you formulate an ethical argument in favor of teams secretly using DNA tests to do just that,
check for as many yellow and red flags as possible in the young prospect’s genetic code?
4. Baseball scouting—the job of hiring excellent future players and screening out mediocre ones—is very
competitive. Those who do it well are paid well; those who don’t are cycled out quickly to make room for
someone else. You have the job, you have the DNA sample. What do you do? Why?
5. You decide to do the test in question four. The problem is people aren’t trees; you can’t age them
just by counting genetic rings—you also need to do some cross-testing with the parents’ DNA. You
do that and run into a surprise: it turns out that the young prospect’s father who’s so proud of his
athletic son isn’t the biological dad. Now what?
o Is there an argument here against DNA testing, period? What is it?
o Remember, the family paid for the test. Do you have a responsibility to give them these results?
Explain.
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6. Lou Gehrig was the first athlete ever to appear on a box of Wheaties. From 1925 to 1939 he played for the
Yankees in every game: 2,130 straight appearances, a record that lasted more than fifty years. He was
voted into the baseball Hall of Fame in 1939. He died in 1941 from a genetic disorder—yes, Lou Gehrig’s
disease—that today’s DNA tests would identify. Is there an ethical argument here against DNA testing of
prospects or one in favor? Or is the argument about this more theoretical—should the rules be decided
regardless of what has actually happened at some time or place? Explain.
7. In a different sport, the sprinter Caster Semenya won the world eight-hundred-meter challenge in 2009
with a time that few men could equal. She looked, in fact, vaguely like a man, which led the International
Athletics Federation to run a genetic gender test. She is, it turns out, neither a woman nor a man; she’s a
hermaphrodite: a little bit of both. Does the fact that genetic tests don’t always return clean, black-andwhite
results make their use less advisable from an ethical perspective? Why or why not?
Windfall at Goldman
Source: Photo courtesy of Manuel Cernuda, http://www.flickr.com/photos/melkorcete/180238980/.
Goldman Sachs is an expansive financial services company. Many clients are institutional: private
companies and government organizations wanting to raise cash seek Goldman’s help in packaging and
then selling stock or bonds. On the other side, private investors—wealthy individuals wanting to multiply
their riches—receive a hearty welcome at Goldman because they have the cash to purchase those stocks
and bonds. Ultimately, Goldman Sachs is a hub where large companies, governmental powers, and
wealthy people come and do business together.
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Executives at Goldman Sachs are among the world’s highest paid. According to a New York Times article,
“At the center of Goldman’s lucrative compensation program is the partnership. Goldman’s partners are
its highest executives and its biggest stars. Yet while Goldman is required to report compensation for its
top officers, it releases very little information about this broader group, remaining tightlipped about even
basic information like who is currently a partner.” [6]
The rest of the article investigates this shadowy partnership. The conclusions: “Goldman has almost 860
current and former partners. In the last 12 years, they have cashed out more than $20 billion in Goldman
shares and currently hold more than $10 billion in Goldman stock.”
This tally of accumulated wealth in Goldman stock doesn’t even include the standard salary and cash
bonuses the partners receive, but leaving that aside, here’s the math: $30 billion divided by 860 divided
by 12 should give some sense of the wealth each of these corporate stars is accumulating over the course of
a year. To give a provisional idea of how large the number of dollars is here, when you try plugging $30
billion into an iPhone calculator, you find the screen can’t even hold a number that long. Using a different
calculator yields this result: $2.9 million per partner every year.
The 2.9 million can be compared with the salary earned by the average American: $50,000 a year. The
Goldman partner gets that in less than a week. This huge money explains the clawing fight that goes on
inside Goldman to become a partner. The odds are long. Each time the books are opened to admit a new
class, only 1 of 330 Goldman employees makes the cut. It is, in the words of one former partner, “a very
Darwinian, survival-of-the-fittest firm.”
In the public comments section of the New York Times story about Goldman, a person identified as GHP
picks up on the firm’s characterization as a “Darwinian, survival-of-the-fittest” place. He wrote, “The
French revolution was also very Darwinian, let’s give that a try.” During the French Revolution, the
wealthy and powerful were rewarded with a trip to the guillotine.
Probably, GHP isn’t just annoyed about how much money executives at Goldman make, he, like a lot of
people, is peeved by the fact that the company was bailed out by the federal government during the 2008–
9 financial crisis. Had the taxpayers (people making $50,000) not kicked in, Goldman might’ve gone
bankrupt, and all that money its partners accumulated in stock would’ve vanished. As it happens, the US
government’s bailout was masterminded by US Treasury Secretary Henry Paulson. His previous job was
CEO (and partner) at Goldman.
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QUE STIONS
1. Goldman is dominated by a “Darwinian, survival-of-the-fittest” mentality. What does that mean?
o In ethical terms, how can this mentality be justified?
o Would a company dominated by this mentality, whether it’s Goldman or not, be more likely to
announce job openings to a limited public, or as a massive public announcement? Why?
2. Describe the advantages of a “behavioral interview.” If you were in charge of hiring for a company seeking
employees who flourish in a survival-of-the-fittest environment, what kind of question might you ask in a
behavioral interview? Why?
3. One contributor to the New York Times comments section writes, “There are sure to be lots of
pointed, angry posts about how unfair it is that these guys make so much money etc. But if we are
honest, there is a fair amount of envy and pure remorse that we weren’t bright enough to go
down that path! And these guys are very bright.”
How could these comments be construed to explain why high wages and big bonuses are used by
Goldman to motivate its workers? What is it that makes big money (or the possibility of big
money) function as a powerful motivator to encourage employees to work hard and well?
Ethically, how can this use of big money be justified?
4. One difference between offering an employee a wage increase and offering a bonus is that the
latter doesn’t come automatically the next year. The employee has to earn it from scratch all over
again.
o Why might managers at Goldman award their best workers with a bonus instead of a wage
increase?
o By appeal to an ethical theory, could you make the case that, in general, employees should be
paid mainly through a bonus system? How would the theory work at two extremes: wealthy
Goldman executives and waitresses at a corner diner?
5. Given the kind of work that’s done at Goldman—bringing wealthy people and powerful organizations
together to make deals—why might party aptitude (the ability to mix socially after hours) be considered
when deciding who does and who doesn’t make partner at Goldman? How could that decision be justified
ethically? How could it be criticized ethically?
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6. Make the case that in theoretical terms, managers at Goldman have an ethical responsibility to institute
the process of rank and yank.
The Five O’Clock Club
Source: Photo courtesy of C.P. Storm, http://www.flickr.com/photos/cpstorm/140115572/.
A Washington Post story about firing employees relates that some companies use “the surgical method:
terminations that last about 15 seconds, after which former employees are ushered off company
property.”[7]
It doesn’t have to be that way, though. For about $2,000 per fired employee, the outplacement company
Five O’Clock Club will help employers manage the actual termination moment more compassionately.
Later on, the fired worker receives a year of career coaching to help get back on track.
What do the Five O’Clock Club recommend managers do at the critical moment when giving the bad
news? To answer, according to the Post, they offer a booklet titled How to Terminate Employees While
Respecting Human Dignity, which “asks managers to approach layoffs with the understanding that,
‘unlike facilities and equipment, humans have an intrinsic worth beyond their contribution to the
organization.’” [8]
Then some catchphrases are provided for managers to use:
 George, you’ve been a trooper. I’m sorry that this organization has moved in a different direction.
 George, you have made many good friends here. We hope those friendships will continue.
 George, you have made considerable and long-lasting contributions and they are acknowledged and
appreciated. [9]
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Five O’Clock Club vice president Kim Hall—who downs a lot of Tylenol and coffee on the job—relates
several other phrases that may be helpful:
 I know this is hard, but you’ll get back on your feet.
 The timing could actually work in your favor. A lot of people take vacation in the summer. There’s no
competition for job hunters.
 Maybe this is a chance to begin your dream career. Follow your heart.[10]
In sum, the Five O’Clock Club helps workers feel better when they’re fired, and helps them get on with
their lives. Meanwhile, employers get a hedge against lawsuits. The outplacement service, according to the
Five O’Clock Club literature, “can redirect anger or anxiety away from the organization and…encourage
the newly-fired to sign their severance agreements so they can get on with their lives.” [11]
QUE STIONS
1. The Five O’Clock Club charges $2,000 per firing. If you were fired, would you prefer to receive the
compassionate end the Five O’Clock Club provides, or just get shown the door but also get to keep
that $2,000 for yourself?
o If you’re the boss, do you have the right to decide this for the fired employee? Why or why not?
o If you’re the boss, do you have the responsibility to decide this for the fired employee? Why or
why not?
2. According to the Five O’Clock Club, “Unlike facilities and equipment, humans have an intrinsic
worth beyond their contribution to the organization.”
o Does this sound like utilitarian ethical thinking to you, or is it more in line with the notion of an
ethics guided by basic duties and rights? Why?
o Probably, everyone agrees that humans aren’t just machines that can be installed and replaced.
But can an ethical argument be made to treat people in the workplace as machines—that is, to
abruptly hire them when they’re useful and fire them when they’re not? What ethical theory (or
theories) could help you make the case?
3. In general terms, here are three firing situations:
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o an economic downturn (good workers are sacked because the company can’t afford to keep
them)
o rank and yank (workers are fulfilling their duties but not as well as most of the others)
o misbehavior (a worker is fired directly because of something done or not done)
Looking at these three contexts and the Five O’Clock Club, do you think their services should be
hired in all three situations? Do the ethics of firing change depending on why the person is being
fired? Explain.
4. Recall some of the Five O’Clock Club’s pre-packed firing sentences:
o George, you’ve been a trooper. I’m sorry that this organization has moved in a different direction.
o George, you have made many good friends here. We hope….
o George, you…are acknowledged and appreciated.
o Maybe this is a chance to begin your dream career. Follow your heart.
The contrasting method of firing employees—the surgical method—is to look the person in the
eye, say you’re fired, and have security march the ex-employee out the door, all in less than a
minute.
o Is it possible to make the case that the surgical method is actually more compassionate and
respectful?
o Is there a place for compassion in business? From a manager’s perspective, how should
compassion be defined within a business context?
5. Maybe the Five O’Clock Club gets hired because a company really wants to help and support fired
employees. Or maybe the company doesn’t really care about them; all they want is to avoid wrongful
termination lawsuits. Ethically, does it matter why the company contracts the Five O’Clock Club? Explain.
[1] “Sexual Orientation in the Fashion Industry,” Love This! (blog), accessed May 24,
2011,http://lovethis.wordpress.com/2007/07/28/sexual-orientation-in-the-fashion-industry.
[2] Rob Capriccioso, “Divinely Inspired Bias?,” Higher Ed, March 1, 2006, accessed May 24,
2011, http://www.insidehighered.com/news/2006/03/01/charleston.
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[3] Rob Capriccioso, “Divinely Inspired Bias?,” Higher Ed, March 1, 2006, accessed May 24,
2011, http://www.insidehighered.com/news/2006/03/01/charleston.
[4] Michael S. Schmidt and Alan Schwarz, “Baseball’s Use of DNA Raises Questions,” New York Times, July 21, 2009,
accessed May 24, 2011,http://www.nytimes.com/2009/07/22/sports/baseball/22dna.html?hp.
[5] Michael S. Schmidt and Alan Schwarz, “Baseball’s Use of DNA Raises Questions,” New York Times, July 21, 2009,
accessed May 24, 2011,http://www.nytimes.com/2009/07/22/sports/baseball/22dna.html?hp.
[6] Susanne Craig and Eric Dash, “Study Points to Windfall for Goldman Partners,” New York Times, January 18,
2011, accessed May 24, 2011,http://dealbook.nytimes.com/2011/01/18/study-points-to-windfall-for-goldmanpartners/?
hp.
[7] Eli Saslow, “The Art of Letting Employees Go,” Washington Post, August 9, 2009, accessed May 24,
2011, http://www.washingtonpost.com/wpdyn/
content/article/2009/08/08/AR2009080802659.html?hpid=topnews.
[8] Eli Saslow, “The Art of Letting Employees Go,” Washington Post, August 9, 2009, accessed May 24,
2011, http://www.washingtonpost.com/wpdyn/
content/article/2009/08/08/AR2009080802659.html?hpid=topnews.
[9] Eli Saslow, “The Art of Letting Employees Go,” Washington Post, August 9, 2009, accessed May 24,
2011, http://www.washingtonpost.com/wpdyn/
content/article/2009/08/08/AR2009080802659.html?hpid=topnews.
[10] Eli Saslow, “The Art of Letting Employees Go,” Washington Post, August 9, 2009, accessed May 24,
2011, http://www.washingtonpost.com/wpdyn/
content/article/2009/08/08/AR2009080802659.html?hpid=topnews.
[11] Eli Saslow, “The Art of Letting Employees Go,” Washington Post, August 9, 2009, accessed May 24,
2011, http://www.washingtonpost.com/wpdyn/
content/article/2009/08/08/AR2009080802659.html?hpid=topnews.
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Chapter 9
Manager’s Ethics: Deciding on a Corporate Culture and
Making It Work
Chapter Overview
Chapter 9 “Manager’s Ethics: Deciding on a Corporate Culture and Making It Work” examines some
ethical decisions facing managers. It considers how leaders guide organizations by selecting and then
instilling the specific values and culture that define a workplace.
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9.1 What Is Corporate Culture?
LEARNING OBJECTIVES
1. Define the concept of corporate culture or, more broadly, organizational culture.
2. Learn to recognize and distinguish specific organizational cultures.
3. Consider ways that a culture may be instilled in an organization.
I’m a Mac, and I’m a PC
“I’m a Mac, and I’m a PC” is the first line from a set of advertisements produced for Apple. [1] Two guys
stand in front of a white screen, a step or two apart. The one pretending to be an Apple Macintosh
computer looks a lot like you’d expect the typical Apple computer user to look: casual, young, and cool;
he’s not stressed but certainly alert and thoughtful. He hasn’t had a haircut in a while, but the situation
isn’t out of control. He speaks up for himself without being aggressive. His t-shirt is clean, his jeans
reliable, and his tennis shoes stylish. The PC, on the other hand, can’t relax in a polyester suit that’s a half
size too small, especially for his inflated waistline. Bulky glasses slide down his greasy nose. Short, parted
hair glues to his head. He’s clean, shaven, and very earnest. In one of the commercials, the PC man talks
about the things he does well: calculation, spreadsheets, and pie charts. The Mac responds that he feels
more comfortable helping users make their own movies and organize their music collections.
Underneath these ads there are two very different corporate cultures, two very different kinds of
companies making two very different products even though both sell their machines in the store’s
computer section. Now, because this is advertising and it’s paid for by Apple, we should take the claims
being made with a grain of salt. And, obviously, Apple didn’t air these spots because they wanted to
exhibit their corporate culture. They wanted to sell computers (and hammer the competition in the
process). None of that, however, changes the fact that the commercials do a good job of displaying what a
difference between corporate cultures looks like. It looks like these two guys. They’re both capable and
dedicated, but everything about each of them makes the other one squirm; it’s hard to imagine they could
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work well together because their habits and comportments—everything from how they dress to the way
the talk—is so completely different.
The same can be said about workplaces. It’s easy to imagine a kind of office where PC fits nicely. People
there would wear ties and skirts. They’d be punctual. Their days and working styles would be regimented
and predictable. Employees would have their own cubicle offices, and anyone proposing an “informal
Friday” break from the dress code would be looked on with suspicion. By contrast, Mac would function
well in an open, warehouse-like space with a bike rack out front. Flextime would be common—that is,
people arriving earlier or later in the morning depending on their preference and on the circumstances of
their lives (whether they have children, when they can avoid rush-hour traffic). Regardless of when they
show up, they take responsibility for making sure they log a full workday. The attire would be casual and
diverse. Maybe the boss wears jeans. Some people would probably be annoying others with their loud
music, but everyone would force smiles and be tolerant.
One of the reasons the Apple ad works well is that it resists the temptation to simply say Apple is superior.
Yes, PC is dorky and Apple is cool, but Apple does admit that PC really is better at analytic-type activities
like producing clean spreadsheets. The same mixed findings apply to corporate culture. At the PC office,
the clothes aren’t nearly as comfortable as the ones you find at the Mac place, but at least there aren’t any
guys wearing jeans that fall a little too low over their back end. And the flextime scheduling at Apple may
make for a happier workforce, but only until it happens that a project suddenly arises and needs to be
executed immediately, and one of the key participants has flex-timed and already left for the day. The
other team members are left, that means, to do his share of the work. What about the bike racks outside?
Everyone agrees that it’s great that the Mac people are peddling to work, but only until a morning
thunderstorm pops up and no one can make it to the office. The point is there are advantages and
drawbacks to every corporate culture. It’s hard to say that one is better than another (just like Macs work
for some people while others prefer PCs), but it’s certainly true that there are different value systems
beneath the distinct cultures.
Anyone who has a management role in any organization will be expected to have a grip on what values
guide the enterprise and how they reflect in the day-to-day life of people on the job. Further, some
managers—and all entrepreneurs—will not only need to apply guiding values; they’ll have to select and
create them.
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Definitions of Corporate Culture
Corporate culture is easier to get intuitively than put into words. Because you can’t touch it, measure it, or
take its picture (even though you can show two people in an advertisement who obviously belong to
different corporate cultures), it’s not surprising that there’s no consensus definition attached to the term.
Here are three attempts to put the idea in words. A corporate culture is
 “the shared beliefs top managers have in a company about how they should manage themselves and other
employees, and how they should conduct their business”; [2]
 “the pattern of shared values and beliefs that gives members of an institution meaning and provides them
with rules for behavior in their organization”; [3]
 “a general constellation of beliefs, mores, customs, value systems and behavioral norms, and ways of
doing business that are unique to each corporation, that set a pattern for corporate activities and actions,
and that describe the implicit and emergent patterns of behavior and emotions characterizing life in the
organization.” [4]
There are common threads to these cited definitions and some points that may be added:
 Corporate culture is shared; it’s not like a regulation or a code that’s imposed from some specific place
outside the organization. The culture may begin that way, but once installed, it belongs to all those
participating in the workplace.
 Corporate culture provides guidance. It’s not a potted plant to be looked at; corporate culture tells an
employee that the Daffy Duck necktie is too far out there and should be left in the closet. The pumpkin
necktie, however, is OK as long as we’re coming up on Halloween. Analogously, though more significantly,
it tells a salesman whether it’s OK to flagrantly lie to a customer, to stretch the truth a little, or only to play
it straight.
 Corporate culture provides meaning in the organization; it tells members why they are there. At Goldman
Sachs, the bottom line really is the bottom line: people are there to make money. At Greenpeace, by
contrast, people arrive in the morning to protect the planet, and while it’s true that many receive a
paycheck for their efforts, that’s not the reason they show up for work.
 Corporate culture is top heavy; management carries the heaviest burden. Unlike simple office codes—such
as turning in your expense reports within a week of terminating travel—that apply to people more or less
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uniformly, the burden of understanding and promulgating the organization’s culture falls heavily, though
not exclusively, on the leaders.
 A corporate culture is a constellation of values, a set of ways of seeing the business world.
 The constellation of cultural values is dynamic; everyone involved every day stretches and pushes the
organization’s culture.
 An organization’s culture is organic; it’s born and grows with the organization. It dies there too.
 The organization’s culture includes life values, ones that cross beyond purely business concerns to touch
questions including, “Is it OK to date someone from work?” “Can I cry at my desk?” “Will anyone object if
I have a shouting match with my wife from the telephone in my cubicle?”
This list isn’t exhaustive. It does, however, show how thoroughly corporate culture penetrates the
workday.
What’s My Organization’s Culture?
Managers’ job responsibilities include protecting and promoting their organization’s culture. Fulfilling the
responsibility requires determining exactly what culture lives in the workplace. There’s no secret decoding
mechanism, but there are a number of indicating questions that may be asked. One of the most natural is
to brainstorm associated words. For example, imagine visiting two offices, one filled with people who look
like the Apple Mac from the commercial, and the other with those who’d fit naturally into the office where
PCs are bought and used. Just looking at the commercial and jotting words as they flow might lead to lists
beginning this way:
 On the Apple side: sloppy, fun, warm, loose, careless, resigned, informal, smart, creative, soft-spoken,
controlled, cool, and haughty.
 On the PC side: uptight, formal, reliable, demanding, uncomfortable, determined, perfectionist, detail
oriented, disciplined, unconcerned with appearances, and geeky.
These are short, rapidly composed lists, but they’re developed enough to observe two profiles of work-life
peeking out. You can see that that the Apple office is going to fit closely with values including comfort,
innovation, and independence, while the PC office will be more compatible with values including
reliability and responsibility. You can count on the PC office to get things done, but if you’re looking for
something outside the box, you may be better off going the Apple route.
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Other questions getting at the heart of an organization’s culture and basic values include these dealing
with the workplace time: How many hours are expected at work each week? Is there flextime? Is there
telecommuting? Is there a punch clock or some other kind of employee time-in-the-office monitoring? Is
it more important that the employee be present or that the work gets done? In some offices it’s the
former; in others, the latter.
Then there are questions about employee interaction. Is each worker situated in a private room or a more
open, common space? Do people tend to compete with each other or is teamwork a higher value? To the
extent there’s individual competition, how far does it go? Is it a good-natured jousting, or closer to hostile
blood sport? Of course different kinds of organizations are going to recommend themselves to one side or
the other of the spectrum. For example, a doctor’s office, an archeological dig, a construction company are
relatively good places to value teamwork. A stockbroking office, a pro basketball team, and an actors’
studio are spots where you may want to encourage individuals to outdo those around them.
What’s the workplace mood? Fun? Somber? Energetic? Modern? Traditional? Many Volkswagen
dealerships are remarkable for their huge windows and sunlight; it’s a kind of work environment for the
sales staff meant to encourage an open, airy feel conducive to car buying. Elevated heating and cooling
costs go along with all that glass, however, and different workplaces where money is valued more than
ambience may choose to cut operating costs with a drabber space. Going beyond the architecture,
different offices have different moods. It’s pretty rare that you see practical jokes or trash-basket
basketball games going on at the dentist’s office. On the other hand, anyone who’s ever operated a call
center telephone knows there’s a solid chunk of each workday dedicated to high jinks.
Is the workplace personalized? Some office cubicles burst with family snapshots and personal
memorabilia. Most assembly lines, on the other hand, are practically devoid of individual touches.
Are employee’s workers or people doing work? If the former—if the value the organization attributes to
those receiving paychecks is limited to what they do to earn the check—then few resources will be
dedicated to supplemental and benefits. On the other side, a corporate culture valuing its employees as
people may provide extra vacation time, health insurance, and retirement plans. Branching out further,
you can get an idea of a workplace culture by checking to see if a gym or exercise room is provided. Day
care for those with young children is another sign of the corporate culture that values workers as integral
people.
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Dress codes reflect the organization’s values. Is uniformity or individuality more highly prized? If
uniformity is the rule, what kind is it? In some advertising agencies, for example, the people who work in
the creative department conceiving the commercials at first appear to be a diverse collection of
independent-minded dressers, but get a few together and you’ll immediately perceive a uniform that’s as
binding as the most traditional office—it’s just that ratty jeans replace slacks and clever t-shirts replace
neckties.
Another cultural indicator runs through the employees’ leisure time. Where do people hang out? Do they
go to football games, the opera, and church? Do they spend their weekend mornings on family excursions
because they have spouses and children, or are they still in bed, sleeping off the night before? More, is
leisure time spent with coworkers? Do employees get together just because they enjoy each other’s
company? If they do, the social outings are more likely to occur in connection with organizations seeking a
harmonious workforce and expending resources to foster camaraderie on the job. They’re less likely to
occur at organizations where everyone is fiercely competing with everyone else, as sometimes happens,
for example, at stockbrokerages.
Healthy community interaction is a value emphasized in some corporate cultures. Everyone has seen the
“adopt a highway” signs indicating that a local firm or group has taken responsibility for keeping a stretch
of highway litter-free. The professional sports leagues have traditionally asked players to dedicate some
season and off-season time to community outreach. Other kinds of organizations, by contrast, may not
even have a local community. Telecommuting and cloud computing mean employees can easily form a
functioning organization with members living in different states, even different countries.
Social cause activism is another marker of corporate culture. The shoemaker TOMS Shoes fights rural
poverty in developing nations by donating shoes. Other companies focus entirely on doing well in the forprofit
marketplace.
Political action may (or may not) infuse a corporate culture. Many companies steer clear of overt or even
hints of political partisanship for fear of alienating one or the other half of the electorate. This is especially
true for larger enterprises spread across the entire country, drawing consumers from liberal corners of
San Francisco, conservative bastions of north Dallas, and the libertarian towns of New Hampshire. Local
businesses, however, especially those catering to relatively homogenous communities, may find no
downside to flipping the switch on political activism and breeding partisanship as a guiding value. The
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company Manhattan Mini Storage provides (obviously) storage for household items in Manhattan. Their
big competition comes from warehouses in New Jersey. The Manhattan Mini Storage billboard ads read,
“If You Store Your Things in New Jersey, They May Come Back Republican.” This appeal may work pretty
well in central New York City, but it won’t seem very funny most other places.
Like politics, religious belief and doctrine are rarely set at the center of the largest corporations, but
smaller outfits operating in a narrow social context may well embody a particular faith.
Conclusion. Taken together, these categories of values begin shaping the particular culture defining an
organization.
How Is Organizational Culture Instilled?
A specific culture may be instilled in an organization through a set of published rules for employees to
follow or by the example of leaders and employees already working inside the organization.
Instilling a culture through established rules typically means publishing an organizational code governing
behavior, expectations, and attitudes. The multinational firm Henkel—the company that invented laundry
detergent and today produces many cleaning and health products sold under different brand names
around the world—has published this kind of code. It’s quite long, but here’s an edited section:
Shared values form the foundation of our behavior and our actions throughout Henkel. Every
single person plays a key role here. It is the sum of our actions that makes Henkel what it is—a
lively corporate culture in which change is embraced as opportunity and everyone is committed
to continuous improvement.
Our Values
1. We are customer driven.
2. We develop superior brands and technologies.
3. We aspire to excellence in quality.
4. We strive for innovation.
5. We embrace change.
6. We are successful because of our people.
7. We are committed to shareholder value.
8. We are dedicated to sustainability and corporate social responsibility.
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9. We communicate openly and actively.
10. We preserve the tradition of an open family company. [5]
This statement sounds good in general. The stubborn problem, however, with trying to capture a
corporate culture with a string of dictates and definitions parallels the ones constantly faced in ethics
when trying to make decisions by adhering to pre-established rules and duties: frequently, the specific
situation is far more complicated than the written code’s clear application. So, in the case of Henkel, we
learn that they embrace change, but does that mean employees can change the dress code by showing up
for work in their pajamas? Does it mean managers should rank and yank: should they constantly fire the
lowest-performing workers and replace them with fresh, young talent in order to keep turnover going in
the office? There’s no way to answer those questions by just looking at the code. And that creates the
threat of an at least perceived cultural dissonance within the organization—that is, a sense that what
actually happens on the ground doesn’t jibe with the lofty principles supposedly controlling things from
above.
Social Conditioning
The second form of instilling a culture doesn’t work through rules but through social conditioning; it’s not
about written codes so much as the cues provided by the customs of the workplace, by the way people
speak and act in the organization. New employees, in other words, don’t read handbooks but look around,
listen, and try to fit in.
In his book Business Ethics, O. C. Ferrell lists some of the social ways a culture infiltrates the
organization. [6] Selecting a few of those and adding others yields this list:
1. The founder’s ethical legacy to the organization may contribute to its living culture. Wal-
Mart’s founder Sam Walton was a legend in austerity; he industriously minimized costs so in-store prices
could be lowered correspondingly. This is a continuing aspect of Wal-Mart’s cultural legacy, though it can
be controversial on other fronts. Some complain that Wal-Mart is in essence encouraging third world
sweatshop labor by ruthlessly granting contracts to lowest-cost providers.
2. Stories and myths embedded in daily conversations may indicate culturally appropriate
conduct. Warren Buffett, leader of the Berkshire Hathaway investment group is a kind of Yogi Berra of
the finance world, a highly skilled professional with a knack for encapsulating pieces of wisdom. Here’s a
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paraphrase of one of Buffett’s thoughts, “I’m rich because I’ve always sold too early and bought too late.”
Conservative investing, the lesson is, yields value for shareholders. It’s also a high ethical value within the
corporate culture he tries to nurture.
3. Heroes or stars in the organization may consistently communicate a common message
about the organization’s guiding values. There’s a difference between lists of values written up in a
handbook and a group of leaders who together consistently talk about guiding values and live by them.
4. The dress, speech, and physical work setting may be arranged to cohere with the
organization’s values. The United Nations threw a wrench into its own efforts to reduce global carbon
emissions by scheduling its thirteenth annual global warming meeting in Bali. The weather was nice there,
but since most participants came from the United States and Europe, it became difficult not to notice that
the values of the organization’s handbook (control of carbon emissions) didn’t jibe with the values of the
organization’s members (burn tons of jet fuel to work in a place with sunny beaches). On the other hand,
the UN Foundation—which advocates reduced greenhouse gas emissions and similar—recently moved
into an environmentally friendly building with cubicles formed from a biodegradable product and many
similar, environmentally friendly features. [7]
5. An organizational culture may reinforce itself through self-selective processes. A selfselective
process is one where individuals effectively select themselves into a group as opposed to being
chosen by others. Hiring presents a good example. Presumably, when an organization hires new
employees, certain filters are constructed to reduce the applicant pool to those most likely to succeed. The
process becomes self-selective, however, when job interviews are conducted as they are at Google. There,
perspective employees are faced with bizarre questions that have nothing to do with the typical “Why do
you want to work at Google?” and “Why would you excel at this job?” Instead, they get the following:
o You have five pirates, ranked from five to one in descending order. The top pirate has the right to propose
how a hundred gold coins should be divided among them. But the others get to vote on his plan, and if
fewer than half agree with him, he gets killed. How should he allocate the gold in order to maximize his
share but live to enjoy it? (Hint: One pirate ends up with 98 percent of the gold.)
o A man pushed his car to a hotel and lost his fortune. What happened?
o Explain the significance of “dead beef.”
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In response, some applicants will dive into the challenges excitedly, while others will find the whole
process really weird and prefer not to be caught within a mile of a place where job interviewers ask such
bizarre questions. In the end, those who enjoy and want to continue with the job application process are
precisely those who will fit in at Google. Perspectives, that means, select themselves.
Conclusion. Two ways a corporate culture may be instilled and nurtured in a workplace are a list of codes
to be followed and a set of social techniques that subtly ensure those sharing a workspace also share
values corresponding with the organization.
KEY TAKEAWAYS
 An organizational culture is the set of values defining how and why members live at work.
 Distinguishing an organizational culture requires observing a range of values from the way people dress
to the degree of cooperation and competition in the workplace.
 An organization’s culture may be instilled through codes and rules.
 An organization’s culture may be instilled through social cues and pressures.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
1. List five aspects of a corporate or organizational culture.
2. Describe two workplace decisions that may be determined by a corporate culture.
3. List some questions you could ask about a workplace that would start to give you a sense of its culture.
4. What are five ways that an organization may attempt to instill a culture through social conditioning?
5. In your own experience in a job or any organization, what’s an example of social conditioning that
enforced the place’s culture?
[1] “‘Get a Mac’ Collection,” YouTube video, 9:39, posted by “Aploosh,” February 26,
2007,http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=siSHJfPWxs8.
[2] “Can this Man Save Labor?” BusinessWeek, September 24, 2004, 84.
[3] Robert Kuttner, “Labor and Management—Will They Ever Wise-Up?” BusinessWeek, May 9, 1994, 16.
[4] Simon Head, “Inside the Leviathan,” New York Review of Books, December 16, 2004, 88.
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[5] Henkel North America, Vision and Values (Düsseldorf, Germany: Henkel AG & Co.,
2008),http://businessethicsworkshop.com/Chapter_9/images/HenkelNorthAmerica_ Vision_and_Values.pdf.
[6] O. C. Ferrell, John Fraedrich, and Linda Ferrell, Business Ethics, 7th ed. (Boston: Houghton Mifflin, 2008), 181.
[7] “UN Foundation Green Building,” YouTube video, 2:23, posted by “unfoundation,” February 14, 2008, accessed
May 25, 2011, http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=15_MdcSUlSY.
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9.2 The Relation between Organizational Culture and
Knowing the Right Thing to Do
LEARNING OBJECTIVES
1. Delineate an ethically questionable organizational culture.
2. Consider responses to an ethically questionable organizational culture.
3. Define compliance in the business world.
4. Discuss a way of measuring compliance.
Dishonesty in the Fish Market
A frequently recurring business ethics question involves dishonesty: when, if ever, is it OK to lie, to stretch
the truth, to not tell the whole truth? A simple scene of deceit goes like this: A fish dealer sells both
expensive salmon caught in the wild and relatively cheap farmed salmon. Occasionally, he switches the
farmed for the wild—a change that’s very difficult to detect through appearance or taste, even by expert
chefs—and pockets the difference. Randy Hartnell is a fish dealer in New York who suspected that a lot of
that kind of dishonest fish switching was going on among his competitors. He investigated and published
an Internet report. As he tells it, he visited the famed Fulton Fish Market in lower Manhattan and found
some dealers openly admitting that the fish they were selling as wild had actually come from a farm. [1]
This led the New York Times to do a follow-up story. Using sophisticated chemical tests,
the Times confirmed that, yes, at six of eight places sampled, fish being sold as wild for about thirty
dollars per pound was actually farmed salmon, which typically sells for about ten dollars a pound.
In the six bad cases, the person who actually made the switch participated in an organization where one or
both of two things were true about the culture:
1. Profit was understood as being more important than honesty.
2. Honesty was presumably important, but recalcitrant workers paid little attention and sacrificed the truth
to make a buck.
These are two very different situations, and they lead to distinct discussions: One has to do with choices
being made about what specific culture to instill in an organization. The other concerns compliance,
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which, in the business world, measures the distance between what an organizations says it believes and
what its members actually do.
An Ethically Questionable Corporate Culture
The first situation—one where a fish seller puts profit above honesty because that’s just the way things are
done in the company—is one which most outside observers would categorize as fundamentally corrupt.
Everyone inside the operation knows what’s going on—principal and peripheral members are lying to
bring in money—and newcomers are meant to pick up on and continue the practice. The organization
itself is dishonest.
What responses are available? First, we need to check whether a serious attempt is being made, or there’s
a real interest in making a serious attempt, to justify the deceitful actions. If there isn’t, if management
and leaders of a fish-selling business aren’t interested in ethical debates, there’s not much ethical
arguments can do about it. For those wishing to change a situation like this, the law (criminal and civil)
presents good venues for action. Bad publicity in the New York Times might do the trick too.
If, on the other hand, there is an interest on the organization’s part in justifying their actions from an
ethical viewpoint, we could ask, “Can institutionalized lying be justified and, if so, how?” Three possible
answers run through three distinct ethical theories: duty theory, consequentialist-utilitarian theory,
egoism:
1. Can basic duty theories justify putting profits above honesty? Probably not. Duty theories affirm that right
and wrong is determined by a set of unchanging rules, and they typically include don’t steal, don’t lie, and
similar. Because this kind of ethics starts from the proposition that dishonesty is wrong, it’s hard to see a
non-frivolous way of justifying the fish seller’s deceit.
2. Can a consequentialist-utilitarian theory justify putting profits above honesty? Utilitarian theory is
oriented by the common welfare. Acts in business—whether it’s lying or doing anything else—are defined
as acceptable or reproachable depending on whether they end up doing the most good for the most
people. Any act, the theory affirms, that ultimately makes more people happier is good.
In this case, we can imagine an organization promoting lying as a common operating principal and
making the case that the ethical stance is, in fact, good. Every Christmas, department stores deploy heavy
men in red suits to proclaim that they live at the North Pole and ride a sleigh pulled by reindeer. The
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stores promote these fictions—addressed to innocent children, no less—to make money. Almost no one
finds that ethically objectionable, however. One reason is that they’re implicitly accepting the affirmation
that an act making people happier in the end is good, even if it’s dishonest. Similarly, the CIA covert
operations branch (undercover spying, insofar as it truly exists) fits a utilitarian mold. In this
organization, lying is good because it ultimately serves the American national interest and the basic
principles of liberal democracies. Again here, the effects of what’s done matters more than what’s done.
Finally, can this reasoning be applied to the lying fish seller? Maybe. As the New York Times story notes,
the truth is that even the highest-level chefs and experts have a hard time distinguishing farmed from wild
salmon. There is, therefore, a kind of placebo effect for food. If the fake stuff tastes just as good as the real
thing, and the only real difference between selling one or the other is that the fish dealer makes out like a
bandit, then an argument could be formed that the double-dealing does, in fact, increase happiness (the
fish dealer’s) without hurting anyone else. Therefore, the dishonesty is ethically justifiable. In practical
terms, however, it’s difficult to see how this strategy could get too far. Sooner or later someone is going to
notice the difference, and as people begin to feel scammed (and therefore unhappy), the justification for
the double-dealing crumbles.
3. Can an ethical theory of egoism justify putting profits above honesty? Egoism is a coherent ethical
approach to the world that does offer some justification for a deceitful fish trader. On this account, the
ethical good for organizations and individuals in the economic world is defined as just whatever serves the
organization’s or individual’s interest. And switching in the farmed stuff in for the wild is good for the fish
sellers. (It’s hard to find any other explanation for the fact that, as the New York Times discovered, fully
75 percent of the places where fish was sold had some switching going on.) By definition, then, the dealing
is ethically justifiable under this theory. Of course, most proponents of egoism in the business world don’t
stop there. They go on to note that other, honest dealers who are pursuing their interests have a good
reason to reveal the fraud. And, as it turns out, that’s just what honest dealer Randy Hartnell did,
presumably helping his own business in the process.
Conclusion. Organizational cultures that incorporate lying as an acceptable part of day-to-day business do
exist. Whether or not these cultures are ethically justifiable depends on the deep theoretical stances
people adopt when going into business.
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The Ethics of Compliance
What happens when an organization’s principles are laudable, but they don’t get put into practice by the
people actually doing the work? What happens, the question is, when an enterprise (say, a fish-selling
operation) internally promotes basic values including honesty, but outside in the world where the
transactions happen, the lesson is lost and individual sellers are swapping farmed for wild salmon?
In the business world, this is called a breakdown in compliance. Of course there are different reasons for
compliance failure, everything from a bad-apple employee to a misunderstanding of directions, but the
broadest explanation is simply that key elements of the organization’s guiding philosophy aren’t getting
through to the members. One response to this possibility is a corporate culture ethics audit.
A corporate culture ethics audit attempts to loosely measure how open channels are between the ethical
values stationed at the top, and the actual practices down below, and one common way of doing the
measuring is with a questionnaire addressed to all an organization’s members. Strings of questions can be
answered simply yes/no or on a numerical scale from strongly agree (5) down to strongly disagree (0).
These questionnaires can be distributed and the responses coming back summed and compared with
previous samples in the same workplace or against results drawn from other workplaces. The goal is to get
a sense of where people are at in terms of putting company ideals into practice.
It goes without saying that a simple questionnaire can, at best, provide only a crude picture of what’s
actually going on inside an organization. The process must begin somewhere, however, and two attempts
at drawing up auditing questionnaires come from O. C. Ferrell’s Business Ethics [2] and Dr. Arthur Gross
Schaefer. [3] Combined, and with additions, subtractions, and modifications, the following corporate ethics
audit emerges. (As a quick note, this test could be nuanced by changing the responses from yes or no, to
agree or disagree on a one-through-five scale. Some audits also add a section for comments.)
A Corporate Culture Ethics Audit
Answer yes or no.
Part 1: Corporate Culture as Defined and Understood throughout the Organization
1. Are codes of ethics and business practices clearly communicated to employees?
2. Are there rules or procedures in company publications that may be consulted?
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3. Is there a value system and understanding of what constitutes appropriate behavior within the
organization that is shared by members at all levels of the organization?
4. Is there open communication going both ways between superiors and subordinates on questions
concerning ethics and organizational practices and goals?
5. Have employees ever received advice on how to bring behavior into closer alignment with the
organization’s values and norms?
6. Does the organization have methods for detecting ethical and behavioral concerns?
7. Are there penalties that are publicly discussed for transgressions of the organization’s rules and values?
8. Are there rewards for decisions corresponding with the organization’s culture (even if they don’t result in
a profit)?

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Air pollution is the most immediate form of environmental poison for most of us, but not the only
significant one. In China, more than 25 percent of surface water is too polluted for swimming or fishing. [4]
Some of those lakes may have been ruined in the same way as Onondaga Lake near Syracuse, New York.
Over a century ago, resorts were built and a fish hatchery flourished on one side of the long lake. The
other side received waste flushed by the surrounding cities and factories. Problems began around 1900
when the fish hatchery could no longer reproduce fish. Soon after, it was necessary to ban ice harvesting
from the lake. In 1940, swimming was banned because of dangerous bacteria, and in 1970, fishing had to
be stopped because of mercury and PCB contamination. The lake was effectively dead. To cite one
example, a single chemical company dumped eighty tons of mercury into the water during its run on the
coast. Recently, the New York state health department loosened restrictions slightly, and people are
advised that they may once again eat fish caught in the lake. Just as long as it’s not more than one per
month. Those who do eat more risk breakdown of their nervous system, collapse of their liver, and teeth
falling out. [5]
Like liquid poisons, solid waste can be dangerous. Paper bags degrade fairly rapidly and cleanly, but
plastic containers remain where they’re left into the indefinite future. The metal of a battery tossed into a
landfill will break down eventually, but not before dropping out poisons including cadmium. Cadmium
weakens the bones in low doses and, if exposure is high, causes death.
At the industrial waste extreme, there are toxins so poisonous they require special packaging to prevent
even minimal exposure more or less forever. The waste from nuclear power plants qualifies. So noxious
are the spent fuel rods that it’s a matter of national debate in America and elsewhere as to where they
should be stored. When the Chernobyl nuclear plant broke open in 1986, it emitted a radioactive cloud
that killed hundreds and forced the permanent evacuation of the closest town, Pripyat. Area wildlife
destruction would require an entire book to document, but as a single example, the surrounding pine
forest turned red and died after absorbing the radiation storm.
Finally, all the environmental damage listed so far has resulted from ruinous substance additions to
natural ecosystems, but environmental damage also runs in the other direction as depletion. Our cars and
factories are sapping the earth of its petroleum reserves. Minerals, including copper, are being mined
toward the point where it will become too expensive to continue digging the small amount that remains
from the ground. The United Nations estimates that fifty thousand square miles of forest are disappearing
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each year, lost to logging, conversion to agriculture, fuel wood collection by rural poor, and forest
fires.[6] Of course, most of those tree losses can be replanted. On the other hand, species that are driven
out of existence can’t be brought back. As already noted, current rates of extinction are running far above
“background extinction” rates, which are an approximation of how many species, would disappear each
year were the rules of nature left unperturbed.
Conclusion. Technically, there’s no such thing as preserving the environment because left to its own
devices the natural world does an excellent job of wreaking havoc on itself. Disruptions including floods,
combined with wildlife battling for territory and food sources, all that continually sweeps away parts of
nature and makes room for new species and ecosystems. Still, changes wrought by the natural world tend
to be gradual and balanced, and the worry is that our industrialized lifestyle has become so powerful that
nature, at least in certain areas, will no longer be able to compensate and restore any kind of balance. That
concerns has led to both legal efforts, and ethical arguments, in favor of protecting the environment.
The Law
Legal efforts to protect the environment in the United States intensified between 1960 and 1970.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) was established in 1970 to monitor and report on the state of
the environment while establishing and enforcing specific regulations. Well known to most car buyers as
the providers of the mile-per-gallon estimates displayed on the window sticker, the EPA is a large agency
and employs a workforce compatible with its mission, including scientists, legal staffers, and
communications experts.
Other important legal milestones in the field of environmental protection include:
 The Clean Air Act of 1963 and its many amendments regulate emissions from industrial plants and
monitor air quality. One measure extends to citizens the right to sue companies for damages if they aren’t
complying with existing regulations: it effectively citizenries’ law enforcement in this area of
environmental protection.
 The Clean Water Act, along with other, related legislation, regulates the quality of water in the geographic
world (lakes and rivers), as well as the water we drink and use for industrial purposes. Chemical
composition is important, and temperature also. Thermal pollution occurs when factories pour heated
water back into natural waterways at a rate sufficient to affect the ecosystem.
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 The Wilderness Act, along with other legislation, establishes areas of land as protected from development.
Some zones, including the Boundary Waters Canoe Area in northern Minnesota, are reserved for minimal
human interaction (no motors are allowed); other areas are more accessible. All wilderness and national
park areas are regulated to protect natural ecosystems.
 The Endangered Species Act and related measures take steps to ensure the survival of species pressed to
near extinction, especially by human intrusion. One example is the bald eagle. Subjected to hunting, loss
of habitat, and poisoning by the pesticide DDT (which caused eagle eggs to crack prematurely), a once
common species was reduced to only a few hundred pairs in the lower forty-eight states. Placed on the
endangered species list in 1967, penalties for hunting were increased significantly. Also, DDT was banned,
and subsequently the eagle made a strong comeback. It is no longer listed as endangered.
 The National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 requires that an environmental impact statement be
prepared for many major projects. The word environment in this case means not only the natural world
$223 million: enough to pay five thousand gas station attendants. The list goes on. Reality imitates
Hollywood: nearly every field of work has its stars. [5]
What Is the Star System?
The star system in the economic world is a winner-take-almost-all structure for distributing wealth: those
who are successful in any particular field take home a vastly disproportionate share of the revenue. This is
easy to see in the movies and some other places (big-time professional sports, for example), but what
makes the star system a pressing issue in business ethics is that it seems to be expanding through our
economic lives. To begin getting a sense of the expansion—exactly what it is and means—two distinctions

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may be drawn:
1. Individual worth versus salary (or income)
2. Vertical versus horizontal expansion of the star system
Individuals can separate from the larger population mass in terms of individual worth, and in terms
of salary. Loosely, the first is how much money someone would have if they sold everything they owned
and concentrated the dollars in a single bank account; the second is the amount an individual gets paid
each year to do something. These two measures may be very distinct—someone may be a star in one
category and ordinary in the other. Indra Tamang is a Nepalese immigrant who served a wealthy New
Yorker as butler for many years. In terms of salary, he could not be called a star. When his matron passed
away, however, she left him just under $10 million (and cut her own children out in the process). That
rocketed Tamang into the upper end of the net-worth scale, even while his always-modest salary went to
zero. [6]
At the other extreme, but still in New York, basketball player Eddy Curry received $10 million to play a
single year’s worth of basketball for the New York Knicks, clearly establishing him in the top echelon of
earners. Still, he’s not worth much. In fact, he’s worth around zero: his house is in foreclosure, and
creditors are suing for his cars. It’s not clear where all the money went, but a pretty good clue comes from
the fact that one of his creditors is charging a jaw-dropping 85 percent interest rate, and that’s only legal
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in Nevada. [7] Finally, it’s clear that the Nepalese butler and the high-rolling basketball player are extreme
cases. More typically, individual worth and salary dovetail: those who make a lot end up having a lot. Still,
the difference between them remains as two dimensions of a star system.
The second distinction to draw through an examination of gaping wealth differences is horizontal versus
vertical. Vertical wealth imbalances measure the distance between top earners and typical ones. It’s the
distance between the hyper rich, a Bill Gates in Seattle or a Carlos Slim in Mexico City, and the guy
pouring cement at a Seattle construction site or the waitress serving tamales in a Mexico City restaurant.
According to Internal Revenue Service’s tax returns, in the fifteen years from 1992 to 2007, the four
hundred wealthiest Americans have seen their average yearly income jump from about $50 million a year,
to $350 million. That’s about $300 million of extra space between the big earners and everyone else.[8] As
a parallel statistic, according to a Hofstra political science professor, “The ratio of executive salary to the
average paycheck during the mid-twentieth century was about thirty to one. In the last decade it has
ranged from three hundred to over five hundred to one.” [9]
Though there are many ways to measure the star system, there’s a common conclusion: in terms of pure
dollars, the rich are getting richer relative to everyone else.
As against the star system’s vertical measure, horizontal expansion refers to the number of fields of
activity where large wealth imbalances are prevalent. Some occupations fairly naturally lead to all or nearnothing
incomes: wildcat oil drilling, hedge-fund managing, movie acting. Other fields seem naturally
inclined to resist divergences. There aren’t many farmers on lists of the hyper wealthy. Plumbers
frequently earn a solid income, but rarely climb above that. The idea of the star system’s horizontal
expansion is that more and more careers resemble the first set of occupations, while fewer and fewer
resemble the second set. It’s difficult to find raw statistics to prove this expansion, but it’s not hard to
locate reasons for suspecting it.
One important reason the star system may be spreading is technological advancement. Justin Bieber, for
example, is a cute adolescent boy from Canada with a nice singing voice and good instincts for catchy pop
licks. Had he appeared forty years ago, he may have become known around his hometown of London,
Ontario. With a lot of long drives and late nights, he may have become a star in his Canadian province and
earned a nice concert income for a while. Thanks to YouTube, however, he was able to jump straight from
singing a few songs a few times in remote Canadian towns to international superstardom. Similarly,
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lawyers that may once have become successful in a single courthouse can now buy cheap, late-night
advertising on a cable network and set up branch offices around an entire state or even the nation. Anyone
sitting at home with a laptop can use the camera to film themselves pitching some product or service and
then display the commercial around the world using Google Ads for only a few pennies. What’s happening
is that people who have a good product or service or pitch are today able to scale up their success very
rapidly and inexpensively. No one is say
2. Define and consider the main ethical arguments reproaching a star system.
Justifying the Star System: Rights
In evaluating the ethics of the star system, three arguments are commonly mounted in favor of respecting
vast wealth disparities:
1. The rights argument
2. The social welfare argument
3. The fairness argument
The rights argument defends the respectability of wealth concentrations by affirming that not allowing
those accumulations is a violation of human freedom. From this perspective, all ethics centers on
individual opportunity: right and wrong is about guaranteeing that free individuals can pursue whatever
goals and as much money as they like on the way to finding their own happiness. Concerns about society’s
overall welfare become secondary and derivative.
Ethics that make freedom the highest value can be used in a thought experiment inspired by the
philosopher Robert Nozick to produce a substantial defense of an economic star system. It goes this way:
1. Imagine that everyone in our society has the same income, everything goes forward as perfect equality,
and no one complains.

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2. Next, imagine that NBA superstar Kobe Bryant proposes a new contract with his team. It stipulates that
the ticket price for every home game will go up five dollars, and that extra five bucks goes directly to him.
3. The team owners say, “No.”
4. Kobe says, “I’m going to quit, and go get a job as a gym teacher at the school near my house.”
5. The owners change their mind.
6. Some season ticket holders, angry at the new price, cancel their purchase, but most say, “Yeah, it’s worth
an extra five dollars to see Kobe.”
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7. A total of 17,500 people fit into the Forum, the Los Angeles basketball arena where Kobe Bryant plays,
and he plays forty-one games there each year.
8. Kobe pockets an extra $3,590,000. Annually.
Does anyone have a problem with this? Is there someone who didn’t agree to the arrangement, to this new
society where one guy—Kobe Bryant—is suddenly a lot richer than everyone else? Is there someone who’s
being forced to do something they don’t want to do? Is anyone else being denied the chance to renegotiate
their own contract or search for a different job? Are there any legitimate grounds someone can stand on
to launch a complaint?
title is there, and the lead actors’ names too. Sometimes the director gets big billing. The producer, the
studio, they’re easy to locate. You need to go a long way down the poster, though, and into the fine print,
to find the writer’s name.
Inside the industry’s day-to-day working life, writers don’t get much respect. Longtime agent Nancy
Nigrosh writes that frequently they’re not invited to the screening or any other film-opening festivity. She
paints the situation bleakly: “Unless you hire your own hardworking publicist you’ll be sitting at the kiddy
table and arguing politely with security at the star’s tent at the premier because here’s the other thing:
nobody cares.” [1]
The heart of the reason no one cares is the way films are composed. It’s not like a novel or a poem or even
journalism where one person more or less shepherds a work from beginning to end. Instead, scripts are
written and then rewritten by someone else. Then another author is called in for some further
adjustments and it’s all reworked while the filming actually happens, and by the time the movie’s done,
it’s almost impossible to figure out who deserves credit for which words. In that kind of situation, writers
find themselves in a bad spot when it comes to bargaining for money. It’s true that the studios need
writers, and that provides some leverage, but they don’t usually need any particular writer. There are
exceptions, but since movie scripting is usually an assembly-line process, substituting one with another
probably won’t affect the final product too much in most cases.
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One response to this reality is that workers organize and sell their labor collectively. Conceptually, the
idea is simple. When employers threaten to replace individual workers with others who’ll perform the
same services for even less credit and at a lower price, the other employees—seeing that they could be next
in line to face replacement—stand together in support of their colleague.
Whether the workers are Hollywood writers, Detroit autoworkers assembling cars, or hotel maids
cleaning the rooms and making up the beds, the strategy of forming an alliance to defend common
interests can work by reversing the star system. The star system promotes the general welfare by freeing
individuals to pursue their own interests. In labor unions, individuals promote their own interests by
defending the general welfare or, at least, the collective welfare of their fellow laborers.
Unions: Definition and Quick History
A labor union is an organization of wage earners formed to promote job-related interests, especially with
respect to wages and working conditions. A union can be as informal as a band of salespeople telling the
boss they’re not going to come in the next morning unless the coffeemaker is fixed. Most discussion,
however, surrounds larger and more formalized unions: members pay dues, hold elections to choose
leaders, and in the largest instances, hire a professional management team to advocate for the laborers’
common interests.
Two inflection points mark the history of labor unions in the United States. The Wagner Act (more
formally, the National Labor Relations Act) was approved in Washington, DC, in 1935. It blocked
employers from mistreating or firing workers attempting unionize a shop’s workforce. The act also
prohibited the summary firing of workers who’ve gone out on strike. The freedom to organize, along with
the power to strike effectively, quickly translated into more unions, more walkouts, and two large
organizations guiding the efforts of many smaller trade unions: the American Federation of Labor (AFL)
and the Congress of Industrial Organizations (CIO). While it’s true that in the years after World War II
business-damaging strikes grew more frequent, wages also rose and nourished a broad American middle
class. Organized labor came to play a central role in business life.
The maturation of organized labor in the United States harmonized with world events. Political parties
dedicated to workers—especially the hard labor sectors—swept the globe, frequently leading to socialist
and communist societies. Those movements eventually reached US shores. In 1947, communists eager to
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maximize their influence took control of sectors of the United Auto Workers Union, the Detroit collective
making nearly all the cars Americans drove. Pictures from the time—auto workers waving signs
announcing they’re for “Tommie the Commie” seem far out of sync with today’s reality but serve to
remind how quickly the world’s orienting values and ideologies can change. [2]
In that same heated year, 1947, congress responded to sweeping unionization and complaints that the
workers’ organizations had become too powerful with the Taft-Hartley Act. It prohibited the so-called
closed shop, which is a workplace where being hired carries with it the requirement to already be a union
member. It allowed, however, a union shop, a workplace where all employees are required to join or at
least pay the dues associated with joining. Later, the US Supreme Court ruled that even though striking
workers couldn’t be fired for walking off (in accordance with the Wagner Act), they could be permanently
replaced. Over time, this significantly diminished union strength since those going on strike were now
risking their jobs.
As decades rolled forward, the counter union tide on the legal front eventually replicated as important
changes in American industry. Many of the skilled and heavy laboring jobs involving cars, steel, and
similar industries that had responded well to organizational efforts began drying up for at least two
reasons. Increased international trade allowed companies to shift many labor-intensive tasks to other
countries with lower wages. Also, jobs that remained Stateside faced the threat of machines taking over
many functions. Detroit assembly lines formerly composed of blue-collar workers are now dominated by
sophisticated robots. Politically, organized labor also dimmed over the second half of the twentieth
century. In the 1980s, the nation’s air traffic controllers went on strike. President Reagan fired them all
and hired new ones. Reagan also challenged the world’s communist nations; the collapse of countries
explicitly guided by the collective welfare of laborers was rapid and nearly complete.
Today, organized labor unions play roles in most sectors of American economic life, but their influence is
limited, except in a few areas. Government workers continue to be very highly unionized: more than half
of all union laborers in the United States today have government jobs. Unions also remain in small fields
that resist marketplace forces. The National Football League players, for example, are unionized: you can’t
just send their jobs overseas. Also, workers in the health-care field have a fairly high unionization rate:
you can’t replace a nurse with a machine (at least, not yet). In political terms, and though diminished,
unions continue to be a notable force. The single largest outside spender in the 2010 election campaign
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was the American Federation of State, County and Municipal Employees. AFSCME spent a whopping $90
million (much coming from workers’ dues) to support candidates around the country. Still, with only 1.6
million members, the group is no larger than the United Auto Workers union back in 1970 when US
population was only two-thirds of today’s number. Currently, the UAW has about 400,000 active
members.
Three questions asked about unions in the field of business ethics are:
nearly all

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solidarity
with immigrants coming after him was to set up a free school where new arrivals could learn basic skills
helping them find employment in their new country. Called the Grace Institute, there’s an ethical
solidarity incarnated in the school, one uniting immigrants around their shared experiences and common
hardships. Broad social movements also provide abundant examples of the ethics of solidarity. A case
could be made, for instance, that women and African Americans have a special obligation to unite with
homosexuals seeking workplace equality because women and African Americans too know, and have
shared the suffering of discrimination.
It’s true that the case of Hollywood film writers isn’t so dramatic as immigration or broad job
2011,http://books.google.com/books?id=AUoEAAAAMBAJ&pg=PA31&dq=
uaw+membership+local+600+ford&hl=en&ei=5KbBTKbcNML98Ab01LGdBg&sa=
X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=6&ved=0CEoQ6AEwBQ#v=
onepage&q=uaw%20membership%20local%20600%20ford&f=false.
[3] Michael Cieply and Brookes Barnes, “Writers Say Strike to Start Monday,” New York Times, November 2, 2007,
accessed June 9, 2011,http://www.nytimes.com/2007/11/02/business/media/02cndhollywood.
html?pagewanted=all.
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15.5 Union Strikes
LEARNING OBJECTIVES

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1. Define a labor strike.
2. Consider ethical justifications for striking.
3. Weigh responsibilities set against striking.
4. Consider the rights of employers and strikebreakers.
The Hollywood Writers’ Strike
The most contentious area, both economically and ethically, of union action involves strikes: workers
collectively walking off the jobsite in an attempt to pressure employers to accede to their demands. The
Writers Guild of America (WGA) led one of the most publicized recent walkouts when Hollywood script
writers put down their pencils and closed their laptops—at least officially—in November of 2007. By the
time they returned in early 2008, the economic damage wrought in the Los Angeles basin was massive,
$3.5 billion according to some estimates, but the resolution ultimately satisfied most members of the
moviemaking community.
During the strike, two constellations of ethical issues came to the fore. First, questions involved
 the right for workers to not work,
 the right of employers to find someone who will work,
 the rights of third parties to go on with their lives and work.
The second set of questions involved responses to the strike:
 Who in Hollywood, if anyone, is obligated to support the writers?
 Is it OK to take a striker’s job?
Justifying Not Working
Some Hollywood writers are contracted by faceless studios to churn out rewrites for movies; others
generate TV dramas and soap operas. There’s work to be done inventing jokes for sitcoms like The Office,
and opening monologues for Jay Leno’s Tonight show need to be written a few days every week. As the
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writers’ strike extended, the walkout’s effects beamed into living rooms. Almost immediately, Leno went
into reruns. The Office, which had a few episodes in the can, lasted several weeks. The moviemakers—
many of whom live underneath piles of scripts submitted unsolicited by writers—kept going.
Out on the picket lines, Leno zipped around in his vintage sports car to support the stoppage, and
occasionally stopped to chat with the strikers and crack good-humored jokes. Of course Leno, who makes
millions a year, probably didn’t really need his paychecks. Others in Hollywood, however, live from day to
day and without much room for unemployment. Set designers, prop companies, on-site catering services,
all the people surrounding the now-halted industry saw their income wither. In the face of the injurious

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consequences, three arguments nonetheless favor and justify the writers’ walkout.
1. The rights argument in favor of the workers’ strike is direct and convincing for many: all individuals have
a right to not go to work in the morning. Whether we’re talking about a union action or just someone who
wakes up with a hangover, any ethical theory that takes its bearings from individual rights is generally
going to turn in a verdict in favor of the worker’s right to stay home.
2. The last resort argument affirms that workers are justified in striking when three conditions are met:
First, there must be a just cause. The driving issue cannot be petty angers or interpersonal conflicts of
some kind; instead, the motive must be wages or working conditions that are out of step with industry
norms or reasonable expectations. In the writers’ case, this condition may have been met because they
represented one of the few talent sectors not benefitting from payments for programming broadcast over
new media, especially the Internet. Second, there must be proper authorization, which means the workers
themselves must support the action, and have reached a well-deliberated decision. In the writer’s case,
most did support the action, which had been planned for months. Third, the strike must be a last resort,
meaning attempts to find solutions must’ve been fully explored. Here too writers met the condition as
long negotiations had explored most possible solutions.
3. The marketplace argument is the rawest of the justifications for striking, and it answers the ethical
question with economic facts. If workers can get away with striking, the reasoning goes, and then they’re
justified. The argument is less flippant than it sounds. If workers really are being underpaid for their
labors, then when an employer seeks others to replace those who’ve walked out, none will emerge, at least
none capable of doing the work well. On the other hand, if market conditions determine that the striking
workers are demanding more than they legitimately should within the current economic context, then
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when an employer tries to replace strikers with fresh hires, the cost of doing so will be less than the wage
increase the strikers are demanding.
On the other side, the kinds of arguments normally set up to obligate striking workers to return to their
stations involve responsibilities to the larger community:
1. The public safety argument applies only in selected situations. The famous air-traffic controllers’ strike in
the 1980s involved the safety of fliers. Similarly, police officers, firefighters, and similar may find it
difficult to justify a full-fledged strike given the serious suffering that may result. There are many
borderline cases, however. For example, in Tennessee some fire departments collect fees directly from
those they protect. In one case, a man who hadn’t paid found that his house was on fire and called the
department; they responded, but only to protect nearby homes from the fire’s spread. They watched the
flaming home burn to the foundation without intervening because the bill hadn’t been paid. Of course, the
situation would’ve been different had a person been trapped inside. In this case, however, the loss and
dispute was entirely about money. [1]
2. The public welfare argument against workers going on strike weighs in when strikes affect third parties,
people outside the initial dispute. The scriptwriters’ walkout, for example, left a large chunk of Hollywood
unemployed. The most rudimentary way to elaborate the argument is simply to note that the suffering
caused across the entire industry by the five-month writers’ strike almost surely outweighed the benefits
the writers finally obtained. It should also be remembered, however, that if some workers somewhere
don’t draw the line against owners and employers, those employers will have no incentive to not
push everyone’s wages down, ultimately affecting the welfare of most all the industry’s participants.
3. The immediate welfare argument against the writers’ strike finds support in an ethics of care. An ethics
of care values most highly an individual’s immediate social web; concern for those people who are nearest
outweighs abstract rules or generalized social concerns. In the case of the Hollywood writers’ strike, the
suffering incurred by families and friends related to particular strikers may be taken to outweigh any
benefits the broad union collective won from the action.
Finally, it’s important to note that strikes don’t need to be long-term walkouts. The dynamic and ethics
surrounding the refusal to work change when, for example, a union decides to go on strike for only a
single day as a way of pressuring management.
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Standing in Line and Crossing It: The Ethics of Supporting Strikes and
Breaking Them
The Hollywood writers’ strike featured some big-name backing. Jay Leno cruised around in his Bugatti;
Steve Carell, star of The Office, refused to cross the picket lines; and Sally Field mingled with writers in
the Disney Studios lot. These shows of support scored public relations points and provoked this question:
what obligation do workers in related fields hold to support strikers?
The range of responses corresponds well with those already outlined to justify the unionization of workers
in a particular shop.
 One way to oblige workers in related fields to support strikers is the argument from fairness. When
workers in a certain industry strike and win concessions, those gains may be cited by other workers as
justifying their own demands. In fact, in Hollywood the writers themselves had used this strategy in the
past: instead of going on strike, they’d waited for the directors union (Directors Guild of America) to
negotiate demands with the major studios and then used those results to make their own case for
concessions. The argument for supporting striking workers based on fairness is that all workers for a
particular company or across an industry may well benefit when one group makes gains, and if that’s so,
then those other groups also have a responsibility to support the strikers when they’re sacrificing.
 A second argument is based on solidarity, on the idea that an alliance between workers in an industry is
ethically natural: there’s an obligation to share in a struggle when facing similar challenges. Because other
members of the Hollywood community are uniquely positioned to understand the realities and hardships
of screenwriting life, they have a duty to act on that empathy.
As events transpired, the WGA did, in fact, receive wide support from across Hollywood, but the solidarity
was far from complete. As this outburst from a writer’s blog shows, some network studios tried to keep
their soap operas in production by hiring strikebreakers, or scabs, as they’re known to picketers:
The scab writer’s work under fake names, work from home and use different email addresses so
only the executive producer knows the real identities of the scabs. These tend to be experienced
soap writers who aren’t currently on a show. They are then promised employment after the
strike is over. While they’re scabbing, they get paid less than union writers. [2]
This under-the-table scripting captures a conflict inherent in the union’s attempt to use economic force
against employers. On one side, by cutting off their labor, strikers are trying to win concessions through
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economic force. But their success depends on the suspension of basic economic rules: as this blogger is
admitting, there are scriptwriters out there willing to work at current wages for the studios. It sounds like
they may even be willing to work for less.
For these secretive scriptwriters, what ethical justifications can be mounted for what is, in essence, picketline
crossing? The blog post decrying scab workers actually rallied some to post arguments in the
strikebreakers’ defense. One comes from a poster named Jake: “Maybe he [the blogger writing the original
post complaining about strikebreakers] has unlimited funds somewhere and can stay out of work forever,
but some need to support themselves now.” [3]
The argument here is that we all have fundamental duties to ourselves that must be served before
deferring to others. It’s not, in other words, that scriptwriters should feel no obligation to their colleagues,
but all of us have a deeper responsibility to our own welfare (and possibly to that of our family members
who may depend on us), and that responsibility takes precedence when the situation becomes extreme,
when going without work represents more than just an inconvenience.
Another argument wraps through the following exchange between two blog readers. The first, who
registers his comment anonymously, writes, “I’m a little amazed by some of these comments…Do you guys
[who support strikebreakers] not know about unions? Do you not understand what it means to cross a
picket line?…People need to work for just (as in fair) pay.” [4]
This response comes from a poster named Tim: “Anonymous said, ‘Do you not understand what it means
to cross a picket line?’ Yes, it means you are trying to work for someone who wants to pay you. In moral
terms, it’s just a voluntary mutually beneficial exchange that for the most part is no one else’s business.
Members of a union do and should have the right to refuse to provide a service, but they don’t have a right
to prevent others from providing the service.” [5]
Tim’s argument is based on the principle of free agency and the ethics of freedom. According to him, what
are morally right is any action particular scriptwriters and studio owners agree to undertake. The only
ethical obligation individuals have is to not violate the freedom of others and, according to Tim; everyone
involved in this strikebreaking is acting freely without stopping others from doing the same. The strikers,
like the strikebreakers, may go to work—or not go—whenever they like. To the extent that’s right, ethical
objections shouldn’t be raised against either choice.
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The key phrase in Tim’s response is that the strikebreaking writers’ actions are “no one else’s business.”
Those defending the union could choose to intervene here and assert that the claim is fundamentally
wrong. Ethics depends on compassionately taking account of others’ interests, and factoring them into
your own decisions: what writers decide to do must serve not only their own but also the general welfare.
Possibly, Tim could respond to this by asserting that in a market economy the best way to serve the
general welfare is for individuals to pursue their own success. There are responses to this argument too,
and the discussion continues.
KEY TAKEAWAYS

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 A rights argument and a marketplace argument may lend ethical support to workers’ decision to strike.
 Ethical arguments against striking may derive from broad social concerns, or justifiably privileging one’s
own interests.
 Arguments in favor of supporting strikers from outside the union may stand on conceptions of fairness
or solidarity.
 Both strikebreakers and employers may claim the right to bypass union demands based on economic
realities, or their rights as free agents.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
1. Explain the marketplace argument in favor of the right for workers to strike.
2. How could a union worker ethically justify not joining companions on the picket lines?
3. Outline an argument from fairness that could be made against strikebreakers.
4. Sketch two arguments that could be made in favor of independent writers swooping in and taking union
jobs when the SGA goes out on strike.
[1] Jason Hibbs, “Firefighters Watch as Home Burns to the Ground,” WPSD, September 29, 2010, accessed June 9,
2011, http://www.wpsdlocal6.com/news/local/Firefighters-watch-as-home-burns-to-the-ground-104052668.html.
[2] John Aboud, “Scabbing Doesn’t Pay (For Long),” United Hollywood (blog), November 8, 2007, accessed June 9,
2011, http://unitedhollywood.blogspot.com/2007/11/scabbing-doesn-pay-for-long.html.
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[3] Jake, November 8, 2007 (6:44 a.m.), comment on John Aboud, “Scabbing Doesn’t Pay (For Long),” United
Hollywood Blog, November 8, 2007,http://unitedhollywood.blogspot.com/2007/11/scabbing-doesn-pay-forlong.
html.
[4] Anonymous, November 8, 2007 (8:15 a.m.), comment on John Aboud, “Scabbing Doesn’t Pay (For
Long),” United Hollywood Blog, November 8, 2007,http://unitedhollywood.blogspot.com/2007/11/scabbingdoesn-
pay-for-long.html.
[5] Tim, November 8, 2007 (8:32 a.m.), comment on Anonymous, “Scabbing Doesn’t Pay (For Long),” United
Hollywood Blog, November 8, 2007,http://unitedhollywood.blogspot.com/2007/11/scabbing-doesn-pay-forlong.
html.
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15.6 Case Studies
Jim Webb’s Speech
Source: Photo courtesy of Mike Baird, http://www.flickr.com/photos/mikebaird/2202443907.
At the height of the American economic boom running from 2000 to 2008, a freshly elected senator from
Virginia gave a sobering speech. He said,
When one looks at the health of our economy, it’s almost as if we are living in two different
countries. The stock market is at an all-time high, and so are corporate profits. But these
benefits are not being fairly shared. When I graduated from college, the average corporate CEO
made 20 times what the average worker did; today, it’s nearly 400 times. In other words, it
takes the average worker more than a year to make the money that his or her boss makes in one
day. In short, the middle class of this country, our historic backbone and our best hope for a
strong society in the future, is losing its place at the table. Our workers know this, through
painful experience. [1]
QUESTIONS
1. What is the star system?
2. According to Senator Webb (and doing the math), when he was in college around 1966, a
corporate CEO had to labor eighteen days to make the money the average worker earned in
about a year. Now, CEOs only need a day to reach a worker’s yearly total.
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o What is vertical wealth imbalance?
o In terms of the days a CEO must labor to net the average worker’s yearly pay, where does the
star system line get drawn? Webb seems to think it’s somewhere between eighteen days and
one day, but where would you draw the distinction? How would you justify your decision?
3. Webb says the “middle class of this country” is disappearing. How does this claim relate to the idea of
horizontal wealth imbalances?
4. When Webb asserts that the benefits of a healthy economy aren’t being “fairly shared,” he’s making an
ethical claim, saying the wealth concentration is wrong. He was speaking on national TV and so didn’t
have time to flesh things out, but how could an argument be formulated to support his claim?
5. Jim Webb is a United States senator. When the United States was founded, there was about one
senator for every twenty-five thousand people. Today, it’s one in three million. The salary of a
US senator is $175,000; the salary of the average American worker is about $40,000.
o Besides money, what kinds of compensation do you imagine Webb gets for his job?
o Do you believe Webb’s compensation (salary plus other nonmonetary benefits) qualifies him as
a star? Why or why not?
o Does the fact that Webb represents more constituents than the original senators convert into a
case that Webb’s salary should be higher relative to his constituents than the salary granted to
senators two hundred years ago? Explain.
o Make the case that Webb has an ethical responsibility to donate a significant part of his salary to public service causes.

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6. Part of the reason Webb’s talk lacked specifics was that, as a US senator, he doesn’t want to
offend any particular person or large company. (He probably wants their money for his
reelection campaign, or at least he doesn’t want them funding his opponent.) Others, however,
who share his opinion about wage imbalances aren’t similarly constrained. One notable example
comes from the web page Daily Kos, a politically oriented site with a huge readership and
located on the left fringe of American politics, somewhere between rowdy and rabid. On that
page, the following point was added to Webb’s speech:
As an example of this inequality, look no further than Ford Motor Company. Just this
week, Ford announced a staggering $12.7 billion loss, the highest in company history.
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This came after a year in which the company announced that it was cutting more than
40,000 jobs (30,000 of them union jobs). So what to do in a company that’s failed to
deliver innovative products to the market, completely misjudged consumer trends, and
managed itself into a fiscal bind? You award bonuses to the top management. [2]
The web page went on to explain that Ford CEO Alan Mulally would be giving performance
bonuses to his top executives because, according to Mulally, “You have to keep the talented
people you really need.”
o Just from the provided facts, why might someone be suspicious that CEO Mulally participates in
crony capitalism? How might he respond to the charge?
o Justify the Daily Kos attack on Mulally’s bonuses in terms of general social welfare, and in terms
of the duty to beneficence.
o Make the case that the bonuses are justified in ethical terms with the language of rights.
o Through the language of rights, argue that those who criticize the bonuses—like writers at Daily
Kos—are ethically despicable.
7. Consider these four jobs: US senator, political commentator on a widely read web page
(regardless of whether it happens to tilt left or right), CEO of Ford, and union worker on a car
assembly line.
o Who do you expect would earn most and least were wages divided only by market forces?
Loosely, how would wages be apportioned? Would the differences reach star system
proportions?
o How would you rank their wage order in terms of value generated for society? Loosely, how
would wages be apportioned? Would the differences reach star system proportions?
o How would you rank their wage order in terms of effort? Loosely, how would wages be
apportioned? Would the differences reach star system proportions?
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First You Get the Money…
Source: Photo courtesy of xelusionx, http://www.flickr.com/photos/xelusionx/452851416.
The film Scarface cost $25 million to make and has earned back about $200 million so far. The story
follows Tony Montana as he enters the cocaine dealing business. His mentor tells him that to survive over
the long term you’ve got to fly under the radar and stay small. Comfortably wealthy, yes, but wildly rich,
no. Montana isn’t so sure. Later he decides the advice is directly bad, kills the mentor who gave it to him,
and expands his business as far and as fast as he can. As moviegoers learn at the film’s end, the mentor
was probably right.
QUESTIONS

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1. Though the initial reviews were mixed, time has proven the film’s popular appeal. More than
twenty years after its release, Scarface continues to be a rental favorite, a standard campus
feature, and a late-night TV standard.
o How can the notion of the general welfare be used to justify giving big bucks to the stars making
the film: actor Al Pacino, director Brian De Palma, and writer Oliver Stone?
o Can you form an argument against the concentration of money in the hands of a very few
people that would work equally well against Al Pacino’s (presumed) wealth and Tony
Montana’s?
2. Given the way Montana got wealthy, can the duty to beneficence argument against the star system still
be applied to him? Why or why not?
3. Possibly the movie’s most repeated line is Al Pacino as Tony Montana explaining that to be
successful in America, “First you get the money, then you get the power, then you get the
women.”
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o What is Aristotle’s theory of envy?
o Does the story the movie tells about Montana’s life—coming to America with nothing as an
immigrant and getting ahead by killing and drug dealing—make you more or less envious of his
success (at least the money and power parts), or does it not make any difference?
o How does envy factor into ethical considerations of the star system?
4. Amado Carrillo Fuentes—better known as Lord of the Skies—was a serious innovator before he
died in a Mexico City Hospital during a plastic surgery procedure to transform his appearance.
While everyone else in his profession was flying small Cessna-like aircraft around Latin America
and over the border into the States, he broke every limit by buying full-size Boeing passenger
planes, hollowing them out, filling them with cocaine, and flying multimillion-dollar shipments.
Though he never made the Forbes list of the world’s most powerful and wealthy (unlike other
traffickers from the same Mexican state of Sinaloa, including Joaquín Guzmán), there’s no doubt
that Carrillo Fuentes got extraordinarily wealthy by bringing innovation to the cocaine business.
Bill Gates got extraordinarily wealthy by bringing innovation to the software business. One
argument frequently presented in favor of outsized rewards in the business world is that it can
stimulate innovative ideas. Does the fact that creativity in the business world can do social
good and social harm weaken this argument in favor of the star system? Explain.
The Delta Vote
Source: Photo courtesy of Anthony Easton, http://www.flickr.com/photos/pinkmoose/2955932263.
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When Delta Airlines absorbed Northwest Airlines in 2008, the expanded Delta employed about twenty
thousand flight attendants or FAs as they’re called in the industry. The thirteen thousand Delta FAs
weren’t unionized; the seven thousand that came over from Northwest were.
The nation’s largest flight attendant union, the Association of Flight Attendants (AFA) saw the
opportunity to build membership numbers and lobbied the united workforce to unionize. The question
went to a vote and the results were excruciatingly close: votes in favor fell 328 short out of 18,760 cast.
Subsequently, the USA Today published a roundup of media reports and readers reactions. [3]

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QUESTIONS
1. One argument in favor of joining labor unions works from fairness, the idea that if workers
are benefitting from the work done by a collective, they should sign up and contribute their
share of the dues required to pay for the lawyers and the negotiators a major union needs to
operate.
o How does the following reaction to the “no” vote intersect with the fairness argument? Flight
attendant Cindy Hanks said, “I’m ecstatic. There is no reason for a union at Delta. I get paid
more than my co-workers [who worked for Northwest before the merger]. I have an open-door
policy with my management. Whenever I have a complaint, I am listened to, and there is always
a resolution. I’m not left in the dark.” [4]
2. One person added this comment below the story about the culture around Delta: “Nobody cares
about workers’ rights, including the workers.” [5]
One argument in favor of joining labor unions works from a notion of solidarity. With respect to
labor unions, what’s the solidarity argument for joining the FA union at Delta?
3. Delta spokeswoman Betsy Talton reacted this way to the “no” vote, “We have said all along that
we believe our direct relationship works well for our people and our company,”
o One argument against joining a labor union is the duty to individuality derived from the right to
free agency. What is the right to free agency? What is the derived duty to individuality?
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o How can Talton’s reaction be buttressed in ethical terms by reference to the right and derived
duty?
4. The vote at Delta was a secret ballot. What is card check legislation, and what does it do? How might
that law have changed the results at Delta?
5. Some of the responses to the Delta vote didn’t concern the specific FA union but the question of
unions generally. For example, one commenter believes a stigma attaches to union
membership, a bad one. As he puts it, “I have read pro union people are lazy and want
protection.” Another commentator adds that unions have, “basically destroyed the auto
industry and the steel industry.” [6]
How can this criticism of unions and union workers be converted into an ethical argument in
favor of an economic star system?
6. A person identified as dinstinctM wrote, “Labor unions BUILT the American middle class. The
middle class that is shrinking as unions have been decimated.” [7]
This is an economic claim. Assume it’s true. How can it be converted into an ethical claim in
favor of the FA union?
Responding to a Transit Strike
Source: Photo courtesy of Neilhooting, http://www.flickr.com/photos/neilhooting/2424703385.
The web page titled “How to Commute By Bicycle, All of a Sudden” begins this way: “There is a transit
workers’ strike in NYC today. If you need to get somewhere, consider riding your bike. Even though it’s 22
degrees right now (8:33 EST), this is not a crazy suggestion.” [8]
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When you need to preface a suggestion with the assurance that it’s not crazy, you can be pretty sure that
the situation is bad.
The New York City transit strike began on December 20, 2005, and ran three days. Representing the
subway operators, bus drivers, and some related personnel, there was the Transport Workers Union,
Local 100 (TWU). On the other side, representing the city—and the traveling, tax-paying public—there
was the Metropolitan Transit Authority (MTA). Wages and retirement age were the main issues. The MTA
argued (correctly) that the transit workers’ wages were much higher than the national norm, and their
retirement age extremely low. The workers argued (correctly) that the job of driving in New York City was
more stressful than in most other places. When negotiations failed, public transportation stopped a few
days before Christmas, leaving millions of daily commuters stranded.
For some commuters, the bike became an option. In the abstract—sitting in a warm room reading about
it—the possibility doesn’t sound so bad, get some good exercise and brisk fresh air on the way to work and
back. There are real problems, though. The air can be dangerously cold and streets in winter are icy. It
also needs to be remembered that the sun goes down early in December, so people biking home at night
along the roadside are pedaling in the dark. Falls are common. Falls in front of oncoming cars are
especially bad.
QUESTIONS
1. The transit workers strike was actually illegal. After a similar walkout years before, the Taylor
Law had been enacted; it barred transportation workers from leaving their posts and
implemented arbitration methods for settling disputes. When the workers ignored the law, a
judge hit them with fines and sentenced their leaders to short jail terms.
o In the face of the strike’s illegality, how can a rights argument be mounted to ethically justify the
walkout?
o Is the rights argument affected by the fact that many commuters suffered?
2. The “last resort argument” justifying a workers strike is activated when three conditions are
met: (1) There must be a just cause; (2) there must be proper authorization; and (3) the strike
must be a last resort—that is, attempts to find solutions must’ve been fully explored.
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In this case, the transport workers national union actually ordered the local to go back to work.
The national union, in other words, didn’t authorize the strike, but the actual workers on the
scene did. Does this count as proper authorization? In a union organization, which, ultimately,
gets to decide whether a strike is appropriate, the organizing management selected to speak for
the collective, or the individual workers on the ground? Explain.
3. What is the public safety argument against a union going out on strike? From the information

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provided, how could it be implemented in this case?
o How would the public safety argument against the strike differ from the public welfare
argument?
o In general terms, is there public welfare argument that could be sketched in favor of the strike?
Air and Bus Traffic: Stars and Collectives
Source: Photo courtesy of Ekavet, http://www.flickr.com/photos/ekavet/3680866253.
The early 1980s were seismic years in American business. Newly elected President Reagan promoted
waves of deregulation legislation, and the openness loosed a breed of entrepreneurs bringing innovative
goods and services to the marketplace so rapidly that entire segments of business life erupted in disorder.
One especially affected area was transportation, and one very affected transporter was the venerable
Greyhound bus lines. This report from San Jose State University summarizes:
Deregulation of the transportation industry made the competition for passengers stiff. New
entrepreneurs who paid low wages entered the business and offered fare prices much lower
than the more established inter-city lines. The newly deregulated airline industry made things
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even worse for Greyhound. Low-cost passenger airline carriers sprang up. People Express, for
example, charged only $23 for a flight between New York City and Buffalo. Greyhound charged
$41 for the trip. A flight by Southwest Airlines from San Francisco to Phoenix was only $60,
compared to a Greyhound’s bus ticket to the same location costing $79. [9]
When a higher-quality service (a fast plane ride) actually costs less than a lower-quality service (a slow
bus trip), the simple rules of economics are, sooner or later, going to put the bus company out of its
misery.
To survive, Greyhound had to cut its prices, which meant cutting costs. The prices of buses and gasoline
and similar were fairly fixed, leaving wages to be targeted. Greyhound went to the workers collective, the
local Amalgamated Transit Union, and proposed a 9.5 percent wage cut.
The answer was no. Greyhound insisted. A strike ensued.
Greyhound was prepared. They’d already recruited more than a thousand new hires in anticipation of the
walkout, and agreed to pay them the salary the union had refused. A tremendous segment of business was
lost while the company struggled to bring still more drivers aboard but, eventually, it became clear that
the union would have to break, which it did.
In the aftermath, a stinging article was written: “Leave the Slave-Driving to Us.” That’s a play on the

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Greyhound advertising line “Leave the Driving to Us,” and it pretty clearly displays where the author
comes down on the ethics of labor walkouts broken by replacement workers. [10]
QUESTIONS
1. From the “Leave the Slave-Driving to Us” article: “After the strike got underway the Bus Lines
tried to run scab buses. In response, the striking Greyhound workers carried out militant actions
that were effective as far as they went. For example, pickets from Local 1225 in San Francisco,
together with some supporters, tried to block the departure of buses from the 7th Street depot
in downtown San Francisco. There was then a cop attack on the picket line and a melee ensued.
Only one bus left the station. It soon experienced a collision with another vehicle (the driver of
the other vehicle just happened to be a striking Greyhound driver) and it was forced to retreat
to the S.F. depot.”
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o When the striking Greyhound driver drove his car or pickup into the bus, he probably damaged
his own vehicle. Who should pay for the repairs? Justify.
o Is it possible to argue that, ethically, Greyhound should pay? Explain.
o Who should pay to repair the damaged Greyhound bus? Why?
o The “cop attack” was, presumably, police officers clearing strikers from the public road. The
police are frequently unionized. Do they have, as union workers, any responsibility to leave the
strikers alone?
2. From the “Leave the Slave-Driving to Us” article: “During any strike material pressures (rent or
house payments, utility bills, RV financing, etc.) may influence strikers’ decisions. Since
Greyhound is not merely a bus line, but a conglomerate with revenues from many lines of
business, its capacity to bear losses from a strike is much greater than that of individual strikers
to bear the loss of wages. Even those who have substantial savings may run short during a long
strike. To succeed, they had to convince other transport workers and their unions to strike in
sympathy with them. But of course, that’s illegal under existing contracts and laws. But that only
means that the ranks needed to take matters into their own hands from the very beginning. The

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rank and file did not have to respect the law.”
o What is Greyhound’s structural economic advantage over the workers?
o Does the Greyhound economic advantage provide an ethical justification for the workers to
illegally (in terms of contractual commitments) try to get others in related fields to strike in
support of the Greyhound workers? Explain.
3. The marketplace test showed the strike was, in purely economic terms of supply and demand,
not justified. The company was able to find workers at the wages it wanted to offer.
o Ethically, does the economic reality justify the strikebreakers’ actions in crossing the picket
lines? Explain.
o The “Leave the Slave-Driving to Us” author considers these strikebreakers to be slaves. What is
the ethical argument behind this insult?
4. From the “Leave the Slave-Driving to Us” article: “‘Greyhound Lines Chair Frank Nagotte pulled
down a hefty $447,000 in salary and benefits’ in 1983 [that’s 1,004,000 in today’s dollars]. In
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general, Greyhound management was slated to receive a 7–10% salary/benefit increase. Despite
the competition from lower air fares cited by Greyhound management, the Bus Lines division
alone earned a profit that has been estimated at $5 million in the first nine months of 1983.”
o The chairman’s salary and benefits was about one million in today’s dollars. In terms of basic
rights, how could he justify taking that mountain of money home after firing the drivers?
o In terms of the value his work generated for society, how could chairman Nagotte justify taking
the mountain of money home after firing the drivers?
o In terms of his responsibilities as chairman, how could Nagotte justify taking the mountain of
money home after firing the drivers?
o What ethical argument could the drivers use to justify demanding that the chairman take a
salary and benefit cut in line with the one he was asking from the drivers?
5. The fundamental cause of the Greyhound problem was competition from new transportation
companies providing better service at lower cost, including Southwest Airlines, founded by
Rollin King and Herb Kelleher. They’re both bright stars in the American economic star system.
o Make the case that King and Kelleher have an ethical obligation to support the Greyhound
drivers who lost their jobs. What is the case? What kind of support do they owe?
o Convert the Greyhound experience into an ethical argument that no employee at Southwest
should seek to unionize.
[1] Jim Webb, “Democratic Response of Senator Jim Webb to the President’s State of the Union Address,” New
York Times, January 23, 2007, accessed June 9, 2011,http://www.nytimes.com/2007/01/23/washington/23webbtranscript.
html?_r=1&oref=slogin.
[2] Mark Sumner, “Jim Webb and Economic Reform,” Daily Kos, January 26, 2007, accessed June 9,
2011, http://www.dailykos.com/storyonly/2007/1/26/295137/-Jim-Webb-and-Economic-Reform.
[3] Ben Mutzabaugh, “Delta Attendants Vote Against Union,” USA Today, November 4, 2010, accessed June 9,
2011, http://travel.usatoday.com/flights/post/2010/11/delta-attendants-vote/129933/1.
[4] Ben Mutzabaugh, “Delta Attendants Vote Against Union,” USA Today, November 4, 2010, accessed June 9,
2011, http://travel.usatoday.com/flights/post/2010/11/delta-attendants-vote/129933/1.
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[5] distinctM, November 4, 2010 (11:02 a.m.), comment on Ben Mutzabaugh, “Delta Attendants Vote Against
Union,” USA Today, November 4, 2010, accessed June 9,
2011,http://travel.usatoday.com/flights/post/2010/11/delta-attendants-vote/129933/1.
[6] Timatl2002, November 4, 2010 (10:08 p.m.), comment on Ben Mutzabaugh, “Delta Attendants Vote Against
Union,” USA Today, November 4, 2010, accessed June 9,
2011,http://travel.usatoday.com/flights/post/2010/11/delta-attendants-vote/129933/1.
[7] distinctM, November 5, 2010 (3:17 p.m.), comment on Ben Mutzabaugh, “Delta Attendants Vote Against
Union,” USA Today, November 4, 2010, accessed June 9,
2011,http://travel.usatoday.com/flights/post/2010/11/delta-attendants-vote/129933/1.
[8] “How to Commute By Bicycle, All of a Sudden,” Days of Leisure (blog), accessed June 9,
2011, http://www.daysofleisure.com/writing/How_to_commute_by_bicycle,_ all_of_a_sudden.html.
[9] Herbert Oestreich, “The Great Greyhound Strikes,” Mineta Transportation Institute College of Business, San
Jose State University, September 2001, 2001, accessed June 9,
2011, http://www.angelfire.com/al/silverball/strikes.html.
[10] Daniel, “1983: Leave the Slave-Driving to Us—Chris Fillmer,” Libcom.org, June 17, 2007, accessed June 9,
2011, http://libcom.org/library/1983-leave-slave-driving-us-chris-fillmer.
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Question 2: Mathematics

STUDENT NAME:

ST PATRICK’S COLLEGE, GYMPIE.

MATHEMATICS A
Year 12
Semester 2,
2018.

Item 4

EXTENDED MODELLING AND PROBLEM SOLVING
TASK

Summative

Topic:
14 Navigation.

TEACHER:

___________________
CONDITIONS:

This is an individual task.
Time allowed : 3•5 weeks.

Issue date : Week 3
Due date : Week 6
Two lessons per week will be allocated for individual work on this
assessment item. This time can be used for consultation with your
teacher.
It is the student’s responsibility to submit assessment no later than the
due date to ensure course completion and the awarding of a level of
achievement.
The St Patrick’s College Assignment Policy is detailed in the Student Diary
on page xiii.
The criteria and relevant standard assessed by each question appears in
brackets after the question.
All working must be shown, accompanied by justification or explanations
where necessary.
Students are to make and store a full copy (electronic or otherwise) of
their submission.

STANDARD AWARDED:

Knowledge and Procedures

Modelling and Problem Solving

Communication and Justification

CCEs:

5. Interpreting the meaning of pictures/illustrations.
6. Interpreting the meaning of tables, diagrams, maps or graphs.
7. Translating from one form to another.
57. Manipulating/operating/using equipment.
22. Structuring/organizing math argument.
33. Reaching conclusion consistent with a given assumptions.
35. Extrapolating.
48. Justifying.
20. Setting out/presenting/arranging/displaying.
37. Applying progression of steps to achieve required answer.

AUTHENTICATION STATEMENT:

I did not receive significant help in producing my final submission, from another student, an electronic source, a teacher and/or adult.

Signed: ___________________________________________________

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STANDARDS DESCRIPTORS: 12 MATHS A.
ITEM 4 : EXTENDED MPS TASK.
SEM 2, 2018.

CRIT STANDARD A

The student’s work has the following characteristics: STANDARD B

The student’s work has the following characteristics: STANDARD C

The student’s work has the following characteristics: STANDARD D

The student’s work has the following characteristics: STANDARD E

The student’s work has the following characteristics:
KP1 – accurate use of rules and formulae in simple through to complex situations – accurate use of rules and formulae in simple situations or use of rules and formulae in complex situations – use of rules and formulae in simple routine situations – use of given rules and formulae in simple rehearsed situations – attempted use of given rules and formulae in simple rehearsed situations
KP2 – application of simple through to complex sequences of mathematical procedures in routine and non-routine situations – application of simple sequences of mathematical procedures in non-routine situations or complex sequences in routine situations – application of simple sequences of mathematical procedures in routine situations – application of simple sequences of mathematical procedures in simple rehearsed situations – attempted use of simple sequences of mathematical procedures in simple rehearsed situations
MPS2 – investigation of alternative solutions and/or procedures to complex routine through to simple non-routine problems – investigation of alternative solutions and/or procedures to routine problems
MPS3 – informed decisions based on mathematical reasoning in complex routine through to simple non-routine situations – informed decisions based on mathematical reasoning in routine situations – informed decisions based on mathematical reasoning in simple routine situations
MPS4 – reflection on the effectiveness of mathematical models including recognition of the strengths and limitations of the model – recognition of the strengths and limitations of the model in simple situations
CJ1 – accurate and appropriate use of mathematical terminology and conventions in simple non-routine through to complex routine situations – accurate and appropriate use of mathematical terminology and conventions in simple non-routine and/or complex routine situations – appropriate use of mathematical terminology and conventions in simple routine situations – use of mathematical terminology and conventions in simple rehearsed situations – use of mathematical terminology and conventions in simple rehearsed situations
CJ2 – organisation and presentation of information in a variety of representations in simple non-routine through to complex routine situations – organisation and presentation of information in a variety of representations in simple non-routine and /or complex routine situations – organisation and presentation of information in a variety of representations in simple routine situations – presentation of information in simple rehearsed situations
CJ3 – analysis and translation of information displayed from one representation to another in complex routine situations – analysis and translation of information displayed from one representation to another in simple routine situations – translation of information displayed from one representation to another in simple routine situations
CJ4 – use of mathematical reasoning to develop logical sequences in simple non-routine through to complex routine situations using everyday and/or mathematical language – use of mathematical reasoning to develop logical sequences in simple non-routine and/or complex routine situations using everyday and/or mathematical language – development of logical sequences in simple routine situations using everyday and/or mathematical language
CJ5 – justification of the reasonableness of results obtained through technology or other means

The information below is to be used for Q1, Q2 and Q3, along with Map 1 – The Whitsundays.

A race course has been designed off the coast of the islands of the Whitsundays. The race is for small sailing boats capable of maintaining speeds of approximately 12knots in the weather conditions typical of this region. The information below describes the locations of the buoys that mark the start/finish line and the four buoys to be used to define the legs of the race.

the Start/Finish line is marked by two buoys. One buoy is located at the co-ordinates
(149° 51•0’ E, 20° 02•2’S) and the other is located at (149° 51•0’ E, 20° 02•6’S)

the Blue buoy is due west of the Hayman Radio Mast and on a transit line from
Mt Merkara and Pioneer Rocks

the Green buoy is located so that the Hook Is Lighthouse is on a bearing of 065°T and
Hannah Pt is on a bearing of 140°T.

the Yellow buoy is located so that the WKRP Radio Mast is on a bearing of 060°T and
Nara Light is on a bearing of 330°T.

the Red buoy is located so that Reef Pt is on a bearing of 110°T and South Head is on a
bearing of 210°T.

Q1 On Map 1 – The Whitsundays, locate all the buoys that define the race course.

Note : All construction lines must remain visible, including north lines.
: A meticulous approach is required, as errors of measurement will affect the
grades allocated to your solutions.

KP2 C D E CJ1 C D E CJ3 C

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Q2 The race committee decide on a race consisting of six legs:

Leg 1 : Start line to anticlockwise around the blue buoy.
Leg 2 : Blue buoy to anticlockwise around the green buoy.
Leg 3 : Green buoy to clockwise around the yellow buoy.
Leg 4 : Yellow buoy to clockwise around the red buoy.
Leg 5 : Red buoy clockwise around the blue buoy.
Leg 6 : Blue buoy to finish line.

For each leg of the course, determine a heading, a length and an estimate of the time
required for the completion of the leg.

Also, produce an estimate for the expected duration of the entire race and comment on
the reliability of this estimate.

Note : All construction lines must remain visible, including north lines.
: A meticulous approach is required, as errors of measurement will affect the
grades allocated to your solutions.

KP1 C D E MPS3 C

CJ1 C D E CJ2 C D

Q3 Before the race, a powered boat is taken out to investigate the direction of the
prevailing current in the region’s waters . The aim is to sail on a preset course and determine whether the boat has been taken off course by currents.

The starting point has South Reef Rocks on a bearing of 010°T and Hook Is Lighthouse on a bearing of 100°T. The Hook Is Radio Mast is clearly visible from the starting point and the timed run started at 10:30am.

The boat’s log indicates a course of 150°T and a speed of 8•8knots. At 11:15am, the Hook
Is Radio Mast is now visible on a bearing of 040°T.

By locating the boat’s final position on the map, determine how many degrees off-course the boat has been carried and calculate the direction and speed of the current. Justify your solutions.

Note : All construction lines must remain visible, including north lines.
: A meticulous approach is required, as errors of measurement will affect the
grades allocated to your solutions.

KP2 B C D E MPS3 B C MPS4 B

CJ1 B C D E CJ2 B C D CJ4 B C

The information below is to be used for Q4, Q5 and Q6, along with Map 2 – Hypothetical Bay.

Q4 Your location is currently : ________________________________

and you are travelling on a course of : ________________________________

You travel on this course for five nautical miles and during this short trip, you make regular and careful observations of the angle of elevation to the top of Critchley Peak (altitude 1 140m).

Produce a graph of “Angle of Elevation Vs Distance travelled along course” for your journey to identify largest angle of elevation that would be obtained.

Then identify the exact location(s) producing the greatest angle of elevation and clearly explain the reasons for those locations producing a maximum angle.

KP2 A B C D E MPS2 A B MPS3 A B C

CJ1 A B C D E CJ4 A B C CJ5 A

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Q5 A local yacht club is having its monthly race day and the race is already underway. Six boats are approaching the finish line – a straight line between Paula’s Light and Fairway Beacon.

At 3:00pm, the boats in first place through to sixth place report their positions, bearing
and speed to race headquarters by radio. The information is tabulated below:

Name Position
(True bearing) Course
(True Bearing) Current Speed
(Knots)
Astral Trent’s Light at 223°
Pamela’s Light at 120° 320° 12
Bumblebee Paula’s Light at 340°
Trent’s Light at 210° 320° 8
Calamity II Pamela’s Light at 020°
Reid Light at 260° 325° 15
Delight Reid Light at 205°
Pamela’s Light at 075° 330° 16
Empire II Paula’s Light at 020°
Pamela’s Light at 110° 000° 9
Fantasy Mark’s Light at 260°
Critchley Peak at 350° 338° 18

From this data, estimate the finishing time, and hence the placings, for the six boats.
Comment on the reliability of your answer.

Note : All construction lines must remain visible, including north lines.
: A meticulous approach is required, as errors of measurement will affect the
grades allocated to your solutions.

KP1 A B C D E MPS2 A B MPS3 A B C

CJ3 A B C CJ5 A

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Q6 As the boats are finishing the race, a storm that has been threatening to disrupt the day’s activities finally hits the region.

As the severity of the storm increases, the race control station receives two distress calls simultaneously. The captain of the Gregorian makes the following call:

“We have lost our sail and motor and most of our equipment in the storm. We
are in line with Gregory’s Light and Paula’s Light, and believe that we are on
a 240 bearing to Trent’s Light. We are drifting north at about 2½ knots. We
need help.”

The captain of the Hyperion calls in the following information:

“We have lost our rudder and motor. We cannot get our sails down and we
are stuck on a heading of 245T. We took a sighting of Trent’s Light at 274
and Reid Light at 233, 32 minutes ago. We now see that the angle on the bow
of Reid Light has about doubled. We need help.”

You have two rescue crews available, both based at Ryan Point. Both rescue vessels
have a top speed of 16 knots. The first rescue crew (Rescue #1) is able to leave immediately and the second rescue crew (Rescue #2) are able to leave in two minutes.

Determine whether both rescue vessels are required and devise a justified rescue plan to
deal with both distress calls.

KP1 A B C D E KP2 A B C D E MPS3 A B C

MPS4 A B CJ2 A B C D CJ5 A

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2 MATHS A
ITEM 4

Question 3: Business

PLEASE READ INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY ! THIS IS FOR A PORTION OF A GROUP PROJECT. PREVIOUS ASSIGNMENT AND TOPIC IS ATTACHED.

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Instruction
Present the company chosen and reasoning for your selection of that company using non narrated power point slides.] Corporation chosen addressing legal, ethical or political topic

Legal Issues: McDonalds Unethical Marketing
McDonald’s corporation deals with the selling of fast food in different regions of the world. The corporation runs more than 30, 000 restaurants in the six continents (Green 2015). The company operates in approximately a hundred countries in the world. Therefore, it has a lot of stakeholders, starting from employees, shareholders, partners, and customers. The company needs to maintain professionalism and ethical conducts with its significant stakeholders. This paper explores the legal issue which the McDonald’s Corporation faced regarding the advertisement of their food to children under 13 years in Quebec. The paper validates the statement that the McDonalds were guilty of breaking the Quebec law on the ad.
The case has it that a Canadian dad of three sued the McDonald for wrongfully advertising Happy Meals to kids, asserting that the organization violated laws in Quebec that oppose the advertisement of items to children under thirteen years of age (Olšanová, 2013). Court statement reads that Antonio Bramante has three youthful youngsters and goes to a McDonald’s café somewhere around like clockwork at their support. He is looking for payment from the chain for items made in recent years and needs to prevent the organization from advertising toys and glad dinners to kids coming up. Antonio’s claim expresses that the toys that accompany Happy Meals are promoted with the dispatch of kids’ motion pictures and are regularly part of an arrangement, inciting his family to come back to the café to finish the set. The court archives, interpreted from their unique French, likewise express that toys are shown in stands at the tyke’s eye level, which Bramante’s lawyer Joey Zukran cases infringe upon laws that are a piece of Quebec’s Consumer Protection Act (Olšanová, 2013).
A representative for McDonald’s Canada told CNBC by email that the organization had gotten the decision and will look at it cautiously (Olšanová, 2013). He asserted that the corporation knows about its commitments under Quebec’s laws regarding advertisement and emphasize that it does accept this class activity has to merit. Also, the representative held that the corporation appreciates the long partnership with the Quebecers and their families, who have been making the most of McDonald’s for over 45 years,” the representative included. Advertising to less than thirteen years of age has been prohibited in Quebec since the 1970s with three special cases: publicizing in kids’ magazines, publicizing kids’ stimulation occasions and promoting using store windows, shows, holders, bundling or marks (Olšanová, 2013). Zuckerman, a lawyer at LPC Avocet, told CNBC by telephone that McDonald’s toy showcases are not secured by this particular case, with the judgment expressing that the organization works cafés as opposed to stores. Regardless of whether they are viewed as stores, Zuckerman stated that must not “straightforwardly prompt a tyke to purchase products or administrations,” as indicated by the buyer security act.
Zuckerman claims that his firm has had an “immense” reaction from different buyers, as any individual who purchases a Happy Meal in Quebec since November 2013 can demand to be a piece of the activity (Olšanová, 2013). He would not give a number but instead asserts that the site smashed because of individuals’ advantage. He indicated the long-running “Mc-Label” instance of the 1990s in which McDonald’s sued activists who were a piece of the London Greenpeace society. The activists presented claims that McDonald exposed children to advertisement contrary to the demands of Quebec. The judge dismissed a lot of sued mistakes but held that the act of marketing to their products through manipulative ad was wrong.
Suffice it to mention that, since the McDonald Corporation embraces the utilitarian theory, it is wrong. It is because the adverts seduce young people, and it does not employ transparency, especially to its customers. Utilitarianism holds that an action is right if it directs pleasure to a maximum number of people; instead, they sell fast food, which brings about ill- health to the observers.

References
Green, S. (2015). McDonald’s. Bellwether Media.
Olšanová, K. (2013). FOOD MARKETING TO CHILDREN-REVIEW OF THE ISSUE FOR FURTHER EXPLORATION. Central European Business Review, 2(3).

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Question 4: Psychology

Instruction
Different due dates. LOOK AT ASSIGNMENT FOR DUE DATES
Problem Solving Template

Now that you have critically analyzed the problem/issue the next step is generating a solution. Please review the following steps in creating the problem resolution for your identified problem/issue

Step 1
Identify the goal in developing a resolution.

Using the evacuation plan example, the goal would be to prevent the Hurricane Katrina disaster from occurring again by creating an effective, well developed evacuation plan.

Step 2
List as many possible solutions as you can generate. They don’t all have to be effective, practical or realistic. You can consider what other states have done in similar situations.

A short list of possible solutions for the evacuation plan for New Orleans:
Have emergency management officials trained on a variety of evacuation plans from around the country prior to revising the plan for New Orleans

Develop evacuation plan drills for the city to practice the plan to ensure that it works properly.

Develop ways to educate/inform the entire city about the newly revised evacuation plan including how it works, maps on where people would go and how they would get there.

Step 3
For each possible solution discuss the advantages and disadvantages. Is it a realistic solution? Is it manageable? What are the costs and benefits of the solution? What are the challenges and barriers to the solution?

Using the example of evacuation drills for the city
This is probably not a realistic plan considering the size of the city. It would be financially costly to do evacuation drills as the emergency prepared staff would have to be paid, the National Guard troops would have to be alerted. It’s also probably unmanageable as it would require that the residents leave their jobs, and it would cause multiple traffic jams.

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Step 4
Choose the resolution that seems best suited to work in alleviating the problem/issue to include in the capstone document.

Assignment One Due July 24, 2019
Only a few paragraphs!!!
Post by Day 3 your thoughts on the importance of training trauma-response helping professionals prior to their engagement in trauma work. Then describe the trauma-response helping professional you selected in the media carousel. As a counselor, explain how you could help this individual prevent vicarious trauma prior to his or her exposure to trauma and why.

Assignment Two Due July 27, 2019
Debriefing is the opportunity to process thoughts and feelings related to trauma work and traumatic events. There are a number of debriefing models and selecting the type of model is dependant upon the type of trauma work being implemented. For example, many health care organizations adopt the critical incident stress debriefing model (originated from the military) because it has been the most effective method for large organizations (Morrissette, 2004). Think of what type of debriefing model might be effective in your organization or practice.
For this Application Assignment, you select two types of debriefing models and examine the effective elements of the models which aid to mitigate vicarious trauma.

The assignment: (2–3 pages)
⦁ Describe two types of debriefing models.
⦁ Compare the similarities and differences of each model. Be specific.
⦁ Explain how each debriefing model reviews the traumatic event, provides for emotional ventilation, and meets the intended outcome of the debriefing session.
⦁ Select a training element you would add to a debriefing session to maximize the potential to prevent vicarious trauma. Justify your selection by using the Learning Resources and current literature. Be specific.

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Question 5: Psychology

Will upload the 8 resolutions soon

⦁ Review the “Problem Solving Template” (located in the Resources area on the left navigation bar), paying particular attention to the section on analyzing the solution.
⦁ Review the list of potential resolutions generated in Week 8 and identify the resolution you deem most likely to address the identified problem.
⦁ Consider the following questions for the resolution you have selected:
⦁ Is the resolution realistic?
⦁ What are the consequences of the resolution, and who would be impacted?
⦁ What would be the challenges and barriers to implementing the resolution?

The assignment:

Submit a 1- to 2-page description of the selected resolution with its advantages and disadvantages. Also explain challenges and barriers to its implementation.

Problem Solving Template

Now that you have critically analyzed the problem/issue the next step is generating a solution. Please review the following steps in creating the problem resolution for your identified problem/issue

Step 1
Identify the goal in developing a resolution.

Using the evacuation plan example, the goal would be to prevent the Hurricane Katrina disaster from occurring again by creating an effective, well developed evacuation plan.

Step 2
List as many possible solutions as you can generate. They don’t all have to be effective, practical or realistic. You can consider what other states have done in similar situations.

A short list of possible solutions for the evacuation plan for New Orleans:
Have emergency management officials trained on a variety of evacuation plans from around the country prior to revising the plan for New Orleans

Develop evacuation plan drills for the city to practice the plan to ensure that it works properly.

Develop ways to educate/inform the entire city about the newly revised evacuation plan including how it works, maps on where people would go and how they would get there.

Step 3
For each possible solution discuss the advantages and disadvantages. Is it a realistic solution? Is it manageable? What are the costs and benefits of the solution? What are the challenges and barriers to the solution?

Using the example of evacuation drills for the city
This is probably not a realistic plan considering the size of the city. It would be financially costly to do evacuation drills as the emergency prepared staff would have to be paid, the National Guard troops would have to be alerted. It’s also probably unmanageable as it would require that the residents leave their jobs, and it would cause multiple traffic jams.

Step 4
Choose the resolution that seems best suited to work in alleviating the problem/issue to include in the capstone document.

Question 6: Health Care

Assignment #3: Major Research Paper

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Question 7: Science

Instruction
It requires for you to create a PowerPoint presentation reviewing a book that has been selected. The book is based upon environmental studies and is at least 250 pages long. The presentation has to be at least 18 slides long and meet certain criteria. There is no narration required. I will provide the complete rubric after assigning it. I will also provide the book information as well at that time.

Question 8: Business

Finance assignment in the MBA Program.

M004 (E04)
MANAGERIAL FINANCE (60%)
COURSEWORK 2 (Individual Work)

Individual End-of-module Report

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In the role of a management consultant, prepare a succinct and detailed business report for the Board of Directors of your chosen company. Extend your research from coursework 1 on financial analysis of the performance of your company to include financial and non-financial performance indicators and organizations KPIs and design a balanced scorecard and linked strategy map.

You are required to use the same company as in coursework 1 but permitted to choose a different company only in exceptional circumstances (for example if the company is no longer trading). Your seminar tutor will approve your choice of organization sub-unit for CW2.

The vision, strategy or goal that you identify can be published by the organization (e.g. in their Annual Report) or identified by yourself as appropriate for the organization.
Task:
⦁ Identify the vision and strategy of either:
⦁ The entire organization or
⦁ One unit of the organization or
⦁ One major long term financial and strategic investment that the company is involved with. (10 marks)

⦁ Critically discuss and evaluate balanced scorecards for performance management and monitoring. (20 marks)

⦁ Using published information and material from coursework 1, prepare a Balance Scorecard suitable for use by the directors and managers of the chosen organization to align business activities to identified vision and strategy, and to monitor performance against strategic goals. (20 marks)

⦁ Build a strategic map to describe and explain how each aspect of the balanced scorecard can assist your company in achieving its goals and targets.
(10 marks)
⦁ Summarize your recommendations of the balance scorecard and strategic map to the board. (20 marks)

⦁ Provide a meaningful executive summary of approximately 200 words at the beginning of your report. (10 marks)
⦁ Format your report professionally and acknowledge all sources according to CULC Harvard standard. (10 marks)

This assignment tests achievement of all our module learning outcomes:

⦁ Select and apply appropriate accounting techniques to critically analyze financial data in a variety of business decision making scenarios
⦁ Make informed financial judgments based on the outcome of such accounting analyses
⦁ Critically appraise the techniques used and the information to which they have been applied
⦁ Demonstrate an critical understanding to the internal, external and legal environments in which the judgments are being made

Report Format:

⦁ The maximum word count for the main text excluding tables is 2,500 words.
⦁ Exceeding the word count by more than 10% can result in a reduction of marks.
⦁ Only the main text excluding any tables and diagrams counts, also excluding the contents page, executive summary, list of references and appendix.
2. The assignment must have a front cover stating:
⦁ Module number and name and seminar group number
⦁ Title of the assignment
⦁ Student name and ID
⦁ Submission date
⦁ Word count as defined above

3. All pages must be numbered
4. An executive summary of approximately 200 words is required (not included in the overall word count).
5. A short introduction is required (and included in the word count), even if it is not explicit in the assessment criteria.
6. A reasonable number of appendices may be used for relevant supporting information and to demonstrate your calculations and analysis.

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Special plagiarism warning:

This warning is in addition to our general policy on academic practice:

1. Do not feel tempted to copy a Balanced Scorecard from the internet. The task is that you develop the Balanced Scorecard yourself.
2. Do not feel tempted to copy a Strategy Map from the internet. The task is that you develop a Strategy Map yourself based on your own Balanced Scorecard.
3. When you take ideas or information from Coursework 1, please make sure you acknowledge it like any other source in-text and in the reference list. Direct quotes must be marked with quotation marks. An appropriate entry in the reference list would look like:

Teekeng, N., Chongmankhong, Y. and Mwangi, H. (2012) Google Financial Analysis. Unpublished Coursework. London: Coventry University London Campus

Quoting your own material from previous coursework without acknowledgement is called “self- plagiarism” and a form of academic misconduct equal to other forms of plagiarism.
The rubric by which your report will be assessed follows on page 4. It is important that prior to you submitting your work, you read this and objectively assess your response against the rubric. This will ensure that you have done enough to attain the marks you wish to achieve.

Final submission date: displayed on Black Board M004 front page.

Use the CW2 submission link for Coursework 2 to upload your assignment

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Question 9: General

Business plan report on Starbucks. Partly completed and each section has questions to areas that need to be covered.

BADM690 Strategic Management Project Guidelines
Table of Contents
Required Submissions…………………………………………………………………………………………………2 Tips for Writing the Plan……………………………………………………………………………………………..3 Project Format……………………………………………………………………………………………………………4 Expectations ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………5 Suggested Section Topics ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 7 Full Outline………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..8
1
Required Submissions:
This project allows you to apply concepts learned in this class and your other graduate business courses. Make sure your report has been specifically prepared ONLY for this class. You must include a statement on your project cover page that the paper has NOT been submitted for credit in a previous class and will not be submitted for credit in any future class, either in whole or in part.
You may work either with a team (max 3 students) or independently on this project. You should identify a “real life” company that you can have enough access to in-depth financial and operational information to fully analyze the company’s strategic management situation. It would be best if you (or a group member) work in the company you want to analyze. This will facilitate the flow of information. This project has the following assignments or requirements:
⦁ (1)  A PROJECT PROPOSAL from each person. You should submit a 1-2 page proposal that describes the company you are using for the project and the plan you have for completion. Document how you plan to get relevant company information. Ideally, you will analyze the entire company and then focus on specific projects and initiatives. You should include a proposed timeline for completion. If you are working with a group, explain how you plan to work with group members (who, when, where, etc.). The proposal should be completed individually so that I can confirm that all students have a project that will work for this assignment. You will need to submit the proposal in the “Project Proposal” assignment dropbox available under the Project tab. (4%-individual submission and grade).
⦁ (2)  A PROJECT UPDATE from each person. You should submit a 1-2 page paper that describes your progress. Explain what problems you have run into and how you plan to overcome those. Specifically list which sections you have completed and what is still remaining. Include an updated completion timeline from your proposal. If you are working with a group, explain how your group members are collaborating (who, when, where, etc.). You will need to submit the update in the “Project Update” assignment drop box available under the Project tab. (4%-individual submission and grade)
⦁ (3)  A FINAL REPORT that includes all of the detailed data, sources of information and an in depth analysis as well as a more exhaustive discussion of all of the points contained in the outline provided below. You will need to submit the final report in the Turnitin link called “Final Report”, which is available under the Project tab. (15%-group/individual grade)
⦁ (4)  A POWERPOINT/PREZI describing the Final Report that is a professional presentation. The presentation should summarize the findings and recommendations. The submission must be placed in the drop-box called “Powerpoint” which is available under the Project tab. (4%-group/individual grade)
⦁ (5)  A COURSE REFLECTION PAPER that describes your experiences and learning in this course. You should describe the strengths and weaknesses in your capstone project. What did you feel that you did really well? What areas could you have improved on? If you worked in a group, specifically discuss the positive and/or negative contributions made by each individual. Also, please explain what new knowledge, skills, and/or abilities you have learned from the project and the case studies. Which case study did you enjoy most/least and why? In addition, please describe how the text material you
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studied this this course relates to: (a) your project, (b) the case studies, and (c) your current/past/future workplace. Use specific examples/concepts from the chapters. Also, include your opinions on different aspects of the course. What was most helpful to you? What was least helpful? How could you have improved your course experience and how could I have improved your semester? Finally, please include a section describing what comes next for you. What will your life look like post-MBA? Will you look for a new job, get a promotion, get married, move, go back for another degree (i.e. DBA, JD, PhD), and/or just enjoy more free time? The reflection paper should be approximately 5 pages and should be submitted in the drop-box called “Course Reflection” which is available under the Project tab. (10%-individual submission and grade).
Your first step is to decide whether you want to work independently or in a group. If you want to work alone, you will need to sign-up in the ‘Solo Sign-up List’. To sign-up, select any available Solo#. You must sign-up in a Solo# so that the assignments will be available for you, and you will be able to access your grades.
If you would like to work in a group, you need to first find or contact other students willing to work with you. To do so, you need to post your information on the discussion board link ‘Looking for Project Partners’. Once you have contacted other students, and agreed to work together, SIGN-UP in any available Group# in the Group Sign-up List. Please, select a Group Number that is available and make sure to sign-up on the correct Group# (The Group# with your chosen team members)! Please, make sure that all members register in the same Group #, so look for your partners before signing up. Also, do not sign-up in a group without permission or agreement that you will work with the group. You must contact the members first.
The maximum number of members in each group should be 3. Keep in mind that the higher the number of members, the higher the expectations from the report.
Your next step will be to decide the company to analyze and begin your project proposal.
Tips for Writing this Plan:

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⦁ All of the writing involved in the assignment should include the use of proper citations (APA) for sources quoted or used. This applies to both the powerpoint presentation as well as the accompanying complete report.
⦁ Grammar, spelling, and formatting are important. Just because the document has passed spell check doesn’t mean the word is correctly used in context or spelled correctly in context. Please use a traditional 12 pt. font.
⦁ Your powerpoint presentation is to be done from the vantage point of an executive presentation to senior management including the CEO, COO, CFO, etc.
⦁ Clearly identify the readers of this document. Then write the plan in a style that is easily understood by readers.
⦁ Remember that this plan is a working document that has the clear purpose of initiating focussed action and generating clear and measurable results. Avoid the excessive use of
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descriptive adjectives to ‘pad’ or over-sell the plan. Flowery, highly descriptive language can cloud key issues, blur the plan’s focus and slow/confuse its implementation
⦁ Keep the plan ‘tight’; ensure it remains concise, balanced, clear and logical. Where possible use quantitative rather than qualitative information. Remember the KISSS approach to planning; keep it simple, short and specific. Interlink all Sections, with the Market Analysis (SWOT) providing a clear focus for all subsequent sections.
⦁ Focus on facts and information from credible and reputable sources. Where possible avoid critical dependencies on one source of information. Build redundancy into information sources. Make sure to validate all key information used in the plan.
⦁ Always remember that faulty assumptions and faulty logic are some of the greatest hazards to business performance and business planning. Also remember that a good plan implemented today will always beat an excellent plan implemented sometime in the future. So, get the plan completed and into action as soon as is practicable. Also, plans must be adaptive to changing circumstances. If the plan is not performing be prepared to complete ‘major surgery’ on it.
⦁ If any information is overly repetitive between sections, skip it and note that that information has been covered and where to find it.
⦁ If any section doesn’t apply to your industry/company, skip it and note that it is irrelevant.
Project Format:
The format of the final report must be digitally submitted using a 12 pt. font in word (.DOC) document format. You must use the outline provided. The main document should include a minimum of 25 and a maximum of 40 double-spaced pages (if you go above this number, make sure that the information provided is necessary). Appendices may be located at the end the report, and are not included in your maximum page count. Your references may also appear at the end of the report, before the appendix. Organize the final report under section headings and subheadings as needed. Finally, as in most business writing, the paper should adequately convey and document what you want to say, but otherwise be no longer than necessary.
The final written report will be graded primarily on its content, however, format and presentation is important too. Grading will also consider the report’s organization (sequence of ideas), balance (evidence of comparable degree of analysis in sections of comparable importance), style (English usage, grammar and punctuation), and its implementation schedule.
If you are interested in modifying the plan, please ask. I am flexible and I want you to
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get as much out of your time in my class as possible.

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Citations and References
⦁ You MUST use APA style. Please, look on the Internet or purchase the APA guides. In addition, Microsoft Word Software comes with these Citations styles functions embedded in the system. Please, do not use Chicago or Turabian styles.
⦁ It is very important that you use the proper in-text citations and reference style. Footnotes
Footnotes in the text must be numbered and typed at the bottom of the page where the footnote is made or on a separate page following the text (i.e., endnote). A footnote or endnote should be used to clarify the text, define terms, make comments, or to list additional sources. Footnotes provide additional information that would detract from the subject being discussed in the body of the text. Again, Microsoft Word software provides this function, which is easy to use!
Figures and Tables Captions
⦁ Search online for the APA and how to caption figures and tables. Then, look online for how to caption figures and tables using Microsoft. http://www.microsoft.com/education/AddCaption.aspx
⦁ Remember, if captioning Tables, the caption goes at the TOP of the Tables. However, if captioning figures or graph, the caption goes below the figures or graph and should include the source of the table (unless you have developed).
⦁ All Tables/Charts/Figures should have a descriptive title. Power Point
In addition to the written report each team/individual will prepare a POWERPOINT presentation. Assume this presentation will be displayed for a team of venture capitalists, entrepreneurs, and directors of the business you selected that may be in attendance to assist in the evaluation of your plan. It should be professional, but interesting. It should probably be between 15-25 slides, but that is not a requirement only a recommendation.
Expectations for the Capstone Project:
Your success in the business world will depend, to a large extent, on your ability to communicate. Courses during your first few years at the Business School provided the opportunity to hone your written and oral communication skills. This course will provide you with the opportunity to develop further both of these skills. You will be required to write a formal report, which might possibly be available for external judges at the end of the semester and try to convince them of the strength of your Project. The goal of this paper is to examine a company in depth to identify strategies that may have a positive impact on the firm. Remember that a strategic change is typically initiated in reaction to a triggering event and is rare, consequential, and directive.
Substance: You should substantiate what you are trying to convey with facts and data. In most cases, you will be asking the reader of your business report to commit substantial resources–financial, human, or physical–to a project. The decision-maker will not make
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the decision because you think is a good concept. Rather, you will need to convince the reader by providing hard facts and data with appropriate citations. Your rationale and reasoning should be explained logically and clearly. Effective business reports are not documents put together at the last minute—they take time to develop.
Style: The style of your business reports should be clear, concise, and to the point. The executive reading the report does not want to be entertained. He or she wants the information necessary to make a decision. Avoid flowery language with lots of adjectives and adverbs. I have high expectations. If you want to excel in the business world you should too.
Outline: You should follow the outline provided. However, most word processing software includes an outlining function. Use it. Begin your reports by developing an outline to organize your thoughts and the concepts you are trying to convey. The more comprehensive and detailed your outline, the easier it will be to write the report.
Proofread: Carefully proofread each draft of the report. You will probably need three or four drafts before you are satisfied with the report.
Exhibits/Tables/Appendices: I do not expect to receive exhibits or appendices with your handwriting on them. Instead, you should have typed exhibit numbers (let me know if you want some help). This includes copying exhibits from other sources. Unless you are using a photograph that cannot be reproduced in Word document, I expect you to make models, charts, spreadsheets on your own. This takes time but it is all part of being professional. Also, it is important to use captions for Figures or Graphs and Tables. If using Microsoft Word (or any word processor), you can select (highlight) the figure or table, then right click and select insert caption. This will insert automatically the caption (Figure 1 or Table 1) label and number. By doing this you will be able to use the captions as reference in the report. Finally, for Figures and Graphs the captions should be inserted below the graphs. For Tables, the captions should be inserted above the table. Check these in any of your textbooks, look how tables and graphs are reported.
Due dates: Reports are due on the dates assigned and there is no time in the schedule for the report to be turned in late because grades are due to the registrar just after the project due date.
Grading: Reports will be graded as if I were an executive trying to make a business decision based upon the written report. Grading will be competitive. That is, your reports will be graded relative to those turned in by your classmates. Proper spelling, syntax, grammar, punctuation, bibliography, citations, footnotes, and professional appearance are expected. Your grade may be lowered as much as two full letter grades if these areas are lacking.
Reviewing papers: I am willing to discuss the logical reasoning and proposed content of your reports. Before visiting my office, emailing or calling me, you should have made significant progress and should be well prepared.
Plagiarism: Don’t do it. Students are expected to adhere to the University policies regarding academic honesty as stated in the student handbook. Cheating or plagiarism will not be tolerated. Plagiarism includes taking exhibits or ideas from books or websites without giving credit to appropriate sources in addition to direct copy/paste instances. I am very strict about this and I will not hesitate to report academic dishonesty to the university. The work you submit MUST be your own thoughts and written in your own words. Written
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assignments will be run through TURNITIN.

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If your submission is above that limit you may be asked to redo the assignment or depending on the severity of the infraction, you
may even receive an automatic 0 on the assignment (and therefore fail the course). In addition, you may also receive an academic dishonesty warning/report.
Suggested Section Topics:
The following is a simple, but effective planning format that will fit many of the sections in this plan. The format is not rigid and should be adapted to the requirements of individual sections as applicable. The four sub-sections that comprise the suggested format are as follows:
⦁ Current Situation
Clearly and concisely present the current situation with any contributing history, and any trends, cycles, changes or future developments that are relevant
⦁ Key Issues
Clearly define the most urgent and important issues as they relate to the current situation for this Section, and the overall purpose of this plan and the company’s Mission. Key issues are usually those strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats, capability gaps and impediments that impact on business performance
⦁ Strategies to Address the Key Issues
Formulate strategies using the SMAAART acronym to address the key issues. SMAAART (Specific, Measurable, Action-orientated, Achievable, Affordable, Relevant and Time-bound)
⦁ Key Performance Measures and Targets
Establish key performance measures/indicators, performance targets and time lines in conjunction with the strategies to assess and improve performance
For your capstone project there is no reason
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for the TURNITIN match to be any higher than 20%.
Final Report Outline:
Here is a detailed outline of what you should include in your report. You should use the headings and subheadings, but your paper should be in paragraph form. If any of the headings/subheadings do not apply to your project, just type does not apply or disregard the section.
Thus, at a minimum you must develop a strategic plan for the study entity that adequately covers:
⦁ i)  Title Page:
⦁ Strategic Business Plan for “Company Name”
⦁ Period of the Study (i.e. January 2018 to December 2019)
⦁ Team Members
⦁ Originality Statement
⦁ ii)  Summary:

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The Summary is the last section written, but is placed in the front of the paper. It should be restricted to two to three pages in length. In essence the summary is a very effective distillation of the overall strategic plan into a ‘hard hitting’ summary of key performance initiatives and performance targets. Typically it would include a brief description of the company and then the following information about the proposed strategic plan:
⦁ Purpose:
⦁ The Business Opportunity
⦁ The Product
⦁ Main Findings:
⦁ The Market Strategy
⦁ The Management Team
⦁ Profit and Cash Projections
⦁ Investment Needs
⦁ Returns to Investors
⦁ Conclusions and Recommendations
⦁ iii)  Table of Contents
⦁ iv)  Body of the report:
1) Strategic Focus
⦁ The Aim of this Plan: What do we wish to achieve with this plan (start, grow,
consolidate, downsize, or exit)?
⦁ Our Mission: A Mission Statement clearly defines the primary purpose or
reasons for our existence. It is heavily focused on customer value. It is also vital to achieving organizational alignment. A mission statement typically provides clear and concise answers to the following questions:
Remember, I am flexible and I want this project to be as relevant to
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your situation as possible.
⦁ What products and services do we deliver?
⦁ Where and when do we deliver our products and services?
⦁ Which customer groups are our primary groups?
⦁ Where are our primary customers
⦁ What tangible value do our products and services deliver to customers?
⦁ What is our competitive advantage?
⦁ What additional community and environmental benefits do we generate?
⦁ Answers to the above questions provide a start-point for preparing a statement that clearly positions the company in the minds of key stakeholders and customers
⦁ Core Organizational Competencies: Which core organizational skills and competencies are vital to achieving our mission
⦁ Organizational Values: What core organisational values must be imbedded in our organisation to establish a culture capable of achieving our Mission?
⦁ Highest Priority Goals: List up to six of your highest priority goals in order of priority. These goals are formulated at Section 17. Section 17 shows how to use the SMAAART acronym to write clear, concise action-oriented goal statements. SMAAART Goals – are Specific, Measurable, Action-oriented, Achievable, Affordable, Time-bound. An example of a SMAAART Goal: By 30 June 2002 to construct and commission a world-standard production and delivery facility capable of producing two 20 metre road bridges per month for direct installation in to Australia’s public road system.
In essence strategic goals progressively take the company to its next level of performance and keep it there.
⦁ Goal One
⦁ Goal Two
⦁ Goal Three
⦁ Goal Four
⦁ Goal Five
⦁ Goal Six
⦁ Performance Objectives: The performance objectives below, in combination, form a performance scorecard for easily tracking the performance improvements generated by this plan. Section 17 provides the inputs for this scorecard. The planning team determines the composition of the performance scorecard.
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Performance Area Performance Measures Target Time Frame
Financial Performance
Customer and Market Performance
Internal Efficiency and Effectiveness
Long Term Development and Innovation
2) The Business:
Provide a concise overview of the business. Areas for consideration when preparing this section to include:
⦁ Owners/Directors/Shareholders/Shareholdings
⦁ A brief history of the business
⦁ Corporate and business cultures
⦁ Nature of the business and it main activities
⦁ Location
⦁ Current stage in its life cycle
⦁ Past performance and key achievements
⦁ Key business advisors – Solicitor, Banker, Accountant, and Consultants
⦁ Relationships with key stakeholders
⦁ Competitive strengths and weaknesses

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3) Market Analysis
Conduct a detailed analysis across each of the following areas to identify and quantify key market opportunities/gaps, barriers to market entry, threats, compliance requirements, risks, performance multipliers, critical success factors, etc. that must be considered when developing high priority product development, marketing and business strategies. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
⦁ Global/National Trends, Developments, Cycles and Changes of Relevance
⦁ Macro-environment (i.e. political, economic, legal, social/cultural,
demographics, technology)
⦁ Industry
⦁ Markets, Customers and Suppliers
⦁ Competitors and their Products
Questions typically asked during the analysis would include:
⦁ What are the industry’s economics, critical success factors, key risks,
competitiveness, compliance and standards requirements, emerging trends
and key technologies?
⦁ Who are the key customers and major competitors in each target markets?
⦁ What are the sizes of the target markets? Are they growing? If yes, at what
rate?
⦁ What market share does each major competitor hold in your primary markets
⦁ What are the strengths and weaknesses of major competitors and their
products?
⦁ What are the competitive price points for products in each market?
⦁ What competitive advantages must your products have to successfully enter
and compete in target markets?
⦁ How will you differentiate your products and add more-customer-value than
competitors?
Key questions about your primary customers:
⦁ Specifically what need or problem does your product target?
⦁ Who will make the decision to purchase your products?
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⦁ What are their decision criteria?
⦁ Where are the products bought?
⦁ How are the products bought?
⦁ When are the products bought?
⦁ Why are the products bought?
⦁ How well do you know your primary customers and key competitors?
⦁ How strong are your relationships with key customers and key stakeholders?
How do you involve them in product development? What factors will be
critical to building strong and enduring brands with them?
⦁ What levels of demand for your products are realistic across your primary
markets?
⦁ In order of priority what are your primary markets? Why?
⦁ How will your primary competitors react when you enter their markets, now
and over the next two years?
⦁ What are you going to do about their responses?
⦁ What are the major barriers to market entry?
⦁ What are the critical success factors for each market?
⦁ What key product distribution, product support and customer service issues
must be considered?

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⦁ Which companies and products are likely to become competitors in the
future?
⦁ What new or emerging technologies and substitute products are likely to
become threats in the future?
4) Products
Based on the findings of Section Three identify your product’s key strengths and weaknesses as they relate to key market opportunities and threats. Then develop strategies to address each issue (eg, build on strengths and correct weaknesses) for each product in your product portfolio. When preparing this section consider the following framework for clustering key issues and related strategies. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
⦁ Describe your current and near-future products?
⦁ What gives your products a clear competitive advantage?
⦁ What are the benefits and value provided to customer as opposed to
‘features’?
⦁ What are the environmental and social impacts and implications?
⦁ What regulations, standards and codes must be complied with?
⦁ At what stage is each product in its life-cycle? For example:
⦁ Research completed
⦁ Prototype completed
⦁ In-house testing
⦁ Customer testing
⦁ Market ready
⦁ First up-grade completed
Also consider conducting the product analysis and planning for this section
across the following stages:
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⦁ Current Situation
⦁ Key Product and Market Issues
⦁ Key Strategies
⦁ Performance Measures and Targets

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5) Marketing
Based on discussions at previous sections develop a concise set of highly focussed marketing strategies for your most attractive and highest priority markets. These strategies will guide your market entry, market development, and brand building activities. Establish budgets for these activities. Set realistic and measurable performance targets and time lines for each market entry/development strategy. These targets are critical to designing and building business and production capacities aligned with expected market demands on entry, and in to the future.
In essence marketing strategies in combination create the well differentiated, high value and compelling proposition to customers that persuades them to purchase from you rather then a competitor. These strategies should build on the competitive strengths of the company while exploiting the weaknesses of key competitors. A highly competitive, high-value proposition to customers is typically created around the following drivers of competitive advantage:
⦁ Product distribution eg, simple, speedy and easy customer-access to the product
⦁ Product benefits highly valued by the customer
⦁ Product promotion
⦁ Customer communication, interaction and feedback
⦁ Product support for the life of the product
⦁ Customer service
⦁ Product pricing and purchasing
⦁ Product presentation and packaging
⦁ Product compliance with all relevant legislation
6) Research and Development
Provide a background to current activities. Then identify key issues (strength, weakness, gaps, threats and opportunities) and develop related strategies for addressing each key issues. Link the R&D effort to your market research, product development and marketing activities discussed in previous sections. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
Areas to be analysed to include:
⦁ Sources of R&D
⦁ Current and planned
⦁ Strategic alliances for R&D
⦁ Intellectual Property Protection
⦁ Patents held plus the corporate entity that holds the patents
⦁ Shared intellectual property and its protection
⦁ Intellectual property being used, but not owned
⦁ Intellectual property protection currently being sort for new developments
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⦁ Current and planned R&D activities
⦁ Processes employed for the development and commercialisation of new
products and technologies
7) Production and Delivery
Provide a background to current activities. Then identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses, and gaps in production capacities and capabilities – as they relate to meeting the marketing requirements and targets, and R&D requirements developed in earlier sections. Then develop linked strategies with clear targets, time lines and budgets to develop and progressively expand production capabilities and capacities. All budgetary and financial constraints are factored in to this planning.
Key issues are typically identified following an evaluation of key production and delivery performance-drivers. Typical areas to be addressed during this evaluation include:
⦁ Plant design, location, size and site requirements
⦁ Access to key manufacturing technologies
⦁ Production capacity and capability requirements
⦁ Criteria for selecting contractors and suppliers
⦁ In-house versus out-sourcing of manufacturing requirements
⦁ The manufacturing and production standards, codes, regulations and
OH&S requirements that must be complied with
⦁ Equipment needs
⦁ Inventory management
⦁ Manufacturing processes – configurations and technologies
⦁ Product and production costings
⦁ Purchasing systems
⦁ Quality control systems
⦁ Manufacturing resources planning
⦁ Material requirements planning
⦁ Warehousing
⦁ Scheduling and dispatch
⦁ Material supplies and inventory
⦁ Critical/key inputs to all manufacturing and production processes
⦁ Risk management
⦁ Key staffing and skills requirements
⦁ Clear linkages to, and feedback loops with the company’s marketing,
product development, and R&D functions
⦁ Work systems and teams for staff
⦁ Designing, testing and improving all production and delivery systems
to meet market demands and expected growth
⦁ Key performance measures and targets for controlling and improving
all production and delivery systems to increase production efficiencies
and effectiveness.
⦁ Benchmarking and best-practice
13

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8) Supply Chains
Provide a background to current activities and list all key suppliers. Then identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses, and gaps in supply chain capacities and capabilities – as they relate to meeting the production and delivery requirements and targets developed at Section Seven. Then develop linked strategies with clear targets, time lines and budgets to develop and progressively improve supply chain capabilities and capacities. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning. Supply chains assessments to include out-sourcing. For example any R&D that is out-sourced should be included in this assessment. Conduct the analysis and planning for this section across the following stages:
⦁ Current Situation
⦁ Key Supply Chain Issues
⦁ Key Strategies
⦁ Performance Measures and Targets
9) Business Systems and Processes
Based on the plans/strategies developed and performance targets established in sections One to Eight identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses and gaps – within the business systems and processes that drive business performance. Then develop strategies to address these issues.
Performance reviews to improve internal business systems and processes typically include an assessment of the following performance areas:
⦁ Quality Management (eg, ISO 9001 – Quality Standard, AS 4269 – Complaints
Handling Standard)
⦁ Risk Management (eg, AS/NZS, Risk Management Standard)
⦁ Regulatory Compliance (Search for any Compliance Program Standard)
⦁ Information Management and Security (eg, Security Standard AS/NZS
ISO/IEC 17799:2000)
⦁ Financial management
⦁ Managing the environmental and social impacts of business operations
⦁ Performance improvement across the business, to include performance
indicators and targets
⦁ Future planning and ongoing innovation (eg, new product development &
process innovation)
⦁ Employee performance and morale
⦁ Stakeholder relationships
⦁ Board and management performance
10) Stakeholder Relationships and Alliances
Describe the current situation and list those key stakeholders that currently contribute to business performance. Identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses and gaps – that relate to improving stakeholder relationships and alliances. Then develop strategies to address each key issue.
Stakeholder groups typically include shareholders/blockholders, customers,
14
suppliers of good and services, employees, regulators, the environment, community, and government departments. Questions asked during the stakeholder analysis include:
⦁ Are all of our key stakeholders clearly identified?
⦁ Who will become key stakeholders in the near future?
⦁ Are their expectations and requirements clearly understood?
⦁ Are they regularly consulted?
⦁ Are they kept updated, and involved in those business decisions that will
affect them?

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11) Organization and Management
Section Seven provides clear production and delivery projections and targets for the company. Current organisational structures and human resource capabilities will most likely require improvement to meet these increasing business demands.
Conduct an analysis of the current situation and growth projections for the company to identify the key organisational and human resource issues that must be addressed if these growth projections are to be realised. Then develop strategies with key performance measures and targets to address these key issues.
Areas to be addressed include:
⦁ Organizational Chart – show current structures and future structures
⦁ The Management team with brief resumes – show the situation now and in to
the future
⦁ Staffing requirements – now and in to the future
⦁ Job descriptions and work design for management and staff – now and in to
the future
⦁ Human performance standards, measurement and feedback – now and into
the future
⦁ Management and staff training and development – now and in to the future
⦁ Recruitment and induction – now and in to the future
⦁ Encouraging innovation across the company
⦁ Providing leadership and building morale
⦁ Training needs analysis – now and in to the future
⦁ Occupational health and safety
⦁ Industrial relations
⦁ Wages and on-costs
⦁ Other relevant human resource issues
12) Environmental and Social Impacts
Conduct the analysis and planning for this section across the following stages:
⦁ Current Situation
⦁ Key Environmental and Social Issues
⦁ Key Strategies
⦁ Performance Measures and Targets
15

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13) Risk Factors and Regulatory Compliance
⦁ Risk Management
Establish key risks to the overall business and its performance by identifying high priority risks within each performance area represented by the sections of this plan. Quantify these risks by assessing the gravity of their impacts on the business should they be realised, and determining the probability that they will be realised.
Following quantification of the risks establish an order of priority for their control. Then develop risk management strategies – with performance measures, targets and time lines – that address the highest priority risks.
⦁ Regulatory Compliance
Conduct an audit of regulatory compliance requirements across each area of the business as represented by the sections of this plan. Develop strategies to address regulatory gaps and weaknesses. Search for any Compliance Programs Standard that could provide a good framework for developing an effective compliance management system.
A regulatory compliance audit would typically embrace:
⦁ Corporate governance
⦁ Taxation
⦁ Superannuation
⦁ Employing staff
⦁ Health and safety
⦁ Trade Practices
⦁ Intellectual Property Rights
⦁ Environmental Issues
⦁ The Privacy Act
14) Corporate Governance
Areas to be addressed by this section typically would include:
⦁ Corporate Structures
⦁ Company Constitution
⦁ Board of Directors – Size and Composition
⦁ Duties and Responsibilities of the Board
⦁ Board Performance
⦁ Advisors to the Board
⦁ Shareholder Agreements
⦁ Major Shareholders and Their Representatives
15) Financials
Based on the strategies and plans formulated, costings calculated, and sales projected develop a set of financials for the duration of the plan. These financials should include cash flows, profit and loss, balance sheets, investment requirements, and key financial performance indicators (ratios), and related performance targets.
16) Application of Investment Funds
16
This section should be linked to all prior planning and at minimum address the following:
⦁ What will be the total investment requirement across the duration of this plan
– when and how much?
⦁ Which investors will be involved; how much will they provide and when will
they provide it?
⦁ How will the funds be used at each round of investment?
⦁ What will the capital structure and ownership be after each round of
investment?
17) Strategic Action Plan
Primary Goals, Objectives and Strategies
The Aim of this section is to integrate all strategies developed across previous sections into a cohesive and balanced plan of highly focussed action that will achieve the overarching purpose of this Strategic Plan.
Firstly…..High-priority, clear, action-orientated, time-bound and practicably achievable goals are formulated around clusters of ‘like’ strategies developed across the previous sections. Goals mark a clear and well-marked pathway for achieving the aim of this plan. To ensure the plan has a sharp focus the number of key goals should be restricted to six or less whenever possible. A clear time frame and performance target should be integrated in to each goal statement. An example of a goal statement: By 30 June 2018 to construct and commission a world-standard production and delivery facility capable of producing two 20 metre road bridges per month for direct installation in to Australia’s public road system.
After each goal has been clearly formulated develop a set of supporting objectives and strategies. Objectives define the best pathway for achieving each goal. Strategies define the pathway for achieving each objective. Objectives and strategies are also written using the SMAAART acronym – Specific, Measurable, Action-orientated, Affordable, Achievable, and Time-bound. The final step in developing an interacting hierarchy/network of focussed action is the Task plan. This plan allocates people and resources to completing those tasks required for achieving each strategy. Vital budget and resource considerations are integrated in to the overall planning process to ensure all planned actions are affordable.
The interacting hierarchy/network of action for achieving the aim of the plan is illustrated below. The hierarchy/network of focussed action is not a rigid structure and, where possible, should be adapted to the each situation to ensure it provides fast, effective and relatively simple action pathways for delivering results of significance.
⦁ Key Strategic Goal
⦁ Objectives to achieve the strategic goal
⦁ Strategies to achieve each objective
⦁ Task Plans to achieve each strategy
⦁ Plan Implementation: Typically management in consultation with staff and
17
key stakeholders implements each Goal and its supporting objectives, strategies and action/task plans. Balanced teams can be effectively employed to implement strategies and supporting action/task plans.
18) Plan Improvement
⦁ Performance Measurement: The plan’s performance should be assessed
against its effectiveness in achieving its high priority goals and performance targets.
⦁ Plan Review and Up Date: To ensure the plan continues to provide a sharp focus and remain responsive to change it should be formally reviewed and updated every six months, at the achievement of a Strategic Goal and at any other time deemed necessary. Implementation of this plan is to be a fixed agenda item at meetings of the Board of Directors.
v) References vi) Appendices
18

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Question 10: Mathematics

Q. At Ahmed’s Birth day party,5/7 part of the total cake was distributed. find how much cake is left?

Question 11: Psychology

we are as a imperfect! Do you think That There is a Perfect ? and Why?

Question 12: Finance

Review the article below, which is also in the required reading section of this unit.
Miralles-Quirós, M. d. M., & Miralles-Quirós, J. (2017). Improving diversification opportunities for socially responsible investors. Journal of Business Ethics, 140(2), 339-351. Retrieved from https://libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/login?url=http://search.ebscohost.com/login.aspx?direct=true&db=bth&AN=120928035&site=ehost-live&scope=site
Your article review should include an accurate identification of the article’s premise, significant points in support of the premise, and the significance of these to the course and/or field. Be sure that you present an insightful and thorough analysis with strong arguments and evidence of interpretation.
Your case study analysis should address the components listed below.
⦁ Discuss who socially responsible investors are and how they use U.S. Treasury bills (T-bills), mutual funds, and hedge funds to diversify their portfolios.
⦁ Analyze the results of the T-bills listed and the net asset value (NAV) results for the mutual funds and hedge funds.
⦁ Examine the volatility linkage and the pricing of the three investment options.
⦁ Identify further research needed based on the article.
Your article review should be a minimum of three pages in length, not counting the title and reference pages. You must use a minimum of three sources, which should be properly cited. All references should be formatted in APA style.

Question 13: Biology

If a patient presents to you post ischemic stroke on warfarin and their INR is therapeutic. Do you reverse it?

Question 14: Chemistry

You are asked to prepare a 1.000 L solution of 4.5 M C6H12O6 (glucose; molar mass = 180.16 g/mol) in a lab by dissolving 811.0 g of glucose in water. Consider the following two scenarios in which you commit a user error while preparing this solution.
Prepared in a volumetric flask Prepared in a beaker
Assumed volume 1.000 L 1.000 L
Volumetric error Added water 2.0 cm above the line, which corresponds to 6.3 mL (0.0063 L) additional solution volume 811.0 g takes up 526 mL of space rather than 500 mL of space
Preparation details You add the glucose to a volumetric flask and then add water until it dissolves. The water bottle you are using has a worn tip, and you inadvertently add too much water such that the meniscus is above the line. The diameter of the neck of the volumetric flask is 2.29 cm . You prepare the solution by adding glucose to a large beaker and approximated the volume of the glucose to be 500 mL . Therefore, you add 500. mL of water to the 526 mL in the beaker using a graduated cylinder.
You decide to evaluate and compare the errors you made while preparing the solutions using the different methods. Calculate the actual concentrations of the intended 4.5 M glucose solutions prepared by each method based on their actual final volumes.

Question 15: Engineering

Chemical engineering thermodynamics

Propane gas at 100 °C is compressed isothermally from an initial pressure of 1 bar to a final pressure of 10 bar. Estimate ?H a

Question 16: Law

find and review a scholarly article  on the topic of Management.
Compose a substantive post where you discuss two or more facts/ideas/concepts/etc. covered in the article then explain how those facts/ideas/concepts/etc. relate to your organization or an organization with which you are familiar.

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Question 17: Computer Science

Java Programming
ITEC1620 Assignment#3
⦁ Due: July 31, 11 PM; Late submissions will be rejected.
⦁ Submission upload must be in plain text format; all others will be rejected.
⦁ Name your file with your full name, e.g., peggy_carter.txt.
⦁ Programs/codes must compile – resolve all syntax errors.
⦁ Include appropriate comments describing significant parts of the program.
1.
The program features include:
a) b) c) d) e) f)
AdjustMarks
Marker
Write a Java program called
that gets a set of test scores and uses the
class that calculate
the mean of an array of test scores with the lowest score dropped. See UML diagram provided below.
asking the user for the number of test scores;
creating the scores array to hold the test scores;
creating a Marker object passing the scores array as a parameter;
displaying the lowest score;
adjusting the mean by annulling (dropping) the lowest score and
displaying the adjusted mean; if there is less than 2 scores, the adjusted mean is 0.0 and the user is
informed of the ERROR.
Hint: the getLowestScore method needs to hold the lowest score; get the first test score in the array and step through the rest of the array; when a value less than lowest is found, assign it to lowest; then return the lowest test score.
Sample Output:
How many test scores do you have? 4
Enter score #1: 90
Enter score #2: 80
Enter score #3: 70
Enter score #4: 60
Your adjusted mean is 80.0
Your lowest test score was 60.0

Question 18: Law

1. Describe the importance of integrating the work of experts in college writing
2.summarize the importance of learning to conduct and properly credit the work of experts in college writing. How will doing so help you on your academic journey?
3.Define emotional intelligence. What are the benefits of emotional intelligence? Why should
emotional intelligence be taught to children at a very young age. (Your response should be a
minimum of 150 words)
4.Discuss in detail the role of self awareness in becoming emotionally intelligent. What is self
awareness and how do we become self aware? What role does honesty and transparency play
in this process? (Your response should be a minimum of 200 words)
5 .Discuss in detail the role of self management in becoming emotionally intelligent. What is self
management and what does it look like when we self manage our lives? Explain how this might
be the area of emotional intelligence where we most often fail. (Your response should be a
minimum of 200 words)
6. Discuss in detail the role of social awareness in emotional intelligence. What is social
awareness. How can we become more socially aware? How does this step indicate a move
outside of ourselves and begin our interaction with others? (Your response should be a
minimum of 200 words)
7.Discuss in detail the role of social awareness in emotional intelligence. What is social
awareness. How can we become more socially aware? How does this step indicate a move
outside of ourselves and begin our interaction with others? (Your response should be a
minimum of 200 words)

Question 19: Business

https://www.chegg.com/homework-help/questions-and-answers/case-7-chipotle-mexican-grill-inc-conscious-capitalism-serving-food-i

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Question 20: Computer Science

Operating System

Suppose there are two users A and B on the same system and both running different programs on the same system.
Suppose there are two users A and B on the same system and both running different programs on the same system. User A plans to change the password of the system. As soon as he was changing the password on the system, User B also opened the necessary interface for changing the password of the system and begins changing the password at exactly the same time.
⦁ What flaws do you find in such a system?
⦁ How to solve problems? Give solution

Question 21: Engineering

Assignments in Numerical Methods for Mechanics
1) The maximum distance up an inclined plane (of an inclination ) reached by an object of mass m, taking the air resistance proportional to the instantaneous velocity (constant of proportionality K) into account is
Show that as → 0,
a) Find the inclination of the plane of a 5 kg object moved through a maximum distance of 2 m with an initial velocity of 10 m/s. If K = 2 s/kg.
constant of proportional being K is given by
b) If the maximum height attained by a body of mass m when thrown upward with an initial velocity (air resistance is proportional to its instantaneous velocity, the
0
00 =
At what initial velocity will a body of mass 3 kg be thrown so as to attain a maximum height of 5m. Given that K = 2s/kg. What happens as → 0
2) A rocket has mass M, which includes a mass m of a fuel mixture. During the burning process, the combustion products are discharged at a velocity q > 0 relative to the rocket. This burning involves a loss per second of a mass p of the final mixture. Neglecting all external forces except a constant gravitational force, the maximum theoretical height attained rocket is given by
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2
= + ln − + 2 ln − 2
(if the rocket starts radially from the earth’s surface with velocity of zero) Find the mass of the rocket if for = 1.4, p= 1.0, and = 1080 .
3) An object is projected vertically upward from the earth’s surface with an initial velocity 0 of magnitude less than the escape velocity. If the earth’s influence is taken into account, the time for the projectile to reach the maximum height is
2 2 2 − 2 = (arcsin0+0 0
(2 − 2)2 2 2 3
a) Show, by series or otherwise, that if 02 ≪ 2 (i.e initial velocity much smaller than escape velocity), then the time to reach the maximum height is approximately 0/
4) An object falls y distance from the center of the earth (radius ). Show that it hits the
earth’s surface with a speed equal to 2 (1 − )
2 − = ( − ) + arccos
If the object reaches the earth’s surface in a time given by
2 2 2
3
= 6378.11 , = 384.467 ∗ 10
(assuming that air resistance is negligible). Find the time to reach the earth surface if
5) A horizontal simply supported, uniform beam of length L and negligible weight bends under the influence of a concentrated load of P N, distance L/3 from one end. If the equation of the elastic curve is given by 2 3
⎧ (5 −9 ) 0≤ ≤ /3
= ⎨ 81 27 3
⎩81 (5 2 − 9 3 + 2 − 3 3 ≤ ≤
6) From the immemorial, mankind has gazed at the moon, wondering about many things, one of them being whether a day might come when men could be there.
Following the Newton’s law of universal gravitation which shows the possibility of firing a projectile (rocket) out of the earth (or a huge cannon) with an escape velocity of
= 2 − 2 0 2 + 2 2 − 2 0 2
0
+ + + 9( + + )
where , are the acceleration and the radius of the moon. L is the distance between the earth’s surface and the moon’s surface. is the radius of the earth. g is the acceleration
due to gravity on the earth.

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If a rocket is fired vertically upward from the earth’s surface with an initial velocity
Find the initial velocity of the rocket if it reaches a maximum distance of 240,000 miles in
= 1737.41 , = 6378.11 , = 384.467 ∗ 103
7. At the last conference of Nigeria Society of Engineers (NSE), a mechanical engineer presented a paper on the “Effects of Noise on Machine Operator”. In the work, he developed a mathematical model using Taylor’s series and carried out all the computations to four decimal places.
i. identity the possible types of numerical error that might have been committed by the engineer during the computations.
(less than that of escape velocity). And it reaches the maximum height at a time
0
50 hrs.
= 2 2 arcsin 0 + 0 2 − 02 (2 − 02)32 2 2
ii. Define the errors and state how they can be minimized.
b The relationship between the applied pressure, P and the radius of the plastic front, rf in the elasto-plastic analysis of thick-walled cylindrical pressure vessel is given as
P= 2 +1− 2
√3 2
where σo is the yield stress of the cylinder material, ri and ro are the inner and outer radius of
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the cylinder, respectively. Given that σo=220 N/mm2, ri = 320 mm and ro=450 mm, use Newton- Raphson’s method, find the radius of the plastic front when the applied pressure is 81.29 N/m2.
8. Fig. Q1 shows a wind tunnel with a suspended object. The force measured for various levels of wind velocity are given in the Table below.
Fig. Q1: A wind tunnel with a suspended object.
v(m/s) 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 F (N) 25 70 380 550 610 1220 830 1450
⦁ Use the data above, develop an empirical model for the relationship between the force and the wind velocity.
⦁ With the aids of Simpson’s 1/3rd rule and Newton-Gregory forward difference scheme, find power developed by the wind tunnel. Compare your results and establish the relative difference between them.
(i) (ii) (iii)
9. The dynamic mechanical spring-mass system with aid of Newton’s second law of motion is given by
( − )+ ( − )− = ̈ 2213311111
− 2( 2 − 1) + 4( 3 − 2) = 2 2̈ − 3( 3 − 1) − 4( 3 − 2) − 5 3 = 3 3̈
10). Solve equation 2 − 1 1/2
2 − 1 1/2 = 1/2 tan−1 2 −tan−1 1
− ((tan−1( 2 − 1)1/2) − (tan−1( 12 − 1)1/2))
using the Newton-Raphson’s method. Construct a table of M vs for = 1.4 and 1 = 1.0, for 0 ≤ δ ≤ 40 , in increments Δ = 1.0 , let 0 = 1.06 and 1 = 1.08. For subsequent values of , let 0 be the previous solution value and 1 = 1.01 0.
11). The van der Waal equation of state for a vapor is
+ ( − ) = 223
Where P is the pressure (Pa = N/m ), v is the specific volume (m /kg), T is the temperature (K), R is the gas constant (J/kg-K), and a and b are empirical constants. Consider water vapor, for which R = 461.495 J/kg-K, a = 1703.28 Pa-(m3/kg)3, and b = 0.00169099 (m /kg). Equation (F) can be rearranged into the form
3 3 − ( + ) 2 + − = 0
Calculate the specific volume v for P = 10,000 kPa and T = 800K. Use the ideal gas law, Pv = RT, to obtain the initial guess (or guesses). Present the results in the format illustrated in the examples
12. When an incompressible fluid flows steadily through a round pipe, the pressure drop due to the effects of wall friction is given by the empirical formula:
Δ = −0.5 2
Where Δ is the pressure drop, is the density, V is the velocity, L is the pipe length, D is the pipe diameter, and f is the D’Arcy friction coefficient. Several empirical formulas exist for the friction coefficient f as a function of the dimensionless Reynolds number, = / , where is the viscosity. For flow in the turbulent regime between completely smooth pipe surfaces and wholly rough pipe surfaces, Colebrook (1939) developed the following empirical relation for the friction coefficient f:
1 =−2log / + 2.51 1/2 10 3.7 1/2
where is the pipe surface roughness. Develop a procedure to determine f for the specified values of / and Re. Use the approximation proposed by Generaux (1939) to determine the initial approximation(s):
= 0.16 −0.16
Solve for f for a pipe having / = 0.001 for = 10 , for n = 4, 5, 6, and 7.
13. Consider quasi-one-dimensional isentropic flow of a perfect gas through a variable-area
channel. The relationship between the Mach number M and the flow area A, derived by
12 −1 ε= ∗= +1 1+ 2 2
( +1)/2( −1)
Zucrow and Hoffman [1976, Eq. (4.29)], is given by
where ∗ is the choking area (i.e., the area where M = 1) and is the specific heat ratio of the flowing gas. For each value of , two values of M exist, one less than unity (i.e,. subsonic flow) and one greater than unity (i.e., supersonic flow). Calculate both values of
M for = 10.0 and = 1.4 by Newton’s method. For the subsonic root, let 0 = 0.2. For the supersonic root, let 0 = 5.0.
14. Consider isentropic supersonic flow around a sharp expansion corner. The relationship between the Mach number before the corner (i.e., M1) and after the corner (i.e., M2), derived by Zucrow and Hoffman [1976] is given by
−1 1/2 −1 1/2 = 1/2 tan−1 2 −tan−1 12
− ((tan−1( 2 − 1)1/2) − (tan−1( 12 − 1)1/2))
where = ( + 1)/( − 1) and is the specific heat ratio of the gas. Develop a procedure to solve for M2 for specified values of , , 1. For = 1.4, solve for M2 for the following combinations of M1and : (a) 1.0 and 10.0 deg, (b) 1.0 and 20.0 deg, (c) 1.5 and
10.0 deg, and (d) 1.5 and 20.0 deg. Use 2(0) = 2.0 and 2(1) = 1.5.
15. An emf of 0 volts, where 0, are constants, is applied at t = 0 to a series circuit
)
= ( + − 222
consisting of R ohms and C farad where R and C are constant. If Q = 0 at t = 0 and at t > 0
0 + 1
If = 20Ω, C = 0.01 farad, = 5 / , 0 = 10
− /
i) At what time in the circuit the charges reaches 0.075 coulomb ii) At what time in the circuit is the charge maximum.
16. When an ideal gas flows in a variable-area passage in the presence of friction and heat transfer, the Mach number M is governed by the following Ode [see Eq. (9.112) in Zucrow and Hoffman, Vol. 1 (1976)}:
= [1 + (( − 1) 2)/2] − 1 + 1 2 4 + 1 (1 + 2) 1
1− 2 2 2
where x is the distance along the passage (cm), is the ratio of specific heats (dimensionless), A is the cross-sectional flow area (cm2), f is the friction coefficient (dimensionless), D is the diameter of the passageway (cm), and T is the stagnation temperature (K). For a conical flow passage with a circular cross section, = 2/4, where ( ) = 1 + , where D1 is the inlet diameter. Thus,
= = ( + ) = ( + ) = 424 1 221 2
The stagnation temperature T is given by
( )= + ( ) 1
where Q(x) is the heat transfer along the flow passage (J/cm) and C is the specific heat (kJ/kg-K). Thus,
For a linear heat transfer rate, = + , and
= 1 ( + ) =
= 1
The friction coefficient f is an empirical function of the Reynolds number and passage
conditions. Consider a problem where = = 0.0, = 0.25 / , = 1.4, and =
surface roughness. It is generally assumed to be constant for a specific set of flow
1.0 . Calculate M(x) for x = 0.0 to 5.0 cm for (a) Mi = 0.7 and (b) Mi = 1.5 17. The governing equation for a projectile shot vertically upward is
2 = − − | | (0) = 0 ′(0) = 2 0
where m is the mass of the projectile (kg), y(t) is the height (m), g is the acceleration of gravity (9.80665 m/s2),
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C is an aerodynamic drag parameter, and V = dy/dt is the velocity. For m = 10.0kg, C = 0.1 N-s2/m2, and V0 = 500.0 m/s, calculate (a) the maximum height attained by the projectile, (b) the time required to reach the maximum height, and (c) the time required to return to the original elevation.
18. A machine of mass m (kg) rests on a support that exerts both a damping force and a spring force on the machine. The support is subjected to the displacement ( ) = . From
Newton’s second law of motion,
0 2
2 = − − − ( − )
where (y – Y) is the relative displacement between the machine and the support, C is the damping coefficient, and K is the spring constant. Determine the motion of the machine during the first cycle of oscillation of the support for m = 1,000.0 kg, C = 5,000.0 N-s/m, K = 50,000.0 N/m, Y0 = 1.0 cm, = 100.0 / and y(0) = y’(0) = 0.0.
+ +1 = ( ) (0)= (0)=
19. The current i(t) in a series L-R-C circuit is governed by the ODE
00
where i is the current (amps), q is the charge (coulombs), dq/dt = I, L is the inductance (henrys), C is the capacitance (farads), and V is the applied voltage (volts). Let L = 100.0 mH, R = 10.0 ohms, C = 1 mf, V = 10.0 volts, i0 = 0.0, and q0 = 0.0. Calculate i(t) and q(t) for t = 0.0 to 0.05 s. What is the maximum current, and at what time does it occur?
equation
20. The angular displacement ( ) (radians) of a frictionless pendulum is governed by the
2 + =0 (0)= ′(0)= ′ 2 0 0
where g is the acceleration of gravity (9.80665 m/s2) and L is the length of the pendulum (m). For small , the governing equation simplifies to
2 + = 0 2
Solve for ( ) for one period of oscillation for (0.0) = 0.1 0.5 , ′(0.0) = 0.0, and L = 0.1, 1.0, and 10.0 m, using the simplified equation.
21. The population of two species competing for the same food supply can be modeled by the pair of ODEs: 1 = ( − − ) (0) =
111112 1 1,0 2 = ( − − ) (0) =

where AN is the birthrate, BN models the death rate due to disease, and 1 2 models
222221 2 2,0
2
the death rate due to competition for the food supply. If (0.0)= (0.0)=
12 100,000, 1 = 0.1, 1 = 0.0000008, and 2 = 0.0000001, calculate 1( ) 2( )
for t = 0.0 to 10.0 years.
22. Consider a projectile of mass m (kg) shot upward at the angle (radians) with respect to the horizontal at the initial velocity 0 (m/s). The two ODEs that govern the displacement, x(t) and y(t) (m), of the projectile from the launch are ′
2 = − | | (0) = 0 (0) = (0) = 2 0
2 = − | | − (0) = 0 ′(0) = (0) = 2 0
where the vector velocity V = iu + jv, u = dx/dt and v = dy/dt, C is a drag parameter, = tan−1( / ), and g is the acceleration of gravity (9.80665 m/s2). For m = 10.0 kg, C = 0.1 N-s2/m2, V0 = 500.0 m/s, = 1.0 radian, and a level terrain, calculate (a) the maximum height attained by the projectile, (b) the corresponding time, (c) the maximum range of the projectile, (d) the corresponding time, and (e) the velocity V at impact.
23. The temperature distribution in a cylindrical rod made of a radioactive isotope is governed

2 + 1 = 1 + 2 (0) = 0 ( ) = 0
by the ordinary differential equation
2
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Solve this problem for T(r), where R = 1.0 and A = -100.0.
24. The velocity distribution in the laminar boundary layer formed when an incompressible fluid flows over a flat plate is related to the solution of the ordinary differential equation
′′
3 + 2 =0 (0)=0, (0)=0, ( )→1 →∞
3 2
where f is a dimensionless stream function, the velocity u is proportional to ′( ), and is proportional to distance normal to the plate. Solve this problem for ( ).

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25. The deflection of a simply supported and uniformly loaded beam is governed by the ordinary differential equation (for small deflections)
2 = − + 2 (0) = 0 ( ) = 0 2 2 2
where q is the uniform load per unit length, L is the length of the beam, I is the moment of inertia of the beam cross section, and E is the modulus of elasticity. For a rectangular beam, = h3/12, where w is the width and h is the height. Consider a beam (E = 200 GN/m2) 5.0m long, 5.0 cm wide, and 10.0 cm high, which is subjected to the uniform load q = – 1,500 N/m on the 5.0 cm face. Solve for the deflection y(x)
26. When the load on the beam described in problem 120 is applied on the 10.0 cm face, the deflection will be large. In that case, the governing differential equation is
( 2 / 2) = − + 2 [1 + ( / )2]3/2 2 2
For the properties specified in problem 120, determine y(x).
27. The angular displacement ( ) of a frictionless pendulum is governed by the ODE ′ ′ + = 0 ( 0 ) = 0 ′ ( 0 ) = 0′

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Reduce this second-order ODE to a pair of first-order ODEs and use Fourth-order Runge-
Kutta Method to solve the equation using L=0.56 m.
28. The governing equation for the displacement y(t) of a projectile shot vertically upward is
′′ + | | = − (0) = 0, ′(0) = (0) = 0
where V = dy/dt is the projectile velocity, C is the drag parameter, and g is the acceleration of gravity. Reduce this second-order ODE to a pair of first-order ODEs and use Fifth-order Runge-Kutta Method to solve the equation using C=0.0278 N/kg.
29. The governing ODEs for the position, x(t) and y(t) of a projectile shot at an angle with
′′ + | | = 0 (0) = 0, ′′(0) = (0) = 0
respect to the horizontal are
′′ + | | = − (0) = 0, ′(0) = (0) = 0
where = ( 2 + 2)1/2, = tan−1( / ), u = dx/dt, v = dy/dt, C is a drag parameter, and
g is the acceleration of gravity. Reduce this pair of coupled second-order ODEs to a set of four first-order ODEs and use Fourth-order Runge-Kutta Method to solve the equation using C=0.0278 N/kg..
.
30. When a fluid flows over a surface, the shear stress ( / 2) at the surface is given by the
expression
= where is the viscosity (N-s/m2), is the velocity parallel to the surface (m/s), and y is the distance normal to the surface (cm). Measurements of the velocity of an air stream flowing above a surface are made with an LDV (laser Doppler-velocimeter). The values given in Table 3 were obtained.
Table 1. Velocity Measurements
At the local temperature, = 0.00024 − / 2. Calculate (a) the difference table for u(y), (b) du/dy at the surface based on first-, second-, and third-order polynomials, (c) the corresponding values of the shear stress at the surface, and (d) the shear force acting on a flat plate 10 cm long and 5 cm wide.
y u y u
0.0 0.00 2.0 88.89
1.0 55.56 3.0 100.00

Question 22: Health Care

Marguerite M and the Angiogram Case

Answer the case questions found at the end of the case narrative; be sure to respond using well-thought-ot and well-written statements being mindful of spelling, grammar and clarity of statements. Each question must be answer with a minimum of 300-350 words.
A grading rubric is also provided

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Case Study Grading Rubric
Purpose: Discussion Cases are based on real-life occurrences and offer practical application of information discussed within chapters. These cases are used to stimulate and draw upon the student’s critical-thinking skills and problem-solving ability.
Five Criteria for each question Focus Specificity Support Throughtfulness Use of Language
Excellent
(40 – 50 points) Responses may vividly clear and accurate references to each specific question. Majority of responses include specific details. Response are well- supported. Responses are articulate and show a high-level of thought. Writing is well- organized, unified, and error-free.
Good
(31 – 39 points) Responses make some references to questions but do not address each of them in a clear and accurate manner. Some responses include specific details. Responses are somewhat well- supported. Responses show some thought. Writing is somewhat organized and unified, with some errors.
Fails to meet expectations (0 – 30 points) Responses make very few clear and accurate references to questions posed. No responses include specific details. Responses are not supported. Comments show no thought. Writing is not organized or unified; errors impair communication.

CASE STUDY #3 (CHAPTER 13)
THE CASE OF MARGUERITE AND THE ANGIOGRAM
Marguerite M., an 89-year-old widow, was admitted into the cardiac intensive care unit in Chicago’s Memorial Hospital at 3:00 A.M. on a Sunday morning with a massive heart attack (myocardial infarction). Her internist, Dr. K., who is also a close family friend, has ordered an angiogram to determine the status of Marguerite’s infarction (heart attack). Dr. K. has found that the angiogram and resulting treatment need to be done within the first six hours after an infarction in order to be effective. Therefore, the procedure is going to be done as soon as the on-call surgical team can set up the angiography room. The radiologist, who lives 30 minutes from the hospital, must also be in the hospital before the procedure can begin. At 4:30 A.M. the team is ready to have Marguerite, who is barely conscious, transferred from the intensive care unit (ICU) to the surgical suite.
Coincidentally, at 4:30 A.M. Sarah W., an unconscious 45-year-old woman, is brought in by ambulance with a massive heart attack. The emergency room (ER) physicians, after conferring with her physician by phone, conclude that she will need a balloon angiography (dilating an obstructed vessel by threading a balloon-tipped catheter into the vessel) to save her life. When they call the surgical department to have the on-call angiography team brought in, they are told the room is already set up for Dr. K’s patient. They do not have another team or surgical room for Sarah. A decision is made that since Sarah needs the balloon angiography in order to survive, they will use the angiography team for her.
Dr. K. is called at home and told that his patient, Marguerite, will not be able to have the angiogram. The hospital is going to use the angiography team for Sarah, since she is younger than Marguerite and has a greater chance for recovery. Unfortunately, it took longer than expected to stabilize Sarah before and after the procedure and the six-hour “window” when the procedure could be performed on Marguerite passed. Marguerite expired (died) the following morning.
Case Questions
⦁ Do you believe that this case presents a legal or ethical problem, or both?
⦁ What do you believe should be the criteria for a physician to use when having to choose between a solution that benefits one patient at the expense of another?
⦁ How can Dr. K. justify this decision when speaking to the family of Marguerite M.?
⦁ What options does a member of the angiography team or caregiver for Marguerite have if he or she disagrees with this decision?

Question 23: Mathematics

1Find g(p) given g(x)=-x^2+4x+4

Question 24: Business

Business Policy/Strategic Planning Assignment 2

Bed Bath and Beyond
Prepare the following section for this assignment (note: the purpose of this assignment is to ensure successful progress is being made toward completion of the final Company/Case Analysis and to provide a continued review by the professor of the APA requirements):
⦁ Cover page
⦁ What is this organization’s strategy to compete? Is the strategy working? Perform a complete, fully developed with explanations, SWOT analysis. (A minimum of eight components for element of SWOT, along with the identification and justification of the UT: Ultimate Threat is required: 8 components for each SWOT element=C, 11=B, 14=A).

Question 25: Business

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Business Policy/Strategic Planning Essay questions

⦁ What is meant by the term “Corporate Culture?” Summarize the “Golfer” article, include each of the “key” concepts from this article, and then provide a comparison of each of these “keys” to your current or last job.  Can play and fun interfere with constructive employee efforts? Explain. Discuss how to incorporate (and then implement) “fun” into the strategic planning process.

2. List and explain four key, core competencies that will assist any organization in developing an employee-based, sustainable competitive advantage?  Many organizations are faced with the human resource problem: “the right people aren’t in the right jobs.” Should the leaders of the organization in your case (or place of employment, current or immediate past) spend more time selecting, appraising, and developing people? Why? Is this the solution to strategy execution? Why?
3.Discuss these statements from your point of view (agree or disagree and why):
⦁ “In creating a strategy-supportive reward structure it is important to define jobs and assignments in terms of the results to be accomplished, not just in terms of the duties to be performed.”
⦁ “The use of incentives and rewards is the simple most powerful tool at management’s disposal to win strong employee commitment to carrying out the strategic plan.?
4. Summarize each of the following three models and then compare and contrast each:
⦁ BCG Model
⦁ GE Model
⦁ Product Lifecycle

5. Discuss the differences between a vision and a mission. Why are organizations finding it difficult to execute the strategies that they design? Discuss in detail (with three examples from the Bed Bath, and Beyond) how an organization implements strategies effectively.
6. What is the value of a SWOT analysis? What are the key considerations to performing this analysis? How does it contribute to the task of crafting strategy? Why is it appropriate to argue that good strategy-making and good strategy-implementing are valid signs of good management?
7. Using the industry from Bed Bath and Beyond, explain the major factors that enter into an assessment of whether an industry does or does not have long-term attractiveness? Can an industry be attractive to one company and unattractive to another? Why? How does a company develop a competitive capability and then the ultimate competitive advantage?
8. Perform a SWOT Analysis on/for Indiana Tech, listing four examples for each component of the SWOT, along with the UT (ultimate threat).
9. Discuss the relationship of a continuous improvement program to the strategic planning process. How can a total quality culture be the ultimate strategic competitive advantage? Explain through three examples.
10. Explain the following quote and provide a plan of action with four examples, in regards to “what it takes to get it done.”   “Implementing and executing strategy is the ultimate task of strategic management.  It involves seeing what it will take to ‘make it happen,’  then getting it done in a manner that achieves the targeted results.”
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Question 26: Business

Business Policy/Strategic Planning

Company Analysis and Questions: Bed Bath & Beyond
⦁ Cover page
⦁ Historical background of the company (3-5 pages)
⦁ Discuss the distinguishing features (Market size, Market growth rate, Industry strength, etc.) of the industry that the company is in.

Question 27: Accounting

Financial Derivative

Mr Yong is an investor who is always wavering in his decisions. On day 1, he went long 3 SIF contracts of June maturity. On day 2, he shorted 2 June SIF contracts. A few days later, he sold a June index call option and simultaneously bought a June index put option. Assuming all contracts were bought/sold at the same exercise/strike prices, what is Mr Yong’s net position now?

Question 28: Finance

In the textbook, we learned about the CAMELS system for rating banks. For this assignment, research and provide specific information on what CAMELS measures. Below is the recommended format for your assignment.
⦁ Include a title page (page 1).
⦁ Find the CAMELS rating for one of the top five banks (JPMorgan Chase, Bank of America, Wells Fargo, Citigroup, or Goldman Sachs) on the FDIC website  ⦁ here. Provide an analysis of their scores. What do they mean for the bank (page 2)?
⦁ Chart the risks associated with each financial institution (page 3).
⦁ Include a reference page (page 4).
Your submission should be a minimum of two pages in length, not counting the title and reference pages. All sources must be properly cited; all references should be formatted in APA style.

Question 29: Business

Four types of questions that can help a business studies teacher to gauge how effectively learners are learning

Question 30: Business

Activities that can be used by Enterpreneurship teachers to effectively assess learners formatively during

Question 31: Sociology

Assignment: You are to observe, record & interpret a social situation (the environment, material culture, people, what they do, say, feel, how it smells- use all of your senses!). (6 pages including reference).

Instruction
I. Introduce your topic: what are you going to write about and why did you choose it? You might provide some background to tell me about this. II. Record and describe a social situation to the fullest you can. Do not leave out details but describe it to the fullest you can, do not evaluate it yet. III. Analyze it: that is evaluate the social situation based on criteria you select This means you are going to evaluate the social situation in which you observed people doing something….according to criteria you find interesting. It can be social status, rank, economics, reciprocity, political situation, descent, kinship, status, as a form of religious practice, etc. You can use Erving Goffman’s dramaturgical model to explain your setting and its social interaction. Examples: a) You might consider looking at your social situation for evidence of status or political preference, ethnicity, community. b) You might analyze a celebration you attend in your community. How is this social event a representation of American culture? IV. Interpret: Finally, explain why your observations are important given the context of the situation

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Questions 1: General Questions

NSG 6435 Week 8 Quiz/ NSG6435 Week 8 Quiz (Latest): South University (Already graded A)
NSG 6435 Week 8 Quiz/ NSG6435 Week 8 Quiz (Latest): South University (Already graded A)

Question 2: Business

HRM 530 Week 6 Dismal Meeting Imagine that you are an office manager and you have been tasked with the job of coordinating and heading the dismissal meeting for an employee layoff. Write a six to eight (6-page paper in which you:
PROPOSE THREE (3) WAYS THAT A MANAGER CAN COPE WITH ANY NEGATIVE EMOTIONS THAT MAY ACCOMPANY AN EMPLOYEE LAYOFF.
DESCRIBE A STEP-BY-STEP PROCESS OF CONDUCTING THE DISMISSAL MEETING
DETERMINE THE COMPENSATION THAT THE FICTITIOUS COMPANY MAY PROVIDE TO THE SEPARATED EMPLOYEE.
CREATE A CHART THAT DEPICTS THE TIMELINE OF THE DISBURSEMENT OF THE COMPENSATION.
PREDICT THREE (3) WAYS THAT THIS LAYOFF MAY AFFECT THE COMPANY.
3-REFERENCES

Question 3: Business

Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions. Use Under Armour Company
Write a four to six (4-6) page paper in which you:
⦁ Assess how globalization and technology changes have impacted the corporation you researched.
⦁ Apply the industrial organization model and the resource-based model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns.
⦁ Assess how the vision statement and mission statement of the corporation influence its overall success.
⦁ Evaluate how each category of stakeholder impacts the overall success of this corporation.
⦁ Use at least three (3) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
⦁ This course requires use of Strayer Writing Standards (SWS). The format is different than other Strayer University courses. Please take a moment to review the SWS documentation for details.
⦁ Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
⦁ Determine ways in which the vision, mission, and stakeholders of a firm impact that firm’s overall success.
⦁ Use technology and information resources to research issues in business administration.
⦁ Write clearly and concisely about business administration using proper writing mechanics.

Question 4: Business

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1) Explain the connection between the US trade deficit and financial capital flows.
2) Explain how comparative advantage determines the pattern of trade. Use an example to aid in your explanation.
3) Explain how the Stolper-Samuelson theorem indicates that free trade will (likely) worsen income inequality in the US, but (likely) narrow it for Mexico.
4) Show the effects on US welfare from each of the following events. a. Imposition of a tariff on a small, perfectly competitive market b. Imposition of a tariff on a small, imperfectly competitive market c. Imposition of a tariff on a large, perfectly competitive market
5) Show the effects on US welfare from each of the following events. a. Imposition of a quota on a small, perfectly competitive market b. Imposition of a quota on a small, imperfectly competitive market
6) If the US is a large importing country and imposes a tariff on the import of a good, what will the welfare effect on the exporting country be?
7) Assume that the US is a large country in the semi-conductor market. If the US is an exporter of the good and experiences a technological improvement, will the US always be better off? Show and explain why or why not.
8) National security demands have made it imperative for the US to close the toilet paper trade gap (just think what would happen in times of war if we couldn’t produce our own!). The government has decided to reduce our imports from 100 million units to 90 million units. As the supreme TP czar, which of the following policies should be chosen? Show and explain why. a. A production subsidy b. A consumption tax c. An import tariff
9) Show why in a competition between the Boeing and Airbus that autarky may be the preferred welfare situation to free trade. Explain how you draw this conclusion. 10) Explain why a VER is likely to generate lower welfare than a quota.
10) Explain why a VER is likely to generate lower welfare than a quota.
11) Explain what constraints the WTO places on US government actions.
12) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of fixed and flexible exchange rates. In your answer, consider the ramifications for fiscal and monetary policy.
13) Explain how trade may reduce pressure for immigration.
14) For each of the following cases indicate the expected change in the equilibrium exchange rate (€/$). Use supply and demand analysis (no credit without the graph). a) an increase in EU interest rates b) a fall in the price level in the US c) an increase in US barriers to imports from the EU
15) Explain why labor unions may wish to oppose international trade. Does this entail that this is a “good” government policy? Explain.
16) Explain why “dumping” is considered to be unfair trade. Does dumping – if unfair or not – cause harm in the dumped upon country? What condition is required for harm to accrue?
17) What is a senescent industry? How is protection for international trade supposed to aid this industry? How is it supposed to aid the country? Under what conditions will the aid actually accrue to the industry and the country?
1) Explain what is meant by “dollarization.” What might lead a country to make this choice for managing its money supply?
2) Explain how a managed float differs from a freely floating (flexible) exchange rate.
3) What are the relative advantages and disadvantages of fixed v. flexible exchange rate systems?
4) For each of the following cases, explain that is the “best” tool for the goal trying to be achieved. Clearly demonstrate why this is the “best” tool. a) The US wishes to contain pollution generated by the consumption of widgets. b) The US wishes to protect jobs in the widgets sector. c) The US wishes to restrain imports in the widgets sector to reduce the trade imbalance with Widgeria.
5) How does the existence of “3-way trades” undermine the usefulness of the supply and demand model of the exchange rate for precisely predicting what the exchange rate will be?
1) Explain how a fixed exchange rate may contribute to a currency crisis? Is any fixed exchange rate subject to this risk?
2) Given the following information where should you invest in order to maximize your return? e = 0.001 $/peso f = 0.0011 $/peso Nominal interest rate in the US = 8% Nominal interest rate in Mexico = 10% Given your investment pattern, how do you expect the variables to evolve over time?
3) What is the Law of One Price? Under what assumptions does the Law of One Price lead to the Purchasing Power Parity model of exchange rates?
4) Suppose that the money supply in the US falls. What will happen to the value of the dollar in the foreign exchange markets? Justify your answer using at least two (2) models of the exchange rate.
1) For each of the following changes, show the direction of shift (if any) for the IS curve. a) An increase in the foreign price level b) A fall in foreign income levels c) An increase in domestic tax rates d) A strengthening of the dollar in the foreign exchange markets e) A collapse in business confidence f) An increase in the money supply
2) For each of the following changes, show the direction of shift (if any) for the LM curve. a) An increase in the domestic price level b) A decrease in the money supply c) A fall in the precautionary demand for money d) A strengthening of the dollar in the foreign exchange markets

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Question 5: Business

Finite Mathematics

⦁ 1.  Why is it important to represent data with graphing
tools?

2. What are the similarities and differences between a histogram and a frequency table?

3. What is the difference between a frequency polygon and a cumulative frequency polygon? Explain.

4. In a given frequency table, if represents the total sum of the frequencies and if denotes a frequency of a class, then what is the relative frequency of that class in terms of and? Explain.

5. What is the difference between the relative frequency and the cumulative relative frequency?

6. In constructing the ogive, do we need to know what is the frequency of each class, or knowing the cumulative for each class is sufficient? Explain.

7. A given frequency table has 3 classes, Class1, Class2, and Class3. To total number of frequencies is 10 and Class1 and Class2 have frequencies 2 and 3 respectively. What is the relative frequency of Class3?

8. Compute the mean of the following data: 4, 3, 6, 6, 6. Explain your work.

9. Given the following data: 3, 3, 4, 5, 7, 7, 7. What is the mode, median, and the mean? Explain.

10. A fair die is rolled 300 times and each time the result is recorded. What would you expect the mean of the formed data set be? Explain.

11. A data set is formed by recording the sums on a 100 rolls of a pair of a fair dice. What would you expect the mean of the data set be?

12. Construct a set of four numbers that have mean 10, mode 8, and median 9. Explain.

13. Suppose we have a data of size two, say x1 and x2 whose mean is 5. If , compute the value of x2.

14. Suppose that we have the data {x1, x2, …, xn} such that =…. What is the mean of the data? What is the standard deviation?

15. In the formula for the mean of the grouped data, what do you get when you have all group frequencies equal to 1?

16. Compute the standard deviation of the following data: 3, 3, 4, 6.

17. Suppose we have a data of size two, say x1 and x2. What is the standard deviation?

18. Explain why the variance is never negative.

19. Suppose we have a data whose standard deviation is zero. What conclusion can you derive about the data?

20. Two data sets of the same size have standard deviations s1 and s2. If s1<s2, then how do these data sets compare?

21. A data set is formed by recording the sums in 200 rolls of a pair of a dice. A second data set is formed by recording the results of 200 draws of a ball from a box containing 11 balls numbered 2 through 12. Which of the data sets would you expect to have a smaller standard deviation? Explain.

22. Assume that we have a data of size 3 with mean 5 and mode 3. Compute the standard deviation.

Question 6: Mathematics

Finite Mathematics
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⦁ 1.  Why is it important to represent data with graphing
tools?

2. What are the similarities and differences between a histogram and a frequency table?

3. What is the difference between a frequency polygon and a cumulative frequency polygon? Explain.

4. In a given frequency table, if represents the total sum of the frequencies and if denotes a frequency of a class, then what is the relative frequency of that class in terms of and? Explain.

5. What is the difference between the relative frequency and the cumulative relative frequency?

6. In constructing the ogive, do we need to know what is the frequency of each class, or knowing the cumulative for each class is sufficient? Explain.

7. A given frequency table has 3 classes, Class1, Class2, and Class3. To total number of frequencies is 10 and Class1 and Class2 have frequencies 2 and 3 respectively. What is the relative frequency of Class3?

8. Compute the mean of the following data: 4, 3, 6, 6, 6. Explain your work.

9. Given the following data: 3, 3, 4, 5, 7, 7, 7. What is the mode, median, and the mean? Explain.

10. A fair die is rolled 300 times and each time the result is recorded. What would you expect the mean of the formed data set be? Explain.

11. A data set is formed by recording the sums on a 100 rolls of a pair of a fair dice. What would you expect the mean of the data set be?

12. Construct a set of four numbers that have mean 10, mode 8, and median 9. Explain.

13. Suppose we have a data of size two, say x1 and x2 whose mean is 5. If , compute the value of x2.

14. Suppose that we have the data {x1, x2, …, xn} such that =…. What is the mean of the data? What is the standard deviation?

15. In the formula for the mean of the grouped data, what do you get when you have all group frequencies equal to 1?

16. Compute the standard deviation of the following data: 3, 3, 4, 6.

17. Suppose we have a data of size two, say x1 and x2. What is the standard deviation?

18. Explain why the variance is never negative.

19. Suppose we have a data whose standard deviation is zero. What conclusion can you derive about the data?

20. Two data sets of the same size have standard deviations s1 and s2. If s1<s2, then how do these data sets compare?

21. A data set is formed by recording the sums in 200 rolls of a pair of a dice. A second data set is formed by recording the results of 200 draws of a ball from a box containing 11 balls numbered 2 through 12. Which of the data sets would you expect to have a smaller standard deviation? Explain.

22. Assume that we have a data of size 3 with mean 5 and mode 3. Compute the standard deviation.

Question 7: Business

Assignment 1: Madoff Securities
Review the Madoff Securities case.
Write a four to five (4-5) page paper in which you:
⦁ Determine the regulatory oversight that was in place while the Ponzi scheme was operating, and speculate on the main reasons why they did not discover the scheme.
⦁ Assume you are an auditor for a firm that had $10 million dollars invested in Madoff Securities.
⦁ Determine the fundamental audit procedures that you should have applied to this investment.
⦁ Predict the way in which a peer review of Friehling and Horowitz would have uncovered the scheme related to Madoff Securities.
⦁ Pretend you are Harry Markopolos and suggest one (1) strategy, different from that of the case study, to expose the potential fraud. Provide a rationale to support the suggestion.
⦁ Analyze the role of the audit committee for Madoff Securities in regard to the discovery of Ponzi scheme, and suggest one (1) action the audit committee could have taken in order to prevent or detect the fraud. Provide a rationale to support the suggestion.
⦁ Use at least two (2) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar type Websites do not qualify as academic resources.

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Question 8: Business

Assignment: Course Project: Assessment of Diversity Proficiencies
The Assignment for this module is an assessment of your diversity proficiencies. As local, state, national, and global communities continue to reflect increasing diversity, it is essential for effective leaders of learning to routinely assure active and effective responsiveness to the diverse needs represented. In the context of this course, active and effective responsiveness often takes the form of individuals pursuing constructive action to change ideas and attitudes through leadership, advocacy, policy, and law. To assist you in this process, your Walden University program has included diversity proficiencies to guide your development. For this Course Project, you must successfully demonstrate personal development and connection of your learning in this course about leadership, advocacy, policy, and law to each of the Walden Diversity Proficiencies, as well as the Council for Exceptional Children (CEC)’s Advanced Role Content Standards 1a, 1b, and 5a.
To prepare:
·         Review all Learning Resources for this module.
·         Review the Assessment of Diversity Proficiencies Guidelines.
·         Ask yourself the following: How have the concepts, resources, and activities of this course influenced my learning so that I might support the creation of educational opportunities that adapt to diverse learners and remove barriers that inhibit learning for students with diverse learning needs?
·         Think about examples from your educational and professional experiences that you can use to demonstrate your knowledge of the key diversity proficiencies. How might those experiences support the fact that you are a leader and advocate who is able to create educational opportunities that are adapted to diverse learners and that remove barriers that inhibit learning?
The components of your Module 6 Assignment are as follows: however, review the “Assessment of Diversity Proficiencies Guidelines” document in the Learning Resources for more details.
Section 1: Introduction (2–3 pages)
Interpret how EACH of the following course concepts support the creation of educational opportunities that are adapted to diverse learners and remove barriers that inhibit learning:
·         Leadership
·         Advocacy
·         Policy
·         Law
·         Section 2: Diversity Self-Reflection (3–4 pages)
Write a self-reflection paper that addresses the final two Walden Diversity Dispositions:
·         Awareness of Self
·         Professional Practice
Also, reference the Council for Exceptional Children (CEC) Standards, what you learned from the working with the Case Study of Jamal from the Grand City Community (West Ridge Middle School) , and Walden’s Mission and Vision Statement to help support your reflection.
·         Reflection Component 1: Using the bulleted points on Walden’s Diversity Proficiencies, personally reflect on your knowledge and skills for the “Awareness of Self” and “Professional Practice” indicators. Cite at least one relevant, research-based reading or media element to support this component.
·         Reflection Component 2: Connect your personal reflection, to course content, including the Case Study, CEC standards, and Walden’s mission for Social Change. Cite at least one relevant, research-based reading or media element to support each of these components.
Your final document must include the following:
·         Title Page
·         Section1: 2–3 pages
·         Section 2: 3–4 pages
·         Reference pages
Note: For this Assignment and all scholarly writing in this course and throughout your program, you will be required to use APA style (6th edition). Please use the Walden Writing Center as a resource as you complete assignments.
Required Readings
Council for Exceptional Children. (2012). CEC special education specialist advanced preparation standards. Retrieved from https://www.cec.sped.org/~/media/Files/Standards/Professional%20Preparation%20Standards/Advanced%20Preparation%20Standards%20with%20Elaborations.pdf
DeMatthews, D. (2014). Deconstructing systems of segregation: Leadership challenges in an urban school. Journal of Cases in Educational Leadership, 17(1), 17–31
Retrieved from the Walden Library databases.
This article gives a case study of a principal in an urban school who was charged with a directive to raise test scores and increase inclusion in a building with a history of segregation.
Document: Assessment of Diversity Proficiencies Guidelines (PDF)
Document: SMART Goals Graphic (PDF)
Document: Walden Diversity Proficiencies (PDF)
Document: Walden Professional Dispositions (PDF)
Walden University (2015). Social change. Retrieved from http://www.waldenu.edu/about/social-change
Media
Grand City Community
·         Laureate Education (Producer). (2012b). The teacher’s lounge [Video file]. Baltimore, MD: Author.
Go to the Grand City Community and click into West Ridge Middle School. Review the following scenario: The Teacher’s Lounge.

Question 9: Psychology

Behavioral and Cognitive Learning Theories paper

Question 10: Psychology

Research Paper: Reference Page Instructions
You will submit a reference page in current APA format for your Research Paper. In addition to the textbook and the Bible, your reference page must contain at least 6 scholarly sources, 4 of which must be peer-reviewed journal articles. For the 4 peer-reviewed journal articles, 2 of these must support/use Behavioral Learning Theory and 2 must support/use Cognitive Learning Theory. Remaining sources must address educational implications, historical context, and/or biblical worldview topics related to Behavioral and Cognitive Learning Theories. At least 4 of the sources (the peer-reviewed journal articles) must have been published within the last 10 years. Popular writing and web pages are NOT acceptable sources for this paper.

Developing the Reference Page
Although the reference page is one of the last things included in the organization of your paper, finding your sources is one of the first things you must do to write a research paper.

Review a current APA style guide in order to ensure your outline and citations are correctly formatted. If you are having particular trouble with current APA formatting, visit one of these helpful resources available to Liberty University Online students: Liberty’s Online Writing Center or tutor.com.

Finding Appropriate Sources
Familiarize yourself with the basic information surrounding your topic by accessing the Liberty University Library Research Portal. When you are searching for resources, think of several surrounding issues and several synonyms for those issues. Then enter various combinations of those terms into the research database. You can follow a number of links found within the Liberty University Research Portal to access multiple research guides and tutorials to assist you in your search. If you need further assistance, click here for resources that will help guide you as you navigate through the Liberty University Online Library. Additionally, you may use the “Ask a Librarian” service by filling out the e-Form found here.

Question 11: Psychology

Topic: Retrieval

Question/Prompt: Memory and knowledge are especially important in the retrieval of academic subject content. The book lists several general principles of retrieval for instructional settings (see Ormrod, 2016, Chapter 8). Select 1 of these general principles and give an example of how you could use it to learn a specific concept in this course. Include clear biblical principles in your response.

Ormmrod, J. E., (2016). Human Learning (7th ed.). New York, N. Y. Pearson Education

Question 12: Health Care

Liberty Bus 311 DB 3

n what ways can you, as a manager, contribute to the management and execution of your organization’s strategy? How is strategic planning a dynamic versus linear process, and why? Next, summarize the purpose of the SWOT analysis and how it is best used in the healthcare planning process? Are there any differences related to strategic planning in healthcare versus planning in another organization? Can quality of care initiatives be linked to the strategic planning process? If so, how?

Discussion boards are collaborative learning experiences. Therefore, you are required to create a thread in response to the provided prompt for each forum. Each thread must be at least 300 words and demonstrate course-related knowledge. In addition to the thread, you are required to reply to 2 other classmates’ threads. Each reply must be at least 250 words. Each thread and reply must include a biblical integration and at least 2 peer reviewed source citations in current APA format (in addition to the textbook).

Question 13: Health Care

NUR 1172 Nutrition Exam 1/ NUR1172 Nutrition Exam one (Latest): Rasmussen College (Already graded A)

Question 14: Health Care

NUR 460 review-exam-spring-semester-2018(893 questions)

Question 15: Health Care

Informational Memo Assignment

EHRs have many components, functions, and attributes.  Administrative staff must be educated comprehensively about all the factors that make up the EHR system.

You are the Chief Information Officer of your hospital. Write a memo addressed to the senior departmental staff. Any memo format may be used.

⦁ In this informational memo you will discuss, with outside literature support for each section, the following EHR components found in your textbook: PLEASE SEE ATTACHED DOCUMENT FOR EHR COMPONENTS!!!!!
⦁ Administrative Processes
⦁ Communication & Connectivity
⦁ Decision Support
⦁ Dentistry/Optometry
⦁ Health Information & Data
⦁ Order Entry Management
⦁ Patient Support, Results Management
⦁ Population Health Management.
⦁ Research and describe what each of these components do, and why it is important for your facility to incorporate these. How does each affect reimbursement?
⦁ Support your position with solid peer reviewed research and make sure any facts in the paper receive in-text citations.
⦁ Your memo should be at least two full pages to fully explain to the managers all the various components of the hospital’s new EHR system.

Make sure to use credible journal articles or .gov websites in your research. Provide a cover page and references page as well.

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Summary of the Electronic Health Record Essential Components and Functions for Care Delivery
Component Essential Functions Application Examples
Administrative processes Ability to conduct all financial and administrative functions associated with institutional operations and patient management Admissions/registration
Scheduling
Claims processing
Administrative reporting
Communication and connectivity Provides a medium for electronic communication between healthcare providers and patients E-mail
Mobile devices
Text/web messaging
Integrated health records
Telemedicine
Decision support Provides reminders, alerts, and resource links to improve the diagnosis and care of the patient Medication dosing, allergies
Risk screening/prevention
Clinical guidelines
Resource links
Dentistry and optometry Ability to incorporate dental records and vision prescriptions Dental records
Vision records
Health information and data Ability to enter and access key information needed to make clinical decisions Patient demographics
Problem lists
Medical/nursing diagnoses
Medications/allergies
Results reporting
Order-entry management Ability to enter all types of orders via the computer system Laboratory
Pharmacy
Radiology
Other orders
Patient support Provides patient education and self-monitoring tools Discharge instructions
Computer-based learning
Telemonitoring
Results management Provides the ability to manage current and historical information related to all types of diagnostic reports Laboratory tests
Radiology reports
Other procedures
Population health management Provides data collection tools to support public and private reporting requirements Public health system
Disease surveillance
Bioterrorism
Adapted from Institute of Medicine, Committee on Data Standards for Patient Safety: Board of Health Care Services. Key Capabilities of an Electronic Health Record System: Letter Report. Washington, DC: The National Academies Press; 2003.
In addition to the various components and functions, there are 12 key attributes prescribed by the IOM14 as the gold standard components of an EHR. These attributes serve as guidelines to organizations and vendors involved in the design and implementation of EHRs and include the information shown in Box 6.1.
Box 6.1
The Institute of Medicine’s Key Attributes of an Electronic Health Record
1. Provides active and inactive problem lists for each encounter that link to orders and results; meets documentation and coding standards.
2. Incorporates accepted measures to support health status and functional levels.
3. Ability to document clinical decision information; automates, tracks, and shares clinical decision process/rationale with other caregivers.
4. Provides longitudinal and timely linkages with other pertinent records.
5. Guarantees confidentiality, privacy, and audit trails.
6. Provides continuous authorized user access.
7. Supports simultaneous user views.
8. Access to local and remote information.
9. Facilitates clinical problem solving.
10. Supports direct entry by physicians.
11. Cost measuring/quality assurance.
12. Supports existing/evolving clinical specialty needs.

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Question 16: Mathematics

NAME:
Instructions:
Due : Wed, 11/15 11:00 AM
save this file as: Lastname_firstname Example: Shone_Hailemichael
send the file directly to my email address : hashone@iupui.edu (don’t send it through Canvas)

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Important hint about computing p-value for a test statistic with a t-distribution:
When n > 30, you can approximate the tail area under the t-curve by using the probabilities in the z-table.

1 Which of the following statements about Type I and Type II errors is correct
a Type I: Reject a true alternative hypothesis. Type II: Do not reject a false alternative.
b Type I: Do not reject a false null hypothesis. Type II: Reject a true null hypothesis.
c Type I: Reject a true null hypothesis. Type II: Do not reject a false null hypothesis.
d Type I: Reject a false null hypothesis. Type II: Reject a true null hypothesis.

2 You are reading a report that contains a hypothesis test you are interested in. The writer of the report writes that the p-value for the test you are interested in is 0.0664, but does not tell you the value of the test statistic. From this information you:

a Do not reject H₀ at a Probability of Type I error = 0.10; do not reject H₀ at a Probability of Type I error = 0.05

b Reject H₀ at a Probability of Type I error = 0.10; reject H₀ at a Probability of Type I error = 0.05

c Do not reject H₀ at a Probability of Type I error = 0.10; reject H₀ at a Probability of Type I error = 0.05

d Reject H₀ at a Probability of Type I error = 0.10; do not reject H₀ at a Probability of Type I error = 0.05

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Question 3-9 are based on the random sample below which is obtained to test the following hypothesis about the population mean.

80 91 74 88 75 75 82 76
82 81 85 79 76 73 77 72
84 81 83 73 77 79 77 71
81 77 96 80 67 77 85 87
85 86 90 81 79 80 68 79
79 78 76 75 81 81 70 69
77 83 79 81 85 71 79 78
77 81 78 91 89 88 78 93
77 80 82 95 78 80 81 77
80 79 83 82 74 76 85 72
79 72 80 77 77 68 66 60
85 84 93 76 70 78 84 85
82 79 76 81 74 87 73 76
75 79 83 77 76 77 88 71
79 79 73 72 82 82 75 78

H₀: μ ≥ 80
H₁: μ < 80 n = 120

3 This hypothesis test is,
a a two-tail test because the null hypothesis is H₀: µ ≥ 80.
b an upper tail test because the alternative hypothesis is H₁: µ < 80.
c a lower tail test because the alternative hypothesis is H₁: µ < 80.
d an upper tail test because the null hypothesis is H₀: µ ≥ 80.

4 The estimated mean is,
a 83.968
b 82.322
c 80.708
d 79.125

5 The estimated standard deviation is,
a 6.054
b 6.175
c 6.299
d 6.425

6 The value of the test statistic is (if negative use the absolute value):
a 1.583
b 1.630
c 1.679
d 1.729

7 Given α = 0.05, the critical value for the test is,
a 1.812
b 1.759
c 1.708
d 1.658

8 The approximate p-value for the test is,
a 0.096
b 0.074
c 0.057
d 0.048

9 Based on the p-value in the previous question,
a Do not reject H₀ at α = 0.10; do not reject H₀ at α = 0.05
b Reject H₀ at α = 0.10; reject H₀ at α = 0.05
c Do not reject H₀ at α = 0.10; reject H₀ at α = 0.05
d Reject H₀ at α = 0.10; do not reject H₀ at a α = 0.05

To test the hypothesis that the average daily visit to a state park is 120, a random sample of 30 days yielded the following data (number of vehicles).

137 126 198 64 114 236
98 97 244 100 141 154
14 158 180 60 133 150
89 186 259 137 160 297
159 60 276 69 70 141

Write H₀ and H₁ and answer the following ______questions:
10 The sample standard deviation is,
a 69.124
b 67.050
c 65.039
d 63.088

11 The value of the test statistic is,
a 2.057
b 1.870
c 1.683
d 1.515

12 Using a 5 percent level of significance, the critical value for the test is,
a 2.045
b 1.943
c 1.846
d 1.754

13 Based on the test statistic and the critical value in the previous two questions,
a Reject the null hypothesis. Do not conclude the mean is different from 120.
b Do not reject the null hypothesis. Conclude the mean is different from 120.
c Reject the null hypothesis. Conclude the mean is different from 120.
d Do not reject the null hypothesis. Do not conclude the mean is different from 120.

In a recent study, a major fast food restaurant had a mean drive through service time of 225 seconds. The company embarks on a quality improvement effort to reduce the service time and has developed improvements to the service process. The new process will be tested in a sample of stores. The new process will be adopted in all of its stores, if it reduced mean service time by more than 40 seconds compared to the current mean service time. To perform the hypothesis test, the sample of 25 stores yields the following data (seconds).

162 185 184 178 181
167 191 198 184 179
170 161 181 183 191
189 190 178 180 167
177 198 179 176 183

14 We are testing the hypothesis that,
a H₁: µ < 185
b H₀: µ < 185
c H₁: µ ≥ 185
d H₀: µ ≤ 185

15 The sample mean is,
a 180.48
b 178.68
c 176.89
d 175.12

16 The standard error of the mean is,
a 2.078
b 2.017
c 1.958
d 1.762

17 The test statistic is,
a 2.042
b 2.127
c 2.216
d 2.308

18 Find the critical value at a 5% level of significance, and select the appropriate conclusion below:

a 1.711 Do not reject H₀. Adopt the new process.
b 1.711 Reject H₀ and adopt the new process.
c 2.093 Do not reject H₀. Adopt the new process.
d 2.093 Reject H₀ and adopt the new process.

The 2014 mean annual salary of graduates with engineering degrees was $63,500. In a follow-up study in June 2015, a sample of n = 95 graduating engineering majors yielded a sample mean of $65,450 and standard deviation of $10,245. Does the 2015 survey provide a significant proof that the mean salary in 2015 is greater than the 2014 mean? Perform this test of hypothesis at a 5% level of significance.

19 We are testing the hypothesis that,
a H₁: µ ≥ 63,500
b H₀: µ > 63,500
c H₁: µ > 63,500
d H₁: µ ≤ 63,500

20 The p-value for the test is approximately _______.

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a 0.07 Do not reject H₀. Conclude the mean is greater than 63,500.
b 0.07 Reject H₀. Conclude the mean is not greater than 63,500.
c 0.03 Do not reject H₀. Conclude the mean is greater than 63,500.
d 0.03 Reject H₀. Conclude the mean is greater than 63,500.

One of the different statistics reported by the Centers for Disease Control regarding incidence of obesity among adults in the United States provides that 28% of men with college degree are obese. The study also reports that 31.5% of men without a college degree are obese. Assume the latter statistic is based on a sample of 1040 men without a college degree.

Does the data provide statistically significant evidence that the incidence of obesity among men without a college degree is greater than among those with a college degree?

21 This involves which of the following hypotheses?
a H₀: π ≥ 0.28
b H₀: π ≤ 0.28
c H₁: π < 0.28
d H₁: π > 0.28
e Both b and d are correct.

22 The standard error of p̅ is,
a 0.0139
b 0.0167
c 0.0197
d 0.0232

23 The value of the test statistic is,
a 2.27
b 2.52
c 2.77
d 3.05

24 The p-value for the test is,
a 0.0059
b 0.0115
c 0.0132
d 0.0152

25 Based on p-value in the previous question, at a 5 percent level of significance,
a The evidence is not statistically significant. Do not reject H₀.
b The evidence is not statistically significant. Reject H₀.
c The evidence is statistically significant. Do not reject H₀.
d The evidence is statistically significant. Reject H₀.

Question 17: Biology

If a patient presents to you post ischemic stroke on warfarin and their INR is therapeutic. Do you reverse it?

Question 18: Economics

Case Study You need to listen to the Planet Money podcast titled

Question 19: Psychology

Part 1: Choose one of the nine areas of biopsychosocial assessment outlined in the text. Develop assessment questions for that knowledge area. In doing so, consider the impact of each question on the client, the appropriate timing, and the effect on the development of empathy and a treatment alliance. For example, in the area of family and friends, you might ask, “Who was important to you as you grew up?” “Who could you turn to in your life?” “Who were you close to?” “Who did you have a problem or conflict with?” “Have you lost someone important to you?” “What are some good memories you have of your childhood/ teen years?” Part 2: To practice writing treatment goals, write three treatment objectives you might have for a client. Discuss the following questions in a 500 word essay: Would the client take ownership of the objective? When in the treatment process would it be appropriate to address the goal? How would you or the client know when the objective is accomplished?

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Question 20: General

Automated plastic Bottle Compactor I want to do an introduction for this topic between one to two page mix

Question 21: Other

Research Paper

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homework shark, all homework help at www.homeworknest.com 2024 Study Cheat Sheet

Question 1:        General

 

ORGANIZATIONAL THEORY GRAD LEVEL CASE STUDY

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Question 1: General Question.

 

BSC 2347 Module 04 Quiz / BSC2347 AP 2 Mod 4 Quiz (2 Latest Versions): Human Anatomy and Physiology II: Rasmussen College

 

Question 2: General Question.

 

BSC 2347 Module 11 Final Exam / BSC2347 AP 2 Mod 11 Final Exam (Latest): Human Anatomy and Physiology II: Rasmussen College (Already graded A)

 

Question 3: General Question

 

South University NSG5003 Final Exam 2019

South University NSG5003 Final Exam 2019

 

Question 4: General Question

 

South University NSG6430 Final Exam 2019/ South University NSG 6430 Final Exam 2019 (Already graded A)

 

Question 5: General Question

 

Define Ecological responsibility? It was a piece of  Corporate social responsibility (CSR). Explain It has turned into an overall issue as associations are under expanding weight to act in socially mindful ways. Discuss its whole critical significance to California and its “clean” and “green” picture

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Question 6: Mathematics

 

Keller MATH 533 Course Project Part C

Keller MATH 533 Course Project Part C

 

Question 7: Mathematics

 

Techware Incorporated is considering the introduction of two new software products to the market. The company has four options regarding these two proposed products: introduce neither product, introduce product 1 only, introduce product 2 only, or introduce both products. Research and development costs for products 1 and 2 are $180,000 and $150,000, respectively. Note that the first option entails no costs because research and development efforts have not yet begun. The success of these software products depends on the trend of the national economy in the coming year and on the consumers’ reaction to these products. The company’s revenues earned by introducing product 1 only, product2 only, or both products in various states of the national economy are given in the file Final Exam Q4. The probabilities of observing a strong, fair, or weak trend in the national economy in the coming year are assessed to be 0.30, 0.50, and 0.20, respectively.

  1. Create a payoff table that specifies Techware’s net revenue (in dollars) for each possible decision and each outcome with respect to the trend in the national economy.
  2. Identify the strategy that maximize Techware’s expected net revenue from the given marketing opportunities.

 

Question 8: Mathematics

 

Determine the maximum 30-year fixed-rate mortgage amount for which a couple could qualify if the rate is 5.94 percent. Assume they have other debt payments totaling $381 per month and a combined annual income of $86,200. Monthly escrow payments for real estate taxes and homeowner’s insurance are estimated to be $113 (Assume a 36 percent maximum of annual income for total debt and escrow payments.)

The maximum 30-year fixed-rate mortgage amount for which a couple could qualify if the rate is 5.94% is $

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Question 9: Mathematics

 

Math 302 Quiz 5 2019 (Already Graded A+)

Question 1 of 17              1.0/ 1.0 Points

A researcher hypothesizes that the variation in the amount of money spent on business dinners is greater than the variation of the amount of money spent on lunches. The variance of nine business dinners was $6.12 and the variance of 12 business lunches was $0.87. What is the test value?

 

A.3.10

 

B.9.61

 

C.7.03

 

D.49.50

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 2 of 17               1.0/ 1.0 Points

A pharmaceutical company is testing the effectiveness of a new drug for lowering cholesterol. As part of this trial, they wish to determine whether there is a difference between the effectiveness for women and for men.  Assume α = 0.05.  What is the test value?

Women                Men

Sample size        50           80

Mean effect       7              6.95

Sample variance               3              4

 

A.t = 0.151

 

B.z = 0.455

 

C.t = 3.252

 

D.z = 0.081

 

 

Answer Key:

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Question 3 of 17               1.0/ 1.0 Points

Members of the general adult population volunteer an average of 4.2 hours per week. A random sample of 20 female college students and 18 male college students produced the results given in the table below. At the .01 level of significance, is there sufficient evidence to conclude that a difference exists between the mean number of volunteer hours per week for male and female college students?

 

Females               Males

Sample size        20           18

Sample mean    3.8          2.5

Sample variance               3.5          2.2

 

A.No, because the test value 2.38 is greater than the critical value

 

B.No, because the test value 2.38 does not exceed the critical value

C.No, because the test value 2.90 is greater than the critical value

 

D.Yes, because the test value 2.90 is greater than the critical value

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

 

Part 2 of 8 –         4.0/ 5.0 Points

 

Question 4 of 17               1.0/ 1.0 Points

In choosing the “best-fitting” line through a set of points in linear regression, we choose the one with the:

 

A.smallest number of outliers

 

B.smallest sum of squared residuals

 

C.largest number of points on the line

 

D.largest sum of squared residuals

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 5 of 17               1.0/ 1.0 Points

A single variable X can explain a large percentage of the variation in some other variable Y when the two variables are:

 

A.highly correlated

 

B.mutually exclusive

 

C.directly related

 

D.inversely related

 

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Answer Key:

 

 

Question 6 of 17               1.0/ 1.0 Points

Outliers are observations that

 

A.render the study useless

 

B.lie outside the typical pattern of points

C.disrupt the entire linear trend

 

D.lie outside the sample

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 7 of 17               1.0/ 1.0 Points

Correlation is a summary measure that indicates:

 

A.the strength of the linear relationship between pairs of variables

 

B.the rate of change in Y for a one unit change in X

 

C.the magnitude of difference between two variables

 

D.a curved relationship among the variables

 

 

Answer Key:

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Question 8 of 17               0.0/ 1.0 Points

If an estimated regression line has a Y-intercept of –7.5 and a slope of 2.5, then when X = 3, the actual value of Y is:

 

A.5

 

B.unknown

C.10

 

D.0

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

 

Part 3 of 8 –         2.0/ 2.0 Points

 

Question 9 of 17               2.0/ 2.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

 

A field researcher is gathering data on the trunk diameters of mature pine and spruce trees in a certain area.  The following are the results of his random sampling.  Can he conclude, at the 0.10 level of significance, that the average trunk diameter of a pine tree is greater than the average diameter of a spruce tree?

Pine trees           Spruce trees

Sample size        30           35

Mean trunk diameter (cm)          45           39

Sample variance               120         140

 

What is the test value for this hypothesis test?

 

Test value:    2.121  Round your answer to three decimal places.

 

What is the critical value?

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Critical value:    1.311  Round your answer to three decimal places.

 

Answer Key:

Part 4 of 8 –         2.0/ 2.0 Points

 

Question 10 of 17             1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

The marketing manager of a large supermarket chain would like to determine the effect of shelf space (in feet) on the weekly sales of international food (in hundreds of dollars). A random sample of 12 equal –sized stores is selected, with the following results:

 

Store     Shelf Space(X)   Weekly Sales(Y)

1              10           2.0

2              10           2.6

3              10           1.8

4              15           2.3

5              15           2.8

6              15           3.0

7              20           2.7

8              20           3.1

9              20           3.2

10           25           3.0

11           25           3.3

12           25           3.5

 

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Find the equation of the regression line for these data.  What is the value of the standard error of the estimate?  Place your answer, rounded to 3 decimal places, in the blank.  Do not use a dollar sign.  For example, 0.345 would be a legitimate entry.   0.308

 

 

Answer Key:

 

Question 11 of 17             1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

 

A company has observed that there is a linear relationship between indirect labor expense (ILE) , in dollars, and direct labor hours (DLH). Data for direct labor hours and indirect labor expense for 18 months are given in the file ILE_and_DLH.xlsx

 

Treating ILE as the response variable, use regression to fit a straight line to all 18 data points.

 

Using your estimated regression output, predict the indirect labor expenses for a month in which the company has 31 direct labor hours.

 

Place your answer, rounded to 1 decimal place, in the blank.  Do not use any stray punctuation marks or a dollar sign.  For example, 458.9 would be a legitimate entry.   525.4

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Part 5 of 8 –         0.0/ 2.0 Points

 

Question 12 of 17             0.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

 

Two teams of workers assemble automobile engines at a manufacturing plant in Michigan. A random sample of 145 assemblies from team 1 shows 15 unacceptable assemblies. A similar random sample of 125 assemblies from team 2 shows 8 unacceptable assemblies.

 

If you are interested in determining if there is sufficient evidence to conclude, at the 10% significance level, that the two teams differ with respect to their proportions of unacceptable assemblies, what is/are the critical value you would use to conduct such a test of hypothesis?

 

Place your answer, rounded to 2 decimal places, in the blank. If there are two critical values, place only the positive value in the blank. For example, 2.34 would be a legitimate entry. 1.15

 

Answer Key:

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Question 13 of 17             0.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

 

Are America’s top chief executive officers (CEOs) really worth all that money? One way to answer this question is to look at the annual company percentage increase in revenue versus the CEO’s annual percentage salary increase in that same company. Suppose that a random sample of companies yielded the following data:

percent change for corporation 15           12           3              12           28           6              8              2

percent change for CEO                6              17           -4            12           32           -1            7              2

 

 

Do these data indicate that the population mean percentage increase in corporate revenue is greater than the population mean percentage increase in CEO salary? Use a 5% level of significance. What is the critical value that you would use to conduct this test of hypothesis? Place your answer, rounded to 3 decimal places, in the blank. For example, 2.345 would be a legitimate entry.  1.010

Answer Key:

 

 

Part 6 of 8 –         2.0/ 3.0 Points

 

Question 14 of 17             2.0/ 3.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

 

Researchers conducted an experiment to measure the effect of a drug on improving the quality of sleep as determined by how many more minutes of REM sleep were measured for each participant. One group of participants were given the experimental drug; the other (control) group was given a placebo. Does the evidence indicate that the drug improved the amount of REM sleep at a 0.01 level of significance? Answer each of the following parts.

Experimental group        Control group

sample size         35           50

mean sleep improvement           12.8        9.1

sample variance               56.3        61.2

 

What is the test value for this hypothesis test?

 

Answer:

Round your answer to two decimal places.

What is the P-value for this hypothesis test?

Answer:

What is the conclusion of this hypothesis test?  Choose one.

 

  1. There is sufficient evidence to show that the experimental drug improved the quality of sleep.
  2. There is not sufficient evidence to show that the experimental drug improved the quality of sleep.
  3. There is sufficient evidence to show that the quality of sleep is different for the experimental drug than for the control drug.
  4. There is not sufficient evidence to show that the control drug decreased the quality of sleep.

 

Answer:

Answer Key:

Feedback: This is a t-test of independent samples.  Use the formula on page 480 to compute the t test value:

 

 

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This is a right-tail test with test value t = 2.198423 and df = 34 (using the smaller sample size).  The P-value is 0.0174 using TDIST(2.1983423,34,1) or the Critical Values workbook.

 

Because the P-value is greater than alpha (0.01), there is not sufficient evidence to show that the experimental drug improved the quality of sleep.

 

 

 

 

Part 7 of 8 –         1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Question 15 of 17             1.0/ 1.0 Points

In conducting hypothesis testing for difference between two means when samples are dependent (paired samples), the variable under consideration is   ; the sample mean difference between the pairs.

 

 

 

True

 

False

 

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

 

Part 8 of 8 –         2.0/ 2.0 Points

 

Question 16 of 17             1.0/ 1.0 Points

In a simple regression analysis, if the standard error of estimate sest = 15 and the number of observations n = 10, then the sum of the residuals squared must be 120.

 

 

 

True

 

False

 

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 17 of 17             1.0/ 1.0 Points

To help explain or predict the response variable in every regression study, we use one or more explanatory variables. These variables are also called predictor variables or independent variables.

 

 

 

True

 

False

 

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 10: Mathematics

 

Part 1 of 6 –         5.0/ 5.0 Points

 

Question 1 of 20               1.0/ 1.0 Points

If 25 tickets are sold and 2 prizes are to be awarded, find the probability that one person will win both prizes if that person buys exactly 2 tickets.

 

A.1/600

 

B.1/2300

 

C.1/300

 

D.1/700

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 2 of 20               1.0/ 1.0 Points

If P(A) = 0.25 and P(B) = 0.65, then P(A and B) is:

 

A.0.25

 

B.0.90

 

C.0.40

 

D.Cannot be determined from the information given

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 3 of 20               1.0/ 1.0 Points

If one tosses a coin enough times, the proportion of “heads” will approach 0.5. This is an example of:

 

A.the Law of Large Numbers

B.the Empirical Rule

 

C.the Central Limit Theorem

 

D.subjective probabilities

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 4 of 20               1.0/ 1.0 Points

A furniture manufacturer offers bookcases in 5 different sizes and 3 different colors. If every color is available in every size, then the total number of different bookcases is

 

A.5

 

B.8

 

C.15

 

D.30

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 5 of 20               1.0/ 1.0 Points

If P(A) = P(A|B), then events A and B are said to be

 

  1. mutually exclusive

 

  1. complementary

 

  1. independent

 

  1. exhaustive

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

 

Part 2 of 6 –         5.0/ 5.0 Points

 

Question 6 of 20               1.0/ 1.0 Points

A multiple choice quiz consists of 6 questions, each with 4 possible answers. If a student guesses at the answer to each question, then the mean number of correct answers is

 

A.6.00

 

B.1.50

 

C.4.00

 

D.10.00

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 7 of 20               1.0/ 1.0 Points

Suppose that 50 identical batteries are being tested. After 8 hours of continuous use, assume that a given battery is still operating with a probability of 0.70 and has failed with a probability of 0.30.

 

What is the probability that fewer than 25 batteries will last at least 8 hours?

 

A.0.0009

 

B.0.9991

 

C.0.8967

 

D.0.0024

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 8 of 20               1.0/ 1.0 Points

The following data were obtained from a survey of college students. The variable X represents the number of non-assigned books read during the past six months.

x              0              1              2              3              4              5

P (X=x) 0.20        0.25        0.20        0.15        0.10        0.10

 

Find P( X   3)

 

A.0.80

 

B.0.85

 

C.0.15

 

D.0.20

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 9 of 20               1.0/ 1.0 Points

A die is rolled 360 times. Find the standard deviation for the number of 3s that will be rolled.

 

A.60

 

B.50

 

C.7.1

 

D.5.9

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 10 of 20             1.0/ 1.0 Points

A pet supplier has a stock of parakeets of which 10% are blue parakeets. A pet store orders 3 parakeets from this supplier. If the supplier selects the parakeets at random, what is the chance that the pet store gets exactly one blue parakeet?

 

A.0.081

 

B.0.243

 

C.0.027

 

D.0.003

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

 

Part 3 of 6 –         2.0/ 4.0 Points

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Question 11 of 20             0.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

In February 2002 the Argentine peso lost 70% of its value compared to the United States dollar. This devaluation drastically raised the price of imported products. According to a survey conducted by AC Nielsen in April 2002, 68% of the consumers in Argentina were buying fewer products than before the devaluation, 24% were buying the same number of products, and 8% were buying more products. Furthermore, in a trend toward purchasing less-expensive brands, 88% indicated that they had changed the brands they purchased. Suppose the following complete set of results were reported. Use the following data to answer this question.

 

Number of Products Purchased

Brands Purchased            Fewer   Same     More     Total

Same     10           14           24           48

Changed              262         82           8              352

Total      272         96           32           400

 

What is the probability that a consumer selected at random purchased fewer products than before? Place your answer, rounded to 4 decimal places, in the blank.  .7443

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 12 of 20             0.0/ 1.0 Points

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Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

 

Find the mean of the following probability distribution.

X             1              2              3              4              5

P(X)       0.20        0.10        0.35        0.05        0.30

 

Round your answer to two decimal place as necessary. For example, 4.56 would be a legitimate entry.

 

Mean =    2.26

 

Answer Key:

 

Feedback: Mean = (1)(0.20) + (2)(0.10) + (3)(0.35) + (4)(0.05) + (5)(0.30) = 3.15

 

Comment: This is a distribution, to find the mean, you find

E = sumx * P(x)

I have shared with you videos on how to do this in the examples in the discussion last week,

 

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Question 13 of 20             1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

In February 2002 the Argentine peso lost 70% of its value compared to the United States dollar. This devaluation drastically raised the price of imported products. According to a survey conducted by AC Nielsen in April 2002, 68% of the consumers in Argentina were buying fewer products than before the devaluation, 24% were buying the same number of products, and 8% were buying more products. Furthermore, in a trend toward purchasing less-expensive brands, 88% indicated that they had changed the brands they purchased. Suppose the following complete set of results were reported. Use the following data to answer this question.

 

Number of Products Purchased

Brands Purchased            Fewer   Same     More     Total

Same     10           14           24           48

Changed              262         82           8              352

Total      272         96           32           400

 

What is the probability that a consumer selected at random purchased fewer products than before and changed brands? Place your answer, rounded to 4 decimal places, in the blank.   0.6550

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 14 of 20             1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

 

Ann is applying for a bank loan to open a pizza franchise. She must first complete a written application and then, if the written application is approved, be interviewed by bank officers. If an applicant’s written application is not approved the applicant is not granted an interview with the bank officers. Past records for this bank show that the probability of an applicant having his or her written application approved is 0.63. Records also indicate that the interviewing committee of bank officers approves 85% of the individuals they interview. Find the probability that Ann’s loan request is approved. Place your answer, rounded to 2 decimal places, in the blank. For example, 0.76 would be a legitimate entry.   0.54

Answer Key:

 

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Part 4 of 6 –         4.0/ 4.0 Points

 

Question 15 of 20             1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

 

A restaurant menu has a price-fixed complete dinner that consists of an appetizer, entrée, beverage, and dessert. You have a choice of five appetizers, ten entrees, three beverages, and six desserts. How many possible complete dinners are possible? Place your answer, as a whole number—no decimal places—in the blank. For example 176 would be a legitimate entry  900

Answer Key:

 

Question 16 of 20             1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

An ice cream vendor sells three flavors: chocolate, strawberry, and vanilla. Forty five percent of the sales are chocolate, while 30% are strawberry, with the rest vanilla flavored. Sales are by the cone or the cup. The percentages of cones sales for chocolate, strawberry, and vanilla, are 75%, 60%, and 40%, respectively. For a randomly selected sale, define the following events:

= chocolate chosen

= strawberry chosen

= vanilla chosen

= ice cream on a cone

ice cream in a cup

 

Find the probability that the ice cream was sold on a cone and was vanilla flavor.Place your answer, rounded to 2 decimal places, in the blank. For exampe, 0.34 would be a legitimate entry.  0.10

 

Answer Key:

 

Question 17 of 20             1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Mothers Against Drunk Driving (MADD) is a very visible group whose main focus is to educate the public about the harm caused by drunk drivers. A study was recently done that emphasized the problem we all face with drinking and driving. Five hundred accidents that occurred on a Saturday night were analyzed. Two items noted were the number of vehicles involved and whether alcohol played a role in the accident. The numbers are shown below:

Number of Vehicles Involved

Did alcohol play a role?  1              2              3

Yes         60           110         30           200

No          40           215         45           300

100         325         75

 

Given alcohol was involved, what proportion of accidents involved a single vehicle?

Place your answer, rounded to 2 decimal places, in the blank. For example, 0.23 is a legitimate entry.  0.30

Answer Key:

 

Question 18 of 20             1.0/ 1.0 Points

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Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.

Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.

For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

An ice cream vendor sells three flavors: chocolate, strawberry, and vanilla. Forty five percent of the sales are chocolate, while 30% are strawberry, with the rest vanilla flavored. Sales are by the cone or the cup. The percentages of cones sales for chocolate, strawberry, and vanilla, are 75%, 60%, and 40%, respectively. For a randomly selected sale, define the following events:

= chocolate chosen

= strawberry chosen

= vanilla chosen

= ice cream on a cone

ice cream in a cup

 

Find the probability that the ice cream was strawberry flavor, given that it was sold in a cup. Place your answer, rounded to 4 decimal places, in the blank. For exampe, 0.3456 would be a legitimate entry.  0.3825

 

Answer Key:

Comment: You got the previous one

 

 

Part 5 of 6 –         0.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Question 19 of 20             0.0/ 1.0 Points

Suppose A and B are mutually exclusive events where P(A) = 0.2 and P(B) = 0.5, then P(A or B) = 0.70.

 

 

 

True

 

False

 

 

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Part 6 of 6 –         1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Question 20 of 20             1.0/ 1.0 Points

True or False: The probability of a success must remain the same for each trial in a binomial experiment.

 

True

 

False

Answer Key:

 

Question 11: Mathematics

 

Part 1 of 3 –

4.0/ 7.0 Points

 

Question 1 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

The percent defective for parts produced by a manufacturing process is targeted at 4%. The process is monitored daily by taking samples of sizes n = 160 units. Suppose that today’s sample contains 14 defectives.

How many units would have to be sampled to be 95% confident that you can estimate the fraction of defective parts within 2% (using the information from today’s sample–that is using the result that )?

Question 2 of 20

0.0/ 1.0 Points

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Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

A sample of 9 production managers with over 15 years of experience has an average salary of $71,000 and a sample standard deviation of $18,000.

Question 3 of 20

0.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

The personnel department of a large corporation wants to estimate the family dental expenses of its employees to determine the feasibility of providing a dental insurance plan. A random sample of 12 employees reveals the following family dental expenses (in dollars): 115, 370, 250, 593, 540, 225, 177, 425, 318, 182, 275, and 228.

Construct a 99% confidence interval estimate for the standard deviation of family dental expenses for all employees of this corporation.

Place your LOWER limit, in dollars rounded to 1 decimal place, in the first blank. Do not use a dollar sign, a comma, or any other stray mark. For example, 98.4 would be a legitimate entry. 175.5

Question 4 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Question 5 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Question 6 of 20

0.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Question 7 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

 

Accepted characters: numbers, decimal point markers (period or comma), sign indicators (-), spaces (e.g., as thousands separator, 5 000), “E” or “e” (used in scientific notation). NOTE: For scientific notation, a period MUST be used as the decimal point marker.
Complex numbers should be in the form (a + bi) where “a” and “b” need to have explicitly stated values.
For example: {1+1i} is valid whereas {1+i} is not. {0+9i} is valid whereas {9i} is not.

Part 2 of 3 –

11.0/ 11.0 Points

 

Question 8 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

A sample of 23 European countries found that the variance of life expectancy was 7.3 years. What is the 95% confidence interval estimate for the variance of life expectancy in Europe?

 

A.27.2 <  < 118.3

B.5.6 < < 10.3

C.4.4 < < 14.6

D.28.9 < < 115.0

 

Answer Key:

Question 9 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

If you increase the confidence level, the confidence interval ____________.

 

A.stays the same

B.increases

C.decreases

D.may increase or decrease, depending on the sample data

 

Answer Key:

Question 10 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

The average gas mileage of a certain model car is 26 miles per gallon. If the gas mileages are normally distributed with a standard deviation of 1.3, find the probability that a randomly selected car of this model has a gas mileage between 25.8 and 26.3 miles per gallon.

 

A.0.15

B.0.85

C.0.70

D.0.30

 

Answer Key:

Question 11 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

A researcher wishes to know, with 98% confidence, the percentage of women who wear shoes that are too small for their feet. A previous study conducted by the Academy of Orthopedic Surgeons found that 80% of women wear shoes that are too small for their feet. If the researcher wants her estimate to be within 3% of the true proportion, how large a sample is necessary?

 

A.966

B.683

C.183

D.484

 

Answer Key:

Question 12 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

From a sample of 500 items, 30 were found to be defective. The point estimate of the population proportion defective will be:

 

A..06

B.16.667

C.30

D.0.60

 

Answer Key:

Question 13 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

The upper limit of the 90% confidence interval for the population proportion p, given that n = 100; and    = 0.20 is

 

A.0.7342

B.0.5316

C.0.2658

D.0.4684

 

Answer Key:

Question 14 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

A food snack manufacturer samples 15 bags of pretzels off the assembly line and weighed their contents. If the sample mean is 10.0 and the sample standard deviation is 0.15, find the 95% confidence interval estimate for the true mean.

 

A.(9.96, 10.04)

B.(9.68, 10.32)

C.(9.97, 10.80)

D.(9.92, 10.08)

 

Answer Key:

Question 15 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

Compute    where t20 has a t-distribution with 20 degrees of freedom.

 

A.0.1767

B.0.8233

C.0.6466

D.0.5334

 

Answer Key:

Question 16 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

At a large department store, the average number of years of employment for a cashier is 5.7 with a standard deviation of 1.8 years. If the number of years of employment at this department store is normally distributed, what is the probability that a cashier selected at random has worked at the store for over 10 years?

 

A.0.4916

B.0.9916

C.0.0084

D.0.0054

 

Answer Key:

Question 17 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

Which of the following will make a confidence interval narrower and more precise?

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A.Smaller sample size and higher confidence level

B.Larger sample size and lower confidence level

C.Smaller sample size and lower confidence level

D.Larger sample size and higher confidence level

 

Answer Key:

Question 18 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

A recent study of 750 Internet users in Europe found that 35% of Internet users were women. What is the 95% confidence interval estimate for the true proportion of women in Europe who use the Internet?

 

A.0.321 < p < 0.379

B.0.316 < p < 0.384

C.0.309 < p < 0.391

D.0.305 < p < 0.395

 

Answer Key:

Part 3 of 3 –

2.0/ 2.0 Points

 

Question 19 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

As a general rule, the normal distribution is used to approximate the sampling distribution of the sample proportion, , only if the sample size n is greater than 30.

 

True

False

 

Answer Key:

Question 20 of 20

1.0/ 1.0 Points

A 90% confidence interval estimate for a population mean is determined to be 72.8 to 79.6. If the confidence level is reduced to 80%, the confidence interval becomes narrower.

 

True

False

 

Answer Key:

 

 

Question 12: Computer Science

 

Assignment    2:         Forensic          Lab     Design
worth 100      points

Imagine the university that employs you as an information security professional has recently identified the need to design and build a digital forensic laboratory. You have been tasked with designing the lab for the organization.

Write a four to five (4-5) page paper in which you:

  1. Explicate the steps you would take to plan a budget for the lab, keeping in mind the general business objective to avoid unneeded costs.
  2. Recommend the physical requirements and controls that you would consider implementing in order to keep the lab safe and secure.
  3. Identify at least three (3) hardware and software tools that you would include in the design of the lab and explain your reasons behind your choices.
  4. Identify the high-level criteria that would be considered when selecting the forensic workstations to be utilized.
  5. Describe the mandatory policies, processes, and procedures you would implement in order to maintain the lab environment and preserve evidence.
  6. Design a floor plan for the lab using a diagramming application such as Visio or Dia. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length.
  7. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

  • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
  • Include charts or diagrams created in Visio or one of their equivalents such as Open Project Dia. The completed diagrams / charts must be imported into the Word document before the paper is submitted.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

  • Describe the purpose and structure of a digital forensics lab.
  • Examine and explain the evidence life cycle.
  • Describe the constraints on digital forensic investigations.
  • Develop a computer forensics deployment plan that addresses and solves a proposed business problem.
  • Use technology and information resources to research issues in computer forensics.
  • Write clearly and concisely about computer forensics topics using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.

 

 

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Question 13: Business

Assignment 1: PICOT Question and Justification

 

Question 14: Business

 

BUSI 681 BO1 LUO Quiz 8

 

Question 15: Business

 

BUSI201 Midterm Exam Already Graded A+ 2019 BUSI 201 Midterm Exam Already Graded A+ 2019

 

Question 16: Business

 

HESI EXIT RN EXAM V1-V7 2019

 

Question 17: Business

 

Advantages of DNA testing

1 paper of ideas

 

Question 18: Business

 

Research, Fact and Findings Documentation about private genetic testing

1 page

 

 

Question 19: Health Care

 

NURSING FN NURS 6640Nfinal exam for 6640 Final exam for 6640: Graded A

NURSING FN NURS 6640Nfinal exam for 6640 Final exam for 6640: Graded A

 

Question 20: Religious Studies

 

BIBL 105 Quiz 1 / BIBL105 Quiz 1 (3 Latest Versions) – Old Testament Survey -Liberty University (100% Correct, Already graded A)

 

Question 21: Mathematics

 

  • Question 1 Which of the following are principles of Statistical Thinking?
  • Question 2 The Statistical Thinking Strategy has significant commonality with the
  • scientific method. Which of the following statistical thinking principles is NOT generally associated with the scientific method?
  • Question 3 The primary goal of process mapping is to:
  • Question 4 Viewing a business as a system is important because:
  • Question 5 If you are thinking creatively about how to take existing tools and link and sequence them to develop a novel approach to solve important problems, this would be an example of:
  • Question 6 If my histogram appears bimodal, what tool might help me evaluate why?
  • Question 7 A sample of 50 invoices are inspected each shift for errors, and classified as either “good”, i.e., without error, or “bad”, having some problem. If we plot our bad invoices each shift on a control chart, which chart should we use?
  • Question 8 Control limits were originally defined at the three-sigma level because:
  • Question 9 A main purpose of a control chart is to:
  • Question 10 What does it mean if capability index Cp is less than 1?
  • Question 11 Which of the following is NOT a measure of model adequacy?
  • Question 12 Which of the following is NOT a reason for adjusted R-Square being low?
  • Question 13 Process models are used to:
  • Question 14 Tips for building useful models include:
  • Question 15 An Adjusted R-square value is a correlation coefficient that has been modified to account for:
  • Question 16 Identify the assumption that is NOT made when conducting an experiment:
  • Question 17 This technique is used to eliminate the effects of nuisance factors (e.g., machines, day of week, and season of year) from an experiment.
  • Question 18 The basic reason for randomness of sampling in design of experiments is:
  • Question 19 Given the plot below, what might you suspect about factors A and B?
  • Question 20 An aspect of good experimental strategy is to study the effects of the variables (Xs) over a wide range. This strategy increases the chances that effects will be found because:
  • Question 21 Based on a regression model, I have developed a 95% prediction interval for the time it will take me to run a mile under specific conditions (weather, what I have eaten & drank, running shoes used, and so on). This interval goes from 5.2 minutes to 6.1 minutes. Which of the following could be an accurate description of this interval?
  • Question 22 We are testing the null hypothesis that the average monthly revenue between four insurance offices is the same. We obtained a p-value of .07. Which of the following would be an appropriate conclusion about the population?
  • Question 23 For which of the following scenarios am I most likely to utilize a Chi-squared test?
  • Question 24 A local university ran a regression model on factors impacting starting job salary of employed graduates. After validating this as a reasonable model, the university noted that the regression coefficient for GPA had a p-value of .10. Which of the following would be a reasonable conclusion in this case?
  • Question 25 After running an ANOVA comparing the average years of experience between five different job classifications, we obtained a p value of .02. Which of the following would be a reasonable conclusion concerning the population in this case?

 

Question 22: Business

 

Each individual student will be required to conduct two analyses of a business article, case study, or original business topic investigation and present the analysis, findings, and implications to the rest of the class. Critical analysis is required (do not simply summarize an article). Analysis should be summarized in a document. Analysis should be summarized in a 2-3 page single spaced document.  The  article/case can involve any topic of the student’s interest related to entrepreneurship broadly defined including new ventures, social entrepreneurship, angel investing, venture capital, corporate entrepreneurship, innovation, and others.

 

Question 23: General Question

 

NURS 6501 Week 8 Quiz (2018): Advanced Pathophysiology -Walden University (Already graded A )

NURS 6501 Week 8 Quiz (2018): Advanced Pathophysiology -Walden University (Already graded A )

 

Question 24: General Question

 

Liberty University : THEO 104 Study Guide Week 1-8 (New) Chapter 1-40.

Liberty University : THEO 104 Study Guide Week 1-8 (New) Chapter 1-40.

 

Question 25: General Question

 

Liberty University CSTU 101 quiz 5/ CSTU 101 Quiz 5 (Latest): Liberty University (Already graded A)

 

Question 26: Business

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

Zane, a 26-year-old male, came upon a car accident and immediately started to help the victims, who were pinned in their car. There was blood all over the scene and Zane acted without having any personal protective equipment. While helping the victims, he cut his arms in several places on the sharp metal and shards of glass. A few weeks later, he developed flu-like symptoms that persisted for several days. He went to his clinic and tested negative for influenza. 

Because of his recent exposure, Zane’s doctor was suspicious of blood borne pathogens. Which of the following disorders are blood-borne diseases?

  • Question 2

1 out of 1 points

Lab tests confirm the presence of HIV antibodies in Zane’s blood. Briefly describe why there are antibodies present.

  • Question 3

1 out of 1 points

Briefly define “autoimmunity” and “immunodeficiency” in your own words. Which of these conditions is Zane more likely to develop?

  • Question 4

1 out of 1 points

During the primary HIV infection, which of the following cells decreases in number?

 

  • Question 5

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following statements is true?

  • Question 6

1 out of 1 points

HIV is a retrovirus. Briefly describe how a retrovirus is different from other viruses.

  • Question 7

1 out of 1 points

Zane is worried about passing the virus to his friends and family. Which of the following bodily fluids can transmit HIV? (Select all that apply.)

  • Question 8

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of acute HIV infection?

  • Question 9

1 out of 1 points

The initial symptoms of HIV infection are followed by clinical latency. Which of the following statements is true?

  • Question 10

1 out of 1 points

Zane is told that he may develop AIDS in his lifetime. Which signs and symptoms would indicate that he has AIDS?

  • Question 11

1 out of 1 points

Justine, a 39-year-old female, has recently been diagnosed with lymphoma. She has a family history of several cancers, but not lymphoma. Her personal medical history includes mononucleosis, asthma, and two full-term pregnancies and vaginal births. Before her diagnosis, she had been feeling “generally sick” and felt several lumps on her neck and armpits. She had a fever that wouldn’t go away and had been waking up sweaty in the middle of the night. Microscopy showed the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. 

Based on the information given, which of the type of lymphoma does Justine have?

  • Question 12

1 out of 1 points

Reed Sternberg cells are derived from which type of normal cell?

  • Question 13

1 out of 1 points

Which of Justine’s symptoms signify the presence of lymphadenopathy?

  • Question 14

1 out of 1 points

Aside from the symptoms noted in Justine’s case, list and briefly describe 3 other symptoms of lymphoma.

  • Question 15

1 out of 1 points

Lymphoma is definitively diagnosed by which of the following procedures?

  • Question 16

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is true of Justine’s treatment?

  • Question 17

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is true of Justine’s diagnosis?

  • Question 18

1 out of 1 points

Which part of Justine’s case study is considered a risk factor for her diagnosis?

  • Question 19

1 out of 1 points

Chemotherapy is a very general term for using medications to treat cancers. Briefly describe how chemotherapy would help Justine.

  • Question 20

1 out of 1 points

How would a bone marrow transplant help treat Justine’s condition?

 

 

Question 27: General Question

 

NSG 6020 FINAL STUDY GUIDE (LATEST): SOUTH UNIVERSITY

 

Question 28: Business

 

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

 

Discuss the direct and indirect costs associated with staffing decisions. How have those decisions affected you directly or indirectly?

 

Question 29: Business

 

600 words/easy money! There are various federal and state employment and labor laws protecting both employees and employers. The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) is the federal agency responsible for interpreting, investigating, and enforcing federal employment laws against workplace discrimination. In Week 2, you considered the legal components in a job description. In Week 4, you analyzed forms of discrimination when conducting a performance appraisal. For this discussion, you will look at protected classes identified by the EEOC. Protected classes are groups of people with common characteristics that are legally protected from employment discrimination.

Instruction

In your initial post, Describe three protected classes and the laws that exist to protect them. Explain how the EEOC investigates complaints of discrimination against a protected individual. Discuss how employers can prevent and respond to allegations of employment discrimination. Your initial post should be a minimum of 300 words and cite at least one scholarly source to support your response.

 

Question 30: Literary Studies

 

– Find 3 credible sources (.org, .edu, .gov or library sources) for your Final Research Essay if you haven’t already found them.

Annotated Bibliography Journal

Underneath each MLA Citation of your source include a paragraph (5-8 sentences) that explain:

What the source is about

What the author of the source gives information about or states about your text

How the information in the source relates to the literature you are examining

How or where in your essay do you plan to use this source and/or with which criticism does this source pertain to and how?

 

 

 

WILL PROVIDED BOOK ACCESS ONCE ASSIGNED

 

Case Study–Chapter 8—Century Medical-Page 336

Each question must be broken down in the following way:

 

Problem: (You can be brief in this summation on the overall problem)

Causes of the Problem: (Show critical thinking in your assessment)

Alternative Solutions: (Demonstrate your critical thinking with different ideas to resolve the issue while incorporating good organizational practices)

Best Alternative: (This will be your primary recommendation/solution that you believe is best)

Implementation Steps: (Detail how your recommendations might be utilized to solve the matter)

 

 

  1. If you were Nolan, how would you approach the project at work now?

 

  1. The new boss had little appreciation for all types of information. Use textbook terms to describe the type of information he embraced, and the type he rejected.  How might this be

explained?  How might this be changed?

 

  1. In the work world, is it ever best to move on to a different way when your boss totally rejects what you believe strongly is the best approach? If, in this case, Nolan does not continue to challenge the ideas of his new boss, what would you predict will happen?

 

This is your CEO speaking, the above questions are just a guide, thoroughly analyze this case in terms of what you have learned in the first eight chapters of the text. What this means is you will need to look at all the aspects of each chapter we have covered and see if anything is applicable here, if so, how, this needs to be in your written paper. After your analysis, make a one paragraph recommendation (this is in addition to your analysis which needs to be on paper) to me of what you think the next steps should be for my company. No, you don’t just turn in a one paragraph paper, use the steps below to thoroughly analyze the case then give me the recommendations. Again this is just a guide, be thorough.

 

 

You need to use APA guidelines meaning you do need to cite or give me references and you will need a cover sheet, and again I want to hear what is in your head, heart and mind.

 

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Question 2:        Healthcare

 

Write a 300 word discussion post about current news that (a) condenses and thematically organizes the key issues from the news that pertain to environmental public health; and (b) make at least one connection to the issues or themed covered in the course readings and discussions. Pose 2 questions to launch class discussion. You will only have to create the media post one time during the semester; you will always have to complete the discussion replies. A posting schedule will be created by random selection of student names.

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Question 1: General Question

Question 1 (500 points)

You are currently working for a company called Pierogi’s and More.  This company specializes in
authentic ethnic European style foods.  Product offering includes Blintzes, Golabki, Kaputsa, and
Kielbasa, but the main item in the product line is the traditional Pierogi.  A pierogi is best
described as a piece of pastry or dough that is stuffed with various ingredients.  Going back to the
tradition of the product, the original pierogis were normally stuffed with mashed potatoes,
spinach, sauerkraut and/or variety of cheeses.  The pierogi was the ‘worker’ or ‘laborers’ meal, so
consequently did not include meats as they were not affordable but when available, some meats
would be an ingredient in the pierogi.  These meat-based pierogis were considered a delicacy and
used mainly for special occasions.
The pricing strategy has been quality/value-priced based.  The company has been trying to
develop a reputation and perspective of a high quality item.  The standard price for one dozen
pierogis has been $5.99 per dozen.  This price is a little higher than the prices of the main
competitors.  Depending upon the ingredients, the competitors’ prices range from $2.79 to $5.39
per dozen in most grocery stores.  Based on the current production costs and overheads, there is
some room to manipulate price, but there is a desire to make sure that the pricing strategy
reflects the quality of the product.  While the company has completed no in-depth research or
analysis, management believes they offer the highest quality pierogi on the market and believes
their price should reflect as much.  A breakdown of the cost structure revealed total variable
costs of $1.87/dozen and total fixed costs of $0.20/dozen.
Pierogi’s and More is starting to enter a new phase of distribution.  To this point, sales were
through the current company store front or direct sales to a few local markets.  The company is
now branching into specialty or higher end grocery retail.  This change will require the inclusion
of a wholesaler into the marketing channel.  Studies have shown that most grocery wholesalers
maintain a 30 percent mark-up while the retailer maintains a 25 percent mark-up.  Pierogi’s and
More desires to maintain their current price point at the retail level when they enter this new
distribution channel.  The company would also like to maintain a 45 percent mark-up.
Based upon the above information, please respond to the following:
a: Using the target price of $5.99, determine the price point the company should use for the
wholesaler.  Does this price point allow the company to maintain its desired 45 percent mark-
up?  If you know that the consumer price elasticity for this product group is 0.80, what would be
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your concerns when establishing the price?
b: Do you believe the company should continue to use a value-based pricing mechanism?  Why or
why not?  If you know the customer group has a high level of price sensitivity, what is your
concern with this pricing scenario?
c: In addition to the pricing decisions, Pierogi’s and More does not have a promotional campaign
designed for this new marketing channel.  Prepare an appropriate marketing campaign to enter
the new market.  Be specific in your response.  Does brand play a role in this process?
d: Pierogi’s and more has the opportunity to distribute the product through the specialty store in
both a frozen offering and a fresh offering in the deli/meat counter.  Should their pricing
structure be the same or different for the two products?  How would this impact other aspects of
the promotional mix?  Does brand play any roll in this process?
e: Create a slogan for the business, less than 20 words, which captures the essence of the brand.
Explain your rationale for the slogan. Then show how it should be incorporated within the brand
image and integrated marketing communication plan.

Question 2: Biology

NURS 6531 Midterm Exam  Latest Version Walden University

Question 3: Biology

NURS 6531 Midterm Exam Review WEEK 2 Latest Version Walden University

Question 4: Biology

NURS 6512 Final Exam   Latest Version Walden University

Question 5: Biology

NURSE 6531 Final Exam Adv. Practice Care of Adults   Latest Version Walden University

Question 6: Business

Wk 4 – Advisory Memo

As a first-year Human Resource Specialist at “State of Estates” estate planning firm, your boss (Will N. Trusts) presents you with the following two scenarios:
Scenario 1
Ned was hired six weeks ago by “State of Estates” to supervise the call center on weekends. At the time of hire, Ned did not disclose that he is a follower of the “Weekend Warriors” religion. In observance of his religious practices, Ned may not work Saturday mornings before noon. Ned called out of work three Saturday mornings in a row, costing the company extra overtime costs. The company looked to re-arrange the schedule, but to pull in a more senior supervisor on the weekend would require time-and-a-half pay. In addition, call-center statistics indicate a drop in productivity when there is a change of supervisor mid-day. The company would like to terminate Ned’s employment.
Would Ned have an argument for religious discrimination against “State of Estates?” Why or why not?
If yes, would the company be able to assert any defenses under these circumstances?

Scenario 2
Ella works in the accounting department in the northern satellite office of the company. She has been employed for four years and performed her job well until recently when she was caught sleeping on the job numerous times. Ella explained to her supervisor that she suffers from sleep apnea and has not been sleeping well at night. She requested a special caffeine supplement, at $200 daily, to keep her focused on the spreadsheets.
What factors would a court consider in determining whether Ella’s sleep apnea qualifies her for protection under the ADA?
Would “State of Estates” have to provide the requested accommodation of the caffeine pills in this instance? Why or why not?

Create two 350-word memos in one document based on these two scenarios.

Format your memos, including citations and references consistent with APA guidelines.

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Question 7: Business

Wk 4 discussion

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:
The age for full social security benefits is 67 today, with more than one-third of people working past the age of 70.  The ADEA was enacted to prevent discrimination against older workers.  Discuss some of the underlying situations that contribute to discrimination by age and what companies can do to avoid decisions based on age alone.

Question 8: Business

6 page paper  (use template)

Analyze the business-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the business-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice. Justify your opinion.
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor. Compare their strategies at each level and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice.
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets.
Use at least three (3) quality references.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
Identify various levels and types of strategy in a firm.
Use technology and information resources to research issues in business administration.
Write clearly and concisely about business administration using proper writing mechanics.

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Week 8 Assignment 3
Student Full Name

Date

Everything in Blue below should be deleted
Due Week 8 and worth 150 points
Using the corporation you chose from Assignment 1, examine its industry. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions. NOTE: Be sure to read Chapters 1 – 10 in the course textbook and complete the LEARN E-Activities for Weeks 1-8 as they set the foundation to this assignment. Be sure to cite your sources! Begin your paper on Page 2 and write a minimum of six (6) pages (does not include Title or Source pages).

Week 8 Assignment 3
Write your brief introduction here: It should not be more than 1 good paragraph (about 5 complete sentences) to introduce the reader to your topic and it should explain in detail what your paper will be discussing. Much of your introduction may be taken from the assignment itself (in your own words). Read the scenario to get a feel for what the paper is about and explain what your paper will be discussing – so be sure to review the Assignment instructions AND Rubric for understanding. Finally, please ask me any questions about this assignment.
Business-Level Strategies
Analyze the business-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the business-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice (Note: in this step you need to choose and write about only one (1) business-level strategy from the text book (not Google). Justify your opinion. For background, be sure to research and explain the industry in which your selected corporation operates. You could also briefly (1 – 2 sentences) define the business-level strategy (cite your sources) you are writing about using the textbook/Learn, as an introduction to your analysis. Read Chapter 4 in the course textbook. Review the Week 4 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content. In this section, you will want to research and identify the core competencies of your chosen firm. Demonstrate from your research how the firm uses its core competencies to create and sell its products in the marketplace. What actions & choices has the firm made to compete in individual product markets? Hint: “Every firm must form and use a business-level strategy.” (Hitt, Ireland, & Hoskisson, 2013, pp. 102). Review Chapters 4-9 for specifics on the business-level strategies.

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Corporate-Level Strategies
Analyze the corporate-level strategies for the corporation you chose to determine the corporate-level strategy you think is most important to the long-term success of the firm and whether or not you judge this to be a good choice (Note: in this step you need to choose and write about only one (1) corporate-level strategy from the text book (not Google). Justify your opinion.
You should briefly define (1 – 2 sentences) corporate-level strategy based upon the textbook/lectures (cite your sources) as part of your analysis. Read Chapter 6 in the course textbook. Review the Week 6 Learn video/Lecture for supporting content.
Competitive Environment
Analyze the competitive environment to determine the corporation’s most significant competitor (this will require research/cite your sources). Compare their strategies at each level (market commonality, resource similarity, competitive behavior, and competitive dynamics/actions/responses) and evaluate which company you think is most likely to be successful in the long term. Justify your choice. Hint: read Chapter 5 in the course textbook as it provides a solid background and clues on this model that apply to this section. Review the Week 4 Learn video Lecture for supporting content (cite your sources).
Market Cycles
Determine whether your choice from Question 3 (Competitive Environment section above) would differ in slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets. It would be a good idea to briefly (1 – 2 sentences) explain what the slow-cycle and fast-cycle markets are from the textbook (cite your sources) as a short introduction to your determination. Hint: read Chapter 5 in the course textbook with a special focus on the Competitive Dynamics section. Review the Week 4 Learn video Lecture for supporting content (cite your sources).
Sources
Hitt, M. A., Ireland, R. D., & Hoskisson, R. E. (2013). Strategic management: Concepts and cases: Competiveness and globalization (10th ed.). Mason, OH: South-Western Cengage Learning.
List your sources on this page and remember to delete the instructions, which are in blue font.
Use at least three (3) quality sources, one of which must be the course textbook to support your ideas/work. Note: Wikipedia and college essay sites do not qualify as academic resources.
Cite your sources throughout your work when you borrow someone else’s words or ideas.
The source page must include all sources used. All sources listed here must be cited in your paper.
Look for a permalink tool for a webpage when possible (especially when an electronic
source requires logging in).
When using SWS remember to organize sources in a numbered list and in order of use throughout the paper; use the original number when citing a source multiple times; and follow this format for all sources:
Author. Publication Date. Title. Page # (written as p. #). How to Find (e.g. web address)
The APA format may also be used for a Reference page.
Questions to ask yourself before submitting your paper.
Did I read the required course material and complete the required activities?
Have I deleted the blue font instructions in this template?
Did I leave the provided section headings in place, as provided in this template?
After deleting the blue fonts in this template, have I changed all font to black?
Additional things to keep in mind.
You will be graded on the content of your submission, the quality of your answers, the logic/organization of the report, your language skills, and your writing skills using the grading rubric.
Strayer uses SafeAssign – an automated plagiarism checker. It is advised that you do your own writing and use external resources to support what you have written in your own words.

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Question 9: Business

The Woolong Company produces high-end vacuum cleaners and has hired you to oversee the development and release of their latest product. A preliminary project initiation meeting will result in the identification of the project sponsor, selection of a project manager, and creation of the project charter. A manager in the production department who knows you are taking a college project management course asks you to prepare a report to help them prepare for the meeting by answering the following questions:
Who are the project stakeholders? How will they be involved in the project?
Whom should the project sponsor be? Why?
What skills and experience are likely needed by the project manager for each phase in the project life cycle, and how do these skills and experiences differ between the various phases?
What kind of roles and responsibilities should the key stakeholders have? Discuss at least 4–5 different kinds of stakeholders.
How should they communicate to different stakeholders during the project?
What information should be shared with the project stakeholders?
What is the mechanism that could be used for each type of information?
What is the frequency with which information should be shared?
What should be done if project communications are not proving to be effective?
What technology could be used for project communications?
At what point could communication about the project become an ethical or legal issue?
What are the best ways to manage project risks as well as opportunities during project execution?
How do they update and analyze old risks as well as new risks while undertaking the project?
What business opportunity might project completion create?
What is the potential financial impact of the project?
What are the expected results of the project?
What value will the project add?
What is the potential impact to the company if the project is not finished well?
Present your findings as a Word document of 4–5 pages (not including title and reference pages) formatted in APA style, using the attached template. Submitting your assignment in APA format means, at a minimum, you will need the following:
Title page: Remember the running head. The title should be in all capitals.
Body: The body of your paper begins on the page following the title page and abstract page and must be double-spaced (be careful not to triple- or quadruple-space between paragraphs). The type face should be 12-pt. Times Roman or 12-pt. Courier in regular black type. Do not use color, bold type, or italics except as required for APA-level headings and references. The deliverable length of the body of your paper for this assignment is 2–3 pages. In-body academic citations to support your decisions and analysis are required. A variety of academic sources is encouraged.
Reference page: References that align with your in-body academic sources are listed on the final page of your paper. The references must be in APA format using appropriate spacing, hang indention, italics, and upper- and lowercase usage as appropriate for the type of resource used. Remember, the Reference Page is not a bibliography but a further listing of the abbreviated in-body citations used in the paper. Every referenced item must have a corresponding in-body citation.

Question 10: Business

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1)      Describe the changing demographic patterns of the aging population. How do these patterns vary by age, gender, race, and ethnicity? How will the demographic changes in the population in the next decade influence the type and delivery of community resources available to older adults?
2)      Major historical events can shape the way a cohort behaves throughout their lives. As an example individuals who grew-up during the depression are often frugal with spending even in old age. What was the major historical event of your life course? How did this affect your life and do you think it will continue to impact you as you age?
3)      From the point of view of older adults, what might be the advantages and disadvantages of living in a state with a large older population? From the point of view of younger generations? Explain, using references from this week’s resources to support your response.
4)      What is ageism (as it applies to the aging population)? Name three examples of ageism that you’ve personally witnessed, experienced, or perhaps even committed yourself. How are these instances damaging to the aging population?

Question 11: Business

HRM 530 Assignment 1 Alignment of HRM and Business Strategies
HRM 530 Assignment 1 Alignment of HRM and Business Strategies

Question 12: Business

Create a chart with rows and columns to establish the following requirements of discrimination under the law in the following areas at the top:

Title VII Gender Discrimination in Employment Practices
Sexual Harassment Based on Hostile Work Environment
Quid-Pro-Quo Sexual Harassment
Sexual Orientation in the Workplace

Along the left side of the chart, create the following rows:

Requirements to Prove Under the Law
Ways Employers can Minimize Liability
Recent Case Example

Complete the chart for each section.

Explain in 350 to 525 words the requirements of each type of potential gender discrimination.

Explain in 350 to 525 words the specific ways employers can minimize liability for each type of gender discrimination.

Research and include a relevant case to illustrate each type of gender discrimination.

Format your citations and references consistent with APA guidelines.

Question 13: Health Care

Nursing Therapy Quiz

STUDY GUIDE

This quiz will cover the following topics, which relate to psychotherapy with individuals in the Wheeler textbook and the Fisher textbook excerpts:

Topics
·         The Nurse Psychotherapist and a Framework for Practice
·         Confidentiality Limits in Psychotherapy: Ethics Checklists for Mental Health Professionals
·         Assessment and Diagnosis
·         The Initial Contact and Maintaining the Frame
·         Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
·         Supportive and Psychodynamic Psychotherapy
·         Stabilization for Trauma and Dissociation
·         Motivational Interviewing
·         Psychotherapeutic Approaches for Addictions and Related Disorders

Wheeler, K. (Eds.). (2014). Psychotherapy for the advanced practice psychiatric nurse: A how-to guide for evidence-based practice (2nd ed.). New York, NY: Springer Publishing Company.
·         Chapter 1, “The Nurse Psychotherapist and a Framework for Practice”
·         Chapter 3, “Assessment and Diagnosis”
·         Chapter 4, “The Initial Contact and Maintaining the Frame”
·        Chapter 5, “Supportive and Psychodynamic Psychotherapy”
·        Chapter 7, “Motivational Interviewing” (pp.299-312)
·        Chapter 8, “Cognitive Behavioral Therapy”
·        Chapter 13, “Stabilization for Trauma and Dissociation”
·        Chapter 16, “Psychotherapeutic Approaches for Addictions and Related Disorders”

Fisher, M. A. (2016). Introduction. In Confidentiality limits in psychotherapy: Ethics checklists for mental health professionals (pp. 3–12). Washington, DC: American Psychological Association. doi:10.1037/14860-001

Fisher, M. A. (2016). The ethical ABCs of conditional confidentiality. In Confidentiality limits in psychotherapy: Ethics checklists for mental health professionals (pp. 13–25). Washington, DC: American Psychological Association. doi:10.1037/14860-002

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Question 1
After informing a prospective patient about limits of confidentiality, the patient consents to the “conditions” of confidentiality and signs an informed consent form. Several weeks later, a lawyer representing the patient’s spouse for a court case, asks the PMHNP for the disclosure of information about the patient. The PMHNP should:

A.
Disclose all patient information as requested

B.
Refuse to disclose any confidential information

C.
Limit disclosure to the extent legally possible

D.
Ignore the request based on ethical reasons
1 points
Question 2
The PMHNP is meeting with a new patient who is a young veteran back from serving two tours overseas. When reviewing the patient’s health history file that was sent from the VA, the PMHNP learns that several months ago, the patient was diagnosed with PTSD, but never followed up with treatment for it. After a comprehensive mental health assessment, the PMHNP confirms the PTSD diagnosis and understands that which therapeutic approach will be the most effective as a first-line treatment modality?

A.
Performing a psychiatric debriefing on the patient

B.
Employing cognitive behavioral therapy with the patient

C.
Using psychodynamic psychotherapy with the patient

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 3
One of the strategies the PMHNP wants to try includes sleep restriction. What will the PMHNP suggest to follow sleep restriction therapy?

A.
“Restrict sleep for 24 hours.”

B.
“Restrict the amount of time you spend in bed.”

C.
“Restrict the amount of exercise you do prior to going to bed.”

D.
“Restrict the amount of food you eat before bedtime.”
1 points
Question 4
The PMHNP is conducting a peer review of another PMHNP’s medical charts. Upon review, the PMHNP notes that the peer often begins patient sessions late, as well as ends them later than scheduled. The PMHNP also found a comment in the chart regarding the patient sending text messages while in the middle of the session. Based on these findings, the feedback that the PMHNP will provide to the peer involves which therapeutic principle?

A.
Assessing safety

B.
Applying therapeutic communication

C.
Using empathy

D.
Maintaining the frame

32.The PMHNP is mentoring a student. After working with a patient during a session, the student laments about all the things she should have, or could have, said to the patient. “I feel guilty that I didn’t speak up more about the patient’s concern toward her son,” says the student. The PMHNP understands that the student is exhibiting signs of which therapeutic concept?
1 points
Question 5
True or false: If after a third round of processing followed by stabilization, a patient has increased anxiety that requires further interventions aimed at stabilization, the therapeutic relationship can no longer successfully provide therapeutic change.
True
False
1 points
Question 6
The PMHNP has been treating a 15-year-old patient with a history of abuse and neglect. Thirty minutes into their therapy session the patient jumps up and begins to pace around the room. Utilizing Socratic dialogue (SD) the PMHNP’s best action would be to:

A.
Allow the patient time to process before speaking.

B.
Ask, “Why don’t you come have a seat beside me?” while tapping the table.

C.
Say, “I noticed a change. Can you tell me what happened?”

D.
Say, “We can continue this session later if you prefer.”

1 points
Question 7
The PMHNP is caring for a patient who the PMHNP believes would benefit from a relational psychodynamic approach to therapy. Which action made by the PMHNP demonstrates appropriate use and understanding of the relationship psychodynamic model?

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A.
Focusing the exploration on making the unconscious conscious

B.
Focusing the exploration on the genetic roots of the patient’s problem

C.
Focusing the exploration on here and now

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 8
The PMHNP is caring for a patient with borderline personality disorder. Using a psychoanalytic psychotherapy approach, the PMHNP attempts to intensify the patient’s transference to enhance emotional processing by:

A.
Developing increased boundaries

B.
Decreasing supportive psychotherapy

C.
Scaling back contact with the patient

D.
Increasing the number of sessions per week
1 points
Question 9
An elderly patient in a nursing home has been losing interest in activities and now refuses to leave his room. After a physical exam, he is referred to a PMHNP for an initial assessment.
True or false: After speaking with the patient, an appropriate screening tool for the PMHNP  to use would be the Geriatric Depression Scale.
True
False
1 points
Question 10
A middle-aged man who works over 50 hours a week is being seen for depression and anger management. He states, “I am even more frustrated when I come home and my wife wants to argue about stupid stuff. All I want to do is come home, take a shower, and eat. Is that too much to ask?” The PMHNP explains that people can be assertive, aggressive, and passive. She encourages the patient to be more assertive and begins role-play with assertive training. The PMHNP determines that the patient is beginning to understand when he states:

A.
“I am tired, I work very hard all day to support you and this family!”

B.
“I come home and all you do is argue, but I don’t care.”

C.
“I don’t know what I did. Why are you acting like this?!”

D.
“I feel frustrated when I come home and we argue.”

1 points
Question 11
The PMHNP is treating a patient with a substantial fear of feeling closed in (claustrophobia). Thus, the patient will not get into an elevator. The office where he works is on the 10th floor and this requires that he walk up and down the stairs in the morning and evening to get to his office. With permission from the patient, the PMHNP is beginning systematic desensitization to address the patient’s need to use the elevator. What is the PMHNP’s best plan of action?

A.
Begin by having the patient stand in front of the elevator and write down his feelings

B.
Complete a 30-minute therapy session in an elevator

C.
Allow the patient to watch an elevator go up and down

D.
Allow the patient to see the PMHNP getting into an elevator
1 points
Question 12
A PMHNP is assessing ego functioning of his 40-year-old patient by asking what she feels is the cause of her problems. She attributes her problems to her overprotective parents not letting her have enough freedom growing up. Based on her answer, the PMHNP is testing _____________.

A.
adaptive regression in the service of the ego

B.
regulation and control of affects and impulses

C.
defensive and interpersonal functioning

D.
sense of reality of the world and of the self
1 points
1 points
Question 18
During a session, the PMHNP asks a patient with a history of sexual abuse to recall the relationship she had as a child with her parents. The patient responds by saying she has a headache and her stomach hurts, and starts talking about her physical ailments. What is the appropriate response by the PMHNP?

A.
Assure the patient that she does not have to discuss these memories

B.
Explain why it is important for the patient to discuss these memories openly

C.
Tell the patient that she may not get better if she does not face her fears

D.
Let the patient know that plenty of other people have similar painful memories, too
1 points
Question 20
During a therapy session with an 18-year-old female the PMHNP learns that she has lived in six different foster homes in the last 24 months. She states that her mother is in a correctional facility for drug abuse and prostitution. During the assessment, the PMHNP notices multiple superficial cuts to each wrist. The patient appears tearful, withdrawn, and never makes direct eye contact. The PMHNP believes that this patient may have feelings of insecurities as well as abandonment issues and is aware that which diagnosis is likely possible?

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A.
Narcissistic personality disorder

B.
Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

C.
Borderline personality disorder

D.
Paranoid personality disorder
1 points
Question 21
A patient named Steve is seeking therapy to get help with his home situation, stating that he has been stressed since his mother-in-law moved into the house. What can the PMHNP do to assist the patient in constructing a narrative?

A.
Share a personal story about her home situation and family members

B.
Elicit details so Steve becomes more self-disclosing and self-examining

C.
Guide Steve through imagery exercises so he can decrease his stress

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 22
A 16-year-old female patient has had a stable therapeutic relationship with the PMHNP for several months. The PMHNP notices what appears to be fresh cigarette burns on the patient’s arm. When asked, the patient admits to this self-injurious behavior. Although the patient is still depressed, her mood seems to be somewhat better this week. True or false: The PMHNP would most likely consider this patient stabilized and ready to move to Stage II.
True
False
1 points
Question 23
The PMHNP is working with a patient who experiences abreactions when discussing repressed feelings of his sexual abuse as a child. What can the PMHNP do to manage the patient’s intense emotional reactions?

A.
Sit closer to the patient so the patient does not feel isolated

B.
Embrace the patient to provide physical comfort

C.
Suggest a relaxation technique, such as yoga or meditation

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 25
During cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), a 64-year-old male patient states, “I get so frustrated sometimes and I just blow up at everybody!” Which response by the PMHNP demonstrates translation of Socratic dialogue (SD)?

A.
“Please explain how this affects the relationship with your wife.”

B.
“When you say blow up, what exactly does blow up mean and  how does it feel to you?”

C.
“What coping methods have you used in the past during times of frustration?”

D.
“So you blow up when you become frustrated?”
1 points
Question 26
The PMHNP is mentoring a student. After working with a patient during a session, the student laments about all the things she should have, or could have, said to the patient. “I feel guilty that I didn’t speak up more about the patient’s concern toward her son,” says the student. The PMHNP understands that the student is exhibiting signs of which therapeutic concept?

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A.
Countertransference

B.
Therapeutic communication

C.
Empathy

D.
Boundaries
1 points
Question 27
A 28-year-old male patient is experiencing distress related to the workplace. What might the PMHNP ask to assess affective development?

A.
“How do you think your colleagues feel about you?”

B.
“How do you calm yourself when you are upset at the office?”

C.
“How do you think your colleague felt when you blamed her?”

D.
All of the above.
1 points
Question 28
A PMHNP is preparing confidentiality forms for his patients. What is the most appropriate first step he should take?

A.
Talk to potential patients to get their feedback and suggestions

B.
Research his profession’s ethics code and state/federal laws

C.
Use current patient interactions to decide what matters most

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 29
A PMHNP is caring for a 21-year-old woman who is suffering from anxiety and is having difficulty managing stress. Which of the following would be an appropriate step by the PMHNP?

A.
Asking the patient what she does to relieve anxiety

B.
Giving the patient basic stress management activities

C.
Developing a plan together that is not overwhelming

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 30
The PMHNP is caring for a patient who has acute stress disorder after experiencing a traumatic event 1 week prior. The PMHNP wants to begin with a therapeutic framework that follows the adaptive information processing (AIP) model. What is the priority action for the PMHNP to take?

A.
Focus on the patient’s safety and stabilization

B.
Help the patient process painful memories

C.
Encourage the patient to find ways to achieve personal growth

D.
Assist the patient in planning for the future
1 points
Question 31
The PMHNP is working with a 43-year-old male patient who develops idiosyncratic transference over weeks of therapy. The best way for the PMHNP to respond to this patient is to ___________:

A.
employ cognitive behavioral therapy

B.
use empathy

C.
utilize intersubjectivity

D.
none of the above
1 points
Question 32
The PMHNP is working with a 56-year-old man who is being seen because of his anxiety and depression. During the therapy sessions, the PMHNP assists the patient in discussing his experiences and expanding on his thoughts and feelings. He tells the PMHNP stories about how he used to be teased by his coworkers at the office for becoming too anxious in large conference rooms. The PMHNP listens to the patient and helps focus on his strengths to promote self-understanding. Which principle best accounts for the PMHNP’s interactions with the patient?

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A.
Therapeutic communication

B.
Maintaining the frame

C.
Working with resistance

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 33
During a therapy session the patient is asked how she currently deals with stress, and she says, “Well, I don’t. I just let it build and build.” The PMHNP responds by asking how well this has been working out for her. The patient states, “Well, to be honest, it just feels like I’m drowning, you know what I mean.” Illustrating idiosyncratic meaning, the PMHNP responds with:

A.
“Would you say you feel like you are suffocating?”

B.
“No, I am not sure what you are saying. Can you please explain?”

C.
“Sort of like a fish out of water?”

D.
“When you say, ‘I just can’t breathe,’ you do understand, that is a form of anxiety?”

1 points
Question 34
The PMHNP is having a therapy session with Charlotte, a 20-year-old victim of date rape. The patient states, “I shouldn’t have been there; I should have just gone home. This was all my fault; how could I have been so stupid?” Using the Socratic method, what is the PMHNP’s best response?

A.
“If this had happened to someone else with the exact same circumstances, would you say this was her fault?”

B.
“Can you recall exactly what stopped you from going home when you originally wanted to go home?”

C.
”Have you shared these thoughts about what you should have done with anybody other than me?”

D.
“Do you understand that there is absolutely nothing that you could ever do to deserve to be treated the way you were treated?”
1 points
Question 35
At the initial interview with a patient, the PMHNP reviews the condition of receiving services, including limits that will be imposed on confidentiality. During the discussion, the patient shares information that the PMHNP is legally required to report.
True or false: If the PMHNP does not report information that s/he is legally required to report, state laws govern the consequences which include penalties for not reporting, especially child and elder abuse.
True
False
1 points
Question 37
The PMHNP is meeting with a 42-year-old man with depression brought on by the recent passing of his wife. As he describes the circumstances surrounding his late wife’s death, the PMHNP begins to feel sad. The sadness lingers for several hours, and the PMHNP finds it difficult to focus on other patients for the rest of the day. What is the most appropriate explanation for the reaction that the PMHNP is experiencing?

A.
Autognosis

B.
Complementary identification

C.
Concordant identification

D.
Self-disclosure
1 points
Question 38
The PMHNP employs psychodynamic psychotherapy with a patient who experiences anxiety and depression. As the process enters the psychoanalytic end of the psychodynamic continuum, the PMNHP will focus on:

A.
Interpreting unconscious conflict in the patient

B.
Restoring the patient’s functioning and stabilization

C.
Reducing the patient’s anxiety

D.
Strengthening the patient’s defenses
1 points
Question 39
The PMHNP is working with a patient who experiences anxiety around her parents that later leads to poor impulse control. What will the PMHNP do to employ psychodynamic psychotherapy properly for this patient?

A.
Emphasize the past

B.
Focus on expressions of emotion

C.
Identify patterns in relationships

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 40
A new patient has been informed of the limits of confidentiality, and has signed informed consent forms. No consent, however, has been obtained for voluntary “Release of Information.” The patient is 20 years old and still lives at home with his parents. He is being treated for depression, which he attributes to the trouble he’s had finding employment.
True or false: If the patient’s mother calls the PMHNP to check up on her son to see how he is doing, the therapist is required to protect patient confidentiality and not disclose information.
True
False
1 points
Question 41
A PMHNP is treating a 45-year-old female patient who is upset that her brother has not been calling since his divorce. When asked to describe her brother and what prompts him not to call as frequently, she says, “Everything is about him, not me. I think he’s jealous that I have a good marriage and he wants me to be unhappy, too. So he doesn’t call to upset me and ruin my relationships.” Based on this information, the PMHNP can conclude that the patient _________.

A.
may lack ability to see independent motivations

B.
has an insistent emphasis on the feelings of others

C.
has an intrusive interpersonal relationship

D.
all of the above
1 points
Question 42
The PMHNP is assessing a patient who grew up in a foster home because she was neglected and abused by her birth parents at a young age. The patient admits to having difficulty forming and maintaining relationships throughout her life. Understanding maladaptive schemas, which statement does the PMHNP predict that the patient is likely to make?

A.
“I deserve the utmost respect from everyone who meets me.”

B.
“I prefer doing everything on my own.”

C.
“It takes me a while to warm up to people; people often wear masks.”

D.
“I can’t seem to do anything on my own.”

1 points
Question 43
A patient who has borderline personality disorder is meeting with the PMHNP. When asked about future goals, the patient responds, “I’d like to go back to school to do what you
do. You know, talk to people all day about their problems. It seems pretty easy.” How does the PHMNP respond to the client in a way that is free from any stigmatizing beliefs or judgments?

A.
“It is dangerous to fantasize about the future.”

B.
“I think that’s an excellent idea! I can help you review the prerequisites!”

C.
“You may want to explore the requirements for becoming a PMNHP.”

D.
None of the above.
1 points
Question 44
True or false: A PMHNP may ask his patient to describe her relationship with her father, both as a child and now, in order to assess interpersonal style.
True
False
1 points
Question 45
A 41-year-old male patient is meeting with the PMHNP and reveals that he is homosexual. He begins telling the PMHNP about his feelings as a homosexual, middle-aged man. The PMHNP nods understandingly. Before long, the patient asks, “Are you gay? Are you married? Do you have kids?” What is the best response by the PMHNP?

A.
Answer the patient’s questions honestly to establish trust

B.
Mention that the patient seems quite curious, and ask him to discuss more about himself

C.
Ignore the patient’s questions and move on to another topic

D.
None of the above
1 points
Question 46
The PMHNP is working with a veteran who has posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). The PMHNP believes that dual awareness will be beneficial in allowing the patient to focus on the here and now. What strategies can the PMHNP use to develop dual awareness in the patient?

A.
Asking the patient to recall a recent and mildly disturbing event

B.
Having the patient focus on details of the room, such as how hot or cold it is

C.
Telling the patient to rate the level of disturbance he feels from a mildly disturbing event

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 47
The PMHNP has been assisting a shy and timid 23-year-old male patient struggling with esteem and self-concept issues. Over the weekend, this patient was given the task of completing an exercise that would usually cause him distress and shame, also called a shame-attacking exercise. The PMHNP determines that this task has successfully been achieved when the patient states:

A.
“I was able to eat in public yesterday despite how loudly I chew.”

B.
“I confessed all of my infidelities to my ex-spouse yesterday.”

C.
“I calmly sat through a conversation with my spouse in which she confessed all of her infidelities to me.”

D.
“I journaled the shame and guilt that I’ve been feeling from my past that has been holding me back.”

1 points
Question 48
A 35-year-old patient seeks treatment for depression and anxiety after an abusive relationship. To help empower the patient, the PMHNP wants to teach the safe-place exercise to create a feeling of calm. In order to walk the patient through the exercise, the PMHNP first says:

A.
“Identify an image of a safe place that makes you feel calm.”

B.
“Think about the things that cause you anxiety and let them go.”

C.
“Take a deep breath and start to relax with each new breath.”

D.
“Picture a beautiful beach and describe to me what you see.”
1 points
Question 49
When conducting an initial assessment, a PMHNP has finished conducting a mental status examination with 10 minutes left in the session. The patient is distressed and would like to continue sharing her personal history.
True or false: An appropriate response that the PMHNP might tell the patient is, “I understand that you are upset. [Summarizes diagnosis, treatment recommendations, and follow-up plan.] We can continue the conversation next week. How does this time next Monday work for you?”
True
False
1 points
Question 50
A PMHNP’s patients have already signed confidentiality agreements, including limits that will be imposed on confidentiality. Months later, the state’s laws have changed that affect confidentiality promises the PMHNP has already made. What is an appropriate step for the PMHNP to take after finding out this information?

A.
Revise intake forms to align with state laws

B.
Review confidentiality revisions with patients

C.
Have patients give informed consent again

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 51
A 65-year-old patient has suffered the loss of his wife. He is in a state of hyperarousal with increased sympathetic nervous system arousal. One or more interventions may help the patient to deal with this arousal. To decrease sympathetic nervous system arousal, the PMHNP’s treatment strategy is ___________.

A.
mindfulness techniques

B.
deep breathing exercises

C.
self-regulation strategies

D.
all of the above
1 points
Question 52
A PMHNP is treating a 50-year-old patient who suffers from depression. When he was growing up, he was often responsible for taking care of his three younger siblings. Since then, the patient puts other people’s needs before his own. Based on this information, the PMHNP would conclude that his interpersonal style is __________.

A.
overly nurturing

B.
nonassertive

C.
exploitable

D.
vindictive
1 points
Question 53
The PMHNP meets with an adolescent patient who has depression and often presents with resistance when discussing his parent’s divorce. For the past couple of sessions, the patient has been quiet, sometimes refusing to speak. To further support the therapeutic relationship, the PMNHP:

A.
Observes and points out the behavior

B.
Stays quiet until the patient is ready to speak

C.
Brings in a colleague to help get the patient to talk

D.
None of the above
1 point
Question 54
The PMHNP has a session with a patient who was injured and traumatized from an explosion at the industrial plant where he used to work. During the session, an outside noise startles the patient and he experiences a flashback of the loud boom from the explosion. The PMHNP witnesses the patient present with anxiety and belabored breathing. What is the appropriate action of the PMHNP?

A.
Telling the patient there is no reason to be startled

B.
Avoiding interrupting the flashback as it occurs

C.
Asking the patient to describe the flashbacks

D.
Have the patient use the relaxation response (take a deep breath, exhale long, and slow down)
1 points
Question 55
In your office, you see a 58-year-old patient with PTSD who reports having nightmares, making it impossible for her to sleep. What recommendations based on principles of sleep hygiene will the PMHNP make?

A.
Eat a heavy meal before bedtime to induce sleepiness

B.
Maintain a warm bedroom temperature

C.
Avoid watching television or reading in bed

D.
Try going to sleep at different times throughout the week to avoid monotony
1 points
Question 57
The PMHNP is working with a patient who is living in poverty and abusing substances. According to the treatment hierarchy framework, what needs does the PMHNP need to attend to first?

A.
Provide safety through case management strategies

B.
Help the patient manage positive and negative emotions

C.
Explore the meaning of significant adverse life experiences

D.
Process all dimensions of memory associated with the trauma
1 points
Question 58
Your patient is a 65-year-old male who has a strained relationship with his son and daughter. His children refuse to participate in a family session. The PMHNP asks the patient to draw his family genogram as a next step to _______________.

A.
assess the patient’s mental health status and functioning

B.
explore the interpersonal styles of each family member

C.
provide background information for the patient’s family structure

D.
measure the patient’s quality of well-being and productivity
1 points
Question 59
During cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), a 64-year-old male patient, states, “My wife hates me! She’s just waiting for me to die.” Using Socratic dialogue (SD) the PMHNP demonstrates understanding of analysis when she responds:

A.
“Now, I’m sure your wife doesn’t hate you.”

B.
“Where is the evidence that your wife hates you?”

C.
“You seem convinced that your wife hates you.”

D.
“What has your wife done to make you believe this?”

1 points
Question 60
The PMHNP is working with a patient who has insomnia and battles going to sleep. The patient reports consistent self-defeating behaviors, and hates trying to go to sleep. Which action made by the PMHNP demonstrates the use of a paradoxical intervention?

A.
Telling the patient to start trying to go to sleep earlier, since it takes long to fall asleep

B.
Telling the patient to resist sleep and stay awake

C.
Having the patient perform a relaxing ritual before bedtime

D.
Instructing the patient to avoid stimulants and sugars for 3 hours before falling asleep
1 points
Question 61
The PMHNP is working with a patient who seems dissatisfied with the therapeutic relationship. The PMHNP invites the patient to discuss her feelings regarding the PMHNP openly and honestly. It becomes clear to the PMHNP that they are experiencing an alliance rupture. How does the PMHNP repair the therapeutic alliance?

A.
Responding to the patient in a nondefensive manner and accepting responsibility for the PMHNP’s part in the tension

B.
Emphasizing with the patient’s experiences and validating the patient for bringing it up

C.
Considering changing the goals of the patient’s treatment

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 62
The patient attempts the PMHNP’s sleep hygiene recommendations for 2 weeks, but does not make any progress mitigating nightmares and hyperarousal. Which behavioral strategy does the PMHNP suggest next?

A.
Progressive muscle relaxation exercises

B.
Paradoxical interventions

C.
Biofeedback

D.
All of the above
1 points
Question 63
A PMHNP is taking a history and wants to assess how the patient copes with adversity. To do so, the therapist asks questions about the patient’s belief system. What would be an appropriate question to ask?

A.
“What are your beliefs about therapy and seeking help?”

B.
“To what extent do your religious beliefs give you comfort?”

C.
“What gives you a sense of meaning and purpose in life?”

D.
All of the above.
1 points
Question 64
An 11-year-old patient has been exhibiting low self-esteem at school and acting out. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which of the following questions would best be addressed first by the PMHNP?

A.
“Are Joel’s peers including him at recess?”

B.
“Does Joel feel safe and secure at school?”

C.
“Is Joel getting enough sleep at home?”

D.
“How can Joel feel that he is loved?”
1 points
Question 65
The PMHNP is treating a 35-year-old male officer in the military. He discloses that both of his parents are deceased and that he loved them. However, he says that he had feelings of inadequacy because his parents held him to a standard that he could never achieve. He went on to say that nothing he did ever felt good enough. The PMHNP assesses that this patient has perfect creases in his uniform with no strings or tags out of place; she also notices that he has perfect posture and questions him about ritualistic behaviors. She suspects that this patient has maladaptive responses to the expectations placed on him as a teenager and young adult. Which statements made by the patient would verify the PMHNP’s suspicion?

A.
“I typically don’t listen to anyone. I take care of my own wants and needs so I feel like no one can judge me or criticize me, period.”

B.
“I don’t mean to hurt other people’s feelings. When people cry or say that I have made them upset in some way, that’s not my fault; some people are just sensitive.”

C.
“I like to listen to the beat of my own drum; I don’t mind spending most of my days alone. I don’t  need recognition or praise; I would just like to be left alone.”

D.
“I believe in systems; I have to have order and rules in my everyday life. If a task must be completed, I will often complete it myself versus depending on someone else.”

1 points
Question 66
The PMHNP is caring for a patient who seems to seek affection and attention from the PMHNP and others in the clinic, as well as displays heightened emotional responses to feelings of being excluded. What therapeutic approach does the PMHNP use to decrease autonomic arousal in the patient?

A.
Group therapy

B.
Controlled confrontation

C.
A safe-place exercise

D.
Body and energy work
1 points
Question 67
The PMHNP is caring for a patient with dissociated self-state that the PMHNP identifies as being associated with traumatic experiences in the patient’s past. What approach does the PMHNP use with the patient that is crucial to the psychodynamic therapy process?

A.
Assisting the patient to experience and accept the various dimensions of the self through enhanced awareness of the traumatic states

B.
Becoming a co-participant in the co-construction of the relationship with the patient, rather than an outside observer

C.
Making associations between an event or situation and the patient’s feelings

D.
Providing empathy, understanding, and soothing to help the patient identify the other self-states
1 points

Question 14: Health Care

Once you have submitted your second submission to the grade book dropbox, it will be considered final and subject for grading.
Purpose
The purpose of this assignment is to provide the student an opportunity to explore the role of the advanced practice nurse (APN) and develop an APN professional development plan.
Course Outcomes
Through this assignment, the student will demonstrate the ability to:
CO1: Analyze the historic development of advanced practice roles including the impact of advanced practice nursing on  healthcare delivery from the perspective of selected current reports (i.e., LACE, IOM, etc.) (PO 3)
CO3: Explore how leadership styles influence healthcare delivery and organizations.  (PO 4)
CO5: Reflect on personal and professional growth toward achieving competence as a family nurse practitioner. (PO 3)
Due Date: Sunday 11:59 p.m. MST at the end of Week 6
Total Points Possible: 225
Requirements:
1.    To complete this application, you will need to access to the following databases: CINAHL, MEDLINE, Cochrane Library, and the Joanna Briggs Institute. You may access these databases through the Chamberlain College of Nursing Online Library.
2.    The APN Professional Development Plan paper is worth 225 points and will be graded on quality of information, use of citations, use of Standard English grammar, sentence structure, and overall organization based on the required components as summarized in the directions and grading criteria/rubric.
3.    Create your manuscript using Microsoft Word, which is the required format for all Chamberlain College of Nursing documents.
4.    Follow the directions and grading criteria closely. Any questions about this paper may be posted under the Q & A Forum or emailed to your faculty.
5.    The length of the paper is to be no less than 6 and no greater than 8 pages excluding title page and reference pages. In some cases, students may need to exceed this page number.
6.    APA (2010) format is required with both a title page and reference page. Use the required components of the review as Level 1 headers (upper and lower case, centered):
1.    Introduction to the APN professional development plan- Discuss the goals and purpose of an APN professional development plan
2.    APN Scope of Practice – This pertains to NP practice in your state.
3.    Personal Assessment using Benner’s Self-Assessment Tool
4.    Networking and Marketing Strategies
5.    Conclusion
6.    CV / resume
7.    References
Preparing the paper
The following are best practices for preparing this paper:
1.    Review Chapter 30- Role Transition: Strategies for Success in the Marketplace in DeNisco and Barker (2015).
2.    Nurse practitioners need to take into account the state rules and regulations that guide advanced practice. Research and review the Nurse Practice Act and APN scope of practice guidelines in your particular state. Identify information regarding educational requirements, licensure and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details. Review information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority (This is similar to what you created in your week 1 Kaltura presentation). .
3.    Review Guidelines for APN Role Transition Using Benner’s Self-Assessment Tool (Links to an external site.). Identify and discuss your position on Benner’s Novice to Expert ladder. Prior to engaging in pursuit for employment, APNs should complete a comprehensive, honest, personal assessment to identify their strengths and weaknesses as well as their goals and objectives. Research assessment tools, conduct a personal assessment and reflect upon your strengths, weaknesses, goals, and objectives.
4.    To complete the transition from students to expert nurse practitioners working in the healthcare field, graduating APN students will need to secure their first position. Research local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identify networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for your selections. Be specific.
5.    Write your Curriculum Vitae (CV) or current resume. Refer to the template on pages 772-773 in DeNisco and Barker (2015). Your CV / resume should not exceed 2 pages in length but will, vary for each student. If you have not done some of the components of the CV/resume, i.e. research, publications, presentations, then do not include them.
6.    When concluding the paper, summarize important aspects of the APN professional development plan.
This assignment will follow the late assignment policy specified in the course syllabus.
Rubric
NR510 APN Professional Development Plan Grading Rubric
NR510 APN Professional Development Plan Grading Rubric
Criteria
Ratings
Pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeIntroduction to the APN professional development plan
20.0 pts
Exceptional- Excellent introduction of APN professional development plan. Rationale is well presented and purpose fully developed.
18.0 pts
Exceeds- Good introduction of APN professional development plan. Rationale is presented and purpose provided.
16.0 pts
Meets- Basic information and/or limited elements addressed regarding APN professional development plan and/or inappropriate emphasis on an area.
8.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Little or very general introduction of APN professional development plan. Little to no original explanation; inappropriate emphasis on an area.
0.0 pts
Developing- No introduction of APN professional development plan provided.
20.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeAPN Scope of Practice
35.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details per the student’s state. Included information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
31.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided some information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details per the student’s state. Included information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
28.0 pts
Meets- Provided non-state specific information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details. Included information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
13.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Lacking detailed information regarding education, licensure, regulatory requirements, or practice environment. Missing information regarding practice limitations and/or prescriptive authority.
0.0 pts
Developing- Did not provide information regarding education, licensure, and regulatory requirements, as well as practice environment details per the student’s state. Not provide information regarding full, limited, or restricted practice limitations as well as prescriptive authority.
35.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomePersonal Assessment
30.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information following a personal assessment and reflected upon strengths, weaknesses, goals, and objectives.
26.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided some detailed information following a personal assessment and reflected upon some of the strengths, weaknesses, goals, and objectives.
24.0 pts
Meets- Provided some detailed information following a personal assessment. Missed providing reflection upon strengths, weaknesses, goals, or objectives.
11.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Provided information following a personal assessment, but did not reflect upon strengths, weaknesses, goals, or objectives.
0.0 pts
Developing- Did not provide a personal assessment and did not reflect upon personal strengths, weaknesses, goals, or objectives.
30.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeNetworking and Marketing Strategies
30.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identified networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for their selections.
26.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided some detailed information regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identified networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for their selections.
24.0 pts
Meets- Provided information but lacked specific details regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Identified networking and marketing strategies and provide a rationale for their selections.
11.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Provided information regarding professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities, but missed providing information regarding networking and marketing strategies and/or a rationale for their selections.
0.0 pts
Developing- Did not provide detailed information regarding local and national professional organizations that advertise employment opportunities for APNs. Did not identify networking and marketing strategies or provide a rationale.
30.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeCurriculum Vitae
40.0 pts
Exceptional- Provided detailed information which included demographics, education, professional employment, licensure and certification, professional honors, research, scholarship, and service. Free from typographical errors.
35.0 pts
Exceeds- Provided detailed information. Missing 1-2 key elements. Free from typographical errors.
32.0 pts
Meets- Provided moderately detailed information. Missing 3 key elements. Free from typographical errors.
15.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Provided minimal detail. Missing 4 or more key elements. Contains 1-2 typographical errors.
0.0 pts
Developing- Information provided was inaccurate and vague. Contains 3 or more typographical errors. Did not provide curriculum vitae.
40.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeConclusion
25.0 pts
Exceptional- Excellent summary of APN professional development plan. Conclusions are well evidenced and fully developed.
22.0 pts
Exceeds- Good summary of APN professional development plan. Conclusions are supported by evidence and developed.
20.0 pts
Meets- Basic and/or limited summary regarding APN professional development plan.
10.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Little or no summary of APN professional development plan; inappropriate emphasis on an area.
0.0 pts
Developing- No summary of APN professional development plan and/or conclusions were provided.
25.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeClarity of Writing
25.0 pts
Exceptional- Excellent use of standard English showing original thought. No spelling or grammar errors. Well organized with proper flow of meaning.
22.0 pts
Exceeds- Good use of standard English showing original thought. No more than two spelling or grammar errors. Well organized with proper flow of meaning.
20.0 pts
Meets- Some evidence of own expression and competent use of language. No more than three spelling or grammar errors. Well organized thoughts and concepts.
10.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Language needs development. Four or more spelling and/or grammar errors. Poorly organized thoughts and concepts.
0.0 pts
Developing- More than six spelling and/or grammar errors. Poorly organized thoughts and concepts.
25.0 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning OutcomeAPA Format
20.0 pts
Exceptional- APA format, grammar, spelling, and/or punctuation are accurate, or with zero to one errors.
18.0 pts
Exceeds- Two to four errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and syntax noted.
16.0 pts
Meets- Five to seven errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and syntax noted.
8.0 pts
Needs Improvement- Eight to nine errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and syntax noted.
0.0 pts
Developing- Post contains greater than ten errors in APA format, grammar, spelling, and/or punctuation or repeatedly makes the same errors after faculty feedback.
20.0 pts
Total Points: 225.0
Question 15: Health Care

Jarvis: Physical Examination & Health Assessment, 6th Edition

Chapter 01: Evidence-Based Assessment

Test Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1.         After completing an initial assessment on a patient, the nurse has charted that his respirations are eupneic and his pulse is 58. This type of data would be:
A)
objective.
B)
reflective.
C)
subjective.
D)
introspective.

2.         A patient tells the nurse that he is very nervous, that he is nauseated, and that he “feels hot.” This type of data would be:
A)
objective.
B)
reflective.
C)
subjective.
D)
introspective.

3.         The patient’s record, laboratory studies, objective data, and subjective data combine to form the:
A)
data base.
B)
admitting data.
C)
financial statement.
D)
discharge summary.

4.         When listening to a patient’s breath sounds, the nurse is unsure about a sound that is heard. The nurse’s next action should be to:
A)
notify the patient’s physician immediately.
B)
document the sound exactly as it was heard.
C)
validate the data by asking a coworker to listen to the breath sounds.
D)
assess again in 20 minutes to note whether the sound is still present.

5.         The nurse is conducting a class for new graduate nurses. During the teaching session, the nurse should keep in mind that novice nurses, without a background of skills and experience to draw from, are more likely to make their decisions using:
A)
intuition.
B)
a set of rules.
C)
articles in journals.
D)
advice from supervisors.

6.         Expert nurses learn to attend to a pattern of assessment data and to act without consciously labeling it. This is referred to as:
A)
intuition.
B)
the nursing process.
C)
clinical knowledge.
D)
diagnostic reasoning.

7.         The nurse is reviewing information about evidence-based practice (EBP). Which statement best reflects evidence-based practice?
A)
EBP relies on tradition for support of best practices.
B)
EBP is simply the use of best practice techniques for treatment of patients.
C)
EBP emphasizes the use of best evidence with the clinician’s experience.
D)
The patient’s own preferences are not important with EBP.

8.         The nurse is conducting a class on priority setting for a group of new graduate nurses. Which is an example of a first-level priority problem?
A)
A patient with postoperative pain
B)
A newly diagnosed diabetic who needs diabetic teaching
C)
An individual with a small laceration on the sole of the foot
D)
An individual with shortness of breath and respiratory distress

9.         When considering priority setting of problems, the nurse keeps in mind that second-level priority problems include which of these aspects?
A)
Low self-esteem
B)
Lack of knowledge
C)
Abnormal laboratory values
D)
Severely abnormal vital signs

10.       Which critical thinking skill helps the nurse to see relationships among the data?
A)
Validation
B)
Clustering related cues
C)
Identifying gaps in data
D)
Distinguishing relevant from irrelevant

11.
The nurse knows that developing appropriate nursing interventions for a patient relies on the appropriateness of the _____ diagnosis.
A)
nursing
B)
medical
C)
admission
D)
collaborative

12.       The nursing process is a sequential method of problem solving that nurses use, and includes which steps?
A)
Assessment, treatment, planning, evaluation, discharge, follow-up
B)
Admission, assessment, diagnosis, treatment, discharge planning
C)
Admission, diagnosis, treatment, evaluation, discharge planning
D)
Assessment, diagnosis, outcome identification, planning, implementation,
evaluation

13.       A newly admitted patient is in acute pain, has not been sleeping well lately, and is having difficulty breathing. How should the nurse prioritize these problems?
A)
Breathing, pain, sleep
B)
Breathing, sleep, pain
C)
Sleep, breathing, pain
D)
Sleep, pain, breathing

14.       Which of these would be formulated by a nurse using diagnostic reasoning?
A)
Nursing diagnosis
B)
Medical diagnosis
C)
Diagnostic hypothesis
D)
Diagnostic assessment

15.       Barriers to incorporating evidence-based practice (EBP) include:
A)
nurses’ lack of research skills in evaluating quality of research studies.
B)
lack of significant research studies.
C)
insufficient clinical skills of nurses.
D)
inadequate physical assessment skills.

16.       What is the step of the nursing process that includes data collection by health history, physical examination, and interview?
A)
Planning
B)
Diagnosis
C)
Evaluation
D)
Assessment

17.       During a staff meeting, nurses discuss the problems with accessing research studies in order to incorporate evidence-based clinical decision making into their practice. Which suggestion by the nurse manager would best help this problem?
A)
Form a committee to conduct research studies.
B)
Post published research studies on the unit’s bulletin boards.
C)
Encourage the nurses to visit the library to review studies.
D)
Teach the nurses how to conduct electronic searches for research studies.

18.       When reviewing concepts of health, the nurse recalls that components of holistic health include which of these?
A)
Disease originates from the external environment.
B)
The individual human is a closed system.
C)
Nurses are responsible for a patient’s health state.
D)
Holistic health views the mind, body, and spirit as interdependent.

19.       The nurse recognizes that the concept of prevention in describing health is essential because:
A)
disease can be prevented by treating the external environment.
B)
the majority of deaths among Americans under age 65 years are not preventable.
C)
prevention places emphasis on the link between health and personal behavior.
D)
the means to prevention is through treatment provided by primary health care practitioners.

20.       The nurse is reviewing the components of the nursing process. Which statement about nursing diagnoses is true?
A)
They evaluate the etiology of disease.
B)
They are a process based on the medical diagnosis.
C)
They are clinical judgments about a person’s response to an actual or potential health state.
D)
They focus on the function and malfunction of a specific organ system in response to disease.

21.       The nurse is performing a physical assessment on a newly admitted patient. An example of objective information obtained during the physical assessment includes the:
A)
patient’s history of allergies.
B)
patient’s use of medications at home.
C)
last menstrual period 1 month ago.
D)
2 ´ 5 cm scar present on the right lower forearm.

22.       A visiting nurse is making an initial home visit for a patient who has many chronic medical problems. Which type of data base is most appropriate to collect in this setting?
A)
A follow-up data base to evaluate changes at appropriate intervals
B)
An episodic data base because of the continuing, complex medical problems of this patient
C)
A complete health data base because of the nurse’s primary responsibility for monitoring the patient’s health
D)
An emergency data base because of the need to rapidly collect information and make accurate diagnoses

23.       Which situation is most appropriate for the nurse to perform a focused or problem-centered history?
A)
A patient’s admission to a long-term care facility
B)
A patient has sudden, severe shortness of breath
C)
A patient’s admission to the hospital for surgery the following day
D)
A patient in an outpatient clinic has cold and flu-like symptoms

24.       A patient is at the clinic to have her blood pressure checked. She has been coming to the clinic weekly since she changed medications 2 months ago. The nurse should:
A)
collect a follow-up data base and then check her blood pressure.
B)
ask her to read her health record and indicate any changes since her last visit.
C)
check only her blood pressure because her complete health history was documented 2 months ago.
D)
obtain a complete health history before checking her blood pressure because much of her history information may have changed.

25.       A patient is brought by ambulance to the emergency department with multiple traumas received in an automobile accident. He is alert and cooperative, but his injuries are quite severe. How would the nurse proceed with the data collection?
A)
Collect history information first, then perform the physical examination and institute life-saving measures.
B)
Simultaneously ask history questions while performing the examination and initiating life-saving measures.
C)
Collect all information on the history form, including social support patterns, strengths, and coping patterns.
D)
Perform life-saving measures and not ask any history questions until he is transferred to the intensive care unit.

26.       A 42-year-old Asian patient is being seen at the clinic for an initial examination. The nurse knows that it is important to include cultural information in his health assessment to:
A)
identify the cause of his illness.
B)
make accurate disease diagnoses.
C)
provide cultural health rights for the individual.
D)
provide culturally sensitive and appropriate care.

27.       In the health promotion model, the focus of the health professional includes:
A)
changing the patient’s perceptions of disease.
B)
identifying biomedical model interventions.
C)
identifying negative health acts of the consumer.
D)
helping the consumer choose a healthier lifestyle.

28.       The nurse is classifying nursing diagnoses. Which of these would be considered a risk diagnosis?
A)
Identifying existing levels of wellness
B)
Evaluating previous problems and goals
C)
Identifying potential problems the individual may develop
D)
Focusing on strengths and reflecting an individual’s transition to higher levels of wellness

29.       The nurse has implemented several planned interventions to address the nursing diagnosis of acute pain. Which would be the next appropriate action?
A)
Establish priorities.
B)
Identify expected outcomes.
C)
Evaluate the individual’s condition and compare actual outcomes with expected outcomes.
D)
Interpret data and then identify clusters of cues and make inferences.

30.       Which statement best describes a proficient nurse? A proficient nurse is one who:
A)
has little experience with a specified population and uses rules to guide performance.
B)
has an intuitive grasp of a clinical situation and quickly identifies the accurate solution.
C)
sees actions in the context of daily plans for patients.
D)
understands a patient situation as a whole rather than a list of tasks and sees long-term goals for the patient.

MATCHING

Put the following patient situations in order according to level of priority.
A)
A patient newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus does not know how to check his own blood glucose levels with a glucometer.
B)
A teenager who was stung by a bee during a soccer match is having trouble breathing.
C)
An older adult with a urinary tract infection is also showing signs of confusion and agitation.

1.         A = first-level priority problem

2.         B = second-level priority problem

3.         C = third-level priority problem

MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT:  First-level priority problems are immediate priorities, such as trouble breathing (remember the “airway, breathing, circulation” priorities). Second-level priority problems are next in urgency, but not life-threatening. Third-level priorities are important to a patient’s health but can be addressed after more urgent health problems are addressed (i.e., patient education). See Table 1-1.

MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT:  First-level priority problems are immediate priorities, such as trouble breathing (remember the “airway, breathing, circulation” priorities). Second-level priority problems are next in urgency, but not life-threatening. Third-level priorities are important to a patient’s health but can be addressed after more urgent health problems are addressed (i.e., patient education). See Table 1-1.

MSC:  Client Needs: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care
NOT:  First-level priority problems are immediate priorities, such as trouble breathing (remember the “airway, breathing, circulation” priorities). Second-level priority problems are next in urgency, but not life-threatening. Third-level priorities are important to a patient’s health but can be addressed after more urgent health problems are addressed (i.e., patient education). See Table 1-1.

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

1.         The nurse is reviewing data collected after an assessment. Of the data listed below, which would be considered related cues that would be clustered together during data analysis? Select all that apply.
A)
Inspiratory wheezes noted in left lower lobes
B)
Hypoactive bowel sounds
C)
Non productive cough
D)
Edema, +2, noted on left hand
E)
Patient reports dyspnea upon exertion
F)
Rate of respirations 16 breaths per minute

Question 16: Health Care

Liberty University HIEU 201 Lecture 1 Test
Liberty University HIEU 201 Lecture 1 Test

Question 17: Health Care

NURS 6551 Final Exam Latest Version Walden University
NURS 6551 Final Exam Latest Version Walden University

Question 18: Health Care

NURS 6551 Midterm Exam Latest Version Walden University
NURS 6551 Midterm Exam Latest Version Walden University

Question 19: Mathematics

six times a certain number plus the number is equal to 56

Question 20: Other

Use scholarly sources you need and refer to specific information from those sources. To demonstrate your use of these works, please cite them. Quotes should be used very sparingly. The answers should be paraphrased and should demonstrate your understanding of the material and concepts.
Each answer needs to be 300 words
What is the threat of transnational gangs to local communities? How should immigration laws be changed to be able to appropriately deal with members of transnational gangs once they are identified?
What relationship do you see between social, political, and economic conditions of an ethnic group to the success or decline of a gang from that ethnic group?
How do the responses of correctional staff to the gangs contrast or compare to those of law enforcement? Provide at least two resources supporting your answer.
Compare and contrast gangs from two ethnic groups in terms of membership, criminal activity, violence, and relationship to their own community.
Consider the trend of more females becoming involved in gang activity. How does this trend change the way law enforcement devises programs to suppress, intervene, and combat gangs?

Question 21: Business

For your research paper, be sure to include:
1.     Title page (not included in the 5-page limit)
2.     Introduction: a brief overview of topic selected, including why this topic is of importance to organizations (you may reuse the rationale in paper M3A1), but you need to edit the language to fit the introduction of your essay. Include a thesis statement/purpose for the paper.
3.     Body of research paper: Develop the outline that you designed in M5A1. Make sure to use in-text citations in APA style.
4.     Conclusion: Write a brief summary of your findings and a call to action. A call to action for at least one action or step you want the President to take after reading your research paper (you may use the items identify in the application for professional practice).
5.     References: Insert a page with the references used for your paper, in APA style.

Motivating Employees

Name of student:

Student ID:

Introduction
For an organization, it is very important to make sure that the employees are motivated. This helps the organizations in many ways that lead to increase in their productivity and performance in the market. However, motivating employees is not an easy task. There are many challenges that the managers face due to the individual nature of each of the employees. In the present day business context, managers have to identify the individual factors that motivate each of the employees and use that knowledge for helping them increase their productivity in the company (Manzoor, 2012).
Thesis Statement
The paper aims to define the major factors that contribute to employee motivation and how can employee motivation be promoted in an organization along with its major benefits.
Issues addressed in the Paper
The paper aims to understand the area of employee motivation to understand its contribution for the company. In order to understand that, the following areas will be addressed in the paper:
What is the effect of employee motivation on the organization: For an organization, it is important to make sure that their employees are motivated. It is because when employees are motivated, it is possible for them to improve their performance at work (Ali & Ahmed, 2009).
What are the advantages of employee motivation for the organization: There are a number of other advantages of motivating the employees. Besides improving their individual performance, when employees are motivated properly, they engage better with their peers, making way for mutual dependence and healthy competition. This helps in the improvement of the organizational culture and ultimately contributes to improving the productivity of the company (Dar et al., 2014).
What are the factors that contribute to employee motivation: The biggest challenge for the employers is to understand the factors that motivate their employees. While some employees are motivated in a positive manner through appreciation and reward, some need to be motivated through negative factors like the fear of punishment and elimination (Tohidi, 2011).
What are the benefits of having motivated employees for the organization: Understanding the various factors that can motivate the employees can help employers in making sure that the goals of the organization are achieved while also promoting personal and professional growth of the employees (Manzoor, 2012).
Application to Professional Practice
The area of employee motivation is as challenging as it is important for an organization. When the employees in a company are motivated, this is beneficial for the entire organization. This is the reason why the research in employee motivation holds so much importance for an organization. It has been observed over time that as the needs of an organization change, the employees are likely to feel less motivated with time, this shows that the motivation is not only a mental boost for the employees but the ways in which employees are motivated also helps them to understand the needs of the organization that they are working for. It allows them to develop startegic methods that can help them in improving their performance in the organization (Ali & Ahmed, 2009).
Due to its many benefits, employee motivation is as essential for the company and the president as it is for the employees. For a president, it is easier to explain the needs of the organizations to motivated employees. Besides, they can also expect their employees to contribute positively to the purpose of the organization if they are motivated. Without motivation, the employee will not be able to take up his part of the job in the company in a proper manner. The result of this is that it will affect the performance of the company along with the results that they expect. This will increase the problems of the president in the direction of achieving the goals of the company (Dar et al., 2014).
The president of a company can uses the information from the paper to motivate employees in three ways:
By rewarding them for their good performance with bonus or increments.
By encouraging them in case of poor performance.
By promoting them for good performance in the long run by giving incentives and other benefits.
For presidents, motivating the employees has three major benefits:
It improves the performance of the employee.
It helps in reducing employee turnover.
It helps in boosting the performance of the company.
References
Ali, R., & Ahmed, M. S. (2009). The impact of reward and recognition programs on employee’s motivation and satisfaction: an empirical study. International review of business research papers, 5(4), 270-279.
Dar, A. T., Bashir, M., Ghazanfar, F., & Abrar, M. (2014). Mediating role of employee motivation in relationship to post-selection HRM practices and organizational performance. International Review of Management and Marketing, 4(3), 224-238.
Manzoor, Q. A. (2012). Impact of employees motivation on organizational effectiveness. Business management and strategy, 3(1), 1-12.
Tohidi, H. (2011). Teamwork productivity & effectiveness in an organization base on rewards, leadership, training, goals, wage, size, motivation, measurement and information technology. Procedia Computer Science, 3, 1137-1146.

Question 22: Engineering

An inverter is connected to the utility network by a transformer. The connection
transformer can be modelled by a per-phase series inductance of 0.8 mH and
resistance of 0.4 Ω.
i. Derive the control transfer function for the d and q axis loops, showing your
fully working.
ii. If a q-loop control with gains of 𝑘𝑘𝑝𝑝 = 14 and 𝑘𝑘𝑖𝑖 = 900 are used. What is the
control loop bandwidth and damping for this loop?

Question 23: Engineering

What are the types of soil dams?

Question 24: Computer Science

Instruction
I’m looking for someone to help me write 25 to 30 pages for my thesis in computer science I uploaded a Doc with the sections that you have to write about it so you have clue about how I want my thesis will be

Assessing the Security Health of Public WiFi Environments Using Mobile Devices
I. Abstract
IV. Contents
V. List of Figures
VI. List of Tables 1. Introduction
1.1 Overview
1.2 Introduction 1.3 Mobile Threats
1.3.1 Classification of mobile threat
1.3.2 Most Targeted Mobile Platform in 2014 1.4 Honeypot Approach
1.4.1 Advantages & Benefits of Honeypot
1.4.2 Honeypot types based on interaction levels 1.4.3 Honeypot classifications
1.4.4 Honeypot requirements
1.5 Problem statement
1.6 Research Challenges
1.7 Objectives and desirable outcomes 1.8 Project Outline
2. Literature Review
2.1 Introduction
2.2 New Types of Honeypots
2.3 Honeypot Data Consumption 2.4 Configurations of Honeypots 2.5 Smartphone Honeypots
3. Design and Implementation
3.1 Introduction (Linux-based application ” HosTaGe”) 3.2 Implementation (HosTaGe Honeypot works)
3.2.1 Implementation Steps
3.2.1.1 Remote Procedure Call Attack (RPC)
3.2.1.1.1 Remote Procedure Call Attack Result 3.2.1.2 Scanning Attack using nmap
3.2.1.2.1 Scanning Attack Result 3.2.1.3 Metasploit Attack
3.2.1.3.1 Metasploit Attack Result 3.2.1.4 Nessuss Attack
3.2.1.4.1 Nessus Attack Result 3.3 Performing Attacks in Khalifa campus wireless
4. Data Collection
4.1 Introduction
4.2 Transferring Data from HosTaGe Database 5. Analysis
5.1 Introduction
5.2 Data Analytic and Intelligence
5.2.1 Add Data to Splunk 5.2.2 Search in Splunk
6. Conclusion
6.1 Summary
6.2 Future work 7. References
5.2.2.1 Summarized Analysis

Question 25: Business

Instruction
Write out the question prior to answering it Answer in your own words – As a rule of thumb, no more than 10% of your response to review questions should be quoted. Have at least one intext citation per question, such as [Moseley, 47], unless it is entirely an opinion question Use quotes if you copy three or more words and include an intext citation Use a minimum of three resources – the textbook, one item from “lecture” – the videos I provide each module, and one outside source that you have researched Provide a Works Cited or Reference Section in MLA Style at the end of the paper. Watch the following YouTube Videos. Information from at least one of these sources must be referenced in answering your Review Questions. Please be sure to use intext citations and reference them. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=TVBPhCJh-dw https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=2rnYxbIcf44

1.Why do people form organizations and why is management needed? 2.Identify the five functions every manager must perform and briefly explain each. 3.What are the three levels of management found in large organizations? Describe each, giving its responsibilities. 4.How are most supervisory positions filled? Explain why this is so. 5.Identify each of the trends challenging today’s supervisors and explain how each impacts supervisors. 6.What are the three basic steps in planning? Why do supervisors tend to slight the planning function? 7.How does planning differ among top, intermediate, and supervisory management levels? 8.What are some guidelines for setting performance objectives? 9.What is the difference between a policy, a rule, and a procedure? 10.Distinguish between objectives and strategies.

Question 26: Health Care

Instruction
Adopting a personal code of conduct can guide leaders and managers to make and prioritize decisions. You have been selected to serve in a critical leadership position in your organization. In 2-4 pages not including title page and reference page, write a personal code of conduct (sometimes called a personal code of ethics) that you would pass along to your staff. Explain how you would communicate your personal code of conduct across the organization. Note: Use APA style to cite at least 2 scholarly sources from the last 5 years.

Question 27: Physics

Clearly show me your system sketch and related energy flows for all problems.

1.[5/100 pts] In a particular application the heating load is 1750 kW, the cooling load is 1500 kw and the power load is 2500 kW. The installed capacity of the power generation, Winstalled, is 2700 kW. Calculate the HLRP, CHR and % air flow for this case.

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2.[5/100 pts] The Energy Utilization Factor, EUF, for a tri-generation system is 0.98. Calculated the required fuel input when the thermal load is 100 kW and the power load is 1000 kW. The high heat value is 55.4 MJ/Kg.

3.[5/100] The HLRP, %Air Flow and CHR values for a given application are 1.0, 100% and 1.0. Determine the Energy Utilization factor and the rate of carbon dioxide production per total energy load for this condition.

4.1 [10/100 pts] Determine the electrical energy supplied to a tank heater when the temperature of the water is heated from 20 C to 89 C. The pressured tank holds 1500 Kg of liquid water at a constant pressure of 3 bars and the specific heat is c = 4,370 J/(Kg K). There is no heat loss from the tank.

4.2[10/100 pts] Calculate the entropy production in Problem 4.1.

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4.3[10/100 pts] Calculate the exergy destruction (J) in Problem 4.1. The dead state temperature is 293.2 K and pressure is 1 bar.

4.4 [10/100] Calculate the mass of fuel (natural gas) required to heat the water mass to the conditions of problem 4.1. The high heating value (HHV) of the fuel is 50.02 MJ/kg and the efficiency of the burner unit can be taken as 100%.

4.5[10/100] Calculate the exergy destroyed in the process described by problem 4.4. The exergy of the fuel entering this process is 51.82 MJ/Kg. The dead state temperature is 293.2 K and pressure is 1 bar. The products of combustion leave this process at the dead state.

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4.6[15/100] The utility providing the electricity to the heater in problem 4.1 uses the same fuel as that used in problem 4.4 and has an efficiency of 0.35. The cost of the water tank is the same in each process, but the cost of the electric heater is $3000 and has a lifetime of 15 years. The cost of the fuel based heating system is $5000 and has a lifetime of 20 years. The fuel cost is $0.10/kg and the cost of electricity is $0.20/kWh. Which process would you recommend in terms of fuel consumption, exergy production and cost? Note the total amount of fuel consumed is directly related to the carbon dioxide emission from each process. This is not a thermoeconomic problem.

5.1[10/100 pts] Water flows at a mass rate of 1.0 Kg/s from an elevation of 250 m through a water turbine. The turbine exit is located at zero m, elevation. The water enters the pipe at temperature 293 K a velocity of 0.1 m/s and a pressure of 1 bar. It leaves the turbine’s exit at a temperature, velocity and pressure of 293.2 K, 0.05 m/s 1 bar. The process is adiabatic. Determine the power output at steady state conditions from this turbine. The specific heat of water is 4,180 J/(Kg K) and its density is 1000 Kg/m3.

5.2[10/100 pts] Calculate the exergy destruction for water turbine. (Hint: include all exergy property terms into and out of the system). The dead state is T0 = 293 K and P0 = 1.0 bar.

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Question 28: Other

Instruction
A minimum of 25 page business plan, suggested 15-20 slide powerpoint/prezi and 1-2 page reflection paper that refers to the project. The business plan is outlined with what areas or questions need to be answered. The project must be plagiarism free and done at a quality that I would receive an A.

BADM690 Strategic Management Project Guidelines
Table of Contents
Required Submissions…………………………………………………………………………………………………2 Tips for Writing the Plan……………………………………………………………………………………………..3 Project Format……………………………………………………………………………………………………………4 Expectations ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………5 Suggested Section Topics ……………………………………………………………………………………………. 7 Full Outline………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..8
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Required Submissions:
This project allows you to apply concepts learned in this class and your other graduate business courses. Make sure your report has been specifically prepared ONLY for this class. You must include a statement on your project cover page that the paper has NOT been submitted for credit in a previous class and will not be submitted for credit in any future class, either in whole or in part.
You may work either with a team (max 3 students) or independently on this project. You should identify a “real life” company that you can have enough access to in-depth financial and operational information to fully analyze the company’s strategic management situation. It would be best if you (or a group member) work in the company you want to analyze. This will facilitate the flow of information. This project has the following assignments or requirements:

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(1)  A PROJECT PROPOSAL from each person. You should submit a 1-2 page proposal that describes the company you are using for the project and the plan you have for completion. Document how you plan to get relevant company information. Ideally, you will analyze the entire company and then focus on specific projects and initiatives. You should include a proposed timeline for completion. If you are working with a group, explain how you plan to work with group members (who, when, where, etc.). The proposal should be completed individually so that I can confirm that all students have a project that will work for this assignment. You will need to submit the proposal in the “Project Proposal” assignment dropbox available under the Project tab. (4%-individual submission and grade).
(2)  A PROJECT UPDATE from each person. You should submit a 1-2 page paper that describes your progress. Explain what problems you have run into and how you plan to overcome those. Specifically list which sections you have completed and what is still remaining. Include an updated completion timeline from your proposal. If you are working with a group, explain how your group members are collaborating (who, when, where, etc.). You will need to submit the update in the “Project Update” assignment drop box available under the Project tab. (4%-individual submission and grade)
(3)  A FINAL REPORT that includes all of the detailed data, sources of information and an in depth analysis as well as a more exhaustive discussion of all of the points contained in the outline provided below. You will need to submit the final report in the Turnitin link called “Final Report”, which is available under the Project tab. (15%-group/individual grade)
(4)  A POWERPOINT/PREZI describing the Final Report that is a professional presentation. The presentation should summarize the findings and recommendations. The submission must be placed in the drop-box called “Powerpoint” which is available under the Project tab. (4%-group/individual grade)
(5)  A COURSE REFLECTION PAPER that describes your experiences and learning in this course. You should describe the strengths and weaknesses in your capstone project. What did you feel that you did really well? What areas could you have improved on? If you worked in a group, specifically discuss the positive and/or negative contributions made by each individual. Also, please explain what new knowledge, skills, and/or abilities you have learned from the project and the case studies. Which case study did you enjoy most/least and why? In addition, please describe how the text material you
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studied this this course relates to: (a) your project, (b) the case studies, and (c) your current/past/future workplace. Use specific examples/concepts from the chapters. Also, include your opinions on different aspects of the course. What was most helpful to you? What was least helpful? How could you have improved your course experience and how could I have improved your semester? Finally, please include a section describing what comes next for you. What will your life look like post-MBA? Will you look for a new job, get a promotion, get married, move, go back for another degree (i.e. DBA, JD, PhD), and/or just enjoy more free time? The reflection paper should be approximately 5 pages and should be submitted in the drop-box called “Course Reflection” which is available under the Project tab. (10%-individual submission and grade).
Your first step is to decide whether you want to work independently or in a group. If you want to work alone, you will need to sign-up in the ‘Solo Sign-up List’. To sign-up, select any available Solo#. You must sign-up in a Solo# so that the assignments will be available for you, and you will be able to access your grades.
If you would like to work in a group, you need to first find or contact other students willing to work with you. To do so, you need to post your information on the discussion board link ‘Looking for Project Partners’. Once you have contacted other students, and agreed to work together, SIGN-UP in any available Group# in the Group Sign-up List. Please, select a Group Number that is available and make sure to sign-up on the correct Group# (The Group# with your chosen team members)! Please, make sure that all members register in the same Group #, so look for your partners before signing up. Also, do not sign-up in a group without permission or agreement that you will work with the group. You must contact the members first.
The maximum number of members in each group should be 3. Keep in mind that the higher the number of members, the higher the expectations from the report.
Your next step will be to decide the company to analyze and begin your project proposal.
Tips for Writing this Plan:
All of the writing involved in the assignment should include the use of proper citations (APA) for sources quoted or used. This applies to both the powerpoint presentation as well as the accompanying complete report.
Grammar, spelling, and formatting are important. Just because the document has passed spell check doesn’t mean the word is correctly used in context or spelled correctly in context. Please use a traditional 12 pt. font.
Your powerpoint presentation is to be done from the vantage point of an executive presentation to senior management including the CEO, COO, CFO, etc.
Clearly identify the readers of this document. Then write the plan in a style that is easily understood by readers.
Remember that this plan is a working document that has the clear purpose of initiating focussed action and generating clear and measurable results. Avoid the excessive use of
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descriptive adjectives to ‘pad’ or over-sell the plan. Flowery, highly descriptive language can cloud key issues, blur the plan’s focus and slow/confuse its implementation
Keep the plan ‘tight’; ensure it remains concise, balanced, clear and logical. Where possible use quantitative rather than qualitative information. Remember the KISSS approach to planning; keep it simple, short and specific. Interlink all Sections, with the Market Analysis (SWOT) providing a clear focus for all subsequent sections.
Focus on facts and information from credible and reputable sources. Where possible avoid critical dependencies on one source of information. Build redundancy into information sources. Make sure to validate all key information used in the plan.
Always remember that faulty assumptions and faulty logic are some of the greatest hazards to business performance and business planning. Also remember that a good plan implemented today will always beat an excellent plan implemented sometime in the future. So, get the plan completed and into action as soon as is practicable. Also, plans must be adaptive to changing circumstances. If the plan is not performing be prepared to complete ‘major surgery’ on it.
If any information is overly repetitive between sections, skip it and note that that information has been covered and where to find it.
If any section doesn’t apply to your industry/company, skip it and note that it is irrelevant.
Project Format:
The format of the final report must be digitally submitted using a 12 pt. font in word (.DOC) document format. You must use the outline provided. The main document should include a minimum of 25 and a maximum of 40 double-spaced pages (if you go above this number, make sure that the information provided is necessary). Appendices may be located at the end the report, and are not included in your maximum page count. Your references may also appear at the end of the report, before the appendix. Organize the final report under section headings and subheadings as needed. Finally, as in most business writing, the paper should adequately convey and document what you want to say, but otherwise be no longer than necessary.
The final written report will be graded primarily on its content, however, format and presentation is important too. Grading will also consider the report’s organization (sequence of ideas), balance (evidence of comparable degree of analysis in sections of comparable importance), style (English usage, grammar and punctuation), and its implementation schedule.
If you are interested in modifying the plan, please ask. I am flexible and I want you to
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get as much out of your time in my class as possible.
Citations and References
You MUST use APA style. Please, look on the Internet or purchase the APA guides. In addition, Microsoft Word Software comes with these Citations styles functions embedded in the system. Please, do not use Chicago or Turabian styles.
It is very important that you use the proper in-text citations and reference style. Footnotes
Footnotes in the text must be numbered and typed at the bottom of the page where the footnote is made or on a separate page following the text (i.e., endnote). A footnote or endnote should be used to clarify the text, define terms, make comments, or to list additional sources. Footnotes provide additional information that would detract from the subject being discussed in the body of the text. Again, Microsoft Word software provides this function, which is easy to use!
Figures and Tables Captions
Search online for the APA and how to caption figures and tables. Then, look online for how to caption figures and tables using Microsoft. http://www.microsoft.com/education/AddCaption.aspx
Remember, if captioning Tables, the caption goes at the TOP of the Tables. However, if captioning figures or graph, the caption goes below the figures or graph and should include the source of the table (unless you have developed).
All Tables/Charts/Figures should have a descriptive title. Power Point
In addition to the written report each team/individual will prepare a POWERPOINT presentation. Assume this presentation will be displayed for a team of venture capitalists, entrepreneurs, and directors of the business you selected that may be in attendance to assist in the evaluation of your plan. It should be professional, but interesting. It should probably be between 15-25 slides, but that is not a requirement only a recommendation.
Expectations for the Capstone Project:
Your success in the business world will depend, to a large extent, on your ability to communicate. Courses during your first few years at the Business School provided the opportunity to hone your written and oral communication skills. This course will provide you with the opportunity to develop further both of these skills. You will be required to write a formal report, which might possibly be available for external judges at the end of the semester and try to convince them of the strength of your Project. The goal of this paper is to examine a company in depth to identify strategies that may have a positive impact on the firm. Remember that a strategic change is typically initiated in reaction to a triggering event and is rare, consequential, and directive.
Substance: You should substantiate what you are trying to convey with facts and data. In most cases, you will be asking the reader of your business report to commit substantial resources–financial, human, or physical–to a project. The decision-maker will not make
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the decision because you think is a good concept. Rather, you will need to convince the reader by providing hard facts and data with appropriate citations. Your rationale and reasoning should be explained logically and clearly. Effective business reports are not documents put together at the last minute—they take time to develop.
Style: The style of your business reports should be clear, concise, and to the point. The executive reading the report does not want to be entertained. He or she wants the information necessary to make a decision. Avoid flowery language with lots of adjectives and adverbs. I have high expectations. If you want to excel in the business world you should too.
Outline: You should follow the outline provided. However, most word processing software includes an outlining function. Use it. Begin your reports by developing an outline to organize your thoughts and the concepts you are trying to convey. The more comprehensive and detailed your outline, the easier it will be to write the report.
Proofread: Carefully proofread each draft of the report. You will probably need three or four drafts before you are satisfied with the report.
Exhibits/Tables/Appendices: I do not expect to receive exhibits or appendices with your handwriting on them. Instead, you should have typed exhibit numbers (let me know if you want some help). This includes copying exhibits from other sources. Unless you are using a photograph that cannot be reproduced in Word document, I expect you to make models, charts, spreadsheets on your own. This takes time but it is all part of being professional. Also, it is important to use captions for Figures or Graphs and Tables. If using Microsoft Word (or any word processor), you can select (highlight) the figure or table, then right click and select insert caption. This will insert automatically the caption (Figure 1 or Table 1) label and number. By doing this you will be able to use the captions as reference in the report. Finally, for Figures and Graphs the captions should be inserted below the graphs. For Tables, the captions should be inserted above the table. Check these in any of your textbooks, look how tables and graphs are reported.
Due dates: Reports are due on the dates assigned and there is no time in the schedule for the report to be turned in late because grades are due to the registrar just after the project due date.
Grading: Reports will be graded as if I were an executive trying to make a business decision based upon the written report. Grading will be competitive. That is, your reports will be graded relative to those turned in by your classmates. Proper spelling, syntax, grammar, punctuation, bibliography, citations, footnotes, and professional appearance are expected. Your grade may be lowered as much as two full letter grades if these areas are lacking.
Reviewing papers: I am willing to discuss the logical reasoning and proposed content of your reports. Before visiting my office, emailing or calling me, you should have made significant progress and should be well prepared.
Plagiarism: Don’t do it. Students are expected to adhere to the University policies regarding academic honesty as stated in the student handbook. Cheating or plagiarism will not be tolerated. Plagiarism includes taking exhibits or ideas from books or websites without giving credit to appropriate sources in addition to direct copy/paste instances. I am very strict about this and I will not hesitate to report academic dishonesty to the university. The work you submit MUST be your own thoughts and written in your own words. Written
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assignments will be run through TURNITIN.
If your submission is above that limit you may be asked to redo the assignment or depending on the severity of the infraction, you
may even receive an automatic 0 on the assignment (and therefore fail the course). In addition, you may also receive an academic dishonesty warning/report.
Suggested Section Topics:
The following is a simple, but effective planning format that will fit many of the sections in this plan. The format is not rigid and should be adapted to the requirements of individual sections as applicable. The four sub-sections that comprise the suggested format are as follows:
Current Situation
Clearly and concisely present the current situation with any contributing history, and any trends, cycles, changes or future developments that are relevant
Key Issues
Clearly define the most urgent and important issues as they relate to the current situation for this Section, and the overall purpose of this plan and the company’s Mission. Key issues are usually those strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats, capability gaps and impediments that impact on business performance
Strategies to Address the Key Issues
Formulate strategies using the SMAAART acronym to address the key issues. SMAAART (Specific, Measurable, Action-orientated, Achievable, Affordable, Relevant and Time-bound)
Key Performance Measures and Targets
Establish key performance measures/indicators, performance targets and time lines in conjunction with the strategies to assess and improve performance
For your capstone project there is no reason
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for the TURNITIN match to be any higher than 20%.
Final Report Outline:
Here is a detailed outline of what you should include in your report. You should use the headings and subheadings, but your paper should be in paragraph form. If any of the headings/subheadings do not apply to your project, just type does not apply or disregard the section.
Thus, at a minimum you must develop a strategic plan for the study entity that adequately covers:
i)  Title Page:
Strategic Business Plan for “Company Name”
Period of the Study (i.e. January 2018 to December 2019)
Team Members
Originality Statement
ii)  Summary:
The Summary is the last section written, but is placed in the front of the paper. It should be restricted to two to three pages in length. In essence the summary is a very effective distillation of the overall strategic plan into a ‘hard hitting’ summary of key performance initiatives and performance targets. Typically it would include a brief description of the company and then the following information about the proposed strategic plan:
Purpose:
The Business Opportunity
The Product
Main Findings:
The Market Strategy
The Management Team
Profit and Cash Projections
Investment Needs
Returns to Investors
Conclusions and Recommendations
iii)  Table of Contents
iv)  Body of the report:
1) Strategic Focus
The Aim of this Plan: What do we wish to achieve with this plan (start, grow,
consolidate, downsize, or exit)?
Our Mission: A Mission Statement clearly defines the primary purpose or
reasons for our existence. It is heavily focused on customer value. It is also vital to achieving organizational alignment. A mission statement typically provides clear and concise answers to the following questions:
Remember, I am flexible and I want this project to be as relevant to
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your situation as possible.
What products and services do we deliver?
Where and when do we deliver our products and services?
Which customer groups are our primary groups?
Where are our primary customers
What tangible value do our products and services deliver to customers?
What is our competitive advantage?
What additional community and environmental benefits do we generate?
Answers to the above questions provide a start-point for preparing a statement that clearly positions the company in the minds of key stakeholders and customers
Core Organizational Competencies: Which core organizational skills and competencies are vital to achieving our mission
Organizational Values: What core organisational values must be imbedded in our organisation to establish a culture capable of achieving our Mission?
Highest Priority Goals: List up to six of your highest priority goals in order of priority. These goals are formulated at Section 17. Section 17 shows how to use the SMAAART acronym to write clear, concise action-oriented goal statements. SMAAART Goals – are Specific, Measurable, Action-oriented, Achievable, Affordable, Time-bound. An example of a SMAAART Goal: By 30 June 2002 to construct and commission a world-standard production and delivery facility capable of producing two 20 metre road bridges per month for direct installation in to Australia’s public road system.

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In essence strategic goals progressively take the company to its next level of performance and keep it there.
Goal One
Goal Two
Goal Three
Goal Four
Goal Five
Goal Six
Performance Objectives: The performance objectives below, in combination, form a performance scorecard for easily tracking the performance improvements generated by this plan. Section 17 provides the inputs for this scorecard. The planning team determines the composition of the performance scorecard.
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Performance Area Performance Measures Target Time Frame
Financial Performance
Customer and Market Performance
Internal Efficiency and Effectiveness
Long Term Development and Innovation
2) The Business:
Provide a concise overview of the business. Areas for consideration when preparing this section to include:
Owners/Directors/Shareholders/Shareholdings
A brief history of the business
Corporate and business cultures
Nature of the business and it main activities
Location
Current stage in its life cycle
Past performance and key achievements
Key business advisors – Solicitor, Banker, Accountant, and Consultants
Relationships with key stakeholders
Competitive strengths and weaknesses
3) Market Analysis
Conduct a detailed analysis across each of the following areas to identify and quantify key market opportunities/gaps, barriers to market entry, threats, compliance requirements, risks, performance multipliers, critical success factors, etc. that must be considered when developing high priority product development, marketing and business strategies. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
Global/National Trends, Developments, Cycles and Changes of Relevance
Macro-environment (i.e. political, economic, legal, social/cultural,
demographics, technology)
Industry
Markets, Customers and Suppliers
Competitors and their Products
Questions typically asked during the analysis would include:
What are the industry’s economics, critical success factors, key risks,
competitiveness, compliance and standards requirements, emerging trends
and key technologies?
Who are the key customers and major competitors in each target markets?
What are the sizes of the target markets? Are they growing? If yes, at what
rate?
What market share does each major competitor hold in your primary markets
What are the strengths and weaknesses of major competitors and their
products?
What are the competitive price points for products in each market?
What competitive advantages must your products have to successfully enter
and compete in target markets?
How will you differentiate your products and add more-customer-value than
competitors?
Key questions about your primary customers:
Specifically what need or problem does your product target?
Who will make the decision to purchase your products?
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What are their decision criteria?
Where are the products bought?
How are the products bought?
When are the products bought?
Why are the products bought?
How well do you know your primary customers and key competitors?
How strong are your relationships with key customers and key stakeholders?
How do you involve them in product development? What factors will be
critical to building strong and enduring brands with them?
What levels of demand for your products are realistic across your primary
markets?
In order of priority what are your primary markets? Why?
How will your primary competitors react when you enter their markets, now
and over the next two years?
What are you going to do about their responses?
What are the major barriers to market entry?
What are the critical success factors for each market?
What key product distribution, product support and customer service issues
must be considered?
Which companies and products are likely to become competitors in the
future?

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What new or emerging technologies and substitute products are likely to
become threats in the future?
4) Products
Based on the findings of Section Three identify your product’s key strengths and weaknesses as they relate to key market opportunities and threats. Then develop strategies to address each issue (eg, build on strengths and correct weaknesses) for each product in your product portfolio. When preparing this section consider the following framework for clustering key issues and related strategies. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
Describe your current and near-future products?
What gives your products a clear competitive advantage?
What are the benefits and value provided to customer as opposed to
‘features’?
What are the environmental and social impacts and implications?
What regulations, standards and codes must be complied with?
At what stage is each product in its life-cycle? For example:
Research completed
Prototype completed
In-house testing
Customer testing
Market ready
First up-grade completed
Also consider conducting the product analysis and planning for this section
across the following stages:
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Current Situation
Key Product and Market Issues
Key Strategies
Performance Measures and Targets
5) Marketing
Based on discussions at previous sections develop a concise set of highly focussed marketing strategies for your most attractive and highest priority markets. These strategies will guide your market entry, market development, and brand building activities. Establish budgets for these activities. Set realistic and measurable performance targets and time lines for each market entry/development strategy. These targets are critical to designing and building business and production capacities aligned with expected market demands on entry, and in to the future.
In essence marketing strategies in combination create the well differentiated, high value and compelling proposition to customers that persuades them to purchase from you rather then a competitor. These strategies should build on the competitive strengths of the company while exploiting the weaknesses of key competitors. A highly competitive, high-value proposition to customers is typically created around the following drivers of competitive advantage:
Product distribution eg, simple, speedy and easy customer-access to the product
Product benefits highly valued by the customer
Product promotion
Customer communication, interaction and feedback
Product support for the life of the product
Customer service
Product pricing and purchasing
Product presentation and packaging
Product compliance with all relevant legislation
6) Research and Development
Provide a background to current activities. Then identify key issues (strength, weakness, gaps, threats and opportunities) and develop related strategies for addressing each key issues. Link the R&D effort to your market research, product development and marketing activities discussed in previous sections. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning.
Areas to be analysed to include:
Sources of R&D
Current and planned
Strategic alliances for R&D
Intellectual Property Protection
Patents held plus the corporate entity that holds the patents
Shared intellectual property and its protection
Intellectual property being used, but not owned
Intellectual property protection currently being sort for new developments

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Current and planned R&D activities
Processes employed for the development and commercialisation of new
products and technologies
7) Production and Delivery
Provide a background to current activities. Then identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses, and gaps in production capacities and capabilities – as they relate to meeting the marketing requirements and targets, and R&D requirements developed in earlier sections. Then develop linked strategies with clear targets, time lines and budgets to develop and progressively expand production capabilities and capacities. All budgetary and financial constraints are factored in to this planning.
Key issues are typically identified following an evaluation of key production and delivery performance-drivers. Typical areas to be addressed during this evaluation include:
Plant design, location, size and site requirements
Access to key manufacturing technologies
Production capacity and capability requirements
Criteria for selecting contractors and suppliers
In-house versus out-sourcing of manufacturing requirements
The manufacturing and production standards, codes, regulations and
OH&S requirements that must be complied with
Equipment needs
Inventory management
Manufacturing processes – configurations and technologies
Product and production costings
Purchasing systems
Quality control systems
Manufacturing resources planning
Material requirements planning
Warehousing
Scheduling and dispatch
Material supplies and inventory
Critical/key inputs to all manufacturing and production processes
Risk management
Key staffing and skills requirements
Clear linkages to, and feedback loops with the company’s marketing,
product development, and R&D functions
Work systems and teams for staff
Designing, testing and improving all production and delivery systems
to meet market demands and expected growth
Key performance measures and targets for controlling and improving
all production and delivery systems to increase production efficiencies
and effectiveness.
Benchmarking and best-practice
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8) Supply Chains
Provide a background to current activities and list all key suppliers. Then identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses, and gaps in supply chain capacities and capabilities – as they relate to meeting the production and delivery requirements and targets developed at Section Seven. Then develop linked strategies with clear targets, time lines and budgets to develop and progressively improve supply chain capabilities and capacities. All budgetary and financial constraints must be factored in to this planning. Supply chains assessments to include out-sourcing. For example any R&D that is out-sourced should be included in this assessment. Conduct the analysis and planning for this section across the following stages:
Current Situation
Key Supply Chain Issues
Key Strategies
Performance Measures and Targets
9) Business Systems and Processes
Based on the plans/strategies developed and performance targets established in sections One to Eight identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses and gaps – within the business systems and processes that drive business performance. Then develop strategies to address these issues.
Performance reviews to improve internal business systems and processes typically include an assessment of the following performance areas:
Quality Management (eg, ISO 9001 – Quality Standard, AS 4269 – Complaints
Handling Standard)
Risk Management (eg, AS/NZS, Risk Management Standard)
Regulatory Compliance (Search for any Compliance Program Standard)
Information Management and Security (eg, Security Standard AS/NZS
ISO/IEC 17799:2000)
Financial management
Managing the environmental and social impacts of business operations
Performance improvement across the business, to include performance
indicators and targets
Future planning and ongoing innovation (eg, new product development &
process innovation)
Employee performance and morale
Stakeholder relationships
Board and management performance
10) Stakeholder Relationships and Alliances
Describe the current situation and list those key stakeholders that currently contribute to business performance. Identify key issues – strengths, weaknesses and gaps – that relate to improving stakeholder relationships and alliances. Then develop strategies to address each key issue.
Stakeholder groups typically include shareholders/blockholders, customers,
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suppliers of good and services, employees, regulators, the environment, community, and government departments. Questions asked during the stakeholder analysis include:
Are all of our key stakeholders clearly identified?
Who will become key stakeholders in the near future?
Are their expectations and requirements clearly understood?
Are they regularly consulted?
Are they kept updated, and involved in those business decisions that will
affect them?
11) Organization and Management
Section Seven provides clear production and delivery projections and targets for the company. Current organisational structures and human resource capabilities will most likely require improvement to meet these increasing business demands.
Conduct an analysis of the current situation and growth projections for the company to identify the key organisational and human resource issues that must be addressed if these growth projections are to be realised. Then develop strategies with key performance measures and targets to address these key issues.
Areas to be addressed include:
Organizational Chart – show current structures and future structures
The Management team with brief resumes – show the situation now and in to
the future
Staffing requirements – now and in to the future
Job descriptions and work design for management and staff – now and in to
the future
Human performance standards, measurement and feedback – now and into
the future
Management and staff training and development – now and in to the future
Recruitment and induction – now and in to the future
Encouraging innovation across the company
Providing leadership and building morale
Training needs analysis – now and in to the future
Occupational health and safety
Industrial relations
Wages and on-costs
Other relevant human resource issues
12) Environmental and Social Impacts
Conduct the analysis and planning for this section across the following stages:
Current Situation
Key Environmental and Social Issues
Key Strategies
Performance Measures and Targets
15
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13) Risk Factors and Regulatory Compliance
Risk Management
Establish key risks to the overall business and its performance by identifying high priority risks within each performance area represented by the sections of this plan. Quantify these risks by assessing the gravity of their impacts on the business should they be realised, and determining the probability that they will be realised.
Following quantification of the risks establish an order of priority for their control. Then develop risk management strategies – with performance measures, targets and time lines – that address the highest priority risks.
Regulatory Compliance
Conduct an audit of regulatory compliance requirements across each area of the business as represented by the sections of this plan. Develop strategies to address regulatory gaps and weaknesses. Search for any Compliance Programs Standard that could provide a good framework for developing an effective compliance management system.
A regulatory compliance audit would typically embrace:
Corporate governance
Taxation
Superannuation
Employing staff
Health and safety
Trade Practices
Intellectual Property Rights
Environmental Issues
The Privacy Act
14) Corporate Governance
Areas to be addressed by this section typically would include:
Corporate Structures
Company Constitution
Board of Directors – Size and Composition
Duties and Responsibilities of the Board
Board Performance
Advisors to the Board
Shareholder Agreements
Major Shareholders and Their Representatives
15) Financials
Based on the strategies and plans formulated, costings calculated, and sales projected develop a set of financials for the duration of the plan. These financials should include cash flows, profit and loss, balance sheets, investment requirements, and key financial performance indicators (ratios), and related performance targets.
16) Application of Investment Funds
16
This section should be linked to all prior planning and at minimum address the following:
What will be the total investment requirement across the duration of this plan
– when and how much?
Which investors will be involved; how much will they provide and when will
they provide it?
How will the funds be used at each round of investment?
What will the capital structure and ownership be after each round of
investment?
17) Strategic Action Plan
Primary Goals, Objectives and Strategies
The Aim of this section is to integrate all strategies developed across previous sections into a cohesive and balanced plan of highly focussed action that will achieve the overarching purpose of this Strategic Plan.
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Firstly…..High-priority, clear, action-orientated, time-bound and practicably achievable goals are formulated around clusters of ‘like’ strategies developed across the previous sections. Goals mark a clear and well-marked pathway for achieving the aim of this plan. To ensure the plan has a sharp focus the number of key goals should be restricted to six or less whenever possible. A clear time frame and performance target should be integrated in to each goal statement. An example of a goal statement: By 30 June 2018 to construct and commission a world-standard production and delivery facility capable of producing two 20 metre road bridges per month for direct installation in to Australia’s public road system.
After each goal has been clearly formulated develop a set of supporting objectives and strategies. Objectives define the best pathway for achieving each goal. Strategies define the pathway for achieving each objective. Objectives and strategies are also written using the SMAAART acronym – Specific, Measurable, Action-orientated, Affordable, Achievable, and Time-bound. The final step in developing an interacting hierarchy/network of focussed action is the Task plan. This plan allocates people and resources to completing those tasks required for achieving each strategy. Vital budget and resource considerations are integrated in to the overall planning process to ensure all planned actions are affordable.
The interacting hierarchy/network of action for achieving the aim of the plan is illustrated below. The hierarchy/network of focussed action is not a rigid structure and, where possible, should be adapted to the each situation to ensure it provides fast, effective and relatively simple action pathways for delivering results of significance.
Key Strategic Goal
Objectives to achieve the strategic goal
Strategies to achieve each objective
Task Plans to achieve each strategy
Plan Implementation: Typically management in consultation with staff and
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key stakeholders implements each Goal and its supporting objectives, strategies and action/task plans. Balanced teams can be effectively employed to implement strategies and supporting action/task plans.
18) Plan Improvement
Performance Measurement: The plan’s performance should be assessed
against its effectiveness in achieving its high priority goals and performance targets.
Plan Review and Up Date: To ensure the plan continues to provide a sharp focus and remain responsive to change it should be formally reviewed and updated every six months, at the achievement of a Strategic Goal and at any other time deemed necessary. Implementation of this plan is to be a fixed agenda item at meetings of the Board of Directors.
v) References vi) Appendices
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Question 29: Law

Only do this assessment if you failed or have a deferral for the SECOND coursework (Client Advice)

Assessment Details

Assessment Length: 2000 (Two Thousand) Words

Note: The assessment length does not include footnotes, bibliography or tables of cases and statutes.

It is compulsory to use footnotes, a bibliography and tables of cases and statutes.

Question

Imran was the owner of a freehold property known as Soar Farm, title to which was unregistered when he purchased it in 1988. The purchase did not trigger first registration at the Land Registry as the area that Soar Farm was located in did not become a compulsory registration area until December 1990.

In 2015, Imran granted his son, Saleem, an option to purchase Ratae Cottage. Although the cottage was part of Soar Farm, it was set against the far boundary away from the main entrance and consequently shared the driveway to the main house on the farm.

The option was for a period of ten years from 2015. The option agreement was in writing and signed by both parties. The document provided that the option could be exercised by the service of a notice by Saleem to Imran at any time.

Almost immediately after the option was given, Imran and Saleem quarrelled and, without Saleem’s knowledge, in early 2016, Imran sold Ratae Cottage to his brother, Khalid. The purchase price Khalid paid for Ratae Cottage was about half its market value. Khalid was fully aware of the option granted in favour of Saleem. In late 2016, Khalid transferred Ratae Cottage back to Imran.

In 2017, Imran’s farming business got into difficulties and his other brother, Malik (who was working in Dubai), agreed to lend him a sum of money to help him out. He lent him the money on condition that he could have a share of the farm if it was sold. Malik also said that he was considering whether to move back to the United Kingdom. Pending that decision, he wanted to send his son, Rastam, to school in the United Kingdom and asked Imran if he could house Rastam. Imran agreed to let him occupy Ratae Cottage while he went to the nearby academy.

In late 2018, despite the funds from Malik’s loan, Imran’s business continued to struggle. Malik agreed to advance him more money as a loan, provided he agreed that, when Malik and his family eventually returned from Dubai, they could occupy Ratae Cottage. Malik has instructed his solicitor to draft the documents for a sale to take place. Documents have now been produced and are being discussed by Imran and Malik’s respective solicitors.

As Imran is still having financial difficulties, he has now decided to sell the farm to a neighbouring farmer, Rashid. He explains to Rashid all that has happened in relation to the land.

Rashid now seeks your advice as to whether he will be bound by any right or interest Saleem or Malik may have and, if he is, if there is any way he could avoid these.

Advise Rashid.

Further Considerations

You may wish to consider some of the following issues in your discussion of this scenario:

Initial Registration
The possible creation of easements
The creation or otherwise of equitable interests
The different treatment of equitable interests in registered and unregistered land
Effectiveness/validity of land transfer

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Question 30: Philosophy

Instruction
: Explain the family relationships you detailed. Describe what you have learned that might be helpful when working with families. Identify any substance use addictive disorders discovered in various family members. NOTE: Please do not use the actual names of your family members in order to protect their confidentiality. Utilize Smart Art or the drawing tools in Microsoft Word to complete the Genogram. Support your content with scholarly research. Utilize the GCU Library to locate a minimum of three scholarly sources. Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the GCU Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion. Explain the family relationships you detailed. Describe what you have learned that might be helpful when working with families. Identify any substance use addictive disorders discovered in various family members. NOTE: Please do not use the actual names of your family members in order to protect their confidentiality. Utilize Smart Art or the drawing tools in Microsoft Word to complete the Genogram. Support your content with scholarly research. Utilize the GCU Library to locate a minimum of three scholarly sources. Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the GCU Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

Create a simple genogram for your own family, tracing your roots back three generations. Include this genogram in an essay between 300-600 words that addresses the following. Note: (I am a Black Female, with 5 siblings and I am the middle child and grew up in the mid-west (Iowa no substance abuse, but, both parents did drink occasionally loving family.). Any questions or concerns please advise.

Question 31: Religious Studies

Instruction

APA Style 5 pages 5 references/sources

Islam in USA. History of Islam. Numbers of muslims and mosques. percentage of Sunni, Sofi, Shia, and Ahmadiyya. when did Islam arrived and how did it arrived (by who). Muslim characters in USA, famous mosques, the statues of muslims in the region, any news or events happened in the last month (related to Islam), etc..

Question 32: Business

Instruction
Marketing Management Majors: Develop a business plan for a start-up company that provides some type of marketing product or service (e.g., advertising campaigns, sales, online promotions). Select the type of products or services that the company will offer. The products can be real or potential. A. Write an executive summary (suggested length of 1–2 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Identify the company’s name and location. 2. Describe the mission of the company. 3. Discuss two business goals in support of the company’s mission. 4. Discuss three keys to success for the company. B. Write a company summary (suggested length of 4–6 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Describe the history of the industry in which the company will operate. Note: Cite data and examples from your organization to support your analysis. 2. Identify the legal form that the company will take. 3. Describe the location and type of facilities needed for the company. 4. Describe the management structure, including key positions and specific responsibilities. 5. Describe the products and services offered by the company. C. Develop a market analysis (suggested length of 3–5 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Describe the target market for the company’s products and services, including the specific location, demographics, etc. Note: Cite data and examples from your organization to support your analysis. 2. Complete an industry analysis for the company, including current trends and statistics. 3. Complete a four-square SWOT analysis for the company in which you do the following: a. Identify three strengths, three weaknesses, three opportunities, and three threats. b. Explain each of the identified strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. D. Develop a market strategy (suggested length of 3–6 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Discuss each of the four Ps of marketing as they relate to the company’s products and services. 2. Develop a price list for the company’s products and services. 3. Develop a promotional strategy including
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specific tasks, target dates, and responsible parties. 4. Develop a monthly sales forecast for the first year of operations, including a discussion of expected market conditions. Note: The sales forecast will be used as the basis for your revenue in your financial statements. E. Develop an implementation strategy in which you do the following: 1. Summarize the overall strategy that will be utilized to launch your business, including target dates and goals for implementation. 2. Develop a post-launch monitoring plan (e.g., financial impact, quality control, customer satisfaction, monitoring schedule) to evaluate the success of the company in meeting milestones. F. Calculate and develop the financial statements and projections for the first year of business by doing the following: 1. Develop a month-by-month forecasted profit and loss statement using an estimate of revenues and operating costs based on the sales forecast. 2. Develop a forecasted balance sheet for the end of year one. G. Write a financial report (suggested length of 1–2 pages) in which you do the following: 1. Summarize the financial projections and the assumptions used in estimating the financial statements. 2. Describe the company’s financial position at the end of the first year. 3. Describe the company’s initial and future estimated capital/investment needs. H. When you use sources, include all in-text citations and references in APA format.

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Question 3:        Psychology

 

1) Explain at least three lines of compelling evidence that indicate that sustained stress among humans and other mammals causes physical damage (and can cause premature death). Think telomeres, hippocampus, arteriosclerosis, etc. 2) How might maternal stress during pregnancy be linked to mental illness in offspring? 3) Explain the interactions between the nervous system, the immune system, and behavior, and describe psychoneuroimmunology’s relationship to all three. 4) Take the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (the pdf is attached. You don’t need to report your total score but describe your current status in light of the general guidelines provided on the last page of the pdf. Include reasons you feel your score may over or under predict your perceived emotional stress level (review material from Chapter 5 regarding key characteristics of potential stressors).

 

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Question 4:        Other

 

  1. Proposal for Term Project

Format: Outline 1-2 pages maximum (not including cover page)

In outline format, make sure to clearly explain your chosen research topic and your rationale for how it relates to course themes.

Students are encouraged to email their instructor in advance for support or guidance on their topics.

 

  1. Annotated Bibliography

Format: APA annotated bibliography format  5-7 pages (not including cover sheet)

Noting your topic in 2-3 sentences at the top of the first page, you will then present annotations for 5 scholarly/credible sources (e.g. not social media, magazines or books made for popular audiences, etc.) related to your chosen topic. Make sure to adequately yet briefly summarize the source, and assess its credibility/application to your topic.

 

  1. Final Research Paper

Format: Essay, 8-10 pages (not including cover or reference sheet), APA format

Building on the research from your annotated bibliography, and any research you have done since those submission, prepare in essay format an 8-10 page paper that provides the rationale for the topic chosen and its significance in terms of diversity/equity/resilience and practice, key findings from your research, and a conclusion that summarizes what you learned and its significance for your future community mental health practice.

 

  1. Presentation/discussion of Research Paper

Students will prepare a 5-10 minute presentation of the key findings of their major research paper. This is a formal presentation, however presentation slides are optional. Students should be prepared to take questions or engage in class discussion for the last few minutes of their presentation. A hard copy of presentation notes or slides is to be submitted to the instructor at the beginning of the presentation. Presentations will be on the final class of the semester; no alternate date will be available unless the student wishes to present earlier than the scheduled date.

Praxis Assignment: Day of Social Justice/AOP

Praxis & Reflective Paper (3-4 pages)

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(This assignment has been adapted from Langhout et al.’s  (2013) “The Praxis Assignment: Experiential Learning in a Large Social-Community Psychology Class”, Journal of Prevention and Intervention in the Community, 41, 61-67.

Anti-oppression practice is just that—practice—not just theory. As outlined in this course, AOP is embodied at three levels: personal, relational, and on the collective level. For this assignment you will attempt to live one day embodying AOP

 

Part One:

For this assignment, your challenge is to live each minute of a 24-hour period embodying AOP.

  • not to use unearned privilege
  • not to participate in oppression
  • to enact egalitarian power structures.

When participating in this day, examine all your behavior—from what you wear, what you say, what you eat, how you interact with others, every thought, action, or word spoken.

  • As you do this, think carefully about each and every thing you do and ask yourself the following questions:
  • “What are the AOP implications of what I am doing?”
  • “Is there another way I should be doing or saying this that would lead to a more transformative way of being in the world?”
  • Do not limit yourself to the “easy” things like being nice, or giving money to a cause in front of the grocery store.

 

Part Two:

Write a 3-4 page reflective analysis of what the day was like for you. Address the following questions but not in Q&A form – this should read like a reflective essay:

  • Briefly summarize your day: How did you choose to behaviorally operationalize AOP? How does what you did relate to the concept or definition of AOP?
  • How did others respond to your efforts at enacting AOP?
  • What was the day like for you?
  • Why is every day not like this for you?
  • How does this exercise relate to your own accountability, privilege, or oppression?

This submission should reflect course themes but does not require direct integration of course theory unless you choose to integrate some to benefit your analysis.

 

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Question 5:        Other

 

700- to 1,050-word paper that examines the effect of legal, safety, and regulatory requirements on the human resources process. Your paper should focus on employee-related regulations established by the United States, such as the Department of Labor, the U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC), the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, and the Department of Homeland Security. Include your thoughts on the following statement: “Common sense and compassion in the workplace have been replaced by litigation.” Include at least 3 references.

Question 12:                Economics

 

Production function that uses one variable function

 

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Question 13:      Other

 

Need help with an assignment must be 1500 words with 3 scholoaryly sources within the last 5 years. Must include in text citation the questions are listed below

  1. In a narrative format, discuss the following: Were the characteristics described in this unit consistent or inconsistent with your experience/perception of African American culture? Where do a majority of your perceptions about African Americans come from? What information are you still missing to make a more complete picture?
  2. Research reveals that young, unemployed African American and Hispanic males pay a higher punishment penalty than other types of offenders. What accounts for this?
  3. What are some individual and organizational recommendations to improve the experiences, employment, and status of African-Americans in organizations?

Reply to jenn 100 words

During the Civil Rights era, when Blacks were protesting in certain states such as Alabama, which ended up in Washington, D.C., Law Enforcement Officers was used as a tool for  segregationists governors and other leaders to interrupt protests with violent practices towards Blacks, including Whites, who protested for Civil Rights (Hohle, 2019). The role in relation to Law Enforcement Officers, for example, The leaders, such as some of the leaders of Birmingham, Alabama, had ordered the Law Enforcement Officers in Alabama, through the use of dogs, as well as the use of fire hoses, including other methods of violence, which even resulted in some deaths, attacked Civil Rights protestors that was only demonstrating for the cause of justice, along with equal treatment for all. This violent treatment has extended through the harassment of Blacks through the Jim Crow System, which was very popular, especially in places of business (Hailey, 2000). The Justice System through the courts posed a dual role, which started out as a greater problem and became a greater solution, during the Civil Rights Movement. The Court System, for example, the duel role that it demonstrated was the evolving from the backing of the Jim Crow System, to the integration of public schools through our Supreme Court, not to mention, the admission of our first Black Supreme Court Justice, Honorable Thurgood Marshall in the year of 1961, which shows a breakthrough of progress in an imperfect Court System (History, 2009). There are many imperfections in our court systems, which needs work, but because of brave groups of people that are willing to stand up in the face of injustice, which began with brave Americans as a whole, equality is slowly evolving (Graber, n.d.)  Our Law Enforcement System, regardless of some flaws, has favorable points, because, most of our Law Enforcement Officers are dedicated people who are trying to keep our streets safe from criminals. Regardless of the many problems that are existent, even in both our Court Systems, along with Law Enforcement issues, we have still come along way, and still have a long way to go as long as diversity exists (McNamara, &  Burns, 2009).

Reply to Jon 100 words listed below

The Civil Rights Movement has been an ongoing process throughout the United States. “The Civil Rights Movement is an umbrella term for the many varieties of activism that sought to secure full political, social, and economic rights for African Americans in the period from 1946 to 1968 (Khan, 2019).” For years African Americans were treated as being inferior to Caucasians. During these times African Americans were not allowed to eat, sleep, drink, or go to school in the same places that white people did. African Americans were rejected by the public as well as local law enforcement. On several occasions Blacks were beaten and had dogs and fire hoses turned on them by the very people who took an oath to protect.

Law enforcement during the civil rights movement was used as a scare tactic. During protests they stood with batons, weapons draw, and/or dogs waiting to unleash terror on African Americans who were peacefully protesting. During the Birmingham Campaign in May of 1963, “Police dogs, held by officers, jump at a man with torn trousers during a non-violent demonstration (Bond-Nelms, C., 2018).” Even though slavery was over the hatred still lingered on. Even after the Supreme Court stepped in, Whites still did not want to conform to the fact that blacks were no longer considered slaves.

The landmark case during the civil rights movement was Brown v. Board of Education. Once schools were desegregated whites still did not want to go to school with blacks and blacks were kept out of these schools. In this case “the Court reasoned that the segregation of public education based on race instilled a sense of inferiority that had a hugely detrimental effect on the education and personal growth of African American children (Brown, 2019).” The Court stepped up to the place and put an end to segregation which would allow blacks to receive the same education as their white counterparts.

Reference

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Question 14:      Business

 

This is geared towards a teams in my class.

Team Leadership Development Plan Part B: Post-Course Assessment

 

Articulate 3 development goals and propose a plan for meeting those goals in the future

 

 

Question 15:                Mathematics

 

1.
Use properties of exponents to rewrite each of the following complex numbers in a simpler form.
where e = euler’s number and i the sqrt(-1)

  1. e^(ix) *e(iy)
  2. e^(ix)^n
  3. (e^(ix))/(e^(iy))

This is for precalculus with BYU.

I believe the problem wants me to convert the complex numbers into polar form but I have no idea. I could really use a full explanation.

 

 

 

 

Question 16:                Engineering

 

Determine the amount of excavation needed for the continuous footings shown below

 

 

Cost Analysis and Bidding- Graduate Students Assignment 3 Q1: If 1,490 compacted cubic yards of in-place soil is required for a project, how many loads of import will be required? The import material has a swell of 14 percent and shrinkage of 95 percent. The trucks can haul 12 loose cubic yards. Q2: Determine the amount of excavation needed for the continuous footings shown below. A two-foot working distance is required and the excavation will be sloped 1:1.75 (1.75 vertical feet for every horizontal foot). Also, determine the amount of backfill needed for the continuous footing and foundation in compacted cubic yards. Q3: An asphalt paving crew is used to pave a 500-foot by 300-foot parking lot. The parking lot will be paved in 12-foot-wide strips running the long (500-foot) direction. The machine paves 11 lineal feet of 12-foot-wide parking lot per minute. A single lift of asphalt will be used on the parking lot. After completing a pass, it takes the crew 10 minutes to turn the paving machine around and get ready for the next pass. The crew consists of a foreperson, six operators, and a laborer. Using a system efficiency of 50 minutes per hour, determine the number of labor hours required to place 1 lineal foot of parking lot 12 feet wide.

 

Question 17:      Finance

 

As a pratical matter, East Coast Yachts is unlikely to be willing to raise external equity captital, in part because the owners don’t want to dilute their existing ownership and control positions. However, East Coast Yachts is planning for a growth rate of 20 percent next year. What are your conclusions and recommendations about the feasibility of East Coast’s expansion plans?

Sales

Cost of goods sold

Other expenses

Depreciation

Earnings before interest and taxes

Interest

Taxable income

Taxes (40%)

Net income

Dividends   $4,759,301

Addition to retained earnings $11,103,499

$210,900,000

148,600,000

25,192,400

6,879,000

$30,229,800

3,791,000

$26,483,000

10,575,200

$15,862,800

 

Asset Liabilities
Current Asset Current liabilities
    Cash 3,285,600     Account payable $ 6,977,700
    Account receivable

Inventory

5,910,800

6,627,300

    Note payable

Total

14,342,600

21,320,300

       Total

Fixed Assets

$15,823,700 Long-term debt

Owner’s equity

36,400,000
Net plant and equipment $101,481,200     Common stock and paid-     in surplus 5,580,000
    Retained earnings 54,004,600
 

Total asset

 

117,304,900

       Total

Total liabilities and equity

59,584,600

117,304,900

 

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Question 18:      Other

 

Need help with an assignment must be 250 words with at least 3 scholarly sources must include in text citation.. Question is listed below.

Discuss the part that law enforcement and the courts played in the Civil Rights movement.

Give at least two examples.

 

Question 19:      Mathematics

 

An insurance company sells automobile liability and collision insurance. Let X denote the percentage of liability policies that

 

Question 20:      Other

 

need help with an assignment must be 250 words with at least 3 scholoary sources must have in text citation as well the question is listed below

 

Discuss the part that law enforcement and the courts played in the Civil Rights movement.

Give at least two examples.

 

Question 21:      Finance

 

  • Q (5 pts) A bank purchased $ 250 mln cap of 6% at a premium of 0.50% of face value. A $ 250 mln floor of 3% is also available at 0.40% of face value.
  • If interest rates rise to 7% what is the amount received by the bank? What is the net saving after deduction of the premium?
  • If the bank purchased also the floor what are the net savings if interest rates rise to 9%?
  • What are the net savings if interest rates fall to 3%?

Show calculations

 

Question 22:      Business

 

300-500 words (Tesla)

Be specific with concrete examples.  Outside documentation can include corporate reports (e.g. CSR) or articles documenting activities.

Give examples of how Tesla addresses:

  1. Corporate Social Responsibility (2 examples required)
  2. Environmental Sustainability (2 examples required)

If they are not involved In any activities, suggest what they might best become involved in.  Be specific with concrete examples.  Outside documentation can include corporate reports (e.g. CSR) or articles documenting activities.

 

Question 23:      History

 

Why was the Civil War fought? Was it unavoidable or could you propose a solution that would have spared bloodshed?

 

Question 24:      Other

 

2 pages give a description of the Toronto Raptors team and metrics
used to evaluate its effectiveness…..

 

 

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Question 25:      Other

 

Need help with an assignment must reply 100 words listed below.

Reply to Brandon Cart 100 words

The eyes of criminal justice should be blind regarding “race, creed or color” (Weedmark); but their eyes should be kept open to respond appropriately to the differences in culture.  Training is essential for all aspects of criminal justice in order to learn how to interact with different cultures.  Social diversity is more widespread in criminal justice than any other profession.  The American Bar Association reported that African American males have a higher incarceration and is likely to serve time in prison.  Whereas, the rate is lower for Hispanic and white males (Weedmark).

Social awareness is important because criminal justice professionals must understand multicultural differences.  When a certain group of people feel they are being alienated by the criminal justice system due to disparities, their distrust of the system is will likely increase (Weedmark).

In addition, there has always been tension between the United States regarding people of different “races, ethnicity, sexual orientation and religion” (McNamara & Burns 2009). The belief of America being a society that mixes individuals from all backgrounds and cultures in a positive manner is inaccurate.  Certain cultures who do not have certain power as a dominant group, feel they are treated differently and unjustly (McNamara & Burns 2009).

When law enforcement agencies are constantly singling out certain individuals due to their race or ethnicity (racial profiling), they are likely to have a negative view of law enforcement.  If the citizens feel law enforcement cannot be trusted or will act unjustly, officers will “lose their ability and authority to function effectively” (Race, Trust and Police Legitimacy 2016).

Quality treatment is important because individuals tend to base their opinions regarding law enforcement by their personal experiences with them.  If the encounter was a bad experience, they are likely to tell others about the encounter; which will cause many to form a negative view of law enforcement due to experiences of others (Horowitz 2007)

 

Re3ply to Melinda 100 words listed below

 

Diversity is a concept that people can embrace to increase their knowledge of different cultures to enhance being comfortable interacting and communicating with other people from different cultures (McNamara & Burns, 2009). Diversity is not an inherent characteristic of anyone, regardless of the person’s race, ethnicity, sexual orientation, or gender. Diversity is based on an individual’s ability and openness to learning. Diversity is a belief that promotes incorporating various cultures within a society’s major institutions (Yockey, 2019). This idea is usually applied to the demographics of different major organizations of cities, neighborhoods, businesses, and schools (Yockey, 2019). In a society that practices diversity, a school would represent the demographic makeup of the population of that area. The school’s population would mirror the same statistical breakdown as the population (Yockey, 2019). When diversity exists in an environment, there is a diverse presence of individuals, all of whom represent unique and different attitudes, beliefs, and characteristics.

Culture is the shared norms, behaviors, and values that are shared by people and passed on generationally over lifetimes (McNamara & Burns, 2009). An understanding of cultural diversity in the criminal justice system would reflect certain attributes such as advocacy of equal respect given to the various cultures in society, promotion of the maintenance of cultural diversity, and policies in which people of various ethnic and religious groups are addressed by the authorities that are defined by the group to which they belong (Bronsther, 2019). Cultural diversity avoids presenting any specific ethnic, religious, or cultural values as central. Culture signifies a custom of shared beliefs that are held by people who belong to the same group and their social interaction is regulated by norms that are primarily determined by their culture (McNamara & Burns, 2009). An understanding of cultural diversity is necessary for all areas of criminal justice because if society does not see all citizens in this country as Americans, then stereotypes of cultures, practices, and racial characteristics will persist (Bronsther, 2019). This will result in the continued mistreatment of people because of poor or misunderstood values, attitudes, and beliefs of members of different groups.

The criminal justice system in the United States is viewed as a functioning group of agencies that respond to and process crimes and criminals. This system relies on humans participating and interacting with one another to dispense justice fairly for all (Entrikin, 2019). When individuals working in the system interpret the laws and procedures with their personal ethnocentric views, this creates a bias against people with different cultural beliefs (Entrikin, 2019). One example of where a lack of cultural understanding could cause for there to be tension between the community and law enforcement is the way Middle Eastern people are mistreated or ostracized since the 9/11 attacks on the United States. Some people behave as if all Muslims are terrorists and treat them all as terrorists. The United States is definitely a blended society more than other countries, but not necessarily blended cohesively.

References:

Bronsther, J. (2019). Torture and respect. Journal of Criminal Law & Criminology, 109(3), 423-490. Retrieved from https://bethelu.idm.oclc.org/login?url=https://search-proquest-com.bethelu.idm.oclc.org/docview/2246152015?accountid=56725

Entrikin, J. L. (2019). The death of common law. Harvard Journal of Law and Public Policy, 42(2), 351-487. Retrieved from https://bethelu.idm.oclc.org/login?url=https://search-proquest-com.bethelu.idm.oclc.org/docview/2215510088?accountid=56725

McNamara, R. H., & Burns, R. G. (2009). Multiculturalism in the criminal justice system. New York, NY: McGraw-Hill.

 

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Question 26:      Psychology

 

1) Explain at least three lines of compelling evidence that indicate that sustained stress among humans and other mammals causes physical damage (and can cause premature death). Think telomeres, hippocampus, arteriosclerosis, etc. 2) How might maternal stress during pregnancy be linked to mental illness in offspring? 3) Explain the interactions between the nervous system, the immune system, and behavior, and describe psychoneuroimmunology’s relationship to all three. 4) Take the Social Readjustment Rating Scale (the pdf is attached. You don’t need to report your total score but describe your current status in light of the general guidelines provided on the last page of the pdf. Include reasons you feel your score may over or under predict your perceived emotional stress level (review material from Chapter 5 regarding key characteristics of potential stressors).

 

Question 27:      Psychology

 

Essay 1 Questions

 

Answer these questions in essay format, using the instructions provided in the Assignment Instructions folder. Review the Essay 1 Grading Rubric to see how your essay will be graded.

 

  1. In this question you will make up an experiment using classical conditioning. Please create an example using the following scenario.

 

Explain how you would evoke a startle response (reflex) using classical conditioning in an unsuspecting friend using an abnormal signal (produces the reflex). Describe your friend’s reflex response and a signal that will produce that reflex response; then choose another signal for the reflex and predict the outcome of using that signal. Clearly label the Unconditioned Stimulus (UCS), Unconditioned Response (UCR), Conditioned Stimulus (CS), and Conditioned Response (CR). Include a description of the setting and process for this hypothetical situation.  Below is an abbreviated example.

 

For example, every time your roommate opens the refrigerator door you make an alarm goes off on your phone and the roommate jumps. After this happens several times, the roommate will jump when they open the refrigerator door even without the alarm going off.

 

Signal (NS) Opening the refrigerator
UCS Sound of an alarm
UCR Jumps
CS Opens refrigerator
CR Jumps

 

  1. Describe how you would use operant conditioning, with a program of shaping, to get a messy roommate to make his/her bed neatly. Include and label the antecedent stimulus, response, and reinforcement of the changing program standards, and a method of self-regulation for the roommate.

 

  1. In a hypothetical psychology internship, you have encountered a child with destructive tendencies. She bites herself, her dog, and your bag of supplies. Being afraid for her safety and your own well-being, you institute a plan to change her behavior. Suggest a punishment, with her possible reactions to that punishment. Then, try substituting an alternative behavior by reinforcing an incompatible response. Label the antecedent stimulus for the biting response, Punishment I or II, escape or avoidance, and the reinforcement for the new named response. What do you consider to be the best theory or method for improving this child’s behavior?

 

  1. Give an example of a situation where you can model more effective behavior for someone whom you could positively influence. Describe in detail: yourself (the model), the observer, the behavior, and the reinforcement using at least 5 principles of Social Learning Theory.

 

This assignment is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.

 

 

 

Question 28:                Business

 

I need understanding of what to do.. I’m not sure how to start it and I have a hard time understanding what exactly what to do with this Microsoft Project Software for this particular project.

I need a tutorial if possible.

 

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Project Instructions

The project for this class is the “Red Zuma Project,” discussed in the Larson and Gray textbook pg 621. Refer to your textbook for all instructions for this assignment. This project will be divided into 2 submissions:

  • Project Submission 1 will consist of Parts 1–2.
  • Project Submission 2 will consist of Parts 3–4.

 

You must submit a Microsoft Word file that contains properly labeled sections, (that includes appropriate screen shots from Microsoft Project), answers all the questions, AND contains all your completed Microsoft Project files.

 

It is very important that you label your work as you are answering the questions and preparing your various tables, charts, and diagrams. Credit will only be given to the work that is clearly marked and organized.

 

Project Submission 1 is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.

Project Submission 2 is due by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 7.

 

Question 29:      Psychology

 

Discussion Board Forum 3– MUST BE 300 words

 

 

Dual-Store Model of Memory

Question/Prompt: Discuss all 3 components of the Dual-Store Model of Memory. Give an example of the development of a piece of information through all 3 structures of your memory according to the Dual-Store Model. At each stage, give the verbal or visual stimulus and the cognitive processing for transferring information between stages. Include clear biblical principles in your response.

 

Question 30:      Business

 

Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml),

Write a four to six 4 page paper in which you:

  1. Assess how globalization and technology changes have impacted the corporation you researched.
  2. Apply the industrial organization model and the resource-based model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns.
  3. Assess how the vision statement and mission statement of the corporation influence its overall success.
  4. Evaluate how each category of stakeholder impacts the overall success of this corporation.
  5. Use at least three (3) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources.

 

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Determine ways in which the vision, mission, and stakeholders of a firm impact that firm’s overall success.

  • Use technology and information resources to research issues in business administration.
  • Write clearly and concisely about business administration using proper writing mechanics.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Week 3 Assignment 1

Student Full Name

Strayer University

BUS499 Business Administration Capstone

Dr. Grizzell

Dr. Gardner

Date

Everything in Blue should be deleted

Due Week 3 and worth 115 points

Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. For a list of companies you can choose from, go to https://www.forbes.com/top-public-companies/list/5/#tab:overall . Research the company on its own website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other credible sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions.

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Read chapters 1 -3 in the course textbook and complete the LEARN E-Activities for Weeks 1-3 as they set the foundation to this assignment. Be sure to cite your sources!

Begin your paper on Page 2 below and write a minimum of four (4) pages. The minimum page count does not include the Title or Source pages.

 

Week 3 Assignment 1

Write your introduction here. Include one (1) paragraph (not more than 6 lines of text) that explains what your paper will discuss. Much of your introduction may be taken from the assignment instructions (in your own words). Read all assignment resources to understand what should be included in your paper. Be sure to review the assignment instructions in Blackboard, the grading rubric, and the recorded writing workshop to understand the requirements. Do not exceed 6 lines of text in this introduction. There should be no direct quotes in this introduction.

Globalization

Thoroughly assess how globalization has impacted the corporation you researched. Provide a thoughtful and well researched response. Consider for example, how your chosen company has been involved in expanding globally, how it has been impacted by global competition, and the global economy. Do not simply define the term globalization. You will need to conduct an assessment (i.e. an evaluation) of the impact globalization has had on your selected corporation.

Your assessment/evaluation should demonstrate that you have read, understand, and can apply the globalization concepts covered in the textbook and course resources. Do not write about globalization in general terms. Your assessment should be directly related to your selected corporation. If your company has locations in other countries, do not simply list the various countries in which the company does business. Your writing here should thoroughly assess how globalization has impacted your chosen corporation. Do not Google “globalization” or simply provide a definition. You must display an understanding based on what is studied in this course and an ability to apply the concepts in a real-world evaluation of a corporation.

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Your textbook must be a source along with other credible sources that support the globalization concepts covered in this course. Read Chapters 1-3 in the course text book as each chapter provides a solid background and clues on Globalization that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 & 2 Learn video Lectures for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid or limit the use of direct quotes.

Technology

Thoroughly assess how technological changes have impacted the corporation you researched. Provide a thoughtful and well researched response. Consider for example, how the company has been impacted by cloud computing, social media, crowdfunding, program apps, email, texting, websites, mobile, automation, robotics, IOT (Internet of Things), AI (Artificial Intelligence), e-commerce, data and analytics, etc. Research how the company may have been impacted by diffusion and disruptive technologies as explained in the textbook. Do not simply define the term technology. You will need to conduct an assessment (i.e. an evaluation) of the impact changes in technology have had on your selected corporation.

Your assessment/evaluation should demonstrate that you have read, understand, and can apply the concept of technology covered in the textbook and course resources. Do not write about technology in general terms. Your assessment should be directly related to your selected corporation. If your company is technologically advanced, do not simply list the various technologies they possess but rather evaluate how changes in technology have impacted the corporation. You must display an understanding based on what is studied in this course and an ability to apply the concepts in a real-world evaluation of a corporation. Do not Google “technology” or simply provide a definition. Your writing here should thoroughly assess how changes in technology have impacted your chosen corporation.

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Your textbook must be a source along with other credible sources that support the technology concepts covered in this course. You must display an understanding based on what is studied in this course. Read Chapters 1-3 in the course text book as each chapter provides a solid background and clues on Technology that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 & 2 Learn video Lectures for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid or limit the use of direct quotes.

Industrial Organization Model

Thoroughly apply the industrial organization model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns (i.e. revenue). This model is based upon the corporation’s external environment which is anything outside of the corporation that can influence or impact its business (macro)/operations (micro). Your application should walk through what the model suggests is needed to earn above average returns (hint: see figure 1.2 in the textbook). Do not Google “Industrial Organization Model” or simply provide a definition or write in general terms. Your writing here should apply the model to your specific corporation, demonstrate your understanding of the concepts, as described in this course, and your ability to apply those concepts to a real-world corporation. Read Chapter 1 in the course text book as it provides a solid background and clues on this model that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid the use of direct quotes.

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Resource-Based Model

Thoroughly apply the resource-based model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns (i.e. revenue). Consider the corporation’s unique resources (corporate culture, land, location, equipment, brand, reputation, trademarks, patents, etc.) and capabilities (skills, experience, capabilities, etc. that set it apart from its competition). Your application should walk through what the model suggests is needed to earn superior returns (hint: see figure 1.3 in the textbook). Do not Google “Resource-Based Model” or simply provide a definition or write in general terms. Your writing here should apply the model to your specific corporation, demonstrate your understanding of the concepts, as described in this course, and your ability to apply those concepts to a real-world corporation. Read Chapter 1 in the course text book as it provides a solid background and clues on this model that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid the use of direct quotes.

Vision

Thoroughly assess how the vision statement of the corporation influences its overall success. Include the actual vision statement for your chosen company (be sure to quote and cite per SWS or APA). Consider the key concepts discussed in chapter 1 regarding vision in your assessment of your selected corporation’s vision statement. Do not simply provide a definition of vision or general statements. In addition to the actual vision statement for your corporation, your writing must demonstrate that you understand the concept of vision, as discussed in this course, and can assess the impact your corporation’s vision statement has on its overall success. Read Chapter 1 in the course text book as it provides a solid background and clues on vision that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources.

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Mission

Thoroughly assess how the mission statement of the corporation influences its overall success. Include the actual mission statement for your chosen company (be sure to quote and cite per SWS or APA). Consider the key concepts discussed in chapter 1 regarding mission in your assessment of your selected corporation’s mission statement. Do not simply provide a definition of mission or general statements. In addition to the mission statement of your selected corporation, your writing must demonstrate that you understand the concept of mission, as discussed in this course, and can assess the impact your corporation’s mission statement has on its overall success. Read Chapter 1 in the course text book as it provides a solid background and clues on mission that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources.

Stakeholders

Thoroughly evaluate how each category of stakeholder impacts the overall success of your selected corporation. Do not Google “stakeholders” and simply provide a definition or list. You must provide an evaluation that demonstrates your understanding of each classification of stakeholders, as described in this course. Do not write in general terms about stakeholders. Your evaluation must describe how each classification of stakeholders impacts your selected corporation’s success (hint: see figure 1.4 in the textbook). Study Chapter 1 for additional background on Stakeholders as it provides a solid background on stakeholders that apply to this section. Review the Week 1 Learn video Lecture for supporting content. Cite your sources and avoid the use of direct quotes.

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Sources

Hitt, M. A., Ireland, R. D., & Hoskisson, R. E. (2013). Strategic management: Concepts and cases: Competiveness and globalization (10th ed.). Mason, OH: South-Western Cengage Learning.

 

List your sources on this page and remember to delete the instructions, which are in blue font.

Use at least three (3) quality sources, one of which must be the course text book to support your ideas/work. Note: Wikipedia and college essay sites do not qualify as academic resources.

Cite your sources throughout your work when you borrow someone else’s words or ideas.

The source page must include all sources used.  All sources listed here must be cited in your paper.

Look for a permalink tool for a webpage when possible (especially when an electronic

source requires logging in).

When using SWS remember to organize sources in a numbered list and in order of use throughout the paper; use the original number when citing a source multiple times; and follow this format for all sources:

Author. Publication Date. Title. Page # (written as p. #). How to Find (e.g. web address)

The APA format may also be used for a Reference page.

 

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Questions to ask yourself before submitting your paper.

  • Did I read the required course material and complete the required activities?
  • Have I deleted the blue font instructions in this template?
  • Did I leave the provided section headings in place, as provided in this template?
  • After deleting the blue fonts in this template, have I changed all font to black?

Additional things to keep in mind.

  • You will be graded on the quality of your answers, the logic/organization of the report, your language skills, and your writing skills using the grading rubric.
  • Strayer uses SafeAssign – an automated plagiarism checker. It is advised that you do your own writing and use external resources to support what you have written in your own words.

 

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Question 1:        Communications

 

MGTS2606 Individual Assignment Final (USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

 

Question 2:        Health Care.

 

NUR 460 review-exam-spring-semester-2018(893 questions)

 

Question 3:        Health Care

 

Final Exam Nurs 6531

 

When completing this quiz, did you comply with Walden University’s Code of Conduct including the expectations for academic integrity? Answer YES

 

Question 4:        Health Care

 

Walden University NURS 6630 midterm

 

QUESTION 1

  1. A noncompliant patient states, “Why do you want me to put this poison in my body?” Identify the best response made by the psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner (PMHNP).

A.

“You have to take your medication to become stable.”

B.

“Most medications will increase the number of neurotransmitters that you already have in the brain.”

C.

“Most medications used in treatment are either increasing or decreasing neurotransmitters that your body already has.”

D.

“Why do you believe that your medication is poison?”   I received 0/1 for this answer??

1 points

 

 

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QUESTION 2

  1. Which statement about neurotransmitters and medications is true? My correct answer was several psychiatric meds were developed after discovery of endogenous neurotransmitters.   (The answer wording is different.

A.

Natural neurotransmitters such as endorphins have been discovered after the development of medications.

B.

Some medications were developed after the discovery and known action of the neurotransmitters in the brain.

C.

Neurotransmitters receive messages from most medications.

D.

The neurotransmitter serotonin is directly linked to depression. Following this discovery, the antidepressant Prozac was developed.

1 points

QUESTION 3

  1. When an unstable patient asks why it is necessary to add medications to his current regimen, the PMHNP’s best response would be:

A.

“In an extreme case such as yours, more than one medication is often needed.”

B.

“Due to the ineffectiveness of your current medication, we need to try something else that can possibly potentiate its effects.

C.

“Medications are often specific to the neurotransmitter(s) they are affecting and, due to more than one neurotransmitter involvement, it is often necessary to use more than one medication to improve symptoms.”

D.

“I understand your concern. We can discontinue your current medication and switch to a different one that may better manage your symptoms.”

1 points

QUESTION 4 ?

  1. During gene expression, what must occur prior to a gene being expressed?

A.

Transcription factor must bind to the regulatory region within the cell’s nucleus.

B.

RNA must be converted to mRNA.

C.

The coding region must separate from the regulatory region.    This is wrong

D.

RNA polymerase must inhibit the process of changing RNA to mRNA.

1 points

 

 

 

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  1. While genes have potential to modify behavior, behavior can also modify genes. How do genes impact this process?

A.

Genes impact neuron functioning directly.

B.

Changes made to proteins lead to changes in behavior.

C.

Neurons are able to impact protein synthesis.

D.

Genes impact the DNA of a cell, leading to changes in behavior.

1 points

QUESTION 6

  1. Though medications have the ability to target neurotransmitters in the synapse, it is not always necessary. The PMHNP understands that this is because:

A.

Neurotransmission that occurs via the axon allows for transport of a neurotransmitter.

B.

Active transport is a different type of energy that allows the transport of certain neurotransmitters.

C.

Neurotransmitters can spread by diffusion.

D.

The postsynaptic neuron can release the neurotransmitter.

1 points

QUESTION 7

  1. Why is the cytochrome P450 enzyme system of significance to the PMHNP?

A.

The kidneys play a role with excretion of the medication, and if a patient has kidney damage, the dose must be increased to be effective.

B.

The bioavailability of the medication after it passes through the stomach and liver can be altered.    Correct answer

C.

The medication’s chemical composition changes when it comes in contact with the acid in the stomach.

D.

The CYP enzyme system is a steady and predictable process that prescribers must understand to treat conditions effectively.

1 points

QUESTION 8

  1. It is important for the PMHNP to recognize differences in pharmacokinetics to safely prescribe and monitor medications. Which of the following statements does the competent PMHNP identify as true?

A.

About 1 out of 5 Asians requires l

lower-than-normal doses of some antidepressants and antipsychotics.

B.

The term polymorphic refers to the body’s ability to break a medication down several ways, and this patient may require higher doses of certain antidepressants and antipsychotics.

C.

About 1 out of 30 Caucasians requires lower doses of some antidepressants and antipsychotics.

D.

Most enzyme pathways do not have interactions between the newer medications.

1 points  

 

 

 

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QUESTION 9

1.      As it relates to G-protein linked receptors, what does the PMHNP understand about medications that are used in practice?

A.

Most medications that act on G-protein linked receptors have antagonistic traits.

B.

The majority of medications used in practice are full agonists and are used to stimulate the body’s natural neurotransmitters.

C.

Most medications act as partial agonists because they allow the body to use only what is needed.

D.

Medications used in practice may act as inverse agonists if the dosage is too high.

1 points  

QUESTION 10

1.      The PMHNP is considering prescribing a 49-year-old male clozapine (Clozaril) to treat his schizophrenia and suicidal ideations. The PMHNP is aware that which factor may impact the dose needed to effectively treat his condition:

A.

The patient smokes cigarettes.    This is correct!

B.

The patient has hypertension.

C.

The patient has chronic kidney disease, stage 2.

D.

The patient drinks a cup of coffee a day.

1 points  

QUESTION 11

1.      A patient is diagnosed with bipolar disorder and is currently taking carbamazepine (Tegretol), aripiprazole (Abilify), and melatonin. The PMHNP has just written an order to discontinue the carbamazepine (Tegretol) for drug-induced thrombocytopenia. The PMHNP is aware that his next best action is to:

A.

Alert staff to possible seizures

B.

Write an order for a different mood stabilizer For some reason I got 0/1 points for this??

C.

Decrease the amount prescribed for aripiprazole (Abilify)

D.

Explain to the patient that it will be more difficult to control his temper

1 points  

QUESTION 12

1.      A patient recently transferred following a suicide attempt has a history of schizophrenia, depression, and fibromyalgia. He is currently taking Amitriptyline (Elavil), Lisinopril, aspirin, and fluoxetine (Prozac). Which is the best action for the PMHNP to take for this patient?

A.

Review Amitriptyline (Elavil) level  Correct answer

B.

Order a liver function test

C.

Check the patient’s blood pressure and pulse

D.

Order a stat platelet count

1 points  

QUESTION 13

1.      A patient with schizophrenia is given an inverse agonist that acts on the receptor 5HT and neurotransmitter serotonin. What is the rationale for prescribing a medication such as this?

A.

To promote the availability of serotonin

B.

To decrease serotonin

C.

To indirectly increase the amount of dopamine in the body

D.

To help decrease the amount of serotonin and dopamine

1 points  

QUESTION 14

1.      The PMHNP is caring for four patients. Which patient statement indicates that benzodiazepines would be beneficial?

A.

“I have trouble staying asleep in the middle of the night.”

B.

“My spouse told me that I seem to have trouble remembering things sometimes.”

C.

“I really want to stop smoking, but the cravings are too strong.”

D.

“I feel nervous to go outside and be in large crowds.”

1 points  

 

 

 

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QUESTION 15

1.      Ms. Harlow is a 42-year-old patient who is prescribed a drug that acts on ionotropic receptors. She is curious about the effects of the drug and how it will act on her symptoms. Which statement made by the PMHNP demonstrates proper understanding of Ms. Harlow’s prescription?

A.

“The drug will have an almost immediate effect.”

B.

“The drug can take a while to build up in your system.” 

C.

“The drug is slow to release but lasts for a long time.”  

D.

“The drug will make a subtle difference in your symptoms.” 

1 points  

QUESTION 16

1.      A patient is seeking pharmacological treatment for smoking cessation. Which drug class does the PMHNP prescribe to the patient?

A.

Benzodiazepine

B.

Mirtazapine (Remeron)

C.

Ketamine

D.

Varenicline (Chantix)

1 points  

QUESTION 17

1.      The PMHNP is caring for a new patient who has been transferred from another office. When meeting with the new patient, the patient reports, “I feel like I am improving with the stabilizers.” The PMHNP immediately recognizes that the patient is describing which kind of drug?

A.

Full agonists

B.

Antagonists

C.

Partial agonists

D.

Inverse agonists

1 points  

QUESTION 18

1.      A patient presents with frequent episodes of mania. Which statement describes an appropriate treatment approach for this patient?

A.

“The patient needs to have an inverse agonist.”

B.

“The patient could benefit from an anticonvulsant.”  

C.

“The patient’s calcium, sodium, chloride, and potassium levels must be regulated.” 

D.

“The patient should have a drug that acts on ligand-gated ion channels.”

1 points  

QUESTION 19

1.      The PHMNP is caring for a patient who would benefit from nicotine cholinergic, serotonin 3, or glycine receptors. What kind of agent does the PHMNP want to prescribe for this patient?

A.

Ligand-gated ion channels with a pentameric structure

B.

Ligand-gated ion channels with a tetrameric structure

C.

Voltage-sensitive ion channels

D.

Anticonvulsants

1 points  

QUESTION 20  ?

1.      Which statement made by the patient suggests the patient will need to be treated with antipsychotics that target paranoid psychosis?

A.

“It’s my fault that all of this is happening. I don’t think I could ever forgive myself.”  Not correct

B.

“I have to talk to the President because I’m the only one who can help him.”

C.

“I’m not sure why that lady is wearing a red jacket since it’s the dogs who need food.”

D.

“I don’t know that I even want to go to that meeting. It doesn’t seem worth it anymore.”

1 points  

QUESTION 21

1.      A patient has been treated with a number of novel psychotropic drugs. How is it theoretically possible to identify cognitive improvement in the patient using neuropsychological assessment batteries after the pharmacologic therapy?    I did not have this question

A.

Obtaining raw normative metrics and using them to assess functionality

B.

Having the patient report on cognitive function based on personal experiences

C.

Monitoring the patient in a controlled setting 

D.

Measuring symptoms of psychosis

1 points  

QUESTION 22

1.      Mr. McCullin is 64 years old with Parkinson’s disease. The PMHNP caring for Mr. McCullin wants to start him on a dopamine agonist to help manage and treat his condition. The PHMNP selects this agent because of which action it has on patients like Mr. McCullin?

A.

Dopamine is terminated through multiple mechanisms.

B.

The D2 autoreceptor regulates release of dopamine from the presynaptic neuron.

C.

MAO-B presents in the mitochondria within the presynaptic neuron.

D.

D2 receptors are the primary binding site for dopamine agonists.   Correct answer

1 points  

QUESTION 23

1.      Mrs. Trevor is a 44-year-old patient who does not have a diagnosis of schizophrenia but occasionally reports symptoms of psychosis, followed by severe fatigue. Mrs. Trevor inquires about the use of amphetamines to help with her energy levels. Which response made by the PMHNP is most appropriate?

A.

“Amphetamines may help you, as they can alleviate psychotic conditions.”

B.

“Amphetamines can inhibit negative symptoms of schizophrenia, so this might be a good choice for you.”

C.

“Amphetamines can cause hallucinations, so I would advise against this type of prescription.”Correct

D.

“Amphetamines can lead to a dopamine deficiency, so I will not prescribe this for you.”

1 points  

 

 

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QUESTION 24

1.      The PMHNP is caring for a patient with schizophrenia and is considering a variety of treatment approaches. The PHMNP selects a viable treatment that is consistent with the “dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia.” What action does the PMHNP anticipate this treatment having on the patient?

A.

Blocking the release of dopamine facilitates the onset of positive schizophrenia symptoms.

B.

Hyperactivity in the mesolimbic dopamine pathway mediates the positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

C.

Antipsychotic drugs that open D2 receptor pathways can treat schizophrenia.

D.

The neuroanatomy of dopamine neuronal pathways can explain symptoms of schizophrenia.

1 points  

QUESTION 25

1.      A patient is diagnosed with schizophrenia. What increases the patient’s potential to mediate the cognitive symptoms of the disease?

A.

Achieving underactivity of the mesocorticol projections to the prefrontal cortex

B.

Achieving overactivity of the mesocorticol projections to the ventromedial prefrontal cortex

C.

Achieving underactivity of the mesocortical projections to the ventromedial prefrontal cortex

D.

Achieving overactivity of the mesocorticol projections to the prefrontal cortex

1 points  

QUESTION 26

1.      The PMNHP is assessing a 29-year-old patient who takes antipsychotics that block D2 receptors. What patient teaching should the PMHNP include related to the possible side effects of this type of drug?

A.

Hypersexuality

B.

Amenorrhea

C.

Dystonia

D.

Tardive dyskinesia   correct answer

A.

 

1 points  

QUESTION 27

1.      The PMHNP is caring for a patient who is taking antipsychotics heard the psychiatrist tell the patient that the patient would be placed on a different antipsychotic agent. Which of the following requires the longest transition time for therapeutic benefit?Not on my test

Olanzapine to clozapine

B.

Asenapine to Risperidone

C.

Aripripazole to ziprasidone

D.

Aripripazole to clozapine

1 points  

QUESTION 28

1.      The PMHNP is assessing a patient who has cirrhosis of the liver and anticipates that the patient will be prescribed an antipsychotic. Which medication does the PMHNP suspect will be ordered for this patient?Not on my test

A.

Quetiapine

B.

Paliperidone

C.

Lurasidone

D.

Clozapine

1 points  

QUESTION 29

1.      Which statement made by the PMHNP exemplifies correct teaching of physiological effects in the body?

A.

Muscarinic antagonists are more likely to cause decreased prolactin levels.

B.

D2 antagonists decrease the likelihood of EPS symptoms.

C.

D2 antagonism is linked to antidepressant properties.

D.

D2 partial agonists are associated with increased efficacy in treating positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

1 points  

QUESTION 30

1.      Mrs. Schwartzman is a 52-year-old patient with schizophrenia and no established history of depression. When meeting with the PMHNP, she presents with apathy and withdrawn social behavior, and she reports a loss of joy from enjoyable activities. What does the PMHNP infer from this encounter with the patient?

A.

An underlying depressive disorder

B.

The recent change of a 2nd generation antipsychotic to a conventional one   This is correct

C.

The recent change of a 1st generation antipsychotic to a 2nd generation antipsychotic

D.

All of the above

1 points  

QUESTION 31

1.      The PMHNP is taking a history on a patient who has been on antipsychotics for many years. Which risk factors are most likely to contribute to a person developing tardive dyskinesia (TD)?Not on mytest

A.

Long-term use of antipsychotics

B.

Genetic disposition

C.

Age

D.

A and C

2333326

 

E.

All of the above

1 points

QUESTION 32

  1. The student inquires about antipsychotic medications. Which response by the PMHNP describes nthe factors that contribute to reduced risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) for patients who take antipsychotics?

A.

Those that are potent D2 antagonists

B.

Those that are potent D2 antagonists with 5HT2A antagonism properties

C.

D2 receptors that are blocked in the nigrostriatal pathway

D.

Potent D2 antagonists that block the muscarinic anti-M1 cholinergic receptors

1 points

QUESTION 33

  1. Mr. Gordon is a middle-aged patient who is taking antipsychotics. When meeting with the PMHNP, he reports positive responses to the medication, stating, “I really feel as though the effects of my depression are going away.” Which receptor action in antipsychotic medications is believed to be the most beneficial in producing the effects described by Mr. Gordon?

A.

5HT2 antagonism

B.

D2 antagonismThis was wrong  0/1

C.

Alpha-2 antagonism

D.

D2 partial agonist

1 points

QUESTION 34

  1. A patient who was recently admitted to the psychiatric nursing unit is being treated for bipolar disorder. Which neurotransmitter is the PMHNP most likely to target with pharmaceuticals?

A.

Norepinephrine

B.

Dopamine

C.

Serotonin

D.

A and C

 

 

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E.

All of the above

1 points

QUESTION 35

  1. Ms. Ryerson is a 28-year-old patient with a mood disorder. She recently requested to transfer to a new PMHNP, after not getting along well with her previous provider. The new PHMNP is reviewing Ms. Ryerson’s medical chart prior to their first appointment. Upon review, the PMHNP sees that the former provider last documented “patient had rapid poop out.” What does the PMHNP infer about the patient’s prescription based on this documentation?

A.

The patient has an unsustained response to antidepressants.

B.

The patient has antidepressant-induced hypomania.

C.

The patient has a depletion of monoamine neurotransmitters.

D.

The patient has an adverse effect to atypical antipsychotics.

1 points

QUESTION 36

  1. The PMHNP recognizes that which patient would be contraindicated for antidepressant monotherapy?

A.

Patient with a bipolar I designationI don’t know why but this was marked 0/1 for me

B.

Patient with a bipolar II designation

C.

Patient with a bipolar III designation

D.

None of the above

1 points

QUESTION 37

  1. Why does the PMHNP avoid treating a patient with cyclothymia, and has major depressive episodes, with antidepressant monotherapy?Not on my test

A.

The patient may experience paranoid avoidant behavior.

B.

The patient may experience severe depression.

C.

The patient may experience auditory hallucinations.

D.

The patient may experience increased mood cycling.

1 points

QUESTION 38

  1. The PMHNP is caring for a patient with the s genotype of SERT. What does the PMHNP understand regarding this patient’s response to selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)/SNRI treatment?

A.

The patient has a higher chance of tolerating SSRI/SNRI treatment.

B.

The patient will have a positive response to SSRI/SNRI treatment.

C.

The patient will develop severe mood cycling in response to treatment.

D.

The patient may be less responsive or tolerant to the treatment.

1 points

QUESTION 39

  1. Ms. Boeckh is a 42-year-old patient with major depression. The PMHNP understands that which action of norepinephrine will affect Ms. Boeckh’s serotonin levels?

A.

Norepinephrine potentiates 5HT release through a2 postsynaptic receptors.

B.

Norepinephrine inhibits 5HT release through a2 receptors.

C.

Norepinephrine inhibits α2 receptors on axon terminals.

D.

Norepinephrine potentiates 5HT release through a1 and a2 receptors.

1 points

QUESTION 40

  1. Which statement made by the PMHNP correctly describes the relationship between NE neurons and pharmaceutical treatment?

A.

“Drugs inhibit the release of NE.”

B.

“Drugs can mimic the natural functioning of the NE neuron.”

C.

“Drugs are unable to simulate the effects of NE neurons.”

D.

“Drugs prevent the natural functioning of the NE neuron by stopping the presynaptic a2 neuron.”

1 points

QUESTION 41

  1. The PMHNP is assessing a patient in the psychiatric emergency room. The patient tells the PMHNP that he does not understand why his depression has not lifted after being on four different antidepressants over the course of a year. Which of the following symptoms can be residual symptoms for patients who do not achieve remission with major depressive disorder?

A.

Insomnia

B.

Suicidal ideation

C.

Problems concentrating

D.

A and C

1 points

QUESTION 42

  1. Fluoxetine (Prozac) has been prescribed for a patient. Which of the following statements is true regarding the action of this medication?

A.

Neuronal firing rates are not dysregulated in depression.

B.

Blocking the presynaptic SERT will immediately lead to a great deal of serotonin in many synapses.

C.

Upon the acute administration of a SSRI, 5HT decreases.

D.

The action at the somatodendritic end of the serotonin neuron may best explain the therapeutic action of SSRIs.   Correct

1 points

QUESTION 43

  1. The nurse educator knows that teaching was effective when one of the students compares fluvoxamine to sertraline and notes which of the following similarities?I had different answer choicesthe correct answer was  Both have actions at sigma receptors that contribute to both anxiolytic and antipsychotic effects

A.

Both have a sedative-like, calming effect.

B.

Both contribute to antipsychotic actions.

C.

Both demonstrate favorable findings in treating depression in the elderly.

D.

Both are known for causing severe withdrawal symptoms such as dizziness, restlessness, and akathisia.

1 points

QUESTION 44

  1. A 45-year-old female patient with allergic rhinitis and normal blood pressure has had no reduction in depressive symptoms after trying bupropion, paroxetine, and venlafaxine. What precautions are needed in considering monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI) in treating her depression?

A.

Since all MAOIs require dietary restrictions, the patient will need to avoid all cheeses and aged, smoked, or fermented meats.

B.

The patient cannot take any antihistamines.

C.

The patient cannot have two wisdom teeth extracted while on a MAnOI.

D.

The patient will need to minimize dietary intake of foods such as tap and unpasteurized beer, aged cheeses, and soy products/tofu.

1 points

QUESTION 45

  1. After sitting in on an interdisciplinary treatment team meeting, the student nurse asks the instructor to explain a system-based approach to the treatment of depression. What is the appropriate response?

A.

Symptoms help create a diagnosis, then symptoms are deconstructed into a list of specific symptoms experienced by a patient.

B.

Symptoms are matched first with the brain circuits that hypothetically mediate them and then with the known neuropharmacological regulation of these circuits by neurotransmitters.

C.

Treatment options that target neuropharmacological mechanisms are selected to eliminate symptoms one by one.

D.

All of the above.

1 points

QUESTION 46

  1. A 51-year-old female patient presents with symptoms of depression, including lack of motivation and difficulty sleeping. What risk factors would increase her vulnerability for a diagnosis of depression?

A.

First onset in puberty or early adulthood

B.

Late onset of menses

C.

Premenstrual syndrome

D.

A and C

1 points

QUESTION 47

  1. A nurse overhears that a patient has failed single therapy with an SSRI and SNRI. She also learns that the patient has been on dual SSRI/SNRI therapy without adequate symptom control. She approaches the PMHNP and asks what the next treatment option could be in this seemingly treatment-resistant patient. The PMHNP tells the nurse she will treat the patient with the following regimen:

A.

MAOI plus SNRI

B.

SSRI/SNRI plus NDRI

C.

NDRI/SNRI plus mirtazapine

D.

NDRI plus modafinil

1 points

*Q/UESTION 48

  1. Mrs. Radcliff is a 42-year-old patient who is considering stopping paroxetine. Why does her PMHNP advise against this abrupt discontinuation of the medicine?

A.

She may experience withdrawal symptoms.

B.

She may experience increased trauma.

C.

Effects of abrupt cessation are unknown.

D.

It can lead to difficulties with concentration.

1 points

QUESTION 49

  1. A patient is prescribed fluoxetine but is concerned about the side effects. Which statement demonstrates accurate patient teaching when discussing the side effects associated with fluoxetine?

A.

Weight gain can be problematic.

B.

Sedation is very common.

C.

Induction of mania is rare.

D.

Seizures are not unusual.

1 points

QUESTION 50

  1. The PMHNP is caring for a patient with anxiety who develops mild to moderate hepatic impairment. Which action does the PMHNP take regarding the use of venlafaxine?

A.

Stop the venlafaxine

B.

Lower the dose of venlafaxine by 50%

C.

Lower the dose of venlafaxine by 25-40%

D.

Increase the dose of venlafaxine by 50%

1 points

 

 

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QUESTION 51

  1. A 25-year-old female patient is being prescribed milnacipran to treat fibromyalgia, and expresses concern regarding “how she will feel and look” from taking the medicine. Which statement correctly describes the side effects as a result of taking this medication?

A.

It can affect her menstruation.

B.

Suicidality can be common among young adults.

C.

Sedation may be problematic.

D.

Weight gain is unusual.

1 points

QUESTION 52

  1. Mr. Ruby is a 33-year-old single father who is requesting pharmacological intervention to treat his fibromyalgia. The PMHNP sees in the medical chart that he has a recent diagnosis of arrhythmia and a BMI of 29. During his assessment, the PMHNP learns that Mr. Ruby works 40-50 hours a week as a contractor and “manages his stress” by smoking 3-4 cigarettes a day and having 8-10 drinks of alcohol each week. Why would duloxetine be contraindicated for Mr. Ruby?

A.

He has fibromyalgia.

B.

He has arrhythmia.

C.

He uses alcohol.

D.

He is overweight.

1 points

QUESTION 53

  1. A patient is prescribed sertraline to treat panic disorder. Knowing that sertraline can initially cause anxiety or insomnia, what should the PMHNP do?

A.

Prescribe long-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then increase the dose.

B.

Prescribe short-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then discontinue.

C.

Prescribe long-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then discontinue.

D.

Prescribe short-acting benzodiazepine for 2 weeks, then increase the dose.

1 points

QUESTION 54

  1. A patient is prescribed 50 mg of desvenlafaxine to take every other day for major depressive disorder. What does the PMHNP understand about this patient?

A.

The patient has hepatic impairment.

B.

The patient has moderate renal impairment.

C.

The patient has severe renal impairment.

D.

The patient has cardiac impairment.

1 points

QUESTION 55

  1. The PMHNP understands that which mechanism contributes to a worse tolerability profile for patients taking tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)?

A.

Histamine H1 receptor blockade can cause insomnia.

B.

Muscarinic M1 receptor blockade causes blurred vision.

C.

Alpha 1 adrenergic receptor blockade causes weight gain.

D.

Muscarinic M3 receptor blockade causes sedation.

1 points

QUESTION 56

  1. A patient who was prescribed an MAO inhibitor is learning about dietary modifications. Which statement made by the PMHNP demonstrates proper teaching of the food-drug interactions for MAO inhibitors?

A.

“You must avoid soy products, such as tofu.”

B.

“You should not consume processed meats.”

C.

“You may consume fermented foods, like sauerkraut.”

D.

“You may continue to drink beers on tap.”

1 points

QUESTION 57

  1. A patient who is prescribed MAO inhibitors asks about whether he can continue taking pseudoephedrine to relieve his congestion. Which response by the PMHNP indicates proper understanding of drug-drug interactions?

A.

“Decongestants are fine to continue taking with MAO inhibitors.”

B.

“Decongestants are okay to take with MAO inhibitors in moderation.”

C.

“Decongestants should be avoided due to risk of serotonin syndrome.”

D.

“Decongestants should be avoided due to risk of hypertensive crisis.” Correct

1 points

QUESTION 58

  1. Ms. Skidmore presents for a follow-up appointment after being prescribed phenelzine (Nardil), and reports “I take my 45 mg pill, three times a day, just like I’m supposed to.” What does the PMHNP understand about this patient?

A.

Ms. Skidmore is taking the correct dose of phenelzine (Nardil).This was marked 0/1 for me

B.

Ms. Skidmore is not taking enough of the phenelzine (Nardil); she should be taking three times that amount.

C.

Ms. Skidmore is taking too much of the phenelzine (Nardil); she should be taking the 45 mg in three doses.This is probably the right answer

D.

Ms. Skidmore is taking too much of the phenelzine (Nardil); she is supposed to take 45 mg every 24 hours.

1 points

QUESTION 59

  1. The PMHNP is caring for several patients who present with various symptoms and health issues. For which patient does the PMHNP prescribe pregabalin (Lyrica)?

A.

Patient with PTSD

B.

Patient with partial seizures

C.

Patient with galactose intolerance

D.

Patient with Lapp lactase deficiency

1 points

QUESTION 60

  1. Mr. Gutier is 72 years old with anxiety and depressive symptoms. His PMHNP is prescribing lorazepam (Ativan). What does the PMHNP understand regarding this prescription?

A.

The PMHNP will prescribe less than 2-6 mg for Mr. Gutier to take daily.

B.

The PMHNP will require Mr. Gutier to take 2-4 doses of lorazepam (Ativan) per day.

C.

The PMHNP will prescribe more than 2-6 mg for Mr. Gutier to take daily.

D.

The PMHNP will have Mr. Gutier take 6 mg of lorazepam (Ativan) as a PRN.

1 points

QUESTION 61

  1. A patient is being prescribed a sedating antidepressant, but is concerned about weight gain. Which medication is most likely to be prescribed to addresses the patient’s concerns?

A.

mirtazapine (Remeron)

B.

doxepin (Silenor)

C.

alprazolam (Xanax)

D.

trazadone (Oleptro)

1 points

QUESTION 62

  1. A patient who was diagnosed with bipolar disorder without mania, asks the PMHNP why he is being prescribed a mood stabilizer. What is the appropriate response?

A.

Mood stabilizers are only prescribed to treat manic phases of bipolar depression

B.

Mood stabilizers can consistently treat both mania and bipolar depression

C.

Mood stabilizers can target mania and mania relapse and also reduce symptoms of bipolar depression and relapse of bipolar depression symptoms but no drug has been proven to target all four therapeutic actions

D.

Certain mood stabilizers, such as lithium, are able to consistently target mania and bipolar depression

1 points

QUESTION 63

  1. The PMHNP is assessing a patient in the emergency room. The patient shares that he has been on lithium (Lithobid) for many years. What blood tests does the PMHMP order?

A.

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

B.

Complete Blood Count (CBC)

C.

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate

D.

Platelet Count

1 points

QUESTION 64

  1. A 39-year old female patient presently on lithium would like to try a new medication to treat her bipolar disorder. She has had concerns about side effects from lithium and wants to learn more about Lamotrigine (Lamictal) as a treatment option. The PMHNP conveys some of the unique aspects of this agent, including which of the following?   I don’t think I had this question

A.

There is some indication lamotrigine can prevent progression from mild cognitive impairment to Alzheimer’s disease

B.

Lamotrigine may cause rashes, including the life-threatening Stevens-Johnson syndrome

C.

It was one of the first anticonvulsants approved by the FDA to treat bipolar depression

D.

There is a risk for amenorrhea and polycystic ovarian disease in women of childbearing age

1 points

QUESTION 65

  1. A nursing student is seeking clarification on the use of anticonvulsants to treat depression and is unclear about most effective outcomes. Which of the following agents does the PMHNP convey as having uncertain outcomes?

A.

Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

B.

Gabapentin (Neurontin)

C.

Valporoic Acid (Depakene)

D.

All of the above

1 points

QUESTION 66

  1. A 46-year old male patient mentions several alternative treatments to Carbamazepine (Tegretol) as a way to manage symptoms of his bipolar depression. Which of the following does the PMHNP indicate would not be an agent to treat bipolar depression?didn’t have this question I

A.

Omega-3-fatty-acids

B.

Soybean lecithin

C.

Inositol

D.

L-methylfolate

1 points

QUESTION 67

  1. The PMHNP is meeting with a new mother who would like to begin taking medication again to treat her bipolar depression; she is breastfeeding her 2-month old daughter. The PMHNP recognizes that which of the following medications is contraindicated for this patient?

A.

Valporic Acid (Depakene)

B.

Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

C.

Lithium (Lithobid)This question is repeated and on one I got 1/1 and the other I got 0/1 for this sameexact question.

D.

Lamotrigine (Lamictal)

1 points

QUESTION 68

  1. The PMHNP assesses a 10-year old male child in the ER and suspects mania. Which of the following symptoms and recommendations for follow-up evaluation are appropriate?

A.

Irritability, euphoria, anger; the child should be evaluated further for conduct disorder.

B.

Irritability, violent outbursts, hyperactivity; the child should also be evaluated further for ADHD

C.

Irritability, lethargy, anger; the child should be evaluated further for ADHD.

D.

Irritability, acute mania, hyperactivity; the child should be evaluated further for conduct disorder.

1 points

QUESTION 69

  1. A patient was diagnosed with GAD 4 weeks ago and was placed on Clonazepam (klonopin) twice a day and citalopram (citalopram (celexa)) once daily. When he asks the PMHNP why it is necessary to wean him off of the Clonazepam (klonopin) the best response is:

A.

Clonazepam (klonopin) may interfere with citalopram (celexa)s targeted areas in the brain

B.

Clonazepam (klonopin) is not recommended for long term use due to possible sedation

C.

Clonazepam (klonopin) was used as an aid to treat your condition while you were adjusting to citalopram (celexa)

D.

Clonazepam (klonopin) and citalopram (celexa) target the same area in the brain and after long-term use they will begin to compete making one more or less effective than the other

1 points

QUESTION 70

  1. During assessment a patient states “Why are you asking me about my heart, I am here for my head”, the PMHNP’s best response is:

A.

“Some medications can cause heart issues so it is necessary to rule those out before you begin medication.”I got 0/1 for this answer I don’t know why??

B.

“This is a part of our routine admission and it is important that you give me truthful answers.”

C.

“Chronic conditions such as Lupus can cause an area in your brain to malfunction, specifically your hippocampus.”

D.

“Anxiety can cause cortisol levels to increase and when this happens frequently it puts you at risk for comorbidities such as type 2 diabetes.”

1 points

QUESTION 71

  1. The PMHNP understands that the potential of alcohol abuse in the anxious patient is higher for the following reason:The answers are phrased differently..  The correct answer is that alcohol works onthe GABA A receptor

A.

Alcohol is legal and is a common way that most people deal with their problems.

B.

Alcohol works similar to benzodiazepines

C.

Up to 30% of people with anxiety use alcohol to self-medicate

D.

Alcohol increases serotonin at the synapse and the patient may temporarily feel happy

1 points

QUESTION 72

  1. After ordering flumazenil (Rumazicon) the PMHNP cautions the staff to monitor for which possible effect?

a.

Respiratory depression

b.

Sedation and restlessness

c.

Sweating and nausea   (This question was marked wrong but I think the answers are different too)

d.

Bradycardia and tachypnea

1 points

QUESTION 73

  1. A patient  is prescribed escitalopram (Lexapro) for his anxiety. When he asks why he was given an antidepressant the PMHNP’s best response is:  I didn’t have this question

A.

“SSRIs are used to treat anxiety because serotonin has been proven to help with feelings of fear and worry.”

B.

“Even though you were diagnosed with anxiety there is a very high chance that you also have depression due to the similarities of both diseases.”

C.

“Antidepressants are prescribed prophylactically to prevent symptoms of depression.”

D.

“Escitalopram (Lexapro) is very effective with treating the panic attacks that can occur with anxiety.”

1 points

QUESTION 74  ?

  1. The PMHNP evaluates the patient for “fear conditioning” when he asks:

A.

Have you ever experienced any type of trauma?

B.

What do you do when you feel fear?

C.

Does your mother or father have a history of fear and/or worrying?

D.

What makes your fear better?

1 points

QUESTION 75

  1. A patient diagnosed with PTSD is prescribed propranolol (Inderal) and the PMHNP understands that he was prescribed this medication for what purpose:

A.

He has uncontrolled high blood pressure and this must be treated before focusing on his PTSD.

B.

Beta blockers are linked to reconsolidation.

C.

This medication will allow the patient to sleep throughout the night.

D.

This medication is linked to the increase of serotonin in the brain.

1 points

Click Save and Submit to save and submit. Click Save All Answers to save all answers.

 

Here are some parts of other questions I had that I jotted down a enough of the ? so you know what Its about and my answers and if they were right or wrong:

What is an accurate description of psychosis?   It’s a syndrome associated with a number of psychiatric disorders  (Correct)

 

Mrs. Schwalzman 52 has schizophrenia and has no history of depression.  She has apathy and no joy in life.  What can the PMHNP infer?Her new medication is blocking D2 receptors in the mesolimbic system   corre

 

Question 5:        Health Care

 

NUTR1023 EXERCISE AND DIET PLAN Workout Plan……..

 

Question 6:        Health Care

 

MHA 622 Virtues and values…………………

 

Question 7:        Health Care

 

MHA 612 Zero-based budgeting in health care

 

Question 8:        Health Care

 

IHP 525 Final Milestone Project…………..

 

Question 9:        Health Care.

 

HIST 200 OBESITY IN CANADA………………………

 

Question 10:      Health Care

 

NUR 2058 Dimensions Of Nursing Final Exam | Complete

 

  1. True or False: Energy Systems in the body are used by both conventional and integrative medicine.

 

  1. Select the most effective method that nurses can use to gain power over their practice.

 

  1. An unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury or the risk thereof serious injury including loss of limbs or function is:

 

  1. What is the purpose of spiritual modes of healing?

 

  1. True or False: QSEN or Quality of Safety Education for Nurses is built on 8 competencies developed by the Department of Health.

 

  1. Which best describes The Leapfrog Group and its recommendations?

 

  1. A client’s blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg is an example of which of the following?

 

  1. With which of the following clients does the nurse determine to be the most appropriate time to discuss their discharge teaching?
  2. What is the definition of the ethical principle of nonmaleficence?

 

 

  1. These characteristics are difficult to identify, but have an even more profound effect on an individual’s cultural identity.

 

 

  1. Which of the following is a key element to effective education of nursing students?

 

 

  1. Which of the following would NOT be considered an invasion of privacy:

 

 

  1. Which of the following is an appropriate response from the nurse when caring for a client using complimentary medicine?

 

  1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Integrative medicine?

 

  1. When reviewing the term spirituality, which of the following would not be included in its definition?

 

  1. This is the single most obvious barrier to providing culturally competent care.

 

  1. Which situation is the nurse allowed to breech a client’s right of confidentiality?

 

  1. Which of the following best describes conventional and integrative medicine?

 

  1. Which characteristic is required in a person to be able to resolve difficult crises?

 

  1. Where would a nurse look to find their scope of practice as defined by state law?

 

  1. Identify an important aspect of the role of forensic psychiatric nurses

 

The student nurse asks, “Why is there such an emphasis on spirituality in health care?” Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the nurse preceptor?

  1. A) Each hospital establishes its own policy regarding spirituality.
B) The American Association of Colleges of Nursing mandates a policy related to spirituality in health care
C) The Joint Commission has a standard of patient care with inclusion of spirituality.
D) Spirituality remains at the discretion of the chaplain or pastoral care.

 

What is the first step in the delegation process?

  1. A) Allowing the person to observe the RN performing the task before making the assignment
B) Determining the skill level of the person to whom the task is to be delegated
C) Obtaining permission from the client for another care provider to help with the care
D) Instructing the person to whom the task is delegated about the assignment

 

What is the mos

 

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What is the most important element for the nurse navigator to include in the planning of care for a client?

  1. A) The client’s perceptions and beliefs about the disease process and the modalities of treatment
B) The distance the client lives from the primary health-care facility
C) The age difference between the client and the nurse
D) What type of insurance coverage the client has

 

Identify a secured setting for the practice of forensic nursing.

  1. A) Crime scenes
B) Women’s shelters
C) Emergency rooms
D) Correctional institutions

 

What would be a likely result of the development of a universally agreed upon nomenclature and taxonomy for nursing clinical information and management data?

  1. A) A failure to determine the impact nurses have on outcomes
B) The inability to identify what the nursing staff actually does
C) The establishment of appropriate reimbursement for nursing activities
D) A decrease in the number of nursing diagnoses

 

A particularly vocal staff nurse on a busy obstetric unit has been complaining to the other nurses about the unit manager’s preferential treatment of the night-shift nurses. Select the action that the unit manager should take to resolve this problem, which best demonstrates the use of the assertive approach to conflict resolution.

  1. A) Sets up a time and place for a one-on-one meeting with the staff nurse
B) Arranges for the transfer of the staff nurse to the night shift
C) Waits until there is an opportunity to use the incident to confront the staff nurse in front of his or her colleagues
D) Notes that the vocal staff nurse is not intelligent enough to understand the situation, and disregards her comments as worthless

 

When do most health-care expenditures occur in a person’s life?

  1. A) As old age sets in due to the development of multiple chronic illnesses
B) During the last 6 months of life
C) During childhood due to the large number of broken bones and traumatic injuries
D) During and shortly after being born

 

Which assignment is most appropriate for a CNA/UAP (unlicensed assistive personnel) floated to the medical-surgical unit from the outpatient clinic?

  1. A) Completing the admission vital signs and assessment on a 44-year-old woman who just returned from the post anesthesia care unit after nephrectomy
B) Obtaining a temperature on a 29-year-old woman with gastrointestinal bleeding during the last 30 minutes of a whole-blood transfusion
C) Changing the sterile dressings on a 22-year-old man 2 days after undergoing skin graft for burn injuries
D) Assisting a 72-year-old man 1 day post–cerebrovascular accident with dysphagia to eat lunch

 

What is the primary goal of the nurse navigator role?

  1. A) Lower the risk factors that cause poor or adverse client outcomes
B) Elimination of the barriers to care to make moving through the treatment maze easier
C) Starting a business by combining nursing experience and knowledge with business knowledge
D) Provide health care for inmates in correctional facilities such as juvenile centers, jails, and prisons

 

True or False: It is estimated that 98,000 people die per year due to adverse events & medical errors in hospitals.

  1. A) False
B) True

 

Identify a communication style that involves interpersonal behaviors that permit people to defend and maintain their legitimate rights in a respectful manner that does not violate the rights of others.

  1. A) Aggressive
B) Assertive
C) Dishonest
D) Submissive

 

Which nursing intervention is of limited effectiveness in addressing the needs of a client with a nursing diagnosis of Spiritual Distress?

  1. A) Explain the nurse’s religious beliefs and values immediately when requested to do so by the client.
B) Contact an appropriate spiritual leader or community for conduct of spiritual rituals sought by the client.
C) Express a willingness to assist and cooperate with religious practices that are not detrimental to the client’s health in the treatment setting.
D) Communicate acceptance of the client’s spiritual needs and acknowledge their importance.

 

When does the encoding process of communication take place?

  1. A) The message is sent in a way that causes confusion in the receiver.
B) The receiver thinks about the information, understands it, and forms an idea based on the message.
C) The sender sends the message.
D) The receiver responds to the message and gives feedback.

 

Who is called the “father of modern medicine”?

  1. A) Hippocrates
B) Emperor Darius
C) Cyrus the Great
D) William Harvey

 

Identify the task that may be delegated to an LPN (LVN) if all of the clients are stable.

  1. A) Developing the nursing diagnosis for a newly admitted client
B) Turning a client with a CVA every 2 hours
C) Teaching a new diabetic patient how to administer insulin injections
D) Adding potassium to an intravenous (IV) bag of D6W that was already hanging

 

A patient is anxious about a procedure. Knowing the patient loves the beach, the nurse instructs them to close their eyes and picture the ocean, sand, and rays of the sun. Which of the following practices is the nurse implementing?

  1. A) Transcendental Meditation
B) Guided Imagery
C) Therapeutic Talking
D) Visualization

 

Identify the primary change that increased the need for many more certified RN-coders and certified RN-auditors.

  1. A) The development of new oversight procedures for Medicare and Medicaid
B) The switch to the new ICD-10 coding system
C) The new regulations that came into effect with the Affordable Care Act
D) The closing of many college programs that teach or offer degrees in health-care coding

 

Identify the four concepts that are common in most nursing theories.

  1. A) Client, health, environment, nursing
B) Hospital, nursing home, clinic, physician’s office
C) Nurse, physician, client, other providers
D) Care, adaptation, system, cure

Which of the following demonstrates the planning phase of the nursing process?

  1. A) The nurse specifies short and long term outcomes for the client
B) The nurse determines whether or not the client’s short term outcomes were met
C) The nurse performs a physical exam and collects a health history
D) The nurse identifies that the client is at risk for pressure ulcers

 

What is the best way to increase the motivation to learn in the elderly population?

  1. A) Use negative reinforcements when an elderly person does not change behavior appropriately
B) Link positive reinforcement to changes in behavior.
C) Ignore their life experiences so that the learning is not contaminated by misinformation from the past.
D) Use the power disparity between the teacher and the client to reinforce basic principles

 

Why is it important for nurses in general practice to have an awareness of forensic knowledge?

  1. A) They may one day wish to become certified in forensic nursing
B) Forensic knowledge is a part of nursing curricula and is necessary for passing the National Council Licensure Examination
C) Nurses are often in positions to report crimes or preserve evidence.
D) With the increasing involvement of nurses in malpractice suits, forensic knowledge will help them win their cases

 

Why is term healing preferred to medicine when referring to alternative and complementary modalities?

  1. A) Clients might associate alternative treatments with hospital care.
B) Nurses have had a strong influence in naming this modality.
C) The treatments are based on holistic philosophies that go beyond treatment or cure of the physiological dimensions of care.
D) Medicine implies that only physicians can carry out the treatment

 

An example of civility in the classroom consists of keeping cell phones on silent and using proper cell phone etiquette?

  1. A) False
B) True

 

What primary skills are required of the nurse to provide cultural competent care?

  1. A) All of the above
B) Sensitivity
C) Understanding
D) Communication

 

Both nursing models and theories help explain and direct nursing actions.

  1. A) True
B) False

 

Which of the following statements is most accurate about the vast majority of the elderly?

  1. A) They make up the single largest expenditure for the federal government budget
B) They are relatively healthy and most manage their chronic conditions at home
C) They all have chronic diseases and are in assisted-care facilities.
D) They have high levels of depression and are usually in bad spirits.

 

Although the assessment techniques used for different individuals may be identical, the nurse needs to know the basic biological and physical variations among ethnic groups.

  1. A) True
B) False

 

The client’s short term outcome was to sit up in a chair at bedside for 30 minutes. The nurse reviews the client outcome, determines that it was not met, and modifies the interventions. Which phase of the nursing process is this?

  1. A) Evaluation
B) Assessment
C) Planning
D) Diagnosis

 

This lengthy assessment tool provides a thorough overview of a client’s culture.

  1. A) Minority Model
B) Purnell’s Model
C) Non-English Model
D) Bio-Cultural Model

 

True or False: By law, supplements are regulated be the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

  1. A) False
B) True

 

Which of the following describes Callista Roy’s definition of nursing as indicated in her nursing model?

  1. A) Multistep process that helps the client adapt and reach the highest level of functioning
B) Assistance in self-care activities to help the client achieve health
C) Dynamic process that identifies and meets the client’s health-care needs
D) Identifies boundary disruption and helps clients in activities to restore stability.

 

An ethical code does which of the following?

  1. A) dictates decisions
B) provides a framework for decision-making
C) sets firm rules
D) provides a group of legally binding values

 

To which individual can the charge nurse delegate the task of completing the history and physical assessment for a newly admitted client?

  1. A) LPN
B) CNA, level II
C) CNA, level III
D) RN

 

A client sustained a complete C2 spinal cord injury after a motor vehicle crash. He is unable to move bilateral upper and lower extremities. He requires total nursing care including assistance eating, turning, and voiding. Which of the following describes the level of care the nurse provides according to Orem’s self-care model?

  1. A) Partially compensated care
B) Supportive developmental care
C) Self-care
D) Wholly compensated care

 

Function in nursing informatics focuses on which of the following?

  1. A) A well-articulated theoretical basis to guide the gathering of data
B) Areas of research that lead to new knowledge
C) The levels of special interest, including technology and concepts of nursing theory
D) How the management and processing of information helps nurses enter, organize, or retrieve information

 

Identify the best method for a nurse to acknowledge a client’s autonomy

  1. A) Incorporate the ethical principle of paternalism into all client care activities
B) Follow only the instructions of the client’s family
C) Use the ethical principle of best interest when making decisions about the client’s care needs
D) Know and understand the state’s laws that address living wills

 

Select the most appropriate client for the RN to assign to the CNA/UAP (unlicensed assistive personnel).

  1. A) A client with a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy tube who is receiving continuous tube feedings
B) A client with difficulty walking and requires assistance to the bathroom
C) A client with difficulty swallowing food and fluids
D) A client with a colostomy who requires irrigations

 

What is best described as the concepts, ideals, behaviors, and significant themes that give meaning to a person’s life?

  1. A) Laws
B) Values
C) Morals
D) Ethics

 

Which of the following is known as a healing practice that uses the human energy system?

  1. A) Visualization
B) Therapeutic Touch
C) Hypnosis
D) Guided Imagery

 

The analysis that tracks events leading to error, identifies faulty systems and processes, and develops a plan to prevent further error in a blame-free environment is called:

  1. A) Quality Improvement
B) Root Cause Analysis
C) Case Management
D) Leapfrog

 

Nurses who learn about another person’s culture is enough to guarantee the nurse will have cultural awareness.

  1. A) False
B) True

 

Using errors as learning opportunities is a key element in building which of the following?

  1. A) Magnet hospital
B) Shared decision-making environment
C) system of improvements and quality care
D) Just culture organization

 

Evidence-based practice is the practice of nursing in which interventions are based on data from research that demonstrates they are appropriate and successful.

  1. A) True
B) False

 

Which of the following is considered the best preferred strategy to dealing with conflict?

  1. A) Choose your battles
B) Confront the conflict
C) Postpone the conflict
D) Ignore the conflict

 

Which statement made by a nursing student during a class on delegation indicates that the student needs additional study of the topic?

  1. A) “The RN who delegates is also responsible for education about the task to be performed.”
B) “When nurses delegate, they are delegating nursing.”
C) “Assessing clients is a task of the RN.”
D) “The tasks delegated should have expected and predictable outcomes.”

 

Which statement by a nurse manager during a staff meeting best demonstrates use of an assertive style of communication?

  1. A) “I am the manager and we will do it my way.”
B) “You have made some good points, but I have another suggestion.”
C) “I’m sorry, but your suggestion was useless to solving the problem.”
D) “I really don’t care; do it the way you think is best.”

 

A physician writes a DNR order for a competent client. Which individual may give permission for this order?

  1. A) The client’s next of kin
B) The client
C) The client’s spouse
D) The client’s only child

 

A client asks what the Affordable Care Act is. What best explains this act?

  1. A) “The law requires that most of the assets be absorbed.”
B) “The law is only for those on Medicare Part D.”
C) “The law has been written for those seniors who are under Medicaid.”
D) “The law has been written for those of all ages for a positive outcome.”

 

Clients may develop this when they view that the nurse is an authority figure or expert in health-care matters.

  1. A) Passive Obedience
B) Active Obedience
C) Health Care Aversion
D) Communication Synergy

 

Which is the principle upon which Nightingale’s spirituality was based?

  1. A) Scientific rationalism
B) A sense of a divine intelligence who creates and sustains the cosmos as well as an awareness of her own inner connection with this higher reality
C) Adherence to a set of rules of behavior, the participation in prescribed rituals, prayer, and the study of sacred texts
D) The beliefs of her Unitarian and Anglican parents

 

Client Satisfaction is not another way to measure quality of care.

  1. A) False
B) True

 

What is one disadvantage to the electronic health care system that health care workers are concerned about?

  1. A) Computer glitches
B) Inexpensive computer systems
C) Improved communication
D) May be used by multiple users at one time

 

Which is not part of the role of the forensic correctional nurse?

  1. A) Provide health screenings
B) Respond to emergency situations
C) Prescribe medications
D) Develop health-care plans

 

The nurse identifies a problem list for the client. Which of the following phases of the nursing process is this a part of?

  1. A) Assessment
B) Diagnosis
C) Evaluation 
D) Planning

 

What is the federally funded national health insurance program in the United States for people older than 65 years?

  1. A) Medicare
B) Exclusive Provider Organization
C) Long-term care insurance
D) Medicaid

 

T.S is a 75 year old man who sustained a left hip fracture after a fall. He is normally independent and lives at home with his wife who suffers from dementia. He currently requires a heavy assist of 2 to pivot transfer to a chair. He is not currently ambulating more than a few steps with a walker. His goal is to go back home to help care for his wife. Which of the following is the most appropriate hospital discharge plan for T.S.?

  1. A) Rehabilitation Center
B) Long-term care facility
C) Home with homecare
D) Assisted living

 

What is the primary reason some nurses have difficulty in their role of managing the needs of the elderly or dying client?

  1. A) Death of a client may indicate that the care they were providing was insufficient
B) Their education has focused them on keeping clients alive and promoting health.
C) They have an internal conflict in coping with their own fears of death.
D) They become very emotional when clients they are caring for die.

 

What is the most effective method nurses can use to gain power over nursing practice?

  1. A) Confront hospital administrators about inadequate staffing
B) Leave the nursing profession when better jobs are available
C) Join professional organizations in large numbers
D) Use union tactics to increase salaries

 

The establishment of a professional organization is one of the most important defining characteristics of a profession.

  1. A) False
B) True

 

Why is heritage consistency important to cultural groups?

  1. A) It allows them to advance within the larger culture
B) It allows them to retain many of their cultural elements
C) It allows them to fit in with the larger culture
D) All of the above

 

Identify the term used when a person lives with consciousness of a reality beyond what is knowable through the five senses and is aware of a transcendent reality.

  1. A) Religion
B) Spirituality
C) Truth
D) Meditation

 

True or False: Total quality improvement is based upon the organization with the higher-quality service that will capture a greater share of the market than competitors with lower-quality services.

  1. A) False
B) True

 

Which of the following is not a reason the State Board of Nursing may revoke a nursing license?

  1. A) Conviction of a serious crime
B) Ethical conduct in the practice of nursing
C) Use of illegal drugs while providing client care
D) Failure to renew a nursing license while still practicing nursing

 

What would be a characteristic of the ideal electronic health care record?

  1. A) The system is unique to the institution it resides in.
B) It reflects only the past medical history.
C) The system reflects the lifelong, continuous record of all care the client has received.
D) It depicts the current health status, but does not provide the medical history

 

The type of reimbursement system that pays a fixed-rate based on diagnosis (or DRG) is called what:

  1. A) Capitated Payment System
B) Managed Care Organization
C) Preferred Provider Organization
D) Prospective Payment System

 

Which of the following organizations provides nursing with a code of ethics?

  1. A) Institute of Medicine
B) Department of Health
C) Board of Nursing 
D) American Nurses Association

 

Which of the following reasons is not a reason for the increasing use of alternative and complementary healing practices?

  1. A) Desire for greater control over one’s health
B) Traditions passed on from parents
C) Belief in the effectiveness of alternative therapies
D) Dissatisfaction with conventional health care

 

Identify the primary driving force behind the development and use of telehealth or telemedicine.

  1. A) Easy access to computers
B) Consumer concerns about access to health care
C) Increase sophistication of physicians’ computers skills
D) Large segments of the population located in congested urban areas

 

The establishment of a professional organization is insignificant in defining characteristics of a profession.

  1. A) True
B) False

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A registered nurse (RN) is assigned to a step-down coronary care unit with 20 clients in various stages of recovery. What is the primary consideration in assigning the unit staff that includes two RNs, two licensed practical nurses (LPNs), and one certified nursing assistant (CNA) or UAP (unlicensed assistive personnel) ?

  1. A) Skill level of each staff member
B) Staff preferences for specific clients
C) Distance of client rooms from the nurses’ station
D) Developmental needs of clients

 

What is acute care of sick persons that is provided in hospitals called?

  1. A) Primary intervention
B) Assistive intervention
C) Secondary intervention
D) Tertiary intervention

 

Identify the characteristics of a task that is to be delegated that would require it to be assigned to an RN.

  1. A) The task is routine in nature and follows hospital policies.
B) The client is relatively stable.
C) The client requires a dressing change at the beginning of the shift.
D) The task requires decision-making to complete it.

 

Evidence-based practice is the practice of nursing in which interventions are based on data from research that demonstrates that they are appropriate and successful.

  1. A) True
B) False

 

Identify the health-care area in which the use of computers has improved the efficiency of care.

  1. A) Physician record keeping
B) Interdepartmental communication
C) Documentation
D) Medication administration

 

What is a major benefit for the elderly who now have easy access to and use of technology such as the Internet and smartphones?

  1. A) They can reach hospitals and family if they need help.
B) They generally are so confused by the technology, they abandon it.
C) They have opportunities to obtain screening and treatment that they might not otherwise seek.
D) They now have a new source of entertainment to keep their minds active and delay the effects of dementia.

 

This federally funded program is known for financing a large portion of maternal and child care for the poor.

  1. A) Medicaid
B) Medicare
C) Preferred Provider Organization (PPO)
D) Exclusive Provider Organization (EPO)

 

What is the primary purpose for the development of the Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) project?

  1. A) Focus nursing education on competencies to reduce the number of medical errors
B) Increase the number of students in nursing programs
C) Shift nursing education to a more medical model due to increased client acuity
D) Decrease the number of associate degree nursing programs

 

Which behavior indicates that a nurse, who is forced to confront a conflict situation, is using a submissive approach to communication?

  1. A) Refers the problem to a supervisor
B) Confronts the other person loudly and in front of an audience
C) Uses the incident as a threat
D) Sets up a one-on-one meeting at a specific time

 

 

 

What advantage does the electronic health record system have over traditional paper systems?

  1. A) More portable
B) Fewer privacy issues
C) Unbreakable
D) Reduces redundancy

 

 

 

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Question 11:      Health Care

 

NCS 1201 Client Teaching Activity(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

 

Question 12:      Philosophy

 

PHI-103 Libertarianism vs. Compatibilism Worksheet

 

Question 13:      Philosophy

 

SCIE1000 Philosophy Essay(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

 

Question 14:      Philosophy

 

PHIL 201 Response Paper Mccloskey Article(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

 

Question 15:                Sociology

 

SOC-102 Bureaucracy essay(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

 

Question 16:                Computer Studies

 

Case study 3 assignment IFS(ST. LUKE’S HEALTH CARE SYSTEM(USE AS GUIDE ONLY)

 

Discussion Questions

  1. Visit the NetMotion Web site (www.netmotionwireless.com) and access and read other Mobility XE success stories. Discuss the patterns that can be observed in the benefits that Mobility XE users have realized via its deployment and use.
  2. Do some Internet research on the security implications of HIPPA requirements for hospital networks. Discuss the major types of security mechanisms that must be in place to ensure hospital compliance with HIPPA requirements.
  3. Do some Internet research on the use of VLANs in hospitals. Summarize the benefits of using VLANs in hospitals and identify examples of how St. Luke’s could further enhance its wireless network by implementing VLANs.

Read the Case Study and answer the “Discussion Points” in a clear but concise way. Be sure to reference all sources cited and use APA formatting throughout.

I prefer you to upload your file in a .docx format – but if you don’t have MS Word- please convert the file to PDF and upload.

Refer to the Case Study Rubrics for more detailed criteria.

 

 

Question 17:                Computer Science

 

CIS 525 Week 2 Assignment 1 Agile versus Waterfall

 

Assignment 1: Agile versus Waterfall

Due Week 2 and worth 110 points

The following resources may be helpful when completing this assignment:

  • “WATERFALL vs. AGILE METHODOLOGY”(You may also view the article at http://agileintro.wordpress.com/2008/01/04/waterfall-vs-agile-methodology/.)
  • “Understanding the pros and cons of the Waterfall Model of software development”(You may also view the article at http://www.techrepublic.com/article/understanding-the-pros-and-cons-of-the-waterfall-model-of-software-development/6118423.)
  • “Transitioning from waterfall to iterative development”(You may also view the article at http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/rational/library/4243.html.)

Agile approach to project management has become more and more popular in recent years. Agile framework is different from traditional waterfall model. It has considerable impact on how projects are planned and executed.

Imagine that you have been assigned as a project manager to manage your company’s e-Commerce Website where customers can browse the company’s products, place orders, and interact with the company’s customer service representatives. Your project must be completed in three (3) months and you have about twelve (12) people in the team. There are three (3) offshore developers in Ireland and two (2) QA testers in Dallas, TX. The rest of the project team and the product owner are in San Diego, CA.

Write a five to six (5-6) page paper in which you:

  1. Compare and contrast agile and Waterfall models of managing a project in the context of building an e-Commerce Website. Include diagrams or tables through the use of graphical tools in Microsoft Word or Visio, or an open source alternative such as Dia to show the differences and similarities. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length.
  2. Evaluate the pros and cons in agile and Waterfall project management in terms of planning and the execution of projects and collaboration among project team members.
  3. Determine whether you would use an “Agile” or “Waterfall” model to manage the project for your company. Support your rationale.
  4. Identify and analyze the major pitfalls and misconceptions inherited in your chosen approach. Propose key actions that you, as a project manager, could take in order to mitigate the risks associated with the previously identified misconceptions.
  5. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources. You may use the resources above or others of your choosing.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

  • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
  • Include charts or diagrams created in Visio or one of their equivalents such as Dia and OpenOffice. The completed diagrams / charts must be imported into the Word document before the paper is submitted.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

  • Compare and contrast agile project management methods with traditional project management.
  • Use technology and information resources to research issues in advanced agile project management topics.
  • Write clearly and concisely about advanced agile project management topics using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.

 

Question 18:                Computer Science

 

 

 

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DECO2500 Exam2013-human-computer-interaction Set 1 & 2

 

DECO2500/7250 – Sample questions – Set 1

  1. What is the best description of a conceptual model?
  2. A high level description of how a system is organised and how it operates
  3. Interaction paradigms and interaction modes
  4. A diagram showing the mental model of the user and the system

image

  1. The problem space faced by the designer when gathering user requirements.
  2. Which statement best reflects interaction design?
  3. Interaction design is a new discipline
  4. Interaction design is multidisciplinary
  5. Interaction design combines the disciplines of software engineering and psychology
  6. Interaction design is an application of common sense.
  7. What are the elements of the Gulf of Execution?
  8. Information processing elements involved in working out what the system did
  9. Information processing elements involved in working out how to interact with the system
  10. Forming intentions, specifying right action, selecting appropriate interface mechanism.
  11. Processing the interface, interpreting interface information, and assessing information meaning.
  12. How do recent approaches to “embodied interaction” differ from earlier accounts of the role of cognition in human­computer interaction?
  13. Accounts of interaction focus on the cognitive activity of multiple individuals, not just one individual
  14. Accounts of interaction support cognitive strategies such as annotating and cognitive tracing.
  15. Accounts of interaction put greater emphasis on how emotions are embodied in people.
  16. Accounts of interaction are more grounded in the ways people experience the world through physical interaction.
  17. What was an important early drawback of the Clearboard system by Ishii et al. (1993).
  18. It required people to move to a dedicated video conferencing facility at their workplace
  19. As people moved closer to the board to talk with a remote colleague, the video system no longer picked them up
  20. People found it uncomfortable to interact “looking down” at a colleague.
  21. All of the above.
  22. According to Quintanar (1982) how do users rate an interface/system that gives them personalised feedback?
  23. They rate it as more honest
  24. They rate it as less honest
  25. They rate it as more likeable
  26. They rate it as less likeable.
  27. What is a principal limitation of multimedia as a means for presenting educational material, according to Rogers and Aldrich (1996)?
  28. Learners may fixate on just one medium, such as text, and not process further information available in other media.
  29. Learners may hop between media and only partially process the information in each one
  30. Learners may feel that they are being patronised
  31. Learners may need tools to help them keep track of the information with which they have and have not yet engaged.
  32. Which of the following options best represents the core values of user­centred design, as originally articulated by Gould & Lewis (1985)?
  33. Focusing on users and their tasks in the design process
  34. Measuring progress towards usability goals throughout development
  35. Developing and testing in several cycles
  36. All of the above.
  37. When conducting an investigation with human participants for research or commercial reasons, which provision(s) for consent must be made?
  38. Approval of the research by a properly constituted ethics committee independent of the researchers
  39. Participants informed they do not have to take part if they do not want to
  40. Participants fully informed of their right to withdraw from the investigation without consequences to them
  41. All of the above.
  42. How did Buchenau and Suri (2000) use “experience prototyping” in a study described in Rogers et al. (2011)?
  43. They built a game prototype that broke accessibility rules to make it frustrating for anyone to use
  44. They built a “third age empathy suit” to help designers experience the loss of mobility and sensory perception in the elderly
  45. They used contextual design meetings to get different people’s perspectives on the prototype
  46. Their prototyping gave designers an idea of what wearing a chest­implanted automatic defibrillator might be like.
  47. Which of the following is an important disadvantage of usability laboratory studies?
  48. They emphasize controlled experimentation
  49. They do not capture the context of people’s work or home activities
  50. They do not exercise sufficient control to really understand users’ thinking
  51. They do not directly involve users.
  52. What did physiological monitoring show in the game evaluation study by Mandryk and Inkpen (2004)?
  53. Participants’ skin response (sweat response) was higher when winning against a friend rather than against the computer
  54. Participants’ skin response (sweat response) was lower when winning against a friend rather than against the computer
  55. Participants’ heart rate was higher when winning against a friend rather than against the computer.
  56. Participants’ heart rate was lower when winning against a friend rather than against the computer
  57. According to many experts, how many users should be included in a usability test?
  58. Seven plus or minus two (5­9 users)
  59. Between 5 and 12, depending on needs
  60. A large enough sample of users to perform statistical tests
  61. At least 10 users.
  62. What is the fundamental insight underlying the “cognitive walkthough” method of evaluation?
  63. The idea that cognitive processes are the most important aspect of the user experience
  64. The idea that users can sometimes be left out of evaluation
  65. The idea that users learn by exploring an interface
  66. The idea that experts need to work hand­in­hand with users to develop an optimal user experience.

 

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DECO2500/7250 – Sample questions – Set 2

  1. Which of the following is a better example of a user experience goal than a usability goal?
  2. Effectiveness
  3. Learnability
  4. Helpfulness
  5. Safety.
  6. What is an “affordance” according to Norman (1999):
  7. Property of an object that indicates to people how to use the object.
  8. The return on investment of the user­centred design process.
  9. The opportunity cost of not using user­centred design.
  10. An instruction on an interface signalling how to use the interface.
  11. According to Rogers et al. (2011) what was the primary reason for the success of the iPod?
  12. Powerful functionality
  13. User experience
  14. Access to content
  15. Conceptual design.
  16. Which is the best definition of an interaction paradigm?
  17. In broad terms, the kind of technical and software framework within which human­system interaction takes place (e.g., WIMP, mobile, tangible)
  18. An idea from the world that is used in the interface to help the user understand what to do (e.g., click on tabs to change window contents, use shopping cart to store items to purchase)
  19. What the human does to make inputs and receive information from

the system (e.g., click and drag an object, talk to an object, move self closer to an object, converse with an entity, etc)

  1. The conceptual model used to guide the design of the interface.
  2. Which is the best definition of an interaction mode?
  3. In broad terms, the kind of technical and software framework within which human­system interaction takes place (e.g., WIMP, mobile, tangible)
  4. An idea from the world that is used in the interface to help the user understand what to do (e.g., click on tabs to change window contents, use shopping cart to store items to purchase)
  5. What the human does to make inputs and receive information from

the system (e.g., click and drag an object, talk to an object, move self closer to an object, converse with an entity, etc)

  1. The conceptual model used to guide the design of the interface.
  2. Which is the best definition of an interface metaphor?
  3. In broad terms, the kind of technical and software framework within which human­system interaction takes place (e.g., WIMP, mobile, tangible)
  4. An idea from the world that is used in the interface to help the user understand what to do (e.g., click on tabs to change window contents, use shopping cart to store items to purchase)
  5. What the human does to make inputs and receive information from the system (e.g., click and drag an object, talk to an object, move self closer to an object, converse with an entity, etc)
  6. The conceptual model used to guide the design of the interface.
  7. What interaction paradigm did the Xerox Star use?
  8. Conversation
  9. Knowledge of a physical desktop
  10. Embedded computing
  11. Windows, Icons, Mouse, and Pointer (WIMP).
  12. Which of the following is the most likely interface metaphor used by a smart phone calendar function?
  13. Restaurant menu
  14. Touchscreen interface
  15. A paper diary
  16. Mobile technology.
  17. What is the principal interaction mode for a Wii system?
  18. Gesture and body movements
  19. Haptic (touch) interface
  20. Exploring and browsing
  21. Infrared position detection.
  22. Which of the following is a design implication of our understanding of human attention?
  23. Tactile feedback should make the same kinds of distinctions that a person would feel in the world (e.g. pushing vs. pulling)
  24. Text should be legible and distinguishable from its background under different lighting conditions.
  25. Avoid cluttering the interface with more information than is needed at the present moment for the user.
  26. Sounds should be audible and distinguishable.
  27. Why is Miller’s (1956) theory that our working memory can hold 7 +/­ 2 items of information not a useful design guideline for number of menu items, tool bar icons, etc?
  28. We can scan such items: we don’t need to remember them
  29. People can actually hold much less than 7 +/­ 2 items in memory
  30. People can actually hold much more than 7 +/­ 2 items in memory
  31. This was not Miller’s theory – it was Norman’s theory.
  32. What issue do Rogers et al. (2011) raise about context­aware reminding systems such as comMotion (Marmasse & Schmandt, 2000)?
  33. Context is hard to define
  34. The kind of reminding such systems provide is probably more useful to those with memory problems than to those with normal memory
  35. Such systems are cumbersome to carry and may distract the user from other tasks that they are doing.
  36. The comMotion system does not have a good mental model of the user.
  37. What was the feature of the Hydra system that distinguished it from other telepresence/teleconferencing systems?
  38. It embedded a robot in the remote location to interact with remote colleagues in different locations.
  39. It created a video wall that allowed people in two remotely located common rooms to interact with each other informally.
  40. It used the principle of “translucence” to make the participants and their activities more visible to all participants.
  41. The spatial arrangement of Hydra units created a spatial layout of face images and speech sounds that could happen in a physical environment.
  42. What is affective computing? Select the best answer.
  43. Computing that produces interfaces than engage human emotions.
  44. Computing that produces interfaces in an efficient manner.
  45. Interfaces that apologize to their users
  46. Interfaces that look and behave like people.
  47. The character Rea is an example of what?
  48. A real­estate agent
  49. A zoomorphic interface
  50. A persuasive technology
  51. An embodied agent.
  52. Based on informal tests, what was the most effective way in which the WaterBot system change domestic water usage?
  53. By coloring the water when usage was high
  54. By providing a colored graph that indicated a person’s water use
  55. By sounding chimes when water usage was high
  56. None of the above.
  57. Which is the best example of triangulation in data gathering?
  58. Collecting information about designer’s model, user’s mental model, and system image.
  59. Using different theories with which to interpret data.
  60. Using multiple researchers in a user­centred evaluation.
  61. Collecting data from users in different ways with different methods.
  62. What is a disadvantage of unstructured interviews for gathering

information about users’ tasks?

  1. Information about how tasks are actually performed, rather than ideally performed, may be gathered.
  2. Answers to all potentially relevant questions may not be gathered.
  3. The data collected are rich and complex.
  4. Different interviewees may give different answers to the questions.
  5. What is a disadvantage of using focus groups to elicit user requirements?
  6. Users may not be able to articulate what their requirements are.
  7. Diverse or sensitive issues may be raised.
  8. People don’t necessarily respond the same way in a test as they would do in real life.
  9. Differences of opinion may emerge that confuse the requirements gathering process.
  10. A question format that collects users’ opinions on a verbal scale (eg.,

strongly disagree to strongly agree) is called what?

  1. A psychometric scale
  2. A Likert scale
  3. A questionnaire
  4. An open­response questionnaire item.
  5. What is a “participant observer”
  6. An observer who partly participates in the activity they are observing.
  7. A participant who observes the activity they are participating in.
  8. An observer who watches participants.
  9. A participant who watches observers.
  10. Which set of properties best characterises an “ethnographic” study?
  11. Participant observation, cultural engagement, collection of diverse forms of evidence and data
  12. Participant observation, scientific objectivity, removal of cultural bias
  13. “Anthropological strangeness”, collection of audiovisual data.
  14. Use of the model human processor to analyse findings.
  15. What was an important feature of the process by which the Mobiphos photograph sharing application (Patel et al., 2009) was evaluated?
  16. Agile programming methods were interlaces with iterative user testing.
  17. Four different data gathering techniques were used.
  18. Participatory design was used.
  19. Vibrations indicated the arrival of new photos in the application.
  20. In the following data set, which number is the mode? 4 5 5 5 6 7 8 8
  21. 5
  22. 5.5
  23. 6
  24. None of the above.
  25. What is an affinity diagram?
  26. A diagram showing the degree of connection between people in social networks
  27. A diagram used to show people’s cultural affinities or sense of belonging to groups.
  28. A diagram that organises individual ideas and insights into a hierarchy showing themes.
  29. A variant of a tag cloud that is generated from think­aloud protocols.
  30. Select the best way of analysing qualitative user comments collected during a user test.
  31. Classify the comments into categories and count number of comments in each category.
  32. Find the average and the standard deviation of the data and report it in the body of the report.
  33. Use a scatterplot to graph users on the x axis and comments on the y axis.
  34. Look for critical incidents to report.
  35. What are web analytics?
  36. Online methods for performing usability tests through the cloud.
  37. Web­based methods for performing analysis of video records and electronic logs of user interaction
  38. Web­based methods for performing statistical analysis of data, using tools such as SPSS.
  39. Online methods for analysing and visualising patterns of visiting a website, viewing pages, etc..
  40. How would a researcher perform an analysis of user data from the perspective of Activity Theory?
  41. Classify user comments according to the tool, subject, object, community, rules, division of labor, and outcome expressed.
  42. Classify user comments according to the representational state or medium the user is handling at each point in time.
  43. Analyse data in successive passes, including open coding, axial coding, and selective coding.
  44. Try to determine the mental model of the user on the basis of the activity they are carrying out.
  45. Which of the following is not one of Saffer’s (2010) four approaches to

interaction design?

  1. User­centred design
  2. Systems design
  3. Genius design
  4. Conceptual design.
  5. Should end­users always have a high degree of participation in software development?
  6. Yes: the fundamental principle of interaction design is early involvement of end­users, which should be universally applied.
  7. Not always: different levels of participant are warranted for different kinds of projects and different project stages.
  8. Never: end­users do not know how to articulate their own requirements and do not necessarily have enough technical expertise
  9. None of the above.
  10. What is the Volere shell?
  11. An operating system similar to Unix.
  12. A template for specifying system requirements.
  13. A framework for defining personas and scenarios
  14. A template for creating cultural probe packages.
  15. What is Contextual Inquiry?
  16. A component of Contextual Design.
  17. A way of asking about user context for awareness applications.
  18. Participant observation in relevant use contexts
  19. A component of Contextual Embodiment Theory.
  20. “An informal narrative description of human activities or tasks in a story that allows exploration and discussion of contexts, needs, and requirements”. This best describes which of the following?
  21. Use case
  22. Essential use case
  23. Storyboard
  24. Scenario.
  25. Which of the following is a problem with low­level prototyping?
  26. Testers tend to comment on superficial aspects and not content.
  27. They take too long to build.
  28. User expectations can be set too high.
  29. None of the above.
  30. What is the most important property that a prototype should have?
  31. It should support a wide range of user tests.
  32. It should look like the final product.
  33. It should allow the key design concepts to be tested with users.
  34. It should be easy to throw away.
  35. Where would a card­based prototype best fit in the design process?
  36. After conceptual design, before scenario design
  37. After scenario design, before storyboarding.
  38. After storyboarding, before low­level prototyping.
  39. After low­level prototyping, before high­level prototyping.
  40. What kind of activity does the D.E.C.I.D.E. acronym support?
  41. Planning and conducting an evaluation and analysing the data.
  42. Conducting user tests.
  43. Deciding what kind of prototype to use for user tests.
  44. Deciding whether to perform empirical or analytical evaluations.
  45. You are running a user test session and your participant wants to leave half way through the session. What do you do?
  46. Ask them to stay until the end as planned, so you can collect your

data.

  1. After ensuring they do not need medical help, let them leave, with your thanks.
  2. Offer them an incentive payment to encourage them to finish the session.
  3. Refuse to let them leave until they have finished the session.
  4. Which professional groups are most appropriately involved in preparation and performance of the classic kind of cognitive walkthrough?
  5. End users and designers
  6. Designers and usability experts
  7. Usability experts and marketing personnel
  8. Designers and marketing personnel.
  9. How was the GOMS (Goals, Operators, Methods, Selection rules) used in Project Ernestine (Gray et al., 1993)?
  10. GOMS allowed researchers to predict how long it would take telephone operators to use a new computer interface.
  11. GOMS predicted the errors that telephone operators would make before the operators used the new software.
  12. GOMS predicted the increase in mental workload experienced by the telephone operators
  13. Interface metaphors.

 

 

 

 

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Question 19:                Mathematics

 

MAT 510 Week 11 Final Exam | Complete

 

  • Question 1 Which of the following are principles of Statistical Thinking?
  • Question 2 The Statistical Thinking Strategy has significant commonality with the
  • scientific method. Which of the following statistical thinking principles is NOT generally associated with the scientific method?
  • Question 3 The primary goal of process mapping is to:
  • Question 4 Viewing a business as a system is important because:
  • Question 5 If you are thinking creatively about how to take existing tools and link and sequence them to develop a novel approach to solve important problems, this would be an example of:
  • Question 6 If my histogram appears bimodal, what tool might help me evaluate why?
  • Question 7 A sample of 50 invoices are inspected each shift for errors, and classified as either “good”, i.e., without error, or “bad”, having some problem. If we plot our bad invoices each shift on a control chart, which chart should we use?
  • Question 8 Control limits were originally defined at the three-sigma level because:
  • Question 9 A main purpose of a control chart is to:
  • Question 10 What does it mean if capability index Cp is less than 1?
  • Question 11 Which of the following is NOT a measure of model adequacy?
  • Question 12 Which of the following is NOT a reason for adjusted R-Square being low?
  • Question 13 Process models are used to:
  • Question 14 Tips for building useful models include:
  • Question 15 An Adjusted R-square value is a correlation coefficient that has been modified to account for:
  • Question 16 Identify the assumption that is NOT made when conducting an experiment:
  • Question 17 This technique is used to eliminate the effects of nuisance factors (e.g., machines, day of week, and season of year) from an experiment.
  • Question 18 The basic reason for randomness of sampling in design of experiments is:
  • Question 19 Given the plot below, what might you suspect about factors A and B?
  • Question 20 An aspect of good experimental strategy is to study the effects of the variables (Xs) over a wide range. This strategy increases the chances that effects will be found because:
  • Question 21 Based on a regression model, I have developed a 95% prediction interval for the time it will take me to run a mile under specific conditions (weather, what I have eaten & drank, running shoes used, and so on). This interval goes from 5.2 minutes to 6.1 minutes. Which of the following could be an accurate description of this interval?
  • Question 22 We are testing the null hypothesis that the average monthly revenue between four insurance offices is the same. We obtained a p-value of .07. Which of the following would be an appropriate conclusion about the population?
  • Question 23 For which of the following scenarios am I most likely to utilize a Chi-squared test?
  • Question 24 A local university ran a regression model on factors impacting starting job salary of employed graduates. After validating this as a reasonable model, the university noted that the regression coefficient for GPA had a p-value of .10. Which of the following would be a reasonable conclusion in this case?
  • Question 25 After running an ANOVA comparing the average years of experience between five different job classifications, we obtained a p value of .02. Which of the following would be a reasonable conclusion concerning the population in this case?

 

Question 20:                Business

 

ACCT1501 Practice Exam Questions & Solutions

 

QUESTION 1 (6 Marks)Bank Reconciliation

 

The following information is given about Nadak Co.:

  1. The August 31 balance shown on the bank statement is $9,810.
  2. There is a deposit in transit of $1,260 at August 31.
  3. Outstanding cheques at August 31 totalled $1,890.
  4. A bank charge of $40 for cheques was made to the account during August, as shown on the bank statement. Although the company was expecting a charge, its amount was not known until the bank statement arrived.
  5. In the process of reviewing the cheques, it was determined that a cheque issued to a supplier in payment of accounts payable of $361 had been recorded as $631.
  6. The August 31 balance in the general ledger Cash account, before reconciliation, is $8,950.

 

Required:

Part A: Prepare a bank reconciliation as of August 31, 2011.(4 marks)

Part B: Prepare any necessary adjusting journal entries.(2 marks)

 

QUESTION 2 (9 Marks) Financial Reporting Principles, Accounting Standards and Auditing, & Sustainability Reporting

Provide short answers to the following:

  1. What are generally accepted accounting principles?(2 Marks)
  2. Going concern assumption is one of the key assumptions to financial reports. What is going concern assumption? Why is assumption important in the preparation of financial statements?(4 marks)
  3. Describe Scope 1 and Scope 2 emissions and provide an example for each of them. (3 marks)

 

QUESTION 3 Financial Statement Analysis (8 marks)

BPS Ltd, a supplier of telecommunications equipment, retails its products through suburban outlets. Shown below are the calculations of some of its key financial ratios for 2011 and 2012.

 

2012     2011

Return on Equity    13%       12%

Return on Assets     8%        9%

Profit margin            20        18%

Asset turnover          0.40      0.50

Days in inventory      72 days 55 days

Days in debtors        42 days 42 days

Current ratio               1.6       1.5

Quick ratio                  0.7       1.1

Debt-to-Equity ratio      1.4       1.0

 

Return on Equity Operating Profit after Tax/ Shareholders’ Equity

 

Return on Assets Operating Profit after Tax/Total Assets

 

 

Financial Leverage Total Assets/Total Shareholders’ Equity

 

 

Profit Margin Earnings Before Interest and Tax/Sales

 

Asset Turnover Sales/Total Assets

 

 

Days in Inventory Average Inventory/ COGS x 365

 

 

Days in Debtors Average Trade Debtors/Credit Sales x 365

 

 

Current Ratio Current Assets/Current Liabilities

 

 

Quick Ratio Current Assets – Inventory/Current Liabilities

 

 

Debt to Equity Ratio Total Liabilities/Total Shareholders’ Equity

 

Required

Analyse BPS’s profitability, asset management,liquidity and financial structure for 2012 using the ratio information.

 

 

QUESTION 4 (15 marks)Control Accounts

 

Rupert Ltd maintains subsidiary ledgers for debtors and creditors. At 31 May 2014, the debtors control account has a debit balance of $50,120 and the creditors control account has a credit balance of $30,670. An extract of totals from the special journals for the month of June 2014 is as follows:

 

 

 

Credit sales

 

86,500

Cash sales

 

6,100

Credit purchases

 

93,200

Cash received from debtors

 

67,800

Cash paid to creditors

 

55,890

Cash purchases

 

4,300

Discount received from

 

7,500

creditors

 

Discount allowed to debtors

 

3,500

Complete the debtors and creditors control accounts as they would appear in the general ledger.

 

QUESTION 5 ADJUSTING ENTRIES AND FINANCIAL STATEMENTS (23 Marks)

The following pre-adjusted trial balance has been prepared for Sydney Company as at 30 June 2014 (for the 12 months beginning on 1 July 2013):

 

DR         CR

 

$            $

Bank Overdraft                         10,000

Accounts Receivable   200,000

Allowance for Doubtful Debts       1,000

Inventory                    100,000

Prepaid Rent              10,000

Property, Plant and      450,000

Equipment

Accumulated Depreciation – PPE      200,000

Accounts Payable                            60,000

Bank loan                                         50,000

Contributed Capital                            310,000

Retained Profit at 1 July 2013              34,000

Sales revenue                                     4,50,000

Cost of Goods Sold         265,000

Interest Expense                5,000

Wages Expenses              80,000

Rent Expense                     5,000

 

The following information is given which may give rise to year end adjustments:

  • Depreciation on Property, Plant and Equipment is provided for on a straight line basis at 10% per annum, and it is assumed that it will have no salvage value.
  • The balance in Prepaid Rent relates to the 12 month period from 1 January 2014 to 31 December 2014.
  • An ageing analysis shows that $4,000 of Accounts Receivable is estimated to be uncollectible.
  • On 30 June 2014, the directors declared a dividend of $5,000, which the shareholders authorised. The dividend is to be paid on 15 September 2014.
  • It is discovered that $10,000 cash received during the year and credited to sales are actually related to services to be delivered in July 2014.
  • $5,000 of wages relating to June 2014 have not been paid and need to be accrued.

 

Part A (12 Marks)

Prepare journal entries for the necessary end of period adjustments.

Part B (7 Marks)

Prepare an Income Statement for the year ended 30 June 2014:

Part C (4 Marks)

In the Balance Sheet as at 30 June 2014, what would be the closing balance of retained profits? Show all workings.

 

QUESTION 6 (15 marks) Inventory

The following information relates to inventory transactions of Promises Ltd for the month ending 30 June 2014:

 

Date          Cash Purchases         Cash Sales        Balance

1 June                                                                100 units @ $10

10 June         80 units @ $12

18 June                                       140 units @ $20

25 June          30 units @ $14

30 June                                        50 units @ $25

 

Promises Ltd uses FIFO (first-in-first-out) and perpetual inventory control.

 

Calculate the cost of goods sold based on the costs of units sold. (3 Marks)

Prepare the journal entries for inventory purchases and cost of sales for the month of June 2014. (12 Marks)

3 MARKS FOR THE CALCULATION

4 MARKS: 2 MARKS EACH FOR INVENTORY PURCHASE JOURNALS

4 MARKS FOR COST OF SALES ENTRY 18 JUNE

4 MARKS FOR COST OF SALES ENTRY 30 JUNE

 

QUESTION 7 (10Marks) Noncurrent assets

On 1 July 2011, Promises Ltd purchased equipment at a cost of $150,000. The equipment is depreciated using the reducing balance method at the rate of 40% per annum.

 

Prepare the journal entries for depreciation for each year 30 June 2012, 30 June 2013 and 30 June 2014. (9 Marks)

What is the book value of the equipment at 30 June 2014? (1 Mark)

 

3 MARKS EACH FOR EACH JOURNAL (NO HALF MARKS)

1 MARK FOR BOOK VALUE (ALLOWANCE FOR CARRYFORWARD ERRORS)

 

Question 8 Management Accounting and Cost Concepts (13.5 marks)

Part A (2 marks)

For each of the items 1-4 in the table below, indicate whether the item is a product cost or a period cost

 

Item                                                                      Cost Classification

 

1)A food retailer purchases milk for resale

2)Depreciation of head office computers

3)Salaries of production line workers for a

manufacturer

4)Advertising costs to promote a manufacturer’s

 

 

½ mark each entry

 

Part B (9.5 marks)

Bandcamp Ltd manufactures guitars. In the month of January 2014, Bandcamp Ltd recorded:

  • direct labour cost of $200 000
  • raw materials purchased of $400 000
  • total overhead cost of $500 000.

The following information was supplied by Bandcamp Ltd’s accountant about the opening and closing inventory:

 

31 January               1 January

(ending)                 (beginning)

Raw materials inventory                                       $80 000                     $95 000

Work in progress inventory                                   $110 000                   $60 000

Finished goods inventory                                      $255 000                   $75 000

 

Required:

  1. Prepare a cost of goods manufactured statement for January 2014.
  2. Prepare a cost of goods sold statement for January 2014.

 

Part C (2 marks)

Tree & Woods Corp., an international furniture company, manufactures and sells furniture of unique natural material. In 2010, the company sold all 25,000 chairs that it produced at $200 each. Total costs amounted to $3,300,000 comprised of $1,300,000 variable costs and $2,000,000 fixed costs. In 2011, the company purchases a new saw mill for $110,000. The useful life is estimated to be 5 years with a salvage value of $10,000. Each year, the same amount of depreciation expense is recorded. The usage of the new saw mill allows Tree & Woods to reduce variable costs for producing one chair by $7. All other costs remain the same as in 2010.

 

What was Tree & Woods Corp.’s break-even point in number of units in 2010?

 

 

Question 9 – MCQ practice questions

You have seen samples of MCQ in the lectures and in your quiz attempts.

 

 

 

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Question 21:                Business

 

MKTG1280 Sample Practice-Exam-2016-Chapter-1-10

 

Question 22:                Business

 

HTF 201 Part 1 & 2 Questions(Answered)

 

Part 1: Multiple Choice Questions (50 Credits)

 

  1. A restaurant manager notes that actual labor costs exceed the expected labor costs for the volume of business during the week. The manager calls a management meeting to discuss the situation and, if necessary, take corrective action to prevent excessive labor costs for upcoming weeks. Which of the following management functions best describes the kind of work that the management team will be performing?

 

  1. planning
  2. staffing
  3. controlling
  4. organizing

 

  1. Effective control systems can help food and beverage managers:

 

  1. identify mistakes and plan tactics to correct them.
  2. create a mission statement.
  3. identify new menu items to offer.
  4. define strategic objectives.

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements about the role of standards in the control process is TRUE?

 

  1. Industry averages are the best source of information for establishing standards.
  2. Financial standards should always be set on the basis of past financial statements.

 

  1. Standards can be established for revenue goals and sales targets as well as for employee attendance and safety records.

 

  1. Standards are effective only if they state an expected level of performance for individual employees.

 

  1. Robert, the newly hired manager at the independently owned Seasons Restaurant, has discovered that calculations of actual food costs include the cost of providing employee meals. However, employee meals are not included as costs in establishing the restaurant’s standard food costs. Which of the following principles of developing an effective control process has been violated?

 

  1. Information about actual operating results must be simple and easy to collect.

 

  1. Actual information must be collected in a manner consistent with the procedures and formats used to establish performance standards.
  2. Checks on the controls should be part of the control system itself.

 

  1. Actual information generated for control purposes should be compatible with the formats used in accounting systems.

 

  1. A shopper service is a(n):

 

  1. service offered by many businesses to assist guests who are unable to visit the operation in person.

 

  1. Internet-based buying service that offers managers greater control of the purchasing and receiving function.
  2. system of supply in which vendors automatically resupply the restaurant on a schedule

determined by the food and beverage manager.

  1.  control tactic that involves observing and reporting the actual operations of a business.

 

  1. The cost effectiveness of a control system is measured by:

 

  1. comparing the cost of implementing the control system with the cost reductions achieved by using the system.

 

  1. evaluating how well the control system helps identify what corrective action is necessary to bring actual operating results closer to established standards of performance.
  2. assessing the timeliness by which control information is made available to managers.

 

  1. determining if the control system gives priority to factors that are most relevant to attaining the operation’s goals.

 

  1. Service has been slow at the Season’s Restaurant. The manager has traced the problem to the flow of products from the storeroom to production areas. Which of the following control points is likely to be the focus of corrective action?

 

  1. preparing
  2. serving
  3. issuing
  4. storing
  5. purchasing

 

 

  1. A formula for producing a food and beverage item is called a(n):

 

  1. product specification.
  2. portion control percentage.
  3. algorithm.
  4. standard recipe.

 

  1. Which of the following control tools links a restaurant’s suppliers and receiving staff, ensuring that the proper quality of products is available for food production and service?

 

  1. yield percentage worksheets
  2. standard purchase specifications
  3. standard recipes
  4. standard portion size specifications

 

 

 

  1. If the original yield for a standard recipe is 25 portions and the desired yield is 125 portions, what is the adjustment factor?

 

  1. 5.2
  2. 5.0
  3. 2.5
  4. 1.2

 

  1. To produce a desired yield of 20 pounds from a standard recipe with a standard yield of 5 pounds, the amount of each recipe ingredient used should be multiplied by:

 

  1. 5.0.
  2. 4.0.
  3. 0.4.
  4. 0.25
  5. The information is not enough

 

  1. Which of the following budgeting processes ensures that plans are specifically geared to individual operations within multi-unit food service companies?

 

  1. reforecasting
  2. bottom-up budgeting
  3. top-down budgeting
  4. mark-up budgeting

 

  1. Which of the following is most likely to be classified as a variable cost?

 

  1. general manager’s salary
  2. rent expense
  3. property taxes
  4. food costs

 

 

 

  1. At the 120-seat Riverside Restaurant, total variable costs for September were $12,000. For October, the manager expects to sell 10 percent more meals than in September. If the increase in sales volume occurs, the manager should expect the total fixed costs for October to be:

 

  1. lower than in September.
  2. higher than in September.
  3. relatively the same as in September.
  4. impossible to forecast with any accuracy.

 

 

 

  1. At the Virtual Cafe, the average price per meal sold is $15 with an average variable cost of $7. Fixed costs for July are expected to be $30,000. If the restaurant manager expects to sell 5,000 meals in July, the net income (or loss) for the month would be:

 

  1. $25,000 net income.
  2. $10,000 net income.
  3. $0 (breakeven).
  4. $10,000 net loss.
  5. The information isn’t enough

 

  1. Which of the following is an example of an internal factor influencing decisions to change a menu?

 

  1. consumer demand
  2. menu mix
  3. supply levels
  4. competition

 

  1. A chicken dinner has a standard food cost of $3.50. If a 30-percent food cost is desired, what would be the base selling price using the ingredients mark-up method?

 

  1. $11.67
  2. $12.60
  3. $14.76
  4. cannot be determined

 

 

According to the information in the following table answer the questions from 18 to 20.

 

RU Prime-rib burger

 

10 Servings

 

 

 

 

Purchase

Cost/Purchase

Ingredient

Amount Needed

Unit

Unit

ground prime rib

3

lb.

10-lb box

$60.00

crispy fried onions

1

cup

1 gallon

$32.00

Worcestershire sauce

3

cup

1 gallon*

$16.00

pre-sliced mushrooms

1

#10 can

6 #10/case

$18.00

hamburger buns

10

 

a dozen

$6.00

spreadable cheddar cheese

1

lb.

5 lb.

$15.00

 

*1 gallon = 16 cups

 

  1. The standard portion cost of the ground prime rib is:

 

  1. $5.40
  2. $1.80
  3. $2.00
  4. $6.00

 

 

  1. The standard portion cost of each prime-rib burger is

 

  1. $3.40
  2. $14.70
  3. $3.50
  4. $3.20

 

 

  1. If the budgeted food cost is 35%, according to the ingredients markup pricing method, the base selling price for this menu item should be:

 

  1. $5.14
  2. $10.00
  3. $9.14
  4. $9.71
  5. cannot be determined

 

  1. After analyzing menu items, the management team at the Sports Bar & Grill decided that they could increase the prices of several menu items, sell fewer of them, but increase overall revenues. The demand for these menu items would best be characterized as:

 

  1. inelastic.
  2. high.
  3. elastic.
  4. low.

 

 

 

  1. The corporate management team of a theme restaurant chain recently evaluated the chain’s menu items and identified several puzzles. Which of the following would be reasonable strategies for the management team to adopt in relation to these items?

 

  1. Decrease prices.
  2. Place the items in more visible locations on the menu.
  3. Shift demand to these items by using suggestive selling techniques.
  4. All of the above are reasonable strategies.
  5. None of the above are reasonable strategies.

 

  1. Menu engineering classifies menu items that are low in popularity and low in contribution margin as:

 

  1. puzzles.
  2. plowhorses.
  3. stars.
  4. dogs.

 

  1. The Night Owl Restaurant expects to sell 6,000 meals during the upcoming month with an average variable cost per meal sold of $6. Total fixed costs are expected to be $24,000. The average selling price per meal sold at the breakeven point would be:

 

  1. $4.
  2. $6.
  3. $8.

 

 

  1. $10.

 

  1. The Daylight Diner expects to sell 6,000 meals during the upcoming month with an average variable cost per meal sold of $6. If total fixed costs are expected to be $24,000, what would the average selling price per meal sold be if the operation is to meet its $12,000 profit goal for the month?

 

  1. $6
  2. $8
  3. $10
  4. $12

 

 

  1. In relation to the food service purchasing cycle, which of the following positions is generally responsible for completing an issue requisition when items are needed in food production areas?

 

  1. chef
  2. purchasing agent
  3. receiving agent
  4. storeroom clerk

 

  1. Which of the following terms describes a series of records, documents, or reports that trace the flow of resources through an operation?

 

  1. purchase specification
  2. audit trail
  3. delivery invoice
  4. inventory checklist

 

  1. In relation to the purchasing function, the term quality refers to:

 

  1. highest price.
  2. popularity of a menu item.
  3. suitability for intended use.
  4. greatest value.

 

 

  1. A stockout can occur as a result of:

 

  1. employing a perpetual inventory system.
  2. over-purchasing.
  3. inadequate menu engineering.
  4. under-purchasing.

 

 

 

 

  1. With the minimum/maximum ordering system, the quantity of the order point of an item in storage is determined by the:

 

  1. usage rate plus the minimum level.
  2. usage rate plus the lead-time quantity.
  3. lead-time quantity plus the safety level.
  4. lead-time quantity minus the safety level.

 

 

According to the information in the table below, minimum/maximum ordering system is used in determining the quantity of the purchase order, answer the questions from 30 to 32:

 

Purchase unit

10-lb poly bag (frozen chicken)

Usage rate

100 lb per day

Order period

5 days

Lead time

1 day

Safety level

100 lb

 

  1. The order point quantity of this item should be at:
  2. 100lb
  3. 200lb
  4. 300lb

 

 

Question 6:        Business

 

Instruction:

Now that you have had an opportunity to learn about our lesson subject matter it is now time for you to complete your Poster Project

Remember the target audience for the poster. The poster should demonstrate knowledge of the particular topic or event being talked about (promoted), and its importance to the society and culture as well as an understanding of this subject matter. Your poster should be colourful and well laid out. The poster should demonstrate thoughtful consideration and careful planning.

assess the challenges facing a business that wants to market a product internationally Business Studies Overall Expectation

compare the approaches taken by various companies to market their products internationally Business Studies Overall Expectation

demonstrate an understanding of the logistics of, and challenges associated with, distribution to local, national, and international markets

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Question 7:        Health Care

 

Instruction

In a 2- to 3-page essay, answer the following questions: List and describe five elements of system control. What happens if one of these systems is skipped or not specifically addressed? Provide evidence from personal examples. As a healthcare manager, how will you ensure these issues are addressed? Support your opinions with evidence from your prior learning experiences and external, peer-reviewed sources available through the WCU Library. You may cite particular courses or readings from prior coursework in your paper. Your paper should be 2–3 pages in length and follow current APA formatting and citation.

 

 

Question 8:        Health Care

 

Instruction

In this activity, you are expanding a business into an international market by examining economic systems and choosing appropriate entry modes based on host country circumstances. Click the link below to access the activity. After completing the activity, click the button to download the PDF file and attach it to this assignment. Write a reflection in which you address the following: What did you learn about entrepreneurship during this activity? Provide a detailed real-world example of a situation in which you could apply these concepts. Your reflection should be 1–2 pages in length, include evidence or information from at least one credible source, and follow APA formatting and citation.

 

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  1. 400lb

 

  1. The purchase units (bag) should be ordered at the order point are:

 

  1. 50
  2. 20
  3. 30
  4. 40

 

  1. The number of pounds at the maximum inventory level would be:

 

  1. 500lb
  2. 600lb
  3. 300lb
  4. 200lb

 

  1. Which of the following best characterizes the purchasing function of franchisees of a multi-unit food and beverage company?

 

  1. Franchisees may purchase products such as fresh produce and bakery items locally, but must buy all other items from the franchisor company.
  2. Franchisees are required to purchase all products—regardless of type—from their franchisors.

 

  1. Franchisees are not required to purchase products from specific sources such as company commissaries, but they are required by franchisors to adhere to company-developed specifications in products purchased from any supplier.

 

  1. As part of their agreement with franchisors, franchisees are permitted to purchase both food and non-food products for their operation from any supplier without restriction.

 

 

 

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  1. Ownership of product is transferred from the supplier to the food and beverage operation when the receiving employee signs the:

 

  1. delivery invoice.
  2. daily receiving report.
  3. purchase order.
  4. standard purchase specification sheet.

 

 

 

  1. To help make the receiving function secure and efficient, the physical transfer of food and beverage products to the storage area should be the responsibility of:

 

  1. supplier delivery personnel.
  2. assigned staff from the property.
  3. the food and beverage controller.
  4. either a or c above.

 

 

  1. How would fresh meats be categorized by an ABCD inventory classification system?

 

  1. Class A: high in perishability and high in cost per serving
  2. Class B: low in perishability and high in cost per serving
  3. Class C: high in perishability and low in cost per serving
  4. Class D: low in perishability and low in cost per serving

 

  1. Which of the following statements about food products classified as “directs” is TRUE?

 

  1. Usage rates and inventory levels determine the purchasing pattern for directs.
  2. Directs are recorded in inventory records.

 

  1. Directs are considered part of the food costs for the day on which they are received and stored.
  2. Directs are controlled by a minimum/maximum inventory system.

 

 

  1. Which of the following food service control points links receiving and issuing functions?

 

  1. issuing
  2. storing
  3. purchasing
  4. accounting

 

  1. When a distributor shreds whole cabbages and places the shredded cabbage in bags for sale to restaurants, the distributor has added __________ value to the product.

 

  1. form
  2. time
  3. informational
  4. place

 

 

  1. According to the reading: Food Distribution, which of the following is not a distribution alternative in theory?

 

  1. Self-distribution
  2. Order from national or regional broad-line distributors
  3. Developing a primary-vendor relationship with a broad-line distributor
  4. Contracting for delivery with a systems specialist
  5. Catalog online ordering

 

 

Answer the questions 41 and 42 based on the following table.

 

Physical Inventory

 

Type of Products _____________________ Month _______________

 

 

Amount in

 

 

product

Storage unit

storage

 

purchase cost

ground beef

10-lb bag

6 bags

$

2.55/lb

canned peaches

6#10/cs

3-3/6 cs

$

39.00/cs

flour

50 lb/bag

2 bags

$

24.10/bag

 

 

  1. In the table above, “3-3/6 cs” denotes

 

  1. 3.83 cases
  2. 3.50 cases
  3. 3.36 cases
  4. 3.30 cases

 

  1. According to the table above, the total value of the physical inventory is:

 

  1. $212.87
  2. $200.00
  3. $194.54
  4. $192.20
  5. $337.70

 

 

Several yield tests for roasting rounds of beef have been carefully undertaken. A summary of results (average per round) follows:

 

 

 

As purchased (AP) Weight = 22lb 8 oz

 

Servable (EP) weight = 18 lb

 

Cost (AP) = $8.00 per lb

 

According to the above test results, answer the questions from 43 -45

 

  1. The cost per servable pound is:

 

  1. $10.13

 

  1. $10.00
  2. $8.00
  3. Cannot determine

 

 

  1. How many pounds of rounds should be purchased for a weekend event being planned for 275 guests, if the edible portion served on each plate should weighs 6 oz?

 

  1. 129 lb

 

  1. 131 lb
  2. 103 lb
  3. Cannot determine.

 

 

  1. If the purchase price (AP) per pound raises to $10, the cost of servable pound is:

 

  1. $12.00

 

  1. $ 11.00
  2. $12.50
  3. $ 11.50

Perpetual Inventory

 

Product Name: Frozen lobsters (case)

 

Carried forward: __0______

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Date

In

 

Out

Balance

1/7

3

 

 

 

 

3

1/9

 

 

 

 

2

1

1/10

 

 

 

 

1

0

1/12

5

 

 

 

1

4

1/15

 

 

 

 

2

2

 

 

  1. According to the perpetual inventory sheet shown above, there should be ______ cases in the inventory on Jan. 15.

 

  1. 2

 

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 0

 

Part II. Short Answer ( 24 credits)

 

  1. What are the major differences between restaurants within hotels and freestanding restaurants (2 credits)? How these differences may create unique operation challenges to the food service operations within lodging facilities (2 credits)?
  2. The following are the main factors suggested to consider when designing cost control systems for food operations. Circle ONLY five of them and explain how these factors should be considered when designing food cost control systems for a restaurant. (5 credits)
  3. (1) What is a purchase specification (1 credit) ? (2) What essential piece of information must a written purchase specification include (3 credits) ? (3) Write a purchase specification for a RU Dinning menu item ingredient, beef patty, used for the Prime Rib burger (2 credits); (4) list the major benefits of developing a purchase specification for a food and beverage operation. (3 credits)
  4. Select any one of the following control points and describe in details what an ideal cost control system should be for this control point (including control methods, measures, standards and standard procedures, if it is used for an independent freestanding restaurant (6 credits).

 

 

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Question 23:                Business

 

MGT 498 Final Exam Answers | Complete

 

1) In a survey of 50 corporations, which of the following was rated as a benefit of strategic management?

 

2) Research suggests that strategic management evolves through four sequential phases in corporations. The first phase is

 

3) Strategic management is that set of managerial decisions and actions that determine the long-run performance of a corporation. Which one of the following is NOT one of the basic elements of the strategic management process?

 

4) The relationship among the board of directors, top management, and shareholders is referred to as

 

5) The concept that proposes private corporations have responsibilities to society that extend beyond making a profit is known as

 

6) Who said that the social responsibility of business is a “fundamentally subversive doctrine” and that the one social responsibility of business is “to use its resources and engage in activities designed to increase its profits so long as it stays with the rules of the game…”?

 

7) Which of the following is NOT descriptive of external environmental scanning?

 

8) According to Porter, the corporation is most concerned with

 

9) When a company determines a competency’s competitive advantage, Barney refers to this issue as

 

10) An acronym for the assessment of the external and internal environments of the business corporation in the process of strategy formulation/strategic planning is

 

11) In the development of a SFAS matrix, the first step is to

 

12) The technique that illustrates how management can match the external opportunities and threats with its strengths and weaknesses to yield four sets of strategic alternatives is called a (an)

 

13) Which strategy specifies the firm’s overall direction in terms of its general orientation toward growth, the industries or markets in which it competes, and the manner in which it coordinates activities and transfers resources among business units?

 

14) Continuous improvement is an operations concept developed in

 

15) The process by which a firm approaches its cross-border activities and those of competitors, and plans to approach them in the future, is called

 

16) What question must managers ask concerning the relationship between economic logic and international strategy?

 

  1. How does our international strategy contribute to the economic logic of our business and corporate strategies?

 

17) Which strategy is developed to pull together the various activities and competencies of each department so that corporate and business unit performance improves and resource productivity is maximized?

 

18) The strategy that deals with product and process innovation and improvement is known as a ________ strategy.

 

19) The hiring of new people with new skills, firing of people with inappropriate or substandard skills, and/or training existing employees to learn new skills are included the process of

 

20) The strategy implementation tool used to determine what actions are going to be taken, by whom, during what time frame, and with what expected results is called a(n)

 

21) Executives with a particular mix of skills and experiences may be classified as an executive type and paired with

 

22) According to the text, what is the “key” to effective management of change in culture?

 

23) The sum total of the activities and choices required for the execution of a strategic plan is known as in

 

24) Who typically implements strategy in large, multi-industry corporations?

 

25) Which one of the following is NOT a part of the evaluation and control of performance?

 

26) The end result of activity is known as

 

27) Which is the MOST commonly used measure of corporate performance (in terms of profit)?

 

28) Because of the belief that accounting-based numbers such as ROI, ROE, and EPS are not reliable indicators of a corporation’s economic value, which method of corporate performance is now preferred?

 

29) Which company experienced a tarnished reputation and scandal after experiencing behavior substitution when employees altered their behavior on the job to fit the reward system?

 

30) Suboptimization occurs when

 

Question 24:                Business

 

ACC 349 Final Exam | Complete Solution

 

 

1) What is the best way to handle manufacturing overhead costs in order to get the most timely job cost information?

  1. The company should add actual manufacturing overhead costs to jobs as soon as the overhead costs are incurred.
    B. The company should determine an allocation rate as soon as the actual costs are known, and then apply manufacturing overhead to jobs.
    C. The company should account for only the direct production costs.
    D. The company should apply overhead using an estimated rate throughout the year.

2) At the end of the year, manufacturing overhead has been over applied. What occurred to create this situation?

  1. The company incurred more manufacturing overhead costs than the manufacturing overhead assigned to jobs.
    B. The actual manufacturing overhead costs were less than the manufacturing overhead assigned to jobs.
    C. The company incurred more total job costs than the amount budgeted for the job.
    D. Estimated manufacturing overhead was less than actual manufacturing overhead costs.

3) Luca Company overapplied manufacturing overhead during 2006. Which one of the following is part of the year end entry to dispose of the overapplied amount assuming the amount is material?

  1. A decrease to work in process inventory
    B. A decrease to applied overhead
    C. An increase to finished goods
    D. An increase to cost of goods sold

4) Which of the following would be accounted for using a job order cost system?

  1. The production of textbooks
    B. The production of town homes
    C. The pasteurization of milk
    D. The production of cans of spinach

5) Which one of the following is NEVER part of recording the issuance of raw materials in a job order cost system?

  1. Debit Manufacturing Overhead
    B. Debit Finished Goods Inventory
    C. Debit Work in Process Inventory
    D. Credit Raw Materials Inventory

6) What is unique about the flow of costs in a job order cost system?

  1. It involves accumulating material, labor, and manufacturing overhead costs as they are incurred in order to determine the job cost.
    B. Each job is costed separately in a Work in Process subsidiary ledger.
    C. Job costs cannot be measured until all overhead costs are determined.
    D. There are no costs remaining in Work in Process at year end.

7) Which one of the following costs would be included in manufacturing overhead of a lawn mower manufacturer?

  1. The cost of the fuel lines that run from the motor to the gas tank
    B. The cost of the wheels
    C. Depreciation on the testing equipment
    D. The wages earned by motor assemblers

8) What broad functions do the management of an organization perform?

  1. Planning, directing, and controlling
    B. Directing, manufacturing, and controlling
    C. Planning, directing, and selling
    D. Planning, manufacturing, and controlling

9) Which of the following represents the correct order in which inventories are reported on a manufacturer’s balance sheet?

  1. Work in process, finished goods raw materials
    B. Raw materials, work in process, finished goods
    C. Finished goods, work in process, raw materials
    D. Work in process, raw materials, finished goods

10) In traditional costing systems, overhead is generally applied based on

  1. machine hours
    B. direct labor
    C. direct material dollars
    D. units of production

11) An activity that has a direct cause-effect relationship with the resources consumed is a(n)

  1. overhead rate
    B. product activity
    C. cost driver
    D. cost pool

12) A well-designed activity-based costing system starts with

  1. computing the activity-based overhead rate
    B. analyzing the activities performed to manufacture a product
    C. identifying the activity-cost pools
    D. assigning manufacturing overhead costs for each activity cost pool to products

13) Which of the following factors would suggest a switch to activity-based costing?

  1. Overhead costs constitute a significant portion of total costs.
    B. Production managers use data provided by the existing system.
    C. Product lines similar in volume and manufacturing complexity.
    D. The manufacturing process has been stable.

14) All of the following statements are correct EXCEPT that

  1. the objective of installing ABC in service firms is different than it is in a manufacturing firm
    B. the general approach to identifying activities and activity cost pools is the same in a service company as in a manufacturing company
    C. activity-based costing has been widely adopted in service industries
    D. a larger proportion of overhead costs are company-wide costs in service industries

15) What sometimes makes implementation of activity-based costing difficult in service industries is

  1. identifying activities, activity cost plus, and cost drivers
    B. attempting to reduce or eliminate nonvalue-added activities
    C. the labeling of activities as value-added
    D. that a larger proportion of overhead costs are company-wide costs

16) One of Astro Company’s activity cost pools is machine setups, with estimated overhead of $150,000. Astro produces sparklers (400 setups) and lighters (600 setups). How much of the machine setup cost pool should be assigned to sparklers?

  1. $60,000
    B. $90,000
    C. $150,000
    D. $75,000

17) Poodle Company manufactures two products, Mini A and Maxi B. Poodle’s overhead costs consist of setting up machines, $800,000; machining, $1,800,000; and inspecting, $600,000. Information on the two products is:
Mini A Maxi B
Direct labor hours 15,000 25,000
Machine setups 600 400
Machine hours 24,000 26,000
Inspections 800 700

Overhead applied to Mini A using activity-based costing is

  1. $1,536,000
    B. $1,664,000
    C. $1,920,000
    D. $1,200,000

18) Poodle Company manufactures two products, Mini A and Maxi B. Poodle’s overhead costs consist of setting up machines, $800,000; machining, $1,800,000; and inspecting, $600,000. Information on the two products is:
Mini A Maxi B
Direct labor hours 15,000 25,000
Machine setups 600 400
Machine hours 24,000 26,000
Inspections 800 700

Overhead applied to Maxi B using activity-based costing is

  1. $1,536,000
    B. $1,664,000
    C. $2,000,000
    D. $1,280,000

19) Seran Company has contacted Truckel Inc. with an offer to sell it 5,000 of the wickets for $18 each. If Truckel makes the wickets, variable costs are $11 per unit. Fixed costs are $12 per unit; however, $5 per unit is avoidable. Should Truckel make or buy the wickets?

  1. Buy; savings = $10,000
    B. Make; savings = $20,000
    C. Make; savings = $10,000
    D. Buy; savings = $25,000

20) Rosen, Inc. has 10,000 obsolete calculators, which are carried in inventory at a cost of $20,000. If the calculators are scrapped, they can be sold for $1.10 each (for parts). If they are repackaged, at a cost of $15,000, they could be sold to toy stores for $2.50 per unit. What alternative should be chosen, and why?

  1. Repackage; revenue is $5,000 greater than cost.
    B. Scrap; incremental loss is $9,000.
    C. Repackage; receive profit of $10,000.
    D. Scrap; profit is $1,000 greater.

21) The cost to produce Part A was $10 per unit in 2005. During 2006, it has increased to $11 per unit. In 2006, Supplier Company has offered to supply Part A for $9 per unit. For the make-or-buy decision,

  1. incremental costs are $1 per unit
    B. net relevant costs are $1 per unit
    C. differential costs are $2 per unit
    D. incremental revenues are $2 per unit

22) Hartley, Inc. has one product with a selling price per unit of $200, the unit variable cost is $75, and the total monthly fixed costs are $300,000. How much is Hartley’s contribution margin ratio?

  1. 37.5%
    B. 150%.
    C. 266.6%
    D. 62.5%.

23) Which statement describes a fixed cost?

  1. The amount per unit varies depending on the activity level.
    B. It varies in total at every level of activity.
    C. It remains the same per unit regardless of activity level.
    D. Its total varies proportionally to the level of activity.

24) Disney’s variable costs are 30% of sales. The company is contemplating an advertising campaign that will cost $22,000. If sales are expected to increase $40,000, by how much will the company’s net income increase?

  1. $28,000
    B. $18,000
    C. $6,000
    D. $12,000

25) Variable costing

  1. is required under GAAP
    B. is used for external reporting purposes
    C. is also known as full costing
    D. treats fixed manufacturing overhead as a period cost

26) Which cost is NOT charged to the product under variable costing?

  1. Direct labor
    B. Direct materials
    C. Fixed manufacturing overhead
    D. Variable manufacturing overhead

27) Orbach Company sells its product for $40 per unit. During 2005, it produced 60,000 units and sold 50,000 units (there was no beginning inventory). Costs per unit are: direct materials $10, direct labor $6, and variable overhead $2. Fixed costs are: $480,000 manufacturing overhead, and $60,000 selling and administrative expenses. The per unit manufacturing cost under absorption costing is

  1. $18
    B. $16
    C. $27
    D. $26

28) Which of the following is NOT considered an advantage of using standard costs?

  1. Standard costs can be useful in setting prices for finished goods.
    B. Standard costs can reduce clerical costs.
    C. Standard costs can make employees “cost-conscious.”
    D. Standard costs can be used as a means of finding fault with performance.

29) The difference between a budget and a standard is that

  1. a budget expresses management’s plans, while a standard reflects what actually happened
    B. standards are excluded from the cost accounting system, whereas budgets are generally incorporated into the cost accounting system
    C. a budget expresses a total amount while a standard expresses a unit amount
    D. a budget expresses what costs were, while a standard expresses what costs should be

30) If a company is concerned with the potential negative effects of establishing standards, they should

  1. offer wage incentives to those meeting standards
    B. set tight standards in order to motivate people
    C. not employ any standards
    D. set loose standards that are easy to fulfill

31) The per-unit standards for direct materials are 2 gallons at $4 per gallon. Last month, 11,200 gallons of direct materials that actually cost $42,400 were used to produce 6,000 units of product. The direct materials quantity variance for last month was

  1. $2,400 favorable
    B. $5,600 unfavorable
    C. $3,200 unfavorable
    D. $3,200 favorable

32) The standard number of hours that should have been worked for the output attained is 8,000 direct labor hours and the actual number of direct labor hours worked was 8,400. If the direct labor price variance was $8,400 unfavorable, and the standard rate of pay was $18 per direct labor hour, what was the actual rate of pay for direct labor?

  1. $15 per direct labor hour
    B. $18 per direct labor hour
    C. $19 per direct labor hour
    D. $17 per direct labor hour

33) The total variance is $10,000. The total materials variance is $4,000. The total labor variance is twice the total overhead variance. What is the total overhead variance?

  1. $2,000
    B. $4,000
    C. $3,000
    D. $1,000

34) Manufacturing overhead costs are applied to work in process on the basis of

  1. standard hours allowed
    B. actual overhead costs incurred
    C. ratio of actual variable to fixed costs
    D. actual hours worked

35) The overhead volume variance relates only to

  1. variable overhead costs
    B. both variable and fixed overhead costs
    C. all manufacturing costs
    D. fixed overhead costs

36) If the standard hours allowed are less than the standard hours at normal capacity,

  1. the overhead volume variance will be unfavorable
    B. the overhead controllable variance will be favorable
    C. variable overhead costs will be overapplied
    D. variable overhead costs will be underapplied

37) Gottberg Mugs is planning to sell 2,000 mugs and mugs during April. Each mug requires 2 pounds of resin and a half hour of direct labor. Resin costs $1 per pound and employees of the company are paid $12.50 per hour. Manufacturing overhead is applied at a rate of 120% of direct labor costs. Gottberg has 2,000 pounds of resin in beginning inventory and wants to have 2,400 pounds in ending inventory. How much is the total amount of budgeted direct labor for April?

  1. $12,500
    B. $25,000
    C. $27,500
    D. $13,750

38) Lewis Hats is planning to sell 600 straw hats. Each hat requires a half pound of straw and a quarter hour of direct labor. Straw costs $0.20 per pound and employees of the company are paid $22 per hour. Lewis has 80 pounds of straw and 40 hats in beginning inventory and wants to have 50 pounds of straw and 60 hats in ending inventory. How many units should Lewis Hats produce in April?

  1. 600
    B. 580
    C. 630
    D. 620

39) At January 1, 2004, Barry, Inc. has beginning inventory of 4,000 widgets. Barry estimates it will sell 35,000 units during the first quarter of 2004 with a 10% increase in sales each quarter. Barry’s policy is to maintain an ending inventory equal to 25% of the next quarter’s sales. Each widget costs $1 and is sold for $1.50. How much is budgeted sales revenue for the third quarter of 2004?

  1. $57,525
    B. $63,525
    C. $42,350
    D. $63,000

40) In most cases, prices are set by the

  1. customers
    B. largest competitor
    C. selling company
    D. competitive market

41) A company must price its product to cover its costs and earn a reasonable profit in

  1. all cases
    B. its early years
    C. the long run
    D. the short run

42) The cost-plus pricing approach’s major advantage is

  1. it considers customer demand
    B. that sales volume has no effect on per unit costs
    C. it is simple to compute
    D. it can be used to determine a product’s target cost

 

 

 

 

 

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Question 25:                Economics

 

ECON 205 FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE

Exam #1

 

  1. A resource is anything that:
  2. A) can be used in production.
  3. B) you pay for.
  4. C) is in scarce supply.
  5. D) can be consumed.

 

  1. Scarcity in economics means:
  2. A) not having sufficient resources to produce all the goods and service we want.
  3. B) the wants of people are limited.
  4. C) there must be poor people in rich countries.
  5. D) economics are clearly not doing their jobs.

 

  1. Opportunity cost is:
  2. A) about half of the monetary cost of a product.
  3. B) the dollar payment for a product.
  4. C) the benefit derived from a product.
  5. D) the value of the best alternative forgone in making any choice.

 

  1. Margo spends $10,000 on one year’s college tuition. The opportunity cost of spending one year in college for Margo is:
  2. A) $10,000
  3. B) whatever she would have purchased with the $10,000 instead.
  4. C) whatever she would have earned had she not been in college.
  5. D) whatever she would have purchased with the $10,000 instead and whatever she would have earned had she not been in college.

 

  1. We are forced to make choices because of:
  2. A) exploitation.
  3. B) efficiency.
  4. C) scarcity.
  5. D) the margin.

 

  1. A choice made ________ is a choice whether to do a little more or a little less of something.
  2. A) at the fringe
  3. B) in the beginning
  4. C) at the margin
  5. D) after the fact

 

  1. A production possibility frontier illustrates the ______ facing an economy that ______ only two goods.
  2. A) prices; sells
  3. B) trade-offs; produces
  4. C) trade-offs; consumes
  5. D) shortages; produces

 

  1. When moving along a production possibility frontier, the opportunity cost to society of getting more of one good:
  2. A) is constant.
  3. B) is measured in dollar terms.
  4. C) is measured by the amount of the good that must be given up.
  5. D) usually decreases.

 

Use the following to answer questions 9-11:

Figure: Guns and Butter

 

 

 

9.

(Figure: Guns and Butter) On this figure, points A, B, E, and F:

  1. A) indicate combinations of guns and butter that society can produce using all of its factor efficiently.
  2. B) show that the opportunity cost of more guns increases, but that of more butter decreases.
  3. C) indicate that society wants butter more than it wants guns.
  4. D) indicate constant costs for guns and increasing costs for butter.

 

  1. (Figure: Guns and Butter) This possibility frontier is:
  2. A) bowed out from the origin because of increasing opportunity costs.
  3. B) bowed in toward the origin because of increasing  opportunity costs.
  4. C) bowed in toward the origin because of constant  costs of guns and butter.
  5. D) linear because of constant costs.

 

  1. (Figure: Guns and Butter) If the economy were operating at point B, producing 16 units of guns and 12 units of butter per period, a decision to move to point E and produce 18 units of butter:
  2. A) indicates you can have more butter and guns simultaneously.
  3. B) makes it clear that this economy experiences decreasing opportunity costs.
  4. C) involves a loss of 8 units of guns per period.
  5. D) involves a loss of 4 units of guns per period.

 

  1. An economy is said to have a comparative advantage in the production of one good if it:
  2. A) can produce more of all goods than another country.
  3. B) can produce less of all goods than another country.
  4. C) has the highest opportunity cost for producing a particular good.
  5. D) has the lowest opportunity cost for producing a particular good.

 

  1. In one hour, the United States can produce 25 tons of steel or 250 automobiles. In one hour, Japan can produce 30 tons of steel or 275 automobiles. This information implies that:
  2. A) Japan has a comparative advantage in the production of automobiles.
  3. B) the Unites States has an absolute advantage in the production of steel.
  4. C) Japan has a comparative advantage in the production of both goods.
  5. D) the United States has a comparative advantage in the production of automobiles.

 

  1. Free trade between countries:
  2. A) should be based on absolute advantage.
  3. B) will allow wealthy countries to exploit less developed nations.
  4. C) will shift the domestic production possibility frontier to the right.
  5. D) will allow for greater levels of consumption than without trade.

 

Use the following to answer questions 15-17:

 

Figure: Comparative Advantage

Eastland and Westland produce only two goods, peaches and oranges, and this figure shows each nation’s production possibility frontier for the two foods.

 

 

 

  1. (Figure: Comparative Advantage) The opportunity cost of producing 1 unit of peaches for Westland is:
  2. A) 1 unit of oranges.
  3. B) ¼ unit of oranges.
  4. C) 4 units of oranges.
  5. D) 10 units of oranges

 

  1. (Figure: Comparative Advantage) Westland has an absolute advantage in producing:
  2. A) oranges only.
  3. B) peaches only.
  4. C) both oranges and peaches.
  5. D) neither oranges or peaches.

 

  1. (Figure: Comparative Advantage) Eastland has a comparative advantage in producing:
  2. A) oranges only.
  3. B) peaches only.
  4. C) both oranges and peaches.
  5. D) neither oranges or peaches.

 

  1. The economy’s factors of production are not equally suitable for producing different types of goods. The principle generates:
  2. A) economic growth.
  3. B) technical efficiency.
  4. C) resource underutilization.
  5. D) the law of increasing opportunity cost.

 

  1. Economists generally believe that a country should specialize in the production of a good or service if:
  2. A) the production possibility frontier is larger than that of any other country.
  3. B) the production possibility frontier is smaller than that of any other country.
  4. C) the country can produce the product using fewer resources than any other country.
  5. D) the country can produce the product while forgoing fewer alternative products than any other country.

 

  1. The demand curve for videos has shifted to the right. What could have caused it?
  2. A) a fall in the price of videos
  3. B) an increase in the price of videos
  4. C) an increase in the supply of videos
  5. D) an increase in the incomes of buyers

 

  1. The law of demand states other things equal:
  2. A) as the price increases, the quantity demanded will increase.

 

  1. B) as the price decreases, the demand curve will shift to the right.
  2. C) as the price increases, the demand will decrease.
  3. D) as the price increases, the quantity demanded will decrease.

 

  1. A shift of the demand curve for Luis’s Pizza would not be caused by a change in the:
  2. A) buyer’s incomes.
  3. B) price of Luis’s Pizza.
  4. C) price of Humberto’s Pizza.
  5. D) popularity of Luis’s Pizza.

 

  1. If goods A and B are substitutes, a decrease in the price of good B will:
  2. A) increase the demand for good A.
  3. B) increase the demand for good B.
  4. C) decrease the demand for good A.
  5. D) increase the demand for good B and decrease the demand for good A.

 

Use the following to answer questions 24-25:

 

Figure: Demand for Coconuts

 

 

 

  1. (Figure: Demand for Coconuts) If a coconut is a normal good and the price of coconuts increases, then the movement that would take place in the model could be:
  2. A) A to B.
  3. B) B to A.
  4. C) C to A.
  5. D) E to B.

 

  1. (Figure Demand for Coconuts) If coconuts are considered a normal good and there is an expectation on the part ofconsumers that the prices of coconuts will rise significantly in the near future, then the movement that would take place in the model could be:
  2. A) C to A.
  3. B) A to B.
  4. C) B to E.
  5. D) E to B.

 

  1. When the price of gas goes up and the demand for tires goes down, this means tires and gas are:
  2. A) substitutes.
  3. B) complements.
  4. C) both expensive.
  5. D) both inexpensive.

 

  1. Which of the following would shift the demand curve for new textbook to the right?
  2. A) a decrease in the price of paper
  3. B) a fall in the price of used textbooks
  4. C) an increase in college enrollments
  5. D) a fall in the price of new textbooks

 

  1. A good is normal if:
  2. A) when income increases, the demand remains unchanged.
  3. B) when income increases, the demand decreases.
  4. C) when income increases, the demand increases.
  5. D) income and the demand are unrelated.

 

 

 

 

 

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Exam #2

 

  1. The typical supply curve illustrates that:
  2. A) other things equal, the quantity supplied for a good is inversely related to the price of a good.
  3. B) other things equal, the supply of the good created its own demand for the good.
  4. C) other things equal, the quantity supplied for a good is positively related to the price of a good.
  5. D) price and quantity supplied are unrelated.

 

  1. Which of the following is not a determinant of supply?
  2. A) expectations regarding future prices
  3. B) the technology of production
  4. C) the cost of production
  5. D) consumer tastes

 

Use the following to answer questions 3-5:

 

Figure: Supply of Coconuts

 

  1. (Figure: Supply of Coconuts) If the price of coconuts decreases, then the movement that would take place in the model could be:
  2. A) A to B
  3. B) B to A
  4. C) C to A
  5. D) E to B

 

  1. (Figure: Supply of Coconuts) If the prices of inputs (e.g. labor, fertilizer, and fuel) used to produce and transport coconuts are increasing, then the movement in the model could be:
  2. A) A to B
  3. B) B to A
  4. C) C to A
  5. D) E to B

 

  1. (Figure: Supply of Coconuts) If there is an improvement in the technology used to harvest coconuts (e.g. a faster, less expensive coconut picker), then the movement in the model could be:
  2. A) A to C
  3. B) B to A
  4. C) C to A
  5. D) B to E

 

  1. The market for soybeans is initially in equilibrium. Because of “mad cow disease,” cattle feed producers decided to replace bone meal with soybeans in cattle feed. The likely effect is that:
  2. A) the equilibrium price and quantity of soybeans will rise.
  3. B) the equilibrium price and quantity of soybeans will fall.
  4. C) the equilibrium quantity of soybeans will rise, but we can’t determine what will happen to the equilibrium price.
  5. D) the equilibrium price of soybeans will rise, but we can’t determine what will happen to the equilibrium quantity.

 

  1. Excess supply occurs when:
  2. A) the price is above the equilibrium price.
  3. B) the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied.
  4. C) the price is below equilibrium price.
  5. D) the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied and when the price is below the equilibrium quantity.

 

  1. The market for milk is initially in equilibrium. Milk producers now engage in a costly advertising program to encourage milk drinking. Assume that the advertising campaign succeeds in shifting consumer tastes toward drinking milk and that milk producers provide more milk to the market. More milk producers enter the market. Standard demand and supply analysis tells us that:
  2. A) the equilibrium price and quantity of milk will rise.
  3. B) the equilibrium price and quantity of milk will fall.
  4. C) the equilibrium quantity of milk will rise, but we can’t determine how the equilibrium price will be affected.
  5. D) ) the equilibrium price of milk will rise, but we can’t determine how the equilibrium quantity will be affected.

 

Use the following to answer question 9:

 

Figure: DVD Market

 

 

  1. (Figure: DVD Market) At a rental price of $3, there will be
  2. A) equilibrium in the rental market for DVDs.
  3. B) an increase in demand.
  4. C) an excess supply of 40 DVD rentals.
  5. D) an excess demand of 40 DVD rentals.

 

  1. In the market for corn tortilla chips, what would cause a price increase?
  2. A) Your doctor tells you that you cannot have junk food anymore.
  3. B) There is a technological advancement in the tortilla chip production process.
  4. C) There is a fungus that kills much of the corn crop in Nebraska.
  5. D) The price of salsa triples.

 

  1. Consumer surplus for an individual buyer is equal to:
  2. A) the consumer’s willingness to pay for the good, minus the marginal cost of producing the good.
  3. B) the price of the good, minus the marginal cost od producing the good.
  4. C) the consumer’s willingness to pay for the good, minus the price of the good.
  5. D) the marginal cost of the good, minus the consumer’s willingness to pay for the good.

 

  1. Along a given demand curve, an increase in the price of a good will cause consumer surplus to:
  2. A) increase.
  3. B) decrease.
  4. C) not change.
  5. D) cannot be determined without information about the supply curve.

 

Use the following to answer questions 13-14:

 

Figure: Consumer Surplus II

 

 

  1. (Figure: Consumer Surplus II) At a price of P1, consumer surplus equals the area:
  2. A) ABP2
  3. B) AFP1
  4. C) BGF
  5. D) P1P2BF

 

  1. (Figure: Consumer Surplus II) If the price rises from P1 to P2, consumer surplus decreases by the area:
  2. A) ABP2
  3. B) AFP1
  4. C) BGF
  5. D) P1P2BF

 

  1. The price elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of the change in:
  2. A) quantity demanded to a change in price.
  3. B) price to a change in quantity demanded.
  4. C) the slope of the demand curve to a change in price.
  5. D) the slope of the demand curve to a change in quantity demanded.

 

  1. Suppose the price elasticity of demand for cheeseburgers equals 0.37. This means the overall demand for cheeseburgers is:
  2. A) price elastic.
  3. B) price inelastic.
  4. C) price unit-elastic.
  5. D) perfectly price inelastic.

 

Use the following to answer question 17:

 

Figure: Consumer Surplus III

 

 

  1. (Figure Consumer Surplus III) If the price of the good is $2, consumer surplus will equal:
  2. A) $30.
  3. B) $45.
  4. C) $60.
  5. D) $90.

 

  1. Suppose at a price of $10 the quantity demanded is 100. When the price falls to $8, the quantity demanded increases to 130. The price elasticity of demand between the priced of $10 and $8, using the midpoint method, is approximately:
  2. A) 1.17
  3. B) 1.50
  4. C) 0.85
  5. D) 1.00

 

  1. The publisher of an economics textbook finds that when the book’s price is lowered from $70 to $60, sales rise from 10,000 to 15,000. Using the midpoint method, you can calculate that the price elasticity of demand is:
  2. A) 500
  3. B) 50%
  4. C) 3.5
  5. D) 2.6

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  1. If total revenue goes down when price falls, the price elasticity of demand is said to be:
  2. A) price-inelastic
  3. B) price unit-elastic
  4. C) price-elastic
  5. D) positive

 

  1. To say that two goods are complements, their cross-price elasticity’s of demand should be:
  2. A) less than 0
  3. B) equal to 0
  4. C) positive, yet almost equal to 0
  5. D) greater than 0

 

  1. A perfectly elastic supply curve is:
  2. A) horizontal
  3. B) downward-sloping
  4. C) upward-sloping
  5. D) vertical

 

  1. The income elasticity of demand of a normal good is:
  2. A) between 1 and 0
  3. B) less than 0
  4. C) equal to 0
  5. D) greater than 0

 

  1. To maximize her grade in economics, Stacey should study until:
  2. A) her marginal cost of studying begins to increase.
  3. B) her marginal benefit of studying begins to decrease.
  4. C) her marginal benefit of studying equals her marginal cost of studying.
  5. D) her marginal cost of studying reaches zero.

 

  1. According to the optimal output rule, if marginal benefit:
  2. A) exceeds marginal cost, an activity should be reduced.
  3. B) is less than marginal cost, an activity should be reduced.
  4. C) is equal to marginal cost, an activity should be reduced.
  5. D) exceeds marginal cost, net benefit is maximized.

 

  1. To maximize total net benefit, consumers and firms evaluate each activity at the:
  2. A) average.
  3. B) top.
  4. C) margin.
  5. D) end.

Use the following to answer question 27:

 

Figure: Marginal Cost Curve

 

 

  1. (Figure: Marginal Cost Curve) Using the marginal cost curve in the figure provided, we can determine that the total cost of mowing five lawns is approximately:
  2. A) $68.50
  3. B) $100
  4. C) $50
  5. D) $10

 

  1. If the marginal benefit received from a good is greater than the marginal cost of production, then:
  2. A) society’s well-being can be improved if production increases.
  3. B) society’s well-being can be improved if production decreases.
  4. C) society’s well-being cannot be improved by changing production.
  5. D) the market is producing too much of the good.

 

Question 10

 

1 out of 1 points

 

Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”

 

 

Question 11

 

0 out of 1 points

 

Which of the following books are General Epistles

 

Question 12

 

0 out of 1 points

 

Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?

 

Question 13

 

1 out of 1 points

 

According to the Gospel of John Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is

 

Question 14

 

1 out of 1 points

 

During Jesus’ post-resurrection appearances He comforted Mary, convinced Thomas of His resurrection, and reassured Peter that he was forgiven for denying Him.

 

 

 

Question 15

 

0 out of 1 points

 

John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.

 

 

 

Question 16

 

0 out of 1 points

 

Matthew’s Gospel opens with the genealogy of Jesus traced all the way back through King David and concluding with Isaac who was the child of promise.

 

 

Question 17

 

1 out of 1 points

 

The Acts of the Apostles covers the time from Pentecost to Paul’s imprisonment.

 

 

Question 18

 

0 out of 1 points

 

Mark recounts nearly _______ miracles of Jesus.

 

 

 

Question 19

 

1 out of 1 points

 

John sees prophetic fulfillment in the fact that when they pierced Jesus’ side with a spear both blood and water came out at once.

 

 

 

Question 20

 

0 out of 1 points

 

Matthew’s portrait of Christ is that of

 

Question 21

 

1 out of 1 points

 

In the Gospels, __________, Paul’s physician-missionary, writes with the Greek mentality in view.

 

 

 

Question 22

 

1 out of 1 points

 

The content of the New Testament Letters is doctrinal and personal.

 

Question 23

 

1 out of 1 points

 

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

 

 

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Question 24

 

1 out of 1 points

 

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

 

 

 

Question 25

 

1 out of 1 points

 

In John 3 Jesus met _______________, a Jewish ruler in Jerusalem, to whom He explains what it means to be “born again.”

 

 

Question 26

 

1 out of 1 points

 

At his crucifixion Jesus asked for a drink. John view this as a prophetic fulfillment.

 

 

 

Question 27

 

1 out of 1 points

 

Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?

 

Question 28

 

1 out of 1 points

 

The book of Revelation was written by John on the island of

 

 

Question 29

 

1 out of 1 points

 

In contrast to the Synoptic Gospels, the Gospel of John focuses more on the seven _________________ of Christ.

 

 

 

Question 30

 

1 out of 1 points

 

Matthew’s Gospel describes five extended teaching sessions, which are arranged in five major discourses. This was done so that readers could better follow what Jesus said about specific subjects.

 

 

 

Question 31

 

1 out of 1 points

 

John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”

 

 

Question 32

 

1 out of 1 points

 

Matthew originally crafted this Gospel for a group of Christians who needed to become more familiar with the Old Testament.

 

 

 

Question 33

 

1 out of 1 points

 

The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.

 

 

Question 34

 

1 out of 1 points

 

In the Gospels, _________, the travel companion of Paul and Peter, writes for the Roman mind.

 

 

 

Question 35

 

1 out of 1 points

 

Because Luke was a physician, there seems to be an interest in sickness and healing in the Third Gospel.

 

 

Question 36

 

1 out of 1 points

 

The book of Acts begins with the ascension of Christ and His commission to the apostles to take the gospel message from Jerusalem to the rest of the world.

 

 

 

 

 

Question 37

 

1 out of 1 points

 

According to our textbook, Mark’s theological purpose was to explain the most significant life in all of human history.

 

 

 

Question 38

 

1 out of 1 points

 

The Mark who authored the Gospel of Mark is not the John Mark that Paul did not want to take with him on his second missionary journey.

 

 

 

Question 39

 

1 out of 1 points

 

All the authors of the New Testament were Jews, with the possible exception of the Roman citizen Paul.

 

 

Question 40

1 out of 1 points

 

According to our textbook, the book of Revelation is written in apocalyptic symbolism and makes use of numbers, animals, and colors as graphic symbols of prophetic realties.

 

 

Question 41

 

0 out of 1 points

 

The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.

 

Question 42

 

1 out of 1 points

 

Matthew’s Gospel names no audience for its message other than that which is implied in its Great Commission. Its message was ultimately intended to go to “all nations.”

 

Question 43

 

0 out of 1 points

 

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

 

Question 44

 

0 out of 1 points

 

Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?

 

 

Question 45

 

1 out of 1 points

 

Jesus was buried in a new tomb by Nicodemus and Joseph of Arimathea.

 

 

Question 46

 

1 out of 1 points

 

In the Gospels, _____________, the Hebrew tax collector, writes for the Hebrew mind.

 

 

 

Question 47

 

1 out of 1 points

 

There is no purposeful arrangement to the letters as they are presented in the New Testament.

 

 

 

 

 

 

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Question 48

 

0 out of 1 points

 

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

 

 

Question 49

 

1 out of 1 points

 

Mark’s writing is action packed, forceful, fresh, vivid, dramatic, realistic, graphic, simple, direct, swift, rough, brief, and to the point.

 

 

 

Question 50

 

0 out of 1 points

 

Mark’s portrait of Christ is that of

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 31:                Psychology

 

PSY 203 Week 4 Personality Perspectives Paper

 

 

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper comparing the main themes of the social-cognitive perspective with the humanistic perspective.

  • Describe the main concepts involved in each perspective.
  • Explain how the perspectives differ from one another.
  • Identify possible limitations of each perspective.

Include a minimum of two peer-reviewed articles.

Format citations in your paper consistent with APA guidelines

 

Question 32:      Psychology

 

PSYC 10004 Sample Practice-Exam-2015 MCQS Personality-Psychology

 

 

Sample Personality Exam Questions (answers at bottom of document)

  1. How many trait dimensions did Cattell propose?
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 5
  5. 16
  6. Which statement best describes how Allport and Odbert attempted to define the trait universe?
  7. correlational analysis of trait adjectives
  8. factor analysis of trait adjectives
  9. selection of trait adjectives that describe psychological differences between people
  10. selection of trait adjectives that people use to evaluate each other
  11. Which is of the following statements about factor analysis is correct?
  12. finds groups of variables that have similar meanings
  13. finds groups of variables that correlate with one another
  14. finds groups of variables that can be factored
  15. finds groups of variables that have similar means
  16. Which of the following is not an established alternative label for the relevant Big Five factor?
  17. Extraversion & “Surgency”
  18. Conscientiousness & “Morality”
  19. Neuroticism & “Emotional instability”
  20. Openness to Experience & “Culture”
  21. Which of the following statements correctly describes the relationships between Big Five traits and emotion dimensions?
  22. Extraversion is related to more positive affect and Neuroticism to more negative affect
  23. Extraversion is related to more positive affect and Neuroticism to less positive affect
  24. Extraversion is related to less negative affect and Neuroticism to less positive affect
  25. Extraversion is related to less negative affect and Neuroticism to more negative affect
  26. Which of the following statements about Eysenck’s and Gray’s theories is incorrect?
  27. For Eysenck, Neuroticism is related to limbic system reactivity.
  28. For Gray, the “behavioural activation system” is linked to sensitivity to reward and pleasure.
  29. For Gray, Impulsivity involves having a weak “behavioural inhibition system”.
  30. Gray’s Anxiety dimension corresponds to a mixture of Neuroticism and Introversion in Eysenck’s system.
  31. Which of the following statements about traits and values is incorrect?
  32. the structure of values appears to differ across cultures more than the structure of traits
  33. values are cognitions, traits are not
  34. traits appear to have more dimensions than values
  35. unlike traits, values are inherently desirable to the person who has them
  36. Which of the following is NOT one of the six virtue classes in the VIA classification of strengths?

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  1. Justice
  2. Transcendence
  3. Humanity
  4. Creativity
  5. Which two vocational interest types are next to one another in Holland’s model?
  6. Realistic & Enterprising
  7. Conventional & Social
  8. Artistic & Investigative
  9. Realistic & Artistic
  10. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding biological research and theory

on personality?

  1. extraverts’ brains are typically over-stimulated
  2. shared environmental factors are more important than nonshared factors
  3. the heritability of personality traits is sometimes calculated from twin studies
  4. 2D:4D digit ratio research shows the importance of circulating levels of neurotransmitters in the brain
  5. Which of the following statements about Eysenck’s work on personality is correct?
  6. Introverts have highly arousable autonomic nervous systems
  7. Neuroticism is associated with stimulus hunger
  8. Extraverts tend to like stimulant drugs more than Introverts
  9. High levels of Psychoticism put people at risk of depression
  10. Roughly what proportion of the variability in most personality traits tends to be heritable?
  11. 20%
  12. 40%
  13. 60%
  14. 80%
  15. Which Freudian defence mechanism does this statement illustrate: “I’m not jealous, you are”?
  16. projection
  17. repression
  18. sublimation
  19. denial
  20. Which of the following is CORRECT about Freud’s genetic model of personality?
  21. the anal stage takes place in the first two years of life.
  22. it recognises that personality has a large heritable component.
  23. fixations in the oral stage can lead to passivity and dependency.
  24. it has received extensive empirical support from developmental psychologists.
  25. One of these four lists contains concepts from Freud’s topographic, structural and genetic models, in that order. Which is it?
  26. Unconscious, ego, repression
  27. Unconscious, id, reaction formation
  28. Preconscious, superego, regression
  29. Preconscious, superfly, fixation
  30. Psychoanalytic theory is NOT often criticized for which of the following?
  31. being unfalsifiable
  32. being unscientific
  33. being deterministic
  34. being simplistic
  35. Which of the following statements about cognitive approaches to personality is correct?
  36. the repertory grid assesses people on a standard set of personal constructs
  37. pessimistic explanatory style involves explaining negative events using internal, stable and global causes
  38. self-complexity has repeatedly been shown to protect against depression
  39. emotional intelligence is a component of verbal intelligence
  40. Which of the following is an external, unstable attribution for why something happened to a person?
  41. fate
  42. the weather
  43. hard work
  44. bad mood
  45. Which of the following statements about research on the self is incorrect?
  46. High self-complexity buffers people against stressful life events
  47. High self-complexity is associated with having more self-aspects with less overlap
  48. Self-esteem is more a side-effect of achievement than a cause of it
  49. Average self-esteem levels may be rising in Western societies
  50. Which of the following does NOT accurately reflect research on self-esteem?
  51. it is more likely to be a byproduct of academic achievement than a cause of it
  52. it makes people secure so that they are less likely to act aggressively when they are insulted.
  53. having stable self-esteem may be more important than having high self esteem.
  54. defensive self-esteem involves having high explicit self-esteem but low implicit self-esteem.
  55. Which of the following forms of coping illustrates the indicated kind of coping

strategy?

  1. Emotion-focused: attacking a person who is making you unhappy
  2. Problem-focused: recognizing that an issue is causing you difficulties
  3. Emotion-focused: imagining that a problem will just go away
  4. Problem-focused: actively trying to change how you feel about a stressor
  5. Which of the following statements about personality change is NOT correct?
  6. mean levels of internal attribution have increased in recent decades
  7. there is much evidence of mean level change in adulthood
  8. rank order stability is measured by correlation coefficients
  9. rank order stability increases with age
  10. Which of the following statements about rank-order stability of personality is NOT correct?

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  1. it may be partially due to environmental selection (i.e., people selecting environments that support their traits).
  2. it increases with age.
  3. it is incompatible with evidence that the mean levels of Big Five traits change with increasing age.
  4. it is measured by re-test correlations in longitudinal studies.
  5. According to Erikson, what contrasts with Industry in one of his eight stages?
  6. Shame & doubt
  7. Isolation
  8. Guilt
  9. Inferiority
  10. Which statement about “lay theories” of personality is false?
  11. entity theorists believe personality is not malleable
  12. entity theorists stereotype people more than incremental theorists
  13. incremental theorists hold a ‘dynamic’ view of personality
  14. incremental theorists attribute differences between social groups to innate factors

26 . The items in a personality test correlate strongly with one another. What kind of reliability or validity does this imply?

  1. convergent validity
  2. content validity
  3. internal consistency
  4. retest reliability
  5. Which kind of validity or reliability does NOT match the description that follows it?
  6. re-test reliability: people get similar scores when they do a test on different occasions.
  7. discriminant validity: a test of one personality characteristic does not correlate with tests that measure different characteristics.
  8. convergent validity: people get similar scores on a test when different people administer it to them.
  9. internal consistency: the items in the test all correlate with one another.
  10. Which kind of validity scale is designed to detect random patterns of responding on a personality inventory?
  11. infrequency scale
  12. incompatibility scale
  13. lie scale
  14. defensiveness scale
  15. Which of the following is NOT a weakness of many projective personality tests?
  16. poor predictive validity
  17. poor inter-rater reliability
  18. susceptible to faking good bias
  19. susceptible to poor incremental validity relative to inventories
  20. Which of these potential flaws of psychobiographies is correctly defined?
  21. originology: over-emphasis on early life events in explaining the person
  22. pathography: insufficiently empathic interpretation of the person
  23. determinism: focussing too much on a single factor in explaining the person
  24. hagiography: portrayal of the person as extremely ugly

 

 

 

 

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Question 33:                Psychology

Psych 2230 Sample Practice-Exam2014-questions-and-answersChapters-1-13

 

 

Question 34:      Psychology

 

PSYC 215 SOCIAL PSYCH EXAMS CHAPTER 3 to 8

 

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Exam #3

 

  1. The amount by which an additional unit of a good or service increases a consumer’s total utility, all other things unchanged, is:
  2. A) marginal utility
  3. B) maximum utility
  4. C) average utility
  5. D) required utility

 

  1. The principle of diminishing marginal utility means that when Sarah eats pizza, her satisfaction from the second slice of pizza is probably:
  2. A) greater than that from the first.
  3. B) equal to that from the first.
  4. C) less than that from the first.
  5. D) not comparable to that of the first.

 

  1. Assume that the marginal utilities for the first three units of a good consumed are 200,150, and 125, respectively. The total utility when two units are consumed is:
  2. A) 150
  3. B) 200
  4. C) 350
  5. D) 475

 

  1. Suzy knows she has maximized her utility, because she is on her budget constraint and:
  2. A) consumption of Good X equals consumption of God Y
  3. B) what is sent on Good X equals what is spent on Good Y
  4. C) MUx/Px = MUy/Py
  5. D) MUx = MUy

 

  1. Joesph consumes pizza and soda. He is currently consuming three units of pizza and two units of soda. The price of pizza is $5 and the price of soda is $1. If he is consuming the optimal consumption bundle and his marginal utility of pizza is 50, then his marginal utility of soda is:
  2. A) 50
  3. B) 10
  4. C) 5
  5. D) impossible to determine unless you know Joseph’s income.

 

  1. While at the grocery store, Sidney sees that the price of Grape-Nuts is twice that of Cheerios. If Sidney buys both goods, then Sidney must:
  2. A) get twice as much marginal utility from Grape-Nuts as from Cheerios.
  3. B) get twice as much marginal utility from Cheerios as from Grape-Nuts.
  4. C) not be maximizing her utility.
  5. D) buy twice as much Cheerios.

 

Use the following to anser questions 7-8:

 

Figure: Budget Lines for Oranges and Apples

 

 

  1. (Figure: Budget Lines for Oranges and Apples) For some time, Sylvester has had $5 per month to spend on oranges and apples. The price of an orange is $0.50 and the price of an apple is $.025. Which of the charts shows what will happen to his budget line if his income decreases to $2.50?
  2. A) Chart A
  3. B) Chart B
  4. C) Chart C
  5. D) Chart D

 

  1. (Figure: Budget Lines for Oranges and Apples) For some time, Sylvester has had $5 per month to spend on oranges and apples. The price of an orange is $0.50 and the price of an apple is $.025. Which of the charts shows what will happen to his budget line if the price of an orange falls to $0.25?
  2. A) Chart A
  3. B) Chart B
  4. C) Chart C
  5. D) Chart D

 

Use the following to answer questions 9-10:

 

Table: Total Product and Marginal Product

 

 

  1. (Table: Total Product and Marginal Product) The marginal product of the second worker is:
  2. A) 10
  3. B) 15
  4. C) 20
  5. D) 30

 

  1. (Table: Total Product and Marginal Product) Negative marginal returns begin when the _______ worker is added.
  2. A) fifth
  3. B) sixth
  4. C) seventh
  5. D) eighth

 

  1. A planning period during which all of a firm’s resources are variable is the:
  2. A) long run
  3. B) fixed run
  4. C) short run
  5. D) nominal run

 

Use the following to answer question 15:

 

Figure: Short-Run Costs

 

 

  1. (Figure: Short-Run Costs) A is the _______ cost curve.
  2. A) average total
  3. B) average variable
  4. C) marginal
  5. D) total

 

  1. If marginal cost is greater than average total cost, then:
  2. A) average total cost is increasing.
  3. B) average total cost is decreasing.
  4. C) average total cost is unchanged.
  5. D) marginal cost is decreasing.

 

  1. A firm’s marginal cost is:
  2. A) the ratio of the change in fixed cost to the change in the quantity of output.
  3. B) the slope of the total cost curve.
  4. C) the slope of the average variable cost curve.
  5. D) the ratio of the change in total output to the change in the quantity of labor.

 

  1. When an increase in the firm’s output reduces its long-run average total cost, it experiences:
  2. A) economies of scale
  3. B) diseconomies of scale
  4. C) constant returns to scale
  5. D) variable returns to scale

 

  1. In the model of perfect competition:
  2. A) the consumer is at the mercy of powerful firms that can set prices wherever they prefer.
  3. B) individual firms can influence the price, but only slightly.
  4. C) no individual or firm has enough power to

 

 

 

 

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Question 26:                General Question

 

South University NSG5003 Final Exam 2019

 

 

Question 1 (5 points)

Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction?

Question 1 options:

 

Lysosomes

 

Peroxisomes

 

Ribosomes

 

Oxyhydrosomes

Question 2 (5 points)

What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria?

Question 2 options:

 

Enzymatic digestion halts deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis.

 

Influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production.

 

Edema from an influx in sodium causes a reduction in ATP production.

 

Potassium shifts out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure.

Question 3 (5 points)

Which statement is a description of one of the characteristics of apoptosis?

Question 3 options:

 

Apoptosis involves programmed cell death of scattered single cells.

 

Apoptosis is characterized by the swelling of the nucleus and the cytoplasm.

 

Apoptosis involves unpredictable patterns of cell death.

 

Apoptosis results in benign malignancies.

Question 4 (5 points)

During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:

Question 4 options:

 

During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:

 

The pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decrease in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) levels.

 

The osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell membrane

 

Oxygen is not available to bind with sodium to maintain it outside of the cell.

Question 5 (5 points)

What is an effect of ionizing radiation exposure?

Question 5 options:

 

Respiratory distress

 

Sun intolerance

 

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) aberrations

 

Death(not confirm)

Question 6 (5 points)

Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because:

Question 6 options: chapter 3 q.2

 

Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling.

 

The metabolic rates of obese adults are slower than those of lean adults.

 

The rates of urine output of obese adults are higher than those of lean adults.

 

The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively.

Question 7 (5 points)

In addition to osmosis, what force is involved in the movement of water between the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces?

Question 7 options:

 

a)Oncotic pressure

 

b)Buffering

 

c)Net filtration

 

d)Hydrostatic pressure

Question 8 (5 points)
Venous obstruction is a cause of edema because of an increase in which pressure?

Question 8 options:

a)Capillary hydrostatic

 

b)Interstitial hydrostatic

 

c)Capillary oncotic

 

d)Interstitial oncotic

Question 9 (5 points)

At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because:

Question 9 options:

 

a)The interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure.

 

b)The capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary oncotic pressure.

 

c)The interstitial oncotic pressure is higher than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.

 

d)The capillary oncotic pressure is lower than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.

Question 10 (5 points)

It is true that natriuretic peptides:

Question 10 options:

 

a)Decrease blood pressure and increase sodium and water excretion.

 

b)Increase blood pressure and decrease sodium and water excretion.

 

c)Increase the heart rate and decrease potassium excretion.

 

d)Decrease the heart rate and increase potassium excretion.

Question 11 (5 points)

What causes the clinical manifestations of confusion, convulsions, cerebral hemorrhage, and coma in hypernatremia?

Question 11 options:

 

a)High sodium in the blood vessels pulls water out of the brain cells into the blood vessels, causing brain cells to shrink.

 

b)High sodium in the brain cells pulls water out of the blood vessels into the brain cells, causing them to swell.

 

c)High sodium in the blood vessels pulls potassium out of the brain cells, which slows the synapses in the brain.

 

d)High sodium in the blood vessels draws chloride into the brain cells followed by water, causing the brain cells to swell.

Question 12 (5 points)

A major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for the transmission of nerve impulses is the ratio between:

Question 12 options:

 

a)Intracellular and extracellular Na+

 

b)Intracellular and extracellular K+

 

c)Intracellular Na+ and extracellular K+

 

d)Intracellular K+ and extracellular Na+

Question 13 (5 points)

In hyperkalemia, what change occurs to the cells’ resting membrane potential?

Question 13 options:

 

a)Hypopolarization

 

b)Hyperexcitability

 

c)Depolarization

 

d)Repolarization

Question 14 (5 points)

Physiologic pH is maintained at approximately 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of:

Question 14 options:

 

a)20:1

 

b)1:20

 

c)10:2

 

d)10:5

Question 15 (5 points)

Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure results in edema because of:

Question 15 options:

 

a)Losses or diminished production of plasma albumin

 

b)Inflammation resulting from an immune response

 

c)Blockage within the lymphatic channel system

 

d)Sodium and water retention

Question 16 (5 points)

Hypomethylation and the resulting effect on oncogenes result in:

Question 16 options:

 

a)A decrease in the activity of the oncogene, thus suppressing cancer development

 

b)Deactivation of MLH1 to halt deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) repair

 

c)An increase in tumor progression from benign to malignant

 

d)Overexpression of micro-ribonucleic acid (miRNA), resulting in tumorigenesis

Question 17 (5 points)

The functions of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) and CD1 molecules are alike because both:

Question 17 options:

 

a)Are antigen-presenting molecules

 

b)Bind antigens to antibodies

 

c)Secrete interleukins (ILs) during the immune process

 

d)Are capable of activating cytotoxic T lymphocytes

Question 18 (5 points)

The B-cell receptor (BCR) complex functions uniquely by:

Question 18 options:

 

a)Communicating information about the antigen to the helper T (Th) cell

 

b)Secreting chemical signals to help cells communicate

 

c)Recognizing the antigen on the surface of the B lymphocyte

 

d)Communicating information about the antigen to the cell nucleus

Question 19 (5 points)

The generation of clonal diversity includes a process that:

Question 19 options:

 

a)Involves antigens that select lymphocytes with compatible receptors

 

b)Allows the differentiation of cells into antibody-secreting plasma cells or mature T cells

 

c)Takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs

 

d)Causes antigens to expand and diversify their populations

Save

Question 20 (5 points)

Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain microorganisms because of the:

Question 20 options:

 

a)Strong response from immunoglobulin M (IgM)

 

b)Level of protection provided by immunoglobulin G (IgG)

 

c)Memory cells for immunoglobulin E (IgE)

 

d)Rapid response from immunoglobulin A (IgA)

Question 21 (5 points)

What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions?

Question 21 options:

 

a)Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by a discharge of preformed mediators.

 

b)Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids, and the immune complexes are then deposited in the tissues.

 

c)Cytotoxic T (Tc) lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 (Th1) cells directly attack and destroy cellular targets.

 

d)Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface.

Question 22 (5 points)

When soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of:

Question 22 options:

 

a)Complement-mediated cell lysis

 

b)Phagocytosis by macrophages

 

c)Phagocytosis in the spleen

 

d)Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products

Question 23 (5 points)

Considering the hypothalamus, a fever is produced by:

Question 23 options:

 

 

Question 9:        Psychology

 

Instruction

develop an assessment and intervention plan for one of the clients in the videos and present it in an academic paper with scholarly references from the professional literature (e.g., Journal of Family Therapy, Journal of Marital and Family Therapy, The Family Journal, Journal of Marriage and Family Counseling, Journal of Contemporary Family Therapy, Journal of Counseling and Development). SEE ATTACHED for more detailed instructions on requirements.

 

 

Final Project: Marriage, Couple, and Family Counseling

Families face many challenges in today’s world and marriage, couple, and family counselors (MCF) are the professionals who help families navigate difficult times. Families are a working system and each element of that system impact the operation of the system and the individual members. Issues such as substance abuse, family violence, divorce, mental illness, infidelity, and child abuse present counselors with numerous treatment challenges. As an MCF counselor, will you be ready to address them?

For the Final Project, you will consider the clients in the solution focused YouTube videos you viewed earlier in the course (see: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tjdJhdA9mE4&list=PLgswj8XPfriWqAECgkNLXLjG vjUXdfSYQ)

For your Final Project, you are to develop an assessment and intervention plan for one of the clients in the videos and present it in an academic paper with scholarly references from the professional literature (e.g., Journal of Family Therapy, Journal of Marital and Family Therapy, The Family Journal, Journal of Marriage and Family Counseling, Journal of Contemporary Family Therapy, Journal of Counseling and Development).

Your project should include all of the following sections:

  1. Legal and ethical considerations regarding the family circumstances 2. Multicultural considerations
    3. Identify any family life cycle considerations
    4. Theoretical counseling model you would use in the case with rationale 5. Specific issues facing the family
  2. Assessment techniques you would use in the case with rationale
    7. Intervention plan for the family
    8. Research (at least five references) that support your intervention plan
    9. Prognosis for the family
    10. A reflection on your learning experience in this course and your preparedness for working as a marriage, couple, and family counselor.

Although the Final Project is not to be submitted until Day 7 of Week 12, you should become familiar with the project requirements and have them in mind as you proceed through the course. The Final Project will be evaluated according to the final project rubric. Be sure that the Final Project is written using APA format. Information on scholarly writing may be found in the APA Manual (6th ed.) and at the Purdue OWL Writing Center site (http://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/). The Final Project is due (in Blackboard AND TK20) on Day 7 of Week 12.

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Question 10:      Science

 

Instruction

For this paper you must cite and reference 2 sources. The paper should be 2–3 pages and written using current APA format. Your paper should address the following: a. How would you prepare for the following situation? (provide realistic examples and details for safety and survival) (Scenario) At this moment, you are sitting at home working on your class. Suddenly, the National Weather Bureau sends an alert across your cell phone—a tornado is headed your way. You have 15 minutes before touchdown in your neighborhood. What is your plan? This is a ‘shelter in place’ scenario, you cannot outrun the tornado. Identify a safe place in your home to take shelter. You must include research. Cite and reference two sources and explain the recommended safety measures in a tornado emergency and how you would apply them to your specific living arrangements. b. How prepared are you in the event of a disaster? Describe your level of disaster preparedness using specific examples and references to your “go-bag” and preparedness checklist assignments. Example: “I am more prepared for a water-related disaster than a fire-related disaster even though I live in a highly secluded, forested area. I have a boat as transportation in the event of flooding, but I do not have rain barrels or fire barrier supplies on hand.” Example: “There were many missing items on my preparedness checklist. I realized that I do not own a flashlight. If I had to use my phone as a light it would drain the battery very quickly. c. Reflect on how prepared you were before this class and compare it with how prepared you are now. Have you acquired any new emergency items? Do you plan to take any additional trainings or certification courses? Have you shared your knowledge with friends and family? Review the rubric for more information on how the assignment will be graded.

 

 

 

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Question 11:      General

 

INTL725 INSTRUCTIONS FOR GROUP PROJECT

INTERNATIONAL MARKET RESEARCH

Worth 25% of final mark

 

  • Week 8: 5% group research proposal (in-class)
  • Week 11-12: 5% group presentation on research proposal
  • Week 12: 5% group progress report (in-class)
  • Week 13: 10% group final report (in-class)

Each student will receive a different mark, depending on his/her contribution.

 

Instructions

 

  1. Select trade agreement, market and sector
  2. Have an idea of a market and a sector that you know well.
  3. Consult the list of Canada’s trade agreements to find the one that your market and sector can benefit (filter Status to “5 In force”).

https://www.international.gc.ca/trade-commerce/trade-agreements-accords-commerciaux/agr-acc/index.aspx?lang=eng

  1. Finalize your market and sector, the ones that can benefit from the selected trade agreement(s).

 

  1. Work with your group: discussing the trade agreement(s)
  2. Each student prepares a research proposal (due Week 8 in class).
  3. The group will make a presentation (Weeks 11-12).
  4. Each student prepares a progress report (due Week 12 in class).
  5. Each student prepares a final report (due Week 13 in class).

 

  1. Starting your research
  2. Keep in mind that this is an applied research (see the difference between applied and basic research), and the proposal and report should have a business format (see the difference between a business report and an academic report).
  3. Consult the Market Research section on EDC website: http://www.edc.ca/EN/About-Exporting/Trade-Links/Pages/market-research.aspx. You should use most/all links on this site for your sources of data and information. The link “Conducting Market Research” by Canada Business Network is particularly helpful.
  4. Consult the Data and Statistics section on EDC website: http://www.edc.ca/EN/About-Exporting/Trade-Links/Pages/data-statistics.aspx. You should use most/all links on this site for your sources of data and information.
  5. Consult the Market Reports section on GAC website: http://www.tradecommissioner.gc.ca/eng/market-report-access.jsp
  6. Consult the Related Resources section on GAC website: http://www.tradecommissioner.gc.ca/eng/related-resources.jsp
  7. Consult “Step #4: Setting out: Identifying your target market” in GAC “Step-by-step guide to exporting 2017”: http://tradecommissioner.gc.ca/exporters-exportateurs/guide-exporting-guide-exportation.aspx?lang=eng
  8. Consult sources suggested by GAC:

www.tradecommissioner.gc.ca

www.voyage.gc.ca

www.intercultures.ca

www.strategis.gc.ca

www.transparency.org

www.cia.gov (CIA World Factbook)

www.export.gov/mrktresearch/ (U.S. Commercial Service)

www.eiu.com (Economist Intelligence Unit)

www.fitt.ca, www.tradeready.ca

Other governments’ websites

Note: Do not use other sources, unless you can prove that they are good sources. Mark will be deducted if you use other sources without showing that they are credible sources.

 

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  1. Working on your Research Proposal

See Research Proposal – Sample.pdf on eCentennial

Consult the handout on the purpose and layout of a research proposal.

Length:

2 pages, plus cover letter, title page, graphs and references

Use multiple 1.15 or single line spacing, Times New Roman 12 points

 

Format:

Cover Letter (to the Canadian company)

Title Page

Introduction

Background

Business Opportunity*

Research Objectives*

Methodology* (data collection methods: secondary, primary, quantitative, qualitative, sampling; data analysis techniques)

Implementation Plan (time and cost estimates)

Conclusion

References

* most important in a research proposal

 

Required sources (at least 6):

  1. At least five reputable Internet sources from at least four different organizations
  2. One business journal article

Reminder about writing: Each paragraph should have only one major point. The first sentence is the summary of the paragraph. The length of a paragraph should be 1/3 – ½ of a page.

 

  1. Working on your Group Presentation

Please prepare PowerPoint for your presentation.

See Research Proposal Presentation – Sample.pdf on eCentennial

  • Consult Chapter 17 “The Research Report” in your textbook.
  • Consult the article “Is your elevator pitch ready?” by Canada Business:

https://canadabusiness.ca/blog/is-your-elevator-pitch-ready-1/

PowerPoint format (one slide each):

Introduction (introduce speakers and structure of presentation)

Background on the trade agreement(s)

For each student, 3-5 slides:

Business Opportunity

Research Objectives

Methodology / Sampling / Implementation Plan (time and cost)

Thank the audience and ask for questions

Length: 8 minutes presentation + 2 minutes Q&A / group

 

  1. Working on your Research Report (Progress and Final)

See Research Report – Sample.pdf on eCentennial

Consult Chapter 17 “The Research Report” in your textbook.

Length:

4 pages, plus cover letter, title page and references, tables, charts, graphs, pictures, maps

Use multiple 1.15 or single line spacing, Times New Roman 12 points

Format:

Cover Letter

Title Page

Executive Summary *

Introduction

Background

Business Opportunity

Research Objectives

Methodology (data collection methods: secondary, primary, quantitative, qualitative, sampling; data analysis techniques)

Data Analysis

Data Interpretation

Business Implications

Conclusion

References

* most important

 

Required sources (at least 10):

  1. At least six reputable Internet sources from at least four different organizations
  2. Three business journal articles from at least two different journals
  3. One printed book (such as the textbook)

 

Marking Rubric for Research Proposal:

 

Criteriononsetation

points Timesness reportaphs, APA styles, that they are good sources.rt). final version, etc

A-level B-level C-level D-level Unsatisfactory Mark
Business opportunity Identifies significant opportunity Identifies good opportunity Identifies adequate opportunity Identifies some opportunity Does not identify a clear opportunity /1
Research objectives, methodology, and sampling  

Excellent

 

Good

 

Adequate

 

Acceptable

 

Unsatisfactory

 

/2

 

Use of professional sources

Uses professional sources extensively and effectively Uses professional sources sufficiently Uses professional sources adequately Uses some professional sources Does not use professional sources  

/1

 

APA format

Documents sources using APA format precisely

 

Writing effectiveness

Writes clearly, concisely and effectively Writes clearly, concisely and effectively, with only a few errors Writes clearly and concisely, with many errors Writing is unclear, with too many errors Writing is unclear and unfocused, with many serious errors  

/0.5

Total: /5

Group members:

  1. ________________________________
  2. ________________________________
  3. ________________________________
  4. ________________________________

 

Marking Rubric for Group Presentation:

 

Criteriononsetation

points Timesness reportaphs, APA styles, that they are good sources.rt). final version, etc

A-level B-level C-level D-level Unsatisfactory Mark
Content: Business opportunity Effectively presents the opportunity Sufficiently present the opportunity Adequately presents the opportunity Present the opportunity acceptably Does not clearly identify the opportunity /2
Content: Research objectives, methodology, and sampling  

Excellent

 

Good

 

Adequate

 

Acceptable

 

Unsatisfactory

 

/2

Documentation: Use of professional sources All sources of data are documented and mentioned in the presentation Most sources of data are documented and mentioned in the presentation Some sources of data are documented and mentioned in the presentation A few sources of data are documented and mentioned in the presentation Sources of data are not documented and mentioned in the presentation  

/1

Organization Sequence is logical and interesting; audience can follow easily Sequence is logical and interesting, additional explanation could be helpful Sequence is logical; a lot more explanation could be helpful Sequence not very logical; audience has difficulty following the presentation Sequence not logical; audience cannot understand the presentation  

/1

PowerPoint quality Attractive, easy to follow, no errors Attractive, easy to follow, only a few errors Attractive, easy to follow, many errors Not attractive, many errors Not attractive, difficult to follow, many serious errors  

/1

Speaking skills

(articulation, proper rate, proper pronunciation, good posture, eye contact, enthusiasm, confidence)

 

 

Excellent

 

 

Good

 

 

Adequate

 

 

Acceptable

 

 

Inadequate

 

 

/1

Length of presentation Uses 10 minutes effectively, does not go overtime Uses 10 minutes sufficiently, does not goes overtime Uses 10 minutes adequately, does not goes overtime Uses 10 minutes adequately, goes overtime Does not use 10 minutes adequately  

/1

Q&A Handles the questions effectively Handles the questions properly Handles the questions adequately Handles the questions satisfactorily Does not handle the questions satisfactorily /1
Total: /10

 

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Additional comments (for each presenter) ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

 

 

throughout

 

 

Documents sources using APA format with a few errors Documents sources using APA format with many errors Does not use APA format adequately Does not use APA format  

/0.5

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Question 15: General Question

 

https://www.chegg.com/homework-help/questions-and-answers/show-excel-show-work-including-formulars-considering-investment-stock-market-identified-tw-q39604624

 

Question 16: Other

 

Unit 4 DB AM

 

Do you think that brands have a finite life, or do you believe that brands can last forever? Support your position with detailed explanations and the use of a brand example

 

Unit IV Essay
Marketing Plan: Part II

Throughout this course, you will compile a comprehensive marketing plan using one of the product/service scenarios listed in the Unit II assignment. (Note: You will use the same scenario throughout the course.) This scenario will be the basis of your start-up company and will be the catalyst for the subsequent marketing plan that you will compile. The company that you choose to submit a marketing plan for is a fictional start-up company (not an existing company).

This unit’s submission should consist of the items listed below.

  • Provide a segmentation and target market analysis.
    • In this section of the marketing plan, you should identify the four criteria useful in segmenting the market, and apply them to your company. Explain how identifying the target market is more clearly defined once a marketer has conducted segmentation on the population. Explain several target markets for your company using detailed explanations.
  • Include a competitive and industry analysis.
    • This section of the marketing plan should identify three or four competitors of your company. These can be direct or indirect competitors. (Note: Not all companies have competitors.) Differentiate each competitor based upon multiple criteria. Additionally, conduct an industry analysis by looking at the health of the industry in which your company resides. Identify whether the industry has grown or shrunk in the last 5–10 years. Explain why understanding the competitors and the health of the industry are important elements of the marketing plan.
  • Provide a SWOT (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats) analysis.
    • In this section, you will compile a SWOT analysis of your company. The internal strengths and weaknesses as well as the external opportunities and threats need to be identified and explained (include at least 2–3 elements under each area of the SWOT). The value proposition will be demonstrated through a strong showing in the strengths section of the SWOT analysis. Reference the SWOT analysis explanation in the Unit I Lesson for additional insight on how to compile this analysis.

Ensure you provide an introduction for this assignment that is engaging and provides a clear background to the purpose of the assignment. The format of the submission should be in essay format using subheadings. Use APA format. Additionally, you need to include a minimum of five sources, three of which must be peer-reviewed, academic sources that are no more than 5 years old. The submission should be a minimum of three pages in length (not counting the title and reference pages).

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 17:  Accounting

 

The Swiss Clock Shop manufactures clocks on a highly automatedassembly line. Its costing system uses two cost categories, directmaterials and conversion costs. Each product must pass through theAssembly Department and the Testing Department. Direct materialsare added at the beginning of the production process. Conversioncosts are allocated evenly throughout production. Swiss Clock Shopuses weighted-average costing.

Data for the Assembly Department for June 2010 are:

Work in process, beginninginventory           250 units

Direct materials (100% complete)

Conversion costs (50% complete)

Units started during June       800 units

Work in process, ending inventory:    150 units

Direct materials (100% complete)

Conversion costs (75% complete)

Costs for June 2010:

Work in process, beginning inventory:

Directmaterials          $180,000

Conversion costs        $270,000

Direct materials costs added duringJune       $1,000,000

Conversion costs added during June $1,000,000

prepare equivalent unit schedule for direct materials

prepare equivalent unit schedule for conversion costs

prepare direct materials costing schedule for total cost of units completed (transfered out and ending work in progress

prepare conversion costing schedule for total cost of units completed (transferred out) and ending

 

Question 18:  Engineering

 

If the velocity of block A up the incline is increasing at the rate of 0.060 m/s each second, determine the acceleration of B.

 

 

Question 19: General Question

 

https://www.chegg.com/homework-help/questions-and-answers/heights-women-aged-20-29-follow-approximately-n-642-28-distribution-men-age-heights-distri-q32003221

 

Question 20: Chemistry

 

A student, Ken, is given a mixture containing two carbonate compounds. The mixture includes MgCO3 and (NH4)2CO3. The mixture is 65.33>span class=”MJX_Assistive_MathML” role=”presentation”### CO3 is by mass. What is the mass percent of MgCO3 in the mixture?

 

Question 21: Business

 

Assignment

–       Select an industry (e.g. healthcare, agriculture). Identify ONE information system (e.g. transaction processing system, business intelligence, collaboration, knowledge management etc) that is unique to this industry and supports the core business (e.g. if you choose aviation industry, explore an aviation information system) (Hint: The system should be used mainly and only in that industry. Do not choose generic IS such as accounting, payroll, email, Microsoft Office. Also do not pick up a product of an IT firm such Microsoft Sharepoint Portal; we are not interested in a branded product, the same IS can be produced by multiple IT firms. If you are not certain about the IS, email me your alternatives and we will discuss.

–       Collect information on this specific IS using Internet, your textbook, other reading materials, videos, users or manufacturers / service providers.

–       Prepare a report about this IS by addressing following questions (you dont have to answer one by one, your writeup should answer below questions):

  1. What are the characteristics of this IS? What are the main functionalities / features? (Provide technical information as well). Identify couple of IT firms that produce this IS (It can be the case that there is only one IT firm that offers this IS. Then state this fact.)
  2. Which processes are supported by this IS? Who are the users (function, title, profession etc.) Describe in detail
  3. Which specific benefits does this IS offer for companies AND all stakeholders (including customers)? Which strategic objectives can be fulfilled using this IS?
  4. Are there any concerns / risks about usage of this IS: privacy, security, investment, technical etc.

Rules

  1. The educational systems that we use such as LMS, SIS are excluded.
  2. Your report should be of 1500 words, double-spaced, 12-point Times New Roman font, with 1-inch margins on all sides. Do not include questions to the text and word count. Name, title etc should be excluded as well. Submission below that will NOT be graded.
  3. Your report should be submitted as a Word document(.doc or .docx).  Other formats will NOT be accepted (including PDF).
  4. The file name should contain your name and last name (e.g. First_Name_LastName_Assignment1).
  5. Provide reference/citation for the sources that you referred (web page, textbook, person). The references are not counted towards the word limitation; you can present the list of references at the end of the report. I will deduct 5 points from submissions without references.
  6. You should submit your assignment via LMS. E-mail and hardcopy submissions will NOT be accepted.
  7. Late submissions will NOT be accepted. Please check the duedate and time.
  8. Do not forget to run the spelling – grammar check as that will affect your grade. I will deduct points if you don’t use proper business English.
  9. Make sure that the report presents your original ideas. Do NOT copy paste the text from the source (e.g. Internet) or borrow lines from your friends. Your report will be checked by a plagiarism tool; identical or similar (above 50%) assignments will NOT be graded.

Question 22: Mathematics

 

A point estimate of a population parameter is a single value of a statistic. For example, the sample mean x is a point estimate of the population mean μ. Similarly, the sample proportion p is a point estimate of the population proportion P.

 

Question 23: Mathematics

 

If the population proportion of women carrying HPV were 19%, what is the chance that the sample proportion could exceed 20%

 

Question 24: English

 

Compare the movie, smooth talk, with the story, ”where are you going, where have you been?” or the short film, ”where are you going, where have you been?” you could also compare all three. some of the things you could discuss are: Did you think the casting was done right? what did the movie leave out? What did the film add that wasn’t in the story? the ending is different in the movie, smooth talk, than it is in the short story was scarier? which was more interesting to you? these are just ideas but you can compare them using whatever criteria you like.

 

Question 25: Economics

 

The prices of consumer goods in Los Angeles and Miami are different: some things are cheaper in Mi-ami, while others are cheaper in Los Angeles. Suppose the price of every consumer good in Houstonis exactly halfway between the Miami price of that good and the Los Angeles price. A market research firm surveys 1000 consumers, who have different preferences over consumption bundles, and differ-ent incomes. The consumers are asked to rank these three cities in terms of the consumption bundles that they could afford in each place. The result of the survey is that 450 consumers rank Los Angeles first, 350 rank Houston first and 200 rank Miami first. Do all these consumers have rational preferences?

 

Question 26: Business

 

Costs are classified according to the type of analysis that is being done.  Suppose you were offered a job making $50,000 annually after you received your undergraduate degree.  However, you made a decision to get your MBA in 2 years rather than taking the job. You will incur tuition, books and living costs for these 2 years.

REQUIRED:

  • What costs are relevant to your decision?  Note that some costs relevant to a decision may not be quantitative.
  • What is the opportunity cost of this decision.
  • Comment on response of 2 classmates.  Agree or disagree

 

Question 27: Business

 

Tired of the worn out carpet in her house, Lee purchased bamboo plank flooring for $2,000 from Big Floors, Inc. She agreed to pay add an extra $2,200 for Big Floor to install for a total contract price of $4200. Which law governs this transaction?

 

Question 28: Religious Study

 

Research has shown that Kenyan value system today comprises of money, glamour, power and prestige. Explain the meaning of each

 

Question 29: Other

 

Does recycling contribute to the release of greenhouse gasses?

 

 

 

Question 30: Psychology

 

Correlation is NOT the same as Causation!

 

In the media, correlations are often presented as if there is a causal relationship. For example, a news outlet might report: Research suggests there could be a link between dairy intake and the risk of developing prostate and ovarian cancers. Then they ask: Does milk cause cancer? As a researcher, I have been interviewed by magazines and this is really frustrating!

 

Class, provide an example of when a media outlet reported a correlation as if there was causation (be sure to show your source), then, explain why correlations do not show causation.

 

Question 31: Literary Studies

 

Critical Thinking/ Written Communication/ Social Responsibility

Representation in the Media and Entertainment = How our own identity (Hispanic female, black male, queen person, etc.) is presented in culture: TV, Film Literature, Magazines, etc. Psychologists, Advertisers Analysts and artists agree that representation in media and entertainment (M&E) affects and individual deeply and with long lasting effects.

Do Research on Representation in the Media and Entertainment and write a 2-page essay answering the question:

Do you think that race relations and gen der issues in this country could be improved if Media and Entertainment changed their practices to be more equitable to people of color, women and women of color?

Some Research Topics:

  • Equity in Casting
  • Equity in film
  • Equity in theatre
  • Representation in film
  • Hollywood Diversity Report
  • Effects of tv on minorities
  • Effects of tv race and gende
  • Women and advertising
  • How woman is portrayed in film
  • Masculinity in TV and Film
  • Homophobia and the effects on Queer youth

 

Question 32: Political Science

 

Instruction

Answer the following question in 3-5 sentences each. 17. What is the “American Dream,” according to King? 18. How does King define and defend nonviolence? 19. What is “innocence,” according to Baldwin? Why is it problematic? 20. What is Baldwin’s assessment of the Nation of Islam? 21. How does Baldwin connect love and politics? 22. What are the key elements of Malcolm X’s conception of black nationalism? 23. What is the relationship between capitalism and racism, according to the Black Panthers? The League of Revolutionary Black Workers? Angela Davis? 24. Why does Baker advocate organization, rather than mobilization? 25. How does King define Black Power, and what is his assessment of it? 26. What is the relationship between the “world house” and American democracy? 27. How does color-blind discourse affect our understanding of Hurricane Katrina? 28. Why is gender significant for understanding Hurricane Katrina? 29. What is neoliberalism? 30. How does exposure to rap affect political attitudes? 31. Why are authenticity and hyper masculinity problematic? 32. What are the three most important indicators that criminal justice today constitutes “the new Jim Crow”? 33. Why is Alexander critical of color-blindness? 34. What are the strongest arguments for and against reparations?

 

 

Course Name Course POLS 393-01 Online Term and Year: Fall 2019
CRN  
Class Time This class is asynchronous (students can log-in on their own terms as long as assignments are completed on time). Please pay attention to those dates on the class calendar in this syllabus. The expectation is that all work will be turned in by 11:59pm every Sunday.
Class Location https://texsu.blackboard.com/webapps/login/

Student Username Is: last name + first name initial + last 4 digits of T#

Student password is: 6 digit birth date (MMDDYY)

Course Prerequisites  
Instructor Linda D. Smith
Office Location PA 402 Office Hours By Request
Instructor Email Linda.Smith@tsu.edu Instructor Phone 713.313.5261
Preferred Methods of Contact Email is the best way to reach me, if you do not have a response in 48 hours, please assume that your email was not received and follow up.    
Blackboard Help For Blackboard troubleshoots dial Dr. Claiborne at 713.313.4853

 

Course Description  
Course Purpose This course aims to introduce you to the cannon of African American political thought. Through readings, media, and discussions, we will explore how black Americans have defined themselves, espoused their thoughts on power and subjugation. We will explore the relationship between slavery and democracy, the role of historical and collective memory, the political significance of culture, and the connections between race and nation.  While underscoring the intersections of race, class, gender, and sexuality we will also exploring the construction of identity.
Learning Objectives 1)      Become familiar with the foundational text of African American Political Thought

2)      Understand the historical roots of different factions of African American Political Thought.

3)      Form and analyze arguments centered around race and power.

 

   

 

Material  
Textbooks               W. E. B. Du Bois, The Souls of Black Folk (Bedford)

Frederick Douglass, My Bondage and My Freedom (Yale)

Ida B. Wells-Barnett, On Lynchings (Humanity Books)

Marcus Garvey, Selected Writings and Speeches of Marcus Garvey (Dover)

James Baldwin, The Fire Next Time (Beacon)

Martin Luther King, Jr., Where Do We Go From Here? (Beacon)

Michelle Alexander, The New Jim Crow (Open Media)

Lester Spence, Stare in the Darkness (Minnesota)

 

Required Software Microsoft Word
Required Technology  Due to the nature of this course, you will need access to a computer to complete assignments for this course. There are several labs you can access to use computers on campus.

Please check their operating hours.

1.      Fairchild Tiger Hub

2.      Student Center Lab, 2nd Floor

3.      Labs within colleges

 

Grading Grading should be clear and explicit. You may include format, number, weight for assignments, descriptions, as well as a rubric. Below is just an example.
Grading Scale
A+,A, A-    
B+

B

B-

C+

C

C-

D+

   

 

 

 

 

 

Ds and Fs are failing grades in this course

D   (Refer to Catalog)
D-    
F    
Major Assignments and Grade Distribution
Response Questions Each week students will provide a response to a question based on the reading for the week. These essays are not summary essays but rather they must provide your own original thought supported by the readings. These are short essay questions with a maximum word limit of 500 words. Please see BlackBoard for the Response Question Rubric. 60% of grade
Final Project Students are to identify a minimum of 5 different contemporary political leaders/thinkers and conduct a study are the writings, speeches, etc. of these individuals.  Students are to trace the intellectual lineage (conservatism, black nationalism, black feminism, etc. ) , thinkers that clearly have had an influence on the individual’s political thought. Students should also identify with whom the individual is engaged in debate with, and ultimately students need to detail the main arguments the individual is making and the future implications that the arguments may have. The Rubric can be found on the assignment link of BlackBoard. 30% of grade
Class Participation You are expected to respond to at least one of your classmate’s blogpost for every assignment ( response question). 10% Percentage/Points of Total Grade
  Total: 100% or 100 Points
 

 

 
Course Outline This can be in the form of a course calendar. We have included a calendar format below.
Overview / Course Responsibilities All assignments in this class are due Sunday at 11:59pm. There will be no late assignments accepted.

 

Each week you will have three assignments due:

(1)   Discussion Board Assignment

(2)   One Discussion Board Response (minimum)

 

I have provided an outline for you below of all assignments and projects. Please pay close attention to due dates, assignment explanations, and where to submit.

Course Schedule Date Chapter / Focus Assignments
  8/26 I. Introduction: Streams of African American Political Thought

 

 

 

None
  09/02 II. Defining Questions: The Souls of Black Folk

 

Du Bois, The Souls of Black Folk, Forethought-ch.3

Response question #1

 

Du Bois, ch. 4-6, Washington, “Atlanta Exposition Address”*

Response questions #2, 3

 

 

Responses due 09//15
  09/16 Du Bois, ch. 7-10

Response question #4

Du Bois, 11-Afterthought

Response questions #5, 6

 

Responses Due9/22
  09/23 III. American Terrors

 

Walker, Appeal, Preamble-Article I*

Response question #7

 

Douglass, My Bondage and My Freedom, Editor’s Preface, Intro. (pp. 5-25),

ch. 1-14

Response question #8

 

Douglass, ch. 15-25, “Letter to His Old Master,” “The Nature of Slavery,” and “What to the Slave is the Fourth of July?”

Response questions #9, 10

 

 

Responses

due

09/29

 

  09/30 Wells-Barnett, “Southern Horrors,” as far as you can get in “A Red Record”

Response questions #11, 12

 

Wells-Barnett, finish “A Red Record”

Response question #13

 

Responses Due 10/06
  10/07 IV. Black Internationalism

 

Garvey, Selected Writings and Speeches, pp.1-82

Response questions #14, 15

 

Garvey, pp.119-22, 138-47, 160-69, 181-94; Du Bois, “The Souls of White Folk”*

Response questions #16

 

Response Due 10/13
  10/14 V. The Civil Rights Revolution

 

King, “American Dream,”* “Letter from Birmingham City Jail,”* “I Have a Dream”*

Response questions #17, 18

 

Baldwin, The Fire Next Time, as far as you can get.

Response question #19

 

 

Responses Due 10/20
  10/21 Baldwin, concluded.

Response questions #20, 21

 

Malcolm X: “Message to the Grassroots” (http://teachingamericanhistory.org/library/document/message-to-grassroots/); “The Ballot or the Bullet”*

Response question #22

 

Responses Due 10/27
  10/28 Newton and Seale, “What We Want/What We Believe,” “Rules of the Black Panther Party”*; The League of Revolutionary Black Workers, “Our Thing Is DRUM!”*; Angela Davis, “Political Prisoners, Prisons and Black Liberation”*

Response question #23

 

 

Response Due 11/03
  11/04 Charles Payne, “Ella Baker and Models of Social Change”*; King, Where Do We Go From Here, ch.1-2

Response questions #24, 25

 

King, Where Do We Go From Here, ch. 4-6

Response question #26

 

Responses Due 11/10
  11/11 VI. Post-Civil Rights Challenges

 

Screening of Kevin Jerome Everson and Claudrena Harold, Sugar-Coated Arsenic

 

Bobo, “Katrina: Unmasking Race, Poverty, and Politics in the 21st Century”*; Ransby, “Katrina, Black Women, and the Deadly Discourse on Black Poverty in America”*; Frymer, et al., “New Orleans Is Not the Exception”*; Dawson, “After the Deluge”*; Harris and Carbado, “Loot or Find: Fact or Frame?”*

Response questions #27, 28

 

Stare in the Darkness, Intro., ch. 1-2

Response questions #29, 30

 

Response Due 11/17
  11/18  

Spence, Stare in the Darkness, ch. 3-Conc.

Response question #31

 

Alexander, New Jim Crow, Intro., ch. 1-3

Response question #32

 

: Alexander, New Jim Crow, ch. 4-6

Response question #33

 

Response Due 12/01
  11/25 VII. Remembering the Past, Imagining the Future

 

Reparations: Forman, et al. “The Black Manifesto”*; Coates, “The Case for Reparations”*; Reed, “The Case Against Reparations”*; McWhorter, “Against Reparations”*; Virginia resolution expressing “regret” for slavery*

Response question #34

 

http://muse.jhu.edu/journals/theory_and_event/toc/tae.17.3S.html: Essays by Melvin Rogers, Michelle Smith, Lisa Miller, and Vesla Weaver

 

https://www.nytimes.com/2019/06/19/us/politics/slavery-reparations-hearing.html By Sheryl Gay Stolberg

 

Response Due 12/08

 

Essential Policies  
Attendance Policy  All assignments in this class are due Sunday at 11:59pm. There will be no late assignments accepted.

 

Each week you will have three assignments due:

(1)   Readings

(2)   Response Questions ( Posted on Blogs)

(3)   Reply to at least two classmates blog post

 

I have provided an outline for you below of all assignments and projects. Please pay close attention to due dates, assignment explanations, and where to submit.

Assignment Policies Late Work Not accepted under any circumstances other than medical documentation   Students may may  share articles, videos, audio recordings, etc on topics related to the course content with a brief summary and analysis.
Academic Misconduct Policy Engaging in any form of academic dishonesty with respect to examinations, course assignments, research projects, grades, and/or academic records, including, but not limited to plagiarism, cheating on exams, changing grades, and taking another student’s exam. ( COC 6.2)
ADA Policy The ADA of 1990 provides civil rights protection for individual with disabilities. It guarantees equal opportunities for “qualified individuals” with disabilities in all public facilities, educational programs, activities, services and benefits. The ADA upholds and maintains compliance standards to ensure institutions of higher education policies, procedures and practices are non-discriminatory.

 

Students needing academic accommodations should contact the Office of Disability Services at 713-313-7691.

 

Question 33: Sociology

 

Instruction

Guidelines for Observation Paper The object of this paper is to observe and analyze social interactions and gatherings by using sociological theory. Students are free to observe any event, gathering, interaction (parties, religious services, fraternity and sorority and other club events, athletic games, etc.). Structure: Introduction–tell the reader what you are observing and why you chose this particular event or group. This should be one paragraph. Observation– provided a detailed (“thick”) description of the event, noting its participants (ages, gender, race, ethnicity, class, etc) but most importantly the interactions and “social rituals” you witness. This should be 3 or 4 pages. Applying Theory– Apply the sociological theory we have discussed in class. Which particular theory (theories) best explains what you observed? Remember to apply theory to the actual and specific actions and behaviors that you observed (don’t just say basketball is a good example of so and so theory because the game stresses solidarity and team spirit). What was it about the particular event you observed that is best explained by the theory (or theories) that you selected? This section can be two or three pages. Conclusion– here is your chance to sum things up, speculate, and be more general. You should answer the “so what” question. What does your observation and application say about the particular slice of social life that you selected? The conclusion should be one or two paragraphs. REMEMBER TO ATTACH SOME PROOF (TICKETS, BULLETINS, PHOTOS, ETC.) THAT YOU ACTUALLY OBSERVED THIS EVENT!

 

Question 34: Economics

 

Identify a specific job within a specific company that you might be interested in applying for after you graduate from the University of Phoenix. Research the job and the field in general, as well as ethical issues managerial accountants have faced that would pertain to that field. Also, educate yourself on the basics of operations within the job and company you have selected. Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper to include the following:

 

Instruction

 

The job would be the CFO of the bank I currently work at which is BBVA and international bank Summarize the main duties of the job. Describe a specific ethical issue you might face in that position using 2 credible sources to support your description. Summarize the IMA’s standards of ethical practice and conflict resolution guide. Analyze how the IMA’s standards of ethical practice and conflict resolution guide applies to the ethical issue. Predict how you would handle the ethical issue. Hypothesize what would happen if no one in the company followed the IMA’s standards of ethical practice. Assess why it is important to follow the IMA’s stand

 

Question 35: Other

 

I need a strong American English writer to write a 20-page paper synthesizing literature information. The assignment will not be paid if it does not meet the standards of the assignment. This is a very serious and tough writing assignment. When responding please explain your understanding of synthesizing information.

 

PROBLEM 4S–8B Equivalent Units, Cost per Equivalent Unit, Applying Costs—FIFO Method

 

 

CHECK FIGURE

(4) Ending work in process: $40,800

 

Honeybutter, Inc., manufactures a product that goes through two departments prior to completion. The following information is available about work in the first department, the Mixing Department, during June.

 

      Percent Completed
    Units Materials Conversion
Work in process, beginning… 50,000 60% 30%
Started into production……… 470,000
Completed and transferred out 450,000
Work in process, ending……… 60,000 70% 20%

 

Cost in the beginning work in process inventory and cost added during June were as follows for the Mixing Department:

 

    Materials Conversion
Work in process, beginning… $24,500 $9,500
Cost added during June………. $377,600 $274,200

 

The company uses the FIFO method to compute unit product costs.

 

Required:

 

  1. Determine the equivalent units for June for the Mixing Department.
  2. Compute the costs per equivalent unit for June for the Mixing Department.
  3. Determine the total cost of ending work in process inventory and the total cost of units transferred to the next department in June.
  4. Prepare a report that reconciles the total costs assigned to the ending work in process inventory and to the units transferred out with the costs in beginning inventory and costs added during the period.

 

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What is an overhead cost?

Cost for the ceiling at the officeCost set aside for the distribution part of the process

Cost for everything that is not directly materials and laborThere is no such thing as an overhead cost

 

 

2. What is a cost driver?

Whatever causes a change in overhead cost

A phenomenon driving costs down for your business

An already budgeted expense

There is no such thing as a cost driver

202E04 – Problem 4-14 First Department Equivalent Units…

 

Problem 4-14: First Department — Equivalent Units, Cost per EU, Applying Costs — W/A Methods.Problem 4A-11 (Problem 4-14 Using FIFO Method)Given:Honeybutter, Inc., manufactures a product that goes through two departments prior to completion. Thefollowing information is available about work in the first department, the Mixing Department, during June.PhysicalPercent CompletedUnits to Account For:UnitsMaterialsConversionBWIP70,000 70%40%Units Started460,000 Completed & T/O450,000 EWIP80,000 75%25%Costs to Account For:MaterialsConversionTotalBWIP$36,550 $13,500 $50,050 Cost added during period391,850 287,300 679,150 $428,400 $300,800 $729,200 Required:Assume that the company uses the WA method.1. Determine the equivalent units for June for the first process.2. Compute the costs per equivalent unit for June for the first process.3. Determine the total cost of EWIP inventory and the total cost of units transferred to the nextprocess in June.4.

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Question 1: General Question

 

Walden University-NURS 6630 Final Exam (Graded A)

Walden University-NURS 6630 Final Exam (Graded A)

 

Question 2: General Question

 

Question 1 A ____ has first claim on specified assets, while a ____ is a debenture that has claims against a firm’s assets that are junior to the claims of mortgage bonds and regular debentures.

Question 2 When firms issue ____, the amount of interest and principal to be paid is based on specified market conditions. The amount of the repayment may be tied to a Treasury bond price index or even to a stock index.

Question 3 Bonds issued by ____ are backed by the federal government.

Question 4 ____ bids for Treasury bonds specify a price that the bidder is willing to pay and a dollar amount of securities to be purchased.

Question 16 The actual relationship reflecting the response of a bond’s price to a change in bond yields is

Question 17 Assume a bond with a $1,000 par value and a 7 percent coupon rate, three years remaining to maturity, and a 9 percent yield to maturity. The duration of this bond is ____ years.

Question 18 The difference between the 30-year mortgage rate and the 30-year Treasury bond rate is primarily attributable to

Question 21 A __________ is a privately negotiated contract that protects investors against the risk of default on particular debt securities such as mortgage-backed securities.

Question 22 Which of the following is not a guarantor of federally insured mortgages?

Question 23 ____ mortgages enabled more people with relatively lower income, or high existing debt, or a small down payment to purchase homes.

Question 24 An adjustable-rate mortgage increases interest rate risk for the ____, but reduces interest rate risk for the ____.

Question 36 The ____ index can be used to measure risk-adjusted performance of a stock while controlling for the stock’s beta.

Question 37 According to the capital asset pricing model, the required return by investors on a security is

Question 38 The demand by foreign investors for the stock of a U.S. firm sold on a U.S. exchange may be higher when the dollar is expected to ____, other things being equal. (Assume the firm’s operations are unaffected by the value of the dollar.)

Question 39 A beta of 1.1 means that for a given 1 percent change in the value of the market, the _______ is expected to change by 1.1 percent in the same direction.

Question 40 The ____ is commonly used as a proxy for the risk-free rate in the capital asset pricing model.

Question 41 If the standard deviation of a stock’s returns over the last 12 quarters is 4 percent, and if there is no perceived change in volatility, there is a ____ percent probability that the stock’s returns will be within ____ percentage points of the expected outcome.

Question 47 While an investor’s ability to simultaneously consider multiple markets to accommodate its orders was perceived to allow for more competitive pricing (lower transactions costs), it also led to a form of “_______________” whereby traders with relatively faster access to specific markets can use another trader’s planned orders and move ahead of that order.

Question 50 The risk of a short sale is that the stock price

 

Prepare a report that reconciles the total costs assigned to the EWIP inventory and the unitstransferred out with the costs in BWIP and costs added during the period.Honeybutter, Inc.Mixing Department Cost of Production ReportWeighted Average and FIFO Process Costing MethodsFor the Month of JuneEquivalent UnitsPhysical FlowD/MConversionDegree of CompletionUnits to Account for:D/MConversionBWIP70%40%70,000 Started during June460,000 Total530,000 Units Accounted for:Completed Units 450,000 From BWIP30%60%70,000 21,000 42,000 Started And Completed100%100%380,000 380,000 380,000 EWIP80,000 75%25%80,000 60,000 20,000 Total530,000 Calculation of Equivalent UnitsFIFO Equivalent Units(A)461,000 442,000 Plus BWIP EU from previous period49,000 28,000 Weighted Average Equivalent Units(B)510,000 470,000

 

 

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Question

Instruction

Review the assigned pages of the article “National Preparedness Guidelines,” focusing on the description of target capabilities and their corresponding elements. Review the assigned pages of the article “National Incident Management System.” Focus on the purpose, key concepts, and components of NIMS, such as the standardized Incident Command System (ICS). Review the assigned pages of the article “National Response Framework.” Focus on the overview of the framework and its guiding doctrine, as well as on the description of the various agencies and officials at all levels of government and the private sector that have roles and responsibilities in disaster response. Think about the likely threats that might affect your state or locale, such as terrorist attacks; natural disasters, such as tornadoes and hurricanes; and hazardous chemical spills. Select one threat for this assignment. Based on the threat you selected, anticipate the federal, state, and local organizations and/or agencies that would respond.

 

 

 

Homeland Security Organizations and Agencies

 

The homeland security system in the United States is a “national” system in the sense that it includes all levels of government—federal, state, local, and tribal—as well as the private sector and volunteer organizations. It does not refer to the federal government exclusively, nor just to the U.S. Department of Homeland Security. It is a comprehensive, integrated, multidisciplinary, and multijurisdictional system including a wide variety of organizations and agencies at all levels. Organizations and agencies must work together and effectively coordinate their efforts to prevent and respond to natural and man-made disasters and hazards. Documents such as the “National Incident Management System” (NIMS), the “National Response Framework” (NRF), and the “National Preparedness Guidelines” were created to help organizations and agencies coordinate their efforts. In this Discussion, you examine how specific organizations and agencies interact and coordinate their efforts when responding to a threat to homeland security.

 

To prepare for this Discussion:

 

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Review the assigned pages of the article “National Preparedness Guidelines,” focusing on the description of target capabilities and their corresponding elements.

 

Review the assigned pages of the article “National Incident Management System.” Focus on the purpose, key concepts, and components of NIMS, such as the standardized Incident Command System (ICS).

 

Review the assigned pages of the article “National Response Framework.” Focus on the overview of the framework and its guiding doctrine, as well as on the description of the various agencies and officials at all levels of government and the private sector that have roles and responsibilities in disaster response.

 

Think about the likely threats that might affect your state or locale, such as terrorist attacks; natural disasters, such as tornadoes and hurricanes; and hazardous chemical spills. Select one threat for this assignment.

 

Based on the threat you selected, anticipate the federal, state, and local organizations and/or agencies that would respond.

 

Think in terms of, and in reference to, the roles and capabilities of each respective organization and/or agency you identified and how they might interact and coordinate their efforts.

 

Post  a brief description of the threat you selected. Then describe at least two organizations and/or agencies in the national homeland security system that would respond to this threat. Include how and why they might respond. Finally, explain how the organizations and/or agencies might interact and coordinate their efforts when responding to the threat. Be specific, and use examples to illustrate your explanation.

Question 3: General Question

 

Question 1

6 out of 6 points
 

According to Higgins, nonprofit organizations have:

  • Question 2

6 out of 6 points

Managers of nonprofit organizations must measure their success by:

· Question 3

6 out of 6 points

This method relates to the actions necessary to implement the strategic plan.

· Question 4

6 out of 6 points

The beginning of management as a field of study dates approximately to the:

· Question 5

6 out of 6 points

La Piana Consulting defines the intensity of the commitment that two or more nonprofits must make to each other as:

· Question 6

6 out of 6 points

Most nonprofits obtain revenue from:

· Question 7

6 out of 6 points

Strive Partnership measures the partnership’s performance through the use of a(an):

· Question 8

6 out of 6 points

According to Edgar Schein, logos, ceremonies, and symbols belong to this defined category of culture.

· Question 9

6 out of 6 points

According to Collins, this type of leadership exists when the leader has the power to simply make decisions.

· Question 10

6 out of 6 points

The perception that nonprofits are less well managed than businesses is:

· Question 11

 

Nonprofit management literature is drawn from which of the three areas?

· Question 12

6 out of 6 points

Very high may suggest that an organization is inefficient, or even participating in unethical or fraudulent behavior.

· Question 13

6 out of 6 points

As Letts and colleagues observe, managers often face two challenges—getting the job done and:

· Question 16

6 out of 6 points

Which decade marked a turning point in public policy, with government outsourcing more of the delivery and management of social and human services to nonprofits, which resulted in the increased need for professional management in nonprofit organizations and an increased number of students interested in working for nonprofit organizations?

· Question 17

6 out of 6 points

Demands for accountability and the need for systems and procedures to comply with greater scrutiny and regulation also have contributed to the need for:

· Question 18

6 out of 6 points

Nonprofit managers should be committed to performance measurement but:

· Question 19

6 out of 6 points

One way to reduce dependency and thus maintain more autonomy is to:

· Question 20

 

According to the Independent Sector, one hour of volunteer time contributed to a nonprofit organization in 2013 was worth:

· Question 21

6 out of 6 points

Giving up something in return for something is referred to as a(an):

· Question 22

6 out of 6 points

A proposed merger between Operation Smile and Smile Train was cancelled due to:

· Question 23

6 out of 6 points

Roberta is participating in an interview about her nonprofit organization. The interview is being conducted by a local radio station. Roberta is communicating with the:

· Question 24

Needs Grading

Draw a diagram of Patricia Bradshow’s five board configurations.

· Question 25

Needs Grading

Explain the three basic elements that effective planning begins with?

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Be sure to support your postings and responses with specific references to the Learning Resources.

 

 

 

Learning Resources

 

Readings

 

Article: Kettl, D. F. (2003). Contingent coordination: Practical and theoretical puzzles for homeland security. The American Review of Public Administration, 33(3), 253–277.

Use the LegalTrac database, and search using the article’s title.

 

Article: Wise, C. R. (2006). Organizing for homeland security after Katrina: Is adaptive management what’s missing? Public Administration Review, 66(3), 302–318.

Use the ABI/INFORM Global database, and search using the article’s title.

 

Online Article: Homeland Security. (2008). National incident management system. Retrieved from http://www.fema.gov/pdf/emergency/nims/NIMS_core.pdf

 

Note: You are only required to read pages 1–8 of this article.

Online Article: Homeland Security. (2007). National preparedness guidelines. Retrieved from http://www.hsaj.org/?article=2.3.4 2.3.4.pdf

 

Note: You are only required to read pages 1–11 of this article.

Online Article: Homeland Security. (2008). National response framework. Retrieved from http://www.fema.gov/pdf/emergency/nrf/nrf-core.pdf

 

Note: You are only required to read pages 1–26 of this article.

 

Online Article: Homeland Security Council. (2010). Quadrennial homeland security review report. Retrieved from http://www.iaem.com/documents/QHSRReportFeb2010.pdf

Note: You are only required to read pages 21–36 of this article.

 

Online Article: Emergency Management Institute. (2007). Principles of emergency management supplement. Retrieved from http://training.fema.gov/emiweb/edu/08conf/Emergency%20Management%20Principles%20Monograph%20Final.doc

Optional Resources

 

Online Article: Bach, R., & Kaufman, D. J. (2009). A social infrastructure for hometown security: Advancing the homeland security paradigm. Homeland Security Affairs, V(2). Retrieved from http://www.hsaj.org/?article=5.2.2

 

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Question 2: Business questions

 

 

Business Interview Case Study

 

  1. How would you work with a subordinate who is underperforming?

We experienced many new workers during my time at Chevron. I had to pick up their slack because I was in charge of training new employees. I would pull them aside after our shift and kindly talked about where they could improve. I made sure I was there to help them and we finally figured it out together.

 

  1. You’re consulting with a large pharmacy with stores in multiple states. This company has improved sales but experienced a decrease in revenue. As a result, it is contemplating store closings. Explain how you’d advise this client?

  1. You are working directly with a company’s management team. It is organizing a project designed to significantly increase revenue. If you were provided with data and asked to supervise the project, what steps would you take to ensure it’s successful?

First, I’d make the team friendly and make sure we all have the same goal. I would listen and respond appropriately to any questions or concerns they may have. I would ensure that everyone has a specific task, that deadlines are fulfilled and that control is maintained.

 

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Question 4: History

 

Why is it not appropriate to deposit non-western artifacts in the natural collection of history?

 

 

Question 5: Biology

 

Nsg5003 advanced pathophysiology   final exam answers south university

 

Question 6: Mathematics

 

Antonio would like to replace his gold clubs with a custom-measured set. A local sporting goods megastore is advertising custom clubs for $520, including a new bag. In-store financing is available at 3.93 percent, or he can choose not to renew his $300 certificate of deposit (CD), which just matured. The advertised CD renewal rate is 5.08 percent. Antonio knows the in-store financing costs would not affect his taxes, but he knows he’ll pay taxes (25 percent federal and 5.75 percent state) on the CD interest earnings.

The after-tax CD earnings rate is   %

 

Question 7: Sociology

 

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

  • How does one recognize sexual harassment?
  • Discuss the different types of sexual harassment?
  • What is required to support a case of sexual harassment in that situation?

 

Question 8: Business

 

Scenario: You are the marketing manager for a local nonprofit charity whose funding is derived from membership fees. You have noticed a severe drop in new memberships and a decline in repeat memberships, which is threatening your organization’s ability to survive and grow. You have decided to implement the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach to help clarify the problem and develop strategies for implementation.

 

Create a 10- to 15-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint®, Prezi, or Microsoft® Sway® presentation with speaker notes on the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach in which you detail the steps you will use to address the membership issue that the local nonprofit charity is facing.

 

Address the following in your role as marketing manager:

 

  • Define the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach and discuss the importance of research in marketing.
  • Describe each step of the Marketing Research Approach in detail and create a plan of attack to explain how each stage should be implemented.
  • Define the target market that you are striving to bring into this organization and describe the methods of research that you will use to identify these groups of people.
  • Define service differentiation. Provide an example that illustrates how the local nonprofit charity in the scenario can use differentiation to help increase the target market’s interest.
  • Explain how differentiation will help position the charitable organization within its defined market.

 

Question 9: Business

 

answer survey questions only need 2 solution

SCREEING:

Have you ever done genetic testing like 23andme/Ancestry.com or plan to? (If yes, proceed with Interview)

If you have not done testing, are you familiar with these tests? (If yes, proceed with Interview. If no, move on to next person)

 

 

Age:

  • 18-24
  • 25-34
  • 35-44
  • 45-54
  • 55-64
  • Over 65

 

Gender:   Male     Female

 

 

Children:                                                  If none, Do you want children?

 

Highest level of Education:

  • High School or Equivalent
  • Some college-no degree
  • Technical School
  • Associate’s Degree
  • Bachelor’s Degree
  • Graduate Degree

 

Household Income:

  • >$25K
  • $25K – $50K
  • $50K – $75K
  • $75K – $100K
  • $100K – $150K
  • $150K+

 

Social Media use:

  • Facebook
  • Instagram
  • Twitter
  • LinkedIn

 

ONLINE BEHAVIOR

  1. Tell me about a time you purchased something directly from a social media link? Or Online?

 

HEALTH AND LIFESTYLE

  1. What are the biggest issues you face with your lifestyle?

 

  1. Do you have any concerns about your health?

 

GENETIC TESTING

  1. Have you done genetic testing yet?
  2. If not, why?
  3. What would you hope to learn about yourself Medically?
  4. What would you not want to learn about yourself?

iii.      What features would you want from the process/product?

 

    1. If yes, why did you get the testing?
    2. Who did you use? Why did you decide to go with them?
    3. What was the process for the purchase?

iii.      What, if anything, would you have changed or wanted but didn’t get?

  1. What have you done with your raw data?
  1. Who do you know that is concerned about genetic privacy?

 

  1. What kind of products would you be interested in receiving marketing for based on your genetic information?

 

Question 10: Business

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words:

 

Discuss the direct and indirect costs associated with staffing decisions. How have those decisions affected you directly or indirectly?

 

 

  1. You have been assigned to work with a small company that manufactures a popular product. However, a competitor begins selling a very similar product which incorporates state of the art technology. What would you advise your client to do?
  2. You have been assigned to advise a company with a large Western European market. Company management wants to open the Chinese market. What advice do you have for this company?

I would advise the company to conduct Chinese market research. Then, I’d ask how they think this market can be successful. Afterwards, I would assist in the development of a business plan setting goals, tasks, budget/contacts, and deadlines.

 

  1. The firm has assigned you to consult a company intending to drop a product or expand into new markets in order to increase revenue. What steps would you take to help this company achieve its objective?
  2. You have been assigned to consult a shoe retailer with stores throughout the nation. Since its revenue is dropping, the company has proposed to sell food at its stores. How would you advise this client?

I’d start by asking what their plans are and how they can succeed. I’d give feedback to the new idea. Then I’d like to ask if they know why revenue is dropping. I would advise them to look into it if they don’t know, by contacting various departments in their stores. Once we’ve addressed that, we can discuss new ideas for sneakers that can increase revenue while we’re waiting results.

 

Question 3: English

 

An English essay one topic of your choosing from the list: The importance of voting Protecting the environment Off-shore drilling Nuclear Proliferation Funding for the arts The Quaker tradition The Women’s Suffrage Movement The Women’s Suffrage movement William Lloyd Garrison John Brown

 

 

Instruction

Read through the instruction on the attachment and figure out how you would like to proceed from there. But, this must be an ESSAY.

 

Graded Assignment

The American Renaissance Unit Test, Part 2

Answer the questions fully, using examples from the reading selections to support your answers. You may refer to your Journeys anthology to answer these questions. When you are finished, submit this assignment to your teacher by the due date for full credit.

Total score: ____ of 55 points

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(Score for Question 1: ___ of 15 points)

  1. Both Walt Whitman and Emily Dickinson were influenced by the Romantics. Choose one of the two poets. Provide at least three ways that he or she reflects Romantic thinking in his or her writing. Then give an example from one of the works that you studied in this unit that illustrates that characteristic.

 

 

(Score for Question 2: ___ of 15 points)

  1. You learned a lot about Whitman and Dickinson’s writing styles during this unit. Although they both broke stylistic boundaries, their styles are different. Write a paragraph in which you explain one characteristic of either poet’s style. Name the characteristic, explain how it is used in the poetry, and then describe the effect that the characteristic produces. Support your answer with examples from the poems.

.

(Score for Question 3: ___ of 25 points)

  1. Now return to your book, and select a poem from Whitman or Dickinson that you did not study in the unit. Explain how the poem reveals Romantic thinking. Cite examples from the poem as your support.
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Question 4: Biology.

 

500 words on importance of prenatal care

 

Question 5: Political Science

      

Political Science 260 INTRODUCTION TO COMPARATIVE POLITICS Summer 2019 For this class you will write an 8-10-page (2,000 word minimum) research paper. This paper will make an argument about the nature of some aspect of politics based on an analysis of some aspect of a political system of your choice. Topics can include such things as institutional analysis (legislatures, executive branch, federalism, electoral systems), or broader issues of political behavior, such as revolutionary change, civil-military relations, gender politics, democratization, inter-ethnic relations, etc. In selecting a topic and country, keep in mind that you are going to have to research whatever it is that you select, and some topics and countries are much more easily researched than others. Under most circumstances you may not include a country that we cover in class in your paper, and should not include the United States

 

Question 6:  Health Care

 

Health Information Systems Technology and Applications Due Date: Wed,6/5/19 by 11pm cst Deliverable Length: 6-8 slides

 

 

Instruction

As the manager of the CTU Health Care information systems department, you realize the need for seamless integration among all operating systems of the departments within the health care organization (HCO). Discuss the importance electronic health record (EHR) conceptual framework integration and achieving interoperability. Prepare a PowerPoint presentation for the stakeholders of the different departments that expresses the importance of the interoperability of all computing systems within the health care organization. In this presentation, you should address the ramifications of the lack of integration of the information systems among the departments.

 

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Question7:  Other

3 page paper with NO REFERENCES

 

Instruction

I need a 3 page essay titled “Giving Back to My Community” – The essay should discuss how I give back and why giving back is important. Include these points: – Volunteer at local animal shelter – Starting own pet sitting business with low rates to accommodate pet owners on a low or fixed income – Member of the World Wildlife Fund – My future plans of expanding my business into a means of allowing other high school students to earn community service hours No References – Double spaced – Times New Roman – 12 font – Must use the points provided

 

Question 8:       Psychology

 

  • Attached Files:

o     PSY201 Case Study Assignment and Rubric.docx (14.47 KB)

Due:  Midnight Sunday.

Analyze a case study from Children On Track – Case Scenarios. Adapted / Reprinted with permission by the Best Start Resource Center.

  • Choose ONE of the following cases:

o    Case # 1 Eric

o    Case #2 Giselle

o    Case #6 Sammy and Willow

  • Answer all the questions asked at the end of your chosen case study thoroughly.
  • Include an analysis of each of the issues you identify and the solutions you provide.
  • Support your responses with information from scholarly readings.
  • Write your answers in a Word document.

Refer to the attached document for the grading rubric. Submit your work by clicking on the SafeAssign link below.  Click on the link again to view the resulting SafeAssign report.

Unit 5 – Case Study

Assignments submitted through this link will be checked using SafeAssign by Blackboard. Your work will not be used for any purpose other than preventing plagiarism in the University. Ownership of the intellectual property contained in your written work will not be transferred to any third party. Please submit your paper as a Word Document. If you have the 2010 version of Word, please save your paper in a previous version (Word 97-2003 document) as Safe Assign may not accept the most recent version.

>> View/Complete

 

Resource: Strategic Staffing, Ch. 13; Staffing Metrics Evaluation Grading Guide

Staffing metrics can be short-term or long-term, and efficiency- or effectiveness-oriented. Short-term metrics can be used as leading indicators to gauge a company’s ability to place the right people in the right jobs at the right time. Long-term metrics are best for evaluating the effectiveness of a staffing system because they drive the financial impact of staffing for the organization.

Choose an organization with which you are familiar.

Evaluate in 700 to 1,050 words three metrics that are – or should be – used to determine how well the staffing process meets the needs of the organization.

Describe the metrics selected for discussion.

Assess how these help the organization determine effectiveness.

Use the information available in Strategic Staffing, Ch. 13, and supplement it with your own research.

Cite any sources according to APA formatting guidelines.

 

 

Question 12: Education

 

Scenario: You are the marketing manager for a local nonprofit charity whose funding is derived from membership fees. You have noticed a severe drop in new memberships and a decline in repeat memberships, which is threatening your organization’s ability to survive and grow. You have decided to implement the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach to help clarify the problem and develop strategies for implementation.

 

Create a 10- to 15-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint®, Prezi, or Microsoft® Sway® presentation with speaker notes on the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach in which you detail the steps you will use to address the membership issue that the local nonprofit charity is facing.

 

Address the following in your role as marketing manager:

 

  • Define the Five-Step Marketing Research Approach and discuss the importance of research in marketing.
  • Describe each step of the Marketing Research Approach in detail and create a plan of attack to explain how each stage should be implemented.
  • Define the target market that you are striving to bring into this organization and describe the methods of research that you will use to identify these groups of people.
  • Define service differentiation. Provide an example that illustrates how the local nonprofit charity in the scenario can use differentiation to help increase the target market’s interest.
  • Explain how differentiation will help position the charitable organization within its defined market.

 

Question 13: Health Care

 

In a 750-1000 word essay in APA format,  critically evaluate the following scenario:

Mrs. J. is a 63-year-old married woman who has a history of hypertension, chronic heart failure, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Despite requiring 2L of oxygen/nasal cannula at home during activity, she continues to smoke two packs of cigarettes a day and has done so for 40 years. Three days ago, she had sudden onset of flu-like symptoms including fever, productive cough, nausea, and malaise. Over the past 3 days, she has been unable to perform ADLs and has required assistance in walking short distances. She has not taken her antihypertensive medications or medications to control her heart failure for 3 days. Today, she has been admitted to the hospital ICU with acute decompensated heart failure and acute exacerbation of COPD.

Subjective Data

  1. Is very anxious and asks whether she is going to die.
  2. Denies pain but says she feels like she cannot get enough air.
  3. Says her heart feels like it is “running away.”
  4. Reports that she is exhausted and cannot eat or drink by herself.
  5. Height 175 cm; Weight 95.5kg.
  6. Vital signs: T 37.6C, HR 118 and irregular, RR 34, BP 90/58.
  7. Cardiovascular: Distant S1, S2, S3 present; PMI at sixth ICS and faint: all peripheral pulses are 1+; bilateral jugular vein distention; initial cardiac monitoring indicates a ventricular rate of 132 and atrial fibrillation.
  8. Respiratory: Pulmonary crackles; decreased breath sounds right lower lobe; coughing frothy blood-tinged sputum; SpO2 82%.
  9. Gastrointestinal: BS present: hepatomegaly 4cm below costal margin.
  10. IV furosemide (Lasix)
  11. Enalapril (Vasotec)
  12. Metoprolol (Lopressor)
  13. IV morphine sulphate (Morphine)
  14. Inhaled short-acting bronchodilator (ProAir HFA)
  15. Inhaled corticosteroid (Flovent HFA)
  16. Oxygen delivered at 2L/ NC
  17. Describe the clinical manifestations present in Mrs. J.
  18. Discuss whether the nursing interventions at the time of her admissions were appropriate for Mrs. J. and explain the rationale for each of the medications listed.
  19. Describe four cardiovascular conditions that may lead to heart failure and what can be done in the form of medical/nursing interventions to prevent the development of heart failure in each condition.
  20. Taking into consideration the fact that most mature adults take at least six prescription medications, discuss four nursing interventions that can help prevent problems caused by multiple drug interactions in older patients. Provide a rationale for each of the interventions you recommend.
  21. Provide a health promotion and restoration teaching plan for Mrs. J., including multidisciplinary resources for rehabilitation and any modifications that may be needed. Explain how the rehabilitation resources and modifications will assist the patients’ transition to independence.
  22. Describe a method for providing education for Mrs. J. regarding medications that need to be maintained to prevent future hospital admission. Provide rationale.
  23. Outline COPD triggers that can increase exacerbation frequency, resulting in return visits. Considering Mrs. J.’s current and long-term tobacco use, discuss what options for smoking cessation should be offered.

 

Question 14: Religious Study

 

BIBL 104 Quiz 8 Final

  • Question 1

1 out of 1 points

Jude wants believers to contend actively and aggressively for the fundamentals of the Christian faith.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 2

1 out of 1 points

Almost half of the twenty-five verse in Jude share a similar thought, idea, or example with material from 2 Peter.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 3

1 out of 1 points

According to the author of Hebrews, In light of what Jesus has done, believers are encouraged to:

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 4

1 out of 1 points

In 1 Peter believers are identified as

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 5

1 out of 1 points

In Jesus’ priestly duties, he offered his own blood once and for all.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 6

1 out of 1 points

In the seven seal judgments the black horse stands for bloodshed

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 7

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not something John claimed about love in 1 John?

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 8

1 out of 1 points

According to 1 Peter, Christ is the

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 9

1 out of 1 points

James believes that those who only hear the Word of God deceive themselves

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 10

1 out of 1 points

James uses two Old Testament illustrations to show the works of people who were saved by faith. One of these is

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 11

1 out of 1 points

______________ was one of the three people in the inner circle of our Lord’s disciples

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 12

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, the emphasis of Revelation is to assure us that Jesus is indeed, coming again.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 13

1 out of 1 points

___________ was the persevering church

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 14

1 out of 1 points

James warns believers about

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 15

1 out of 1 points

The author of Hebrews explains what it means for Jesus to be the Mediator of a better covenant.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 16

1 out of 1 points

In 1 John, John reminds his audience that those who profess to know Jesus yet do not keep His commandments are liars and the truth is not in them.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 17

1 out of 1 points

According to 1 Peter, Christians viewed themselves “as God’s slaves.” This meant that they were truly free from the dominion of the world.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 18

1 out of 1 points

The book of Hebrews contains 5 warnings. One of these warnings is

Selected Answer:

  • Question 19

1 out of 1 points

Jude directs his readers to “contend for the church that was instituted for the communion of the saints and the salvation of the world.”

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 20

1 out of 1 points

Hebrews compares Jesus’ priesthood with ___________ priesthood.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 21

1 out of 1 points

According to the writer of Hebrews, believers should stand firm in their confession because they have something those following Moses did not have. They have Jesus, the Son of God, as their Great High Priest.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 22

1 out of 1 points

In 1 John, John remind his audience what they already know, specifically that God hears and grants their prayer requests.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 23

1 out of 1 points

As a sinless priest, Jesus did not have to offer sacrifices for Himself as Aaron did.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 24

1 out of 1 points

In the new eternal city eternal city sin, rebellion, sorrow, sickness, pain, and death are eliminated.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 25

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not one of the new things found in the eternal state?

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 26

1 out of 1 points

In the seven trumpets of judgment the sun is darkened through air pollution.

Selected Answer:

True

  • Question 27

1 out of 1 points

Jude describes false teachers as

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 28

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, some feel that James’ teaching on faith and works runs counter to the teachings of

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 29

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not one of the sevens that form the outline for the book of Revelation?

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 30

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, the book of Revelation ends with a dramatic postscript which describes the millennium in which Satan is bound in the abyss and Christ and His saints rule the world with a “rod of iron.”

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 31

1 out of 1 points

James teaches that God is waiting to give wisdom to anyone who asks for it

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 32

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, some scholars view Hebrews as a sermon or even as a series of sermons.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 33

1 out of 1 points

In light of what Jesus has done, the author encourages his audience to:

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 34

1 out of 1 points

The book of Hebrews contains 5 warnings. One of these warnings is

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 35

1 out of 1 points

According to the author of Hebrews, Jesus’ priestly duties were not performed in an earthly sanctuary, a mere copy of the heavenly, but in the heavenly sanctuary itself.

Selected Answer:

True

  • Question 36

1 out of 1 points

_____________ was the powerless church

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 37

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Jude uniquely ties together doctrinal error with the immoral lifestyle of false teachers suggesting immorality leads to heresy.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 38

1 out of 1 points

In 3 John, John acknowledges that Diotrophes refusal to be corrected will lead to his exposure when John arrives.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 39

1 out of 1 points

According to 1Peter, believers should submit to every Christian institution in order to
silence the unfounded criticism of unbelievers.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 40

1 out of 1 points

Jude’s reference to both Old Testament examples and those of Jewish non-canonical books indicate his readers were Jewish Christians.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 41

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, the author of 2 John is most likely not the same author as 1
John.

Selected Answer:

False

  • Question 42

1 out of 1 points

____________ was the prosperous church

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 43

1 out of 1 points

In James’ discussion on hearing and doing he uses the example of

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 44

1 out of 1 points

Jude describes false teachers as

Selected Answer:

fruitless trees

  • Question 45

1 out of 1 points

Hebrews begins by asserting that Jesus is greater than

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 46

1 out of 1 points

____________ was the persecuted church.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 47

1 out of 1 points

In 2 John, John expresses the joy he felt when he learned that some members of the recipient’s church body were following the Father’s command to walk in truth.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 48

1 out of 1 points

The rock of refuge represents the church and believers everywhere and is one of the seven symbolic players in the eschatological drama of the book of Revelation.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 49

1 out of 1 points

The author of Hebrews list several personal examples of faith. From this list select the one Biblical character that is not mentioned by the author of Hebrews in Hebrews 11:1-40.

Selected Answer:

 

  • Question 50

1 out of 1 points

The author of 2 John and 3 John calls himself

Selected Answer:

 

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Question9:  History

 

I am looking for someone to do 2 assignments both assignment follow the same requirements but two different paper. I will provide more info below. please make sure the papers are plagiarism free and I will need APA citation (reference page) and in text citation please and thank you

 

Instruction

the assignment (outline) is to choose a country one assignment will be focus on china and the other on will be france. In addition we will need to choose four concepts which we both choose the same we decided to do ( age of exploration 1400-1800, age of imperialism 1800-1945, industrial revolution, age of decolonization) and do some research on it and answer the question in details and make sure you include a lot if dates and connect the events that goes with it. You can download the worksheet twice so you can answer the questions because their wont let me insert it twice Thank you in advanced

 

Name: Guirlene Hyppolite

The location I am researching is → This must be selected from the list provided by your instructor.

 

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Mark the four concepts/themes that you plan to talk about in your presentation in the chart below. You should base your selections off what you have found in your research so far – this means that you should be able to identify an event or a time in your country’s history that is clearly connected to each theme you check off below:

 

Check off Selections Concept/Theme Lesson/Milestone Alignment
The significance of features of “advanced” civilizations Week 1, Milestone 1
The significance of the Age of Exploration and Encounter (1400-1800) Week 2, Week 6, Milestone 3
The significance of the Age of Modern Imperialism (1800-1945)

 

Week 6, Milestone 3
The significance of major religious traditions or religious conflicts Milestone 1, touched on in multiple weeks
The significance of The Age of Atlantic Revolutions (including Enlightenment Ideas) Week 4, Milestone 2
The significance of the Age of Decolonization (post-1945) Week 8
The significance of the Industrial Revolution or industrialization Week 5
The significance of Nationalism (including modern ethno-nationalism and fascism) Week 7, Week 8
The Impact of modern warfare (WWI or later)

 

Week 7, Week 8, Week 9
The impact of Cold War ideological divisions

 

Week 8
The Impact of Modern Globalization on today’s world

 

Week 9

 

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Next, complete the research info sections below. At least one source must be a primary source.

Concept/Theme Selection #1

 

  • Why did you select this concept/theme from the list?

 

 

 

 

  • Describe the event or time period in your country’s history that connects with this concept/theme (be sure to include dates and details):

 

 

 

 

  • Give an APA citation for at least one source you will use to provide evidence of this:

 

 

Concept/Theme Selection #2

 

  • Why did you select this concept/theme from the list?

 

 

 

  • Describe the event or time period in your country’s history that connects with this concept/theme (be sure to include dates and details):

 

 

 

  • Give an APA citation for at least one source you will use to provide evidence of this:

 

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Concept/Theme Selection #3

 

  • Why did you select this concept/theme from the list?

 

 

 

  • Describe the event or time period in your country’s history that connects with this concept/theme (be sure to include dates and details):

 

 

 

  • Give an APA citation for at least one source you will use to provide evidence of this:

 

 

Concept/Theme Selection #4

 

  • Why did you select this concept/theme from the list?

 

 

 

  • Describe the event or time period in your country’s history that connects with this concept/theme (be sure to include dates and details):

 

 

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  • Give an APA citation for at least one source you will use to provide evidence of this:

 

Question 10:      English

 

Instruction

I need an essay written on the book Charlotte Temple by Susanna Rowson. This essay is likely to be 3-4 pages, although complete instructions by my teacher has not been revealed yet. An emphasis should be placed on the questions attached. The book is about the relationship between women and men in the 18th century. Bare in mind that I will need to know where you found your material, so it is important to cite were you found everything. Please show me that you have read or will read the book in preparation of this essay. Also attached is the picture of the book.

 

 

 

 

 

Question 11:      General

 

Understanding Terrorism Wk 8

 

Instruction

Understanding Terrorism Paper Four Criteria – Due Week Eight You now have the following: Paper One: Description and History of your selected group/individual Paper Two: Themes from Chapters 1-9 Paper Three: Strategies, Security, Individual Liberties ======================================= For Paper Four, you are going to complete your research into your selected Group/Individual. For this, you will need the concepts discussed in Chapters 14-16 of the Nacos Text: Chapter 14: Terrorist Propaganda and the Media Chapter 15: Terror and Hate in Cyberspace Chapter 16: Counter terrorism in the News Select TWO final articles (media focused) on your selected group/individual and read them thoroughly. Use the Grantham Library and EBSCO to assist. Stick to Journals and avoid relying on the Washington Post and NY Times. In a well-written paper, describe how the media has reported on your selected organization/individual and evaluate the coverage using the concepts discussed in the Nacos text. In addition, describe how your selected organization/individual used media sources, propaganda, cyberspace, and advertisement to further their ideological, social, and/or political goals. Draw some conclusions: does the media, social networking, and cyberspace impede or facilitate counterterrorism efforts? If so, then how and why? What recommendations would you provide the U.S. Government regarding media, social media, and the internet to better combat terrorism? Your submission will be a minimum of 4 pages and not to exceed 6 pages, excluding the Title Page and Reference Page. You will use APA Standard Format (1″ Margins, Times New Roman, 12-point Font, and Double Spacing. No extra space between paragraphs). You should continue to use all references you have collected so far, and ADD TWO more that are related to the Media.

 

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Question12:       Other

 

Week 12: Signature Assignment

 

Instruction

Instructions Throughout this course, you explored different methodologies, designs, and data collection strategies. Using those experiences and feedback, you will develop a final proposal for a hypothetical study. Specifically, for this assignment, you are asked to develop an expanded proposal that incorporates the feedback you have received as well as your own supported reflections on the readings. This is not meant to be a milestone document nor will it be approved as such, but the proposal should provide an opportunity to test out a possible idea and to get feedback that would be useful as you consider possible topics and research designs for your dissertation work. Remember to use APA formatting and check for grammatical errors. Be sure to use scholarly sources to support all assertions and research decisions. It is also vital that you ensure there is alignment between the components of your paper; you should use Krathwohl’s Chain of Reasoning to assist. The proposal needs to include: •A statement as to the problem the research study will address as well as justification and evidence to verify that the problem exists.. Remember the problem statement should reflect your degree type (applied or theoretical) •A purpose statement that outlines how you will address the problem. •A list of the research questions, including hypotheses if a quantitative or mixed study. A description of the research methodology you have chosen (i.e., quantitative, qualitative, or mixed) and a justification as to why this approach is best suited to address the problem and answer the specific research questions. •A discussion on the research design you have proposed (e.g., case study, quasi-experimental, etc.) and a justification as to why this design is the best choice and aligns with other aspects of the study. •A description of the data collection process, with justifications, to include a discussion of the following: ◦Overview of the population and sampling technique, ◦Instruments used (e.g., survey, interview protocol), and ◦Overview of process for collection and any challenges you envision. •A brief discussion of the proposed analysis techniques with justification on alignment of techniques with problem, purpose, and questions. •A brief discussion of how reliability and validity (or trustworthiness) will be maintained. •A brief discussion of the limitations and ethical considerations, including how limitations, biases, and ethical considerations will be addressed. Length: 12-15 pages, not including title and reference pages

 

 

Question13:       Other

 

Week 11: Participant Perspective and the Mixed Methods Approach

 

Instruction

Instructions Researchers frequently employ standardized instruments to collect data associated with a variable of interest. In such cases, it is helpful to have served in the role of participant before making research decisions relating to measurement. If researchers are able to identify with and put themselves in the place of the participant while designing research methods, the participation can have a positive impact. For example, as the researcher, it might make sense to include a lot of instruments in the same packet for participants to complete so that you can get as much data as possible. However, if you have completed instruments yourself and can put yourself in the place of the participant, you might realize that participants can become tired and pay less attention to items or even stop responding when they have to complete too many instruments. In such cases, there might be missing or misleading data, which is not helpful to you as the researcher. To gain a greater understanding of the perspective of the participant, you will complete several quantitative instruments relating to your experience as a doctoral student at Northcentral University. Please answer each completely and honestly. As you learned in this course, phenomena can be investigated using quantitative, qualitative, or mixed methodologies based on the problem under investigation, the purpose, and the corresponding research questions. Therefore, you will also answer open-ended questions that tap into the same constructs as the questionnaires that you completed. This will offer you experience as a participant in collecting qualitative data as well as demonstrate how phenomena can be explored using varied methodologies. However, it is worth noting that collecting qualitative data electronically comes with a number of limitations that should always be strongly considered when determining whether to collect qualitative data in person or not. Based on your experiences in completing this assignment, address the following: •What did you think of the length of each survey instrument? Was there a point at which you began to feel tired or paid less attention to the items? •What did you think of the open-ended questions? Were they clear? Did they seem leading? Did they seem concise or too wordy? •Did you prefer completing the closed questions (or multiple-choice questions) or the open-ended questions? Why? •Which methodology do you believe is most useful in the examination of each variable/construct? Why? •How might this experience influence you when designing your own research? Finally, write a 1-2 page reflection regarding your views on what you see would be the strengths and challenges of using a mixed method design. Consider how the two mini proposals might be combined to form a mixed method study and what would be the benefits and / or loss if a mixed methods approach was utilized. Make sure to justify your statements and use the resources to help support your points. Length: 6-7 pages, not including title and reference pages

 

Question14:       Other

 

Week 10: Build a Quantitative Proposal

 

Instruction

Instructions Taking what you have learned from the readings and the feedback given on your past assignments, present a mini proposal (6-7 pages) that includes the following: 1. Statement of problem. Provide a clear justification with evidence on why this study is relevant to your field and worthy of doctoral-level study. Support your efforts using scholarly information published within the past 5 years to ensure relevancy. Remember the problem statement should reflect your degree type (applied or research). 2.Purpose statement (how your study will address the problem using quantitative methodology). This statement should flow from the problem statement. 3.Research questions (make sure there is alignment with the problem and purpose). 4.Find 2 to 3 articles related to your topic of interest and provide an overview of the research methodology and design where you specifically discuss the elements below from each article and discuss how each applies (or does not apply to your current study): ◦A specific quantitative design, ◦The population and sample, ◦Steps for data collection and protection of human subjects, ◦Steps for the analysis of the data, and ◦Issues of reliability and validity within a quantitative framework. 5. Based on your analysis above, what seems most applicable to your hypothetical study and why? Be sure to discuss the quantitative design, population and sample, data collection, analysis, reliability, and validity. 6. Discussion of the inherent strengths and challenges of your hypothetical study to include any ethical considerations that might need to be addressed in the study. Make sure to support all assertions and research choices, using the course resources as well as additional scholarly literature you have found. Length: 6-7 pages, not including title and reference pages

 

 

 

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Question 15:      Other

 

Week 9: Quantitative Design and Data Collection

 

Instruction

Instructions For the assignment this week, please consider the topic, problem, and purpose you might choose for your Signature Assignment. You can use and revise problems, purposes, and questions from past assignments in this course with the goal of continuing to improve and refine them. Please addresses the following: •Restatement of your problem, purpose, and research question(s). •Last week you examined multiple ways to collect data to answer your research questions. Based on your analysis and feedback, choose one quantitative data collection method, describe how it would be used in your hypothetical study, and justify why this method of data collection is the best choice. •Discussion and justification of your sample and population. •Potential limitations with the chosen data collection and/or sample to consider and steps that can be taken ahead of time to help avoid these limitations. •Analysis of any strengths and weaknesses you see with your design, data collection, and/or sample. •Discuss ethical issues to consider with quantitative data collection methods. Be sure to use scholarly sources to support all assertions and research decisions. Length: 4-5 pages, not including title and reference pages

 

Question16:       Other

 

Week 8: Quantitative Research Design

 

 

Instruction

Instructions For this assignment, you will build on your assignment last week to further explore how you might examine your research problem using a quantitative methodology. Respond to the following questions: •Please restate the research problem, purpose, and research questions you developed previously and incorporate any faculty feedback as appropriate. This week, be sure to also include hypotheses for each of your research questions. •How might surveys be used to answer your research questions? What are the advantages and disadvantages of using surveys to collect data? •How might you use an experiment or quasi-experiment to answer your research questions? What are the advantages and disadvantages of using (quasi)experiments to collect your data? •It is also important to consider how you might analyze the potential data you collect and factors that could affect those analyses. Specifically, what are Type I and Type II errors? How might these impact your study? What is statistical power? How might this impact your study? What steps can you take ahead of time to help avoid issues related to Type I & II errors as well as power? Be sure to use scholarly sources to support all assertions and research decisions. Length: 5 to 7 pages, not including title and reference pages

 

Question17:       Other

 

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Week 7: Summarize Numerical Data

 

Instruction

Instructions For this assignment, think about a potential study you might want to conduct in which you would need to collect numerical data. You can use the research topic and problem you developed earlier, but make sure to modify your research questions to fit a quantitative method for this assignment. State the research problem and ensure it is supported by at least 3 to 5 scholarly resources within the past 5 years to ensure relevancy. Also keep in mind that your problem statement should reflect your degree (applied or PhD). Discuss whether you had to alter the problem statement to now reflect a quantitative design. How could you use quantitative methodology to address your research problem? State the purpose of the research effort. Make sure the purpose is aligned with the problem. Draft 2 to 3 research questions that would be appropriate for a quantitative study and addresses your research problem and are aligned with your purpose statement. You might choose to revise your previous qualitative research questions or develop new research questions. Either way, ensure alignment with the problem and purpose. Identify and discuss a design that is associated with quantitative methodology that you would consider to answer your research questions. You will find that some problems lend themselves to using one methodology over another. A goal of this assignment was to have you explore how a quantitative methodology might help you address your research questions. You will have an opportunity later in the course to explore mixed methodologies. Based on your analysis above, do you feel the use of a quantitative methodology and your chosen design is best suited to address your research problem and answer your questions. Why or why not? Be sure to use scholarly sources to support all assertions and research decisions. Length: 4-5 pages, not including title and reference pages

 

Question18: Other

 

Week 6: Build a Qualitative Proposal

 

Instruction

Instructions Taking what you have learned from the readings and the feedback given on your past assignments, present a mini proposal that includes the following: Statement of problem. Provide a clear justification with evidence on why this study is relevant to your field and worthy of doctoral-level study. Support your efforts using scholarly information published within the past 5 years to ensure relevancy. Remember the problem statement should reflect your degree type (applied or research). Purpose statement (how your study will address the problem using qualitative methodology). This statement should flow from the problem statement. Research questions (make sure there is alignment with the problem and purpose). Find 2 to 3 articles related to your topic of interest and provide an overview of the research methodology and design where you specifically discuss the elements below from each article and discuss how each applies (or does not apply to your current study): A specific qualitative design, The population and sample, Steps for data collection and protection of human subjects, Steps for the analysis of the data, and Issues of trustworthiness within a qualitative framework. Based on your analysis above, what seems most applicable to your hypothetical study and why? Be sure to discuss the qualitative design, population and sample, data collection, analysis, and trustworthiness. Discussion of the inherent strengths and challenges of your hypothetical study to include any ethical considerations that might need to be addressed in the study. Make sure to support all assertions and research choices, using the course resources as well as additional scholarly literature you have found. Make sure to justify your steps and choices, using the course resources to help support your points. Length: 6-7 pages, not including title and reference pages

 

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Question19:       Other

 

Week 5: Qualitative Data Collection

 

 

Instruction

Instructions For this assignment, you will build on your assignment from last week and further explore how you might examine your research problem using a qualitative methodology. Respond to the following questions: Please restate the research problem, purpose, and research questions you developed previously and incorporate any faculty feedback as appropriate. How might fieldwork and observation be used to answer your research questions? What role would field notes play in this process? What are the advantages and disadvantages of using observation? How might interviewing be used to answer your research questions? Would you use face-to-face interviews or electronic interviews? Why or why not? Would you interview participants individually or in a group? Why or why not? What are the advantages and disadvantages to using interviews to collect your data? Discuss ethical issues to consider with these qualitative data collection methods. Reflect on how you might code the potential data you collect. Be sure to use scholarly sources to support all assertions and research decisions. Length: 6 to 7 pages, not including title and reference pages

 

 

Question1:  Finance

 

If you earn 5% per year on your bank account, how long will it take an account with $105 to double to $210? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)

 

Question 2: Engineering.

 

separate bus lane is proposed that will replace a single lane of a freeway with a capacity of 2,500 vehicles per hour per lane

 

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Question 3: Computer Science.

 

Your manager informs you that your company is going to have a new digital forensics lab built. It will have space for additional computers to perform password cracking. You’re asked to research hardware and software requirements for this task and write a one-page memo describing recommendations for a password-cracking computer running multiple GPUs in a cluster of other systems with multiple GPUs. State what OS is recommended for these clusters’ systems.

 

Question 4: Other

Need help with an assignment must equal up to 1,500, each questions must have a min of 250 words for each questions and must have at least four (4) scholarly sources.

Must be in APA format and include in text citation (    ).

 

  1. What are the major precepts of the Classical school of criminology? Why was this considered to be such a departure from past theories of crime?
  2. Explain the philosophies of Hobbes and Locke and their impact on social issues.
  3. Describe Betham’s “hedonistic calculus’ and its connection to punishment for crime.

4.What are your thoughts on the three strikes law as a deterrent?

5.Explain the strengths and weaknesses of rational choice and routine activity theory as explained in your text.

6.Describe the Just Deserts Model and is this in line with Matthew 5:38-42. Why or why not

 

Question5:Finance

 

In 1880 five aboriginal trackers were each promised the equivalent of 50 Australian dollars for helping to capture the notorious outlaw Ned Kelley. In 1994 the granddaughters of two of the trackers claimed that this reward had not been paid. The prime minister stated that if this was true, the government would be happy to pay the $50. However, the granddaughters also claimed that they were entitled to compound interest.

 

  1. How much was each granddaughter entitled to if the interest rate was 3%? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)

 

  1. How much was each entitled to if the interest rate was 6%?(Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)

 

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Question 6: Business

 

Chaebol and family ownership in Korea

 

The word chaebol is a unique combination of the Korean words ‘chae (wealth)’ and ‘bol (clan or clique)’. South Korea’s chaebol are family-owned businesses that typically have subsidiaries across diverse industries. The top five chaebol, taken together, represent approximately half of the South Korean stock market’s value. Chaebol drive the majority of South Korea’s investment in research and development and employ people around the world. On average, the 3rd and 4th generations of the families of major shareholder in the top 30 Chaebolds become executive at the age of 31.5, only 3.5 years after they join the company (some start their career even as an executive). While some people argue that family leadership is the most suitable and efficient ownerships strategy to manage those huge business group (perspective 1), others argue that it is outdated and inefficient ownership strategy (Perspective 2).

 

I NEED ANSWER FOR PERSPECTIVE 1.

 

 

Question 7: Mathematics

 

Solve the equation for x(for a>0,aÎN)

 

Solve the equation a^x = x^a for x, for all positive values of a (natural numbers).

 

Question8:  Accounting

 

QUESTION ONE

Kitchen Electrical Company is planning to introduce a food blender – Project A – to its line of small home appliances. Annual sales of the blender are estimated at 7,000 units at a price of $75 per unit. Variable manufacturing costs are estimated at $46 per unit, incremental fixed manufacturing costs (other than depreciation) at $35,000 annually, and incremental administration and selling expenses relating to the blenders at $37,000 annually.

To build the food blender the company must invest $250,000 in moulds, patterns and special equipment. Since the company expects to change the design of the blender every four years, this equipment will have a four-year service life with $10,000 salvage value. Depreciation will be calculated on a straight-line basis. (Note – Initial Investment is made at the start of the year when the project commences). Ignore taxation for the purposes of this question.

REQUIRED:

  1. Provide a projected accrualincome statement calculating average per annum accounting profit for Kitchen Electrical based on the above information.
  2. Produce a table showing projected cash inflows / outflows and net cash flows each year over the project life.
  3. Calculate (show full workings to your answer) and interpret the meaning of:
  • accounting rate of return on the project
  • payback on the project
  • net present value assuming a 18% discount rate on the project.
  • internal rate of return on the project

 

  1. The company is also considering an alternate superior blender – Project B – to manufacture and sell. The upfront capital cost to manufacture this blender is costlier at $500,000 initially. The projected life is again 4 years generating a NPV of $145,600 and an Internal Rate of Return of 32.36 percent based on a yearly year end cash inflow of $240,000.
  • Determine which alternative proposal the company should choosebased on increasing the net wealth of the business. (Full justify your answer – (limit 40 words))
  • Now assume the company has the opportunity of replicating each proposal several times (projects are no longer mutually exclusive) but also has an imposed capital constraint, limiting initial investment to $1,000,000. Does your recommendation change – Fully justifying your answer comparing total returns when utilising the $1 million in capital – (limit 80 words). (HINT: The company can do multiple projects – A and/or B up to an initial capital spend of 1,000,000)

 

Required:

 

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Question 9: Finance

 

Suppose Starbucks wishes to sign a 10-year contract to open a location within the Lundquist College of Business. This venture will cost $70,000, and is expected to bring in $10,000 per year.

Starbucks currently finances its operations with 50% equity and 50% debt. They face a 33% tax rate and the YTM on existing Starbucks bonds is 8%. The market expected return is 14%, the risk-free rate is 5% and Starbucks’ Beta is 0.9.

What is the NPV of this venture?

Question 10:      Other

Write a self-reflection paper of approximately 250 words analyzing your own experience with teams, and your ability to lead and contribute effectively to teams.

You should use the following questions for organizing your paper, but you may wish to add additional information:

 

  1. Describe your experience with workgroups and or teams in the workplace and at college
  2. List your current strengths and weaknesses with regard to team building

 

 

Question 11:      Finance

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 12:             Physics

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 13:      Psychology 

 

Wk. 4 Team Assignment:Thesis Statement and Annotated Bibliography for Final Project.

 

 

TOPIC Nipsey Hussle’s story

Resources: Center for Writing Excellence (CWE) Thesis Generator and Annotated Bibliography Sample.

In many cases, issues and dynamics reported in the news are also studied by researchers.

Choose one news story from the News Stories for Multiculturalism in the News assignment, due in Week Three, to use for the final team project due in Week Six.

Gain instructor approval for the selected news story.

Develop an annotated bibliography. Each team member must list a minimum of two sources from peer-reviewed journals that relate to the news story.

Write a clearly worded thesis statement of no more than 150words for the Multiculturalism in the News assignment due in Week Six.

Format your annotated bibliography and thesis statement according to APA guidelines.

Submit your assignment.

Materials

Thesis Generator

Annotated Bibliography

Grading Criteria: Thesis Statement and Annotated Bibliography for Final Project

Resources

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Question 14:      Accounting

 

 

Question 15:      Mathematics

 

(b) A curve is drawn to pass through the points given by the following table: x 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5 4 y 2 2.4 2.7 2.8 3 2.6 2.1 Estimate the area bounded by the curve, the X-axis and the lines x 1 and x 4, using Simpson’s jrd rule.

 

 

Question 16:      Engineering

 

need help with these questions. They are also found on chegg if anyone has that. Just type in the first few words of the questions in the attachments. No need to explain. Just need solutions. will pay 2.50$ per question

 

 

 

Question 17:      Psychology

 

Wk 4 Discussion

 

Each week will have 3 graded Discussions provide:

 

Review this week’s course materials and learning activities, and reflect on your learning so far this week. Respond to one or more of the following prompts in 150 to 300 words:

  1. Provide citation and reference to the material(s) you discuss. Describe what you found interesting regarding this topic, and why.
  2. Describe how you will apply that learning in your daily life, including your work life.
  3. Describe what may be unclear to you, and what you would like to learn.

 

Students need to contribute two substantive posts in this discussion by the due date indicated. The substantive posts can be any combination of responses and replies.

 

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Question 18:             Business

 

Db And assignment

 

Unit 2 DB

 

In the case of the Coyote and Road Runner, one might question the ethics of the two characters’ behaviors. Identify an organization that you have worked for or know about that has successfully implemented a culture of ethical business behavior. Alternatively, identify one that has not successfully implemented a culture of ethical business behavior. Discuss how leaders in those businesses have or have not accomplished this initiative. Must be 200 words please cite and reference all work used in APA style.

 

Unnit 2 assignment

Instructions

Establishing a culture of sound business ethics within an organization is challenging, to say the least. Companies that market products that are not considered to be “healthy” for consumers have additional challenges. Using the CSU online library, research a company that markets “unhealthy” products. Examples might include tobacco or alcohol companies but these examples are not all-inclusive. Respond to the following questions.

  1. Briefly describe the company and its product and the ethical dilemma associated with the production and distribution of its products.
  2. Describe how the perception of the product differs within cultures both within the United States and globally.
  3. How has this company handled the ethical implications of its product with a focus on social responsibility, integrity and business ethics?
  4. Explain how leadership within the organization can instill a culture of ethics within the marketing department as they strive to advertise a product that is not healthy for the customer.

Your response should be two double-spaced pages not including the title and reference pages. You are required to use at least one peer-reviewed source. Referenced sources must have accompanying citations complying with APA guidelines.

Your essay should be formatted in accordance with APA style. For step-by-step instructions for formatting a paper in APA style, please refer to the CSU Citation Guide (http://www.columbiasouthern.edu/downloads/pdf/success/citation-guide).

Instructions for formatting formal documents can be found on page 17.

 

Question  19:     Business

 

Unit 1 Assignment

Instructions

Using the CSU Online Library, locate an article that discusses the topic of business ethics. Topic ideas might include the role of ethics in the workplace, breach of ethics, the effect of internal and external forces on ethical compliance, global ethical considerations within a business or ethics and employees.

Note these are ideas; please expand within the parameters of ethical topics as they relate to business ethics.

Respond to the following questions:

  1. Summarize the article and align it with the author’s main point.
  2. How does this article contribute to contemporary thinking about business ethics?
  3. How can you apply information in this article to your field?
  4. How did this article fit your ethical view?

Your response should be 2 pages double-spaced pages not including the title and reference pages.

Referenced sources must have accompanying citations complying with APA guidelines. References should include at minimum 1) one of the required reading articles and 2) an additional scholarly reviewed article from the CSU Online Library.

You may find this presentation, “Right References,” a great resource for guidance in making references: https://columbiasouthern.adobeconnect.com/references2014

Format the article review in accordance with APA style. For step-by-step instructions for formatting a paper in APA style, please refer to the CSU Citation Guide (http://www.columbiasouthern.edu/downloads/pdf/success/citation-guide).

Instructions for formatting formal documents can be found on page 17.

 

Question 20:      Other

 

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“Five Words that Best Describe You” exercise. In 250 words State the five words that best describe you and why they are so applicable.  Then describe what information or knowledge you hope to gain from the course – what are your objectives? title of course (Strategic Management)

 

Continuation……

 

Question 21:      Statistics

 

The following list gives the ages of 50 factory workers. Construct a Grouped Frequency Distribution using 7 classes.

50 63 42 28 30
37 29 61 43 43
27 50 28 28 50
62 34 53 21 32
19 41 60 57 22
35 46 32 30 25
36 52 57 29 35
42 57 35 61 46
21 49 26 40 19
18 25 23 47 28

Range:

Class Width: 

Fill in the table after creating the frequency distribution on paper. rf and crf are rounded to two decimal places ( Example:  .15 not 0.15). Do not worry about the sum of the column being 1.0. 

Class  Limits Class Boundaries Midpoint f cf rf crf

 

 

Question22:       Germany

 

Name:                                                     10. Klasse Deutsch : Woche 5

Complete the following tasks and upload this document to Managebac by the end of the second double.

Verbs and Tenses:

  1. Give the German or English as indicated for the following phrases. Use the vocab about Düsseldorf from Zoom and Quizlet:

 

German English
einen Spaziergang machen  to go for a walk
das Filmmuseum besuchen Vist the Film Museum
to do a city tour
den Rheinturm besichtigen
Einen Einkaufsbummel machen to go on a shopping expedition
in den Südpark gehen To vist the rhine tower
to go to Spektakulum
eine Bratwurst auf dem Carlsplatz essen
eine Bootsfahrt auf dem Rhein machen to do a boat trip on the Rhine
zum Unterbacher See fahren
to go to a disco in the old town
das Senfmuseum besuchen To vist the city museum
to drink a coffee on the banks of the Rhine
in die Königsallee gehen
In den Aquazoo gehen to go to the ‘Aquazoo’

 

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  1. Was kann man/können wir in Düsseldorf machen? What can you/we do in Düsseldorf?

Use the correct form of ‘können’ with the verb phrases above to create sentences. You can choose the phrases!

 

  1. Man kann eine Bootsfahrt auf dem Rhein machen.

 

Man kann in die Altstadt gehen.

 

Wir kann in den Aquazoo gehen.

 

Ich kann ins Cafe am Rheinufer gehen.

 

Wir kann eine Bootsfahrt auf dem Rhein machen.

 

Man kann das Film Museusm besuchen

 

 

  1. Present Tense – Choose 5 activities from the table to form sentences in the Present Tense.

 

  1. das Senfmuseum besuchen – Ich besuche das Senfmuseum.
  2. ______________________________________________________________________

 

  1. ______________________________________________________________________

 

  1. ______________________________________________________________________

 

  1. ______________________________________________________________________

 

  1. ______________________________________________________________________

 

  1. Rewrite the following in the Future Tense – werden + infinitive

 

Ich besuche das Filmmuseum          Ich werde das Filmmuseum besuchen

Wir gehen in den Südpark              Wir werden in den Sudpark gehen

Er besichtigt den Rheinturm           Er werdet den Rheinturm besichtigen

Sie macht einen Einkaufsbummel  Sie werdet einen Einkaufsbummel macht

Wir fahren morgen zum Unterbacher See Wir werden morgen zum Unterbacher See fahren.

Meine Freunde und ich trinken

einen Kaffee im Café.                     __________

 

  1. Complete the following sentences in the Perfect Tense. Fill in the gaps with the correct form of haben/sein and the past participle. See the table which has been uploaded – Useful verbs in the Perfect Tense.

 

  1. Am Sonntag __________wir in Düsseldorf___________. (ankommen)
  2. Wir __________mit dem Zug __________. (fahren)
  3. Zuerst __________wir zu Fuß zu unserer Jugendherberge __________. (gehen)
  4. Dann __________wir zu Mittag __________. (essen)
  5. Danach __________wir das Filmmuseum __________ (besuchen) und am Abend __________ wir Volleyball __________. (spielen)
  6. Am nächsten Tag __________wir mit dem Bus zum Unterbacher See __________.(fahren)
  7. Den ganzen Morgen __________wir (surfen) und __________. (segeln)
  8. Am Nachmittag __________wir eine Bootsfahrt auf dem Rhein __________ (machen)
  9. Nach der Bootsfahrt __________ wir einen Kaffee in einem Café am Rheinufer __________ (trinken)
  10. Am Abend __________wir zwei Stunden lang in einer Disco in der Altstadt __________. (tanzen)
  11. Word order – SvTOMP/TvSOMP

  Rewrite the following sentences in the correct order. Begin with the highlighted word or phrase.

  Remember: the verb is the second idea in the sentence. If there are two verbs, the second verb

  goes to the end of the sentence.

                         

  1. wohnen / in einem schὅnen Hotel/ meine Familie und ich / in Dὕsseldorf

Meine Familie und ich wohnen in einem schὅnen Hotel in Dὕsseldorf

  1. heute / wollen / eine Bootsfahrt / wir / auf dem Rhein / machen

 

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  1. ich / machen / mὅchte / eine Stadtrundfahrt / am Montag
  2. kann / besichtigen / man / die Sehenswὕrdigkeiten der Stadt
  3. finde / sehr interessant / ich / das
  4. am Dienstagabend / gehen / werden / in der Altstadt / meine Freundin und ich / in die Disco
  5. in die Stadt / mein Bruder und ich / werden / gehen / am Mittwochvormittag
  6. werden / ins Senfmuseum / zu Fuβ / zuerst / wir / gehen.
  7. probieren / wir / kὅnnen / viele Senfspezialitἃten  / dort
  8. ins Spektakulum / danach / gehen / werden / wir
  9. Konzerte und Theater / es / jedenTag / gibt / fὕr Kinder und Jugendliche
  10. werden / Meine Familie und ich / zum Unterbacher See / fahren / am Wochenende / mit dem Zug

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  1. Practise the Quizlet List ‚Adverbs of Time‘. (5 mins)

Give the following adverbs of time in the space below:

  1. on the weekend
  2. first
  3. after that
  4. on the weekend
  5. then
  6. in the evening
  7. on Friday afternoon
  8. today
  9. tomorrow
  10. yesterday
  11. next week
  12. this morning

 

  1. Choose 4 time phrases from the list above and create sentences about Düsseldorf beginning

with the time phrase.  Make sure that you choose the correct tense to use. (ie tomorrow I will visit the Rhine tower – future tense)

Morgen werde ich den Rheinturm besuchen.

________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________

             ________________________________________________________________________________

             ________________________________________________________________________________

  1. Practise the Quizlet list – Opinions (5 mins) Write down 5 opinions about any of the sights in Düsseldorf, and give reasons for your opinion. The conjunctions ‘weil’ (verb scarer) and ‘denn’ will be useful here:

 

  1. Ich finde das Senfmuseum sehr interessant, weil ich Wurst mit Senf gern esse.

              ________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________

             ________________________________________________________________________________

             ________________________________________________________________________________

 

  1. Zoom Textbook. Pages 112 and 113. Read the texts through and answer the questions in the space below:

P 112 Lesen 4

a.

b.

c.

d.

e.

f.

P 113 Lesen 4

b.

c.

d.

e.

f.

g.

h.

In the table below note down all the conjunctions (joining words) and time phrases used in the texts.

Conjunctions (with meanings) Time Phrases

 

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Cases

CASES – Nominative, Accusative & Dative

Definite Article (the) & Indefinite Article (a)

Masculine Feminine Neuter Plural
Nominative der

ein

die

eine

das

ein

die

keine

Accusative den

einen

die

eine

das

ein

die

keine

Dative dem

einem

der

einer

dem

einem

den         + n

keinen    + n

 

 * ‘kein’ is used here instead of ‘ein’ as you can’t use ‘ein’ in the plural.

* Other words can be substituted in this table instead of ‘ein’. The endings on these words           will change in exactly the same way as ein & kein.

 mein (my), sein (his), ihr (her), dein (your- informal), unser (our), ihr (their) euer (your-   informal ) Ihr (your – formal)

 

Complete the following endings using the correct form of the accusative or dative case.

Note:

If there is no preposition ie ‘in’, then use the accusative case to show that the noun is the  direct object. (receiving the action)

If the preposition ‘in’ is followed by a noun, then use the rule: in + acc (movement), in + dat (no movement).      Where at – DAT    Where to – ACCU

  1. Wir können d____ Schlossturm (m) besichtigen.
  2. Wir können d____ Altstadt (f) besuchen.
  3. Man kann in____ Open – Air Kino (n) gehen.
  4. Wir sind i____ Kino (n)
  5. Wir können e____ Bootsfahrt (f) auf dem Rhein machen.
  6. Können wir vielleicht in e____ Pizzeria (f) gehen?
  7. Es war schön heute Abend in d____ Pizzeria.(f)
  8. Ich möchte d____ Filmmuseum (n) und d____ Sϋdpark (m) bescuhen.
  9. In Dϋsseldorf möchten wir in d____ Aquazoo (m) gehen und e____ Einkaufsbummel (m)

machen.

  1. Man kann d____ Senfmuseum (n) und d____ Königsallee (f) besichtigen.
  2. I____ Senfmuseum (n) kann man viele Senfspezialitäten probieren und in d____ Königsallee (f) gibt es zahlreiche Geschäfte.
  3. Am Samstag können wir in____ Spektakulum (n) und danach in d____ Botanischen Garten (m) gehen.
  4. Ich möchte besonders d____ Rheinturm (m) besuchen und in____ Café (n) am Rheinufer gehen.

 

 

When you have completed all the tasks, upload this booklet to ManageBac. This should be done by the end of the second double.

Any remaining time should be spent on Quizlet and on further writing practice. (ie Imagine you are writing a Blog from the perspective of a tourist in Duesseldorf and are talking about what you have done, are doing and will do. Use description and give your opinions)

 

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Question 23:                             Statistics

 

 

  1. Compute the marginal distribution of marital status (for example, total “Never Married / Total Adult Women) for all adult women (use percent).  Either draw by hand or use Excel to create a bar chart to display this distribution. Discuss the results.
  2. Compare the conditional distributions of marital status for women aged 18 to 24 and women ages 40 to 64.  Discuss the most important difference between the two age groups.

 

  1. Your company is planning a magazine aimed at women who have never been married.  Find the conditional distribution of age among never-married women and display it in a bar graph. Insert this graph into word.  Discuss what age group or groups you would suggest to your magazine to target.

 

Question 24:      Engineering

 

Solve

 

Question 25:      Psychology

 

Wk 4 Individual: Multicultural Project Planning

 

Choose one of the following scenarios and watch the accompanying video.

  • You work for a refugee relief organization. You are given the job of setting up schools in Chechen refugee camps in Chechnya.
  • Video: “Chechen Refugee Camps”
  • You work for a humanitarian organization. You are asked to expand your organization into Iraq to aid in the country’s rebuilding effort.
  • Video: “Post War Conditions in Iraq”

Write a 1,400- to 1,750-word paper about the challenges of planning the project.

Include the following in your paper:

  • At least three topics that you would like to better understand before beginning the project.
  • Describe ethnocentric challenges that may arise when planning the project.
  • Discuss the types of questions the researcher should ask.

Include peer-reviewed sources to support your points.

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

Submit your assignment.

Materials

Video: Chechen Refugee Camps

Transcript: Chechen Refugee Camps

Video: Post War Conditions in Iraq

Transcript: Post War Conditions in Iraq

 

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Question 26:      Psychology

 

Ethical Guidelines in Multicultural Research

 

Pick an ethical guideline unique to multicultural research. What is your perspective on the chosen guideline’s purpose for student and professional research?

 

Please make sure to apply more than one resource to initial response. Properly cites (i.e., APA) course materials and outside scholarly readings in initial posting; citations as needed in responses to classmates.

 

Textbook sources:

 

Fiske, S. T. (2014). Social psychology: Core motives in social psychology (3rd ed). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

 

Keith, K. D. (2011). Cross-Cultural Psychology: Contemporary Themes and Perspectives.

Indianapolis, IN: Wiley. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

 

Lott, B. E. (2010). Multiculturalism and diversity: A sociological perspective.

Malden, MA: Wiley & Blackwell. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

 

Question 27:      Psychology

Ethnocentrism, Psychological Theories, and Multicultural Research

 

In what ways does ethnocentrism impact psychological theories and multicultural research?

 

Please make sure to apply more than one resource to initial response. Properly cites (i.e., APA) course materials and outside scholarly readings in initial posting; citations as needed in responses to classmates.

 

Textbook sources:

 

Fiske, S. T. (2014). Social psychology: Core motives in social psychology (3rd ed). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

 

Keith, K. D. (2011). Cross-Cultural Psychology: Contemporary Themes and Perspectives.

Indianapolis, IN: Wiley. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

 

Lott, B. E. (2010). Multiculturalism and diversity: A sociological perspective.

Malden, MA: Wiley & Blackwell. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

 

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Question 28: Statistics

 

  1. A firm uses a computer-based training module to prepare 20 machinists to use new numerically controlled lathes.  The module contains a test at the end of the course; X is the number who perform satisfactorily on the test.

 

  1. The list of potential product testers for a new product contains 100 persons chosen at random from the adult residents of a large city.  Each person on the list is asked whether he or she would participate in the study if given the chance; X is the number who say “Yes”.

 

  1. Either in a job you currently have or one that you would like to have, describe a data set you could collect that would be in the binomial setting.

 

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Question 29:      Chemistry

 

Complex metric Titration

 

A 10.00 mL of aliquot of a commercial grade algaecide containing an organ mercury compound was treated with concentrated HNO3 and diluted to 250.0 mL with water. A 50.00 mL of aliquot of this solution was treated with 20.00 mL of 0.04966 M EDTA and mixed thoroughly for 10 minutes. After adjusting to pH 10.00, the excess EDTA required 18.04 mL of 0.04711 M MgCl2 for the titration endpoint. Calculate the concentration of Hg in the original sample in units of mg Hg/mL

 

Question 30:      Chemistry

Gravimetric Analysis

 

Will a precipitate form when 0.150L of 0.1000 M Pb(NO)3 and 0.100 L of 0.20 M NaCl are mixed? Ksp of PbCl2 = 1.2 x 10 ^ -5

 

Question 31:      Computer Science

SYSC 2100 Algorithms and Data Structures Summer 2019

Assignment 3: Recursion and Stacks Due: May 31st, 2019

Name your classes and methods strictly as specified (case sensitive).

  1. Design a class named LanguageRecognizerG to implement a language recognizer. The LanguageRecognizerG class must accept strings from the user, and determine recursively (method recursiveRecogG) whether the string is a word of the G language.

The G language has the following grammar:
<G> = empty string | <E> | <V> <E> | <E> <G> <V> <E> = & | #
<V> = W | A

 

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The client program (exterior to your class) will read the word from the keyboard as follows:

Enter the G-language word to check:

Suppose that the user enters the word:

###

The client program will then proceed to create an object of your class with the user- entered word and check with one simple call of a method. The client program should not implement any result printing at all. That is the responsibility of your class via its methods. A client program is provided on Page 4. Feel free to use it for your tests!

The output should appear as follows:

Recursion: Word “###” is NOT a word of the G language If the entered word is #A instead, the output would be:
Recursion: Word “#A” IS a word of the G language

CAUTION: If you take care of the printing inside recursiveRecogG you will run into a multiple printing problem. To eliminate this, have a second method recursivePrintG that takes care of the printing for recursion. That is the only method that the client program will call for the language check. It then becomes the job of recursivePrintG to make use of recursiveRecogG.

Bonus Question (no marks): Try solving the same problem as above non-recursively using the Java Collections Framework class Stack (method stackRecogG).

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1

  1. Implement your own ADT-list-based stack class named StackListBased. Use the ADT LinkedList of the Java Collections Framework. Your Stack implementation should be capable of performing the operations shown in the following UML diagram.

Design another class named InfixCalculator to implement an infix calculator using your previously implemented class StackListBased. The InfixCalculator class must accept infix expressions from the user and evaluate them with method evaluateInfix. This method will first convert the infix expression to postfix expression (method convertPostfix), and then evaluate the resulting postfix expression (method getPostfix). Use only the operators +, -, *, and /. You can assume that the infix expression is syntactically correct and that the unary operators are illegal. However, the infix expression should

  1. allow for any type of spacing between operands, operators, and parentheses
  2. allow for multi-digit integer operands

The client program (exterior to your class) will read the infix expression to evaluate from the keyboard as follows:

Enter the infix expression to evaluate:

Suppose that the user enters the expression:

(10 + 3 * 4 / 6)

The client program will then proceed to create an object of your class with the user- entered expression and evaluate it the method evaluateInfix().

The output for some example infix operations should appear as follows:

infix: (10 + 3 * 4 / 6)

postfix: 10 3 4 * 6 / +

result: 12

2

infix: 12*3 – 4 + (18 / 6)

postfix: 12 3 * 4 – 18 6 / +

result: 35

infix: 35 – 42* 17 /2 + 10

postfix: 35 42 17 * 2 / – 10 +

result: -312

infix: 3 * (4 + 5)

postfix: 3 4 5 + *

result: 27

infix: 3 * ( 17 – (5+2))/(2+3)

postfix: 3 17 5 2 + – * 2 3 + /

result: 6

 

Submission Requirements: Submit your assignment (3 source LanguageRecognizerG.java, StackListBased.java, and InfixCalculator.java) using cuLearn. Your program should compile and run as is in the default lab environment, and the code should be well documented. Submit all the files individually without using any archive or compression.

 

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Marks will be based on:

  • Completeness of your submission
  • Correct solution to the problem
  • Following good coding style
  • Sufficient and high-quality in-line comments
  • Adhering to the submission requirements (in particular the naming convention and the

submission of uncompressed source files only)

The due date is based on the time of the cuLearn server and will be strictly enforced. If you are concerned about missing the deadline, here is a tip: multiple submissions are allowed. So you can always submit a (partial) solution early, and resubmit an improved solution later. This way, you will reduce the risk of running late, for whatever reason (slow computers/networks, unsynchronized clocks, failure of the Internet connection at home, etc.).

In cuLearn, you can manage the submission until the deadline, taking it back, deleting/adding files, etc, and resubmitting it. The system also provides online feedback whether you submitted something for an assignment. It may take a while to learn the submission process, so I would encourage you to experiment with it early and contact the TA(s) in case you have problems, as only assignments properly and timely submitted using cuLearn will be marked and will earn you assignment credits.

files:

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3

The Client Program:

4

Question 32:      Business

 

Fourth ENT assignment.

– Go online and download the book titled CAPITALIST NIGGER by Chika Onyeani and:
1- Comment (Give 10 arguments) on why Africans do not succeed in business.
2- How can they apply the cobweb method used by Indians to succeed.

NB: Answer in at least 6 pages.

Question 33:      Business

 

How  to make $2000 from $20 in a year.

 

As an entrepreneur, explain in detail, a business proposal that can fetch you $2000 in one year, starting with $20. (Answer between 2-3 pages)

 

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Question 34:      Mathematics

 

Probability

 

After his bargain with Dormammu, Dr. Strange is trying to get back to Earth from the Dark
Dimension. To this end, he manages to open three portals:
• Portal 1 can lead him directly back to Earth after 5 minutes.
• Portal 2

  1. leads him through the Nine Realms and back to the Dark Dimension (where he
    started) after 15 minutes.
    • Portal 3 leads him through the perilous Quantum Realm and back to the Dark Dimension
    after 25 minutes (assuming he survives the trip, of course).
    Since Dr. Strange does not know which portal is the correct one to take and the portals change
    positions every time he goes through one of them, he decides to pick one portal (out of three)
    at random with equal probability.
    What is the expected time for Dr. Strange to get back to Earth?

 

 

 

 

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Question 35:      Mathematics

 

ROI NPV AND PLAY-BACK CALCULATION

 

Need ROI, Pay-Back and NPV calculation

Return on investment. Net present value

      

 

 

 

Question 36:      Mathematics

 

Home Depot entered fiscal 2016 with a total capitalization of $27,219 million. In 2016, debt investors received interest income of $832 million. Net income to shareholders was $6,351 million. (Assume a tax rate of 35%.)

 

Calculate the economic value added assuming its cost of capital is 10%. (Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answer in millions rounded to 2 decimal places.)

 

Question 37:      Economics

 

How easy is it to start a business in India?

I would like to have a deep analysis on this topic within 500 words.

 

 

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Question 38:      Business

 

Discussion 4

 

William Ford Jr., Chairman of Ford Motor Co. said, “A good company delivers excellent products and services, and a great company does all that and strives to make the world a better place.”  Supported by evidence from your textbook, the “Starbucks” case study, and other research, describe two forces that you believe shape the relationship between business and society. Provide two examples, one for each force you select. Be specific in your answer and discuss strengths and weaknesses via examples and applications. Be certain to cite in APA format all sources used.

 

Discussion 5

 

Visit at least two different companies’ website and read about how each company explicates the working environment and its expectations of employees. In your discussion post, reference the websites you analyzed. Examples of companies include, Kraft Foods, Apple, CVS Caremark, Johnson & Johnson, and Target. Identify what your selected companies do to establish a positive working environment and committed employees. Be specific in identifying behaviors, programs, or initiatives. (Note: If a company website does not provide enough information, select another company.)

 

 

Question 39:      Mathematics

 

Solve for x the equation 2^x+x^2=3^x-x^3, with detailed illustration and explanation.

 

 Question 40:     Physics

 

A physics student is sitting in a parked car just off a busy roadway. She measures the traffic noise and finds that shutting the car windows reduces the intensity of traffic sound to 1.0 % of what it would be with the car windows open. What reduction in intensity level (IL) is achieved by shutting the windows? In your response include an explanation of the underlying physics concept and follow the posted structured approach to problem solving in presenting your response.

 

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Question 41:      Physics

 

Explain why warranty for many devices will be voided if the equipment is operated in a room with air temperature exceeding the limit specified by the equipment manufacturer. (2 marks)

Question 42:      Statistics

 

Find the value of z such that 0.9722 0.9722 of the area lies between −z − z and z. Round your answer to two decimal places.

 

 

Question 43:      Mathematics

 

A pump house is to be placed at some point X along a river. Two pipelines will then connect the
pumphouse to properties A and B. How far from M should X be in order to minimize the total length of
pipeline?

 

 

Question 47: Mathematics

Unit –Circle & line –segment intersection

 

Derive the formula to calculate the endpoint coordinates (x2,y2) on a unit-circle’s circumference, of a sloped line segment (slope = 1 or 2), whose origin coordinates (x1,y1) are anywhere inside of the unit-circle’s first octant.  This is for a high school project.

 

Question 48:      Psychology

 

Wk 3 Team Assigment:News Stories for Multiculturalism in the News

 

CHANGE TOPIC — Just need 2 slides 

 

Research news stories for the Multiculturalism in the News assignment due in Week Six; each team member must select one news story. The stories must have occurred within the past 6 months and must illustrate the effects of multicultural conflict. The team will choose one story to complete the assignment on.

Create an 2-slide presentation that conveys a background on the news story, and how the news story is related to multicultural conflict. Additionally, provide a resolution approach to the topic.

 

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TOPIC is: how the Nipsey Hussle Murder unified people of different cultures and unity

 

 

Describe how the news story illustrates the effects of multicultural conflict.

Format your document according to APA guidelines.

Submit your assignment.

 

Question 49:      History

 

Major influences on development of the Renaissance

Instructions

This assignment provides you with an opportunity to practice prioritizing known major influences on development of the Renaissance and using specific data to support your choice. What shaped developments in the period 1300–1550 more—the Black Death’s emphasis on the afterlife (the hereafter) or the Renaissance’s emphasis on human achievement (the here and now)?

Lead with your judgment about the most influential viewpoint from beginning to end of the period. This is your thesis. Then, support it with specific examples covering each of the following categories:

  • significant individuals (e.g., political or religious leaders, innovators, explorers);
  • characteristics of worldview (e.g., philosophy, religion);
  • social institutions (e.g., social mores, practices, hierarchies);
  • patronage (discuss the patrons, their motives, influence, and resulting products or artifacts);
  • the economies (e.g., changes, different economic systems, impact); and
  • politics (e.g., forms of governance, power distributions, contests).

You may use specific examples that touch on several of the above categories at once. When writing your essay, use examples to prove your point rather than simply listing the examples.

Your essay must be a minimum of 500 words. Be sure to include an introduction.

You must use two sources written by historians in history books or journals from Online Libraries. All content must follow APA guidelines, including all sources used, which must be cited and referenced according to APA standards.

Details

 

 

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Question 50:      Statistics

 

Simulation

 

The number of acres comprised by Cedar Bog Lake is being estimated. The lake
is shown in the accompanying sketch with the scale shown in feet. Use simulation
to estimate the size of the lake. (One-acre D 43,560 square feet).

x(from 0 to 1000)

y(from 0 to 500)

 

RECENT QUESTIONS.

 

Question 1:  General.

 

Introduction to Economics assignment

 

ECN1000 – Devoir 2

Tiffanie Perrault

Université de Montréal, Département des Sciences Economiques à rendre avant le 6 juin 2019

Le marché du locatif à Montréal

Selon Statistique Canada, 522 140 logements étaient loués dans l’agglo- mération de Montréal en 2016. La même année, 4% des logements étaient inoccupés. Selon l’Union des Banques Suisses, le prix moyen du loyer pour un 3 1/2 à Montréal en 2015 était de CAD 879. On supposera qu’entre 2015 et 2016, ce prix augmente de 2%, donc passe à approximativement CAD 900.

Pour faciliter l’accès au logement, Madame Gagnon, économiste pour les services urbains de la Ville de Montréal, proposait de plafonner le prix des loyers à CAD 850 au 1er Janvier 2017.

  1. Représentez l’équilibre du marché des logements locatifs à Montréal en 2016 à l’aide d’un graphique d’offre et de demande.
  2. Sur le même graphique, représentez les surplus des consommateurs et des producteurs. Vous pouvez utiliser des lettres pour désigner les aires correspondant à ces surplus.
  3. Sur le même graphique, représentez l’équilibre du marché des loge- ments locatifs à Montréal en 2017, après la politique de plafonnement proposée par Madame Gagnon.
  4. Représentez les surplus des consommateurs et des producteurs pour 2017.
  5. Comment la quantité de logements loués à l’équilibre évolue-t-elle ? Pourquoi ?
  6. Selon vos réponses aux deux questions précédentes, que penser de la politique publique proposée par Madame Gagnon ?

1

Madame Breton est également économiste pour la ville. Elle critiquait la solution de Madame Gagnon et proposait de subventionner l’accès au logement des familles montréalaises sous la forme d’une prime de CAD 50 par mois pour les locataires aux revenus les plus bas, au 1er Janvier 2017.

  1. Recopiez votre graphique de la question 1 illustrant l’équilibre du marché des logements locatifs à Montréal en 2016. Ensuite représentez la politique proposée par Madame Breton pour le 1er Janvier 2017.
  2. Comment la quantité de logements loués à l’équilibre évolue-t-elle ? Pourquoi ?
  3. Représentez les surplus des consommateurs et des producteurs pour 2017, en appliquant la politique de Madame Breton.
  4. Selon vos réponses aux deux questions précédentes, est-il préférable, pour encourager l’accès au logement, de mettre en place la politique publique de Madame Breton ou celle de Madame Gagnon ? Pourquoi ?

Monsieur Tremblay propose une autre approche pour faciliter l’accès au logement et réduire le taux d’inoccupation : subventionner les propriétaires de logements locatifs, au 1er Janvier 2017.

  1. Recopiez votre graphique de la question 1 illustrant l’équilibre du marché des logements locatifs à Montréal en 2016. Ensuite représentez la politique proposée par Monsieur Tremblay pour le 1er Janvier 2017.
  2. Représentez les surplus des consommateurs et des producteurs pour 2017, en appliquant la politique de Monsieur Tremblay.
  3. Comment la quantité de logements loués à l’équilibre évolue-t-elle ? Pourquoi ?
  4. Selon vos réponses aux deux questions précédentes, que penser de la politique publique proposée par Monsieur Tremblay en termes d’accès au logement ?

Comme Monsieur Tremblay, Monsieur Laroche pense qu’il serait préfé- rable d’envisager une politique d’offre, plutôt qu’une politique de demande. Il propose de taxer les logements inoccupés au 1er Janvier 2017.

  1. Recopiez votre graphique de la question 1 illustrant l’équilibre du marché des logements locatifs à Montréal en 2016. Ensuite représentez la politique proposée par Monsieur Laroche pour le 1er Janvier 2017.

2

  1. Représentez les surplus des consommateurs et des producteurs pour 2017, en appliquant la politique de Monsieur Laroche.
  2. Comment la quantité de logements loués à l’équilibre évolue-t-elle ? Pourquoi ?
  3. Selon vos réponses aux deux questions précédentes, que penser de la politique publique proposée par Monsieur Laroche en termes d’accès au logement ?
  4. Le résultat de la politique proposée par Monsieur Laroche est-il dif- férent du résultat de la politique proposée par Monsieur Tremblay ?
  5. Des quatre solutions proposées, laquelle choisiriez-vous ? Pourquoi ?

3

 

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Question 2:  Law

 

Instruction

PLEASE SEE THE ATTACHED DOCUMENT FOR THE INSTRUCTIONS OF ASSIGNMENT. NO PLAGIARISM, NO GRAMMATICAL & NO PUNCTUATION ERRORS! ALL instructions MUST be followed! ASSIGNMENT DEADLINE: 6/8/2019 DEADLINE TIME: 12:00PM M.S.T. Instructions for assignment is attached!!! Thanks!!!

 

Graduate Course Assignment

 

Assignment Deadline: 6/8/2019

Assignment Deadline Time: 12:00pm M.S.T.

 

NO PLAGIARISM, NO GRAMMATICAL & NO PUNCTUATION ERRORS!

 

Intervention Program: Reduce Firearm-Related Violence

 

Write a 475-word analysis that THOROUGHLY ADDRESS AND EXPLAIN methods to work around potential ethical issues in the future for an intervention program of: Reduce Firearm-Related Violence

 

Include at least two (2) Peer-Reviewed resource within the response.

 

Properly quote and cite all references used. Response MUST have direct “in-text” quotes (examples) to support writing.

 

Properly format your document consistent with APA guidelines. Analysis MUST be in APA FORMAT. Reference Page MUST be in APA FORMAT. Analysis must have a strong introduction, body, conclusion, and smooth transitional phrases for sentences and paragraphs.

NO PLAGIARISM, NO GRAMMATICAL & NO PUNCTUATION ERRORS!

 

NO PLAGIARISM, NO GRAMMATICAL & NO PUNCTUATION ERRORS!

 

NOTE: cover page and reference page are NOT included in the 475-word count for analysis. The document must have thoroughly detailed information and references to support analysis.

 

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Question 3:  Education

 

literacy narrative (anecdote), five pages,

 

Instruction

Literacy is the development of literacy and, the ability of communication between people. I have been suffered from literacy two times of my life. First, when I was a child I suffered from the Arabic language, how can I communicate with people in Arabic. I have been extremely lucky in having a chance to learn from several fantastic sponsors. The first sponsor is my parents. My parents are the most positive literacy sponsor in my life. My parents are considered the first teacher in my life. When I had homework, they always helped me and supported me to become a better student. Further, my parents always encouraged me to become better at writing and read more by buying me a lot of books. For example, when I went to my bed my parents read a story for me. That helped me and encouraged me to be a good student who read and write a lot in a short time. Also, I will never forget my teachers who made a big effort with me throughout my education. For example, they made a competition between my classmates to enhance our education in a good way, and they always gave us a present. Second, when I was 21 years I moved to the United States, and I started to learn the English language. It is a new period in my life a new language and education. First, I was scared of how can I get better and how can I improve my English language. With the time a get better and better in English. I practice every day, when I hear a new word, I write it in my notebook. I watched movies every day and repeated. The first station was the UCF English language institution (ELI), this was my new challenge. In addition, I did do my placement test and my grade was level one. The teacher at ELI taught in a really good way. For example, they gave a lot of homework and gave good feedback that helped me to improve myself.

 

Question 4:  Psychology

 

Week two class one

Assignment 1 Due June 5, 2019

Vicarious Trauma and Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder

 

Vicarious trauma and post-traumatic stress disorder are closely related because the symptoms of each condition are similar. What distinguishes each condition from one another is how the trauma was experienced. For this Discussion, you review a video of three United States military servicemen previously deployed in the Middle East. Each experienced combat in unique ways and each experienced trauma differently. As you watch the clips, pay attention to who experienced vicarious trauma and who experienced post-traumatic stress disorder. Consider how each man experienced the trauma, the symptoms of each condition, and what makes their experiences similar but also distinctively different from the others.

 

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Post by Day 3 a brief explanation of which individual(s) has vicarious trauma and which has post-traumatic stress disorder. Then identify the symptoms of the individual(s) with vicarious trauma and explain how each symptom informed your selection. Finally, explain any insights you gained about vicarious trauma related to the video. Be specific and use the current literature to support your response.

Video: Laureate Education, Inc. (Executive Producer). (2010). Vicarious trauma and post-traumatic stress disorder in military personnel.

 

 

Only a few paragraphs needed DUE JUNE 9, 2019

Assignment 2

Application: Your Risk for Vicarious Trauma

One major risk factor for developing vicarious trauma is the consistent use of controlled empathy which is the internal control of mental states, emotions, and behaviors (Izzo & Carpel Miller, 2009). Prolonged use of controlled empathy can take an emotional, physiological, and spiritual toll on counselors and other trauma response helping professionals which may result in the development of vicarious trauma symptoms (Izzo & Carpel Miller, 2009). For example, counselors who listen to a client or student sharing a story of abuse often remain calm and non-reactive as part of the counseling process. It takes tremendous mental and emotional effort, however, to absorb a traumatic story knowing they must respond therapeutically. This effort can become mentally and emotionally exhausting. Counselors and other trauma response helping professionals must be cognizant of their potential risk of developing vicarious trauma and be capable of assessing their own symptoms.

For this Application Assignment you take the Professional Quality of Life Scale (ProQOL 5), a brief assessment instrument developed to promote self-awareness of vicarious trauma. It measures compassion satisfaction, which is the pleasure you derive from your profession, risks for burnout, and your exposure to extremely stressful events. Together, these three components help determine your risk for developing vicarious trauma and the impact of controlled empathy.

As you score the ProQOL 5, think about whether the results surprise you. What areas do you need to focus on to exercise strategies to prevent the development or further exacerbation of vicarious trauma?

Reference: Izzo, E. & Carpel Miller, V. (2009). Vicarious Trauma: The Impact of Empathy. Retrieved fromhttp://www.selfgrowth.com/articles/Vicarious_Trauma_The_Impact_of_Controlled_Empathy.html

The assignment: (2–3 pages)

  • Describe your results of the ProQOL 5.
  • Describe two areas you need to further develop to address or prevent vicarious trauma and explain why you selected each.
  • Based upon the current literature, justify two strategies you would use to develop those areas.
  • Explain how your use of controlled empathy might influence the development of vicarious trauma and how this might impact the counseling process.
  • Be specific and use examples to illustrate your points.

 

Question 5:  Business

 

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Essay

 

Instruction

Unit V Case Study Open Instructions Case studies are an important learning strategy in business classes as they provide an opportunity for you to critically analyze events that have taken place in real-life businesses. This develops your critical thinking and research skills as you research the competition and industry in which your business resides with an end goal of formulating a recommendation for the challenges faced by the company. Read the “Franklin Electronics” case study on pages 545–546 of your textbook. As you complete the analysis, address the topics below. Explain the earned value measurement system and whether you believe that Franklin Electronics truly understands it. Analyze the cost projections completed by Franklin Electronics. Reconstruct the cost projections toward the compilation of a realistic project budget. Include a theoretical discussion around the steps involved in the budget that you built. Create a project management schedule that would be more effective than the one proposed in the case. Use scheduling techniques learned in this class to date. Include an assessment of why you selected this scheduling technique instead of others. Evaluate sources of project risk, and develop strategies that would decrease the impact of these risks. In formatting your case analysis, do not use the question-and-answer format; instead, use an essay format with subheadings. Your APA-formatted case study should be a minimum of two full pages in length (not counting the title and reference pages). You are required to use a minimum of three academic sources that are no more than 5 years old (one may be your textbook). All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased material must have accompanying in-text citations. A minimum of three in-text citations are required.

 

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Question 6:  General

 

INSTRUCTIONS: Prospective students will prepare a 3-4 page double-spaced paper answering the prompt below. Students will be presented seven “documents” to review, and further research may be required. Submitted papers will be assessed using the rubric on page 5 of this document.

 

ACADEMIC SKILLS ASSESSMENT

INTRODUCTION: The following task is designed to gauge a prospective student’s academic skills in the areas of reading comprehension, content analysis, intellectual comparison, and writing abilities. It is largely based on a sample assignment for the AP Placement Test at the High School level (copyright 2017, The College Board).

TIME ALLOWED: The typical time allotted for this task on the AP test is 60 minutes in one sitting, but GCD’s Admissions Team has adapted this task in the following manner: prospective students will have 7 days to research, write, and submit their response paper.

INSTRUCTIONS: Prospective students will prepare a 3-4 page double-spaced paper answering the prompt below. Students will be presented seven “documents” to review, and further research may be required. Submitted papers will be assessed using the rubric on page 5 of this document.

Completed assignments should be properly formatted in one of the following styles:

  • – GCD expects undergraduate students to utilize Chicago style guidelines. For

students who are not familiar with any style of formatting, this may be the best option. Here is a link to a resource page on this style: https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/717/01/

  • – High School students may be more familiar with MLA style guidelines. Here is

ACADEMIC PROMPT: Evaluate the extent to which differing ideas of national identity shaped views of United States overseas expansion in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries.

a link to a resource page on this style:

https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/675/01/

ASSESSMENT RUBRIC

Assignment Component    Maximum Points Possible Points Earned

Is the paper properly formatted, using proper grammar, and 3-4 pages in length? 20

 

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Does the paper contain an evaluative thesis that establishes the student’s argument and responds to the question?    20

Does the paper describe a broader historical context immediately relevant to the question that relates the topic of the question to historical events, developments, or processes that occur before, during, or after the time frame of the question?           20

Does the paper explain how at least one additional piece of specific historical evidence, beyond those found in the documents, relates to an argument about the question?     20

Does the paper use historical reasoning to explain relationships among the pieces of evidence provided in the response and how they corroborate, qualify, or modify the argument, made in the thesis, that addresses the entirety of the question? In addition, a good response should utilize the content of at least six documents to support an argument about the question.         20

TOTAL:       100

 

 

Question 7:  Business, Accounting.

 

Management Discussion and Analysis

 

Assigned Company is Lowe’s.

Accounting CASE 1:  Management Discussion and Analysis

Read Lowe’s 2018 annual report (or 10K) for the most recent year and answer the following questions: Look at the Management Discussion and Analysis (MDA) on Financial Condition and Results of

Operations presented in Lowe’s annual reports. Summarize the information discussed in the MDA.

(Maximum length of the report is 2 pages (with normal margins and 12 point font)). Include an appendix

for any extra information and that will not count in report pages.

Accounting CASE 2:  Auditor’s Reports and Management Reports

Read 2018 Lowe’s annual report (or 10K) for the most recent year and look at the Auditor’s and

Managements Reports and Certifications. Summarize and comment about the standards/rules used in the following:

Auditor’s report – general

Auditor’s report – internal controls

Management report (certification) – fair presentation (check Exhibits 31.1 & 31.2)

Management report (certification) – internal controls.

(Maximum length of the report is 2 pages (with normal margins and 12 point font)).

Accounting CASE 3: Financial Statement Analysis

Read 2018 Lowe’s annual report (or 10K) for the most recent year and answer the following questions:

Calculate the ratios to analyze Profitability, Liquidity and Solvency. Just the ratios discussed in the

chapter 14 comments posted. Include two decimal points for ratios and percentages that you calculate.

Link for the 2018 Annual Report download: https://lowes.gcs-web.com/static-files/7e8ff02d-ca35-4eae-9a4e-843ff3858c33

 

Question 8:  General Business

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Wk 5 Discussion – Performance Evaluation

 

 

Respond to the following in a minimum of 250 words each:

•        Discuss the pros and cons of four performance appraisal approaches.

 

•        Explain the problems to be avoided in appraising performance

 

Integrate theory, research, and/or professional experience

Include specific examples and/or substantiating evidence

Include in-text citations and references in APA format

 

•        Question 9:  Computer Science, Learning Systems and AI

 

 

Website Migration Project

 

 

As part of your job, you must complete a 10-to-15 page paper that follows this project through the system development life cycle (SDLC). This assignment will require you to do the following:

•        Discuss what it will take to build a Web architecture, move an existing Website with minimal downtime, and provide a disaster recovery solution to ensure the site is always available.

•       

o        The Web architecture should describe and justify operating system choices (i.e., Linux, Apache, MYSQL, PHP, Windows, IIS, SQL, etc.).

•        Evaluate alternatives to the company self-hosting the site.

•        Build a Gantt chart using Microsoft Project or equivalent software, showing all tasks associated with implementing the Website.

•        The chart should include a minimum of five (5) tasks, each with three (3) sub-tasks.

•        Explain and justify the system architecture you have selected.

•        Illustrate the system architecture using Visio or equivalent software.

•        Create a use case that documents the event of a customer ordering a bag of chips from the new Website.

•        The use case should include a graphical representation using Visio or equivalent software and a text description of the events.

•        Discuss the support operations that the internally hosted Website will require after implementation.

•        Explain how you will evaluate the performance of the new site and the success of your project.

 

 

Question 10:          Business, General Business

 

1.       Prepare a simple pro forma (projected) income statement and balance sheet for the first two years of operation, using income projections and incorporating an advertising plan.

2.       Outline a plan for hiring and retaining competent, motivated employees for your business.

3.       Prepare an outline for a “pitch,” i.e., a short 20-30 minute business plan presentation that will be made to lenders or investors.

4.       Include at least two (2) references outside the textbook.

 

 

 

 

Question 11: Mathematics.

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Question 12:          Statistics

Marketing Research SPSS

Need knowledge of Marketing and SPSS(need to have access to this) to do this assignment. Use the data set attached with SPSS tool and answer the following question:

1. The researchers want to know whether there are differences in the ability of the individual memes to effect attitudinal (Conscious) and behaviour (Influence) modification change in respondent driving behaviour.  Please note that only one question is required and needs to include tables etc. ANOVA and multiple comparisons method to be used.

Overview

Speeding is recognized globally as the most common contributing factor to both serious injuries and fatalities in road crashes. Young drivers are significantly more likely to be involved in road collisions than other road users, with excessive speed being the major cause of young adult fatalities. Attempts to address this issue using traditional advertising methods are repeatedly unsuccessful, as people tune out and become normalized to risk and fear appeals. Social marketers must think outside the box if they wish to effectively reach this age demographic with their campaigns to create safer roads for everyone. One technique explored recently in online anti-speeding campaigns is the use of memes. Memes are important communication tools as they can influence the behaviours of social groups on a wide scale, while spreading on a micro basis. Memes reproduce by various means of imitation, and it is extremely simple and low-cost to create a meme. As a social marketing tool, memes can be extremely impactful when compared to other means of communication. People intentionally seek out and enjoy memes. Whereas, most Australians do not take notice of advertisements on social media and intentionally tune out. Memes are particularly valuable for smaller organizations with limited resources seeking to make an impression online. Internet memes use humour to convey their message. Humour can be used as a means for gaining attention, and positively influences recall towards advertisement and educational claims. Memes are distributed and shared through social media, and have the potential to go viral through online word-of-mouth. The ‘millennial’ age bracket, which incorporates 18 – 25 yearolds, are said to be a strong target audience for promotional content that use memes. Given the resonance of memes with young adults, and the often limited success of traditional 2 communications campaigns used to modify young drivers’ speeding attitudes and behaviours, there appears value in exploring the effectiveness of this non-traditional media within this context. The aim of this research then is to analyse the characteristics and interpretations of a meme that impact young drivers’ attitudinal and behaviour responses to excessive driving speed. This study seeks to answer two research questions: (1) What characteristics and perceptions of a meme influence how it is evaluated, and (2) How do memes and other driver characteristics affect attitudinal and behavioural modification outcomes. Data was collected from eighty-five undergraduate marketing students currently driving on Australian roads to understand how young adults evaluate memes, what makes a meme more likeable and memorable, and investigate whether the memes had an effect on attitudinal and behavioural driving responses. The researchers selected ten memes sourced from existing online anti-speeding campaigns posted by Australian state police force social media pages, which were modified to fit an Australian-wide context. Each student was randomly given two memes to assess from the pool of ten. The ten memes in the study are provided in the appendix. The young drivers were asked to evaluate each meme on how easy it was to understand (Understand), whether they found the image humorous (Humorous), how trendy (Trendy) and original (Original) the meme is, and whether the features of the meme are suitable for a road safety campaign (Suitable). They were also asked how likable the image was (Like), and how easy to learn and remember is the message (Remember). Whether the meme influenced the respondent to be more conscious of their speed (Conscious) was asked to better understand attitude modification effects. Whether the image influenced the respondent to be less likely to speed while driving (Influence) was asked to better understand behaviour modification effects. Respondents were asked to indicate their agreement on a 7-point Likert-type scale where 1=strongly disagree and 7=strongly agree. Information also was provided on how long respondents had been driving on Australian roads, and whether they had ever exceeded the speed limit. The full question wording is provided in the SPSS data file under ‘label’. The researchers that collected the data have indicated a number of research questions they wish addressed in the final report. These are given below. They are also very interested in the implications of the findings for marketing and development of their meme communication campaign, and these should be included in the final report. The data for this assignment is titled ‘MKTG2305 Group Project Dataset 2019.sav’, and can be found on LMS. Values (as indicated above) and labels for the variables are provided within the data set.

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Requirements_____________________________________________________ You are to address and answer each of the research questions below. Your answer should be in the format of a written report detailing the main findings of the one research questions, including technical appendices.

Question 13:          History

Rome Essay

Rome and Romanization – 500 Word Essay

This assignment gives you the opportunity to practice determining the purpose and function of artifacts in order to create your interpretation of a specific historical development—Romanization.

 

Discuss the impact of the process of Romanization on the Roman world. Identify at least two examples of cultural structures that were patterned across Roman-conquered cities. Cultural structures can include physical features of Roman-ruled cities, practices, policies, ideas, or any artifact that was used to shape the conquered religions.

 

Discuss how these structures impacted daily life, which may include politics, economics, or social roles. Describe how and with what intent these events are “memorialized” or used in our current day political and cultural arena.

 

Step 1: Choose two appropriate sources. Resources should be credible and peer-reviewed and cannot include Wikipedia, Biography.com, History.com, any type of message board, or other similar encyclopedias.

 

Step 2: Complete your research. Choose one interesting development that illustrates the main point that you want to make about your chosen physical structures, practices, or ideas. Gather details about your choice. For example, what types of buildings were first introduced in Rome, and why were they purposely replicated in other, smaller cities?

 

Step 3: Draw conclusions from the details you found, and prepare your thesis. A thesis is prepared after you have completed your research and gathered enough information about the chosen structures. You should sit back to think about what it means to see the influence on culture. Your thesis statement should offer your reader the overall insight into the use and impact of the structure on Roman development.

Use the following guidelines to help decide on your thesis.

•        -Ask yourself about how the cultural element (idea, practice, or structure) was shaped by its time period and environment.

•        -Ask yourself how the structure impacted the lives of the people around it, the general public, and the immediately following period in the history of Rome.

•        -Find the perfect specific example to demonstrate the qualities of the structure you would most like to show.

 

Step 4: Write your essay. Your essay must be at least 2500 words in length. All sources must be referenced and cited according to APA guidelines.

Be sure to consider the following guidelines in your essay.

•        -The introduction should engage the reader and clearly present the essay’s thesis and summarize the main points that clarify your point of view. The last sentence of the introductory paragraph should be your specific thesis.

•        -Organization should clearly present points arranged to illustrate your opening thesis. Paragraph order and organization should clearly present points arranged to illustrate your opening thesis rather than to narrate the chronological story.

•        -Writing should be clear and concise with no spelling, grammatical, or punctuation errors.

•        -The number of sources should meet or exceed any expressed assignment requirements, and the sources should be peer-reviewed or academic in nature. At least one source must be from the CSU Online Library.

•        -APA guidelines should be used for reference entries and in-text citations.

 

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Question 14:          Computer Science

 

Online Survey Assignment

 

 

Objectives for the final project:

Create an online survey

Due: Friday, May 24,  last day of final’s week

In more details:

Create an online survey:

The goal is to create a simple online survey and name it – survey.cgi. Allow users to choose at the very least, between two choices (yes or no) on an issue of your choice (ok to work from html pages you’ve already created). The vote will be saved to the server (code provided), and the result of all votes will be displayed on the screen. The result from the survey should show up every time, even before we fill out the survey. This project will start from retrieve_form_OOP_2.cpp, by making use of the class WebApps, which should already go as far as providing a dynamic array, containing the fields from a form. However, the class will be moved from the main program to it’s own file, called a header file.

Another difference from retrieve_form_OOP_2.cpp will be that an HTML form will not call the program. survey.cgi is a ‘dynamic cgi program’ (or self referential), meaning that the code has to respond from two possibilities:

the script can be called either from a link for the first time, which will cause it to produce only the survey. That state corresponds to the first level ‘else’ in the code below

or the same script can be called from the ‘submit’ button of the form it has just published. That state corresponds to the first level ‘if’ in the code provided. Here are steps to follow, in order to to convert retrieve_form_OOP_2.cpp into survey.cpp:

Also, here is a video to help explain steps A through D

Each capital letter corresponds to a significant stage in the development of this program. This document may seem lengthy, but parts of it also act as a tutorial. It is recommended to save a copy of survey.cpp after completing each capital letter stage in case something goes wrong with the next one.

Duplicate retrieve_form_OOP_2.cpp to survey.cpp

Note: Friday this week, a copy of retrieve_form_OOP_2.cpp will be provided for those whose version did not work so well.

Move the struct FIELDS and class WebApps to its own header file, named WebApps.h. We are going to leave the function definitions inline within the class, for simplicity-sake (though not ultimately recommended by industry)

Read more info on Header Files.  WebApps.h needs to live in the same directory as survey.cpp, so that it is available at compile time – we do not compile .h files manually.

WebApps.h should contain the same includes as survey.cpp, the ifndef/define/endif directives, as a regular header file does, the FIELDS struct, and the class, pretty much exactly as already working properly in retrieve_form_OOP_2.cpp.

Check out  the FileApps.h header file below as an example to follow for WebApps.h.

All the main program needs now is an ‘include’ to the header file and should compile and run.

Create a temporary web_form_survey.html, based on the older web_form.html to test the program until it runs as before (in retrieve_form_OOP_2.cgi). At this point, since this program is self referential, its first state is to serve the HTML form for the survey. From here, the current code in main should be replaced completely (might be good to just comment the whole thing and leave at the bottom of the program to reuse some of the code later) and start from the following skeleton (copy from this link to survey_start.txt):

WebApps wo;                           // make object wo global

void build_form();

int main()

{                 

          const int cnt = wo.get_cnt();

          if (cnt != 0) {

                   cout << “debug with cnt != 0” << endl;

          }else {

                   build_form();

          }

          return 0;

}

////////////functions/////////////

void build_form () {

          //simple HTML form to get started

          //use the one from survey_start.txt if you wish

}

This code is pretty self-explanatory, nothing new here, except the HTML form in survey_start.txt demonstrates the tags for inputing from buttons, which may become useful.

This code represents the main flow of this program’s execution. It does this:

Gets the count from qs, if it’s there

If the count is zero, then just a debug as a place holder for all the functions (created next), which will take care of the vote, when received.

Else, the form is presented and several other functions will follow.

The HTML, of course will be your own design, which can follow previous work, but do include an option for ‘don’t know’, just for your instructor who is quite clueless with super heroes 🙂

Note: It is recommended to keep the HTML form minimal while working out the rest of the program’s functions.

Make this work perfectly and back up!

Now that the vote is at hand, time to save it to a text file. Here are the steps:

Given is a new class, FileApps.h, which will be used to save to and read from file: FileApps.h

Remember the class needs to be in the same directory as where survey.cpp will be compiled.

 

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File I/O operations are not trivial, therefore, the code is provided for this project, in hope that the class can at least be used, if not completely understood. Here is a link to I/O example code if interested. Also check out online book, chapter 18, File I/O. There are other relevant tutorials if anyone is interested

The constructor for class FileApps, expects a file name for the object to work with – use this syntax for creating file object fo: FileApps fo (“survey.txt”). Place it above main, so that it is global, as done with the WebApps object.

survey.txt will be created automatically in the same directory as survey.cgi, upon first saving to the file.

Here is an updated if statement, which now contains code to retrieve the vote and save it to survey.txt upon receiving a non-blank qs

          if (cnt != 0) {

                             cout << “debug with cnt != 0< br>” << endl;

                             //call function to prepare vote            string data_line = prepare_vote(cnt);  //to be implemented,

                                                                    //explained next            cout << “debug with data_line: ” << data_line << “< br>” << endl;

                   fo.save_data_line(data_line);   

The prepare_vote(cnt) function needs to be implemented (in the main program, not the class FileApps) – here are the specs:

string prepare_vote(int f_cnt) {

                             //create dynamic array name_value_pairs[] from the wo object

                             //as done earlier

                   statement here

                             //parse qs into name_value_pairs[] array from the wo object

                             //as done earlier

                   statement here

                             //param the vote field value into variable ‘vote’ from the wo object

                             //as done earlier

                   statement here

                             cout << “debug with vote: ” << vote << “< br>” << endl;

                  

                   return  vote + “|\n”;        //the new line character will put each vote                                         //on a new line in the file

                                                //ex of a concatenated vote: “y|\n”

                   Normally, this line of data would contain more fields, which would

                   commonly be separated by pipes, like:

                   “y|Fred|Flintstone|\n” – represents data for three fields.                  Therefore, even if we use only one            field this time, we remain consistent with the protocol.

}                 

Once ‘data_line’ is sent to object method  fo.save_data_line(), the debug statement in FileApps.h should confirm success (of save) and survey.txt should be checked for content manually.

Complete this stage before entering the next one and don’t forget to back-up!

Now, with the assumption that survey.txt captures the votes properly, survey.cpp is ready to read all the vote data into an array (data_array[]) and pass it back to us.

This code is entirely given, so get it here from survey_cpp_state_E.txt

Again, not necessary to understand how the data is saved and retrieved from the class code – just use it as shown. What is important is that you now have the data and ready to tally and display the votes, the main course of this project.

Leave the debug statements from main and FileApps.h in the finish product!

Finally, the last part: Just a few comments, to help with the mechanics of this function:

void display_result (string f_data_array[]) {

          //function flow:

          // initialize a dynamic array (vote_tally_array) from function

          // create_int_array() (to be created under main(), not in the

          // class), which returns a pointer to an array          // with number of elements equal to the number of possible

          // (different) choices of votes:

          //      For example, Y or N will require a  vote_tally_array of 2

          //      elements              

          // initialize vote_tally_array to 0’s in a loop

          // In another loop, increment vote_tally_array from f_data_array[]

                    // Use something like this pseudocode::

                   // if vote == “Y|” then vote_tally_array[0]++

                   // else if vote == “N|” then vote_tally_array[1]++

          //print the results

}

Also, at the bottom of the result page, include a link to survey.txt in order to make it available.

To complete the program flow, follow this format:

if (vote coming in)

prepare vote

save data

read data

get data_array

build form

display result

else (no vote)

build form

read data

get data_array

display result

To turn in:

Dropbox survey.cpp and WebApps.h Create a message in the discussion board providing a workable link to your

final project survey.cgi, as done before with the HTML and String Processing app.

Remember these few steps:

Firefox is the only browser, which will allow creating links in a toolkit message.

In a new message for topic named ‘survey threads’, select the

check box Enable HTML

In the body of the message, type the html ‘a’ tag (shown below) substituting

your own url information (and not using a space as it is done here):

< a href=”http://toolkit.cs.ohlone.edu/~username/survey.cgi”>Some Descriptive

Name for the Project< /a>

Take the time to participate in each others’ surveys!

Student Examples: there were some differences, such as the same user could not vote more than once, otherwise – pretty close to this semester’s format, on the outside.

Lawrence Simon

Anitha Gopalan

Thank you for all of your work!

In hope this class has met your expectations and that it has prepared you sufficiently in your continuing education, cheers :

 

Question 15:          History

 

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History of Animation Thesis

 

 As your final work, you can write an essay about an issue chosen by you from animation

history.

.

 A period, a country, an artistic movement, auteur cinema, technological development or a

comparetive analysis (in the context of a specific theme) may be your subject.

 The first level of your work (midterm), consists of deciding the subject, delimitation, the

first and short abstract of the research and resources (750 – 1000 words).

 The completed work (final) must be between 3500-6000 words, written with Times New

Dear studetns,

 

Your midterm assignment must contain the subject and its delimitation , a short abstract and the resources.

 

You must also add that your research will be a personal process or not.

 

If you research as group, group members must be determined with their part and personal contribution in the process and the subject. Groups must determine also if they will make an oral presentation with a power point file; or write an essay in a doc. file.

         

 

 

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Question 16:                   Business

 

Risk Analysis

 

Complete a risk analysis for a specific Organization

•        For this task, choose an organization that you are familiar with or that has a great deal of information available to you through various reliable resources. Since you will use this organization throughout the activities in the course, it is important that you can access information about the organization. Then, write a paper that addresses the following questions:

1.       What are some of the natural disaster risks associated with this organization?

2.       What are some of the infrastructure risks associated with this organization?

3.       What are some of the risks associated with the industry in which this organization operates? Which risks do you see as potentially threatening to your selected company?

4.       Has this organization performed a risk assessment before? If so, what were the outcomes of that risk assessment?

5.       What other pertinent information should be included in a risk analysis specifically for this organization? Why?

Length 5-7 pages

 

Question 17:          Accounting

 

Percentage of Total Revenues on Leasing for EV EBITDA Australia

 

In around 700 words, please provide information on Percentage of Total Revenues on Leasing for EV EBITDA Australia. Ensure that the statistics for the percentage are from within the last 3 years (2016 onwards). In case you are not able to find exact percentages for EBITDA, feel free to include a proxy company as part of your calculations, and then explain about the method you used to arrive to the answer. Finally, include citations both inside and at the end of the document in hyperlinks. Write in Intro, Body, and Conclusion as per the usual Research Format (plus a methodology section, if necessary. Thank You!

 

Question 18:          Computer Science

 

Part 1.   (20 pts)

Write code to create a class definition for Account. These are the needed specs for the class.

1.       There is only one constructor for this class that receives two strings: firstname, and lastname. The values of these strings will be passed from the client code. See below for what to do with these strings. An account starts with a $100 balance (see Balance property below).

2.       ID. During creation (inside sub new), the ID value is made of the user’s first name followed by the underscore followed by the last name, for example if passed “John” and “Smith”, the ID value is John_Smith ID is a string property that is read-only.

3.       Password. During creation the value for password the same as the ID with the added string “Change”. Afterwards, the password may not be “displayed” to the client. However, client may change the password, using ChangePassword method below. This makes password aWrite-only property. To force the end user to change their password before using their account, a boolean variable, PasswordReset, is set to true under Sub New. This variable is to changed false under the ChangePassword method below.

4.       An account Balance is a number with fractions: • This property is Read-only. • Amounts withdrawn or deposited into the account affect the balance, using the Deposit and Withdraw method below.

Account has the following methods:

1.       Deposit which takes two arguments, an amount (to be deposited as a number with fractions), and password (a string). If PasswordReset is False, then check if the password passed matches the account password then the actions below are possible, otherwise an error message is shown. If PasswordReset is True issue an error message to change the password first. If the amount passed is > 0 then add it to the current balance (recall Balance is read-only), otherwise another error message is shown.

2.       Withdraw which takes two arguments, an amount (to be withdrawn as a number with fractions), and password (a string).  The logic to withdraw is the same as the logic to Deposit, except that we must additionally check if the withdrawal will cause the balance to be negative), then no withdrawal is possible. Issue an error message (make sure the balance is not changed). Otherwise f the amount passed is > 0 then deduct from the current balance (recall Balance is read-only), otherwise another error message is shown.

3.       ChangePassword is a method that takes two string, current password and a new password, if the current password matches the account password, change the account password to the new password, and issue a message, otherwise issue an error message.

 Part 2.   (5 pts)

Now we work on the client code. On the user form, there are 2 textboxes txtFname, and txtLname,  and a button btnCreate. There are also, a textbox, txtAmount, and 2 buttons, btnWithdraw, and btnDeposit.

Make sure your code below uses the exact control names shown above.

In all the code below, no data validation is required (i.e. assume the user will type a number when expected, and a string when expected).

Also assume in all the code below that an object named MyAccount has been declared (declared only) as an Account as a form (global) level variable.

Write the code needed so that when the user Clicks  btnCreate, MyAccount is created based on account with an id whose values are passed in txtFname (for the first name), and txtLname (for the last name). Then erase the content of all textboxes.

Sub CreateAccount(…,…) Handles btnCreate.Click

 

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End Sub

 

Part 3.   (5 pts)

Write code to activate the account which calls the PasswordReset method. Use the two textboxes to pass the current and new password. Assume the following button handler:

Sub ResetPass(…,…) Handles btnResetPass.Click

 

End Sub

 

Part 4.   (5 pts)

Using the same form and controls, write code for btnWithdraw so when the user types a number in txtAmount and clicks btnWithdraw, the account withdraw method is called on the amount in txtAmount, and the password entered into the second textbox. Clear both textboxes.

Show the new balance in a messagebox.

Sub withdraw(…,…) Handles btnWithdraw.Click

 

End Sub

 

Part 5.  (5 pts)

Same as in the previous question, write code for btnDeposit  so when the user types a number in txtAmount and the password in the second textbox then clicks btnDeposit, the account Deposit method is called on the amount in txtAmount,  and the password from the second textbox. Clear the textboxes. Show the new balance in a messagebox. Sub deposit(…,…) Handles btnDeposit.Click

 

End Sub

 

Part 6.    (5 Pts)

Update the code you wrote for the Account class

The Account class need to issue a warning (using an Event) so that when the Balance becomes $10 or less, the client is warned. In this answer you will only write the code for the Account class. You may add comments to explain where the newly added code goes. Limit your comments to a short one line sentence.

 

Part 7.    (5 pts)

Now (re)write the code that declares an object that will later be created to represent the account class. This object will handle event statically. Add any code and show where this code goes, so that the object is able to handle events statically. Also write an event handler for the event required in the question above, so that when the event occurs:

In one messagebox show the balance to the user and tell them they should deposit money into the account.

 

Question 19:          Statistics

 

In the data given above on earnings and education, we obtained the following regression. Meanwage_i = 0.7437 + 0.6416 Education Fill in the missing numbers. How do you interpret the coefficient 0.6416? Would you reject the hypothesis that education has no effect whatsoever on wages? Which test do you use? And why?

 

Question 20:         Other

 

Need help with an assignment must equal up to 1,500, each questions must have a min of 250 words for each questions and must have at least four (4) scholarly sources.

Must be in APA format and include in text citation (    ).

1. What are the major precepts of the Classical school of criminology? Why was this considered to be such a departure from past theories of crime?

2. Explain the philosophies of Hobbes and Locke and their impact on social issues.

3. Describe Betham’s “hedonistic calculus’ and its connection to punishment for crime.

4.What are your thoughts on the three strikes law as a deterrent?

5.Explain the strengths and weaknesses of rational choice and routine activity theory as explained in your text.

6.Describe the Just Deserts Model and is this in line with Matthew 5:38-42. Why or why not

Question 21:          Education

 

need 5 page paper by Sunday at 10pm, APA format, 6th edition. On brain development

Instruction

Create a 5-page paper in a Word or text document for your response. Use 12-point Arial or Times New Roman font. 3) Use APA (6th edition) format for the title page, references page, and in-text citations. 4) To complete the assignment in this module, you will need to:  Locate research on brain development and early childhood.  Focus your paper on the typical process of brain development from conception to early preschool.  Discuss the role of attachment, developmentally appropriate interactions, and environmental factors in the developmental process.  Include at least three references, a mix of seminal and current research, to support your position. Cite the references in APA (6th edition) format. /early childhood education

 

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Question 23: Psychology

 

Diversity and Individual’s Personal Psychology

 

Discussion question:

Please describe how being a part of a diverse population influences your personal psychology. How might your personal psychology influence your professional career?

 

Please make sure to apply more than one resource to initial response. Properly cites (i.e., APA) course materials and outside scholarly readings in initial posting; citations as needed in responses to classmates.

 

Textbook sources:

 

Fiske, S. T. (2014). Social psychology: Core motives in social psychology (3rd ed). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

 

Keith,K. D. (2011). Cross-Cultural Psychology: Contemporary Themes and Perspectives.

Indianapolis, IN: Wiley. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

 

Lott, B. E. (2010). Multiculturalism and diversity: A sociological perspective.

Malden, MA: Wiley & Blackwell. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

Question 24:         Computer Science

 

Cyber Security

 

A man-in-the-middle attack found the following HTTP Authorization header in transit. Authorization: Digest username-“880651232”, response “63e3807ce5ddf4971a5d349c7ad67703”, realm-“Mordor”, nonce “03e2abb8a924e966bee59d41cef32851”, uri-“/Public/cs/Home.png”, opaque=”4043168947418128″ What is the password that gives rise to the above HTTP Authorization header? The password is thought to be a common dictionary word, and theretore you may wish to try some of the common English words

 

Question 25:         English

 

Instruction

I need a research assignment done on the benefits of exercising and maintaining a healthy diet. Must include a full reference citation (MLA 8th edition) and 4 sentence summary referencing a book, a journal or article, and a webpage on the topic. Also, Write a formally worded email to a friend (250 words) that includes a proposed argumentative / persuasive thesis for your chosen topic Within the body of the email, paraphrase and cite two of your sources and directly quote from and cite one of your sources. This means that all three of the sources you used in Step 2 should be represented in the email.

Step One

What is your research question?  

This should be one sentence long.

 

 

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Step Two

MLA 8th Edition Annotation for the Book

This should include a full reference citation and four sentences.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Step Two

MLA 8th Edition Annotation for the Journal

This should include a full reference citation and four sentences.

 

 

 

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Step Two

MLA 8th Edition Annotation for the Webpage

This should include a full reference citation and four sentences.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Step Three 

Email to an Interested Party

Brief Opening and Thesis

This step should be, altogether, 250 words.

 

 

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What “They” Say:  

Paraphrase and cite two of your sources of information and directly quote from and cite from one

 

 

 

What “I” Say:  

The student’s claim about the topic based on his or her research findings.

 

 

Step Four 

MLA 8th edition Works Cited

This should include three full reference citations for the book, journal, and webpage.

 

 

 

 

Question 26:         Science

 

There are 3 discussions to answer. Each discussion must be at least 100 words. Discussions need to be written in a registered nurses point of view. At least one APA citation for each post.

 

Instruction

#1. Review the nine provisions of the Code of Ethics for Nurses in the textbook. Select one of the nine provisions and identify how you plan to meet it in your professional career. Select another provision and provide a potential, applicable scenario that may challenge you at some point. #2. Review the Nurse Practice Act of the state you plan to practice as an RN. Identify what it states regarding RN supervision of LVNs or unlicensed assistive personnel. Identify how you intend to practice within that scope. Explain how that Nurse Practice Act differentiates independent and dependent nursing practice. #3. As a nurse, you will be asked to deal with all kinds of patient concerns and issues. Thinking back to your nursing rotations [or observations], please describe your most challenging clinical experience requiring many tasks but little time to complete the necessary work. As you prepare to interview for RN positions respond to all aspects of one of the following: What was the situation? Provide details and examples. How did you handle all of these tasks? What would you do differently if you had it to do again? What did you learn from the experience?

 

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Question 27:         Business

Assigned Company is Lowe’s.

Accounting CASE 1:  Management Discussion and Analysis

Read Lowe’s 2018 annual report (or 10K) for the most recent year and answer the following questions: Look at the Management Discussion and Analysis (MDA) on Financial Condition and Results of

Operations presented in Lowe’s annual reports. Summarize the information discussed in the MDA.

(Maximum length of the report is 2 pages (with normal margins and 12 point font)). Include an appendix

for any extra information and that will not count in report pages.

Accounting CASE 2:  Auditor’s Reports and Management Reports

Read 2018 Lowe’s annual report (or 10K) for the most recent year and look at the Auditor’s and

Managements Reports and Certifications. Summarize and comment about the standards/rules used in the following:

Auditor’s report – general

Auditor’s report – internal controls

Management report (certification) – fair presentation (check Exhibits 31.1 & 31.2)

Management report (certification) – internal controls.

(Maximum length of the report is 2 pages (with normal margins and 12 point font)).

Accounting CASE 3: Financial Statement Analysis

Read 2018 Lowe’s annual report (or 10K) for the most recent year and answer the following questions:

Calculate the ratios to analyze Profitability, Liquidity and Solvency. Just the ratios discussed in the

chapter 14 comments posted. Include two decimal points for ratios and percentages that you calculate.

Link for the 2018 Annual Report download: https://lowes.gcs-web.com/static-files/7e8ff02d-ca35-4eae-9a4e-843ff3858c33

 

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Question 28:         Psychology

 

1. How do the concepts of validity and verifiability relate to the trustworthiness of the data and emerging theory within grounded theory research? 2. What other disadvantages might exist that pertain to the use of phenomenological research design when studying any phenomena that pertain to counseling, counselor education, and supervision?

Instruction

Responses to these questions should be a minimum of 400 words. Cite all sources using proper APA format.

 

Question 29:         English

 

Oral Presentation Movie District 9

 

         

Instruction

PLEASE READ THE INFORMATION IN THE ATTACHMENTS CAREFULLY AND FOLLOW THEM!!

 

 

 

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Question 30:         General

 

Response paper.

 

Timmerman 1 Title is

focused and

Lesley Timmerman announces

Professor Jennifer Wilson the thesis.

English 102

15 August 2012 Double-space

between

An Argument for Corporate Responsibility the title and

Opponents of corporate social responsibility (CSR) argue that first para-

a company’s sole duty is to generate profits. According to them, by graph — and

acting for the public good, corporations are neglecting their primary throughout

obligation to make money. However, as people are becoming more and the essay.

more conscious of corporate impacts on society and the environment,

separating profits from company practices and ethics does not make Brief state-

sense. Employees want to work for institutions that share their values, ment of one

and consumers want to buy products from companies that are making side of the

an impact and improving people’s lives. Furthermore, businesses exist issue.

in an interdependent world where the health of the environment

and the well-being of society really do matter. For these reasons, Summary of

corporations have to take responsibility for their actions, beyond the opposing

making money for shareholders. For their own benefit as well as the view.

public’s, companies must strive to be socially responsible.

In his article “The Case against Corporate Responsibility,” Lead-in to

Wall Street Journal writer Aneel Karnani argues that CSR will never quotation.

be able to solve the world’s problems. Thinking it can, Karnani says,

is a dangerous illusion. He recommends that instead of expecting 1” margin on

corporate managers to act in the public interest, we should rely on each side

philanthropy and government regulation. Karnani maintains that and at

“Managers who sacrifice profit for the common good [. . .] are in bottom.

effect imposing a tax on their shareholders and arbitrarily deciding

how that money should be spent.” In other words, according to

Karnani, corporations should not be determining what constitutes

 

 

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AN ANNOTATED STUDENT RESEARCH PAPER IN MLA FORMAT 323

 

Timmerman 5

 

Furthermore, plenty of companies have seen what happens when they Author argues

assume that consumers do not care about CSR. For example, in 1997, that it is to

when Nike customers discovered that their shoes were manufactured the companies’

by child laborers in Indonesia, the company took a huge financial interest to

hit (Guthrie). Today, Information-Age customers are even more be socially

likely to educate themselves about companies’ labor practices and responsible.

environmental records. Smart corporations will listen to consumer

preferences, provide transparency, and commit to integrating CSR into Author’s lead-

their long-term business plans. in to the quo-

tation guides

In this increasingly interdependent world, the case against the reader’s

CSR is becoming more and more difficult to defend. Exempting response to the

corporations and relying on government to be the world’s conscience quotation.

does not make good social, environmental, or economic sense.

Contributors to a recent article in the online journal Knowledge@

Wharton, published by the Wharton School of Business, agree.

Professor Eric Orts maintains that “it is an outmoded view to say

that one must rely only on the government and regulation to police

business responsibilities. What we need is re-conception of what

the purpose of business is” (qtd. in “From Fringe to Mainstream”).

The question is, what should the purpose of a business be in today’s

world? Professor of Business Administration David Bejou of Elizabeth

City State University has a thoughtful and sensible answer to that

question. He writes,

 

. . . it is clear that the sole purpose of a business is not merely

that of generating profits for its owners. Instead, because

compassion provides the necessary equilibrium between

a company’s purpose and the needs of its communities, it

should be the new philosophy of business. (Bejou 1)

 

As Bejou implies, the days of allowing corporations to act in their

own financial self-interest with little or no regard for their effects on

 

 

324 7 / USING SOURCES

 

Upbeat Timmerman 6

ending.

others are over. None of us can afford such a narrow view of business.

The world is far too interconnected. A seemingly small corporate

decision — to buy coffee beans directly from local growers or to install

solar panels — can affect the lives and livelihoods of many people

and determine the environmental health of whole regions. A business,

just like a government or an individual, therefore has an ethical

responsibility to act with compassion for the public good.

 

Fortunately, corporations have many incentives to act

responsibly. Customer loyalty, employee satisfaction, overall cost-

saving, and long-term viability are just some of the advantages

businesses can expect to gain by embracing comprehensive CSR

policies. Meanwhile, companies have very little to lose by embracing

a socially conscious view. These days, compassion is profitable.

Corporations would be wise to recognize the enormous power,

opportunity, and responsibility they have to effect positive change.

 

 

AN ANNOTATED STUDENT RESEARCH PAPER IN MLA FORMAT 325

 

Timmerman 7

 

Works Cited Alphabetical

Bejou, David. “Compassion as the New Philosophy of Business.” Jour- by author’s last

name.

nal of Relationship Marketing 10.1 (2011): 1-6. Business Source

Complete. Web. 15 Aug. 2012. Hanging

Cone Communications. 2010 Cone Cause Evolution Study. Cone, Inc., indent ½”.

2010. Web. 15 Aug. 2012.

“From Fringe to Mainstream: Companies Integrate CSR Initiatives into An article on a

Everyday Business.” Knowledge@Wharton. The Wharton School blog without a

of the University of Pennsylvania, 23 May 2012. Web. 14 Aug. known author.

2012.

Guthrie, Doug. Keynote address. Promoting a Comprehensive Approach A clip from

to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR). YouTube. YouTube, 22 YouTube.

May 2012. Web. 11 Aug. 2012.

Karnani, Aneel. “The Case against Corporate Social Responsibility.” The

Wall Street Journal. Dow Jones & Co., Inc., 14 June 2012. Web.

12 Aug. 2012.

Meister, Jeanne. “Corporate Social Responsibility: A Lever for Em-

ployee Attraction & Engagement.” Forbes. Forbes.com, 7 June

2012. Web. 12 Aug. 2012.

Savitz, Andrew W., with Karl Weber. The Triple Bottom Line: How

Today’s Best-Run Companies Are Achieving Economic, Social, and

Environmental Success. San Francisco: Jossey-Bass, 2006. Print.

 

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Question      1.       Mathematics

 

Applied Statistics homework through SNHU.

 

 

 

 

Question      2.       Finance

 

Instruction

This assignment consists of two questions. Each question, in turn, consists of several related sub-questions. You are required to solve all problems.

 

International Finance – Assignment 1

General information: This assignment consists of two questions. Each question in turn consists of several related sub-questions. You are required to solve all problems. You can achieve a maximum of 100 points in this assignment. The maximum points for each question are indicated in brackets. Please provide your answers on the separate answer sheet that is available on Moodle. I will only accept answers written in the indicated areas on the answer sheet. Please carefully read the following notes:

•        Important: The answer sheet consists of two pages. Use a double-page printer to print on one paper sheet only (front and back side)!

•        If calculations are required, round your answer to two decimals and state the corresponding units.

•        You may use an electronic calculator to solve the problems.

•        Of course, you can also use the lecture notes and the textbook for support. But remember that this

won’t be allowed in the exam!

•        You can work in groups. But every student has to submit his own answer sheet. Also remember that

you are not allowed to work in groups during the exam so you might want to solve the problems by

yourself first.

 

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•        Write clearly! If I cannot read your answer, I cannot give you credit for it.

Question I: Debt Sustainability Analysis

The Bureau of Economic Analysis publishes data on the net international asset position and nominal GDP for the United States. Moreover, the Congressional Budget Office (CBO) makes the forecasts for future growth rates and inflation rates, while the IMF provides estimates of future current account to GDP ratios. Here is an overview of the current data and estimates:

•        Net international asset position, end of year 2018: W2018 = −9717.1 billion USD

•        Nominal GDP in 2018: P Y2018 = 20494.1 billion USD

•        Projected real GDP growth gt: 2.3% (2019), 1.7% (2020), 1.6% (2021), 1.7% (each year from 2022)

•        Projected inflation rate πt: 2.0% (2019), 2.0% (2020), 2.0% (2021), 2.1% (each year from 2022)

•        Projected current account balance (relative to GDP) cat: -2.4% (2019), -2.6% (2020), -2.7% (2021), –

2.4% (each year from 2022)

Use this data to answer the following questions.

1.       Startfromtheassetaccumulationviewofthecurrentaccountandassumethattherearenovaluation effects. Show mathematically that the change in the external asset to GDP ratio wt over two years can be expressed by the following formula: (8)

2.       Calculate the external asset to GDP ratio of the United States for the end of year 2018. (3)

3.       Use the formula above to project the external asset to GDP ratios for the end of year 2019. (3)

4.       Use the formula above to project the external asset to GDP ratios for the end of year 2020. (3)

5.       Use the formula above to project the external asset to GDP ratios for the end of year 2021. (3)

6.       Based on the formula above, what is the long run equilibrium value of the external asset to GDP

ratio? (3)

7.       In the long run equilibrium: What is the minimum value of the real interest rate that is required for

debt sustainability (i.e. such that the transversality condition is not violated)? (3)

8.       In the long run equilibrium: Calculate the current account balance that is necessary to achieve an

external asset to GDP ratio of -25%. (3)

9.       Calculate the long run equilibrium value of the external asset to GDP ratio if the projected real GDP

growth rate drops to 1% (all else equal). (3)

10.     CalculatethelongrunequilibriumvalueoftheexternalassettoGDPratioiftheprojectedinflation

rate increases to 3% (all else equal). (3)

11.      CalculatethelongrunequilibriumvalueoftheexternalassettoGDPratioiftheprojectedcurrent

account deficit widens to -3.5% (all else equal). (3)

The following figure is from Gourinchas and Rey (2010) and shows the cumulated current account balances and the net international investment position (both relative to GDP) for the United States:

Based on this graph, answer the following question:

12. Explain in detail how we can interpret the difference between the two lines! How do the develop- ments in this figure affect the standard debt sustainability analysis for the United States? (12)

Question II: Intertemporal Theory of the Current Account

Consider a small economy that lasts for two periods (period 1 and period 2). In each period, households receive an exogenous endowment of the single consumption good. The endowment is given by Y1 = 100 and Y2 = 110 respectively. The initial wealth of households is zero, i.e. W0 = 0.

Households have preferences over consumption in period 1 (C1) and period 2 (C2). Their intertemporal utility function is given by:

Assume that the economy is initially closed and has no access to the international capital market. The autarky interest rate is denoted by rA.

1.     2. 3

2.     

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·          

1.     .

What is the value of C1 in goods market equilibrium in the closed economy? (3) 2. What is the value of C2 in goods market equilibrium in the closed economy? (3) 3. Calculate the value of the autarky interest rate in the closed economy. (11)

Assume now that the economy opens up. Households have access to the international capital market and can borrow or lend at the world market interest rate r = 10%. The initial external wealth of households is still

zero, i.e. 4. 5.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11.

12.

W0 = 0.

Using the transversality condition: What is the value of the net external asset position W2 at the end of period 2? (3)

Calculate the optimal consumption C1 in the open economy. (3)

Calculate the optimal consumption C2 in the open economy. (3)

Calculate the value of the trade balance in period 1. (3)

Calculate the value of the current account in period 1. (3)

Calculate the value of the trade balance in period 2. (3) Calculatethevalueofthecurrentaccountinperiod2.(3) Graphicallyillustratetheoptimalconsumptiondecisionofthehouseholdintheopeneconomy. Clearly indicate (i) the initial endowment, (ii) the budget constraint, (iii) the indifference curve, (iv) the optimal consumption point, (v) the trade balance in period 1 and (vi) the trade balance in period 2. (6)

Explainintuitivelythedynamicsofthecurrentaccountinthiseconomy.(6)

Question I: Debt Sustainability Analysis

1)

2)      3)      4)      5)      6)

7)      8)      9)      10)     11)

12)

Question II: Intertemporal Theory of the Current Account

1)       2)      3)      4)      5)

6)      7)      8)      9)      10)

11)

12)

Question      3.       English

 

Essay Compare and contrast both stories “ The tale of the three brothers” (Harry Potter) the tale of the three brothers (harry potter and the deathly hallows part 1) and “ The story of an hour” by Kate Chopin https://archive.vcu.edu/english/engweb/webtexts/hour/ . * compare and contrast using the 4 lens : Marxist criticism , gender studies , Ecocriticism , & psychoanalytic criticism . https://owl.purdue.edu/owl/subject_specific_writing/writing_in_literature/literary_theory_and_schools_of_criticism/index.html MLA format Please use 6 quotes & in text cites Intro – introducing the authors

 

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Question      4.       Other

 

graphic design adobe illustrator

 

Instruction

Artboard Size One artboard at 17″ X 11″ inches This map must be drawn using the Pen tool in Illustrator. You do not have to recreate the whole city, just a section of the town where this hotel is (the location of the hotel is up to you) with attractions nearby. To help give you a visual idea, please google ‘city map given by hotels.’ How do I draw the map? To draw the map, I would recommend going to Google Maps and downloading or taking a screenshot of the city section you would like to recreate. You can import this map graphic into Illustrator and trace over it using the Pen tool. Your map needs to contain the following: Full color Map drawn using the Pen tool Ten icons that are created by you using the Pen and Shape tools only – no bitmap graphics From these 10 icons, you need to create the following: Three restaurants Four attractions 2 shopping locations The guest hotel A legend explaining what these 10 icons represent – You might want to break the legend up based on interest (Attractions, Shopping, Restaurants, etc… to make it easier to read) A marker to identify the current location on the map (hotel location) Text should be used for the names of the icons and major streets Submit the following: Compress the Ai and JPEG files into a single .zip file. For assistance in zipping and unzipping files, review the How to Compress Files and Save as .Zip document (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.. Submit the .zip file.

Question      5.       General

 

You have been working as a supervisor in a community service organisation for some time.

The organisation has a policy of recognising diversity—personal/ individual and cultural. The current workforce is, therefore, comprised of a number of people from different cultures, with a wide range of background experiences and skills.

Inclusivity policies are supported by the current workforce and there is very little conflict. All staff receives cross-cultural training which helps them accept workforce diversity and accommodate the diverse needs of the clients for whom they care.

Write a 2,500 word paper explaining:

•        the ways in which diversity can impact on work and work relationships

•        the benefits of diversity

•        the need for inclusivity, cultural safety and cultural competence

•        why it is necessary for staff to reflect on their own individual and cultural characteristics, biases and prejudices

•        how diversity should be valued and accommodated

•        how effective and mutually beneficial relationships can be built with work mates, clients and clients’ families

•        how to overcome communication barriers

•        how the individual and cultural needs of clients can be accommodated and respected

•        the methods that might be used to prevent, overcome or manage cultural conflicts

•        strategies that people can use to improve their own self and social awareness

 

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Question      6.       English

 

Create a short story.

 

Instruction

-Your story should have ONE main character and a MAXIMUM of THREE supporting characters. -Your story must have a clear plot. -Your story could include effective dialogue. -Your story should include some type of conflict. -Length? It’s a short story…so 3 – 5 pages.

Question      7.       Literary Studies

 

Two papers I need done. Each paper is one page each. MLA formet. Essay response on African Amercian literature. Due by 3pm.

 

 

4. Consider Frances E. W. Harper’s short story “The Two Offers” (1859) and her poem “A Double Standard” (1895).  What message does Harper prioritize in the poem, and what message does she emphasize in her story?  In what ways might Harper’s messages be relevant in the lives of contemporary female readers? 

 

5. Read pages 105-107 of Alexander Crummell’s “The Black Woman of the South: Her Needs and Her Wants” (1883): https://archive.org/details/blackwomanofsout00crum.   Using textual evidence, discuss how Crummell’s characterizations of Black women’s experiences relate to the experiences of other characters or authors/orators we have read?    Additionally, does any other character or writer we have read present a possible remedy for the challenges Crummell identifies?  If not, do not answer this question.  If so, be sure to cite characters, persona, and/or speakers who proscribe solutions to the issues Crummell outlines

 

Question      8.       Mathematics

 

3.       information or is

“word of mouth” an acceptable practice.

Rubric

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View the long description of the rubric for this assignment.

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6/8/2019 Assignment 4

MCF3M: Functions and Applications, Grade 12, College and University Unit 4: Culminating Task

Activity 1: The Functional Fairground

Assignment Assignment 4

Complete one activity from each of the three fairground areas and submit your work to the dropbox.

Courtyard of Powers: 4 ¬ Fair Pay

4. In “Fair Pay” you visit the fairground administration building as a potential employee. You decide if the salary grid is fair today and in the future.

Table of Present Hourly Wages and their Future Growth

Years of Experience        Hourly Wage (present)    Hourly Wage (10 years)   Hourly Wage (20 years)          Hourly Wage (30 years)   Hourly Wage (40 years)

0        $6.00          $9.77          $15.92         $25.93        $

1        $6.50                                      

2        $7.00                                      

3        $7.50                                      

4        $8.00                                      

5        $8.50                                      

6        $9.00                                      

7        $9.50                                      

8        $10.00                                     

9        $10.50                                     

10      $11.00         $17.92         $29.19         $47.54        $

 

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To keep ahead of inflation the employees will get a yearly 5% increase. The minimum and maximum hourly wages after 10, 20, and 30 years are given.

A. Graph the minimum (0 year row) salary and the maximum (10 year row) salary growth as two

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Assignment 4

separate curves on the same axes.

B. Create separate equations for the “0 year” data and “10 year” data using function notation to express your answer. Use the form W(t) = ?, where “W” is the hourly wage in dollars and “t” is the time in years.

C. i) Identify the input variable?

ii) Identify the output variable?

iii) Is W(t) a function? State your reasoning.

iv) If the domain is restricted to 0 = t = 30, what is the range on this interval for the maximum

experience?

D. i) Extrapolate from the given data set to find W(40) = ?, the hourly wage for both minimum and maximum experience after 40 years of 5% increases.

ii) Divide the 30 year hourly wage by the present hourly wage for both the “0 year” and “10 year” experience level.

iii) How many times bigger is the salary after 30 years?

iv) Subtract the present hourly wage from the 30 year hourly wage for both the “0 year” and “10

year” experience level.

v) What is the increase in each salary after 30 years?

vi) Do you think this method of increasing the salary grid is acceptable to all employees?

Explain with reference to your calculations as well as employee quality and type of job.

Rubric

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View the long description of the rubric for this assignment.

Unless otherwise indicated, all images in this activity are from the public domain or are © clipart.com or Microsoft clipart and are used with permission.

This is a disclaimer. External resources will open in a new window. Not responsible for external content.

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6/8/2019 Assignment 5

MCF3M: Functions and Applications, Grade 12, College and University Unit 4: Culminating Task

Activity 1: The Functional Fairground

Assignment Assignment 5

Complete one activity from each of the three fairground areas and submit your work to the dropbox.

Courtyard of Powers: 5 ¬ Bearly Working

5. “Bearly Working” is a black bear animatronic sing¬along presentation that always seems to be breaking down. How long will it take for word to travel around the park?

To avoid people showing up to this non¬functional presentation, the presenters asked the first person that showed up to tell three other people in the park that the show will not be running. This must be done within one minute of leaving the area. Furthermore, they have asked that each of these three people pass on this information to three other people in the following minute and so on…

A. Graph the data from the table above.

B. Create an equation for the data using function notation to express your answer. Use the form P(t) = ?, where “P” is the number of people informed after “t” rounds of communication.

C. i) Identify the input variable?

ii) Identify the output variable?

iii) Is P(t) a function? State your reasoning.

iv) If the domain is restricted to 0 = t = 4, what is the range on this interval for the maximum

experience?

D. i) Extrapolate from the given data set to find P(8) = ?, the number of people informed of the broken presentation after 8 rounds of communication.

Table of Number of People Informed per Round of Messages

Round of messages (minutes)     0        1        2        3        4

# of people informed      1        3        9        27      81

ii) If attendance is approximately 19 000 on this day, how long will it take for everybody in the

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Assignment 5

park to be informed. Support your answer.

3.       iii)  If the original instruction was changed so that you inform four people on each round, what

would the new equation become?

4.       iv)  At this different rate, approximately how long will it take to communicate with the same 19

000 people?

v)  Should the fairground management be responsible for communicating this

 

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Question      9.       Other

 

Instruction

In order to give direction to your preliminary ideas for your business, your business plan, especially if you do not now have a business, or you do not know what business you would start if you did go into business for yourself this assignment is to conduct a 10 question interview with someone you know who is an entrepreneur, and/or has started and manages a small business. Here is the source to use for the interview:https://www.feedster.com/wisdom-strategy/10-questions-to-ask-an-entrepreneur/ Write a thorough report of you entire interview, with the question, and the response, be as detailed as possible to dig for explanations to each question. Give name of business owner, how you chose her/him, name of business, date of interview, and details of the business

 

Question      10.     Other.

 

Instruction

 

You will write a 1,000-word book review of The King Jesus Gospel by Scot McKnight. This review will contain a short summary of the book, a personal response, a discussion of the book’s strengths and weaknesses and an application of the book in your life. You must follow the guidelines carefully. Use the following format in preparing your Book Review: 1. Summary: Summarize what you have read into 250 words. Prove that you comprehend the readings by writing a no-nonsense summary (picture a summary similar to reading the back cover of a book to decide if you want to read it). 2. Concrete responses: In at least 250 words, relate a personal life experience that this book connected with in your own life. Relate your story in first person, describing action, and quoting sentences you remember hearing or saying. You will remember almost nothing you have read unless you make this critical, personal connection. What video memory began to roll? This is your chance to tell your story and make new ideas found in the book your own. 3. Reflection: What new questions do you have in response to what you have read? Keep a rough note sheet at hand as you read. Begin with questions like: “What would I like further information on?” “Where do I disagree/strongly agree with the author?” “What bothers me/excites me about this content?” “What are the strengths and weaknesses of this book?” This section must be at least 250 words. 4. Application: How does information in the book influence how you are going to continue your own personal growth process? What actions or changes are you going to make in your life as a result of your learning? Your response here is a matter of obedience first, questions later. Be precise in summarizing your action steps (limit these comments to about 250 words). Note: Your grade for the Book Review depends on the quality and thoroughness of your response to each of these four headings. Include each heading in the body of your paper.

 

Question 11.           Education

 

Instruction

 

Create a 5-page paper in a Word or text document for your response. Use 12-point Arial or Times New Roman font. 3) Use APA (6th edition) format for the title page, references page, and in-text citations. 4) To complete the assignment in this module, you will need to:  Locate research on brain development and early childhood.  Focus your paper on the typical process of brain development from conception to early preschool.  Discuss the role of attachment, developmentally appropriate interactions, and environmental factors in the developmental process.  Include at least three references, a mix of seminal and current research, to support your position. Cite the references in APA (6th edition) format. /early childhood education

 

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to 60 African American kindergarten children, half of low-income and half of middle-income status. Tasks were selected based on neuroimaging and lesion studies so that they taxed five neurocognitive systems that are involved in academic performance. The results indicated that there were no significant differ- ences between the income groups for the visual, spatial, and memory systems. However, SES differences were especially great in the areas of language and executive function, with indica- tions that some of the difference in executive function was associated with individual differences in language ability.

In a systematic replication, Farah et al. (2006) administered cognitive tasks to 60 African American children between the ages of 10 and 13 years, half of low-income and half of middle-income status; the children in the two groups were equivalent on health measures. Tasks were designed to provide information about abilities connected with seven specific neurocogni- tive systems. The results indicated that for the visual cognition, spatial cognition, and reward processing systems there were no significant differences between the groups. However, there were large differences in the areas of language and memory, including working memory, with a smaller difference in cognitive control. An explicit goal of this research group is to design more efficient interventions for low-income preschool children by targeting the neurocognitive systems that seem to be differentially impacted by variables that make up SES. For this purpose, it is better to use measures that are more specific than IQ or achievement tests. Thus, their goals are similar to those of Diamond et al. (2007).

Hackman, Farah, and Meaney (2010) stated that neuroscience can make an important contri- bution to society and human welfare by synthesizing the information that has resulted from dec- ades of research on socioeconomic differences in mental health, emotional functioning, and cognitive functioning in children and the environmental conditions related to those differences. The three studies described above are a few of the latest examples of those that have focused on cognition. The next step would be to identify the underlying cognitive and affective brain sys- tems that are influenced by SES, as illustrated by those studies, and then to identify the biologi- cal mechanisms by which environmental circumstances affect those brain systems. Hackman et al. (2010) discussed three such mechanisms, that is, influences on prenatal development, par- ental care, and cognitive stimulation in the home. For example, SES differences in parental care have been identified in a vast social science literature that associates family stress with harsh childrearing methods, conflict, insecure attachment, and decreased parental involvement as well as in studies indicating that high-quality parenting can promote resilience

 

Chemistry Formal Lab REport

 

CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid

Equivalent Mass of an Acid

Objectives: Upon successful completion of this laboratory the student will be able to:

1.       1)  Perform an acid-base titration accurately to an indicator endpoint.

2.       2)  Calculate moles from molarity and volume.

3.       3)  Write the complete, and net ionic equation for the neutralization of an acid with a base.

4.       4)  Calculate equivalent mass from total mass and moles of hydronium ion.

5.       5)  Write a formal scientific communication (laboratory report).

Introduction: Titration is a simple and very frequently used technique of quantitative volumetric analysis, which is able to achieve great precision and accuracy when it is done properly. The titration apparatus is shown in Figure 1. It consists of a Burette (A), a clamp (B), a stand (C) and a container (D) in which the titration reaction occurs. The Burette has a valve (E) that allows precise control of the flow of liquid from the burette, and it has a thin tip (F) that produces small and very uniform drops.

Figure 1, Titration Apparatus

There is a solution that has a very precisely known concentration of one of the reactants in the Burette. This is called the titrant. The flask has an unknown amount of the other reactant, called the analyte. The analyte can be a known volume of a solution of unknown concentration, or it can be a carefully weighed

1

CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid

solid compound or mixture dissolved in a solvent. In this lab you will titrate a solid that you have weighed to the nearest 1 mg and then dissolved in water.

Notice that the burette is marked the opposite way that a graduated cylinder is marked. It has the 0 mark at the top and the 50 mark at the bottom. Rather than being how much the burette contains, these marks represent how much has been removed from the burette, if the level starts at exactly 0.00 ml. What if you start titrating at some number other than 0? Then simply subtract your initial measurement from the final measurement.

When you are reading a burette, just as with any other instrument, your measurement precision should go 1 decimal place past the smallest tic mark (Figure 2)

Figure 2 How to read a burette

The smallest tic mark on our burettes is 0.1 ml. This means that you will read the burettes to the nearest 0.01 ml.

2

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CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid

The number of moles of analyte present can be determined easily from the volume of the titrant, the concentration of the titrant in 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 (molarity, also abbreviated as M), and the balanced equation of the

reaction between the titrant and the analyte. This can tell you a number of things. If you know the formula and molar mass of the analyte, it can tell you how many grams are present, and the percent composition of a carefully weighed sample of the analyte material. If the volume of the analyte solution is known precisely, it can tell you the molar concentration of the analyte solution, and if you know the mass of a pure unknown compound, it can tell you the molar mass, of that compound.

The equation to obtain the moles of analyte from the volume of titrant is as follows:

𝑉 𝑡𝑖𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑡 (𝑚𝑙) × 1𝐿 × 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 𝑡𝑖𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑡 × 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒 = 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒 1000𝑚𝑙 1 𝐿 𝑡𝑖𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑡 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 𝑡𝑖𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑡

Equation 1 calculation of moles of analyte

To find the mass, multiply by molar mass

𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒 × 𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒 = 𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒

Equation 2, calculation of mass of analyte

To find percent composition, divide by total grams mixture:

𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒 ×100%=𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒 𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠 𝑚𝑖𝑥𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑒

Equation 3, Calculation of percent composition of an analyte mixture

To find the molar mass of an analyte divide the mass of the analyte by the moles of analyte

𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒 = 𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠⁄1 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑎𝑙𝑦𝑡𝑒

Equation 4 calculation af the molar mass of an analyte

Understanding the experiment: In this experiment we will perform an acid – base neutralization reaction, and use equations 1 and 4 to find the equivalent mass of an acid. Acids are broadly defined as sources of hydrogen ions, H+, also called protons. In water, acids will react with water to form hydronium ions, H3O+, by the following reaction, where HA stand for a generic acid. This reaction is also called acid dissociation.

𝐻𝐴 + 𝐻2𝑂 𝐻3𝑂+ + 𝐴

Equation 5 dissociation of a monoprotic acid in water

In fact, the proton, or H+ ion, never exists alone in a water solution. It always exists as the hydronium ion, H3O+. Often people will talk about the hydrogen ion and refer to it as H+, but what they really mean is hydronium ion.

Acids can be mono-protic, di-protic, tri-protic and even poly-protic, depending on how many hydrogen ions they can donate. The stoichiometric ratio of a mono-protic acid is 1 to 1; that of a diprotic acid is 1 to 2; that of a triprotic acid is 1 to 3 and so forth. The reaction of a strong di-protic acid with water would be:

𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟

3

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CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid

𝐻2𝐴 + 2 𝐻2𝑂 2𝐻3𝑂+ + 𝐴2−

Equation 6, Dissociation of a diprotic acid in water

Notice the stoichiometric ratio of hydronium ion to acid is 2 to 1. The equivalent mass of the acid is the amount required to produce 1 mole of hydronium ion. It would take half as many moles of the acid in equation 2 to make a mole of hydronium ion as it would if it were a monoprotic acid.

From this, you can see that the equivalent mass of a monoprotic acid will be equal to its molar mass, while the equivalent mass of a diprotic acid will be 1⁄2 of its molar mass. For a triprotic acid it would be 1/3 and so forth. Examples of monoprotic, diprotic and triprotic organic acids are shown in Figure 3. The acidic proton is shown in bold.

Figure 3 Organic acid structures.

A base is broadly defined as a compound that absorbs hydrogen ions. Bases produce hydroxide ions, OH- , in water in one of two ways. They either dissociate in water to form hydroxide ions (These are called Arrhenius bases), or they react with water to produce hydroxide ions. The base that we will use in this laboratory, sodium hydroxide, is one of the ones that dissociates in water. The equation is below.

𝐻2𝑂− + 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻(𝑠) 𝑂𝐻 (𝑎𝑞) + 𝑁𝑎 (𝑎𝑞)

Equation 7, Dissociation of an Arrhenius base in water

Observe that sodium hydroxide will produce exactly as many moles of hydroxide ion as there are moles of sodium hydroxide that dissolve. Ammonia is an example of a base that react with water to form hydroxide ion. These bases are called Brønsted-Lowry bases. The equation for the reaction of ammonia is shown below:

𝑁 𝐻 3 + 𝐻 2 𝑂 𝑂 𝐻 − + 𝑁 𝐻 4+

Equation 8, Dissociation of a Brønsted Lowry base in water

A major simplification that is being made in this description of acids and bases is the assumption that they dissociate or react completely with the water to form hydroxide or hydronium ions. While this is true of strong acids and bases, there are many weak acids and bases that only react a little bit before the reaction starts going in the other direction to establish what is called an equilibrium with only a very low concentration of hydronium or hydroxide ion. A complete description of weak acids and weak bases is beyond the scope of this course. You will study this and other aspects of equilibrium in grueling detail, in CHM 2046. No worries, though; you will have a whole lot more chemistry under your belt by then.

Even though all of the acids that will be used in this laboratory are considered weak acids, they will completely dissociate through the course of the titration, because the sodium hydroxide is a strong base, and it will completely react with the small amount of hydronium produced by any aqueous acid, no matter

4

CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid

how weak it is. This will drive more of the acid to dissociate and make more hydronium ion, which will in turn be gobbled up by the hydroxide ion, until there is no acid left. This tendency is known as Le Chatelier’s principle. It is also a topic that will be covered extensively in CHM 2046.

The equations of acid and base add together as follows

𝐻𝐴 (𝑎𝑞) + 𝐻2𝑂(𝑙) 𝐻3𝑂+(𝑎𝑞) + 𝐴−(𝑎𝑞)

+

𝐻2𝑂− + 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻(𝑠) 𝑂𝐻 (𝑎𝑞) + 𝑁𝑎 (𝑎𝑞)

+

𝐻3𝑂+ + 𝑂𝐻 2𝐻2𝑂(𝑙)

=

𝐻2𝑂 + − 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻(𝑠) + 𝐻𝐴 (𝑎𝑞) 𝐻2𝑂(𝑙) + 𝑁𝑎 (𝑎𝑞) + 𝐴 (𝑎𝑞)

scheme 1, Reaction of an acid and a base

The third equation is called the net ionic equation for acid base neutralization. It can be derived by assuming that the acid and the base are present in their completely dissociated forms.

+ − − + 𝐻2𝑂 + − 𝐻3𝑂 (𝑎𝑞)+ 𝐴 (𝑎𝑞)+𝑂𝐻 (𝑎𝑞)+𝑁𝑎 (𝑎𝑞) 𝐻2𝑂(𝑙)+ 𝑁𝑎 (𝑎𝑞)+ 𝐴 (𝑎𝑞)

Equation 9, Total ionic equation of an acid base reaction

The ions that are crossed out are called spectator ions, because they appear on both sides of the arrow. Taking them out gives you the third equation in scheme 1.

You can Also see that the stoichiometric ratio for a dibasic acid is two to one, base to acid, and for a tribasic acid the stoichiometric ratio of base to acid is 3 to 1, as shown in equations 10 and 11.

𝐻2𝑂 + 2− 2𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻(𝑠) + 𝐻2𝐴 (𝑎𝑞) 2𝐻2𝑂(𝑙) + 2𝑁𝑎 (𝑎𝑞) + 𝐴 (𝑎𝑞)

Equation 10 Reaction of a diprotic acid with sodium hydroxide

𝐻2𝑂 + 3− 3𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻(𝑠) + 𝐻3𝐴 (𝑎𝑞) 3𝐻2𝑂(𝑙) + 2𝑁𝑎 (𝑎𝑞) + 𝐴 (𝑎𝑞)

Equation 11, reaction of a triprotic acid with sodium hydroxide

Because 1 mole sodium hydroxide reacts with 1 mole hydronium ion, the equivalent mass of the acid is the mass of the acid divided by the moles of sodium hydroxide. In other words:

𝐸𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠(𝑔𝑚𝑜𝑙) = 𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑑 (𝑔) × 1000𝑚𝑙 × 1

𝑚𝑙 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 1 𝐿 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠𝐿 𝑠𝑜𝑑𝑖𝑢𝑚 h𝑦𝑑𝑟𝑜𝑥𝑖𝑑𝑒

In most cases, both reactants and products of acid base reactions are colorless. It would therefore be impossible to see when the reaction is complete. To determine this we need to add an indicator dye. Indicator dyes are dyes that react with something in the reaction mixture to change color when the reaction is done. We will use dye molecule called phenolphthalein, which is a very weak acid that is much less likely to give up its protons than the acids that we are titrating. When phenolphthalein does give up its protons, it turns pink, or red. When the very last molecule of the acid reacts, there is no more hydronium ion to react. This is called the equivalence point. When the equivalence point is reached, the hydroxide ion in the next drop of titrant will react with the phenolphthalein and turn it red.

5

CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid

Figure 4 structure of phenolphthalein acidic hydrogens are shown in bold

This marks the endpoint of the titration. At the true end point, very little phenolphthalein will have reacted, so your solution will be a very light pink. If it turns dark pink, you will have added too much base. See Figure 5. The flask on the left is a perfect endpoint. The one on the right has too much base added.

Figure 5, Good endpoint (left) overshot endpoint(right)

It is important to continuously swirl your analyte solution. If you do not, you can get a false endpoint. The color will appear, but then disappear when you stir it. As you approach the endpoint clouds of pink color will appear briefly when you add the base, then disappear (figure 6).

Figure 6, transient pink cloud near endpoint

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CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid

Procedure:

1.       1)  Obtain a vial of unknown acid from the chemical stockroom.

2.       2)  Obtain the following equipment: burette clamp, ring stand, Burette with valve and tip, burette funnel, 3

clean 250ml Erlenmeyer flasks, a 250 ml beaker, 2 or 3 little squares of white paper, a squirt bottle, and a few plastic transfer pipettes. Make sure that the valve fits snugly in the burette and that the tip fits snugly in the valve.

3.       3)  Wash out the squirt bottle with deionized water and fill it with deionized water. Then wash the burette, two of the three flasks and the beaker with deionized water. Dry the beaker with a clean paper towel.

4.       4)  Dispense about 150 ml of the sodium hydroxide solution from the carboy into the beaker. Write down the molar concentration of this solution.

5)

6) 7)

8) 9)

Caution! Sodium hydroxide is very caustic and it will permanently blind you if it gets in your eyes, even in low concentrations. Wear approved Safety glasses or goggles!

Assemble the burette in the burette clamp, and use a transfer pipette to run a few pipettes full of the sodium hydroxide solution down the inside walls of the burette. Put the unwashed Erlenmeyer flask under the burette, and drain out the sodium hydroxide solution into the Erlenmeyer flask. Repeat this process 2 more times.

Place the funnel in the top of the burette and carefully pour the sodium hydroxide until it reaches close to the 0.00 ml mark.

Open the valve and let a few drops of the sodium hydroxide titrant run into the waste flask. This will fill the tip of the burette with titrant.

Discard the waste solution in the sink and wash the flask thoroughly with deionized water.

Take the unknown sample of acid to the balance. Put a plastic weigh boat onto the balance and press “tare”. When the balance reads 0.000g, weigh out the amount of unknown acid that is indicated on the vial to the nearest 0.001g. Do not exceed this amount, or you might not be able to titrate it with only 1 burette full of sodium hydroxide solution. Write the mass down on your data sheet.

 

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10.     10)  Carefully pour the acid powder into one of the flasks. Use the corner of the weigh boat to pour from. With your squirt bottle, wash any solid that remains on the weigh boat into the flask. Mark this flask “rough”

11.      11)  Put about 50 ml of deionized water into the flask and then swirl the flask to dissolve as much of the acid as possible. Add a few drops of phenolphthalein solution to the flask.

12.     12)  Use a ruler or the edge of a notebook as a straight edge, and draw a thick dark line horizontally across one of the small pieces of white paper. Place the other piece under the burette, and place the flask with the acid solution on top of it.

13.     13)  Hold the paper with the line behind the burette, so that the line is horizontal, just underneath the meniscus. This will reflect off of the meniscus, making it easier to read (see Figure 7). With your eye at the level of the meniscus, read the burette to the nearest 0.01 ml.

14.     14)  While constantly swirling the flask of analyte, open the valve and rapidly titrate until the acid solution turns pink. Be ready to stop the flow when the color change occurs.

15.     15)  Write the initial volume, final volume and net volume (final – initial) in the “rough” section of the data sheet.

16.     16)  Refill the burette with sodium hydroxide solution and let a little run through the pipette tip into the titrated sample if it is necessary to refill the tip of the burette.

17.     17)  Repeat steps 9 through 11 with the other two flasks. Mark them “trial 1” and “trial 2”.

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CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid

18.     18)  To help you to estimate the amount of titrant that will be needed for trials 1 and 2, you can do a proportional calculation as shown below. This will allow you to titrate quickly to just under the estimated volume, and then titrate slowly to get an accurate endpoint.

𝑒𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝑛𝑒𝑡 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 = 𝑟𝑜𝑢𝑔h 𝑛𝑒𝑡 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 × 𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑑 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑟𝑜𝑢𝑔h 𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑑 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠

19.     19)  Read the initial volume as in step 13, and add the estimated net volume for Trial 1 to the initial volume to get the estimated final volume.

20.     20)  Titrate rapidly to about 5 ml before the estimated final volume for Trial 1. Then titrate the solution drop by drop, with constant swirling until it turns a very light pink.

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21.     21)  Measure the final volume as in step 13, and write down the measured initial volume and final volume in the “Trial 1” column of your data sheet.

22.     22)  Refill the burette and repeat steps 19 through 21 for trial 2.

23.     23)  Calculate the equivalent mass of the acid for trials 1 and 2, then calculate the average value.

24.     24)  Discard the titrated acid solutions and the excess sodium hydroxide solution in the sink with water.

Clean and return all the equipment. Return the acid sample to the stockroom, and clean up your work area.

Figure 7, reading the meniscus with a black line

8

CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid

Report Sheet: Equivalent Mass of an Acid

Name: ___________________________________________________________________________ Lab Partner(s):_____________________________________________________________________ Class period: ______________________________________ Date: __________________ Data sheet: to be turned in only with full, formal lab report.

CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid

Prelab: Equivalent Mass of an Acid

Name: ___________________________________________________________________________ Class period: ______________________________________ Date: __________________ Show calculations and be mindful of significant figures for full credit.

The following data were observed in an equivalent mass of an acid experiment.

1.       1)  Fill in the blanks (2 points each). Show all calculations for full credit.

2.       2)  (3 points) How many moles of hydroxide ion were consumed in the titration?_________________

3.       3)  (3 points) How many moles of hydronium ion were available from the acid?___________________

4.       4)  (4 points) What is the equivalent molar mass of the acid? ____________

5.       5)  (4 points) If it happened that the acid in this experiment was one of the ones represented

in the table below, what is the most likely identity of this acid? ___________________

NaOH molarity

Acid mass

0.2511g

Initial volume (ml)

Final volume (ml)

Net volume (ml)

0.1000 M

Numerical value:

Acid name    Molar mass   Number of protons

Butanoic acid         88.11 g/mol 1

Tartaric acid         150.087 g/mol       2

Citric acid   192.124 g/mol        3

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CHM 2045L- Equivalent Mass of an Acid

Formal Laboratory Report

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This lab requires a formal laboratory report that will be turned in online through Turnitin. Specific guidelines for writing the report are shown below:

Section        Requirements

Introduction (10 points) •        • Explain the objective of the experiment and describe how the stoichiometry of the acid base reaction can be used to volumetrically determine the equivalent mass of the acid.

•        • Provide an example of how titration is used in medicine, industry, or environmental protection.

•        • Write in passive voice for example: “The volume and concentration of the base solution are used to find the number of moles of acid present.” not “I will use the volume and concentration of the base solution to find the number of moles of acid present.”

•        • Cite any references with sufficient detail that your instructor can find them.

Procedure (20 points)      •        • Write the procedure in your own words. Do not copy the procedure in the lab manual

•        • The procedure should contain sufficient detail that a chemist of equal experience can duplicate the experiment

•        • Use passive voice past tense. For example: “The burette was filled to 1 cm above the 0 ml mark with a 0.097 M sodium hydroxide solution.” not “Fill the burette to 1 cm above the 0 ml mark with a 0.097 M sodium hydroxide solution.”

•Citeanyreferences

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Data and calculation (60 points)          •        • All quantitative results should be presented as tables or graphs, and also described in paragraph form.

•        • Volumes should be recorded to the 0.01 ml place, and masses should be recorded to within 0.001g.

•        • Use Passive voice past tense

•        • Show the calculations for net volume, moles base, moles acid, and equivalent

mass of the acid.

Results and discussion (30 points)       •        • List the values obtained for the equivalent mass of the acid for all titrations, and the average values.

•        • Compare the values of each titration to each other, and evaluate how closely they agree.

•        • Discuss whether or not your results are reasonable. The highest equivalent masses in this experiment are about 200 g/mol, and the lowest equivalent mass organic acid is oxalic acid, with an equivalent mass of 45 g/mol. Anything much less than this is probably not reasonable, and masses of more than 500 are also not reasonable in this experiment.

•        • Use passive voice in this section as well.

Conclusion (10 points)      •        • Discuss any experimental factors that could influence the reliability of your results

•        • Given the equipment provided and your evaluation of the results of this

experiment, discuss whether or not you could perform the titration in the practical example that you provided in the introduction with sufficient precision and accuracy

Prelab

(20 points)  

11

Question      15.               Psychology

 

Psych/620:Multicultural And Social Issues in Psychology Week 6 Team Assignment.

 

Nipsey Hussel Story

 

Develop a 10- to 12-slide presentation that covers how to bring awareness to the conflict presented in the news story from the Week Four Learning Team assignment.

Include the following in your presentation:

•        An analysis of the social psychology and multicultural psychology aspects of the news story

•        Clear application of the principles of social psychology or multicultural psychology in your plan

•        The principles of multicultural psychology

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•       

A resolution to the conflict in your plan

Include a minimum of five references from peer-reviewed journals.

Format any citations in your presentation according to APA guidelines.

Submit your assignment.

Materials

Grading Criteria: Multiculturalism in the News

Resources

•        Center for Writing Excellence

•        Reference and Citation Generator

•        Grammar and Writing Guides

•        Learning Team Toolkit

 

Question 16. Psychology

 

Wk 6 Discussion 2.Phych/620:Multicultural And Social Issues In Psychology.

 

 

Students need to contribute three substantive posts in this discussion by the due date indicated. The substantive posts can be any combination of responses and replies.

 

Sociopolitical Factors, Psychological Effect, and Diverse Populations

 

Please make sure to apply more than one resource to initial response. Properly cites (i.e., APA) course materials and outside scholarly readings in initial posting; citations as needed in responses to classmates.

 

Textbook sources:

 

Fiske, S. T. (2014). Social psychology: Core motives in social psychology (3rd ed). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons. [Available throughVital Bookshelf]

 

Keith,K. D. (2011). Cross-Cultural Psychology: Contemporary Themes and Perspectives.

Indianapolis, IN: Wiley. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

 

Lott,B. E. (2010). Multiculturalism and diversity: A sociological perspective.

Malden, MA: Wiley & Blackwell. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

 

Question      17.     Psychology

 

Wk 6 Discussion Psych/620:Multicultural And Social Issues In Psychology.

 

 

 

Students need to contribute three substantive posts in this discussion by the due date indicated. The substantive posts can be any combination of responses and replies.

 

Pedersen (1999, p. 13) recognized the “profound consequences” for our discipline that arise from a “culture centered perspective. (Lott, 2010, p. 126).

 

What now? How will applying the information gained in class help with research, practice, and personal growth?

 

Please make sure to apply more than one resource to initial response. Properly cites (i.e., APA) course materials and outside scholarly readings in initial posting; citations as needed in responses to classmates.

 

Textbook sources:

 

Fiske, S. T. (2014). Social psychology: Core motives in social psychology (3rd ed). Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

 

Keith, K. D. (2011). Cross-Cultural Psychology: Contemporary Themes and Perspectives.

Indianapolis, IN: Wiley. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

 

Lott, B. E. (2010). Multiculturalism and diversity: A sociological perspective.

Malden, MA: Wiley & Blackwell. [Available through Vital Bookshelf]

Question      18.     Finance.

 

A supplier is offering your firm a cash discount of 2 percent if purchases are paid for within ten days; otherwise, the bill is due at the end of 60 days. Would you recommend borrowing from a bank at an 18 percent annual interest rate to take advantage of the cash discount offer? Explain your answer.

 

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Question      19.     Psychology

 

PSYCH/620:Multicultural And Social Issues In Psychology week 5 discussion.

 

Classroom Engagement Expectations

 

Each week will have 3 graded Discussions provide:

•        Discussion 1 will have a prompt about one or more of the week’s objectives and require 3 substantive contributions.

•        Discussion 2 will have a prompt about one or more of the week’s objectives and require 3 substantive contributions.

•        Discussion 3 will be a more open ended, standard prompt that invites students to share in 2 substantive contributions about what they learned from course materials, how they will apply learning to their career, or muddiest points for which they need/want to learn more

 

Review this week’s course materials and learning activities, and reflect on your learning so far this week. Respond to one or more of the following prompts in 150 to 300 words:

1.   Provide citation and reference to the material(s) you discuss. Describe what you found interesting regarding this topic, and why.

2.   Describe how you will apply that learning in your daily life, including your work life.

3.   Describe what may be unclear to you, and what you would like to learn.

 

Students need to contribute two substantive posts in this discussion by the due date indicated. The substantive posts can be any combination of responses and replies.

 

Question      20.     Physics

 

Unpolarized light traveling horizontally is incident normally (at a 90 degree angle) on an ideal polarizer. At a point

beyond the polarizer, the magnetic field of the light wave oscillates along a vertical axis. What is the polarization axis of the polarizer?

 

Question      21.     Other

 

How does transport create social cohesion and division?

 

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Q1. Workforce Planning

Imagine you are the Talent Management Director of an organization.

 

Create a 12- to 15-question organizational development needs survey using Microsoft® Word. Then fill out the Workforce Planning Worksheet and each of the two boxes.

 

Include questions that ask leaders to evaluate their teams and team members, as well as to rate themselves. Questions could include items referring to:

  • specific job skills and competencies
  • employee qualifications
  • the breadth of training offered and available

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Complete the Workforce Planning Worksheet and paste the Questions from the Word document

 

Q2. Week 4 discussion

Respond to the following in a minimum of 225 words each:

 

  • Compare the pros and cons of developing talent in-house versus soliciting outside talent.

 

  • Assess as an HR leader how you can help ensure training programs are relevant to business needs.

Include specific examples and/or substantiating evidence

Include in-text citations and references in APA format

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Q3. ETH/321 week 5 CEO of Bonner

You are the CEO of Bonner, a U.S.-based farm equipment corporation. Bonner recently announced the release of an innovative new tractor with technology based on a patented invention developed by Bonner’s engineers. Bonner’s vice president, who is aware of the upcoming product offering, bought 100,000 shares of Bonner stock prior to the announcement. You found out about the vice president’s stock purchase on the day of the announcement.

One week after the announcement, Bonner received a letter from a German farm equipment corporation, accusing Bonner of patent infringement based on the new tractor’s technology.

Bonner’s board of directors asked you to assess the vice president’s liability for the stock purchase and the company’s options for resolving the German corporation’s patent infringement claim.

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Prepare an infographic for the board (e.g., Piktochart®, Publisher, Glogster®, Microsoft® PowerPoint®, etc.) in which you discuss the following:

  • Compare the resolution of the patent dispute in a U.S. court with the resolution of the dispute using the World Intellectual Property Organization’s (WIPO) dispute resolution program. Search the internet to review WIPO’s dispute resolution program. (Information about WIPO’s dispute resolution program may be located on their website by searching the Internet for WIPO).
  • Assess the liability of Bonner’s vice president for purchasing the corporation’s stock prior to the announcement of the new tractor.
  • Assess whether Bonner has any legal or ethical duties to disclose the stock purchase, and if so, to whom?
  • Discuss risk management procedures Bonner can adopt to avoid or reduce situations like these from happening in the future.

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Create a 350- to 525-word letter in response to the German farm equipment company in which you:

  • Explain why Bonner is the owner of the invention
  • Discuss the intellectual property rights owned by Bonner in the invention
  • Suggest a method of dispute resolution (e.g., arbitration, mediation, litigation, WIPO dispute resolution), why that method would be desirable for resolving the dispute, and how and where the dispute resolution should be held (United States, foreign country, online, etc.).

 

Cite a minimum of two references.

Format your assignment according to APA guidelines.

 

Q4. ETH/321 week 4 Futuretek sells high-tech

Read the following scenario. 

Futuretek sells high-tech computer chips and software to smartphone manufacturers worldwide. Futuretek maintains two software databases: one containing Futuretek’s customer list with nonpublic contact information for key personnel, and the other containing customer purchasing trends. The information in the two databases is available for employees to view and use in connection with their job duties.

Dana is a computer programmer for Futuretek. Dana plans to run her own company one day and design and sell her own computer chips to smartphone companies. As an employee, she has access to the two databases containing Futuretek’s key purchaser and purchasing trends information.

Dana decides to leave Futuretek and start her own computer chip business. Before she leaves, she makes a copy of the two databases on a portable hard drive. Dana uses the information to contact Futuretek’s customers and offer them cheaper, but comparable, computer chips manufactured by Dana’s new company, SmartChip.

Futuretek becomes aware of Dana’s actions and asks you, the chief operations officer, for advice and recommendations on what to do.

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In a 5- to 10-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® or Prezi® presentation, complete the following:

  • Determine whether Dana has taken Futuretek’s intellectual property (IP), and if so, describe the type(s) of IP that was taken.
  • Explain any civil actions in tort or criminal actions that may be brought against Dana or SmartChip.
  • Assume Futuretek sues SmartChip, and Futuretek wins the lawsuit. Recommend ethical policies that SmartChip can put into place to prevent future legal claims and litigation against the company.
  • Recommend risk management procedures that Futuretek can implement to avoid or limit this type of activity from happening to the company in the future.

 

Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.

 

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ETH/321 week 3 Dream Massage

 

 

Read the following scenario.

Janice was hired by Dream Massage to be a massage therapist. She is engaged as an independent contractor and, therefore, receives no tax withholding or employment benefits. Dream Massage requires Janice to work a set schedule, provides her with clients and all her massage products, and exercises complete control over how Janice does her work. In addition, when Janice shows up to work the first day, she is informed by Dream Massage that she cannot wear her hijab as it violates the company’s dress code policy.

The owner of Dream Massage comes to you, a human resources (HR) consultant, to find out if Janice is properly classified as an independent contractor and if there is potential liability concerning the hijab.

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Create a 700- to 1,050-word HR report for Dream Massage in which you examine the employment issues presented in the scenario.

 

Include the following:

  • Analyze whether Janice qualifies as an employee or should be classified as an independent contractor.
  • Discuss whether Dream Massage has potentially violated any employment discrimination laws.
  • Analyze ethical considerations associated with the maintenance of a rigid company dress policy.

 

Cite a minimum of three references.

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

 

Q6. ETH/321 week 2 Fitzgerald foods

Fitzgerald Foods is a food processing corporation. In the past year, three directors were forced to leave Fitzgerald Foods after it was discovered the directors breached their legal duties to the corporation. Two of the directors were also officers of the corporation. The chairman of the board at Fitzgerald Foods is concerned that the remaining directors don’t understand their legal duties to the corporation and that new directors won’t understand their duties either.

You are the chief executive officer (CEO) of the corporation. The chairman of the board asked you to work with the corporation’s legal counsel to create a company policy document for directors and officers about their legal duties to the corporation.

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Develop a 700- to 1,050-word company policy (template provided) for Fitzgerald Foods’ directors and officers completing the following:

  • Legal Duties of Directors and Officers (a heading from policy document)
  • Explain the legal duties of directors and officers to the corporation, including the “business judgment rule.”
  • Benefits of Compliance (a heading from policy document)
  • Discuss the benefits of compliance for Fitzgerald Foods.
  • Consequences of Noncompliance (a heading from policy document)
  • Analyze how unethical activity by a director or officer can lead to a violation of a legal duty owed to the corporation.
  • Provide a brief example from a news article or court case within the last three years that demonstrates corporate director or officer liability in the United States.
  • Recommend separately (not a heading on the policy document) to the chairman of the board in 45 to 90 words at least two business risk management procedures that Fitzgerald Foods can adopt in the future to avoid violations of legal duties by its directors and officers.

 

Use the Fitzgerald Foods Company Policy template as a guide for your policy document.

 

Search the internet for examples of completed policy documents using the following search parameters: policy document example, policy document template, policy document format, policy document sample, or any variation you choose. An example may assist you to complete your policy document.

 

Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.

Q7. Case Study 1 Transforming the Organization

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Congratulations! The executives are taking your information system proposal seriously. In fact, they think it has the potential to transform the way the organization works. The CIO asked you to read Connelly (2016) to think about what resources you’ll need to get your new information system up and running. Please also review the five case studies in (Basu 2015, p. 32-35) so you can recommend a change management pattern for your company to follow. Write a memo to the CIO that describes how to implement your information system into the organization. Please focus on these topics:

  1. How much of the implementation work can you handle? What additional resources (people, information, time, money, etc.) will expedite the process so you don’t end up like Susie Jeffer? 2. Outline a change management strategy: What new equipment and software are necessary? What training and support will the staff need? How will the staff complete their work during the transition period? Do you anticipate other areas of resistance? 3. The CIO is very skeptical, so provide evidence that your assessment is accurate and complete. It can be difficult to admit to personal limitations! Your memo should be 3–5 pages long.

 

Q8. QUANTITATIVE RESEARCH METHODS

Week 8: Prepare a Mock Prospectus (replaces Concept Paper)

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Instructions

Write your mock Prospectus (replaces Concept Paper) using the Prospectus template found in the week Books and Resources. Follow the template guidelines for each section.

  1. Write an Introduction describing your topic.
  2. Write the Statement of the Problem section.
  3. Describe the Purpose of the Study. Include the results of your power analysis.
  4. State your Research Question and your null and alternative hypotheses. Be sure that your question aligns with your purpose.
  5. Write a Brief Review of the Literature.
  6. Complete the Research Methods section (including the Operational Definition of Variables, Constructs, and Measurement sub sections). Follow the instructions in the template. Be sure to:
  7. Identify the strengths and weaknesses of your envisioned design and methods.
  8. Identify threats to validity and how your design will address them.
  9. Justify why your chosen design and methods are more appropriate for your research question than alternatives you have considered.
  10. Define the constructs you will measure and what you will do in order to determine how to operationalize them.
  11. Describe the sample you propose to study and its characteristics; this should include, but is not limited, to: 1) age; 2) gender; 3) ethnicity; 4) additional cultural factors; and 5) education level. Justify your choice of sample.
  12. Describe your method of sampling.
  13. Describe the type of data you need to collect and how you will collect it.
  14.  Briefly describe any ethical issues you foresee with your study. Make a preliminary assessment of the level of risk associated with participation in your study that might need to be raised with the Institutional Review Board.
  15. Describe and justify how you will analyze your data and the descriptive statistics you will present.
  16. Explain how you conducted your power analysis.
  17. Describe how you will handle your data, check for accuracy etc.
  18. What problems do you foresee in implementing the design? How might you prevent them?

Support your paper with a minimum of 7 resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included.

Length: 12-15 pages not including title and reference pages
References: Minimum of 7 scholarly resources.

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Q9. Assignment 1: The CEO Challenge

You’ve just left an all – hands meeting at your company * The CEO was very upset at the rise of shadow IT projects – a major indicator that the company’s internal information system has failed to meet its needs.

Because the current information system is inadequate, inefficient, and outdated, the CEO is inviting everyone in the organization to propose a new operational, decision support, or enterprise information system to replace it. The executives have allocated $5 million to fund the most promising idea

This is your chance to make a difference in the company (not to mention your own career). Write your proposal as a memo that the entire C – suite will review. Include at least these points, in your own words, to be persuasive:

  1. Identify the main functions of your proposed information system and why they are important to the business.
  2. Describe what types of data your information system will hold and how data quality will be ensured.
  3. Explain how the old information system handles the functions you mentioned, the problems that occur, and why your information system will handle things better.
  4. Offer evidence of feasibility: Show that similar information systems have been built successfully and that they save more money than they cost.

The executives are busy, so keep your memo to 1-4 pages and avoid any extraneous content.

*You may use a current or former employer, but do not disclose anything confidential. Or, you can pick another organization if you are familiar with their internal (not customer – facing) information systems. You can disguise the organization and populate it with famous names. Made – up companies are problematic because of the amount of detail and realism they require.

 

Q10. Wk 2 – Apply: HR Processes

Consider your career or interests. Using a company you have worked for (or want to work for based on research) give examples of how those companies are using their HR processes to help the company achieve its strategic goals. Include workforce planning and change.

  • Writea minimum 1,050-word paper with APA format and citations.

 

 

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Q11. Wk 2 Discussion

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words each :

 

  • What is strategic human resources management and how can it be instrumental in helping a company create a competitive advantage in organizational change? What are the examples? 

 

  • What is the workforce planning process? What does it include? Why is it important?

Q12. Wk 2 Discussion

 

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words each :

 

  • What is strategic human resources management and how can it be instrumental in helping a company create a competitive advantage in organizational change? What are the examples? 

 

  • What is the workforce planning process? What does it include? Why is it important?

 

Q13. Original Work Only

Referring to a FITNESS AND APPREAL COMPANY write a three to four (3-4) page paper in which you:

  1. Conduct a feasibility analysis in which you research:
  2. Industry and Market Feasibility
  3. Product or Service Feasibility
  4. Financial Feasibility
  5. Entrepreneurial Readiness
  6. Based on your assessment, does the business idea need to be modified, changed significantly, or abandoned?

 

 

Q14. Discussion question

Respond to the following in a minimum of 175 words each:

  • What is human resources management, and why is it important to organizational success? Give examples.
  • Employment Law: Name and explain 2 employment laws and why they are important.

 

Q15. Washingtons Farewell Address Analysis GOVT 200

 

Washington’s Farewell Address Analysis Instructions

For this assignment, you will analyze the major points of George Washington’s “Farewell Address” and write a 3-page analysis, considering contemporary government and including differing points of view. Be sure to adhere to the format specified in the Course Style Guidelines document.

 

Your analysis must adhere to the following specifications:

  • No more than 3 double-spaced pages (12-point font with 1-inch margins).
  • Must include a title page (not counted in total page number) that contains:

o A title,

o Your name,

o Your section (GOVT 200-S02),

o Your instructor’s name, and

o The date the assignment is due (all single-spaced in the footer of the cover page).

  • No page number is necessary for the cover page or for the first page in the body of the paper.
  • Pay particular attention to the grading rubric for how your paper will be graded.

 

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4.

 

 Q16. Discussion Board Post Help Alcohol Abuse

 

Alcohol abuse continues to be the most serious drug problem on college campuses throughout the United States. Every year, drinking kills more than 1,700 students and injures about 500,000 more; it is also a factor in 600,000 assaults and 100,000 rapes on college campuses. Enzyme-mediated metabolic pathways break down the toxic ethanol in alcoholic beverages. Ethanol kills liver cells and interferes with normal metabolic processes. Long-term heavy drinking causes alcoholic hepatitis, inflammation and destruction of liver tissue, and cirrhosis. Cirrhosis prevents the liver from removing drugs and other toxins from the blood, so they accumulate in the brain where they impair mental functioning and alter personality. Restricted blood flow through the liver increases susceptibility to diabetes, liver cancer and death.

 

Important Concepts from Chapter 3:

  • Introduction: Ethyl Alcohol Liver cells detoxify most of the alcohol a person drinks, but in the long run this process may lead to alcohol-related hepatitis and cirrhosis. Long term heavy use also damages memory, reflexes, and other functions. Binge drinking can stop the heart.
  • Section 3.13: Metabolism Series of enzymatic reactions in cells (metabolism) help cells acquire and use energy as they build, break down, or remodel organic molecules. Metabolism requires enzymes. Each kind of enzyme recognizes specific reactants, or substrates, and alters them in a specific way. Each enzyme functions best in a particular range of conditions that reflect the environment in which it evolved. Metabolic pathways can involve thousands of molecules and be quite complex.

 

Assignment:

  1. Visit WebMD to find out about 12 health risks of chronic heavy drinking.
  2. Visit Healthline.com to read about the effects of alcohol on the body: http://www.healthline.com/health/alcohol/effects-on-body
  3. Visit the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) website to find the Alcohol-Related Disease Impact (ARDI) for your area.
  4. Research what the Bible has to say about drinking.
  5. References should be provided in initial thread and replies.

 

Prompt: Briefly describe three health risks and/or negative physical effects of heavy drinking.  Is it a sin for a Christian to drink excessively? Why or why not (provide Biblical references)?

 

Q17. Within the realm of the Star Trek show, Mr. Spock seemed to present continuous questions

Within the realm of the Star Trek show, Mr. Spock seemed to present continuous questions about the ethics of space travels with his crew. Do you think character has any role in business ethics? Why or why not? How does character and personal integrity pertain to you in your profession or future profession?
Your journal entry must be at least 200 words.

Q18. The first step of the EBP process is to develop a question from the nursing practice problem

Details:

The first step of the EBP process is to develop a question from the nursing practice problem of interest.

Select a practice problem of interest to use as the focus of your research.

Start with the patient and identify the clinical problems or issues that arise from clinical care.

Following the PICOT format, write a PICOT statement in your selected practice problem area of interest, which is applicable to your proposed capstone project.

The PICOT statement will provide a framework for your capstone project (the project students must complete during their final course in the RN-BSN program of study).

Conduct a literature search to locate research articles focused on your selected practice problem of interest. This literature search should include both quantitative and qualitative peer-reviewed research articles to support your practice problem.

Select six peer-reviewed research articles which will be utilized through the next 5 weeks as reference sources. Be sure that some of the articles use qualitative research and that some use quantitative research. Create a reference list in which the six articles are listed. Beneath each reference include the article’s abstract. The completed assignment should have a title page and a reference list with abstracts.

Suggestions for locating qualitative and quantitative research articles from credible sources:

  1. Use a library database such as CINAHL Complete for your search.
  2. Using the advanced search page check the box beside “Research Article” in the “Limit Your Results” section.
  3. When setting up the search you can type your topic in the top box, then add quantitative or qualitative as a search term in one of the lower boxes. Research articles often are described as qualitative or quantitative.

To narrow/broaden your search, remove the words qualitative and quantitative and include words that narrow or broaden your main topic. For example: Diabetes and pediatric and dialysis. To determine what research design was used, review the abstract and the methods section of the article. The author will provide a description of data collection using qualitative or quantitative methods.

Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.

This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

You are not required to submit this assignment to Lopes Write.

 

Q19. This is a literature Question kindly assist

List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen

 

 

 

Q20. week 5 Starbucks

Create a 2- to 3-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation for a Mini-Strategy using the Mini-Strategy Outline.

Organization (Starbucks)

  • Assess the organization’s current status:

o    Leadership

o    Board members

o    Structure

o    Number of employees

  • Conduct a basic SWOTT analysis and discuss the implications of those results.

 

Q21. role of sport in education

role of sport in education. You may select to focus on either high school or college sports and their role in education. Provide your educated opinion and use sources to support your beliefs. Make sure you cite your sources in-text and with a reference page. You may use APA or MLA.

 

Q22. Strategic Choice and Evaluation

 

Answer the following questions No Intro or conclusion…

  1. What is the relationship between a firm’s customers and its business level strategy in terms of who, what and how?  Why is this relationship important?
  2. How can each of the business-level strategies be used to position the firm relative to the five forces of competition in a way that helps the firm earn above-average returns?
  3. What motives might encourage managers and leaders to over diversify their firm?
  4. What might encourage diversification?
  5. What are some trends in the global environment that might impact the choice of international strategies, particularly international corporate-level strategies?
  6. What are two important issues that can potentially affect a firm’s ability to successfully use international strategies?
  7. Why do firms use suborder’s strategic alliances?
  8. What risks are firms likely to experience if they use cooperative strategies?

 

Q23. how motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.

 

Write a 1500–2000 word essay explaining how motivating factors of modern fire research impact fire science.

 

Define how modern fire research has impacted fire science as it relates to each of the following:

Infrared imaging

GPS

Water mist

Compressed air foam

Explain how each of the above has had an impact on fire science.

 

Use examples to support your discussion.

 

Include an introductory and conclusion paragraph.

 

Format your work consistent with APA guidelines.

 

Include a title page and reference page and cite all sources

Q24. Mini-Strategy Week Three

Create a 3- to 4 – slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® presentation

Include the following in your outline: 

  • Organizations(Apple Inc)
  • Evaluate the organization’s mission statement, vision statement and values’ statement.
  • Discuss the organization’s current goals and objectives.

 

Q25. Internal Capabilities and Resources

  1. Why is it important for a firm to study and understand its internal organization?
  2. What is value chain analysis? What does the firm gain by successfully using this tool?
  3. What factors affect the likelihood a firm will take a competitive action?
  4. What factors affect the likelihood that your organization will initiate a competitive response to a competitor’s actions?
  5. What is outsourcing? How do you see the future of outsourcing in your own industry? Do you see it growing, declining & why?
  6. What does it mean to say that each core competence could become a core rigidity?
  7. How do you see the relationship between an organization’s “org” structure and its strategy? Discuss what it means to say that structure and strategy have a reciprocal relationship
  8. How do firms identify internal strengths and weaknesses? Why is it vital that managers have a clear understanding of their firm’s strengths and weaknesses?

 

 

 

 

 

Q26. MGT 279 Assignment 4

  1. In summary, what does the report’s author blame for the problems encountered on the Big Dig project?
  2. As an expert, to what extent do you think the author has got things right? Based on your knowledge of what it takes to manage major programs, how wouldyousummarize what went wrong with this project?
  3. To what extent do you feel that if the Big Dig had followed the US Department of Defense approach to managing major programs it would have been more successful? What problems might arise in trying to employ the US DoD approach?
  4. What lessons can be derived from the Big Dig experience that can be shared with individuals and organizations that are about to begin work on a major program?

 

   Q27. Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific

Assignment Steps 

Resources: Microsoft Excel®, Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific 

Review the Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific and the Case Study: MBA Schools in Asia-Pacific data set.

Prepare a 1,050-word managerial report for your boss.

Use the following questions for guidelines and directions on what to include in the report:

  1. What is the type of data (Quantitative or Qualitative) for each of the columns (variables) in the dataset? If quantitative, is the data discrete or continuous? Neatly summarize your response in a table for all the columns (variables).
  2. Using Excel®, find the mean, median, standard deviation, minimum, maximum, and the three quartiles for each of the quantitative variables identified in part 1 above. Neatly summarize in a table on this document. Comment on what you observe.
  3. What are the minimum and maximum full-time enrollments? Which schools have the minimum and maximum full-time enrollments?
  4. What is the average number of students per faculty member? Is this low or high? What does this mean to prospective applicants who are interested in pursuing an MBA in one of the leading international business schools?
  5. What are the mean, median, and modal ages? What does this mean to prospective applicants?
  6. What is the mean percentage of foreign students? How many and which schools have 1% and 0% foreign students? Which schools have highest percentage of foreign students? Please state these percentages.
  7. What percentage of schools require the GMAT test?
  8. What percentage of schools require English tests such as Test of English as a Foreign Language (TOEFL)?
  9. What percentage of schools require work experience? From this percentage, does this appear to be a significant factor in gaining admissions?
  10. What are the mean and median starting salaries? Which schools have the minimum and maximum starting salaries? How much are these minimum and maximum salaries?
  11. What are the mean tuition for foreign students and for local students? Does there appear to be a significant difference? What is the difference between the two means?
  12. How many schools require work experience and how many of them don’t? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring work experience? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring no work experience?
  13. How many schools require English tests and how many don’t? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring English tests? What is the mean starting salary for schools requiring no English tests?
  14. Comment on the skewness for the data on starting salaries:
  15. Plot a histogram and determine the skewness.
  16. Find the mean, median, and mode for starting salaries and compare the three measures to determine skewness.
  17. Finally, use Empirical Rule on the starting salaries and determine whether the salaries follow the Empirical Rule.

Format your assignment consistent with APA format. 

 

Q28. New hire for job position

 

You have 2 employment candidates for a marketing position.  Both have similar educational backgrounds and certifications.  However, the first candidate has 20 years of related experience while the second candidate has 6 years of similar experience.

The first candidate is asking for competitive base salary plus one week of extra vacation as part of the benefits package.  The second candidate is asking for a competitive base salary plus a company smart phone (upgraded each year), paid internet service at home.  The first candidate is willing to work a flexible schedule (nights, weekends, etc), while the second candidate prefers to work remotely from home.  Both are requesting to be included in the company’s annual bonus plan.

Write a 700-1100 paper that includes the following:

Compare the direct and indirect compensation requests for each candidate.

As an HR professional, what do you think is the best hiring decision for the company and why?

Use APA format and references

 

 Q29. Research paper Outline on “Diversity and Inclusion in the Nonprofit Organization”

Hi,

I’m writing a reserach paper on “Diversity and Inclusion in the Nonprofit Organization”  So I need help with developing an outline that will guide our writing process

Course textbook:

Worth, M. J. (2017). Nonprofit management: Principles and practice (4th ed.). Thousand Oaks, CA: Sage Publications.

 

 

Q30. For Contemporary Decision Making.

Consider  how the type of variable (qualitative and quantitative) and the level of measurement used influence the presentation of the data collected for the variable and the  statistics that can be calculated for the variable. Provide your own examples.

  • consider the following situation: You are standing on the bank of a river.

Assume the current is not a factor and you only have the mean  as the information for the depth of the river posted on the river bank.  Is this sufficient information to allow a person who is 5 ft 7in tall to safely cross the river?

  • Provide an example of empirical probability ?

 

 

 

 

BUSINESS.
Q1. Week 4 discussion
Respond to the following in a minimum of 225 words each:
• Compare the pros and cons of developing talent in-house versus soliciting outside talent.
• Assess as an HR leader how you can help ensure training programs are relevant to business needs.
Include specific examples and/or substantiating evidence
Include in-text citations and references in APA format
Q2. ETH/321 week 5 CEO of Bonner
You are the CEO of Bonner, a U.S.-based farm equipment corporation. Bonner recently announced the release of an innovative new tractor with technology based on a patented invention developed by Bonner’s engineers. Bonner’s vice president, who is aware of the upcoming product offering, bought 100,000 shares of Bonner stock prior to the announcement. You found out about the vice president’s stock purchase on the day of the announcement.
One week after the announcement, Bonner received a letter from a German farm equipment corporation, accusing Bonner of patent infringement based on the new tractor’s technology.
Bonner’s board of directors asked you to assess the vice president’s liability for the stock purchase and the company’s options for resolving the German corporation’s patent infringement claim.

Prepare an infographic for the board (e.g., Piktochart®, Publisher, Glogster®, Microsoft® PowerPoint®, etc.) in which you discuss the following:
• Compare the resolution of the patent dispute in a U.S. court with the resolution of the dispute using the World Intellectual Property Organization’s (WIPO) dispute resolution program. Search the internet to review WIPO’s dispute resolution program. (Information about WIPO’s dispute resolution program may be located on their website by searching the Internet for WIPO).
• Assess the liability of Bonner’s vice president for purchasing the corporation’s stock prior to the announcement of the new tractor.
• Assess whether Bonner has any legal or ethical duties to disclose the stock purchase, and if so, to whom?
• Discuss risk management procedures Bonner can adopt to avoid or reduce situations like these from happening in the future.
Create a 350- to 525-word letter in response to the German farm equipment company in which you:
• Explain why Bonner is the owner of the invention
• Discuss the intellectual property rights owned by Bonner in the invention
• Suggest a method of dispute resolution (e.g., arbitration, mediation, litigation, WIPO dispute resolution), why that method would be desirable for resolving the dispute, and how and where the dispute resolution should be held (United States, foreign country, online, etc.).
Cite a minimum of two references.
Format your assignment according to APA guidelines.
Q3. ETH/321 week 4 Futuretek sells high-tech
Read the following scenario.
Futuretek sells high-tech computer chips and software to smartphone manufacturers worldwide. Futuretek maintains two software databases: one containing Futuretek’s customer list with nonpublic contact information for key personnel, and the other containing customer purchasing trends. The information in the two databases is available for employees to view and use in connection with their job duties.
Dana is a computer programmer for Futuretek. Dana plans to run her own company one day and design and sell her own computer chips to smartphone companies. As an employee, she has access to the two databases containing Futuretek’s key purchaser and purchasing trends information.
Dana decides to leave Futuretek and start her own computer chip business. Before she leaves, she makes a copy of the two databases on a portable hard drive. Dana uses the information to contact Futuretek’s customers and offer them cheaper, but comparable, computer chips manufactured by Dana’s new company, SmartChip.
Futuretek becomes aware of Dana’s actions and asks you, the chief operations officer, for advice and recommendations on what to do.
In a 5- to 10-slide Microsoft® PowerPoint® or Prezi® presentation, complete the following:
• Determine whether Dana has taken Futuretek’s intellectual property (IP), and if so, describe the type(s) of IP that was taken.
• Explain any civil actions in tort or criminal actions that may be brought against Dana or SmartChip.
• Assume Futuretek sues SmartChip, and Futuretek wins the lawsuit. Recommend ethical policies that SmartChip can put into place to prevent future legal claims and litigation against the company.
• Recommend risk management procedures that Futuretek can implement to avoid or limit this type of activity from happening to the company in the future.
Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.
Q4. ETH/321 week 3 Dream Massage
Read the following scenario.
Janice was hired by Dream Massage to be a massage therapist. She is engaged as an independent contractor and, therefore, receives no tax withholding or employment benefits. Dream Massage requires Janice to work a set schedule, provides her with clients and all her massage products, and exercises complete control over how Janice does her work. In addition, when Janice shows up to work the first day, she is informed by Dream Massage that she cannot wear her hijab as it violates the company’s dress code policy.
The owner of Dream Massage comes to you, a human resources (HR) consultant, to find out if Janice is properly classified as an independent contractor and if there is potential liability concerning the hijab.
Create a 700- to 1,050-word HR report for Dream Massage in which you examine the employment issues presented in the scenario.

Include the following:
• Analyze whether Janice qualifies as an employee or should be classified as an independent contractor.
• Discuss whether Dream Massage has potentially violated any employment discrimination laws.
• Analyze ethical considerations associated with the maintenance of a rigid company dress policy.
Cite a minimum of three references.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Q5. ETH/321 week 2 Fitzgerald foods
Fitzgerald Foods is a food processing corporation. In the past year, three directors were forced to leave Fitzgerald Foods after it was discovered the directors breached their legal duties to the corporation. Two of the directors were also officers of the corporation. The chairman of the board at Fitzgerald Foods is concerned that the remaining directors don’t understand their legal duties to the corporation and that new directors won’t understand their duties either.
You are the chief executive officer (CEO) of the corporation. The chairman of the board asked you to work with the corporation’s legal counsel to create a company policy document for directors and officers about their legal duties to the corporation.
Develop a 700- to 1,050-word company policy (template provided) for Fitzgerald Foods’ directors and officers completing the following:
• Legal Duties of Directors and Officers (a heading from policy document)
• Explain the legal duties of directors and officers to the corporation, including the “business judgment rule.”
• Benefits of Compliance (a heading from policy document)
• Discuss the benefits of compliance for Fitzgerald Foods.
• Consequences of Noncompliance (a heading from policy document)
• Analyze how unethical activity by a director or officer can lead to a violation of a legal duty owed to the corporation.
• Provide a brief example from a news article or court case within the last three years that demonstrates corporate director or officer liability in the United States.
• Recommend separately (not a heading on the policy document) to the chairman of the board in 45 to 90 words at least two business risk management procedures that Fitzgerald Foods can adopt in the future to avoid violations of legal duties by its directors and officers.
Use the Fitzgerald Foods Company Policy template as a guide for your policy document.
Search the internet for examples of completed policy documents using the following search parameters: policy document example, policy document template, policy document format, policy document sample, or any variation you choose. An example may assist you to complete your policy document.
Cite a minimum of two references according to APA guidelines.

Q6. ETH/321 Dazzling Dough Co. sells pizza dough to local pizza restaurants.
Read the following scenario:
Dazzling Dough Co. sells pizza dough to local pizza restaurants. Most of the restaurants buy at least 150 pounds of pizza dough from Dazzling Dough Co. in each order. Jerry’s Pizza contacted Dazzling Dough Co. to purchase 200 pounds of pizza dough, along with some other items. Dazzling Dough Co. sent Jerry’s Pizza a written contract, prepared by Dazzling Dough Co.’s lawyer, stating that “Jerry’s Pizza agrees to purchase 200 pounds of pizza dough, pizza toppings, desserts and soft drinks for $30,000.” Jerry’s Pizza signed and returned the contract.
A few days later, Dazzling Dough Co. sent Jerry’s Pizza 125 pounds of pizza dough and 75 pounds of pizza toppings, desserts, and soft drinks. Jerry’s Pizza contacted Dazzling Dough Co. about the error in the contract and demanded an extra 75 pounds of pizza dough. Dazzling Dough Co. said there was no error, that Jerry’s Pizza signed the contract so they agreed to the terms, and it was not sending the extra pizza dough.
After several attempts to resolve the dispute and a pressing need for dough, Jerry’s Pizza terminated the contract and sent Dazzling Dough Co. a check for $15,000 for the 125 pounds of pizza dough, pizza toppings, desserts and soft drinks. Jerry’s Pizza immediately purchased 75 pounds of pizza dough from another company for $12,000. Both parties are threatening to sue each other for breach of contract. They prefer to resolve the dispute out of court because the contract contains a clause that awards reimbursement of attorney’s fees to the winning party.
The board of directors of Jerry’s Pizza scheduled a meeting with you and other senior management at the company to discuss the dispute. You’ll need to prepare a strategic plan overview (an abbreviated strategic plan, not a full plan) for the board that explains why there is a dispute, suggests various settlement proposals, and provides recommendations on how Jerry’s Pizza can avoid this kind of dispute in the future.
Prepare a 525- to 875-word strategic plan overview to resolve the legal dispute for the board (use the bullet point headings provided below to format your overview) addressing the following:
• Summary of Dispute
• Identify the source of the dispute.
• Identify each party’s interpretation of the contract language.
• Identify whether each party’s interpretation is reasonable.
• Identify any missing facts that would be helpful to know in order to resolve the dispute.
• Proposed Revisions to Contract Language
• Recommend specific revisions to the contract’s language so that it is clear what Jerry’s Pizza expected to buy and what Dazzling Dough Co. is required to deliver.
• Ethical Considerations
• Explain the ethical considerations for a company to enforce specific terms of a contract against another company if the other company is mistaken about what was agreed to. Discuss the factors that should be considered.
• Recommendations
• Two to three possible settlement options (e.g., pay for the disputed dough, reduce the amount of dough to be purchased, split the difference, refuse to pay, etc.)
• Two to three methods of dispute resolution (e.g., negotiation, mediation, arbitration, litigation, etc.) that Jerry’s Pizza can propose to Dazzling Dough Co.
Create a one-page visualization to represent the information you provide in this assignment.
• Use the Table, SmartArt, or Chart visual representation options available in Microsoft® Word by clicking on the Insert tab located on the ribbon at the top of the window. Locate the Word Help function in the version of Microsoft® Word that is installed on your computer for assistance.
Q7. Comparison between Japan and Germany’s Economic Stimulus Policies
Topic: Economic Growth Case Study: Cross-Country Comparison
• Project Proposal Due: Oct. 20 (one-sheet of paper including student names, countries selected, and a brief outline of work distribution for each group member. This proposal will not be graded, but is required to keep everyone on track.)
• Group Presentations: Nov. 15, or Nov. 17 (must be scheduled in advance.)
• Research Paper Submission: Nov. 17 (email to: rchou@Laverne.edu )
Paper Length: Approximately 10 pages (include all graphs, data, and List of reference).
Report Format: -Intro (Brief Country History & Outlook) -Literature Review -Data/Graph Analysis (Your own interpretations) -Conclusion (Your policy recommendation for that country) -Bibliography (References)
Research Instruction: 1) Select any two countries for comparison; 2) Identify the key economic indicators (Examples: GDP per Capita, GDP growth rate,
Unemployment rate, Inflation, etc.) 3) Apply one of the economic theories or analysis you learned in class.
(Examples: Aggregate Demand and Aggregate Supply Graph, Fiscal Policy Analysis,
Monetary Policy Analysis, etc.) 4) Conclude with your economic policy recommendations for each of these countries.
More Examples of economic theories or market analysis to choose from:
-GDP components, and graph interpretation/
analysis;
• Unemployment and Fiscal Policy;
• Inflation, Money Supply, and Monetary Policy;
• Economic Policy Objective, and Trade-offs;
• Aggregate Demand & Supply Analysis;
• Economic stimulus policy;
• International Trade Policy, Exchange Rate Policy;

Q8. CUR 528 Week 6 Individual Assignment The Evaluation Process
CUR 528 Week 6 Individual Assignment The Evaluation Process
Resources: The needs assessment you created in Week 4 that measures specific objectives for evaluation.
Create the data for each of the questions you used in your needs assessment in Week 4 that measured your objectives. Your fictitious data must show what the objectives measured and the analysis of data on a spreadsheet of at least 25 employees where 45% of the employees show a need for additional reinforcement or training.
Prepare an evaluation report of 1,225 to 1,400 words by using your needs assessment from Week 4 that includes the following:
Program description
Description of the problem
Purpose of the evaluation
Data collection procedures
Procedures for analyzing the data
Results/findings
Summarize in 525 to 700 words how your findings may be used to improve a course, training or the program that you evaluated.
Submit your Microsoft® Excel® spreadsheet with data, your report and your summary.
Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.
Q9. Write a 1,050- to 1,400- word paper discussing how and why statistical data should be used by
Write a 1,050- to 1,400- word paper discussing how and why statistical data should be used by criminal justice leadership. A few examples include:
• Statistical support to criminal justice policy making
• Criminal justice research in support of community policing
• Criminal justice research in support of community engagement
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Q10. The purpose of this assignment is for students to apply the framework of a job aid to document
The purpose of this assignment is for students to apply the framework of a job aid to document the training process outcomes. The student will review a task and then document all the steps to be completed for other’s to be successful when using the instructions. A job aid is produced to reduce the number of mistakes or errors while helping the employee remember by following the directions. In addition, the student will provide a summary of how to deploy the new job aid, how they will train end-users on the job aid, will there be change management involved, what type of technology will be used to train/roll-out the new job aid, and a discussion of the benefit of the job aid will be included.
Create a job aid that can be used to improve team performance within your organization.
Create a 700- to 1,050-word job aid that includes the following:
• Assess how it will be deployed.
• Determine what type of training methodology you will use.
• Evaluate whether or not there is a change management component to its roll-out.
• Analyze the type of training technology that will be utilized with your aid.
• Summarize what employees will be able to do after they complete training.

ENGLISH
Q1. Liberty University ENGL 102 test 2 complete solutions correct answers |Rated A+
Liberty University ENGL 102 test 2 complete solutions correct answers A+ work
More than 7 different versions

When my mother died I was very young, And my father sold me while yet my tongue, Could scarcely cry weep weep weep weep, So your chimneys I sweep and in soot I sleep. There’s little Tom Dacre, who cried when his head That curled like a lamb’s back was shav’d, so I said. Hush Tom never mind it, for when your head’s bare, You know that the soot cannot spoil your white hair And so he was quiet and that very night. As Tom was a sleeping he had such a sight That thousands of sweepers Dick, Joe, Ned, and Jack Were all of them lock’d up in coffins of black, And by came an Angel who had a bright key And he open’d the coffins and set them all free. Then down a green plain leaping, laughing, they run And wash in a river and shine in the Sun. Then naked and white, all their bags left behind. They rise upon clouds, and sport in the wind. And the Angel told Tom, if he’d be a good boy, He’d have God for his father and never want joy. And so Tom awoke and we rose in the dark And got with our bags and our brushes to work. Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm. (“The Chimney Sweeper” by William Blake)

Question 1
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “green plain” (line 15) represents __________.
Question 2
In lines 7-8, the narrator is trying to ________ Tom when he tells him, “Hush Tom never mind it, for when your head’s bare, / You know that the soot cannot spoil your white hair.”
Question 3
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” The boy’s statement testifies to his __________.
Question 4
In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Question 5
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
Question 6
Hazlitt defined poetry as “The universal language which the heart holds with nature and itself.”
Question 7
The term used for a rhyme in which the repeated accented vowel sound is in either the second or third last syllable of the words involved (example hurrying-scurrying).
Question 8
“Ode to a Nightingale” speaks of two scenes.
Question 9
Ulysses is a mythological hero.
Question 10
A poem’s sound structure is its rhyme scheme and systematic and repeated use of similar sounds.
Question 11
In “Fern Hill” time is shown to pass via the stages of a plant’s life.
Question 12
The question of “The Tiger” is: “Did GOD create evil?”
Question 13
In order to understand meter, divide each line into feet and scan the feet.
Question 14
_____ argues that poems are tropological, not logically propositional in nature
Question 15
“Eight O’Clock” comments that innocence is short-lived.
Question 16
Emily Dickinson authored the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves.”
Question 17
A hyperbole is simply exaggeration, but exaggeration in the service of truth.
Question 18
When we understand all the conditions and circumstances involved in a paradox, we find that what at first seemed impossible is actually entirely plausible and not impossible at all.
Question 19
In “Songs of Innocence” the hollow reed is the poet’s pen.
Question 20
“Design” notes the impact of what insect?
Question 21
William Blake wrote “The Lamb.”
Question 22
A metaphor is a comparison using “like” or “as.”
Question 23
The theme of a poem is the major concept or idea that a poet/writer implicitly or explicitly conveys in a poem.
Question 24
In this poem, the poet or persona asks that God “o’erthrow” him, reclaim him as His own, and “marry” him.
Question 25
Typically, paradoxes require some mental gymnastics in order to analyze intent.
Question 26
“Dover Beach” alludes to Horace.
Question 27
Irony is the situation or use of language involving some kind of incongruity or discrepancy.
Question 28
McLeish borrowed his title from whose “Ars Poetica”?
Question 29
What happens versus what the reader knows to be true is
Question 30
A couplet is two successive lines that have the same rhyme.
Question 31
The following is an excerpt from Tennyson’s “Ulysses”: “I cannot rest from travel; I will drink/Life to the lees…”
Question 32
Lyrical poetry differs from other writing in the fairly small emotional response that it generates.
Question 33
In the poem “Honor” by Herbert, only the sweet and virtuous soul that has survived the Judgment lives.
Question 34
Sometimes a poem such as “Fern Hill” simply functions to communicate an emotion.
Question 35
Irony of situation results from the incongruity between the actual and the anticipated circumstance in “Ozymandias.”
Question 36
Dactylic is two unstressed syllables followed by a stressed syllable.
Question 37
The first line of “Ozymandias” by Percy Bysshe Shelley reads, “I met a traveler from an antique land.” Antique here best means: __________.
Question 38
Byron defined poetry as “The lava of imagination whose eruption prevents an earthquake.”
Question 39
Which poem mentions prison?
Question 40
Internal rhyme has one or both of the rhyme-words within the line.
Question 41
The lines “When my mother died I was very young, / And my father sold me while yet my tongue could scarcely cry ‘weep!'” appear in:
Question 42
Lines 9-12 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the glowing of such fire, / That on the ashes of his youth doth lie, / As the death-bed whereon it must expire, / Consum’d with that which it was nourish’d by.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
Question 43
Understatement downplays or intentionally minimizes something.
Question 44
Onomatopoeia is the use of words that supposedly mimic their meaning in their sound.
Question 45
The first picture mentioned in “Ode on a Grecian Urn” is of a street scene in Athens.
Question 46
Lines 5-8 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the twilight of such day / As after sunset fadeth in the west, / Which by and by black night doth take away, / Death’s second self, that seals up all in rest.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
Question 47
This poem by T. S. Eliot makes an allusion to the Gospel of Matthew, 2:1-12.
Question 48
Hopkins’ poem, “Spring,” uses sensory perceptions to underscore the theme of the importance of innocence.
Question 49
Tennyson’s “Ulysses” is a symbol of the existential dilemma.
Question 50
“Nothing beside remains” is a significant phrase in what poem?

• Question 1
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is dramatic irony in the sense that __________.
• Question 2
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
• Question 3
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “green plain” (line 15) represents __________.
• Question 4
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” The boy’s statement testifies to his __________.
• Question 5
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “coffins of black” (line 12) represent __________.
• Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for a rhyme in which the repeated accented vowel sound is in either the second or third last syllable of the words involved (example hurrying-scurrying).
• Question 7
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Emily Dickinson authored the poem, “There is no Frigate like a Book.”
• Question 8
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first four (4) lines of Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is called
• Question 9
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Keats died of polio.
• Question 10
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The major figure of speech often used to interpret Shelley’s “Ozymandias” is irony of situation.
• Question 11
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In this sonnet, _____, the octave introduces a series of images, and the sestet presents two significant symbols.
• Question 12
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Dover Beach” begins with an idyllic scene that soon changes to a fierce attack.
• Question 13
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The last 5 lines of “Ozymandias” by Percy Bysshe Shelley reads: “My name is Ozymandias, king of kings: / Look on my works, ye Mighty, and despair!” / Nothing beside remains. Round the decay / Of that colossal wreck, boundless and bare / The lone and level sands stretch far away.” The crumbling statue, “decay,” “colossal wreck,” “boundless and bare
/…lone and level sands” all communicate thematic ideas of __________.
• Question 14
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The variation of a poem’s sentence structure is referred to as its syntactical structure.
• Question 15
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lyrical poetry differs from other writing in the fairly small emotional response that it generates.
• Question 16
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In the poem “Honor” by Herbert, only the sweet and virtuous soul that has survived the Judgment lives.
• Question 17
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A synonym of hyperbole is overstatement.
• Question 18
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first three stanzas of “Virtue” show that all of nature is ephemeral.
• Question 19
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for rhymes that occur at the ends of lines is
• Question 20
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
• Question 21
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The lines “When my mother died I was very young, / And my father sold me while yet my tongue could scarcely cry ‘weep!'” appear in:
• Question 22
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves,” Dickinson compares snowfall to God’s righteousness covering the earth.
• Question 23
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In which poem does the child inspire the poet to write?
• Question 24
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Chimney Sweeper” uses a dichotomy between the horror that the children experience and what is said.
• Question 25
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Monometer is a metrical line containing one foot.
• Question 26
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Irony is the situation or use of language involving some kind of incongruity or discrepancy.
• Question 27
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The speaker of “The Chimney Sweeper” is a dead boy.
• Question 28
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Dover Beach overlooks Norway.
• Question 29
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The phrase “frigate like a book” is an example of a metaphor.
• Question 30
1.6 out of 1.6 points
When we understand all the conditions and circumstances involved in a paradox, we find that what at first seemed impossible is actually entirely plausible and not impossible at all.
• Question 31
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poem, “Ozymandias,” was written by Percy Bysshe Shelley.
• Question 32
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The theme of the poem, “Barter,” is that “loveliness is the most important thing is life.”
• Question 33
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The three major types of irony are verbal irony, dramatic irony, and irony of situation.
• Question 34
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for words in a rhyming pattern that have some kind of sound correspondence but are not perfect rhymes (example push- rush).
• Question 35
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The images in _____ create an impression of autumn.
• Question 36
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A metaphor is a comparison using “like” or “as.”
• Question 37
1.6 out of 1.6 points
According to the work-text/textbook, _____ is a writer’s or speaker’s attitude toward the subject, the audience, or herself or himself.
• Question 38
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The English sonnet is sometimes called Shakespearean sonnet.
• Question 39
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Theme is the unifying generalization of a literary work.
• Question 40
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In “Fern Hill” time is shown to pass via the stages of a plant’s life.
• Question 41
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poem, “Ulysses,” was written by William Blake.
• Question 42
1.6 out of 1.6 points
An octave is a ten-line stanza or the first ten lives of a sonnet.
• Question 43
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A poem can be organized without stanza breaks, refrain, or rhythm.
• Question 44
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A poem’s sound structure is its rhyme scheme and systematic and repeated use of similar sounds.
• Question 45
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A paradoxical statement is a figure of speech in which an apparently self-contradictory statement is nevertheless found to be true.
• Question 46
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The question of “The Tiger” is: “Did GOD create evil?”
• Question 47
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In what poem does a boy lose a hand?
• Question 48
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Tropes create meaning that cannot be expressed any other way.
• Question 49
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Since “all truth is God’s truth,” we may freely go to poetry to find truth instead of using God’s revelation to us in the Bible to judge poetry.
• Question 50
1.6 out of 1.6 points
What animal is mentioned in “Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening”?

• Question 1
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
• Question 2
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is dramatic irony in the sense that __________.
• Question 3
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
• Question 4
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “coffins of black” (line 12) represent __________.
• Question 5
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23-24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
• Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Tennyson’s “Ulysses” is a symbol of the existential dilemma.
• Question 7
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Meter refers to the regular beats that occur in a poem.
• Question 8
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Connotation is a word’s overtones of meaning.
• Question 9
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Dover Beach” begins with an idyllic scene that soon changes to a fierce attack.
• Question 10
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Assonance is the close positioning of the same or similar vowel sounds.
• Question 11
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“To strive, to seek, to find, and not to yield” is from what poem?
• Question 12
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which of the following poem was written by Robert Frost
• Question 13
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “That time of year thou mayst in me behold / When yellow leaves, or none, or few, do hang / Upon those boughs which shake against the cold, / Bare ruin’d choirs, where late the sweet birds sang.”
In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
• Question 14
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first line of “Ozymandias” by Percy Bysshe Shelley reads, “I met a traveler from an antique land.” Antique here best means: __________.
• Question 15
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Image structure is the order in which images appear in a poem.
• Question 16
1.6 out of 1.6 points
McLeish borrowed his title from whose “Ars Poetica”?
• Question 17
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Not all poems have a theme.
• Question 18
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Line 7 of George Herbert’s “Virtue” reads: “Thy root is ever in its grave.” The word “grave” is metonymy for __________.
• Question 19
1.6 out of 1.6 points
William Blake wrote “The Lamb.”
• Question 20
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for a rhyme in which the repeated accented vowel sound is in either the second or third last syllable of the words involved (example hurrying-scurrying).
• Question 21
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
• Question 22
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Line 3 of George Herbert’s “Virtue” reads: “The dew shall weep thy fall tonight.” The word “fall” means __________.
• Question 23
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A foot in poetry usually contains one accented syllable and one or two unaccented syllables.
• Question 24
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Irony is the situation or use of language involving some kind of incongruity or discrepancy.
• Question 25
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which of the following poem uses two similes to create meaning and emotion, and two metaphors to complete the poem?
• Question 26
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The speaker in Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year” compares himself to autumn/winter, night, and a burnt-out fire.
• Question 27
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Frost uses direct methods to communicate his theme in “Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening.”
• Question 28
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Rhyme scheme could be relied upon to trace a poet’s thought patterns.
• Question 29
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A character expresses great pride. In which poem does he appear?
• Question 30
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Onomatopoeia is the use of words that supposedly mimic their meaning in their sound.
• Question 31
1.6 out of 1.6 points
An imagistic poem gives the verbal representation of a sense experience, as of sight, touch, taste, smell, and hearing.
• Question 32
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A trope is a figure of speech.
• Question 33
1.6 out of 1.6 points
M. H. Riken proposes six tools or substructures of the art form, poem. These include paraphrase, rational, image, metric, sound, and syntax.
• Question 34
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A metaphor is the imaginative identification of two dissimilar objects or ideas.
• Question 35
1.6 out of 1.6 points
In what poem does a boy lose a hand?
• Question 36
1.6 out of 1.6 points
William Butler Yeats wrote the poem, “Sailing to Byzantium.”
• Question 37
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 9-12 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the glowing of such fire, / That on the ashes of his youth doth lie, / As the death-bed whereon it must expire, / Consum’d with that which it was nourish’d by.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
• Question 38
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Images evoke the senses.
• Question 39
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The term used for rhymes that occur at the ends of lines is
• Question 40
1.6 out of 1.6 points
A trope is a device in which one object or idea is compared with a dissimilar object or idea.
• Question 41
1.6 out of 1.6 points
“Barter” makes extensive use of verbs such as raps, deals, and makes.
• Question 42
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Lines 1-4 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “That time of year thou mayst in me behold / When yellow leaves, or none, or few, do hang / Upon those boughs which shake against the cold, / Bare ruin’d choirs, where late the sweet birds sang.” These lines emphasize __________.
• Question 43
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Image is a verbal representation of a series of experiences as of sight, touch, smell, and hearing.
• Question 44
1.6 out of 1.6 points
One possible theme of _____ is that responsibilities are more important than the beauties of life.
• Question 45
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Scansion is the process of measuring verse.
• Question 46
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The theme of a poem is the major concept or idea that a poet/writer implicitly or explicitly conveys in a poem.
• Question 47
1.6 out of 1.6 points
The first four (4) lines of Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is called
• Question 48
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Irony of situation results from the incongruity between the actual and the anticipated circumstance in “Ozymandias.”
• Question 49
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Assonance, according to the Power Point presentation, emphasizes ideas and slows pace.
• Question 50
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Which famous critic said that it was vital to know the Bible if one is to understand literature.

Question 1 In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Question 2 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “coffins of black” (line 12) represent __________.
Question 3 In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Question 4 The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23¬24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is dramatic irony in the sense that __________.
Question 5 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13¬14) represents __________.
Question 6 The poem, “Ulysses,” was written by William Blake.
Question 7 This poem by Robert Frost makes an allusion to Shakespeare’s play Macbeth.
Question 8 “Fern Hill” followed upon the Industrial Revolution which ushered in major changes in thought.
Question 9 Lines 1¬4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
Question 10 All poems have an end rhyme scheme.
Question 11 Theme is the unifying generalization of a literary work.
Question 12 “Dover Beach” alludes to Horace.
Question 13 Emily Dickinson authored the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves.”
Question 14 According to the work¬text/textbook, _____ is a writer’s or speaker’s attitude toward the subject, the audience, or herself or himself.
Question 15 Tennyson’s “Ulysses” is a symbol of the existential dilemma.
Question 16 Monometer is a metrical line containing one foot.
Question 17 A metaphor may have one of four forms.
Question 18 The bald eagle represents freedom, majesty, and strength. This is an example of a(n)
Question 19 Lines 9¬12 of William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” reads: “In me thou seest the glowing of such fire, / That on the ashes of his youth doth lie, / As the death¬bed whereon it must expire, / Consum’d with that which it was nourish’d by.” In these lines, the speaker metaphorically compares himself to __________.
Question 20 Dactylic is two unstressed syllables followed by a stressed syllable.
Question 21 Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is entitled
Question 22 A poem may be unified by a theme, one of the tropes, or by
Question 23 Emily Dickinson authored “Ozymandias.”
Question 24 William Blake wrote “The Tiger.”
Question 25 Byron defined poetry as “The lava of imagination whose eruption prevents an earthquake.”
Question 26 As literature, the Bible contains an organized view of life that comprehends and subsumes even man’s artistic creations.
Question 27 McLeish borrowed his title from whose “Ars Poetica”?
Question 28 “Ode to a Nightingale” speaks of two scenes.
Question 29 A metaphor is the imaginative identification of two dissimilar objects or ideas.
Question 30 The major figure of speech often used to interpret Shelley’s “Ozymandias” is irony of situation.
Question 31 According to Emily Dickinson, “[Poetry] makes my body so cold that no fire can warm me … and makes me feel as if the top of my head were taken off”
Question 32 The first four (4) lines of Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is called
Question 33 The English sonnet is sometimes called Shakespearean sonnet.
Question 34 Keats died of polio.
Question 35 According to Plato, poetry should be for art’s sake, and not interpreted, analyzed, and dissected.
Question 36 “A poem,” according to M. H. Riken, “is produced by a poet, takes its subject matter from the universe of men, things, and events, and is addressed to, or made available to, an audience of hearers or readers.”
Question 37 Edwin Arlington Robinson authored the poem, “Nothing Gold Can Stay.”
Question 38 A synonym of hyperbole is overstatement.
Question 39 _____ is a descriptive¬meditative lyric.
Question 40 Meter refers to the regular beats that occur in a poem.
Question 41 The lines “When my mother died I was very young, / And my father sold me while yet my tongue could scarcely cry ‘weep!'” appear in:
Question 42 The first three stanzas of “Virtue” show that all of nature is ephemeral.
Question 43 The tiger in Blake’s poem of the same name symbolizes
Question 44 The rhyme scheme of Gerard Manley Hopkins’s “God’s Grandeur” is abba abba cd cd cd.
Question 45 This poem by T. S. Eliot makes an allusion to the Gospel of Matthew, 2:1¬12.
Question 46 In the poem “Virtue” by George Herbert, the line “The dew shall weep thy fall tonight” exemplifies __________.
Question 47 A foot is the basic unit used in the scansion of verse; it usually contains one accented syllable and one or two unaccented syllables.
Question 48 A poem’s meter helps to convey the tone, which then helps to establish meaning.
Question 49 “Journey of the Magi” maintains that Christ’s birth was a “hard and bitter agony.”
Question 50 The phrase “frigate like a book” is an example of a metaphor.

Question 1 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “green plain” (line 15) represents __________.
Question 2 The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23¬24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” The boy’s statement testifies to his __________.
Question 3 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13¬14) represents __________.
Question 4 The poet protests against child labor and condemns the harm done to children exploited in this practice. Yet in lines 23¬24, the child narrator writes that “Tho’ the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm / So if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.” This is an ironic expression of the narrator’s __________.
Question 5 The dream in lines 11¬20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line represents __________.
Question 6 The allusion in the poem “Out, Out ¬ ¬” is from
Question 7 The tropes in _____ relate to the childhood of the speaker.
Question 8 The poem, “Fern Hill,” was written by Dylan Thomas.
Question 9 Not all poems have a theme.
Question 10 The bald eagle represents freedom, majesty, and strength. This is an example of a(n)
Question 11 “A poem,” according to M. H. Riken, “is produced by a poet, takes its subject matter from the universe of men, things, and events, and is addressed to, or made available to, an audience of hearers or readers.”
Question 12 All poems have an end rhyme scheme.
Question 13 Shakespeare’s sonnet that deals with the autumn years of his life is entitled
Question 14 Assonance, according to the Power Point presentation, emphasizes ideas and slows pace.
Question 15 What happens versus what the reader knows to be true is
Question 16 When Alexander Pope wrote that a literary critic of his time would “damn with faint praise,” he was using a verbal paradox.
Question 17 The speaker of “The Chimney Sweeper” is a dead boy.
Question 18 This poem by Robert Frost makes an allusion to Shakespeare’s play Macbeth.
Question 19 Which of the following poem uses two similes to create meaning and emotion, and two metaphors to complete the poem?
Question 20 “Eight O’Clock” comments that innocence is short¬lived.
Question 21 William Blake wrote “The Lamb.”
Question 22 The three major types of irony are verbal irony, dramatic irony, and irony of situation.
Question 23 In this sonnet, _____, the octave introduces a series of images, and the sestet presents two significant symbols.
Question 24 Stressed and unstressed syllables are indicated by diacritical marks.
Question 25 Which of the following poem was written by John Donne
Question 26 Internal rhyme has one or both of the rhyme¬words within the line.
Question 27 Image is a verbal representation of a series of experiences as of sight, touch, smell, and hearing.
Question 28 Byron defined poetry as “The lava of imagination whose eruption prevents an earthquake.”
Question 29 Theme is the unifying generalization of a literary work.
Question 30 The author of “Ode on a Grecian Urn” is Frost.
Question 31 A Shakespearean Sonnet has this rhyme scheme: ACAC, BDBD, EFEF, GG.
Question 32 The metrical structure of a poem is its rhythm pattern of stressed and unstressed syllables.
Question 33 The phrase “Death’s second self, that seals up all in rest” (line 8) in William Shakespeare’s “That Time of Year…” is a metaphor for __________.
Question 34 The variation of a poem’s sentence structure is referred to as its syntactical structure.
Question 35 Frost uses direct methods to communicate his theme in “Stopping by Woods on a Snowy Evening.”
Question 36 Lines 1¬4 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: THE WORLD is charged with the grandeur of God / It will flame out, like shining from shook foil; / It gathers to a greatness, like the ooze of oil / Crushed. Why do men then now not reck his rod?” The word “rod” is a metaphor or symbol for __________.
Question 37 “Life has loveliness to sell” is an excerpt from “Last Duchess.”
Question 38 In “Ars Poetica,” _____ argues that poems are tropological, not logically propositional, in nature.
Question 39 Three analytical approaches are (1) focus, (2) content, and (3) style.
Question 40 In this poem, the poet or persona asks that God “o’erthrow” him, reclaim him as His own, and “marry” him.
Question 41 The poem, “God’s Grandeur,” was written by Emily Dickinson.
Question 42 A trope is a device in which one object or idea is compared with a dissimilar object or idea.
Question 43 “In the forests of the night, /What immortal hand or eye/ Dare frame thy fearful symmetry” is from what poem?
Question 44 Samuel Johnson defined poetry as “The art of uniting pleasure with truth by calling imagination to the help of reason.”
Question 45 Assonance is the close positioning of the same or similar vowel sounds.
Question 46 In order to understand meter, divide each line into feet and scan the feet.
Question 47 The following is an excerpt from Tennyson’s “Ulysses”: “I cannot rest from travel; I will drink/Life to the lees…”
Question 48 In the poem, “It Sifts from Leaden Sieves,” Dickinson compares snowfall to God’s righteousness covering the earth.
Question 49 The tiger in Blake’s poem of the same name symbolizes
Question 50 A synonym of hyperbole is overstatement.

The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
The dream in lines 11-20 is a miniature allegory that has several analogies to the world in which the boys live. The “Angel who had a bright key /And … open’d the coffins and set them all free” (line 13-14) represents __________.
In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
In lines 7-8, the narrator is trying to ________ Tom when he tells him, “Hush Tom never mind it, for when your head’s bare, / You know that the soot cannot spoil your white hair.”
In line 3, the boy is calling out his trade; instead of “sweep,” he cries “weep weep weep weep.” This is the poet’s way of telling the reader that __________.
Tropes demand intellectual involvement on the part of the reader.
The poem “Ode To A Nightingale” was written by
Emily Dickinson authored the poem,

Q2. Liberty University ENGL 102 test 3 complete solutions correct answers |Rated A+
Liberty University ENGL 102 test 3 complete solutions correct answers A+ work
Time limit: 1 hour and 30 minutes
50 multiple-choice, true/false, matching and reading comprehension questions
Open-book/open-notes
Do not hit the BACK button as this will lock you out of the test.
The timer will continue if you leave this test without submitting it.
Please use the following passage to answer the first 5 questions:
Reading Comprehension Question from the play Everyman (lines 22-79).
GOD: I perceive here in my majesty,
How that all the creatures be to me unkind,
Living without dread in worldly prosperity:
Of ghostly sight the people be so blind,
Drowned in sin, they know me not for their God;
In worldly riches is all their mind.
They fear not my righteousness, the sharp rod.
My law that I showed, when I for them died,
They forget clean, and shedding of my blood red;
I hanged between two, it cannot be denied;
To get them life I suffered to be dead;
I healed their feet, with thorns hurt was my head.
I could do no more than I did, truly;
And now I see the people do clean forsake me.
They use the seven deadly sins damnable,
As pride, covetise, wrath, and lechery
Now in the world be made commendable;
And thus they leave of angels the heavenly company.
Every man liveth so after his own pleasure,
And yet of their life they be nothing sure:
I see the more that I them forbear
The worse they be from year to year.

I hoped well that every man
In my glory should make his mansion,
And thereto I had them all elect;
But now I see, like traitors deject,
They thank me not for the pleasure that I to them meant,
Nor yet for their being that I them have lent;
I proffered the people great multitude of mercy,
And few there be that asketh it heartily;
They be so cumbered with worldly riches
That needs on them I must do justice,
On every man living without fear.
Where art thou, Death, thou mighty messenger?
[Enter Death]
DEATH: Almighty God, I am here at your will,
Your commandment to fulfill.
GOD: Go thou to Everyman,
And show him, in my name,
A pilgrimage he must … take

And that he bring with him a sure reckoning
DEATH: Lord, I will in the world go run overall,
And cruelly outsearch both great and small;
Everyman will I beset that liveth beastly
Out of God’s laws, and dreadeth not folly.
He that loveth riches I will strike with my dart,
His sight to blind, and from heaven to depart–
Except that alms be his good friend–
In hell for to dwell, world without end

Question 1
1.6 out of 1.6 points

In context, the phrase “Everyman … liveth beastly” means that
Selected Answer:
Question 2
0 out of 1.6 points

According to the excerpt, __________.
Selected Answer:
.
Question 3
1.6 out of 1.6 points

In context, the excerpt depicts Everyman as __________.
Selected Answer:
.
Question 4
0 out of 1.6 points

Choose one word that best explains why the people have rejected the “multitude of mercy” offered by the speaker?
Selected Answer:
Question 5
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Death’s vow to search for “both great and small,” never to relax at any point, means that
Selected Answer:
.
Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Aristotle, the Greek critic, said that a tragic hero should be a nobleman.
Selected Answer:
Question 7
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Oedipus asks Kreon to kill him, since suicide would be blasphemy against the gods.
Selected Answer:
Question 8
1.6 out of 1.6 points

“Quem Quoeritis” includes an exchange between Holy Women and Jesus.
Selected Answer:
Question 9
0 out of 1.6 points

Kreon and Teiresias (in the play Oedipus Rex) are a good example of the use of mute actors in ancient Greek drama.
Selected Answer:
Question 10
0 out of 1.6 points

According to Aristotle, a hero is not responsible for any criminal act he commits as long as he is not aware of its criminal nature.
Selected Answer:
Question 11
0 out of 1.6 points

Richard Caxton printed Everyman in English in the early 1600’s.
Selected Answer:
Question 12
1.6 out of 1.6 points

One of Sophocles’ contributions was the inclusion of female actors.
Selected Answer:
Question 13
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The Greek stage was limited in the use of props and scenery.
Selected Answer:
Question 14
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Which is not one of the Three Unities?
Selected Answer:
Question 15
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Goods states in the play Everyman: “Who calleth me? Everyman? What hast thou hast! / I lie here in corners, trussed and piled so high, / And in chest I am locked so fast, / Also sacked in bags, thou mayst see with thine eye, / I cannot stir; in packs low I lie. / What would ye have, lightly me say.” In context, this best satirizes
Selected Answer:
Question 16
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The major characters in Shakespeare’s tragedies are influenced by Aristotle’s concept of tragic hero.
Selected Answer:
Question 17
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Sophocles is noted for his clear and logical action that used political, religious, and personal elements.
Selected Answer:
Question 18
0 out of 1.6 points

The Greeks were a war-like culture and enjoyed seeing bloodshed on the stage.
Selected Answer:
Question 19
1.6 out of 1.6 points

In 1210, Pope Innocent III moved drama from the wagon processionals into the church buildings.
Selected Answer:
Question 20
1.6 out of 1.6 points

According to Plato, a Greek critic, a tragic hero must fall from high to low estate.
Selected Answer:
Question 21
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Elizabethan drama held to the single day theory of Classical drama.
Selected Answer:
Question 22
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Messenger speaks in Everyman saying: “I pray you all give your audience, / And here [hear] this matter with reverence, / By figure a moral play- / The Summoning of Everyman called it is,”
In context, the statement that the play is “By figure a moral play” means that
Selected Answer:
Question 23
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The name “Oedipus” means swollen hand.
Selected Answer:
Question 24
1.6 out of 1.6 points

A messenger tells Oedipus that the king’s (Oedipus’s) father, _____, is dead.
Selected Answer:
Question 25
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The Greek play began with the parados.
Selected Answer:
Question 26
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Everyman states in the play Everyman: “ O gracious God, in the high seat celestial, / Have mercy on me in this most need; / Shall I have no company from this vale terrestrial / Of mine acquaintance that way to me lead?”
In this excerpt, Everyman pleads to God to allow help from ________.
Selected Answer:
Question 27
1.6 out of 1.6 points

In the play Oedipus the Chorus make this remark about Oedipus: “Your splendor is all fallen / O naked brow of wrath and tears,/ O change of Oedipus!” In context, what has happened to Oedipus?
Selected Answer:
Question 28
1.6 out of 1.6 points

With the decline and fall of Rome, drama – either as an institution or a literature – ceased to exist.
Selected Answer:
Question 29
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Greek theatre was limited to three actors, although a dramatist could use as many mute actors as he wished.
Selected Answer:
Question 30
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Aeschylus was a student of Sophocles.
Selected Answer:
Question 31
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The end of a Greek play is called Exodos.
Selected Answer:
Question 32
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Aeschylus introduces a second character to the performances.
Selected Answer:
Question 33
1.6 out of 1.6 points

According to the messenger in Everyman, the actual title of the play is:
Selected Answer:
The Summoning of Everyman
Question 34
1.6 out of 1.6 points

In a carefully crafted Greek play, no god ever actively impacts the outcome of a hero’s challenges.
Selected Answer:
Question 35
1.6 out of 1.6 points

According to Everyman, there are _____ sacraments.
Selected Answer:
Question 36
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Greek actors used giant masks to indicate their character types or emotions.
Selected Answer:
Question 37
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The plot of Oedipus Rex has been called one of the most perfect dramatic plots ever conceived.
Selected Answer:
Question 38
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Dionysus was the god of dance.
Selected Answer:
Question 39
1.6 out of 1.6 points

According to the “Three Unities,” action was restricted to one main action with few or no subplots.
Selected Answer:
Question 40
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Which character in Everyman says to Everyman: “Fear not; I will speak for thee.”
Selected Answer:
Question 41
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Othello is known to be honest, open, sincere, and overly trusting.
Selected Answer:
Question 42
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The play Everyman opens with a statement by Messenger that the “intent” of the play is “gracious / And sweet to bear away.” This means the purpose of the play is
Selected Answer:
.
Question 43
0 out of 1.6 points

According to Fellowship in Everyman, what is duty?
Selected Answer:
Question 44
0 out of 1.6 points

The play Oedipus opens with the following speech by Oedipus: “My children, generations of living / In the line of Kadmos, nursed at his ancient hearth: / Why have you strewn yourself before these altars / In supplication, with your boughs and garlands? / The breath of incense rises from the city / With a sound of prayer and lamentation.” What is Oedipus’ attitude and tone in his speech?
Selected Answer:
Question 45
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Strength speaks in Everyman saying: “You spend your speech and waste your brain.” In context, this means that
Selected Answer:
Question 46
0 out of 1.6 points

In the play Oedipus the Chorus say: “Alas the seed of men./…/ That breathe on void and are void / And exist and do not exist?” In context, what do lines 2-3 — “That breathe on void and are void / And exist and do not exist?”—mean?
Selected Answer:
.
Question 47
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The name of the blind seer in Oedipus is Kreon.
Selected Answer:
Question 48
0 out of 1.6 points

Greek tragedy encouraged the use of comedy and tragedy in the same play to show the duality of human nature.
Selected Answer:
Question 49
1.6 out of 1.6 points

The play Oedipus opens with the following speech by Oedipus: “… Children,/ I would not have you speak trough messengers, / And therefore I have come myself to hear you- / I, Oedipus, who bear the famous name. / (To a Priest.) You, there, since you are the eldest in the company, / Speak for them all, tell me what preys upon you.” The “Priest” may be described as
Selected Answer:
Question 50
1.6 out of 1.6 points

Arion added an actor to the chorus’ music and dancing.
Selected Answer:

Q3. Professional Experience #4
Steps to Complete Professional Experience Four
Step one: Click on the link in the “Link to OneDrive” section above. The link will take you to a OneDrive folder titled Week 7. Review the sample outline document provided in this folder.
Step two: Create an outline (Refer to the Outline Guidelines, below, for details) for your Week 8 presentation based on Week 6’s “Social Media” PowerPoint presentation (a video preview is available under the Week 7 tab in Blackboard). https://cdnapisec.kaltura.com/index.php/extwidget/preview/partner_id/956951/uiconf_id/38285871/entry_id/1_1yd1tq3f/embed/dynamic
• You may use the provided Presentation Outline Sample posted below or develop a different outline on your own.
Step three: Save your file to your desktop using the following file name format: Your_Name_Presentation_Outline.
• Example file name: Ed_Buchanan_Presentation_Outline
• Make sure that you leave the “Comments” column blank.
Step four: After you have completed your presentation outline, upload it to the “Completed Outlines” folder on OneDrive.

Step five: Submit your completed outline for your instructor’s review using the Professional Experience #4 link in the Week 7 tab in Blackboard.
Outline Guidelines
• Use Microsoft Word or Excel only to complete your outline.
• Use short bullet points, rather than long paragraphs.
• Focus only on the key points in your Week 6 presentation; avoid discussing less important details
• Refer to the example outline posted for you in the Week 7 OneDrive folder
• Base your submission on the outline format in the example or create your own for this Professional Experience
In order to earn your points for completing this task, you must do the following:
• Use the proper naming convention: Your_Name_Presentation_Outline
• Leave the “Comments” column blank
• Follow the outline guidelines above
• Upload your outline to the “Completed Outlines” folder on OneDrive
• Submit your completed outline to Blackboard using the Professional Experience #4 link in the Week 7 tab

Q4 Social Psychology assignment
Details:
Visit the website of The Random Acts of Kindness Foundation, an organization dedicated to altruistic pursuits.
Review the information, literature, and downloadable documents.
Design your own assignment in which you implement five acts of kindness (prosocial behavior). Use your discretion, common sense, and modesty at all times. Do not put yourself in an environment of potential danger or harm.
Write a paper of 500-750 words, in which you:
1. Describe your implementation of kindness: what did you do, how did you approach the idea, where did you implement it and to whom?
2. Describe the reactions you perceived from others and yourself.
3. Describe what you learned about prosocial behavior from this exercise. Compare the actual application of the behavior relative to this topic material.
4. If you are a faith-based person, explain how your faith helped you implement your helping behavior. If you are not a faith-based person, explain what philosophy, belief system, or values you connected to helping behavior.
When writing in APA style, it is important that your analysis is written in third person. Writing in third person helps with clarity and conciseness throughout your paper. However, some instances writing in first person is acceptable and should be used sparingly. Solid academic writing is expected, and documentation of sources should be presented using APA formatting guidelines.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin.

Q5. English 102 Test 2
English 102 Test 2 Questions and Answers
Examples:
• Question 6
1.6 out of 1.6 points
Meter refers to the regular beats that occur in a poem.

Selected Answer: *****
Lines 7-8 of Gerard Manley Hopkins’ “God’s Grandeur” reads: And wears man’s smudge and shares man’s smell: the soil / Is bare now, nor can foot feel, being shod.” “The soil / Is bare” because __________.
Selected Answer: *****

Q6. ESSAY 1 INSTRUCTIONS AND CHECKLIST Proposal Argument

In preparation for Essay 1 and by completing your textbook readings, you will be equipped to respond by objectively compiling information from a variety of sources to compose an essay demonstrating that you understand and practice reading, writing, and rhetoric within the context of a biblical worldview; apply methods of sound reasoning; produce well-structured essays; integrate sources accurately and effectively; write with clarity; recognize standard usage in English grammar, word choice (diction), phraseology, and sentence structure; and apply knowledge of sentence structure to basic sentence editing and revision (Syllabus MLOs: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and Module/Week 3 LOs: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5).

ESSAY 1 INSTRUCTIONS AND CHECKLIST
Proposal Argument
In preparation for Essay 1 and by completing your textbook readings, you will be equipped to respond by objectively compiling information from a variety of sources to compose an essay demonstrating that you understand and practice reading, writing, and rhetoric within the context of a biblical worldview; apply methods of sound reasoning; produce well-structured essays; integrate sources accurately and effectively; write with clarity; recognize standard usage in English grammar, word choice (diction), phraseology, and sentence structure; and apply knowledge of sentence structure to basic sentence editing and revision (Syllabus MLOs: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and Module/Week 3 LOs: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5).

Assignment

In Module/Week 3, you will write a 1,000–1,200-word proposal argument essay from the thesis/outline that you submitted in Module/Week 2. Please note the word count does not include citations.

Proposal Argument Prompt

Write a proposal argument about what the government should do to relieve the student loan burden. Use the readings on pages 569–585 to support your thesis statement and provide opposing viewpoints. Be sure to integrate a total of 4 quotations, summaries and/or paraphrases from the readings. Be sure to document your sources correctly according to your documentation style (Current APA, MLA, or Turabian).

As you compose your essay, be sure to:

• Include all parts identified in “Structuring a Proposal Argument” found on page 561 in your Practical Argument textbook.
• Include at least 4 quotations, summaries, and/or paraphrases from the readings on pages 569–585 to support your thesis statement and provide opposing argument(s).
• Follow the appropriate formatting style for your degree program (Current MLA, APA, or Turabian).
• Use signal phrases and proper in-text citations; make sure you include a references (Current APA), bibliography (Current Turabian) or works cited (Current MLA) page.
• Use the Essay 1 Grading Rubric and the proofreading checklist (provided below) to draft and revise your essay. Please note the essay proofreading checklist is not exactly the same as the outline proofreading checklist, so be sure to review it carefully.
• Type your degree program and which style of writing you are using (current MLA, APA, or Turabian) in the title of the saved document and in the “Submission Title” field on the submission link in Blackboard.

IMPORTANT: Fully cite all quotations, summaries, and paraphrases used within your essay, or those excerpts will be regarded as plagiarism and will result in a “0” on your essay and possible course failure.
Proofreading Checklist
Part 1

Read through your paper and check the appropriate boxes on the chart below. If any area of your paper needs revision, make sure you correct it before submitting your essay. One of the best ways to proofread your writing is to read it backwards to forwards, sentence-by-sentence. This helps you to see words and ideas that you may have missed. Another very successful tool for proofreading is to read your work out loud to someone else. Individuals often think that handing their paper to someone and asking him or her to read it is the same thing, but it is not. Instead, ask someone to listen while you read your own words. You will immediately hear what you missed or will want to improve in your writing.
Reading & Study Application Successful Needs Revision
1. Introduction: Establishes the context of the proposal and presents the essay’s thesis
2. Explanation of the problem: Identifies the problem and explains why it needs to be solved
3. Explanation of the solution: Proposes a solution and explains how it will solve the problem
4. Evidence in support of the solution: Presents support for the proposed solution. Integrates a total of at least 4 quotes, summaries, and/or paraphrases from the reading assignments.
5. Benefits of the solution: Explains the positive results of the proposed course of action
6. Refutation of opposing arguments: Addresses objections to the proposal
7. Conclusion: Reinforces the main point of the proposal; includes a strong concluding statement
8. Contains pathos (emotional) appeals, ethos (values/belief) appeals, and/or logos (factual) appeals as appropriate
9. Title reflects issue and proposal information
10. Uses only third person pronouns (all first and second person pronouns have been removed)
11. If using current APA format, contains properly formatted, title, abstract, and References page.
If using MLA format, contains a properly formatted Works Cited page
If using Turabian format, contains a properly formatted title page and Bibliography page
12. Double spaced
13. Font is 12-point Times New Roman
14. References/Works Cited/ Bibliography page includes all sources cited within the body of the essay
15. Checked spelling, grammar/mechanics

Part 2
When you are satisfied with the quality of your essay, post it to Blackboard via the SafeAssign link for grading. Do not forget to write your degree program and whether you are using current MLA, APA, or Turabian on the title page and in the “Submission Title” field when submitting your paper.
Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 3.

Q7. Thinking Critically 1

For this assignment, you will choose and answer 3 questions based on the reading and viewingassignments listed below.

Each answer should be a minimum of 3 paragraphs that are 3–5 sentences in length.
Read Chapter 1 of the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. Describe what convergence has meant in your life and how it affects you.
2. Does the SMCR model adequately explain social media?
3. Is social media a fundamentally new type of communication or not? Justify.
Read Chapter 2 from the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. How has the hegemony of ideas affected you personally?
Read Chapter 3 of the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. Which culture should receive the most credit for the invention of printing? Explain.
2. Debate the following proposition: Books are an obsolete medium.
Read Chapter 4 from the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. What is the proper role of a free press in a democratic society?
2. Go through your local newspaper—in print, on the Internet, or mobile device—and describe the objective of each section. How do local newspapers differ from national ones in content?
3. What does it mean for journalists to be the watchdogs?
Read Chapter 5 from the Straubhaar et al. text.
1. How do conglomerates affect print publishing? What are the positives and negatives associated with conglomerates?
View the videos The Future of Journalism and Hate the media? So do I and I’m a reporter.
1. Discuss your position on the place for investigative journalism in the future. Explain how you either agree or disagree with Tom Rosenstiehl when he says digital technology caused the problems in current journalism BUT that digital technology will also solve the problems?
2. If you agree with Abbie Boudreau about the problems in media today, give some examples of what you might do to repair the problems and restore respect to journalistic endeavors.

Submit Thinking Critically 1 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 1.
Q8. ENG 101 THESIS/OUTLINE

ESSAY 2 THESIS/OUTLINE INSTRUCTIONS AND CHECKLIST
Ethical Argument

In preparation for Essay 2 and by completing your textbook readings, you will be equipped to respond by objectively compiling information from a variety of sources to compose an essay demonstrating that you understand and practice reading, writing, and rhetoric within the context of a biblical worldview; apply methods of sound reasoning; produce well-structured essays; integrate sources accurately and effectively; write with clarity; recognize standard usage in English grammar, word choice (diction), phraseology, and sentence structure; and apply knowledge of sentence structure to basic sentence editing and revision (Syllabus MLOs: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and Module/Week 4 LOs: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5).

In Module/Week 4, you will write a thesis statement and outline for the ethical argument essay that you will write in the next module/week.

Develop an outline for your ethical argument essay that includes a clear thesis statement and a plan of support. Be sure to include all parts identified in “Structuring an Ethical Argument” on page 599 in your Practical Argument textbook. In addition, include at least 4 quotations, 1 summary, and 1 paraphrase (6 total) into your essay from at least 3 outside sources to support your thesis statement and provide opposing arguments. Be sure to document your sources correctly according to your documentation style (APA, MLA, or Turabian). Your outside sources can include scholarly sources and the Bible. (Note: Wikipedia is NOT an acceptable source for academic writing.)

Ethical Essay Prompt

Write an ethical argument in which you consider the topic, “How far should scientists go to modify humans through genetic engineering?” Use the websites included in the Reading & Study folder, your own academic research, and the Bible to include at least 4 quotations, 1 summary, and 1 paraphrase (6 total) from at least 3 sources. Be sure to document your sources correctly according to your documentation style (current APA, MLA, or Turabian).

Instructions

After reading pages 599–607 in your Practical Argument textbook and the 5 websites in the Module/Week 4 Reading & Study folder, you will be prepared to plan your own ethical argument about the topic, “How far should scientists go to modify humans through genetic engineering?”

When planning your outline, review the reading assignment with special attention to page 590—What is Ethical Argument?, page 591—Stating and Ethical Principle, and page 599—Structuring an Ethical Argument.

Next, do some preliminary research about your topic including the websites in the Module/Week 4 Reading & Study folder and scholarly resources such as those found on the Jerry Falwell Library. In addition, you are encouraged to use the Bible as a resource for your ethical argument development.

Finally, create an outline that includes a clear thesis statement and a plan of support. Be sure to include all of the parts identified in “Structuring an Ethical Argument” found on page 599 in your Practical Argument textbook.

Review the Outline Suggestions and Proofreading Checklist (below) and the Essay 2 Thesis/Outline Grading Rubric before submitting your thesis/outline in Blackboard.

Proofreading Checklist

Part 1

Read through your outline and check the appropriate boxes on the chart below. If any area of your outline needs revision, make sure you correct it before submitting your assignment. Taking the time to construct a complete and thorough outline will help you save time when you write the actual essay.

Reading & Study Application Successful Needs Revision
1. Thesis statement: Clearly states your argument (claim) about the topic.
2. Background: Gives an overview of the situation.
3. Ethical analysis: Explains the ethical principle and analyzes the particular situation on the basis of this principle.
4. Evidence: Presents points that support the thesis (Integrates at least 4 quotes, 1 summary, and 1 paraphrase from at least 3 outside sources).
5. Refutation of opposing arguments: Addresses arguments against the thesis.
6. Conclusion: Restates the ethical principle as well as the thesis (not in the exact words); includes a strong concluding statement.
7. Contains pathos (emotional) appeals, ethos (values/belief) appeals, and/or logos (factual) appeals as appropriate.
8. Title reflects issue and proposal information.
9. Uses only third person pronouns (all first and second person pronouns have been removed).
10. If using current APA format, contains properly formatted, title, abstract, and References page.
If using MLA format, contains a properly formatted Works Cited page.
If using Turabian format, contains a properly formatted title page and Bibliography page.
11. Double-spaced.
12. Font is 12-point Times New Roman.
13. References/Works Cited/ Bibliography page includes all sources cited within the body of the essay.
14. Checked spelling, grammar/mechanics.

Part 2

When you are satisfied with the quality of your outline, submit it to Blackboard. Do not forget to write your degree program and whether you are using current MLA, APA, or Turabian on the title page and in the “Submission Title” field when submitting your paper.

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4.
Q9. Fallacies and Rhetoric
Choose an advertisement that contains at least three or four rhetorical devices or fallacies (but more would be better!), from a newspaper or a magazine (in which case you should scan the ad, save it as a PDF, and submit it with your assignment) or an online source (in which case you should include the EXACT URL with your assignment, pasted as a link with the assignment). You CANNOT use video ads for this assignment if you plan to complete the extra credit opportunity associated with this assignment (explained below). So, if you plan to do the extra credit, you must choose an ad that is an image, not a video.
• The advertisement must be made after 1990 (no ads produced before 1990).
• The advertisement must be in ENGLISH. Otherwise, your analysis cannot be graded.
Analyze the ad for uses of rhetorical devices or fallacies. Explain which devices you see in the ad, making sure to be specific in your analysis. You must clearly identify the specific parts of the advertisement that you find rhetorical or fallacious.
In addition to identifying any rhetorical devices and fallacies, analyze the ad in terms of the following:
Who is targeted in the ad (who is the target audience?)?
What psychological effect does the ad have on the audience?
What subconscious needs or desires among the audience does the ad seem to be playing upon?
The written analysis must be at least 1000 words (to earn minimum credit for this assignment). Of course, paste your analysis into the “Submission” portion of this assignment page.
WANT SOME EXTRA CREDIT POINTS?!? Then, create a new ad (actually make the new ad) for the product advertized in the original ad. Your new ad should be targeted toward a critical thinker. Therefore, your new ad should not use any rhetorical devices or fallacies to persuade the audience. Instead, your new ad should present a well-reasoned, well-supported argument for why a critical thinker should buy the product. You will probably have to do research to create the argument. You may also need to change the visual images or pictures from the original add (feel free to use pictures from whatever source you like….just be sure that the images you choose do not have any manipulative rhetorical effect on the audience.). The goal of the new ad should be to present an argument, not to persuade! Scan your new ad, save it as a PDF and send it as an attachment, or create your new ad on your computer, save it as a PDF, and attach it to your assignment. You can earn anywhere up to 25 points, depending on the quality of the argument in the new ad, and the quality of the ad itself

Q10. topic analysis help needed
RESEARCH PAPER: TOPIC ANALYSIS INSTRUCTIONS
You will choose a topic related to the field of mass communication that you wish to analyze for your Topic Analysis Paper and submit it to the instructor for approval through the Research Paper Approval assessment.
Once your topic is approved, you may begin your research. You will compose a research paper in current APA format that includes a single introduction and conclusion paragraph as well as a title and reference page. The paper must be at least 6 pages, not including the title page and reference page.
The body of your paper will be split up in APA level headings according to sub points of your topic and analysis. You will be required to cite a minimum of 6 peer-reviewed sources that are less than 5 years old both in-text and list them on your reference page. Your textbook may be used as a reference in this paper; however, it does not count as one of the 6 required resources. Wikipedia may not be used as a source.
Submission
Review the Topic Analysis Grading Rubric before submitting this assignment. Attach your research paper as a Word file to Blackboard via the assignment submission link. Do not copy and paste your paper in the textbox. You must attach your paper as a file attachment.

Submit your topic for instructor approval by indicating it in the Research Paper Approval assessment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the Module/Week 4.

Submit this Topic Analysis assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 6.

1. Topic is : How is social media changing family relationships? (definition)

Topic Analysis Presentation Instructions
The student will prepare a presentation based on the content of his/her Topic Analysis paper. The presentation will be a visual and auditory presentation of the important points of the Topic Analysis Paper.
The student may choose the presentation method from Power Point, prezi or video.
The presentation will be created as one of the following:
a powerpoint with voice narration (6-10 slides),
OR
a prezi presentation with voice narration, (6-10 minutes in length)
OR
a video presentation (6-10 minutes in length) created with a webcam, laptop camera or cellphone.

HISTORY
Q1. Washingtons Farewell Address Analysis GOVT 200

Washington’s Farewell Address Analysis Instructions
For this assignment, you will analyze the major points of George Washington’s “Farewell Address” and write a 3-page analysis, considering contemporary government and including differing points of view. Be sure to adhere to the format specified in the Course Style Guidelines document.

Your analysis must adhere to the following specifications:
• No more than 3 double-spaced pages (12-point font with 1-inch margins).
• Must include a title page (not counted in total page number) that contains:
o A title,
o Your name,
o Your section (GOVT 200-S02),
o Your instructor’s name, and
o The date the assignment is due (all single-spaced in the footer of the cover page).
• No page number is necessary for the cover page or for the first page in the body of the paper.
• Pay particular attention to the grading rubric for how your paper will be graded.

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 4.

Q2. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 7: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following best represents the link between the Renaissance and the Protestant Reformation?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following best explains why the Renaissance first originated when and where it did?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Late Middle Ages,” the Hundred Years War was fundamentally a struggle over
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” a major difference between the Renaissance in the north and the Italian Renaissance was that northern humanism emphasized
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following is the best description of Renaissance humanism?
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Late Middle Ages,” the Hundred Years’ War was a conflict between which two groups?
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
An image from the period was used to introduce “Italian and Northern Renaissance.” Which painting was used and why?
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Italian and Northern Renaissance,” which of the following is NOT true of Erasmus?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Late Middle Ages,” which of the following was listed as important conditions and causes of the Black Death?
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Late Middle Ages,” while the French victory resulted in a weaker monarchy, their opponents formed a stronger monarchy after the war.

Q3. RLGN 104 Test 1: Religion: Liberty University / Liberty University RLGN104 Quiz 1 (Already Graded A)

RLGN 104 Test 1: Religion: Liberty University / Liberty University RLGN104 Quiz 1

• Question 1

This course (Apologetics 104) will be approaching the issue of “worldview” ….
• Question 2

When Jesus presented the gospel most people accepted it the first time they heard it.
• Question 3

Christian faith is simply a personal preference, a function of how one was raised, and a worldview that is only supported by emotional considerations.
• Question 4

When presenting the gospel to people Christians should be:
• Question 5

Apologetics for some is not discovered or understood until after they make a profession of faith. However, apologetics is important for all Christians to engage the culture.
• Question 6
A translation of the Bible is most accurate when translated by one, highly educated, highly qualified individual.
• Question 7

Hermeneutics is the method of interpreting the Bible.
• Question 8

When Jesus spoke as “one who had authority”:
• Question 9

The church fathers showed that they understood the importance of Jesus’ historicity when they crafted the _______________ Creed
• Question 10

According to Powell, the majority of Christian apologetics takes place in academic classrooms.
• Question 11

Because of the respect that people had for the Apostle Paul his message of Jesus Christ was accepted by almost everyone who heard him.
• Question 12

In describing “truth”, Powell states:
• Question 13

Preaching “the Word” only refers to the Old Testament since the writing of II Timothy 4:2 was before the New Testament was completed.
• Question 14

A Biblical Worldview is a perspective or viewpoint based upon the teachings of the Bible.
• Question 15

According to Powell, “reason” is not the enemy of “faith”.
• Question 16

Upon returning to the Decapolis region a second time after healing the crazed man who had been cutting himself with rocks, Jesus:
• Question 17

One of the first tasks of Christian apologetics is to provide information.
• Question 18

According to Powell, Christianity can be understood as an “antidote” rather than a lifestyle choice or part of a well-balanced religious view.
• Question 19

When Jesus healed the crazed man who lived in a graveyard near Decapolis the people of the city:
• Question 20

According to Dr. Weider the Christian faith is both reasonable and defendable.

Q4. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 8: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 8: Liberty University
Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “The Age of Discovery,” what factors listed below contributed to European expansion?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Protestant Reformation,” there were important links between the Renaissance and the Reformation. Which of the following was part of that connection?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following best represents the significance of the Peace of Augsburg of 1555?
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “The Age of Discovery,” Prince Henry the Navigator:
• Question 5

According to “Reformation in Europe,” Reformation in France was characterized by
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “The Age of Discovery,” one of the most important economic theories that contributed to European expansion was mercantile capitalism.
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” the early Jesuits viewed themselves as
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” which of the following most accurately reflects the history of the Catholic Church prior to 1650?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” there were two major developments that strengthened the movement in the 1500s. They were
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Catholic Reformation,” while historians disagree over which events were most important, most agree that the changes in the Catholic Church in the 16th century were almost exclusively a reaction to the Protestant Reformation.

1. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following was NOT included in the discussion of Luther’s teachings in the lecture presentation on the Protestant Reformation?

2. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following contributed to the papal crisis of credibility?

3. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following does NOT accurately describe Martin Luther?

4. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following was NOT part of the context for reform?

5. According to “Reformation in Europe,” who started the teachings of the Reformation in Switzerland?

6. According to “Protestant Reformation,” which of the following was NOT true of John Wycliffe and Jan Hus?

7. According to “The Age of Discovery,” which of the following was an effect of European expansion?

8.
According to “Catholic Reformation,” Cardinal Cisneros of Spain believed that the key to improving the quality of the clergy was

Q5. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 3: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Hellenistic Age,” Philip II
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Carthage was located in Greece.
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” the Greek philosopher Aristotle served as tutor to Alexander the Great.
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Punic Wars,” when did Hannibal invaded Italy?
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander the Great formed the Hellenic League.
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Roman Republic,” Rome’s origins are obscured by myth.
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” who were the plebians?
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” who were the patricians?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander defeated this Persian king.
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander died in this city.

• Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Punic Wars,” the worst military defeat in Roman history occurred at
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Carthage was located in Greece.
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” in the early Roman Republic, the chief magistrates were
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” the Greek philosopher Aristotle served as tutor to Alexander the Great.
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” this man became the first emperor of Rome.
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Roman Republic,” Rome’s origins are obscured by myth.
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Rome fought the Punic Wars against Carthage.
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Punic Wars,” the Third Punic War ended with
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander the Great formed the Hellenic League.
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Roman Republic,” who were the patricians?

Question 1 1.5 out of 1.5 points True or False: According to “Punic Wars,” Carthage was located in Greece.

Question 2 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander’s army went as far east as

Question 3 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Roman Republic,” who were the patricians?

Question 4 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Roman Republic,” this group sacked Rome early in the republic period.

Question 5 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Punic Wars,” the First Punic War involved a dispute over this territory.

Question 6 1.5 out of 1.5 points True or False: According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander the Great formed the Hellenic League.

Question 7 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Punic Wars,” the Third Punic War ended with

Question 8 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Roman Republic,” who were the plebians?

Question 9 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander died in this city.

Question 10 1.5 out of 1.5 points According to “Punic Wars,” when did Hannibal invaded Italy?

1. According to your textbook, Cleopatra was the last Ptolemaic ruler in Egypt.
2. Alexander’s tutor was
3. When Roman armies defeated Carthage, Rome ordered all of the following except
4. According to your textbook, Alexander’s conquests extended from his homeland down into Egypt and as far east as India.
5. According to the textbook, Rome became a Republic when the plebians overthrew the ruling patricians and began determining law for themselves.
6. According to your textbook, Rome, conqueror of the Mediterranean world, rejected the universalist tendencies of the Hellenistic Age.
7. The First Punic War began because
8. The textbook characterizes Tiberius and Gaius Gracchus as moderate reformers trying to deal with real social problems.
9. Rome’s military advantages over their opponents can best be summed up by which of these phrases?
10. According to your textbook, in the Hellenistic Age, the intermingling of Greeks and peoples from the Near East caused Greeks to think of themselves as members of a world community.

1. The Roman Struggle of the Orders involved
2. According to your textbook, as a result of the spread of Greek civilization, local customs and languages disappeared in the East.
3. According to your textbook, the three phases of Greek civilization are the Dark Age, the Golden Age, and the Hellenistic Age.
4. According to your textbook, the conflict between Rome and Carthage was primarily a result of the competition between the two nations for trade in the western Mediterranean.
5. According to the textbook, what aspects of Hellenism facilitated the rise of Christianity?
6. Examples of Hellenistic influence on some Jews include all of the following except
7. According to your textbook, the Struggle of the Orders was finally settled when wealth was distributed more evenly between patricians and plebeians.
8. For the most part, the Romans responded to Greek culture
9. The achievements of Hellenistic scientists
10. The culture that had the earliest notable influence on Rome was _____ culture.

1. True or False: According to the lecture, “Hellenistic Age,” the Greek philosopher Aristotle served as tutor to Alexander the Great.
2. According to the lecture, “Roman Republic,” who were the plebians?
3. According to the lecture, “Hellenistic Age,” Alexander defeated this Persian king.
4. According to the lecture, “Punic Wars,” when did Hannibal invaded Italy?
5. According to the lecture, “Punic Wars,” the Third Punic War ended with
6. True or False: According to the website, ”Josephus-Antiquities of the Jews,” Darius was defeated by Alexander the Great and his mother, wife and children taken captive by the Macedonians.
7. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” who was responsible for the expenditure of public funds?
8. True or False: According to the website, ”Josephus-Antiquities of the Jews” Alexander the Great conquered Jerusalem and put the high priest, Jaddua, to death.
9. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” who was responsible for trying crimes, such as treason, conspiracy, poisoning, etc?
10. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” which of the following offices was in charge of all public affairs?

1. According to the textbook, the Roman constitution was

2. Among the scientific work of the Greeks during the Hellenistic age, one may find

3. Historians divide Roman history into two broad periods:

4. According to your textbook, the Romans treated the Italian peoples they conquered as potential allies, to be integrated into Roman society.

5. According to your textbook, Hellenistic cosmopolitanism was characterized by both an increased movement of peoples and an expansion of trade.

6. The composition of the Twelve Tables was a political victory for the plebeians because

7. For the most part, the Romans responded to Greek culture

8. According to your textbook, Hellenistic philosophy was more concerned with politics and the state than with an individual’s peace of mind.

9. According to your textbook, at least one Hellenistic geographer estimated the circumference of the earth with remarkable accuracy.

10. According to the website, ”Josephus-Antiquities of the Jews” upon entering and staying at Jerusalem, which prophetic book was shown to Alexander, signifying, to him, the success of his mission to defeat Persia?

11. According to the website, ”Polybius-The Constitution of the Roman Republic” who has authority of ther ratifying of laws?

Q6. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 1: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to the lecture, “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” which seafaring people, mentioned in the Old and New Testaments, gave us the writing system based on sound, rather than pictures?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who were considered a “deadly force of ruthless attackers”?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” which empire brought conflict to Egypt and were the first to fashion iron weapons?
• Question 4
0 out of 2.6 points
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” which of the following peoples contributed the greatest legacy to Western civilization?
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who was the greatest Chaldean ruler, who sacked Jerusalem and took many Israelites into captivity?
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” which of the following is NOT one of the legacies of the Persian Empire?
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” the purpose of this course is to consider all important civilizations from around the world.
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Empire Builders of the Near East,” who built the very first, world empire?
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” where did most civilizations rise up?
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “Earliest Civilizations of the Near East,” Sumer, the foundation for Mesopotamian culture, was located in which region?

Q7. HIEU 201 Chapter 15 quiz: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

HIEU 201 Chapter 15 quiz: Liberty University

1.
European expansion in the fifteenth and sixteenth centuries was promoted by

2.
Columbus’s discovery made Spain a wealthy and powerful nation, because

3.
Hidalgos were

4.
Convertible husbandry

5.
Fifteenth-and sixteenth-century innovations in business methods included all of the following EXCEPT

6.
Commercial development in Spain was inhibited by

7.
The development of capitalism was encouraged by

8.
The traditional relationship between elite and fold cultures changed in the sixteenth century when

9.
The principal reason why France was not as well placed as England to benefit from commercial expansion was

10.
Thomas Mun was among the first Europeans to discern the virtues of

11.
The high demand for armaments was sustained in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries by

12.
Prince Henry the Navigator was associated with the expansion efforts of

13.
Francisco Pizarro was

14.
The European traffic in African slaves

15.
The price revolution of the sixteenth century resulted primarily from

16.
Enclosure was the process by which

17.
The domestic system contributed to the growth of capitalism because it

18.
The price revolution may have resulted partially from the influx of ______ from New Spain

19.
Over the centuries leading up to the early modern period

20.
The church’s view of witchcraft was that

Q8. HIEU 201 Chapter 14 quiz: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

HIEU 201 Chapter 14 quiz: Liberty University

1.
With respect to religiosity and women

2.
Luther’s propositions for reform of Christianity include the idea that

3.
The German peasants’ revolt of 1524-1526

4.
In Geneva, Calvin established a form of government that is best described as

5.
Catherine de’ Medici

6.
The policies of the Catholic Church during the Counter-Reformation include all of the following EXCEPT

7.
The Council of Trent met to

8.
Luther wrote all of the following EXCEPT

9.
First and foremost, Lutheranism was a

10.
Swiss reformer Ulrich Zwingli

11.
The millenarians believed that

12.
Luther’s attack on indulgences was prompted primarily by

13.
The doctrine of predestination is based on the premise that

14.
Nobles were motivated to support the Reformation because

15.
Calvin’s concept of predestination influenced his followers to

16.
The Huguenots

17.
During the reign of Henry VIII, the English Reformation

18.
The beliefs of radical Protestants such as the Anabaptists

19.
The Jesuits were a

20.
The Reformation influenced the development of the modern world indirectly by

Q9. HIEU 201 Chapter 12 quiz: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

1.
Among the consequences of the Black Death were

2.
In the Late Middle Ages

3.
Peasant rebellions broke out when

4.
Joan of Arc (1412-1431)

5.
Unam Santa (1302)

6.
In his The Defender of the Peace, Marsiglio of Padua

7.
The Babylonian Captivity (1309-1377) refers to a period when

8.
The Conciliar Movement

9.
The Lollards were

10.
William of Ockham’s main purpose in writing that reason could not prove the existence of God was to

11.
Feudal traditions

12.
Feudalism contributed to the development of free political institutions because

13.
Which of the following statements concerning social unrest in the Late Middle Ages is true?

14.
All of the following is true of the Late Middle Ages EXCEPT

15.
The outcome of the conflicts between Boniface VIII and Philip IV of France

16.
The Great Schism came to an end

17.
Wycliffe and Hus

18.
Duns Scotus (1265-1308) held that human reason

19.
Late medieval technology was influenced by Christianity in that

20.
Which of the following events occurred last?

Q10. HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 6: Liberty University (Already Graded A)

HIEU 201 Lecture quiz 6: Liberty University
Question 1
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the study of theology and philosophy in the university was based on three kinds of sources. Which of the following was NOT one of those sources?
• Question 2
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to the broad definition of crusade given in “The Crusades,” which of the following best describes the most distinctive characteristic of a crusade?
• Question 3
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the goal of scholasticism was to
• Question 4
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to ”Power Struggle,” which of the following best describes the result of the failure of the Islamic Empire to spread to the West?
• Question 5
2.6 out of 2.6 points
True or False: According to “The Crusades,” there is significant support for the view that the Crusades initiated Muslim animosity toward Christians.
• Question 6
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “The Crusades,” which of the following was the earliest example of crusading fervor?
• Question 7
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the primary motivation for the development of the new style of architecture called Gothic was to
• Question 8
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” the most significant development in the area of learning in the High Middle Ages was
• Question 9
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to “High Middle Ages,” which of the following was NOT one of the areas of achievement covered in the lecture presentation on the High Middle Ages?
• Question 10
2.6 out of 2.6 points
According to ”Power Struggle,” which of the following countries remained largely disunified throughout the Middle Ages?

1. All of the following occurred in the High Middle Ages EXCEPT that

2. According to the lecture presentation, “High Middle Ages,” the two earliest examples of the university were at

3. According to “The Crusades,” which of the following is NOT a feature of a crusade from the 11th century?

4. According to “Power Struggle,” which of the following was an important bulwark against the pressing tide of the Islamic Empire in the East, allowing Western Europe to stabilize:

5. According to “Power Struggle,” under which pope did papal power reach its zenith?

6. The Crusades were

7. The Crusades can be described as all of the following except

8. According to the lecture, ”Power Struggle,” the Islamic Empire

9. According to “High Middle Ages,” the most notable literary development of the High Middle Ages was the

GEOGRAPHY
Q1. Marketing Pan Justify the value of ma
Please respond to the following: “Marketing Plan”
• Justify the value of marketing plans as instruments that compel marketers to think about upcoming periods, perform routine marketing analyses and audits, and set marketing goals and objectives such as Return on Investment (ROI), etc. Provide one (1) example of the use of marketing plans in this fashion to support your rationale.
• Decide whether or not you believe Philip Kotler’s Marketing Plan Model provides a useful framework for developing an effective marketing plan. Provide at least two (2) specific examples of the Philip Kotler’s Marketing Plan Model that apply within a health care organization with which you are familiar.


• Based on your review of the Learnscape scenario titled “Learnscape 4: How Are We Doing”, justify the value of marketing plans as instruments that compel marketers to think about upcoming periods, perform routine marketing analyses and audits, and set marketing goals and objectives such as Return on Investment (ROI), etc. Provide one (1) example of the use of marketing plans in this fashion to support your rationale.

Q2. Consider a European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock where the
Consider a European call option on a non-dividend-paying stock where the stock price is $40, the strike price is $40, the risk-free rate is 4% per annum, the volatility is 30% per annum, and the time to maturity is six months.
1. Calculate , , and for a two step tree
2. Value the option using a two step tree.
3. Verify that DerivaGem gives the same answer
Use DerivaGem to value the option with 5, 50, 100, and 500 time steps.

Q3. Identify a health care organization for ization’s strategic
Identify a health care organization for which a significant amount of information is available, in books, journals, reports, or on the Internet. Conduct an audit of the organization’s strategic assets based on the information you are able to gather from various sources. The audit you conduct will not be as thorough and detailed of an audit as the organization itself might conduct as you will not have access to the same inside information as internal auditors. Do your best to gather and report the following information.
Start with a general description of the service that the healthcare organization provides. Include the mission statement for the organization. If there is not one, create one you believe would best describe the mission of the organization.
The first part of your audit should address the organization’s historical financial performance and its current financial condition, as described in your textbook. A lot of the necessary data can be found in the organization’s annual report and its filings with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) and state-level government regulatory agencies. Research sources such as business journals, magazines, and other media that report on these types of organizations.
The second part of the audit should describe in as much detail as possible what you consider to be the major resources and competencies of the organization. Use a SWOT chart to categorize the most relevant points (these may be more narrative than quantitatively analytical). Try to identify assets that appear to be unique to the organization and that give it some competitive advantage over its rivals. Also make a note of areas in which the organization is weak, which might be the target of strategic attacks by those rivals.
Now consider the activities that are described in the value chain for this organization. Which do you believe cost the most to perform? What factors do you base your opinion on? What do you believe can be done to reduce the costs, thereby giving this organization a competitive edge?
Finally, consider that this organization would like to set up a satellite office in a nearby city. In this satellite office they will make changes to their processes to address their strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats. Develop a mission statement for this satellite office. Create four strategic goals for this office, one for each SWOT category.

Q4. HCS 490 Analyze the changing landscape of the health care system
Research the following in your community or surrounding area:
• One walk-in clinic, such as urgent care
• One retail clinic in your local grocery store or drug store
• No appointment physician’s office
Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word paper that includes the above centers and addresses the following:
• Analyze the changing landscape of the health care system.
o Differentiate the various places health care is delivered.
• Analyze what impact cultural demographics have on the health care market.
o Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on cultural demographics.
o Analyze the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various cultures.
o Analyze the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different cultural demographics.
• Differentiate what effect different generations have on the health care market.
• Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on generational demographics.
o Differentiate the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various generations.
o Differentiate the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different generations.
• Analyze the impact of media and social networking on consumer choices
Research the following in your community or surrounding area:
• One walk-in clinic, such as urgent care
• One retail clinic in your local grocery store or drug store
• No appointment physician’s office
• Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word paper that includes the above centers and addresses the following:
• Analyze the changing landscape of the health care system.
o Differentiate the various places health care is delivered.
• Analyze what impact cultural demographics have on the health care market.
o Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on cultural demographics.
o Analyze the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various cultures.
o Analyze the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different cultural demographics.
• Differentiate what effect different generations have on the health care market.
• Analyze the targeted audience of the clinic or office based on generational demographics.
o Differentiate the effectiveness of the marketing approach for the clinic or office to various generations.
o Differentiate the marketing techniques that could be used to improve the marketing within different generations.
• Analyze the impact of media and social networking on consumer choices

Q5. Choose companies or industries for which JIT would be totally inappropriate
Part 1
Choose companies or industries for which JIT would be totally inappropriate? Explain your reasoning with examples in 200-250 words.

Part 2
Categorize different scheduling procedures for various types of service operations, such as restaurants, hospitals, and airlines. Your initial post should include explanations and examples and be 200-250 words.

Q6. A narrative, a storyboard, and a business Website. You must submit all three (3) sections
Technical Project: Sample Website Project
Due Week 10 and worth 200 points

This assignment consists of three (3) sections: a narrative, a storyboard, and a business Website. You must submit all three (3) sections for the completion of this assignment. The assignment is to be submitted in a single compressed folder (zip file) to the online course shell. Section 3 must contain all .htm files, along with any other files that may be necessary for your project to run (ex: text files, images, etc.). When saving the compressed folder (zip file), it should be saved as Techincal Project_Last name_First initial.zip. For example, if your name is Mary Smith, the file for submission should be saved as Techincal Project_Smith_M.htm

Select a business that you are interested in. (e.g., pet store, travel site, fishing gear, appliances, automobiles, housewares, furniture, etc.). Imagine that you have just been hired to create a four (4) page hierarchical Website for the business you selected.

Section 1: Narrative
Write a half (½) page paper in which you:
1. Create a narrative that describes the site to your prospective client.

Section 2: Storyboard
Imagine that your narrative has been approved. Use Word, Visio, or Dia to:
2. Create a storyboard diagram depicting the layout of your Website.

Section 3: Business Website
In order to receive full credit for this section, you will need to submit:
• One (1) screen shot of your emailed data from the guestbook.
• One (1) CSS style sheet.
• Four (4) Web pages.
3. Create your Website based on the following requirements:
a. Create a Cascading Style Sheet (.css) for all pages, which:
i. Applies a background color.
ii. Applies style to font.
iii. Changes the ordered list markers to anything other than the default.
iv. Changes the unordered list markers to anything other than the default.
v. Applies style to a copyright footer.
b. Include:
i. A graphic or logo on the home page.
ii. A navigation bar with links to every other page on the home page.
iii. A guestbook registry on the home page using the mailto: tag with an entry field for:
a. A person’s name.
b. An email address.
iv. A piece of JavaScript on the home page.
c. Create a submit button for the guestbook registry that will email the information to your email address. Note: Test the function and take a screen shot of the emailed information you receive. You must submit the screen shot in your zipped file of deliverables as proof.
d. Create three (3) sub pages that include:
i. The same graphic / logo.
ii. A navigation bar with links to every other page.
iii. An ordered list of at least two (2) items, and then at least two (2) unordered list entries under each ordered list item where one (1) of the items must be a hyperlinked to a Website (the hyperlink should not show the address printed on the page).
Note: Each of the three pages should have unique lists.
Example:
A. Food
• Dry food
• Wet food
• Canned food
B. Toys
• Indoor
• Outdoor

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
• Describe the structure of the World Wide Web as interconnected hypertext documents.
• Create and validate HTML documents.
• Create presentations using Cascading Style Sheets and DHTML.
• Write clearly and concisely about Web design and development using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.

Q7. Discuss criminological theory. What is it, and why is it important
Discuss criminological theory. What is it, and why is it important? Select two of the theories examined in Unit III, and discuss the main points of the theories. How can each theory explain delinquency and help us understand possible deterrent and prevention methods for juveniles? Discuss criminological theory. What is it, and why is it important? Select two of the theories examined in Unit III, and discuss the main points of the theories. How can each theory explain delinquency and help us understand possible deterrent and prevention methods for juveniles?

Q8. Assignment 2 Required Assignment 2—Motivating Staff

Assignment 2: Required Assignment 2—Motivating Staff
An important aspect of talent management is identifying and rewarding quality employees. There are many methods to recognize and retain these ideal workers.
Description
In this assignment, you will research and discuss new ways for a technology firm to help motivate and retain its current employees.
Using the Argosy University online library resources and the Internet, research best practices and innovative methods of increasing employee morale and retention. Select approximately 6–8 scholarly sources for use in this assignment.
Scenario
You work in the HR department of a large and successful technology company. The firm has been the market leader of the industry for years and potential employees seek the prestige of working for the company. Due to a recent staff reorganization, many current employees are now unfulfilled and some are even seeking employment with the firm’s biggest competitor. You have been assigned the task of researching new ideas so that a plan can be developed to increase employee morale and retention.
Instructions
Prepare a report in which you describe current best practices for employee retention, illustrate how they could benefit this organization, and provide strategies on how to incorporate these practices within the company. Further, you will need to provide an outline of how to successfully execute a staff reorganization should it need to be performed again in the future.
Your document should specifically address the following:
• Research and analyze recent best practices for employee retention within the technology industry.
• Identify methods to assess compensation amounts for multiple positions.
• Evaluate successful training and career development plans.
• Analyze current methods of employee motivation within the technology industry.
• Outline the procedure for the incorporation of these new plans. Explain how your plans support the company’s overall goal to prevail as the market leader.

Q9. Earth Science Lab 8
Part 1: Spectrometer
Please follow the instructions to construct a refractometer and answer the corresponding questions.
The instructions below describe how to build a spectrometer. Here is a link if you wish to view the site where the instrcutions are from. Spectroscope
How to make a spectroscope
What we will need:
1. A CD or DVD that can be sacrificed to this project. We won’t damage it, but getting it back will involve destroying our spectroscope. Old software CDROMs work great, and some can be had for free from internet service providers like AOL.
2. A cardboard box. An 8 inch cube works fine, but any size that can hold a CD or DVD disk will do.
3. Two single edged razor blades. These can be found in paint or hardware stores.
4. A small cardboard tube, the kind used as a core to wrap paper on.
5. Some cellophane tape.
6. Some aluminum tape (found in hardware stores), or some aluminum foil and glue.
Our spectroscope has three main parts. There is a slit made from two razor blades, a diffraction grating made from a CD disk, and a viewing port, made from a paper tube.
To make sure that all three parts are lined up properly, we will use the CD disk as a measuring device, and mark the spots where the slit and the viewing port will go.
1. Set the CD disk on top of the box, about a half inch from the left edge, and close to the box’s bottom, as shown in the photo. Use a pen to trace the circle inside the CD disk onto the box. This mark shows us where the paper tube will go.
2. Now place the paper tube on the box, centered over the circle we just drew. Draw another circle on the box by tracing the outline of the paper tube.
3. Move the paper tube over a little bit. A half-inch is probably fine — in the photo I placed it much farther to the right than necessary, but the aluminum tape covered up the mistake nicely. Trace another circle around the paper tube. These circles will tell us where to cut the box.
4. Now cut an oval out of the box with a sharp knife. The oval will allow the paper tube to enter the box at an angle.
5. The next step is to make the slit. Turn the box one quarter turn so the oval we just cut is to the right. Using the CD disk again, draw another small circle close to the left side of the box.
6. The slit will be on the far left of the box. Cut a small rectangle out of the box at the height marked by the small circle we made with the CD disk. The rectangle should be about a half inch wide, and two inches high.
7. Carefully unwrap the two razor blades, and set them over the rectangular hole. Make their sharp edges almost touch. Tape the razor blades to the box, being careful to leave a gap between the sharp edges that is nice and even, and not wider at the top or bottom.
8. Next, set the box right-side-up, with the slit towards you. Now tape the CD disk onto the back wall of the box. The rainbow side should face you, with the printed side touching the cardboard. The photo shows the disk a little too far to the left. The left edge of the disk should be the same distance from the left of the box as the slit is.
9. Now seal up any places on the box where light might leak in. Use the aluminum tape for this. You can also use aluminum foil for this purpose if you don’t have any aluminum tape.
10. The last step is to use the aluminum tape to attach the paper tube. The aluminum tape will make a light-tight seal around the tube. To make sure the angle is correct, hold the slit up to a light, and look through the paper tube, adjusting it until you can see the full spectrum from red to purple.
Once you have assembled your spectrometer with the instructions in the lecture and above, use it to examine the spectra of three different light sources. Make sure that at least one of them is the sun or moon, but the others can be incandescent lights, compact fluorescent bulbs, LED lights, halogen or xenon bulbs, televisions, computer screens, candles, fireplaces, etc.
Then, answer the following questions in a separate document:
1. Describe the differences in appearance among the three spectra.
2. What feature of the light source do the spectra represent? In other words, what is it that you are actually analyzing?
3. Why do you think spectrometers are so valuable for studying celestial objects?
Part 2: Estimating the Number of Visible Stars in the Night Sky
For this, you will need an empty toilet roll and a clear, dark night. Before you start, jot down the number of stars that you think you can see in the night sky.
Aim your toilet roll at a part of the sky well above the horizon to avoid any haze pollution. Hold your roll steady and allow your eyes to get used to the light for a few seconds. Count the number of stars that you can see within through the roll. Do this four more times in other parts of the sky, and average the five counts.
The viewing diameter of a toilet roll is about 1/135th of the entire sky, at least for a relatively flat area. Mountains, buildings or large trees will obscure some of the sky. To determine the number of visible stars, multiply your average by 135.
Answer the following questions:
4. How similar is this to your original estimation?
5. What percentage of our galaxy do you think that we can see with the naked eye from Earth?
Part 3: Solar System

Please answer the following questions:
6. Why do you think that the inner planets are relatively close together, but the outer planets are spaced so widely apart?
7. Why do you think that the gaseous planets are gaseous, but the inner planets are not?
Q10. Assignment 2 Hacking the AIS In t
Assignment 2 Hacking the AIS In today’s technology environment, hackers present a substantial risk to a firm’s accounting orbusiness system. As the result of these attacks, firms suffer huge losses, ranging from financial losses to losses in confidence by consumers, creditors, and suppliers. Firms may have made a significant investment in financial and non-financial resources to secure these systems. For this assignment, research the Internet and select a company whose database systems have been hacked.
Write a five to seven (5-7) page paper in which you:
1. Based on the information you researched, evaluate the level of responsibility of the company in terms of the effectiveness of the response to the security breach. Provide support for your rationale. 2. Imagine that the company that you researched uses a third-party accounting system. Assess the level of responsibility of the software provider to both the business and its clients. Provide support for your rationale. 3. Create an argument for additional regulation as a preventative measure against businesses being hacked. Provide support for your argument. 4. Provide at least three (3) recommendations for businesses to secure their systems and assets from hackers. Provide support for your recommendation. 5. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources. Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements: • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions. • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length. THE QUESTIONS THAT ARE BEING ASKED NEEDS TO BE THE BEGINNING SENTENCE FOR EACH NEW SECTION PERTAINING TO THE QUESTION. (APA Style) The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are: • Examine control and security concepts related to accounting information systems to ensure data integrity and safety. • Use technology and information resources to research issues in accounting information systems. • Write clearly and concisely about accounting information systems using proper writing mechanic

URBAN PLANNING AND POLICY.
Q1. Strategic Plan Forecasting, Evaluation, and Assessment
Review the Strategic Plan from Scottsdale Police Department Strategic Plan Analysis, and the 2015 Crime Statistics Documents.
Write a 700-1,050-word paper that evaluates the Strategic Plan from the Scottsdale Police Department. Determinewhether the strategic plan includes all necessary components of the SWOT analysis.
Include the following in your evaluation:
• Identify any additional suggestions that would make the strategic plan more comprehensive.
• Explain whether the justifications and assumptions for the chosen strategies are adequately articulated.
• Assess whether the plan includes enough measures to ensure the successful follow-through and full implementation of the chosen strategies.
Format your paper consistent with APA formatting.
CJA/475

Q2. Group Behavior and Processes Paper CJA/444
Answer Question 2 of Learn by Doing in Ch. 3 in Justice Administration.

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper answering the following questions. Elaborate on your answers and explain your reasoning.
• What kinds of information would you collect to address problems such as drugs, prostitution, and vandalism?
• What kinds of responses might be considered?
• What types of assessment would you perform?
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Securing Low Income Housing

Q3. Multi-agency Emergency Event Paper
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL Internet, University Library
Utilize the unified emergency response to the plane landing in the Hudson event on January 15, 2009. The paper should focus on first responders, not the unilateral actions of the flight crew.
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper where you:
• Give a summary of the event
• Outline the response by police and fire agencies
• Detail roles within the structured incident command
• Outline crisis response objectives
• Discuss structured and unstructured decision making strategies by leaders and first responders during the emergency event
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.
The Miracle on the Hudson: The Response

Q4. Emergency Management Communication Paper
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL, Internet, University Library

Write a 700 to 1,050 word paper in which you explain:
• the five components of multi agency interoperability for emergency management
• technology systems that further enhance multi-agency communication
• support technology requirements for multi-agency preparedness
• describe DHS’s system for continued evaluation and assessment of current communication capabilities
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.
Resources: COURSE MATERIAL, Internet, University Library

Write a 700 to 1,050 word paper in which you explain:
• the five components of multi agency interoperability for emergency management
• technology systems that further enhance multi-agency communication
• support technology requirements for multi-agency preparedness
• describe DHS’s system for continued evaluation and assessment of current communication capabilities
Include at least two academic sources in your paper, including one from the university library.

Q5. Emergency Management Response Paper CJA/375
Resources: Week 1 Course Materials; Attached Case Study
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper in which you discuss and address the following from the Case Study NIMS In Action: A Case Study of the System’s Use and Utility:
• Discuss the nature and background of the emergency response
• Outline terms and authorities highlighted in the case as they relate to the week 1 course material.
• Discuss the dynamics and challenges between the use of Incident Command System over the National Incident Management System as it relates to the case study.
• The overall outcome of the situation
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
The Response and Recovery of City “X”

Q6. The Safety of Urban Air Mobility
Reasearch and discuss the safety of Urban Air Mobility with an emphasis on Safety Management Systems(SMS), Economics, Technology, Noise, Infrastructure and Regulations.

Q7. Multi Criterion Evaluation Technique for Optimization of Municipal Solid Waste Management
The complete paper is attached (Environmental_science_final). I need a new section with Results and conclusion. Also, need to add more references (10-15 reference papers) across the paper. Please refer Pistelok_1-2016.pdf for paper format, alignment and numbering, etc.,
Please edit the whole paper as required.

Q8. Causes of Global warming and its effects on climate change.
An analysis of global warming, what is means, the causes and effects. The answers includes academic references

Q9. Assignment 2 Attentional Blink There
Assignment 2 Attentional Blink

There are many stimuli in your environment of which you are not aware. You use attention to filter out unimportant stimuli and focus on relevant stimuli. However, there are circumstances under which you cannot perceive stimuli, regardless of how hard you “pay attention.” One situation is when visual stimuli are presented in quick succession. If the interval between the two stimuli is short enough, you do not perceive the second stimulus. This lapse in attention is known as attentional blink. In this assignment, you will experience the attentional blink for yourself and will also read about practical implications of the phenomenon.
Access the CogLab demonstrationAttentional Blink. Follow the instructions to complete the demonstration.
• Explain how the attentional blink relates to attention. Analyze how the variation in time influences the probability of seeing the second target letter. Explain the circumstances under which the attentional blink can be eliminated.
• In the CogLab demonstration, letters were used as targets. The target used can influence the duration of one’s attentional blink and whether the attentional blink even occurs. Complete the following tasks:
• Propose at least two other targets that could be used to induce the attentional blink.
• Predict the effect each of your suggested targets would have on the duration of one’s attentional blink as compared to the CogLab activity you completed.
• Explain the reasoning behind your predictions.
• Present and discuss at least three occupations in which workers’ performance could be adversely affected by attentional blink. Identify and explain the types of problems or mistakes that might occur in such occupations due to the attentional blink.
• Several years ago, some vehicle models came with a heads-up display (HUD). Instead of looking down at a panel on the dashboard, speed, distance traveled, fuel level, and time appeared to be displayed over the hood of the car. Discuss this design in terms of divided attention and attentional blink. Do you think the design was a good idea?

ART

Q1. Museums Virtual Tours Review

For this Essay, you will visit an art museum of your choice. You may visit one in person or take a virtual tour via the Internet. Below is a list of museums that offer virtual tours that you may want to review for this assignment. Please note that you are not limited to this list:
• Louvre
• National Gallery of Art
• The National Gallery
You may select a virtual tour from this list above. Please include the name and location of your museum in your introductory paragraph.
For this essay, write about two artworks from the periods: Renaissance, Baroque, Impressionist, or Post-Impressionist periods.
For each piece, address the following:
• Include the title, artist, date, medium, and scale.
• Describe the artwork.
• Describe the artist’s role in his or her society/community.
• What do you think is the artist’s message?
• What are the cultural significances of this piece?
• What historical elements are included in this piece?
Formatting: Your essay will be at least five pages in length and include the following:
• Title page (1 page)
• Written Essay (2 pages)
• Image(s) (1 page)
• References (1 page)
• Use Times New Roman 12- point font.
• Double space all lines, and indent the first line of each paragraph.
• Your title page should be correctly formatted with a Running Head and page number listed in the Header area.
• Include your title, name, and school centered on the title page.
• Your written essay should contain at least three paragraphs (including an introductory and conclusion).
• Your last page will have the word References centered at the top.
All sources used, including the museum, must be cited in APA Style and included on the reference page.

Q2. For example you following his news from the begin of the season
Hi there
I want someone to write for me about the score player Wayne Rooney. During this season, For example you following his news from the begin of the season till the end of it. I will give you some links that contained his most important news. I want it to be 4 pages double spaced. I will attach also a file that is for the order details.
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/01/30/19840852/rooney-closing-in-on-manchester-united-scoring-record?’
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/02/11/20255242/sooner-or-later-we-will-see-ronaldo-messi-and-rooney-in?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/02/17/20440712/rooney-out-for-at-least-a-month-with-knee-injury?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/69/transfer-zone/2016/02/18/20475302/rumors-man-utd-weighing-up-selling-rooney-to-china?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/03/08/21120782/hodgson-rooney-guaranteed-a-euro-2016-spot-but-not-as-a?
http://www.goal.com/en-us/news/85/england/2016/04/24/22740182/rooney-fa-cup-glory-can-start-something-special-at-man-utd?

Q3. ETH 445 N Week 6 CASE STUDY ANALYSIS | Complete Solution
Examine the Case Study for your analysis about professional responsibilities and decision-making during a crisis called “Command at Sea.” In teams or partners, discuss the decision possibilities within the case study and write a report of your findings. Be sure to read and understand the case thoroughly.

Our Case Study:

The weather would be turning bad overnight, but late on a sunny afternoon in gentle seas, the Commanding Officer (the CO) had a fresh cup of coffee in hand and enjoyed what little was left of the day in his designated chair on the bridge. It was an older ship, but she could still perform in an award-winning way, even if she could not land helicopters like the newer ones. They had just secured a helicopter from “flight quarters.” The aircraft carrier had delivered the mail and some repair parts by lowering them by winch while still flying over the stern. The coffee was good, and all was well on board.
Most of the planned work for the day had been accomplished as well, and crewmembers not on watch had some time for themselves. A young seaman was getting his physical fitness training by lifting free weights with friends. Unexpectedly, the restraining collar on the barbell came loose and the weights on that end fell off–the heavy end came straight down on the seaman’s foot and broke some bones. After a quick check by Doc, a senior enlisted Hospital Corpsman, it was clear that the seaman needed a medical evacuation to the aircraft carrier, where higher levels of diagnosis and care were available. The CO would surely not be pleased!
Only the helicopter flight crew was certified to fly after dark, and twilight was coming soon. The seaman’s needs were beyond the capability of the medical staff on board. No further helicopter operations were scheduled for the day. The aircraft carrier was a significant flying time away, and it was unclear whether an unscheduled mission could be completed before dark. The weather conditions would be too bad for flying tomorrow–probably the next day as well. If the flight was to happen, the CO would need to arrange it with the Carrier Air Group Commander right away.
Meanwhile, the injured seaman was in much pain and in significant need of care. He had never flown in a helicopter and was afraid of flying. He had not received the training for being hoisted from the deck into a flying helicopter or training in emergency egress procedures, and the broken bones in his foot were causing lots of pain anyway.
A decision was needed, and there was little time to make it. If the medical evacuation mission were to be conducted, the conditions were less than great. Good advice was to be had from the Corpsman and others in the command, but the final assessment of the risks involved and the decision of what to do would rest with the CO alone. There was nothing else to be done on the ship for the injured seaman except to sedate him.

Q4. Plays are meant to be performed, rather than read | Complete Solution
Plays are meant to be performed, rather than read. The purpose of dramatic arts often extends far beyond the words written on a page; staging, lighting, costumes intonation, expression, and audience experience are all part of the experience of a theatrical production. To help develop your understanding of The Tempest and the cultural role of the dramatic arts, you will view a production of the play this week and need a two-page word document reflection to explain your viewing experience.

Below, please find several classic interpretations and modern adaptations of The Tempest:

Classic Interpretations:

For this assignment, you will view one of the above and write reflection that addresses the following:

Identify the performance that you have selected.
Describe the staging, lighting, costumes, and characters of the performance. How do these match or revise the written version of the play?
What type of mood and tone does the performance create? How?
What parts of the play are easier to understand through performance? What are some details that stood out through performance?
What does the performance suggest about the role of theater in contemporary culture?

Q5. Components of a Marketing Plan Assignment 2 | Complete Solution
Components of a Marketing Plan Part 2: Price, Promotion, Environment, and the Concept to Commercialization Process

Purpose of Assignment
The purpose of this assignment is to continue to have students place themselves in the role of a marketing research and planning team leader while completing the last half of the team’s project that was started in Week 3. Students will be researching and making decisions on price setting, promotion strategies, environmental forces/scanning, and steps to bringing their company’s product from concept to commercialization.

Assignment Steps
Resources: Marketing: Ch. 1: pg. 4-10; Ch. 3: pg. 72-92; Ch. 8: pg. 210-223; Ch. 10: pg. 274-281; Ch. 13: pg. 350-352; Chapter 17: pg. 472-475; Ch. 18: pg. 519-526; Ch. 19: pg. 556-558
Scenario: Using the same organization and product/service you used in the Week 3 learning team assignment and the same scenario, you will be presenting the following analyses to the board of directors and stakeholders. They will be using these analyses to make their final decision on how, and if, to launch your company’s new and unique product/service.

Develop a minimum 1,050-word analysis addressing the following:
• Conduct an environmental scan for your company focusing on which of the five external forces the company is likely to be impacted by and what actions they will need to take to overcome them.
• Select and describe the price strategy your company will use to launch its product/service. Why is that strategy the best choice and will it need to be adjusted over the duration of the Product Life Cycle (PLC)? Why or why not?
• Select four of the following methods and explain how they should be used by your company. Explain the reasoning why they align best with your target segment and product:
o Advertising
o Public relations
o Traditional Digital marketing
o New Digital marketing techniques (describe)
o Sales promotion
o Direct marketing
o Event marketing
o Outdoor
• Analyze how your company will implement the New-Product Development Process (seven stages) to bring your product/service from concept to commercialization.
Cite a minimum of three peer-reviewed sources.At least one source should be from the course materials and at least one source from the University Library.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

Q6. Week 1: Personality Analysis and Job Consideration Report | Complete Solution
Week 1: Personality Analysis and Job Consideration Report

This document contains the template you will use to complete this assignment. Save the file by adding your last name to the filename:
Week1_Personality_Analysis_and_Job_Consideration_Report_Template.docx _Smith.docx.
Be sure to proofread and spell-check your work before you submit it.
There are FOUR parts to this assignment.
Part 1: Analyzing the Results
Reflect on your results from 16 Personalities Assessment and compare them to the Keirsey Temperament Sorter. (12 points)
16 Personalities Assessment Results
1. What were your specific results according to the assessment?
• 2. What are the strengths and weaknesses associated with your results?

Turn to the Keirsey Temperament Sorter.
Keirsey Temperament Sorter Comparison
3. Refer to Exhibit 3.5 in your text. What is your two-letter equivalent in comparison to your 16 Personalities Assessment results?
• 4. According to Exhibit 3.6 in your text, what characteristics are associated with your Keirsey’s temperament type?
Make the link of your personality to the job market.
Putting This All Together
• 5. Provide three examples of instances where you can, or have, demonstrated any of these skills in your professional life.

• 6. How can you utilize this knowledge into your job search or current employment situation (if you are already established within your chosen field)?

Part 2: Describing the Ideal Job
Describe your ideal job. (6 points)
My Ideal Job
In my ideal job, I would be . . . (state what you see yourself doing as part of your ideal job)

Part 3: Linking Your Goals to the Job
Identify your one-, two-, and five-year career goals; create a list of possible employers of choice in your career field (minimum of three); possible job titles for your one-, two-, and five-year goals (one for each goal); and current salary ranges for those job titles. (57 points)
Career Goals
Career Goals Potential Employers (minimum of one per stated yearly career goal) Possible Job Titles (minimum of three per stated yearly career goal) Current Salary Ranges (for each job title)
My one-year career goal is . . . (state your goal here)
1.1.
2.1
3.1.
2.1
3.1
My two-year career goal is . . . (state your goal here)

1.1.
2.
3.1.
2
3.
My five-year career goal is . . . (state your goal here)
1. 1.
2.
3. 1.
2.
3.

Part 4: Reflection Summary
Provide a summary of what you have learned about yourself and the characteristics of your dream job as a result of the reflection and research you have done as part of this assignment (minimum of 100 words). (15 points)
What I Have Learned

Q7. CSIS 100 Quiz 4 Liberty University 2018
CSIS 100 Quiz 4 Liberty University 2018, full quest answers and solutions list. All 100% correct answers! All questions are from 2018 if more than a year away they could be updated but they stay in the same general format and based on the same knowledge.

Q8. 1.What is the difference between quoting, paraphrasing, and summarizing?
Read the Quoting, Paraphrasing, and Summarizing article provided by the Purdue Online Writing Lab (OWL) and the Academic Misconduct Policy (policy 2.3.11), and answer the following questions in essay format. (https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/563/01/) (http://www.maricopa.edu/publicstewardship/governance/adminregs/students/2_3.php#academic)
1.What is the difference between quoting, paraphrasing, and summarizing?
2.What type of citation is required for each?
3.Why is properly citing sources important?
4.What are the possible consequences of improperly citing references?

Q9. Function and determining the type of HRIS application necessary
HR Technology Case Scenario: Three-Stage Project
Objective |Guidelines for All Papers |Case Scenario: Fictitious Business Description |Grading Rubrics

Objective
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Apply the theories reviewed in class related to analyzing an HR function and determining the type of HRIS application necessary to automate and create a strategic alliance for this HR department. Students will have an opportunity to apply theoretical concepts to a professional business application.
Guidelines for All Papers
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• This project is completed in three stages.
• The first two assignments (Stages I and II of the project) are worth 100 points each.
• The final project (Stage III) is worth 280 points.
• Stage I is due Week 2.
• Stage II is due Week 5.
• Stage III, the Final Project, is due Week 7.
• Theory : There should be theory provided throughout all stages of this business plan to substantiate decisions made. All theory must be cited following APA format guidelines (APA Manual, fifth or sixth edition). Anything copied word for word must be inside quotes and properly cited in text and on the reference list according to APA format guidelines. Any information that is not your own thought (theory) must also be cited. There should be no more than 5% of quoted material (information copied word for word) in any of these three assignments.
• Introduction : The purpose is to (a) introduce the subject and its importance, and (b) preview the main ideas and the order in which they will be covered.
• Conclusion : summarizes the main ideas and major support points from the body of your paper. This is not simply rephrasing the introduction or reviewing what was shared in the paper, but also providing a closing paragraph for the reader.
• All papers must follow the following formatting guidelines.
o Double spaced
o One-inch margins (on all sides)
o Times New Roman or Arial font, size 12
o Spelling, grammar, punctuation, and sentence structure should be correct.
o The title page includes (1) title of the document, (2) your name, and (3)DeVry University , all centered and double spaced.
o Headers are helpful throughout the paper to ensure that all assignment criteria are included, and they help with topical flow and keep the paper organized.
Case Scenario: Fictitious Business Description
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Castle’s Family Restaurant has eight restaurants in the northern California area with approximately 300–340 employees. Most of the employees are part time, with approximately 40% of them full time. The operations manager, Jay Morgan, also acts as the HR manager and travels to each location each week to take care of scheduling, recruiting, hiring, and answering questions for the employees as needed. He also takes care of payroll using an Excel spreadsheet and has a computer application to print payroll checks. Mr. Morgan approaches you, an HR consultant, for a proposal. Due to the increase in gasoline costs, he would like to greatly reduce his travel time for visiting each location each week and wonders if there is anything you can suggest to him to help him complete his HR tasks in a cost-effective manner. He hopes there is some way he can do part of his HR tasks from his office instead of traveling to each location.
Stage I (due Week 2)
Using the case scenario above, provide an assessment of the current business. Describe the company in terms of size, type of business, and so on. Explain why you think an HRIS is needed. As the owner of your own HR consulting firm, write a 2–4-page paper that includes the following paper headings, which are denoted in all caps.
• INTRODUCTION: provides sufficient background on the topic and previews major points.
• BUSINESS ASSESSMENT: the name, type, and size of business you’re assisting. Make assumptions in your business description using theory as needed and include the information in your paper for this case scenario. These assumptions would include background about a restaurant work environment and industry.
• IDENTIFIED PROBLEMS: Review all HR problems identified. I recommend making a list of HR functions that you believe could be more efficient based on the information provided in the scenario. From that list, choose one HR function for analysis, which will be the main focus for your business plan. You want to explain why you chose that HR function as your first item, and substantiate with theory.
• HRIS NEEDS ASSESSMENT: Explain how automation might create a more efficient process from the HR function chosen. How might an HRIS application assist the business?
• CONCLUSION: The conclusion is logical, flows from the body of the paper, and reviews the major points.

Q10. 1), you think your company should be offering internships. With all
Persuasive Communication
Case Assignment 2 pertains to the Purdue’s OWL site on memos (2013), Bowman (2002), Beason (2001), and Reddy (2010).
As a manager at your company (the same one we used in Case 1), you think your company should be offering internships. With all the colleges in the Los Angeles area, you would have a large group of people who should be interested in an internship program. In addition, your company could use the extra help and creativity of about-to-graduate college students.
You recently read about Nickerson PME1, a 10-person Boston area marketing and public relations firm. Owner Lisa Nickerson offers a year-round internship program. She calls participants “associates” to make them feel less like “lowly interns” and more like members of the staff. Her interns receive course credit and work experience, but do not earn a paycheck. Instead, Nickerson teaches them to perform tasks like preparing press releases and promoting the company to clients. The arrangement results in valuable help around the office without draining the budget. Nickerson says, “If you take the time to put together a good program, you don’t have to pay the student. An abundance of students want that type of hands-on client experience.”
You believe that Los Angeles college students would be eager to gain experience at a real company, and fill in their résumés with solid work experience. The problem is that your boss resists internship programs because he has heard that interns are really employees who must be paid. He told you in a recent conversation that he is unsure of the fine line that separates employees from interns, and he doesn’t want to violate any labor laws.
Write a persuasive memo message to Dick Elders, Senior General Manager of your company. Explain to him how interns are different from employees. Use the Internet to research the topic, and learn what six requirements help the government determine whether an intern is a paid employee. Use persuasive strategies you have studied, but stay focused on the conviction that interns do not have to be paid as employees. You are on a first-name basis with Dick.
1This is a fictitious case.
Assignment Expectations
In your memo, you are expected to apply the persuasion concepts to demonstrate your ability to craft an effective persuasive memo. Please use proper English. Sentences must be properly constructed and free of grammatical and typographical errors. No citations are needed in the memo.
Write a summary explaining why you used the principles you used in writing your memo. Your explanation should make use of at least two sources from the required readings. It should be analytical and sufficiently rigorous to demonstrate synthesis of the concepts. The summary is to be prepared as an academic essay. Content should be clearly presented with a logical flow. Formal citations are required, along with a formal bibliography.
Case General Expectations
In the Case Assignments, students will assume the role of a Manager in Employee Communications at a large service firm, such as a bank, or an advertising or consulting firm. Students will assume this role throughout the Case Assignments and be challenged with different scenarios, requiring written and verbal communication.
Formal citations and a bibliography are required unless otherwise stated.

ECONOMICS.
Q1. ECON Week 8 Research Paper
Write a paper 5-7 pages in length with 12 point font and one inch margins. In addition to drawing on readings assigned or recommended in this course, you should cite an additional 3-5 academic sources.
For this project you will need to identify a nation (China, Venezuela, Saudi Arabia, etc..) or other political economy (European Union, etc…) of interest. For the country of your choice, make a thesis assertion which you will defend with critical analysis applying a socio-economic theory, law, model or policy, backed by research.
The following paragraph is taken from page 5-23 of the Political Military Analysis Handbook dated April 20, 2006.
While economics or any other single political military analytical system cannot tell the whole story, its pervasive impact on domestic politics, foreign policy, defense policy, and diplomacy dictates its prominent place in the analyst’s repertoire of tools. Decisions always incur costs, and in today’s intricate international system, they often have both an economic impetus and an economic impact. As such, foreign policy can neither be understood nor predicted without consideration of the economic dimension (p. 5-23, Political Military Analysis Handbook).

*****Notes to Tutor*****
Quality and Original work needed.
No plagiarism, APA format, 12 font, Times New Roman, 3-4 scholary references, 1-3 other references, 5-7 pages (not counting the cover & references pages, but they are needed as well).

Q2. ECON Week 5 Primary Report
Choose a country in South America; Find the GDP/GNI per capita ranking for your chosen country and then do independent research to craft a portrait of its economic state, some analysis of the influences on its relative prosperity, or lack thereof, and give a sense of its future economic prospects. Write a 2-3 page report on your chosen subject nation.

***Notes to Tutor***
APA format, 12 font, Times New Roman, 2-3 pages (cover & reference pages dont count but are needed)
Readings of the week are provided, so you have an understanding what was covered during this week but it not needed for the report.
Required Readings:
• Diversity Amid Globalization: Chapter 4 (Latin America)
• Miller, M. (2001, July). The poor man’s capitalist.New York Times Magazine. (Library link)
(Note: This is a dated article, except for the unpleasant reality that property rights have progressed little and in many nations regressed over the past two decades.)
• Boseley, S. (2016). Heartbreak and hardship for women in Brazil as Zika crisis casts deep shadow. The Guardian.
• OECD. (2010). Chile signs up as first OECD member in South America. OECD.
(Note: Also scan the country data for Chile and other South American Economies.)
• McParland, K. (2016). How socialism turned oil-rich Venezuela into a basket case. Canada: The National.
Recommended Readings
• Transparency International, the Global Coalition Against Corruption. (2016). 2015 Corruption Perceptions Index. TIGCAC.
(Note: Click on What We Do, then scan Our Research.)
• Central Intelligence Agency. (n.d.). World fact book: South America. CIA.
• Heritage Foundation in Partnership with the Wall Street Journal. (2016). Index of Economic Freedom. Heritage Foundation.
• U.S. Department of State. (n.d.). Diplomacy in Action. USDOS.
(See Countries and Regions at this link.)

Q3. ECON Week 6 Primary Report
Develop a comparative analysis of the growth patterns and growth strategies of India and China, bringing in the question as to whether or not democracy and demographics will give India an edge. The resources on the Required Readings list should give you a good foundation for this report, which should be of approximately three pages in length.

Notes to tutor:
APA format, size 12 font, Times New Roman, three pages (cover sheet and references do not count but need to be included)
Required readings do not need to be references, this just provides you the tutor an idea of what was covered during this week.
Required Readings:
• Diversity Amid Globalization: Chapter 12 (South Asia)
• Bureau of South and Central Asian Affairs. (2015). U.S. Relations With India. U.S. Department of State.
• Matsumura, M. (2016). Democracy as Economic Strategy India’s Strength over China.Carnegie Council – Policy innovations.
• Fox, J. (2015). Why ‘The Population Bomb’ Bombed. Bloomberg, View.
Copyright permission applied for.
• Zhong, R. (2016). India’s Economic Growth May Have Already Peaked, RBI Paper Says. Wall Street Journal.
Copyright permission applied for.
Recommended Readings
• World Bank. (2016). Urbanization Reviews. World Bank.
(Note: Urbanization is a global population megatrend worth noting. Globalization appears to accelerate urbanization. Scan the World Bank Review for India, and keep the link handy for China and Africa in the coming weeks.)

Q4. ECO 561 Final Exam Guide New 2018…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK

1. Which of the following have substantially equivalent effects on a nation’s volume of exports and imports?
Exchange rate appreciation and domestic deflation
Exchange rate depreciation and domestic inflation
Exchange rate appreciation and a decrease in the domestic supply of money
Exchange rate depreciation and domestic deflation
2. Which of the following statements best describes the 12 Federal Reserve Banks?
They are privately owned and publicly controlled central banks whose basic goal is to earn profits for their owners.
They are privately owned and privately controlled central banks whose basic goal is to provide an ample and orderly market for U.S. Treasury securities.
They are privately owned and publicly controlled central banks whose basic function is to minimize the risks in commercial banking in order to make it a reasonably profitable industry.
They are privately owned and publicly controlled central banks whose basic goal is to control the money supply and interest rates in promoting the general economic welfare
3. Buyers will opt out of markets in which:
there are only foreign sellers
there is inadequate information about sellers and their products
there are significant negative externalities
standardized products are being produced
4. Pure monopolists may obtain economic profits in the long run because:
of advertising
marginal revenue is constant as sales increase
of rising average fixed costs
of barriers to entry
5. All else equal, a large decline in the real interest rate will shift the:
investment demand curve rightward
investment demand curve leftward
investment schedule upward
investment schedule downward
6. In order for mutually beneficial trade to occur between two otherwise isolated nations:
each nation must be able to produce at least one good relatively cheaper than the other
each nation must face constant costs in the production of the good it exports
one nation’s production must be labor-intensive while the other nation’s production is capital-intensive
each nation must be able to produce at least one good absolutely cheaper than the other
7. If the Federal Reserve System buys government securities from commercial banks and the public:
the money supply will contract
commercial bank reserves will decline
it will be easier to obtain loans at commercial banks
commercial bank reserves will be unaffected
8. Normal profit is:
the average profitability of an industry over the preceding 10 years
determined by subtracting explicit costs from total revenue
the return to the entrepreneur when economic profits are zero
determined by subtracting implicit costs from total revenue
9. The term “recession” describes a situation where:
an economy’s ability to produce is destroyed
output and living standards decline
inflation rates exceed normal levels
Government takes a less active role in economic matters
10. If an unintended increase in business inventories occurs at some level of GDP, then GDP:
is too low for equilibrium
entails a rate of aggregate expenditures in excess of the rate of aggregate production
is too high for equilibrium
may be either above or below the equilibrium output
11. The fact that international specialization and trade based on comparative advantage can increase world output is demonstrated by the reality that:
a nation’s production possibilities and trading possibilities lines coincide
the production possibilities curves of any two nations are identical
a nation’s trading possibilities line lies to the right of its production possibilities line
a nation’s production possibilities line lies to the right of its trading possibilities line
12. In the theory of comparative advantage, a good should be produced in that nation where:
its cost is least in terms of alternative goods that might otherwise be produced
its absolute cost in terms of real resources used is least
its absolute money cost of production is least
the production possibilities line lies further to the right than the trading possibilities line
13. Why are economists concerned about inflation?
Inflation lowers the standard of living for people whose income does not increase as fast as the price level
Real GDP is necessarily falling when there is inflation
Inflation generally causes unemployment rates to rise
Inflation increases the value of peoples’ saving and encourages overspending on goods and services
14. Two major virtues of the market system are that it:
results in an equitable personal distribution of income and always maintains full employment
results in price level stability and a fair personal distribution of income
allocates resources efficiently and allows economic freedom
eliminates discrimination and minimizes environmental pollution
15. Suppose you have a limited money income and you are purchasing products A and B, whose prices happen to be the same. To maximize your utility, you should purchase A and B in such amounts that:
the income and substitution effects associated with each are equal
their marginal and total utilities are proportionate
their total utilities are the same
their marginal utilities are the same
16. Macroeconomics approaches the study of economics from the viewpoint of:
governmental units
the entire economy
individual firms
the operation of specific product and resource markets
17. Mrs. Arnold is spending all her money income by buying bottles of soda and bags of pretzels in such amounts that the marginal utility of the last bottle is 60 utils and the marginal utility of the last bag is 30 utils. The prices of soda and pretzels are $.60 per bottle and $.40 per bag respectively. It can be concluded that:
Mrs. Arnold should spend more on soda and less on pretzels
Mrs. Arnold is buying soda and pretzels in the utility-maximizing amounts
the two commodities are substitute goods
Mrs. Arnold should spend more on pretzels and less on soda
18. The simple circular flow model shows that:
households are on the selling side of the resource market and on the buying side of the product market.
businesses are on the selling side of both product and resource markets.
households are on the buying side of both product and resource markets.
businesses are on the buying side of the product market and on the selling side of the resource market.
19. Assume the reserve ratio is 25 percent and Federal Reserve Banks buy $4 million of U.S. securities from the public, which deposits this amount into checking accounts. As a result of these transactions, the supply of money is:
directly increased by $4 million and the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is increased by an additional $16 million.
not directly affected, but the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is increased by $12 million.
directly increased by $4 million and the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is increased by an additional $12 million.
directly reduced by $4 million and the money-creating potential of the commercial banking system is decreased by an additional $12 million.
20. As output increases, total variable cost:
increases at a constant rate
increases at a decreasing rate and then at an increasing rate
increases continuously at a decreasing rate
increases more rapidly than does total cost
21.The two basic markets shown by the simple circular flow model are:
product and resource
free and controlled
household and business
capital goods and consumer goods
22. Countercyclical discretionary fiscal policy calls for:
surpluses during both recessions and periods of demand-pull inflation
deficits during both recessions and periods of demand-pull inflation
surpluses during recessions and deficits during periods of demand-pull inflation
deficits during recessions and surpluses during periods of demand-pull inflation
23. Because the federal government typically provides disaster relief to farmers, many farmers do not buy crop insurance even through it is federally subsidized. This illustrates:
the moral hazard problem
the special interest effect
the adverse selection problem
logrolling
24. A monopolistically competitive industry combines elements of both competition and monopoly. The monopoly element results from:
the likelihood of collusion
mutual interdependence
product differentiation
high entry barriers
25 Research for industrially advanced countries indicates that:
the more independent the central bank, the higher the average annual rate of unemployment.
the more independent the central bank, the higher the average annual rate of inflation
the more independent the central bank, the lower the average annual rate of inflation
there is no relationship between the degree of independence of a country’s central bank and its inflation rate.
26. The business cycle depicts:
short-run fluctuations in output and employment
the phases a business goes through from when it first opens to when it finally closes
fluctuations in the general price level
the evolution of technology over time
27. The primary gain from international trade is:
increased employment in the domestic export sector
increased employment in the domestic import sector
more goods than would be attainable through domestic production alone
tariff revenue
28. Contractionary fiscal policy is so named because it:
necessarily reduces the size of government
is aimed at reducing aggregate demand and thus achieving price stability
involves a contraction of the nation’s money supply
is expressly designed to expand real GDP
29. If the prices of all goods and services rose, but the quantity produced remained unchanged, what would happen to nominal and real GDP?
Real GDP would rise, but nominal GDP would be unchanged
Nominal and real GDP would both be unchanged
Nominal GDP would rise, but real GDP would be unchanged
Nominal and real GDP would both rise
30. Which of the following will generate a demand for country X’s currency in the foreign exchange market?
Charitable contributions by country X’s citizens to citizens of developing nations
The imports of country X
The desire of foreigners to buy stocks and bonds of firms in country X
Travel by citizens of country X in other countries

Q5. ECO 365 Final Exam New…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK
1) Which of the following statements is true about a downward-sloping demand curve that is a straight line?
The slope remains the same, but elasticity falls as you move down the demand curve.
The slope and the elasticity fall as you move down the demand curve.
The slope remains the same, but elasticity rises as you move down the demand curve.
The slope and elasticity are the same at all points.
2) The best example of positive externality is:
Roller coaster rides
Pollution
Education
Alcoholic beverages
3) Suppose that college tuition is higher this year than last and that more students are enrolled in college this year than last year. Based on this information, we can best conclude that:
despite the increase in price, quantity demanded rose due to some other factors changing.
this situation has nothing to do with the law of demand.
the law of demand is invalid.
the demand for a college education is positively sloped.
4) Suppose foreign shrimp prices drop by 32 percent and importers gain a 90 percent market share. From this information, what would economists strongly suspect about this industry?
The large sales of foreigners indicate they are better strategic business bargainers than Americans are.
Foreign sellers probably are colluding on price to maximize profits.
Americans have a comparative advantage in shrimping.
Foreigners have a comparative advantage in shrimping.
5) The theory that quantity supplied and price are positively related, other things constant, is referred to as the law of:
supply
opportunity cost
profit maximization
demand
6) At one time, sea lions were depleting the stock of steelhead trout. One idea to scare sea lions away from the Washington coast was to launch fake killer whales, which are predators of sea lions. The cost of making the first whale is $16,000 ($5,000 for materials and $11,000 for the mold). The mold can be reused to make additional whales, and so additional whales cost $5,000 each. Based on these numbers, the production of fake killer whales exhibits:
Increasing returns to scale
Decreasing returns to scale
Diminishing marginal product
Constant returns to scale
7) Using 100 workers and 10 machines, a firm can produce 10,000 units of output; using 250 workers and 25 machines, the firm produces 21,000 units of output. These facts are best explained by:
Economies of scale
Diseconomies of scale
Diminishing marginal productivity
Economies of scope
8) Cartels are organizations that:
Coordinate the output and pricing decisions of a group of firms.
Use predatory pricing to monopolize industries.
Keep markets contestable.
Encourage price wars.
9) Price elasticity of demand is the:
Percentage change in quantity of a good demanded divided by the percentage change in the price of that good.
Change in the quantity of a good demanded divided by the change in the price of that good.
Percentage change in price of that good divided by the percentage change in the quantity of that good demanded.
Change in the price of a good divided by the change in the quantity of that good demanded.
10) For a monopolist, the price of a product:
Equals the marginal revenue.
Equals the marginal cost.
Is less than the marginal revenue.
Exceeds the marginal revenue.
11) A perfectly competitive firm facing a price of $50 decides to produce 500 widgets. Its marginal cost of producing the last widget is $50. If the firm’s goal is to maximize profit, it should:
Produce more widgets
Produce fewer widgets
Continue producing 500 widgets
Shut down
12) Microeconomics is the study of:
business cycles
a firm’s pricing policies
unemployment
inflation
13) When Ross Perot ran for president as a third party candidate in 1992, he argued that free trade with Mexico would result in massive job losses in the United States because Mexican wages were so low. Which of the following is the best explanation of why few economists agreed with Perot?
Economists did not believe any jobs would be lost in the United States.
Economics believed that the U.S. unemployment would rise.
Although economics predicted that unemployment would rise, the increased profits of corporations would raise stock prices enough to compensate for the lost jobs.
Although economists believed that in some areas the United States would lose jobs, they expected the United States would gain jobs in other areas.
14) Suppose OPEC announces it will increase production. Using supply and demand analysis to predict the effect of increased production on equilibrium price and quantity, the first step is to show the:
demand curve shifting to the left.
demand curve shifting to the right.
supply curve shifting to the left.
supply curve shifting to the right
15) The law of diminishing marginal productivity implies that the marginal product of a variable input:
Eventually declines
Is constant
Never declines
Always declines
16) In 1997, the federal government reinstated a 10 percent excise tax on airline tickets. The industry tried to pass on the full 10 percent ticket tax to consumers but was able to boost fares by only 4 percent. From this you can conclude that the:
Supply of airline tickets is perfectly inelastic.
Supply elasticity of airline tickets is less than infinity.
Demand for airline tickets is perfectly inelastic.
Demand elasticity for airline tickets is greater than zero in absolute value.
17) Graphically, a change in price causes:
a movement along a given supply curve, not a shift.
the supply curve to shift.
both supply and demand to shift.
the demand curve to shift
18) Microeconomics and macroeconomics are:
Not related because they are taught separately.
Interrelated because both are often taught by the same instructors.
Interrelated because what happens in the economy as a whole is based on individual decisions.
Virtually identical, though one is much more difficult than the other.
19) Suppose people freely choose to spend 40 percent of their income on health care, but then the government decides to tax 40 percent of that person’s income to provide the same level of coverage as before. What can be said about deadweight loss in each case?
Taxing income results in deadweight loss, and purchasing health care on one’s own doesn’t result in deadweight loss.
There is no difference between goods that are purchased in the market in either case.
There is no difference because the total spending remains the same and the health care purchased remains the same.
Taxing income results in less deadweight loss because government knows better what health care coverage is good for society.
20) Mr. Woodward’s cabinet shop is experiencing rapid growth in sales. As sales have increased, Mr. Woodward has found it necessary to hire more workers. However, he has observed that doubling the number of workers has less than doubled his output. What is the likely explanation?
The law of diminishing marginal utility
The law of demand
The law of diminishing marginal productivity
The law of supply
21) The DeBeers company is a profit-maximizing monopolist that exercises monopoly power in the distribution of diamonds. If the company earns positive economic profits this year, the price of diamonds will:
Exceed both the marginal cost and the average total cost of diamonds.
Exceed the marginal cost of diamonds but equal to the average total cost of diamonds.
Be equal to the average total cost of diamonds.
Be equal to the marginal cost of diamonds
22) Oligopoly is probably the best market for technological change because:
The typical oligopoly keeps price very close to average total cost because it fears the entry of new rivals if its profits are excessively high.
The typical oligopoly has the funds to carry out research and development and believe that its competitors are innovating, which motivates it to conduct research and development.
Research and development occurs only if government subsidizes such activity, and government tends to subsidize oligopolies.
The typical oligopoly lacks the funds to carry out research and development and therefore will use basic research from universities
23) A monopoly firm is different from a perfectly competitive firm in that:
There are many substitutes for a monopolist’s product whereas there are no substitutes for a competitive firm’s product.
A monopolist’s demand curve is perfectly inelastic whereas a perfectly competitive firm’s demand curve is perfectly elastic.
A monopolist can influence market price whereas a perfectly competitive firm cannot.
A competitive firm has a u-shaped average cost curve whereas a monopolist does not.
24) Many call centers that provide telephone customer services for U.S. companies have been established in India, but few or none have been established in China. Why?
Indian labor costs are equal to Chinese labor costs.
Chinese labor lacks the specific language skills needed to make call centers profitable in China.
China is at a more advanced stage of economic development than India.
China lacks the political infrastructure to support call centers.
25) Other things held constant in a competitive labor market, if workers negotiate a contract in which the employer agrees to pay an hourly of $17.85 while the market equilibrium hour rate is $16.50, the:
Quantity of workers supplied will exceed the quantity of workers demanded.
Demand for labor will increase until the equilibrium wage rate is $17.85.
Supply of labor will decrease until the equilibrium wage rate is $17.85.
Quantity of workers demanded will exceed the quantity of workers supplied.
26) Alex is playing his music at full volume in his dorm room. The other people living on his floor found this to be a nuisance, but Alex doesn’t care. Alex’s music playing is an example of:
Positive externality
Negative externality
Pareto externality
Normative externality
27) In 2011, the Department of Justice sued AT&T to block its merger with the cell phone service provider T-Mobile. To defend itself against the charge, AT&T argued that the:
Merger would improve and expand cellular service to consumers.
Government had guaranteed it exclusive control of cell phone service.
Combined company could raise prices, allowing it to survive in a rapidly changing market.
Government had no authority to block mergers in the telephone industry
28) A reduction in the supply of labor will cause wages to:
Decrease and employment to decrease.
Decrease and employment to increase.
Increase and employment to decrease.
Increase and employment to increase.
29) There are many restaurants in the city of Raleigh, each one offering food and services that differ from those of its competitors. There is also free entry of sellers into the market, and each seller serves a very small fraction of the total number of meals served each day. The restaurant industry in Raleigh is best characterized as:
A pure monopoly.
Perfectly competitive.
Monopolistically competitive.
An oligopoly
30) Strategic decision making is most important in:
Oligopolistic markets.
Competitive markets.
Monopolistically competitive markets.
Monopolistic markets.

Q6. ECO 365 Final Exam Guide New…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK
1.Because you can only obtain more of one good by giving up some of another good, the shape of a production possibility curve is _______________.
downward-sloping
perfectly vertical
perfectly horizontal
upward-sloping
2. Refer to the table shown. The average product when eight workers are employed is _6____
Number of workers Total Output
1. 4
2. 10
3. 18
4. 28
5. 35
6. 41
7. 45
8. 48
9. 50
10. 49
3. A resource is said to have a comparative advantage if
it is equally suited to the production of all goods.
its suitability to the production of one good changes as it produces more of that good.
its suitability to the production of one good does not change as it produces more of that good.
it is better suited to the production of one good than to the production of an alternative good.
4 Refer to the graph shown. Initially, the market is in equilibrium with price equal to $3 and quantity equal to 100. Government imposes a tax on suppliers of $1 per unit. The effect of the tax is to
lower the price consumers pay from $3 to $2.
lower the price sellers keep after paying the tax.
raise the price consumers pay from $3 to $4.(Not confirm)
raise the price sellers keep after paying the tax.
5 Refer to the table shown. Diminishing marginal productivity begins when the
fourth worker is hired.
sixth worker is hired.
third worker is hired.
fifth worker is hired
6 Refer to the graph shown. If this monopolistically competitive firm maximizes profit, it will
charge $45 per dress.
charge $85 per dress.
charge $78 per dress.
shut down because it cannot cover its opportunity costs
7 The price of a ticket to a rock concert is set at $35. All the tickets for the concert sell out 1 hour after they go on sale and there are still 1,000 fans who want to buy tickets. It follows that
the quantity of tickets demanded is equal to the quantity supplied at the $35 price.
the equilibrium price of tickets to the concert is less than $35.
the equilibrium price of tickets to the concert is more than $35.
the equilibrium price of tickets to the concert is $35.
8 Which of the following statements is true?
Many different production processes can be economically efficient, but only the method that involves the lowest possible cost is technically efficient.
Many different production processes can be technically efficient, but only the method that involves the lowest possible cost is economically efficient.
There are many production processes that are both technically and economically efficient, but only one of these involves the lowest possible cost.
There is only one production process that is technically efficient, and this process is also economically efficient.
9 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: Samsung and Sony become partners in a flat screen manufacturing company.
Joint venture
Conglomerate
Vertical merger
Horizontal merger
10 Suppose a firm finds that an additional dollar spent on labor increases output more than does an additional dollar spent on machines. Under these conditions, the firm
should substitute machines for labor if it wants to increase economic efficiency
is economically efficient
is technically efficient
should substitute labor for machines if it wants to increase economic efficiency
11 Economists and laypeople see the pros and cons of international trade in different ways. Which of the following is one of those ways?
Laypeople enjoy the benefits of trade in terms of lower consumer prices.
Laypeople recognize that the United States has a comparative advantage in services.
Laypeople tend to think of foreign trade only in terms of manufactured goods.
Laypeople believe in the law of one price and economists do not.
12 The morel is a prized mushroom that is often abundant in the Western United States in years after forest fires. Suppose two companies are buying morels from workers willing to find them. One company offers to pay workers $5.00 per pound, and the other company will pay workers only $4.00 per pound. Economists would say that
the lower-paying company will attract the more creative and innovative pickers and the higher-paying company will attract the others.
this situation violates the law of one price and is not likely to persist.
the higher-paying company will attract the more creative and innovative pickers and the lower-paying company will attract the others.
the company willing to pay only $4.00 has a comparative advantage in selling morels.
13 Which of the following is the best example of a macroeconomic externality?
One person saving less without considering the effect on their retirement needs
One person starting a business without knowing whether the goods will sell
Many people saving more without considering the effect on unemployment
One person spending more in order to help stimulate the economy
14 If MR < MC, a monopolist should:
maintain the same level of production.
stop producing.
decrease production.
increase production.
15 Opponents of government intervention in the economy argue that externalities
may not be effectively corrected by the government.
are themselves the inevitable result of government policies.
do not create problems for the model.
should be corrected with regulations rather than subsidies.
16 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: IBP meat processing firm buys American Cattle, a very large cattle ranch.
Joint venture
Vertical merger
Horizontal merger
Conglomerate
17 Refer to the graph shown. At which point is elasticity zero?
B
D
C
A
18 A Wall Street Journal headline reads: “Cigar Shortage Draws New Brands into Market.” The shortage resulted from a renewed interest in smoking cigars. What best describes the facts behind the headline?
Price is too low, quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied.
The cigar market is in equilibrium.
Price is too low, demand exceeds supply.
A shift in supply has equilibrated supply and demand.
19. Refer to the graph shown. If hamburger dinners are produced by a perfectly competitive industry with a market demand D:
price will equal marginal cost.
output will be the same as it would be under monopoly.
price will equal $6.
price will be greater than marginal revenue.
20 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: Golf Smith, a golf supply retailer buys its competitor, Vango golf.
Horizontal merger
Conglomerate
Joint venture
Vertical merger
21 According to the text, Microeconomics, Colander (2013), economics is the study of how
government policies can be used to meet individuals’ wants and desires.
human beings coordinate their wants and desires.
scarce resources are allocated to their most productive uses.
governments allocate resources while facing constraints.
22 Oligopoly is characterized by
low market concentration.
inability to set price.
no barriers to entry.
few sellers.
23 When Ross Perot ran for president as a third party candidate in 1992, he argued that free trade with Mexico would result in massive job losses in the United States because Mexican wages were so low. Which of the following is the best explanation for why few economists agreed with Perot?
Although economists agreed that in some areas the United States would lose jobs, they expected that the United States would gain jobs in other areas.
Economists believed that the U.S. unemployment rate would rise.
Although economists predicted that unemployment would rise, the increased profits of corporations would raise stock prices enough to compensate for the lost jobs.
Economists did not believe that any jobs would be lost in the United States
24 Refer to the graph shown. The figure shows the demand and supply curves for eggs and shows two equilibrium points, E1 and E2. An increase in demand from D1 to D2would cause
price to decline from $1.25 to $1.00 a dozen and a shortage of 2,000 dozen eggs per week.
price to rise from $1.00 to $1.25 a dozen and a surplus of 2,000 dozen eggs per week.
price to rise from $1.00 to $1.25 a dozen and equilibrium quantity to be 3,000 dozen eggs per week.
price to remain at $1.00 a dozen and a shortage of 2,000 dozen eggs per week
25 Germany restricts the use of nonrefillable bottles and cans. The European Union argues that the rules aren’t just protecting the environment; they also are protecting German beverage makers from competition. The EU sees Germany’s environmentalism as _____________________.
a quota
a tariff
a regulatory trade restriction
an embargo
26 Oligopoly is probably the best market for technological change because
funds for research and development are available in an oligopoly due to innovation, which motivates the need for research and development.
the typical oligopoly lacks the funds for research and development and therefore will use basic research from universities.
pricing within the typical oligopoly tends to be very close to average total cost because of the entry of new rivals if its profits are excessively high.
research and development occurs only if government subsidizes such activity, and government tends to subsidize oligopolies
27 George Davis and Michael Wohlgenant estimate that for every 1 percent increase in the price of Christmas trees, quantity demanded falls by 0.6 percent. The demand for Christmas trees is __________________.
perfectly inelastic
inelastic
elastic
unit elastic
28 State what type of business combination is occurring in the following scenario: A tobacco producer buys a carbonated beverage plant.
Joint venture
Conglomerate
Vertical merger
Horizontal merger
29 Suppose the minimum possible price of constructing homes is $50 per square foot. As a result of a sharp drop in the demand for home construction, the equilibrium price of home construction falls to $40 per square foot. Assuming the home construction industry is perfectly competitive and there are no specialized inputs, firms will
exit the industry, and the price will remain at $40 in the long run.
enter the industry as the price rises above $40 in the long run.
exit the industry, and the price will rise above $40 in the long run.
exit the industry, and the price will fall below $40 in the long run.
30 Refer to the table shown. At what level of employment is the marginal product of labor seven?
7
5
2
4

Q7. Case Study 2: Cases Analysis of Risk, Uncertainty and Managing Incentives
Case Study 2: Cases Analysis of Risk, Uncertainty and Managing Incentives
Select a company of your choice, any company but Southwest Airlines, and write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you:
Evaluate a company’s recent (with in the last year) actions dealing with risk and uncertainty.
Offer advice for improving risk management.
Examine an adverse selection problem your company is facing and recommend how it should minimize its negative impact on transactions.
Determine the ways your company is dealing with the moral hazard problem and suggest best practices used in the industry to deal with it.
Identify a principal-agent problem in your company and evaluate the tools it uses to align incentives and improve profitability.
Examine the organizational structure of your company and suggests ways it can be changed to improve the overall profitability.
Use at least five (5) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: One of your references regarding your should have been published within the last 6 months. Note: Wikipedia does not qualify as an academic resource.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

Q8. ECO 372 Week 4 Individual Federal Reserve Presentation
ECO 372 Week 4 Individual Federal Reserve Presentation(13 slides)

Q9. ECO 365 Week 4 Team Assignment The Economics Of Labor Markets
ECO 365 Week 4 Team Assignment The Economics of Labor Markets(15 slides )

Q10. ECO 365 Week 3 Current Market Conditions Competitive Analysis
ECO 365 Week 3 Current Market Conditions Competitive Analysis(7 pages word paper)

FOREIGN LANGUAGES.
Q1. You are the principal consultant for a c
You are the principal consultant for a community based Charity. The Charity is involved in locating and providing accommodation, mental health services, training and support services to disadvantaged people in the community.
The Charity currently runs a small data centre that has some 50 x86 64 bit servers running mainly Windows Server 2008 R2 for desktop services, database and file services. It also has 10 Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5 servers to service public facing Web pages, Web services and support.
The Charity is considering joining a community cloud provided by a public cloud vendor in order to provide a number of applications to all 500 support staff and administrative users. A small number of the Charity’s applications are mission critical and the data that those applications use is both confidential and time sensitive.
The community cloud would also be used to store the Charity’s 200TB of data. The data would be held in a SaaS database run by the public cloud vendor. The Charity’s data contains a considerable amount of confidential information about the people to whom the Charity provides services.
The Charity collects PII data on the clients who use its services so that it can assist them to manage their different service requirements. This PII data also includes holding some digital identity data for some of the more disadvantaged clients, particularly if they also have mental health issues.
The cloud vendor has made a presentation to management that indicates that operational costs will drop dramatically if the cloud model is adopted. However, the Board of the Charity is concerned with the privacy and security of the data that it holds on the people that it provides services to in the community. It is concerned that a data breach may cause considerable damage to substantially disadvantaged people in the community.
The Board asks that you prepare a report that proposes appropriate privacy and security policies for the Charity’s data.
The charity has also decided to:
• Purchase a HR and personnel management application from a US based company that provides a SaaS solution.
o The application will provide the charity with a complete HR suite, which will also include performance management. The application provider has advised that the company’s main database is in California, with a replica in Dublin, Ireland. However, all data processing, configuration, maintenance, updates and feature releases are provided from the application provider’s processing centre in Bangalore, India.
o Employee data will be uploaded from the charity daily at 12:00 AEST. This will be processed in Bangalore before being loaded into the main provider database.
o Employees can access their HR and Performance Management information through a link placed on the Charity intranet. Each employee will use their internal charity digital ID to authenticate to the HR and Performance management system. The internal digital ID is generated by the charity’s Active Directory instance and is used for internal authentication and authorisation.
• Move the charity payroll to a COTS (Commercial Off The Shelf) application that it will manage in a public cloud;
• Move the charity Intranet into a Microsoft SharePoint PaaS offering so that it can provide Intranet services to all agencies in the WofG.
Tasks
You have been engaged to provide a risk assessment for the planned moves to SaaS application offerings.
You are to write a report that assesses the risks to the charity for just their planned moves in the HR area:
1. Consider the data and information that the charity holds on its employees in the current HR system.
1. Establish the existing threats and risks to the security of that data and information contained in the in-house HR database. (10 marks)
2. Are there any additional risks and threats to employee data that may arise after migration to an SaaS application? (10 marks)
3. Assess the resulting severity of risk and threat to employee data. (10 marks)
2. Consider the privacy of the data for those employees who will move to an SaaS application.
1. Establish the existing threats and risks to the privacy of that data and information contained in the in house HR database. (10 marks)
2. Are there any additional risks and threats to the privacy of the employee data after migration to an SaaS application? (10 marks)
3. Assess the resulting severity of risk and threat to the privacy of employee data. (10 marks)
3. What are the threats and risks to the digital identities of charity employees from the move to SaaS applications? (10 marks)
4. Consider the operational solution and location(s) of the SaaS provider for HR management. Does either the operational solution, or the operational location, or both, increase or mitigate the threats and risks identified for the security and privacy of employee data? (20 marks)
5. Are there any issues of ethics, data sensitivity or jurisdiction that should be considered by the charity? (10 marks)
You are to provide a written report with the following headings:
• Security of Employee Data
• Privacy of Employee Data
• Digital Identity Issues
• Provider Solution Issues
• Data Sensitivity

Q2. Describe and define the primary comp
The purpose of this assignment is to help students understand strategic business terminology (vision, mission, goals, objectives, specific objectives, internal and external scanning), to recognize the components of a strategic plan and to be familiar with the core information and steps needed to create a strategic plan. Furthermore, this assignment allows students to recognize the difference between strategic planning and strategic management.
Assignment Steps
Write a 700-word analysis in which you complete the following:
• Describe and define the primary components of the Strategic Management Process.
• Describe and define internal and external analysis.
• Describe and define the responsibilities and duties of the Strategic Manager.
• Explain why companies need strategic management planning.
Cite 3 scholarly references, including at least two peer-reviewed references from the University Library.

Q3. Social Media can be updated from a v
Week 4 Discussion Initial Response 1:

Social Media can be updated from a variety of devices and connectivity methods. In many situations, this has made social media the digital tool of choice for coordinating illegal activity. How can investigators keep up with the sheer volume of information and speed with which things can happen?

Q4. Age Is Relative The question of age can be applied
Age Is Relative The question of age can be applied to humans, clothing, food, furniture and fossils. Doctors study how humans age and can observe how hair turns grey and skin becomes wrinkled. Rocks and other organic materials do not always provide observers the same outward changes. In order to determine the age of a material; including human bones, radiometric dating can be applied. Determining the amount of radioactive isotopes in a geological or archeological specimen can help decipher its relative age. Since all rocks and minerals contain radioactive elements, the decay process is like a clock that a geologist can read since different radioactive elements have independent âclocksâ or half-lives.
For this unit, answer the following questions:

1. Pick TWO of the following and describe how radiometric dating has been utilized to determine their age:Earth
2. Moon
3. Meteorites
4. Fossils
5. Early man
6. Historic relics (i.e., Dead Sea Scrolls, Shroud of Turin)
7. Volcanic eruptions
8. Identify one element used to date rocks and minerals. How long is its half-life?
9. How can radioactivity be measured?
10. Rocks, minerals, and even food we eat can contain radioactive material. Why doesnât this radioactive material comprise a threat to humans?
11. What is an alternative method to radiometric dating? What are the strengths and weaknesses to this type of dating process?
Be sure to review the Discussion Board Grading Rubric provided under course home.
For help with citations, refer to the APA Quick Reference Guide .
Use this reference when referring to your text:
Trefil, J., & Hazen, R.M. (2013). The sciences: An integrated approach. Hoboken, NJ: John Wiley & Sons, Inc.

Q5. The analysis of current strategy and co
Create a Feasibility Study for Harley-Davidson using the following outline
Part I: Differentiation Strategies
The analysis of current strategy and competitor analysis you conducted last module impressed the senior vice president. She now needs you to delve into the brands and analyze them by conducting a business unit analysis and presenting your findings in a three-part PowerPoint presentation.
Research the Harley-Davidson (H-D) Web site for each brand, and review the annual report for relevant details of the size, scope, target market, services and amenities, and other salient points of differentiation. Include these details in Part I of your PowerPoint presentation.
From the research and analysis of the business units, identify:
• A description of each brand that provides a clear picture of the brand and its place in the overall portfolio of Harley-Davidson.
• The target market of each brand.
• How the brands are alike and how they differ.
• A preliminary analysis of any gaps that exist in the portfolio that might lead to opportunities to add to the brands.
• Your analysis of possible merger/acquisition/joint venture possibilities and what would be achieved or accomplished through the merger/acquisition/joint venture.
Part II: SWOT Analysis
Perform a SWOT analysis for Harley-Davidson and include this information in Part II of your PowerPoint presentation.
• Based on the internal analyses of the SWOT analysis, assess the functional areas, resources, capabilities, and strengths H-D possesses. Please be sure to cover the following functional areas in your assessment:

• Marketing: New product development, integrated marketing planning, marketing communications, and building customer loyalty.
• Operations: Quality, service, and consistent execution.
• Human Resources: Hiring, training, developing talent, and performance planning. Avoided lawsuits and bad PR due to its hiring practices. Is ethical in its HR practices.
• Executive Leadership: Industry knowledge and experience, vision about where the industry is heading, and strategy execution.
• Supply Chain Optimization: Strategic sourcing of input, vendor management, integrated IS, and joint forecasting with suppliers.
• Corporate Responsibility and Ethics: Concern for corporate citizenship and the environment. Present any potential ethical concerns as well.
• Safety and Quality: How the motorcycle industry is dealing with safety and quality issues.
• Part III: Growth and Profitability Strategies
In addition, the executive board is interested in your ideas about bold strategies for the future. The strategies you recommend will have to contribute to growth and profitability, as outlined in the Annual Report.
You will want to pay special attention to exploring vertical integration, strategic alliances, and the internal growth of new brands entering new geographic markets, and/or additional acquisitions.
Consider the following:

• Is Harley-Davidson, Inc., (H-D) competing in the right businesses, given the opportunities and threats present in the external environment? If not, how can H-D realign its diversification strategy to achieve a competitive advantage?
This may include additional diversification to take advantage of opportunities such as further vertical integration.
• Is the corporation managing its portfolio in a way that creates synergy among its businesses? If so, what additional businesses should it consider adding to its portfolio?

Q6. Imagine you are the HR manager at a Company.
Imagine you are the HR manager at a company. You need to hire three (3) new people. One employee will work at the front desk as a customer service assistant, and the other two (2) will work on the production line. Give at least five (5) places you would recruit for each position and explain why each place would be a viable option.
Write a one (1) page paper in which you:
1. Select at least five (5) places you would recruit for a customer service assistant and at least five (5) places you would recruit for production line workers.
2. Explain why each place you selected would be a viable option for recruiting employees.
3. Format your assignment according to the following formatting requirements:
1. Typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides.
2. Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, your name, your professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page is not included in the required page length.
The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
• Analyze effective recruiting and selection strategies that can be used to meet organizational requirements.
• Use technology and information resources to research issues in human resource management.
• Write clearly and concisely about human resource management using proper writing mechanics

Q7. Amy is cooking dinner for her family. She moves to pull
For this assignment you will respond to three case studies.
What is a Case Study?
“A case study is a narrative used to help you practice real-life analysis and communication skills. It is a learning tool that provides readers with “enough detail…to understand the nature and scope of the problem, and…serve as a springboard for discussion and learning” (O’Rourke, 2007, p. 391).
Use your textbook and academic resources from the Library to support your responses.
Access the Library directly from Course Resources for this class, or through the student portal. Be sure to cite and reference all your sources. The Library has a feature that allows you to automatically create an APA formatted reference.
Your completed case study should be between 750–1000 words, and all sources must be properly cited using APA format.
1. Amy is cooking dinner for her family. She moves to pull a pot off the stove and accidently touches the burner. She reflexively pulls her finger away from the stove and immediately feels the pain.
1. Which receptor neuron is responsible for sending information from her finger to her peripheral nervous system?
2. Is this receptor neuron, an afferent or efferent neuron?
3. Explain where the information from the receptor neuron is sent and how does it result in Amy moving her finger away from the stove.
4. How many neurons are typically involved in this response? What are the names of these neurons?
5. Evolutionarily, why do you think the human body has this system in place?
6. What might happen if we did not have this response?
2. Glen, who is 45 years old, begins to notice that his hands shake (tremors) when he is performing everyday tasks such as signing his signature. His family members have noticed that he also has muffled speech and tends to shuffle when he walks. He is diagnosed with Early Onset Parkinson’s disease.
1. What is Early Onset Parkinson’s disease?
2. What specific cell type is affected in Parkinson’s disease?
3. What is dopamine? What effects does dopamine have on the body?
4. Explain the structure of a synapse and why Glen’s neurologist would prescribe him a dopamine agonist?
5. Glen has genetic testing performed and it is determined that he does carry an autosomal dominant mutation in the SNCA gene associated with Early Onset Parkinson’s disease. Glen has three children. Would you advise his children to have genetic testing performed to determine if they also carry the disease mutation? Why or why not?
3. Patricia, who is 37 years old, discusses with her physician recent symptoms that she has experienced including blurred vision, numbness in her fingers and face, dizziness, fatigue and weakness. The physician performs multiple neurological tests and she is diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS).
1. What is MS?
2. Is MS a disease of the central or peripheral nervous system?
3. What is the main cell structure affected in MS?
4. How is the action potential of a neuron affected in MS?
5. The origins of MS are not clear. What do scientists hypothesize to be the causes of MS?
Your assignment should be written in an essay format. The assignment requires you to include details from research including the course materials and sources you locate on your own. Remember to use APA format to cite your sources of information, both within parenthetical citations and also within a reference page at the end of the project.

Q8. Describe the criteria leaders should
What is critical thinking?
Develop a two-page essay that addresses the following:
Create your own definition of creative thinking.
Describe the criteria leaders should use to determine whether they are employing creative-thinking techniques.
Explain the difference between creative and status quo behaviors.
Briefly describe a professional situation you have been involved with that could have benefited from creative thinking. Discuss how the situation meets the criteria you established in your definition. Also, explain how a creative and innovative approach to the issue would have changed the outcome.

Q9. DISCUSSION 1 Company Description
DISCUSSION 1 Company Description Throughout this course, you will develop a series of written papers projects that you will later combine into a complete business plan for a Non-Alcoholic Beverage company. For this discussion, you must first review the “NAB Company Portfolio”. The mentioned portfolio contains the company parameters and details you must follow when developing your company. Provide the following information to set the foundation for your non-alcoholic beverage (NAB) business plan.
Please respond to the following:
✔ Create your NAB company name and explain its significance.
✔ Develop your company’s Mission Statement and provide a rationale for its components.

Q10. BUS 499 Strategic Management and S
BUS 499 Strategic Management and Strategic Competitiveness- globalization and technology- Choose one (1) public corporation in an industry with which you are familiar. Research the company on its own Website, the public filings on the Securities and Exchange Commission EDGAR database (http://www.sec.gov/edgar.shtml), in the University’s online databases, and any other sources you can find. The annual report will often provide insights that can help address some of these questions. Write a four page paper in which you: 1. Assess how globalization and technology changes have impacted the corporation you researched. 2. Apply the industrial organization model and the resource-based model to determine how your corporation could earn above-average returns. 3. Assess how the vision statement and mission statement of the corporation influence its overall success. 4. Evaluate how each category of stakeholder impacts the overall success of this corporation. 5. Use at least two (2) quality references. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not quality as academic resources.

GEOLOGY.
Q1. PHSC 210 Quiz 1
Question 1
Which of the following minerals is a silicate?
Selected Answer: Quartz
Question 2
A naturalistic evolution position holds that
Selected Answer: Earth is 4.5 billion years old and all life is connected by
evolution, not guided by God
Purchase for remaining 23 Answers

Q2. MKT 571 Week 1 Assignment Researching Marketing Questions
Purpose of Assignment
This assignment is designed to help students analyze and interpret primary and/or secondary data and research. Students will be provided with a marketing report that allows for preparing basic executive level data insights. This assignment will help prepare students for the development of their marketing plan.
Assignment Steps
Analyze the Week 1 Business Growth Overview dataset. This is a marketing report generated by an analyst for the Senior Vice President (SVP) of Marketing at a large corporation. The analyst is new and has provided summary data but no insights or commentary for the SVP.
Construct a 1-2 page (san title page) memorandum for the SVP providing insights and commentary. The memorandum should include your analysis of the following:
• Major areas of increase and decrease in revenue or type and/or category of business
• Trends that are evident in terms of revenue or type and/or category of business
• Insights that would help formulate marketing strategies to either continue growth or reverse decline
• Additional analysis you (if you were SVP) would like to build a marketing goal and strategy or strategies (and why)

Format your assignment consistent with APA guidelines.

Q3. ENVIRONMENT SCIENCE PAPER
You are the project manager of an environmental company that was hired to cleanup a historical arsenic contamination site. Soil sampling results indicated the area impacted with arsenic above action levels is 30 feet by 55 feet. The depth of the arsenic plume is three feet below ground surface. The land owner wanted to clean this site for future development. Using your textbook, answer the questions below to help you prepare a cost estimate for this portion of the project. Your solutions and any assumptions to justify your estimate must be shown.
What is the chemical symbol of arsenic, and what group/family does it belong to?
Solve for the minimum volume of soil that will be excavated in cubic yards?
If each dump truck can transport 18 cubic yards, determine how many dump trucks loads will be transported? For calculation purposes, add a 15% �fluff factor� (add to the volume that will be transported).
If the bulk density of soil is 1350 kg/m3 (84.3 lb/ft3), solve for the weight of the soil that will be transported to a disposal site in kilograms?

Your total response to parts a-d must be at least 200 words in length. You are required to use at least your textbook as source material for your response. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced. Paraphrased and/or quoted material must have accompanying citations in APA format.

book: Meyer, E. (2014). Chemistry of Hazardous Materials (6 ed.). Upper Saddle River, New Jersey: Pearson Education Inc.

citation: page 115, figure 4.3 arsenic, As, semi metal

Q4. CostLeadershipStrategy–What are th
What are the characteristics of a firm that is successfully pursuing a cost leadership strategy?

Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations
What are the characteristics of a firm that is successfully pursuing a cost leadership strategy?

Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations

In a BCG Matrix, all divisions are classified as either Question Marks, Stars, Cash Cows or Dogs. Define each of these terms and briefly discussion how you would apply the terms to strategic planning.

Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.

In a BCG Matrix, all divisions are classified as either Question Marks, Stars, Cash Cows or Dogs. Define each of these terms and briefly discussion how you would apply the terms to strategic planning.

Your response should be at least 200 words in length. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.

Q5. Cloud Computing and Web 2.0
Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Your paper should be 3-5 pages in length
and explain the business uses of each. Using the internet, research the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0..
When you do the research, pay particular attention to how cloud computing and Web 2.0 are used in organizations and
the technology required for them. Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Be sure to address the following in your
assignment:
• Explain cloud computing and Web 2.0.
• Explain how organizations use these tools.
• Describe the technology required to use these tools.
• Discuss the benefits of each.
• Discuss the limitations of each.
CSU requires that students use the APA style for papers and projects. Therefore, the APA rules for formatting, quoting,
Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Your paper should be 3-5 pages in length
and explain the business uses of each. Using the internet, research the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0..
When you do the research, pay particular attention to how cloud computing and Web 2.0 are used in organizations and
the technology required for them. Write a paper explaining the business uses of cloud computing and Web 2.0. Be sure to address the following in your
assignment:
• Explain cloud computing and Web 2.0.
• Explain how organizations use these tools.
• Describe the technology required to use these tools.
• Discuss the benefits of each.
• Discuss the limitations of each.
CSU requires that students use the APA style for papers and projects. Therefore, the APA rules for formatting, quoting,

Q6. What is the U.S. Global Leadership
What is the U.S. Global Leadership?
• What is the process for International Affairs in your organization? Provide examples.
• How do you provide your organization with the fundamental tools to meet the global challenges of the 21st century?

Q7. GEOL 1021: Assignment #1
GEOL 1021: Assignment #1 Fall 2013
Answer all the following Questions
1. The length of recorded history for humankind is about 5000 years. Clearly, most people view this span as being very long. How does it compare to the length of geologic time? Calculate the percentage or fraction of geologic time that is represented by recorded history. To make calculations easier, round the age of Earth to the nearest billion. 5 marks
2. After entering a dark room, you turn on a wall switch, but the light does not come on. Suggest at least three hypotheses that might explain this observation. Once you have formulated your hypotheses what is the next logical step? 10
3. How is the Earth’s inner core different from its outer core? 5
4. The Earth is considered a dynamic planet, compared to the Moon or Mercury. Why? 10
5. The moon has virtually no magnetosphere. Why? 10
6. Explain how the principle of uniformitarianism allows for catastrophic events. 8
7. The concentric layer that makes up most of Earth’s volume— is it? 2
A. the inner core B. outer core C. mantle D. Asthenosphere E. crust

Note:
• Read all questions carefully
• Answers must be type-written
• You require a cover page. The cover page should have the following: course code and assignment number, name of student (s), and date of submission.
• Use the class notes, textbook, and any other referenced source to answer the questions. (Some of your answers may come from critical analyses more than direct answers from a source.)
• You may work in groups. The maximum number of students in a group is three. You may elect to work alone.
• This assignment is due by the close of Friday, October 18, 2013.
• Use the assignment drop box.
• Assignments submitted after midnight, Friday, October 18, will not be accepted (without prior permission from the instructor).
• This is not an essay assignment.
Total Marks: 50

Q8. Volkswagen Organizational Structure F
Volkswagen Organizational Structure For the Assignment, you will apply what you have learned concerning organizational structure and conduct research on Volkswagen (VW). You will respond to the three (3) questions listed below the Assignment instructions in an APA formatted 2–3 page paper .
Case: If one were to chart the growth spurts of Volkswagen over the past three decades, the chart would look like a roller coaster. Plans were for former BMW boss Bernd Pischetsrieder to fix ailing VW when he came aboard in 2002. However, best-laid plans often go astray. VW’s share price is down almost 50% and profits fell by 36%. What is wrong at VW? First, VW has always been able to charge more for its cars because of quality, innovation, styling, and an implied lifetime guarantee. In recent years, however, consumers have decided that the company is going to have to come up with more value for the dollar if loyalty is to be retained. Second, sales in China’s booming market (VW was one of the first car makers on the scene in this giant economy) have plummeted and GM has driven VW from its number one ranking. Third, cost-cutting moves have not worked. Fourth, VW uncharacteristically has labor pains. The CEO has had little luck in reversing these problems because his consensus management techniques are having little impact on VW’s change-resistant bureaucracy. Over half of the company’s 100 managers are not used to making their own decisions. This spells even more trouble for the company in the year ahead.
Checklist:
Address the following questions in your 2—3 page essay adding an additional title and references page:
1- Using a search engine of your own choosing, investigate Volkswagen’s performance over the past two years. Write a brief summary of their fortunes and misfortunes.
2- Visit the Volkswagen Investor Relations Web site, then use the search box on the right and search for “organizational structure”. In particular be sure to look at the Corporate Governance Report. Alternately, you can perform an internet search for “Volkswagen organizational structure.” From information supplied, characterize the company’s existing structure.
3- Based on what you have observed in “1” and “2” above; suggest a new organizational structure for the company. Cite any assumptions that you made when you developed your structure.
Source:
Robbins, S. P., & Judge, T. A. (2013). Organizational behavior (15th ed.). Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson Prentice Hall.

Q9. Using the weather map given:
Using the weather map given:
• Fill in the data table provided based on the weather map. For “Current Weather,” use the data provided in the chart to determine the current conditions for each station.
• Create the warm and cold fronts on the Weather Map. While this map will not need to be turned in, it will assist you in filling out the information in the data table.
• Based on the weather scenario in this lab assignment, predict what tomorrow’s weather will be at the locations listed below if the system continues due east at 300 miles/day. Be sure to include wind direction, temperature, cloud cover and precipitation in your forecast. The position of the warm and cold fronts will help you with this.
Locations:
Bangor, ME
Birmingham, AL
Dallas, TX
Denver, CO
Jacksonville, FL
Louisville, KY
Minneapolis, MN
New York, NY
Pittsburgh, PA

Q10. GEO EARTH SCIENCE PAPER A+
Using the geologic map of Virginia, answer the following questions:
1. Is the region in the extreme northwest corner to the Potomac River strongly folded or strongly faulted?
2. Is the region from the southeast corner to Harrison Island along the Potomac strongly folded or strongly faulted?
3. In the southwestern part of the map, along the Shenandoah River, the sediments are only Quaternary in age, yet they are surrounded by much older Cambrian sediments. How do you explain this?
4. In the southeastern corner of the map, locate Rockville and Gaithersburg. Notice that they are separated by the Plummer’s Island Fault. Is Rockville moving atop Gaithersburg or is Gaithersburg moving atop Rockville?
5. Find Martinsburg, WV, in the extreme northwest corner. Now locate Martinsburg, MD, which is just to the to the east of Harrison Island and Mason Island along a bend in the Potomac in the south central area of the map. Which is surrounded by the older rock?
6. Locate Long Marsh Run just south of the West Virginia/ Virginia border on the southwestern side of the map. Which way is it flowing?

How many different ages of rock would you encounter along its course?
7. In the middle image at the bottom, to the far right, you see that the younger Prettyboy Schist lies beneath the older Mather Gorge Formation. How can older rock be found atop younger rock?
8. Locate the oval, brown rocks near the center of the map. What geologic feature is this?

LINGUISTICS.
Q1. PSY 201 Quiz 2-Phonetics

PSY 201 Quiz 2-Phonetics

Correct Answers Marked
Quiz Submissions –
Top of Form
Submission View

Quiz 2 Phonetics

Quiz 2 Phonetics

Question 5

1 / 2 points
Please select all that apply.
Nasal consonants are produced:
with a constriction of the pharynx below the velum.

with air coming out through the mouth rather than the nose.
by lowering your velum.
with air coming out through the nose rather than the mouth.

Question 7
0 / 2 points
Which of the following words contain at least one voiced fricative?
Select all that apply.
Phase
Plasma

Warp

Ship

Star
Question 8
0 / 2 points
Which of the following descriptions is correct for the vowel /i/?
Check all that apply.
unrounded
high
tense

back
Question 9
0 / 2 points
The number of sounds in the word “taught” is:

2

5
3

none of these answers.
Question 10
1.2 / 2 points
What speech sound properties are shared by the sounds [t], [n], and [d]?
Choose all that apply.

They are all velar

They are all nasal
They are all consonants
They are all alveolar

They are all voiced
Question 14
0 / 2 points
What speech sound properties are shared by the sounds [u], [oʊ], and [ɑ]?
Choose all that apply.

rounded
tense

high
back
Question 15
0 / 2 points
Vowels are typically characterized by the parameters of:

voicing, tongue height, and lip-rounding.

voicing, tongue tension, and lip-rounding.

none of these answers.
tongue height, tongue backness, lip-rounding and tongue tension.
Question 16
0 / 2 points
The glottis is the conduit for air between the lungs and the mouth.

True

False
Question 18
0 / 2 points
The sound /g/ is a voiced velar stop.

True

False
Question 19
0 / 2 points
The word “sing” contains which of the following?

Voiceless velar oral stop

Voiceless velar nasal stop

Voiced alveolar plosive
None of these answers
Question 20
0 / 2 points
Please match the state of the glottis with its description by typing the corresponding number in the box.
__3__
(3)
Breathy
__4__
(4)
Creaky
__1__
(1)
Voiceless
__2
(2)
Voiced
1.
Vocal folds are pulled apart so that air flows freely through the glottis.
2.
Vocal folds are close together but not quite shut.
3.
Vocal folds are closed at the anterior end and open at the other.
4.
Vocal folds are open at the anterior end and closed at the other.
Question 21
0 / 2 points
A midsagittal view of our speech system is one that shows a top-down view of the vocal folds, as if you had a mirror in your mouth pointing straight down the larynx.

True

False
Question 22
0 / 2 points
Which of the following descriptions is FALSE?

Nasal sounds cannot be made if a person has a cold.

None of these are false.

There are at least three different nasal consonants in English.
In making a nasal sound, the velum (soft palate) has to be raised.

In making the nasal sound [m], there is complete closure in the oral cavity.
Question 23
0 / 2 points
A diphthong is a vowel that begins with one place of articulation and ends with another.

True

False
Question 24
0 / 2 points
Which of the following words can be pronounced without the velum being lowered at any point during the word?

none of these answers

China
Cute

Bamboo

Panda
Question 25
0 / 2 points
The Bernoulli Effect is caused by:

An increase in air pressure behind a point of closure.

A decrease in air pressure when the pathway of the airflow is unimpeded.
Cycles of increasing and decreasing air pressure that causes rapid vibration.

None of these answers.

The neural commands sent by the brain to the vocal folds.
Quiz Submissions – Quiz 2-Phonetics
Top of Form

Quiz 2 Phonetics

Quiz 2 Phonetics

Question 1
0 / 2 points
Which of the following is NOT a property of the sound of the sound [l] (the sound that starts the word ‘like’)?
none of these answers

alveolar

approximant

lateral
Question 2
0 / 2 points
Which of the following statements is FALSE?

All the parts of the vocal tract can be used to make speech sounds.

The nasal tract is used to make nasal sounds.

None of these answers are false.
Teeth are not articulators.

The tongue is used to produce vowel sounds.
Question 8
0 / 2 points
In English we use breathy voice in any word that contains an /h/.

True

False
Question 9
0 / 2 points
The vowel in the word “cook” is /ʊ/.

True

False
Question 12
0 / 2 points
Which of the following is NOT part of the three systems of speech?

None of these answers.
The nasal system.

The vocal tract system.

The respiratory system.

The laryngeal system.
Question 13
0 / 2 points
The first sound in the word “though” is:

none of these answers.

/θ/
/ð/

/t/
Question 15
0 / 2 points
Match the vowels and their descriptions
__1__
(1)
high front unrounded lax vowel
__4
(4)
mid central unrounded lax vowel
__3__
(3)
mid front unrounded lax vowel
_2__
(2)
high back rounded tense vowel
1.
[ɪ]
2.
[u]
3.
[ɛ]
4.
[ə]
Question 16
0 / 2 points
Which of the following statements about an ejective sound is correct?
Choose all that apply.
An ejective sound is made using the glottalic airstream mechanism.

An ejective sound is made with a rapid downward movement of the glottis.

An ejective sound is made by a quick inhalation of breath into the lungs.
An ejective sound is made with a rapid upward movement of the glottis.
Question 17
1 / 2 points
Phoneticians study:
Please select all that apply.
how sounds are made in the vocal tract.

how to break up words into smaller units of meaning.
how sounds are transmitted.

the mental organization of speech sounds in our minds.
Question 18
0 / 2 points
Affricates are:

the same thing as fricatives, but the air travels faster through the oral cavity.
A combination of a stop followed immediately by a fricative.

none of these answers

fricatives that have vowel quality because of the vowel that follows immediately after it.
Question 21
0 / 2 points
X-Ray imaging is one of the more common tools used today to study aspects of articulatory phonetics.

True

False
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Bottom of Form

Q2. Star Wars Poem about a Dark Jedi
Contemplate the universe and write a lovely poem about whatever you can think of during your contemplation. Poem must be at least 12 lines long and can be any format as long as it meets the line length requirement.

If you are unsure of Dark Jedi in Star Wars, take a look at

Q3. ENG 115 Assignment 1 Summary and Personal Response
Se Habala Espanol: Summary and Personal Response
Se Habala Espanol is a short story by Tanya Barrientos, born Latina. In this narrative, she has craftily presented her struggle to relate to her society and fit in. According to Barrientos, it is crucial for people to be able to relate to their true ethnic self. Pretending to be someone else, hiding your true ethnicity is not beneficial, when it comes to discover one’s true inner self. Culture and language give people their identity, as they become at peace with their conscience when they are same inside out…

PERFORMING ARTS.
Q1. Drive: A Film Noir Experience
Research paper on the film Drive (2011).
Trailer: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CWX34ShfcsE

, the research paper will talk about Drive as a film noir experience, by referencing and providing tribute to both classical 50s film noir as well as neo-noir films of the 70s.
. I have written some notes after watching the film.

Drive is a film noir, we can infer that from
the expressive lighting in dark area
the hard-boiled crime story
local and urban setting, which is Los-Angeles and its neighborhoods.
Anxiety in the film, the driver is having a relationship with a married woman, dealing with corrupt individuals

Shannon serves as a mentor figure to the driver, similar to Barton Keyes from Double Indemnity

Irene is the love interest of the character and serves as a femme fatale figure but with a modern take to it, she is not as sexualized or glamorous as femme fatales have been portrayed

Bernie Ross is one of the threats that the protagonist faces, he is cold blooded and a man of principle similar to Mr Brown in the film The Big Combo

The super market scene is a reference to the market scene in the film Double Indemnity, where the protagonist Walter meets with Phyllis.

Drive market scene
https://youtu.be/QwLmVBv6sO4?t=19m43s

Double Indmnity market scene
50:20

LA river is an iconic set piece through out Hollywood film history
The scene where the driver kills Nino happens on a beach, reminiscent of the final scene in Kiss Me Deadly
Drive beach death scene
https://youtu.be/QwLmVBv6sO4?t=1h52m49s

Kiss me deadly beach scene

Drive is inspired by another film called The Driver (1978), as a tribute to car chase movies

Q2. Things to consider before buying a hybrid bike (2000 words)
Introduction
All types of hybrid bikes
Tips on how to choose the best hybrid bikes.
Choosing the most suitable Bike frames
The difference between hybrid bikes for women and those for men.

PSYCHOLOGY.
Q1. Personal Gun Use Graded A
Unit 3: Public Argument
Purpose:
You will practice communicating in the world beyond academia by transforming your
controversy analysis paper into a public argument. You will also create multiple drafts and
respond to the work of other writers.
Assignment:
Drawing on our discussions of rhetorical situation and analysis from Unit 1 and the
original research you performed in the Controversy analysis for Unit 2, create a specific
rhetorical situation (purpose, audience, and context) and create a rhetorically effective public
argument (either a TED talk with slides, video, infographic, or a website) to communicate in
that situation. You will present your public argument to the class in a 4-6 minute time slot. An
accompanying verbal speech is required for TED Talks, infographics, and websites, but not for
videos (other than recorded speech within the video).
Explicitly reference a minimum of 3 sources from your controversy research paper (use
“quote” and “end quote” or language such as “according to” and a signal phrase- See Rules for
Writers 58b). All images/audio/sources other than those in Paper 2 should be documented in a
final Works Cited slide.
Detailed description, examples, sound, music, color, props, and/or conversational
language are tools that you can use to convey ideas effectively. If you choose the TED talk,
video, or infographic, use alphabetic-based writing minimally, in accordance with the
conventions for these mediums. Images and short phrases are much stronger choices. Visual
elements should strengthen the piece and be clearly seen by the audience.
• The cover letter and the presentation should both communicate the specific rhetorical
situation (this counts as part of the time).
• For videos, consider recording audio using a headset or a USB microphone instead of
through your laptop’s speakers for clarity (see Resources section below).
• Your public argument will be evaluated in part for delivery– pace, conversational style
(avoid merely reading information), timing, volume, eye contact, and credibility
(preparation and back ups).
• Your own audience for this assignment is an educated, college audience. The audience
members may not be familiar with your sources or your ideas. Communicate your main
claim in the introduction section, and make this especially clear to audience members.
Utilize verbal/visual transitions between points, and provide the significance of your
argument at the end.
Resources:
• Multimedia Zone –1st floor of the main library–1-on-1 technology help
o There are other labs such as the Multimedia Learning Lab (Music) and the
Multimedia Classroom in Aerospace and Mechanical Engineering, but they have
classes in them during the day (see staff schedules here).
• Rent equipment (such as headsets or microphone USBs for recording) at the main library
Information Commons desk (1st floor) or at OSCR Gear to Go in the UITS Computer
Center. You can check out headsets/ microphone USB for 6 hours. Consider scheduling
an individual study room to record, or record from home. The MLL Sound Room is also
an option.
• Consider bringing your draft to the Writing Center in the Bear Down Gym—it’s free!
Make sure to bring this sheet. Appointments are best.

Q2. Myers-Briggs Personality Test online
Project 1 Instructions
This project requires that you complete the Myers-Briggs Personality Test online, and then complete Steps 1 and 2 (see below). Read all of the instructions for this assignment before beginning any of your work.
Step 1
1. Open the following website to complete the assessment: Jung Typology Test.
2. Once complete, click on “Score it” to retrieve your four-letter type.
3. Next, go to The Four Temperaments and investigate the various buttons for descriptions of your Type and data on relationships, careers, etc.
4. Using The Four Temperaments link, explore Keirsey’s Temperaments as well. Go back to the Jung Typology test site to explore the Sixteen Personality Types using the tabs at the top to locate the description of your type. You may also research beyond these suggested links as long as you cite them properly.
5. Once there, click on links for The Four Preferences, Keirsey’s Temperaments, and Overview of the Sixteen Personality Types to locate the description of your type.
6. This personality test will reveal your 4-letter type and your 2-letter temperament. Discuss the validity of each letter of your type and temperament. Provide your statistical/percentage results for comparison of letters within your discussion. Any adverse personal opinions on the assessment tools must be respectful and scholarly with supportive research.
7. Include a separate section for each letter of your personality type, as well as a section for discussing how the different aspects of your personality (represented by the letters) work together. For example, if you scored with the letter “I,” then that letter with your type will be a heading: I-Introverted.
• You must have separate sub-headings for each section.
• Give specific examples from your life—especially your work life—and discuss the weaknesses of your personality type as well. Refer to the Presentation: “Lesson 1–A Worldview Perspective on Organizational Behavior,” found in the Module/Week 1 Reading & Study folder.
Step 2
1. Apply the Type Talk at Work textbook, which focuses on how various personality types relate at work. The book must be evident within the discussion, not simply cited, with specific, applied topics.
2. Using the Type Talk at Work textbook as your guide, discuss the things you have learned about yourself that will help you understand your organization and your role within it. In a new section in your paper (labeled Step 2), answer the following questions with specific correlation to the book:
• In general, what have you learned from these personality tests about organizational behavior that will help you be a better employee, coworker, and/or manager?
• In particular, what have you learned about yourself from this personality test that will help you be a better employee, coworker, and/or manager? Provide specific examples.
Formatting
1. Use current APA format for every element of the paper. Be sure to include the current APA-formatted cover page, abstract, and reference page. Refer to your APA manual for help or this site for assistance: https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/560/18/
2. Write in first person—this is allowed due to the personal nature of the assignment.
3. To facilitate the instructor’s grading of these assignments, you must have major headings for Steps 1 and 2. Additionally, under the major heading of Step 1, you must have subheadings for each separate letter of your Meyers-Briggs type. There must also be a subheading describing your entire Meyers-Briggs personality to round out the discussion with your Temperament. You will need a total of 5 subheadings for Step 1.
4. The exact number of paragraphs that you include in each section is your decision; your instructor will not be grading you on how many paragraphs you used per section, but rather the extent to which you specifically addressed each of the areas above.
5. The minimum of 6 required pages of content does not include the title page, abstract page, or reference page. Those must be counted as additional pages. You will likely find that it will be difficult to address all of these things in only 6 pages, but that constraint is part of the exercise itself. Learning to write succinctly and efficiently will improve your communication skills, regardless of the setting. Because you only have 6 pages to discuss all these components, be concise.
6. Be sure to double-space, using Times New Roman 12-point font only; use 1-inch margins, and avoid bold font (except for headlines, per current APA format), underlining, and contractions.
7. The reference page must include a minimum of the 5 following references in current APA format (all sources must be evident within the paper and less than 5 years old):
• Presentation: Lesson 1 – A Worldview Perspective on Organizational Behavior (in Module/Week 1),
• Type Talk at Work textbook,
• Organizational Behavior textbook,
• Jung Typology Test, and
• www.personalitypage.com.
Note: For further questions regarding current APA format, visit Liberty University’s Online Writing Center.
Submit Project 1 to the appropriately labeled SafeAssign link first to provide your percentage of originality. Then submit Project 1 to the appropriate link for grading by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Friday of Module/Week 2. Both submission steps must be completed in order to receive full points.

Q3. PSYC 255 B-07 LUO Quiz 7
1. The general form of a regression equation is _____. – Y = a + bX
2. Which of the following statements is true about effect size? – It is a statistic that describes how strongly variables are related to one another. –
Which of the following is a measure of central tendency? – Median

Q4. SPSS CUMULATIVE ASSESSMENT
The following five research questions can be answered using one of the eight tests you have learned this term, including: independent-samples t-test, paired-samples t-test, one-way ANOVA, two-factor ANOVA for independent measures, Pearson correlation coefficient, linear regression, the chi-square test for goodness of fit, and the chi-square test for independence. Note that this means that three tests will not be used. Use the information in the tables to construct your SPSS data file, just as you have been doing in each homework assignment. There is only 1 correct choice of analysis for each question. Remember to account for whether the test is 1-tailed or 2-tailed. The assessment is open-book/open-notes.
Your answer must include: A) SPSS output, and B) Results section in current APA style with the appropriate graph included as an APA-style figure.
For ANOVA problems (if applicable): Report statistical findings and make statements for all main effects and interaction effects. Use Tukey’s test for any analyses requiring post hoc tests.

SPSS CUMULATIVE ASSESSMENT
80 POINTS
The following five research questions can be answered using one of the eight tests you have learned this term, including: independent-samples t-test, paired-samples t-test, one-way ANOVA, two-factor ANOVA for independent measures, Pearson correlation coefficient, linear regression, the chi-square test for goodness of fit, and the chi-square test for independence. Note that this means that three tests will not be used. Use the information in the tables to construct your SPSS data file, just as you have been doing in each homework assignment. There is only 1 correct choice of analysis for each question. Remember to account for whether the test is 1-tailed or 2-tailed. The assessment is open-book/open-notes.
Your answer must include: A) SPSS output, and B) Results section in current APA style with the appropriate graph included as an APA-style figure.
For ANOVA problems (if applicable): Report statistical findings and make statements for all main effects and interaction effects. Use Tukey’s test for any analyses requiring post hoc tests.

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Friday of Module/Week 8.

ASSESSMENT BEGINS ON NEXT PAGE

Pain before
treatment Pain after
treatment
9
5
6
4
3
10
9
9
7
5
2
5
8
3
6
7 8
6
4
3
3
8
6
7
8
4
4
4
5
5
3
8

1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)

2. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)

Visual Attention Test Scores Number of Errors in Multitasking
3 25
8 18
9 18
4 26
15 6
6 19
18 3
17 4
19 6
6 16
5 14
20 2
17 5
5 23

1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)

3. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)

Region

Political
Party Urban Rural
Republican 16
32
29
18
18 19
28
29
37
26
Democrat 35
36
27
39
22 24
19
14
26
30
Libertarian 12
16
10
27
19 9
13
7
25
12
Independent 27
17
23
21
12 15
16
26
25
13

1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)

4. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)

Hours Spent in After-School Programs Number of Arrests After Age 17
3 2
41 1
68 1
29 0
7 5
12 4
121 0
54 1
19 3
134 0
106 1
67 1
25 3
73 1
38 4
110 0
31 3

1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)

5. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)

Alcohol Opioids Cocaine/
Crack Cocaine

8

10
5

1. Paste SPSS output. (6 pts)

6. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your graph as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentations. (Results = 6 pts; Graph = 4 pts)

Q5. SPSS Homework 7- help!!
Need help ASAP!!! I cannot afford much, so please work with me. Thank you in advance.
SPSS HOMEWORK 7
40 POINTS

Less likely to support No change More likely to support

25
12
9

7. Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)

8. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your bar chart as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)

CONTINUED ON NEXT PAGE

Morning Afternoon TOTAL
Engineering
3 7 10
Psychology
6 4 10
Business
5 5 10
TOTAL
14 16 30

1. Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)

2. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your clustered bar chart as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday at the end of Module/Week 7.

Q6. Liberty university PSYC 210 Quiz 8
Liberty university PSYC 210 Quiz 8
Liberty university PSYC 210 Quiz 8
50 answers

Q7. Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 6
50 answers

Result A+

Q8. Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 3

Q9. Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
Liberty University PSYC 210 Quiz 2
50 questions with correct answers

Q10. PSYC2012 – PSYCHOLOGY: AN EVIDENCE-BASED APPROACH 2
PSYC2012 – PSYCHOLOGY: AN EVIDENCE-BASED APPROACH 2
ASSESSMENT 2: Data Analysis Assignment
You have been provided with the data for this assignment as an SPSS file. The data file has been provided with generic variable names (V1, V2, etc.), which you should change. You will need to provide more detailed VARIABLE LABELS and VALUE LABELS in the data file.
The hypothetical study examines the relationship between body mass index (BMI), sex, and different measures of response inhibition, delay of gratification, and positive/negative affect. The researchers recruited 120 adults and recorded their sex (V1: 1 = female; 2 = male) and BMI (V2: 1 = underweight; 2 = normal; 3 = overweight). Participants reported their level of hunger (V3) – at the start of the study – on a Likert scale ranging from 1 = “not hungry at all” to 9 = “extremely hungry”.
Participants then completed a range of self-report measures:
• Kirby Monetary Choice Questionnaire: 27 items, each presenting two choices: either an immediate reward (e.g., “$55 today”) or a larger delayed reward (e.g., “$75 in 61 days”). The higher the overall score (V4), the more likely is the person to choose the smaller, immediate rewards.
• Brief Sensation Seeking Scale: 8 items, scored on a Likert scale from 1 = “strongly disagree” to 5 = “strongly agree”. Example item: “I like wild parties”. The higher the overall score (V5), the more likely is the person to seek novel and stimulating experiences.
• The Tightwad-Spendthrift Scale: 4 items, scored using either a 1-11 (item no.1) or 1-5 (items 2-4) ratings. The higher the score (V8), the more difficultly people have in controlling their spending. Tightwads (i.e., those with low scores), on the other hand, tend to become anxious and experience pain when they have to spend money.
• The Positive and Negative Affect Schedule – Expanded form (PANAS-X): Participants are presented with a list of 60 adjectives (e.g., confident, joyful, upset, angry), and are asked to indicate the degree to which they feel each of these positive and negative emotional states in general. Items are scored on a Likert scale ranging from 1 = “very slightly or not at all” to 5 = “extremely”. V9 includes positive and V10 negative affect scores. High scores on V9 and V10 represent high levels of positive and negative affect, respectively.

ASIANS STUDIES
Q1. Teacher account
Teacher account registering i have student account but i want to teacher account

Q2. Creating a Compelling Vision Leaders
3: Creating a Compelling Vision
Leaders today must be able to create a compelling vision for the organization. They also must be able to create an aligned strategy and then execute it. Visions have two parts, the envisioned future and the core values that support that vision of the future. The ability to create a compelling vision is the primary distinction between leadership and management. Leaders need to create a vision that will frame the decisions and behavior of the organization and keep it focused on the future while also delivering on the short-term goals.
To learn more about organizational vision statements, do an Internet search and review various vision statements.
In this assignment, you will consider yourself as a leader of an organization and write a vision statement and supporting values statement.
Select an organization of choice. This could be an organization that you are familiar with, or a fictitious organization. Then, respond to the following:
Provide the name and description of the organization. In the description, be sure to include the purpose of the organization, the products or services it provides, and the description of its customer base. Describe the core values of the organization. Why are these specific values important to the organization? Describe the benefits and purpose for an organizational vision statement. Develop a vision statement for this organization. When developing a vision statement, be mindful of the module readings and lecture materials. In the vision statement, be sure to communicate the future goals and aspirations of the organization. Once you have developed the vision statement, describe how you would communicate the statement to the organizational stakeholders, that is, the owners, employees, vendors, and customers. How would you incorporate the communication of the vision into the new employee on-boarding and ongoing training? Write your response in approximately 3–5 pages in Microsoft Word. Apply APA standards to citation of sources.

Q3. Choosing an interesting and researchable topic is an imperative step for writing an excellent paper
Research Paper – Topic Instructions
Choosing an interesting and researchable topic is an imperative step for writing an excellent paper. The topic that you choose must address a particular element of a social problem (e.g., drug addiction and pregnancy). For this paper, a good topic will:
• Have plenty of available scholarly research that you can access.
• Be specific enough to be described in detail.
• Allow you to discuss the different roles of the church, the family, and the community with ample examples and support for each area.
• Allow you to incorporate biblical examples in your paper.
When choosing your research topic, be sure to keep in mind that you will need plenty of available scholarly research for your final paper. You might wish to explore the Liberty University Online Library databases for APA journal articles and/or books. In addition, research articles must have been published within the last 7 years. Government and University sites for some topics can additionally be used, as these are considered primary resources. Be sure to avoid Wikipedia, which is a secondary resource.
Research Paper – Topic Instructions
Choosing an interesting and researchable topic is an imperative step for writing an excellent paper. The topic that you choose must address a particular element of a social problem (e.g., drug addiction and pregnancy). For this paper, a good topic will:
• Have plenty of available scholarly research that you can access.
• Be specific enough to be described in detail.
• Allow you to discuss the different roles of the church, the family, and the community with ample examples and support for each area.
• Allow you to incorporate biblical examples in your paper.
When choosing your research topic, be sure to keep in mind that you will need plenty of available scholarly research for your final paper. You might wish to explore the Liberty University Online Library databases for APA journal articles and/or books. In addition, research articles must have been published within the last 7 years. Government and University sites for some topics can additionally be used, as these are considered primary resources. Be sure to avoid Wikipedia, which is a secondary resource.

Q4. Assignment 1 Discussion Effective P
Assignment 1 Discussion Effective Punishment One aspect of raising healthy children is understanding how to best provide correction when they make poor choices or behave in unacceptable ways. Over the years, there has been much debate over the most effective form of punishment for children. As part of this debate, you have to take into consideration operant conditioning as this is the basis for how effective correction works. Operant conditioning should be considered when choosing how to best administer corrective actions whether the parents choose to use corporal punishment, time outs, or loss of privileges.
• Discuss the differences between negative and positive punishment. What are the factors that make punishment effective?
• Discuss the effectiveness of corporal punishment and elaborate upon when you think it should be used.
• Discuss how culture affects the type of punishment used.
• Give reasons in support of your responses based on your readings and personal experiences.
Write your initial response in 1-2 paragraphs. Apply APA standards to citation of sources.

• Have your peers accurately identified the differences between negative and positive punishment? Explain your answer.
• Can you suggest any other factors that make punishment effective? If so, state them.

Q5. HLT 310 V Healing Hospital A Da
(Benchmark Assignment) HLT 310 V Healing Hospital: A Daring Paradigm Consider how the paradigm of a healing hospital might influence your philosophy of caregiving Describe the components of a healing hospital and their relationship to spirituality.
1. What are the challenges of creating a healing environment in light of the barriers and complexities of the hospital environment?
2. Include biblical aspects that support the concept of a healing hospital.
Prepare this assignment according to the APA guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.
This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. Please refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.

Q6. Titan Mining Corporation has 10.0 mill
Titan Mining Corporation has 10.0 million shares of common stock outstanding, 440,000 shares of 4 percent preferred stock outstanding, and 230,000 8.8 percent semiannual bonds outstanding, par value $1,000 each. The common stock currently sells for $48 per share and has a beta of 1.50, the preferred stock currently sells for $98 per share, and the bonds have 10 years to maturity and sell for 115 percent of par. The market risk premium is 8.8 percent, T-bills are yielding 5 percent, and Titan Mining’s tax rate is 40 percent.

a.
What is the firm’s market value capital structure? (Round your answers to 4 decimal places. (e.g., 32.1616))

Market value
Debt
Preferred stock
Equity

b.
If Titan Mining is evaluating a new investment project that has the same risk as the firm’s typical project, what rate should the firm use to discount the project’s cash flows? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your final answer to 2 decimal places. (e.g., 32.16))
Q7. Read Menendez v. ONiell – Cheeseman Read Smith v. Van Gorkom – Cheeseman text page 348-349.
Unit VI

Question 1
• Read the Call-of-the-Question carefully, and follow the instructions for each subject. Prepare four Briefing Papers using the APA Format for Research Papers, and upload them as one document for responses.
• Briefing Paper 1: Critical Legal Thinking
Instructions:
Read Menendez v. ONiell – Cheeseman text page 331-332.
Respond to the three Case Questions found in Cheeseman Text page 332.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions as noted in the Critical Legal Thinking, Ethics, and Contemporary Business questions. Argue both sides of all issues.

• Briefing Paper 2: Law Case with Answers
Instructions:
Read Smith v. Van Gorkom – Cheeseman text page 348-349.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions on what effect should the fact that Jerome W. Van Gorkom owned 75,000 shares of Trans Union ($55.00 x 75,000 = $4,125,000.00).
Provide convincing arguments for both sides of your recommendations.

• Briefing Paper 3: Critical Legal Thinking Cases
Instructions:
Read Sections 16.6 Dividends (p. 350); 17.5 Section 10(b) (p. 371); 26.3 Forum-Selection Clause; (p. 550); and 16.3 Corporation (p. 349-350).
Check the decisions of the highest appellate courts, if a case is cited, for each fact pattern.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions on whether each of the four subjects affect business in the United States and if so, provide the worst and best case scenarios.

• Briefing Paper 4: Ethics Case
Instructions:
Read Section 16.9 Ethics – Cheeseman text page 351.
Brief the facts of the case and assume your boss is seeking your opinions on the 3 questions found at the end of Section 16.9. Argue both sides of all issues.

Q8. Often, there can be conflict between c
For this week’s second assignment, you will write a one page essay about role conflict. Be sure to address all prompts and cite your sources in APA format. This is worth 60 points, so be thorough and give your best effort.
Often, there can be conflict between competing or conflicting roles of police officers.What is role conflict What impact does role conflict among police officers have on police community relations?

Q9. COM 425 Week 1 Article Critique – Do

Article Critique – Does Communication Matter in ALL Fields?

Read the article, A tool kit for the real world. In this article, the author discusses the importance of communication skills within a field that many people may not believe strong communication skills are necessary. Write a paper about your thoughts on this article. In your paper, be sure to also address the following:
Argue for or against the necessity of strong communication skills in every type of organization.
• Discuss the type of organization that you want to work for in the future and why.
• Evaluate how having strong communication skills will help you within that field.

Please make sure to reference the article and at least one other article in your paper. This can be your textbook, one of the recommended articles, or another article that you have located.

Q10. MKT 500 Week 6 Discussion From th
From the scenario, evaluate the capacity of the most common distribution channels available for the new product launch to provide consumers with easier access to the product. Speculate on the extent to which Golds Reling, Inc. could use each channel to meet profit goals. Choose the most beneficial distribution strategies, and suggest two (2) ways in which this selection could potentially affect consumer adoption of the new product. Provide a rationale for your response.

EDUCATION.
Q1. American Public University SEJPME Final Exam 100% Result
American Public University SEJPME Final Exam
100% Result
SEJPME Final Exam | Complete Solution | Scored 100%
1) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially atomic
battlefield? [objective81]
vertical envelopment
beachhead assault
tentative landings
fleet dispersion

2) Which of the following is the Coast Guard motto? [objective88]
“Semper Fideles”
“Semper Paratus”
“Anchors Aweigh”

3) The following Reserve Components have both a Federal (Title 10) mission and a State (Title 32)
mission, and therefore can be used to enforce State laws. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Air National Guard and Army National Guard
Army Reserve and Army National Guard
Navy Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve
Air Reserve and Air National Guard

4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council?
[objective63] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National
Intelligence
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense
Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security

5) During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward the stopping old
rivalries and conflicts? [objective79] [Remediation Accessed :N]
the end of the Cold War
the rise of global terrorism
the breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states
the collapse of the Warsaw Pact

6) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.) [objective72] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
to organize forces
to train forces
to retain forces
to equip forces

7) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [objective58] [Remediation Accessed :N]
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
report the problem to the commanding officer
define the problem
draft an action plan

8) Regardless of when or where employed, the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. values,
the standards for the profession of arms, and _____. [objective96] [Remediation Accessed :N]
uniformed code of military justice
constitutional principles
Geneva convention
military law

9) Which reserve mobilization authority provides the President a means to activate, without a declaration of
national emergency, not more than 200,000 reservists for not more than 365 days to meet the support
requirements of any operational mission? [objective90]
selective mobilization (SM)
SECDEF call-up (SCU)
presidential reserve call-up (PRC)
partial mobilization (PM)

10) There are eight distinct domains within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program. This one refers to the
ability to physically accomplish all aspects of the mission while remaining healthy and uninjured.
[objective105]
Environmental Fitness
Behavioral Fitness
Social Fitness
Physical Fitness

11) The term “scuttlebutt” is a Navy word referring to the kitchens of the ship. [objective85]
True
False

12) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard?
[objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship
maritime safety
maritime security

13) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far
greater extent than surface forces can. [objective76]
True
False

14) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the
following? (Select all that apply.) [objective70] [Remediation Accessed :N]
compromise
communication
consensus
coordination

15) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces. [objective91]
Adaptability
Transformation
Predictability
Training

16) Leaders at all levels should be vigilant and consistent in the prevention, identification, and fraud, waste,
and abuse (FWA). [objective102]
False
True

17) Which of the following are among Marine Corps customs, courtesies and traditions? (Select all that
apply.) [objective86]
addressing enlisted Marines
Marine Corps birthday ball
hail and farewell
Dining-In and Mess Night

18) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty and reserve
Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed. [objective75]
True
False

19) Leaders should look for which of the following warning signs that are suggestive of trauma
spectrum disorders? [objective103] [Remediation Accessed :N]
nightmares
all of the answers are correct
memory loss
depression

20) Special Operations Forces are a valuable asset for the joint planner; however, they comprise only a small
part of the total force, a little over _____ percent of the total force. [objective95]
15
2
5
10

21) The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and
then to the _____. [objective60]
combatant commanders via the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the combatant commanders
Service chiefs via the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

22) Risk assessment, risk management, and recommending mitigating measures to the commander or
others, are all steps that must be taken in order to properly mitigate risk. [objective100]
False
True

23) The Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower is the application of maritime forces to
support the United States’ Security Strategy. [objective74] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True

24) _____ are operations require independent actions involving a high degree of professionalism, selfdiscipline,
flexibility, patience, and tact. [objective101]
Support for civil authorities
Major combat operations
Humanitarian assistance operations
Peacekeeping operations

25) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces in
coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is taught, believed,
and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [objective59] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Operational design
Strategic direction
Law of warfare
Joint doctrine

26) Units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the
commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war are known as _____ teams.
[objective94]
civil affairs
foreign area officers
special forces
political advisors

27) Who is considered the “Father of the Coast Guard?” [objective83]
Douglas Munro
Ida Lewis
Sumner Kimball
Alexander Hamilton

28) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a service of the
Navy? (Select all that apply.) [objective78] [Remediation Accessed :N]
when directed by the President
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war

29) National Security Agency (NSA) provides the following support: (Select all that apply.)
[objective57] [Remediation Accessed :N]
signals intelligence
timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence
solutions, products, and services
information systems security

30) Joint _____ prepares individual members and units of the Armed Forces to field a joint force that
integrates service capabilities in order to execute assigned missions. [objective97] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
force development
force planning
force training
doctrine

31) Which of the following would be initiated into the “Top 3”? [objective87]
Sgt. Maj.
Master Sgt.
Col.

32) What are the key criticisms of the interagency process? (Select all that apply.) [objective62]
no one is in charge
it can be cumbersome
it is often time-consuming
it is rarely effective

33) The Department of State assigns a ______ to combatant commanders, and increasingly to Join
Task Force commanders, to provide foreign policy perspective and to establish linkage with U.S.
embassies in the area of responsibility or joint operations area and the Department of State.
[objective64] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Mission (COM)
Political Advisor (POLAD)
Liaison Officer (LNO)
Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)

34) _____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving
organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving
authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all
aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the
command.
Combatant Command (COCOM)
Administrative Control (ADCON)
Operational Control (OPCON)
Tactical Control (TACON)

35) A group or person is honor-bound to do which of the following upon receiving a limerick at mess?
[objective84] [Remediation Accessed :N]
return the embarrassment in kind
refute the remark prior to the close of the dinner hour
ignore it as any self-generated entertainment

36) The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which
of the following? [objective73]
Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Balkans, Middle East, Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Europe, Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan

37) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future will find
themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [objective98]
segregated
ill-prepared
dynamic
predictable

38) Because not every nation will agree with proposed coalition actions, what is an acceptable workarounds
to accomplish the mission without offending other nations? [objective71] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Rotating coalition partners through lead roles to promote their own political agendas
Establish a basis for coalition members to easily accept and advocate preferred coalition options
Openly show favoritism towards one nation over another nation
Establish temporary consensus through personal and professional relationships

39) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part
of the Armed Forces of the United States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
30 percent
40 percent

40) Reconnaissance and surveillance actions normally conducted in a clandestine or covert manner to
collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance, employing military capabilities not
normally found in conventional forces are called _____. These actions acquire information concerning
the capabilities, intentions and activities of an enemy. [objective93] [Remediation Accessed :N]
foreign internal defense
strategic reporting
unconventional warfare
special reconnaissance

41) Unlike the military, most U.S. Government agencies and nongovernmental organizations are _____
to create separate staffs at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels, with the result that Joint Task
Force personnel interface with individuals who are coordinating their organization’s activities at more
than one level. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
not equipped and organized
usually willing, but hesitant
not educated and trained
not eager

42) Joint force commanders must perform an analysis of the adversary, known as a _____, to know
what actions will be an effective deterrent. This continuous analytical process is used by joint
intelligence organizations to produce intelligence estimates and other intelligence products in support
of the commander’s decision-making process. [objective67] [Remediation Accessed :N]
joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield
commander’s estimate
joint intelligence preparation of the operational environment
national intelligence estimate

43) Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? (Select all that apply.) [objective80]
escort carriers
anti-submarine weapons
direction-finding equipment
long-range reconnaissance planes
destroyers equipped with advanced sonars

44) Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. [objective99]
[Remediation Accessed :N]
delegation of authority
experience
maturity
rank

45) The complexity and challenges associated with planning for and executing an operation includes:
(Select all that apply). [objective66] [Remediation Accessed :N]
interagency
intergovernmental
multinational partners
military

46) The DoD Reorganization Act of 1958 _____. [objective56] [Remediation Accessed :N]
eliminated the position of Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
separated the Unified/Specified Commands from the Military Departments
placed the Services directly under the President
combined the Unified/Specified Commands during times of war

47) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces.
[objective104]
True
False

48) Which of the following represent highlights of Air Force history? [objective82]
design of a doctrine of strategic bombing and one of organizational independence
expansion into space
all of the answers are correct
development of the Strategic Air Command

49) Factors that enhance interoperability are _____. [objective69] [Remediation Accessed :N]
varying levels of experience among coalition partners
conflicting personalities
a command atmosphere that permits positive criticism and reward the sharing of information
lack of coalition security teams

50) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to prepare clear, uncomplicated plans and
concise orders to ensure thorough understanding. [objective68] [Remediation Accessed :N]
security
simplicity
clarity
objective

1) The end strength of the U.S. Coast Guard Reserve is _____ percent of the total Coast
Guard. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
10
20
50
30

2) The National Security Council comprises of which three levels of formal interagency
committees for coordination and making decision on national security issues? [objective63]
principals, deputies, and interagency policy
principals, deputies, and interagency working group
executive, deputies, and interagency coordination
strategic, operational, and tactical

3) By the time of the Mexican-American War, U.S. soldiers were technologically equivalent to those
of Europe due to advances in_____. [objective79]
standardization of the potency of field artillery
mobility, flexibility, and potency of field artillery
training and standardization

4) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation. [objective72]
False
True

5) Which of the following are keys to success in joint assignments? (Select all that apply.)
[objective58]
Knowing how to solve problems
Checking the work of members from other Services
Knowing the people around you
Having competence in your area of the Service

6) The term _____ refers to the aggregate of features and traits that form the individual nature of a
person. In the context of the profession of arms, it entails moral and ethical adherence to our
values. It is at the heart of the relationship of the profession with the American people, and to each
other. [objective96]
leadership
competence
character
justice

7) The abilities of the Coast Guard to operate in severe weather conditions, 24 hours a day,
year round, are called? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Search and Rescue missions
Marine Safety missions
Defense Readiness missions
Deepwater missions

8) Factors affecting military capabilities of nations include _____. [objective70]
the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
leader development and national interests
nongovernmental organizations (NGOs)
religion and culture

9) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically. [objective103]
False
True

10) These capabilities comprise the core of U.S. maritime power and reflect an increase in
emphasis on those activities that prevent war and build partnerships: [objective74]
forward presence, deterrence, sea control, power projection, maritime security, humanitarian
assistance and disaster response (HA/DR)
readiness, preparedness, technical prowess, and training
peacekeeping and contingency operations
forward presence, deterrence, sea control

11) The _____ is the primary vehicle through which the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
(CJCS) exercises responsibility to provide for the preparation of joint operation plans. It provides
guidance and direction from the CJCS to the combatant commanders and the Service chiefs for
preparation of contingency plans. [objective59]
Unified Command Plan
Guidance for Employment of the Force
National Military Strategy
Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan

12) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of
the U.S. Navy? [objective78]
True
False

13) Which branch of the armed forces operates within the Department of Homeland Security?
[objective57]
Navy
Army
Coast Guard
Air Force
Marines
None of the branches

14) U.S. Law, Title 10, USC Section 153, gives the _____ authority regarding joint force
development, specifically providing authority to develop doctrine for the joint employment of the
Armed Forces, and to formulate policies for the joint training of the Armed Forces to include
policies for the military education and training of members of the Armed Forces. [objective97]
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Secretary of Defense
Service Chiefs
Joint Chiefs of Staff

15) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and
collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI)
representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. [objective64]
JIACG
HAST
CMOC
POLAD

16) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell. [objective84]
True
False

17) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of
multinational forces. [objective71]
Liaison network, coordination centers
Rationalization, training
Interoperability, liaison network
Training, interoperability

18) There are a total of how many Reserve Components in the Armed Forces of the United
States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
6
5
8
7

19) Special operations forces are organized under the _____, a functional unified command
responsible for providing mission capable special operations forces to the geographic combatant
commanders. [objective93]
United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM)
United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM)
United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)
United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM)

20) Nongovernmental organizations are usually willing to quickly align themselves with
intervening military forces in order to ensure their ability to achieve their objectives and for
their physical security. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True

21) Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve and involve the appearance of a credible
military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to
U.S. interests are known as _____ operations. [objective67]
enforcement
nation assistance
economy of force
show of force

22) The foremost value of joint force leaders is _____. [objective99]
physical courage
integrity
experience
competence

23) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their
third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges. [objective66]
rotation
transition
situational awareness
influence

24) Under the U.S. Constitution, the Congress has the power to _____. [objective56]
provide tanks and other equipment of war for Canada and Mexico
declare war, support allied armies, and provide ships for allied navies
close the U.S. borders
declare war, raise and support Armies, provide and support a Navy, make rules for the
government and regulation of the land and naval forces

25) Security cooperation activities include _____. [objective69]
foreign military training
individual training exercises
domestic community support
restricted navigational exercises

26) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to concentrate the effects of combat
power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. [objective68]
offensive
mass
objective
maneuver
Pre Test
Here is the test result.Correct answers are shown by * next to the choice or given below the question.
The highlighted questions are the questions you have missed.
Remediation Accessed shows whether you accessed those links.’N’ represents links not visited and ‘Y’
represents visited links.
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contains 50 Questions

1) The cornerstone of ARSOAC, the _____, is organized into four like battalions and
provides nighttime, all-weather, medium range insertion, extraction, and resupply
capability in hostile or denied areas. [Remediation Accessed :N]
106th Special Operations Helicopter Regiment
101st Airborne Division (Air Assault)
160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment (correct)
3rd Combat Aviation Brigade

2) To accomplish U.S. objectives, the national security strategy guides the coordination of
the instruments of national power which include _____. (Select all that apply.)
[Remediation Accessed :N]
information (correct)
economics (correct)
diplomacy (correct)
the military (correct)

3) Today, the U.S. and its partners find themselves in an era in which they are unlikely to be fully at
war or fully at peace.
False
True (correct)

4) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of
Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint
Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do
not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which
it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required. [Remediation Accessed :N]
Service component command
combatant command
joint task force (correct)
subordinate unified command

5) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____
and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences
– both positive and negative.
critically think about (correct)
acknowledge our own prejudice
seek out professional assistance
know all of the facts

6) Special operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using
specialized tactics and equipment to achieve _____ objectives. [Remediation Accessed :N]
tactical
insignificant
strategic or operational (correct)
intermediate

7) What are the peacetime roles of the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation
Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship around the U.S. and U.S. territories
maritime stewardship around the globe (correct)
maritime safety (correct)
maritime security (correct)

8) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare (correct)
a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17 (correct)
clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation

9) The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy (correct)

10) Key considerations involved in planning and conducting multinational operations are affected
by _____.
motives and values of the organization’s members (correct)
media influence
non-military organizations
financial resource constraints

11) The Coast Guard was officially created in 1915 when which two services were combined?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
Steamboat Inspection Service
Revenue Cutter Service (correct)
Life-Saving Service (correct)
Bureau of Navigation

12) Leaders at all levels must understand, establish, and support a Total Force Fitness program
within their organizations.
True (correct)
False

13) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a
service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war (correct)
when directed by the President (correct)

14) Through which of the following strategies has the Navy adopted, which advanced the concept
of combat operations in littoral waters?
“From the Sea” and later “Forward from the Sea” (correct)
Sea power concept
U.S. Containment Policy

15) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what
point in the planning process?
late in the planning process
after all of the planning is completed
somewhere – early, mid, or later – as long as they are included
early in the planning process (correct)

16) Simultaneous and parallel operations are the most effective use of aerospace power in
producing which of the following?
shock, confusion, and paralysis within the adversary’s system (correct)
initiative, situational responsiveness, and tactical flexibility
confusion, situational responsiveness, and paralysis within the adversary’s system

17) Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media?
[Remediation Accessed :N]
espionage
all of the answers are correct (correct)
network security intrusions
personal identity theft and impersonation
none of the choices are correct

18) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
the Army National Guard
the Army Reserve
none of the answers are correct
both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve (correct)

19) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an
integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent (correct)
60 percent
40 percent
30 percent

20) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces
in coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is
taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Strategic direction
Operational design
Joint doctrine (correct)
Law of warfare

21) Use of joint capabilities in _____ helps shape the operational environment and keeps the
day-to-day tensions between nations and groups below the threshold of armed conflict, while
maintaining U.S. global influence. [Remediation Accessed :N]
strikes and raids
military engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence activities (correct)
major combat operations
forcible entry operations

22) In crisis response and limited contingency operations, having an understanding of the
political objective helps to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
prevent the commander from having to explain the plan to the President
avoid actions that may have adverse effects (correct)
assure friends and allies and dissuade adversaries
ensure the integration and synchronization of maneuver and interdiction

23) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell.
True (correct)
False

24) It is imperative that the combatant commander or Joint Task Force commander
coordinate closely with the ______ on military activities in a particular country because,
while not authorized to command military forces, he or she can deny military actions.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Foreign Policy Advisor
National Security Advisor
Ambassador (correct)
Secretary of State

25) Which core value does the following tenet represent: Make decisions in the best interest
of the Navy and the nation, without regard to personal consequences? [Remediation
Accessed :N]
honor
commitment
courage (correct)

26) Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating
well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in
building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service.
resilience (correct)
opposition
vulnerability
indifference

27) The _____ is the principal forum to advise the President with respect to the integration of
domestic, foreign, and military policies relating to national security and for coordinating these
policies among various government agencies.
National Security Council (correct)
Homeland Security Council
Foreign Affairs Council
National Economic Council

28) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty
and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed.
True (correct)
False

29) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
report the problem to the commanding officer
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
draft an action plan
define the problem (correct)

30) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially
atomic battlefield? [Remediation Accessed :N]
fleet dispersion
tentative landings
vertical envelopment (correct)
beachhead assault

31) The Joint Task Force (JTF) commander cannot dictate cooperation among other
governmental agencies, intergovernmental organizations, and nongovernmental
organizations. In the absence of a formal command structure, JTFs are required to build
consensus to achieve _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
synchronization
unity of effort (correct)
command and control authority
unity of command

32) What is the purpose of sending someone to the Grog Bowl?
as punishment for violating the rules of the mess (correct)
as a reward for attendance
recognition for a job well done

33) Recognizing potentially hazardous or negative situations in advance is crucial to being
prepared to prevent them from occurring to begin with. With experience and maturity, the ability to
instinctually recognize signs of potential trouble increases.
True (correct)
False

34) To the greatest extent possible coalition members should _____.
consider the ramifications of labeling information about operational areas as intelligence (correct)
prevent the sharing of relevant intelligence about the situation and adversary
occasionally seek the necessary authorization for foreign disclosure of information
disseminate information freely without a tear line

35) Within the joint environment, cooperation requires team players, and the willingness to
share _____ with all team members. [Remediation Accessed :N]
ideas
credit (correct)
effort
workload

36) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Transformation
Training
Adaptability
Predictability (correct)

37) A _____ is the principal joint Special Operations Forces organization tasked to meet all
special operations requirements in major operations, campaigns, or a contingency.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Civil-Military Operations Center (CMOC)
Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF)
Special Operations Joint Task Force (SOJTF) (correct)
Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)

38) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation.
False
True (correct)

39) Historically, the practice of keeping pets onboard may have started when cats were brought
onboard to combat the rat population, the practice continued to help keep the crew’s morale high.
False
True (correct)

40) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically.
False
True (correct)

41) While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you
are unsure of an enlisted Marine’s name or grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as, “Good morning,
Sir,” in the case of an officer.
False
True (correct)

42) What WWII conference established the Joint Chief of Staff? [Remediation Accessed :N]
First Moscow Conference (RIVIERA)
U.S.-British Staff Conference (ABC-1)
First Washington Conference (ARCADIA) (correct)
Casablanca Conference (SYMBOL)

43) Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that
apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
training of foreign militaries (correct)
cyberspace operations
major combat operations (correct)
humanitarian assistance (correct)

44) The joint force commander has the operational authority and responsibility to tailor forces for
the mission at hand, selecting those that most effectively and efficiently ensure success.
False
True (correct)

45) The U.S. Army was originally formed to fight in which war?
World War II (correct)
Mexican-American War
World War I
American Civil War

46) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on
their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
transition
rotation (correct)
situational awareness
influence

47) When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken
to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
only validate cross-cultural communications skills of select coalition partners
ensure that contracted linguists do not jeopardize operations through espionage (correct)
utilize contracted linguists with general knowledge of some areas but no specific knowledge of
any one location
ensure that contracted linguists promote only U.S. interests

48) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future
will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
predictable
dynamic (correct)
ill-prepared
segregated

49) One of NATO’s goals is to promote democratic values.
False
True (correct)

50) The concept of “Jointness” must be advanced through continual joint force development
efforts. What does that statement imply? [Remediation Accessed :N]
Joint force development is a “one time” occurrence in one’s career.
Joint staff leaders do not endorse joint force development.
“Jointness” is not an automatic service state of being. (correct)
Service members naturally embrace “Jointness.”
100% Result

Q2. BSC2347 Module 3 Quiz 2018
Question 1
The cardiac conduction system causes the right atrium and right ventricle of the heart to contract at the same time, and then the left atrium and left ventricle contract at that same time?

Q3. Synthesis Essay WRTG 394
Synthesis Essay WRTG 394
Synthesis Essay WRTG 394
Synthesis Essay WRTG 394

Q4. CIS 498 Project Deliverable 3: Database and Programming Design| A+ work

CIS 498
Project Deliverable 3: Database and Programming Design
Due Week 6 and worth 150 points

This assignment consists of two (2) sections: a design document and a revised Gantt chart or project plan. You must submit both sections as separate files for the completion of this assignment. Label each file name according to the section of the assignment for which it is written. Additionally, you may create and / or assume all necessary assumptions needed for the completion of this assignment.
One (1) of the main functions of any business is to transform data into information. The use of relational databases has gained recognition as a standard for organizations and business transactions. A quality database design makes the flow of data seamless. The database schema is the foundation of the relational database. The schema defines the tables, fields, relationships, views, indexes, and other elements. The schema should be created by envisioning the business, processes, and workflow of the company.

Section 1: Design Document
1. Write a five to ten (5-10) page design document in which you:
a. Create a database schema that supports the company’s business and processes.
b. Explain and support the database schema with relevant arguments that support the rationale for the structure. Note: The minimum requirement for the schema should entail the tables, fields, relationships, views, and indexes.
c. Create database tables with appropriate field-naming conventions. Then, identify primary keys and foreign keys, and explain how referential integrity will be achieved.
d. Normalize the database tables to third normal form (3NF).
e. Create an Entity-Relationship (E-R) Diagram through the use of graphical tools in Microsoft Visio or an open source alternative such as Dia. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length but must be included in the design document appendix.
f. Explain your rationale behind the design of your E-R Diagram.
g. Create a Data Flow Diagram (DFD) through the use of graphical tools in Microsoft Visio or an open source alternative such as Dia. Note: The graphically depicted solution is not included in the required page length but must be included in the design document appendix.
h. Explain your rationale behind the design of your DFD.
i. Create at least two (2) sample queries that will support the organizational reporting needs.
j. Create at least two (2) screen layouts that illustrate the interface that organizational users will utilize.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
• Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
• Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
• Include charts or diagrams created in MS Visio or Dia as an appendix of the design document. All references to these diagrams must be included in the body of the design document.

Section 2: Revised Gantt Chart / Project Plan
Use Microsoft Project or an open source alternative, such as Open Project, to:
2. Update the Gantt chart or project plan (summary and detail) template, from Project Deliverable 2: Business Requirements, with all the project tasks.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:
• Describe the various integrative functions and processes within the information systems area, including databases, systems analysis, security, networking, computer infrastructure, human computer interaction, and Web design.
• Demonstrate the ability to evaluate organizational issues with integrative technological solutions.
• Apply integrative information technology solutions with project management tools to solve business problems.
• Use technology and information resources to research issues in information technology.
• Write clearly and concisely about strategic issues and practices in the information technology domain using proper writing mechanics and technical style conventions.

Q5. Disability exceptionality book Human Exceptionality: School, Community, and Family
M4 Discussion 2: Special Schools
Special Schools
In Module 4, you read about the different types of disabilities: language and speech disorders, developmental disabilities, learning disabilities, and Megan’s story on dyslexia. (Text book chapters and Module 4’s e-book: Cognitive and Communicative Exceptionalities).
Based on the types of disabilities as well as services and support needed by students with multiple disabilities, do you think special schools for students with disabilities can be justified? Why or why not? Please pick one of the disabilities discussed in the Module 4’s e-book: Cognitive and Communicative Exceptionalities, and provide an example of why or why not, a special school can be justified.

REQUIREMENTS
Disability exceptionality book Human Exceptionality: School, Community, and Family

Q6. Social Workers and Human Services degreed professionals as HeadStart Teachers
Please improve and finish the attached rational paper.
Show how we can use Human Services and Social Work Degrees as a related degree to Early Childhood Education Degree that is required by the HeadStart Performance Standards found on https://eclkc.ohs.acf.hhs.gov/policy/45-cfr-chap-xiii as a requirement for Teachers hired in HeadStart Classrooms.
Attached is another paper titled Early Childhood Education and Care as a Social Work Issue. It can be used as another reference if needed.

 

Social Workers and Human Services degreed professionals as HeadStart Teachers and why they are desperately needed

This rationale will show the need for Social Work and Human Services educated Teachers in the Head Start Primary Teachers role, and the positive effect it has on the children attending Head Start and their families. This will also show why social work and human services degreed teachers contribute to early childhood education classrooms.
Children that attend Head Start are income base selected. The children must be below the state poverty level to be accepted. The 2018 poverty guidelines for Head Start for a family of four is $25,100. The Santa Fe New Mexican reported that the N.M. poverty rate is down but is still among the worst in the U.S. The New Mexico population is 2,044,187 and the number in Poverty is 401,755. Almost 25% of the State is below the poverty line.
Head Start has over 100 children enrolled in Carlsbad, Artesia, Hagerman, Dexter, Roswell and Loving. At least 90% of these children come from poverty and have been exposed to social exclusion and inequality as do their family. Teachers with a Social Work or Human Services Degree have the knowledge to help with parental problems, emotional and behavioral problems, needed child protection, and working with other agencies or within the agency to help with other issues. Social work and Human Services educated teachers are especially needed in Head Start schools because of the economic status that the Head Start children live in.
Social workers and human service professionals usually help high school drop outs, teen parents, pregnant teens, prisoners or those just released into society and public recipients. Although help is needed in these areas, early prevention is a tool used to curb these situations and minimize the occurrences. Therefore, social workers and human service professionals should be employed in fields of practice of early childhood education and care such as Head Start, an organized care program. “Given the duties that early childhood education and care workers are charged with, “it becomes clear that staff in many settings need knowledge of child psychology, learning theory, adult education and social work.” However, the Head Start performance standards require a Teacher have an AA in Early Childhood Education or related degree. Southeast NM Community Action Corporation (SNMCAC) believes that social work and human services degreed professionals have a related degree based on these facts:
1. Social workers or Human Services degreed professional can add a unique perspective to the effects that Early childhood Education needs to have on children living in poverty and can contribute to practice, policy, and research related to early childhood education and care.
2. Head Start helps young children from low-income families prepare to succeed in school through local programs and promote children’s development through services that support early learning, health, and family well-being.
3. Head Start is a US Dept of Health and Human Services program for early childhood education, health, and nutrition for low income children and their families.
4. Human Services and Social Work degreed professionals too often deal with clients and program at the wrong end of the educational timeline.
5. Head Start programs are staffed by pre-professional and not entirely with employees with even a BA. Social workers with the additional

social workers are or should be employed in various settings and fields of practice affected by early childhood education and care itself or arising from it. Even with less ‘‘problematic’’ client populations, the changing roles of mothers and fathers and the need for substitute care as parents are in the workforce makes early childhood education and care a concern for our clients.

Among the poorest
Poverty rate
Percent of state population below poverty line in 2015:
50) Mississippi: 22
49) New Mexico: 20.4
48) Louisiana: 19.6
47) Arkansas: 19.1
46) Kentucky: 18.5
45) Alabama: 18.5
United States: 14.7
Child poverty rate
50) Mississippi: 31.3
49) New Mexico: 28.6
48) Louisiana: 28.4
47) Arkansas: 27.2
46) Alabama: 26.6
Income growth
From 2014 to 2015:
50) New Jersey: 0.3 percent
49) Idaho: 0.8
48) New Mexico: 1.2
U.S. average: 3.8
Source: U.S. Census Bureau

http://www.santafenewmexican.com/news/local_news/n-m-poverty-rate-down-but-is-still-among-worst/article_5da80fa0-d4cd-5fe7-b0c8-3e05f44a7daf.html pulled 11/27/2018

New Mexico Report – 2018


2018 Poverty Guidelines for the 48 Contiguous States and the District of Columbia
Early Childhood Education and Care as a Social Work Issue
Kahn, Jessica M.Child & Adolescent Social Work Journal: C & A; New York Vol. 31, Iss. 5, (Oct 2014): 419-433. DOI:10.1007/s10560-014-0332-x https://search-proquest-com.contentproxy.phoenix.edu/docview/756481664?accountid=134061&pq-origsite=summon
Retrieved 11/28/18

Q7. Learning Activity 3 EDUC 606

Learning Activity 3 Student Instructions
This learning activity consists of a variety of problems from Chapters 13–15. Spaces for answers are provided; please type your answers directly in the document. Consider highlighting, starring*, or changing the font color of answers for ease of instructor grading.
1. (20 Pts, 1 Pt each). Calculate the mean, median, mode, standard deviation, and range for the following sets of measurements (fill out the table):
a. 13, 7, 6, 6, 3
b. 14, 12, 11, 10, 8
c. 65, 65, 65, 65, 65
d. 12, 10, 9, 8, 6, 51
2. (20 Pts, 5 pts each) Answer the following questions.
a. Why is the SD in (d) so large compared to the SD in (b)?
b. Why is the mean so much higher in (d) than in (b)?
c. Why is the median relatively unaffected?
d. Which measure of central tendency best represents the set of scores in (d)? Why?
3. (24 pts, 2 pts each) Fill in the blanks on the table with the appropriate raw scores, z-scores, T-scores, and approximate percentile ranks. You may refer to the distribution curve below.
4. (20 pts, 2 pts each) The Graduate Record Exam (GRE) has a combined verbal and quantitative mean of 1000 and a standard deviation of 200. Scores range from 200 to 1600 and are approximately normally distributed. For each of the following problems:
(a) Indicate the percentage or score called for by the problem.
(b) Select the appropriate distribution curve (from below) that relates to the problem.
a. What percentage of the persons who take the test score below 800? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
b. Above what score do the top 6.68% of the test-takers score? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
c. Above what score do 84.13% of the test-takers score? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
d. What percentage of the persons who take the test score above 1168? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
e. What percentage of the persons who take the test score below 1200? _____
Type the curve best representing your answer: _____
5. (16 pts, varied) Refer to the following data and scatterplots to respond to questions 5a-5f.

Individual
Age
Score on Popular Music Test
Figure A represents a scatterplot constructed from the data; Figure B represents a regression line drawn through the scatterplot that “fits” the data points reasonably well; Figure C represents an ellipse drawn around the data points.

a. (2 pts.) Estimate the direction of the correlation:

b. (2 pts.) Estimate the strength of the correlation coefficient:

Consider Figure D (below).
c. (2 pts.) Using only the data points associated with age of 50 and above; what effect does this have on the direction and strength of the correlation coefficient?
d. (4 pts.) Explain why this is the case.
e. (2 pts.) Explain in words what a truncated scatterplot means.
f. (4 pts.) Identify how likely it is that a causal relationship has been indicated.

Q8. Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 7 complete answers A+

BIBL 104 – Quiz 7

• Question 1

In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for
both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”

• Question 2

According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He
breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.

• Question 3

In Philippians, Paul asserts that he is pursing Christ as passionately as a runner would
pursue the goal and prize of winning a race.

• Question 4

In Galatians Paul says the Galatian Christians have gone to a completely different kind
of gospel.

• Question 5

In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He makes this conclusion by allegorically linking Christians to Sarah rather than ___________.

• Question 6

The problems addressed in First Corinthians arose when various groups sided with
different leaders who best represented their view of Christianity.

• Question 7

Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the
idea that the minister, in response, endures many hardships in order not to discredit the ministry.

• Question 8

1 Timothy can be divided into two sections. The first section deals with _____________
while the second section deals with personal instructions.

• Question 9

Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are
“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.

• Question 10

According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.

• Question 11

In the letter of ___________, Paul emphasized that believers can experience true joy by
living out the mind of Christ within the body of Christ.

• Question 12

Paul uses the phrase “in Christ” 170 times in his writings to refer to church-age
believers to whom the mystery of the God’s grace was already revealed.

• Question 13

__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.

• Question 14

One of Paul’s principal achievement was that he was the main leader in extending the
church into Asia Minor and Greece, becoming known as the premier apostle to the Gentiles.

• Question 15

2 Timothy was written by Paul to Timothy just before Paul’s martyrdom.

• Question 16

In Galatians, Paul exhorts his readers to “carry one another’s burdens” but at the same
time exhorts each to “carry his own load.”

• Question 17

In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances
but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.

• Question 18

The task that Paul gives Titus is to appoint elders and reprove the rebellious.

• Question 19

Paul tells Timothy in 2 Timothy to “preach the word.” It’s not Timothy’s opinion that
he is to preach; it’s what God commands.

• Question 20

In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of

• Question 21

In First Corinthians, Paul encouraged these believers to examine their attitudes before
partaking in this ordinance of the church.

• Question 22

According to Paul in Romans, the presence of the indwelling Holy Spirit has set
believers free from the law and the rule of sin and death.

• Question 23

The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which Paul
was seeking to correct.

• Question 24

In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his
weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.

• Question 25

Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no one is
perfect, all are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished work can save anyone.

• Question 26

In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to

• Question 27

Paul encourages Titus to exhort with sound doctrine in order to produce good
Christian behavior.

• Question 28

In the first section of Romans Paul shows that _____________ are under condemnation.

• Question 29

According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s substitutionary
death on the cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who come to Christ in faith.

• Question 30

1 Thessalonians is filled with Old Testament quotations as Paul seeks to answer some
of the questions currently troubling the believers at Thessalonica.

• Question 31

According to Paul in Colossians, Christ has made the Father knowable, available, and
approachable to all believers at all times.

• Question 32

In Galatians, Paul uses ___________ as an example of one justified by faith.

• Question 33

The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.

• Question 34

In First Corinthians, Paul asserted that the Corinthians were operating as immature,
baby Christians, still using the wisdom of the world and this resulted in divisions among them.

• Question 35

In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is
the Bridegroom.

• Question 36

According to Paul in Galatians, the law cannot give life, but it does have the purpose of
revealing our sinful character before God.

• Question 37

In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue of

• Question 38

The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.

• Question 39

According to Paul in Romans, justification by faith makes all equal before God and
gives the law its rightful place of condemning sin.

• Question 40

In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their
persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.

• Question 41

While the Corinthian church had many problems they never questioned Paul’s
apostolic authority.

• Question 42

In First Corinthians, Paul refused to answer any questions the Corinthians had until
they had corrected their three current issues.

• Question 43

_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on
Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.

• Question 44

Paul and Epaphras visited Colossae and founded the church in Colossae after
ministering in Ephesus.

• Question 45

In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law
is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”

• Question 46

According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is
that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.

• Question 47

Throughout 2 Corinthians Paul includes the story of _____________.

• Question 48

In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they
should have dealt with this sin problem.

• Question 49

Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the

• Question 50

The church at Corinth was the ideal model for a first-century apostolic church.

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

The church in Rome probably consisted of at least five household churches rather than

one large church.

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Colossians, Christ has made the Father knowable, available, and

approachable to all believers at all times.

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers

who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.

Question 5

0 out of 1 points

In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He makes this conclusion by allegorically linking Christians to Sarah rather than ___________.

Question 6

1 out of 1 points

The problems addressed in First Corinthians arose when various groups sided with

different leaders who best represented their view of Christianity.

Question 7

1 out of 1 points

Spiritual warfare takes place both in heaven and on earth. Because believers have

victory in Christ in heaven, they should and can have victory on this earth. So, Paul exhorts believers in Ephesians to prepare for spiritual battle on this earth.

Question 8

0 out of 1 points

In _______________, Paul cites an early Christian hymn in order to explain the preeminence

of Christ.

Question 9

0 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in

and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for

both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s substitutionary

death on the cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who come to Christ in faith.

Question 12

1 out of 1 points

In Philemon, Paul makes himself personally responsible for the amount stolen by

Onesimus. He tells Philemon to “Charge that to my account.”

Question 13

1 out of 1 points

In Ephesians, Paul uses the figure of a temple to describe the church as a spiritual

building in which all the different elements are welded together into a collective unity.

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church

ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue of

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s letters to Timothy and Titus are collectively known as the Pastoral Epistles.

Question 17

1 out of 1 points

In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the

resurrection of believers.

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

In Philemon, Paul tells Philemon to receive back his runaway slave “on the basis of

love.” Paul is suggesting Philemon not only forgive his crimes but also give Onesimus his freedom.

Question 19

0 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they

should have dealt with this sin problem.

Question 20

1 out of 1 points

In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to

Question 21

1 out of 1 points

The church at Corinth was the ideal model for a first-century apostolic church.

Question 22

0 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, sanctification includes the imputation of God’s

righteousness by means of faith in Jesus Christ.

Question 23

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification by faith makes all equal before God and

gives the law its rightful place of condemning sin.

Question 24

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s hope in Philippians was to offer practical encouragements to his friends at

Philippi so they would not be tempted to doubt God’s faithfulness even in dire circumstances.

Question 25

1 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue

Question 26

0 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Paul’s pastoral letters emphasize the importance of

Question 27

0 out of 1 points

In Philippians, Paul asserts that he is pursing Christ as passionately as a runner would

pursue the goal and prize of winning a race.

Question 28

0 out of 1 points

Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the

idea that the minister accepts his weakness because of the opportunities it affords.

Question 29

0 out of 1 points

The task that Paul gives Titus is to appoint elders and reprove the rebellious.

Question 30

1 out of 1 points

__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.

Question 31

1 out of 1 points

Paul removed any obstacle Timothy might have had to ministry among Jews by

having the young man circumcised.

Question 32

1 out of 1 points

One of Paul’s principal achievement was that he was the main leader in extending the

church into Asia Minor and Greece, becoming known as the premier apostle to the Gentiles.

Question 33

0 out of 1 points

Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the

idea that knowing the fear of God moves the minister to persuade unsaved people to become Christians.

Question 34

1 out of 1 points

The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which Paul

was seeking to correct.

Question 35

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is

that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.

Question 36

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He

breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.

Question 37

0 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 1 Thessalonians that because of the promise

of the rapture, believers will not suffer the wrath of the Day of the Lord.

Question 38

0 out of 1 points

Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are

“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.

Question 39

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s epistle to the Romans is not Paul’s most extensive theological writing. That claim

belongs to Galatians – Paul’s epistle to the church in Galatia.

Question 40

1 out of 1 points

Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no one is

perfect, all are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished work can save anyone.

Question 41

1 out of 1 points

Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the

Question 42

1 out of 1 points

In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is

the Bridegroom.

Question 43

1 out of 1 points

While the Corinthian church had many problems they never questioned Paul’s

apostolic authority.

Question 44

1 out of 1 points

In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law

is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”

Question 45

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 2 Thessalonians that the Day of the Lord

will not begin until the “man of lawlessness” (the Antichrist) is revealed.

Question 46

0 out of 1 points

Paul reminds the Colossians to focus on their heavenly standing because “you have

been raised with the Messiah, seek what is above, where the Messiah is, seated at the right hand of God. Set your minds on what is above.”

Question 47

0 out of 1 points

Paul encourages Titus to exhort with sound doctrine in order to produce good

Christian behavior.

Question 48

1 out of 1 points

In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament

truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.

Question 49

0 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, to keep him from exalting himself, God gave him a thorn in

the flesh.

Question 50

1 out of 1 points

Paul tells the Philippians that they should live in unity, humility, and selflessness. He

then gives himself as the example for believers to follow when he claims, “follow me as I follow Christ.”

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

While the Corinthian church had many problems they never questioned Paul’s apostolic authority.

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the

idea that the minister, in response, endures many hardships in order not to discredit the ministry.

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to

Question 5

1 out of 1 points

Spiritual warfare takes place both in heaven and on earth. Because believers have

victory in Christ in heaven, they should and can have victory on this earth. So, Paul exhorts believers in Ephesians to prepare for spiritual battle on this earth.

Question 6

1 out of 1 points

For Paul in Ephesians, the answer to unity is the fact that we are “in Christ” and all of us are members of “the body of Christ.”

Question 7

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the idea that the ministry is an opportunity to display the glory of God.

Question 8

1 out of 1 points

Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the

Question 9

0 out of 1 points

In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

Paul reminds Titus that since people were saved “not by works of righteousness that

we had done, but according to His mercy” and justified by God’s grace, they should live a life of good works toward all men.

Question 12

1 out of 1 points

In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.

Question 13

1 out of 1 points

The problems addressed in First Corinthians arose when various groups sided with different leaders who best represented their view of Christianity.

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

The book of Colossians can be divided into two section. The first section is a section of doctrine and the second section is a section on

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no one is perfect, all are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished work can save anyone.

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

In _______________, Paul cites an early Christian hymn in order to explain the preeminence

of Christ.

Question 17

1 out of 1 points

Paul wanted Timothy to see four generations of ministry duplication. The first

generation was Paul who preached the gospel. The second generation was Timothy who received the gospel from Paul. The third generations were the people converted when Timothy preached. The fourth generation includes the “others” who were taught by faithful men from the third generation.

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s substitutionary death on the cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who come to Christ in faith.

Question 19

1 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue

Question 20

1 out of 1 points

In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the

resurrection of believers.

Question 21

1 out of 1 points

Paul uses the phrase “in Christ” 170 times in his writings to refer to church-age believers to whom the mystery of the God’s grace was already revealed.
Question 22

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Galatians, the law cannot give life, but it does have the purpose of revealing our sinful character before God.

Question 23

1 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue of

Question 24

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, the presence of the indwelling Holy Spirit has set believers free from the law and the rule of sin and death.

Question 25

1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Timothy was probably converted to Christianity as a youth when Paul visited his home in Lystra on the first missionary journey with Barnabas.

Question 26

1 out of 1 points

In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of

Question 27

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s hope in Philippians was to offer practical encouragements to his friends at

Philippi so they would not be tempted to doubt God’s faithfulness even in dire circumstances.

Question 28

1 out of 1 points

__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church

ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.

Question 29

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, the story of ____________ demonstrates that salvation and

God’s righteousness are God’s gift through faith.

Question 30
1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers

who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.

Question 31

1 out of 1 points

In 1 Timothy Paul describes the qualifications of a bishop. He lists both jobs within the church that they must undertake as well as inner character they must possess.

Question 32

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.

Question 33

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Galatians, Christ redeemed us by becoming a _________ for us when

He hung on the cross.

Question 34

1 out of 1 points

Paul encourages Titus to exhort with sound doctrine in order to produce good Christian behavior.

Question 35

1 out of 1 points

In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.

Question 36

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Galatians, the law locked imprisoned us, but provided no remedy.

Only faith in Christ can atone for sin and free us from the law’s condemnation.

Question 37

1 out of 1 points

Paul’s letters to the Corinthians deal with the challenges of Christians living in a hostile culture.

Question 38
1 out of 1 points

According to the textbook, ___________ is the most personal of all Paul’s letters as he

reveals his own heart for this church and his ministry in general.

Question 39

1 out of 1 points

_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on

Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.

Question 40

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a piece of the Christian’s spiritual armor

Question 41

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.

Question 42

1 out of 1 points

In Romans Paul shows that all are accountable and no one can be justified by his own good works, with or without the law.

Question 43

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a piece of the Christian’s spiritual armor.

Question 44

0 out of 1 points

_______________ contains the earliest instructions for church leaders and orderly

arrangement of the local church.

Question 45

1 out of 1 points

In 1 Timothy Paul identified two acts of heresy: forbidding marriage and abstinence from food.

Question 46

1 out of 1 points

__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.

Question 47

1 out of 1 points

The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which Paul

was seeking to correct.

Question 48

1 out of 1 points

The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.

Question 49

1 out of 1 points

The Galatian Christians were being influenced by Judaizers who would have Gentile believers circumcised and live by the law.

Question 50

1 out of 1 points

According to Paul in Romans, justification by faith makes all equal before God and gives the law its rightful place of condemning sin.

Q9. Chapter 19 Palliative Care and End-of-Life Care Multiple Choice Questions and Answers
Chapter 19 Palliative Care and End-of-Life Care

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Hospice care differs from palliative care in that:
A.
It is not covered by insurance
B.
Supports patients and families through both the dying and the bereavement process
C.
It cannot be provided in the nursing home
D.
The majority of those admitted to hospice die within 7 days

____ 2. Evidence reflects the primary obstacle to implementing palliative care in the long-term care setting include all of the following except:
A.
Inadequate communication between decision makers
B.
Failure to recognize futile treatments
C.
Lack of advance directives
D.
Lack of sufficient staff

____ 3. The most prevalent symptom in end-of-life care includes all of the following except:
A.
Lower extremity weakness
B.
Pain
C.
Dyspnea
D.
Delirium

____ 4. Pain at the end of life is most often due to all of the following except:
A.
Musculoskeletal disorders
B.
Headache
C.
Cancer pain
D.
Neuropathic pain

____ 5. The strongest level of evidence reflects the absolute contraindication for NSAID use exists with:
A.
Chronic kidney disease
B.
Peptic ulcer disease
C.
Heart disease
D.
Liver disease

____ 6. The drug specific for severe opioid-induced constipation is:
A.
Lactulose
B.
Ducolax
C.
Mineral oil
D.
Methylnaltrexone

____ 7. Pharmacological interventions for dyspnea include all of the following except:
A.
Antitussives
B.
Inhaled anesthetics
C.
Sedatives
D.
Anxiolytics

____ 8. Delirium is typically characterized by all of the following except:
A.
Inattention
B.
Hyperactive level of psychomotor activity
C.
Disorganized thinking
D.
Altered level of consciousness

____ 9. The first step in treating delirium is to:
A.
Give low-dose Haldol if the patient has psychosis
B.
Identify the cause
C.
Provide reality orientation
D.
Use side rails and/or wrist restraints to keep the patient safe

____ 10. The majority of patients enrolled in hospice care die:
A.
In a nursing home
B.
In the hospital
C.
In an inpatient hospice facility
D.
At home

____ 11. A drug that can be used to treat two very common symptoms in a dying patient (pain and dyspnea) is:
A.
Morphine
B.
Methadone
C.
Gabapentin
D.
Lorazepam

____ 12. The tasks of grieving include all of the following except:
A.
Acknowledge the reality of death
B.
Work through the pain of grief
C.
Begin to disengage
D.
Restructure relationships

____ 13. The best description of complicated grief is:
A.
Chronic, delayed, exaggerated, masked, or disenfranchised
B.
Experience of shock during notification of the death
C.
When grief is actually experienced before the death of a loved one
D.
A physical illness develops soon after death of a loved one

____ 14. All of the following statements are true about interventions in working with the bereaved except:
A.
Allow the active expression of grief
B.
There is strong evidence behind recommended interventions
C.
Staff attending memorial services support the family
D.
Provide both emotional and spiritual support

____ 15. The highest level of evidence to support interventions at the end of life is with:
A.
Opioids for pain control
B.
Hyocsyamine for respiratory secretions
C.
Stimulant laxatives for treating constipation
D.
Opioids for dyspnea

____ 16. The highest level of evidence with the use of adjuvant analgesics is with:
A.
Tricyclic antidepressants avoided due to high adverse events
B.
Therapeutic trials before discontinuing drugs
C.
Patient with fibromyalgia are candidates for adjuvant analgesics
D.
Neuropathic pain patients are candidates for adjuvant analgesia

Q10. Liberty University – BIBL 104 Quiz 5 Complete answers

Liberty University – BIBL 104 Quiz 5 Complete answers

Question 1

1 out of 1 points

Luke’s Gospel is the most universal Gospel because the good news about Jesus is for the whole world, not for the Jews only.

• Question 2

1 out of 1 points

Matthew gives special attention to the rejection of Jesus by the Jewish leaders.

• Question 3

1 out of 1 points

The New Testament consists of twenty-seven books that were written in Koine Greek or common Greek.

• Question 4

1 out of 1 points

The book of Jude belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

• Question 5

1 out of 1 points

The passion week of Jesus life took place in the city of Nazareth since he was known as Jesus of Nazareth.

• Question 6

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?

• Question 7

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, the original audience for the Gospel of John seems to be Greek-speaking Jews who were living outside of Israel.

• Question 8

1 out of 1 points

According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is

• Question 9

1 out of 1 points

According to early church tradition, Mark was a close disciple of James, the brother of Jesus. So, he heard James tell and retell the stories about Jesus everywhere they went.

• Question 10

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, _____________, the Hebrew tax collector, writes for the Hebrew mind.

• Question 11

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, the book of Revelation is written in apocalyptic symbolism and makes use of numbers, animals, and colors as graphic symbols of prophetic realties.

• Question 12

1 out of 1 points

In contrast to the Synoptic Gospels, the Gospel of John focuses more on the seven _________________ of Christ.

• Question 13

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of _______ includes more personal details about Jesus than any other Gospel.

• Question 14

1 out of 1 points

Jesus first miracle was healing a man in Canaan who had leprosy.

• Question 15

0 out of 1 points

John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”

• Question 16

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?

• Question 17

1 out of 1 points

John’s portrait of Christ is that of

• Question 18

1 out of 1 points

The book of Hebrews belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

• Question 19

1 out of 1 points

Mark’s audience was familiar with Jewish customs and geography. Thus, he uses them frequently without providing further explanation.

• Question 20

1 out of 1 points

According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is

• Question 21

1 out of 1 points

All of Jesus’ activity in Mark focus on His Judean ministry with the final week focused exclusively on activities in Jerusalem.

• Question 22

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.

• Question 23

0 out of 1 points

The book of Acts begins with the ascension of Christ and His commission to the apostles to take the gospel message from Jerusalem to the rest of the world.

Selected Answer:
False

• Question 24

1 out of 1 points

John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.

• Question 25

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, _________, the travel companion of Paul and Peter, writes for the Roman mind.

• Question 26

0 out of 1 points

The book of Acts ends with a final “update” as Paul awaits his trial before Caesar and the gospel message continues spreading as the church continues to grow.

• Question 27

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, Luke’s Gospel puts a good deal of emphasis on prayer, reporting that Jesus prayed eleven times, much more than any other Gospel.

• Question 28

1 out of 1 points

John’s Gospel concludes by noting that while Jesus did many other things, no one could possibly write them all down. If anyone did, even the whole world could not contain all of the books that would have to be written.

• Question 29

1 out of 1 points

The New Testament begins with the first coming of Christ and ends with the promise of His Second Coming.

• Question 30

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

• Question 31

1 out of 1 points

The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.

• Question 32

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following books is a General Epistle?

• Question 33

1 out of 1 points

The writer of the Gospel of John identifies himself only as “the disciple Jesus loved.”

• Question 34

1 out of 1 points

Luke’s purpose is to give “an orderly sequence” of the events about Christ’s birth, life, and sacrificial death followed by His resurrection and ascension back to heaven.

• Question 35

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following books are Pauline Epistles?

• Question 36

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

• Question 37

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of __________ places an emphasis on the individual person.

• Question 38

1 out of 1 points

Jesus’ seven miraculous “signs” in the Gospel of John were intended to affirm Jesus’ message and confirm His claims.

• Question 39

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following people wrote at least one letter that is included in the New Testament canon.

• Question 40

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following books are General Epistles

• Question 41

0 out of 1 points

Mark’s portrait of Christ is that of

• Question 42

1 out of 1 points

Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”

• Question 43

1 out of 1 points

During Jesus’ post-resurrection appearances He comforted Mary, convinced Thomas of His resurrection, and reassured Peter that he was forgiven for denying Him.

• Question 44

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, Mark’s theological purpose was to explain the most significant life in all of human history.

• Question 45

1 out of 1 points

Mark recounts nearly _______ miracles of Jesus.

• Question 46

1 out of 1 points

Mark’s writing is action packed, forceful, fresh, vivid, dramatic, realistic, graphic, simple, direct, swift, rough, brief, and to the point.

• Question 47

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospel of Mark there is only one quote from the Old Testament and a marked absence of references to the law of Moses.

• Question 48

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of _____________ is the only Gospel to mention that Jesus was a carpenter during His early adulthood.

• Question 49

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

• Question 50

1 out of 1 points

In order to speed up Jesus’ death so that it did not conflict with the Sabbath, the Jesus legs were broken at the request of the religious leaders.

Liberty University – BIBL 104 Quiz 5 Complete answers
Question 1

1 out of 1 points

Because Luke was a physician, there seems to be an interest in sickness and healing in the Third Gospel.

Question 2

1 out of 1 points

___________ references more historical events in the Roman Empire during the life of Jesus than the other Gospels

Question 3

1 out of 1 points

The passion week of Jesus life took place in the city of Nazareth since he was known as Jesus of Nazareth.

Question 4

1 out of 1 points

The book of Philemon belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

Question 5

1 out of 1 points

The book of Acts begins with the ascension of Christ and His commission to the apostles to take the gospel message from Jerusalem to the rest of the world.

Question 6

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following books is a General Epistle?

Question 7

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?

Question 8

1 out of 1 points

John views the soldiers’ division of Jesus’ clothes is viewed as a prophetic fulfillment.

Question 9

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of _______ includes more personal details about Jesus than any other Gospel.

Question 10

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, Luke’s Gospel stresses the role of women more than the other Gospels.

Question 11

1 out of 1 points

Luke’s purpose is to give “an orderly sequence” of the events about Christ’s birth, life, and sacrificial death followed by His resurrection and ascension back to heaven.

Question 12

1 out of 1 points

Matthew originally crafted this Gospel for a group of Christians who needed to become more familiar with the Old Testament.

Question 13

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?

Question 14

1 out of 1 points

Matthew’s Gospel opens with the genealogy of Jesus traced all the way back through King David and concluding with Isaac who was the child of promise.

Question 15

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

Question 16

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following people wrote at least one letter that is included in the New Testament canon.

Question 17

0 out of 1 points

Which of the following people did not write a letter included in the New Testament canon.

Question 18

1 out of 1 points

Which of the following books are General Epistles

Question 19

0 out of 1 points

In Matthew, the Parables of the Kingdom contrasts the righteousness of the kingdom of heaven with the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees.

Question 20

0 out of 1 points

The Acts of the Apostles covers the time from Pentecost to Paul’s imprisonment.

Question 21

1 out of 1 points

According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is

Selected Answer:

Question 22

1 out of 1 points

Luke is the longest book in the New Testament and gives a full picture of the life of Christ.

Selected Answer:

Question 23

1 out of 1 points

The book of Jude belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

Question 24

1 out of 1 points

In John 3 Jesus met _______________, a Jewish ruler in Jerusalem, to whom He explains what it means to be “born again.”

Question 25

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of John can be divided into two sections. The first section is the _____________ and the second section is the Book of Glory.

Question 26

1 out of 1 points

Jesus’ seven miraculous “signs” in the Gospel of John were intended to affirm Jesus’ message and confirm His claims.

Question 27

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospel of Mark there is only one quote from the Old Testament and a marked absence of references to the law of Moses.

Question 28

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.

Question 29

1 out of 1 points

A slave’s birth was unimportant, so Mark does not include the birth of Christ.

Question 30

1 out of 1 points

Luke’s portrait of Christ is that of

Question 31

1 out of 1 points

A slave is expected to rush from task to task and to do any job immediately so a key word in Mark is “immediately.”

Question 32

1 out of 1 points

John’s portrait of Christ is that of

Question 33

1 out of 1 points

Mark’s writing is action packed, forceful, fresh, vivid, dramatic, realistic, graphic, simple, direct, swift, rough, brief, and to the point.

Question 34

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, _____________, the Hebrew tax collector, writes for the Hebrew mind.

Question 35

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, Mark’s theological purpose was to explain the most significant life in all of human history.

Question 36

1 out of 1 points

The Gospel of _____________ is the only Gospel to mention that Jesus was a carpenter during His early adulthood.

Question 37

1 out of 1 points

Mark’s portrait of Christ is that of

Question 38

1 out of 1 points

The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.

Question 39

1 out of 1 points

In the Gospels, __________, Paul’s physician-missionary, writes with the Greek mentality in view.

Question 40

1 out of 1 points

In contrast to the Synoptic Gospels, the Gospel of John focuses more on the seven _________________ of Christ.

Question 41

1 out of 1 points

John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.

Question 42

0 out of 1 points

John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”

Question 43

1 out of 1 points

According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is

Question 44

1 out of 1 points

John sees prophetic fulfillment in the fact that when they pierced Jesus’ side with a spear both blood and water came out at once.

Question 45

1 out of 1 points

The book of Hebrews belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

Question 46

1 out of 1 points

According to our textbook, the original audience for the Gospel of John seems to be Greek-speaking Jews who were living outside of Israel.

Question 47

1 out of 1 points

All of Jesus’ activity in Mark focus on His Judean ministry with the final week focused exclusively on activities in Jerusalem.

Question 48

1 out of 1 points

Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”

Question 49

1 out of 1 points

John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:

Question 50

1 out of 1 points

The book of Titus belongs to the section of the New Testament known as

Thursday, June 14, 2018 6:05:21 PM EDT

GENDER STUDIES.

Q1. HR MANAGEMENT DISCUSSION
Watch the video titled “Fruit Guys ─ Strategy,”* also located in the Learn section of Week 3 of your Blackboard course. Identify two or three (2-3) businesses that could use the five (5) questions the Fruit Guys used to determine effectiveness. Provide a rationale for your answer. Reply to at least one (1) of your classmate’s posts.
Considering the Impact of Competition on HRM Within a Real Business (10 Points)
Pick an organization that you are familiar with and do a competitive environmental scan for it. Then answer and discuss the following questions:
• How does the competitive environment for the company affect the organization’s HR function?
• Which strategy would be best suited to address the effects discussed?
Provide a rationale for your answers. Reply to at least one (1) of your classmate’s posts.
*Note: Flash Player must be enabled in your browser to view this video.

Q2. HR MANAGEMENT Assisgnment 1
Imagine you are the HR manager at a company, and a female employee came to you upset because she felt a male coworker was creating a hostile work environment by repeatedly asking her out on dates even after she said “no”. What would you do?
Write a one (1) page paper in which you:
1. Formulate the conversation you would have with the employee, based the concepts found in Chapter 2 in your textbook.
2. Summarize the conversation you would have with the employee’s male co-worker, based on the concepts found in Chapter 2 of your textbook.
3. Format your assignment according to the following formatting requirements:
1. Typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides.
2. Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, your name, your professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page is not included in the required page length.

Q3. Discussion Board Forum
Discussion Board Forum Instructions
Discussion boards are collaborative learning experiences. Therefore, the student is required to provide a thread in response to the provided prompt for each forum. Each thread must be 250–300 words, demonstrate course-related knowledge, include 1 citation is current APA format, and include 1 biblical integration. In addition to the thread, the student is required to reply to two (2) other classmates’ threads. Each reply must be 175–200 words, include 1 citation in current APA format, and must reference the textbook readings.

Q4. Thinking Critically
all instructions in the attachment below

THINKING CRITICALLY 3
For this assignment, you will pick 3 questions from among the video and the chapter readings and answer each with a minimum of 3 paragraphs that are 3–5 sentences per paragraph.
NOTE: You will answer 3 questions total.
Read Chapter 16 of the Straubhaar et al. text. Select 1 question from the list below to answer:
1. Justify governmental interventions into the media marketplace in terms of preserving competition.
2. Define network neutrality.
3. Distinguish vertical integration from horizontal integration and cross-ownership.
4. Choose one of the organizations listed here and discuss their role in regard to media regulations: the FCC, the Department of Commerce, NTIA, the judicial system, and Congress.
Read Chapter 17 of the Straubhaar et al. text. Select 1 question from the list below to answer:
1. Define the terms “morality” and “ethics” and discuss the differences between them.
2. Describe how the morality and ethics of those participating in various media outlets might have an impact on your life. Include social media like FaceBook, Twitter and Instagram effects in your discussion.

View the Media Law Videos in this Module/Week.
1. Choose one topic presented by Attorney Nancy Kippanhan in the media law videos and discuss how this issue impacts you or your family.
Submit Thinking Critically 3 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on FRIDAY of Module/Week 8.
THINKING CRITICALLY INSTRUCTIONS
During module/weeks 2,4, and 8, you will select critical thinking questions to answer based on the assigned textbook readings and/or video presentations. A minimum of 3 paragraphs each made up of 3-5 sentences is required per question/answer. You will select a total of 3 questions from those provided in the Thinking Critically document for each respective module/week.
Submission:
The question/answers must be submitted in a Microsoft Word document to the assignment submission link on Blackboard. Do not copy and paste the text into the text box. When typing your questions and answers in Word, it must be clear to the reader where the questions and answers begin and end. For example, format your question/answers like this:
1. Q: State the question.
A. Write your answer.
2. Q: State the question.
A. Write your answer.

Submit Thinking Critically assignments 1and 2 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the assigned module/week.

Submit Thinking Critically 3 by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Friday of Module/Week 8.

Q5. Discussion Board Forum:

pretty easy all instructions are in an attachment below

DISCUSSION BOARD FORUM: AMERICAN EVENTS INSTRUCTIONS

Statement of Purpose or “Why Am I Doing This?”
One of the goals of the discussion boards is to encourage student community learning, and to help you gain valuable experience with analyzing evidence and presenting sound arguments based on you read and know. To this end, your Discussion Board Forum assignment will require you to examine events from a variety of perspectives and construct an argument that supports a specific point of view based on the supplied prompt.

Participation:
• To support the stated goals, you must participate fully in Discussion Board Forum: American Events (the “Editorial” and the “Letters to the Editor”) to receive full credit. You must also submit all work on time.

Response to the Prompt – Editorial (First Submission)
• You must select 1 topic from the “Discussion Board Forum Topic Selection” document.
• Read the information associated with the topic provided in the appropriate Discussion Board Readings folder in Blackboard.
• Submit your 400–500-word response to the prompt to the Discussion Board Forum in the form of a newspaper editorial article. Your Editorial must address 1 point of view presented in the thread for the topic you choose. Use the materials you read to write, assuming you are living in the time in which the event occurred and are writing to a contemporary audience who wants the news and your point of view on it. Your work must be clearly supported by your readings and biblical principles; however, you must use no more than 2 short quotations of course materials. You must take a definite position on the question asked.
• Your Editorial must be submitted directly as a reply to the appropriate thread. Do not attach your Editorial as a Microsoft Word document or PDF file.
• Appropriate citations must be made using parenthetical references in proper and current Turabian format (these must be complete citations including page numbers when applicable).
• First person is allowed.

Replies – Letters to the Editor (Second Submission)
• Be aware that the replies portion of your Discussion Board Forum is worth more than your thread. Review your grading rubric for more details.
• Replies must be considered as “Letters to the Editor,” assuming you are the reader of this newspaper and want to respond to what you have read.
• Substantive replies of 150–250 words are required. Comments such as “You have a good point,” “I like what you said,” or “I agree (or disagree) with you” are not adequate replies. Letters to the Editor must show some analytical thought and encourage more dialogue. Ask questions, give a different point of view, bring up another aspect of the topic your classmates did not cover, and so on.
• At least 5 Letters to the Editor are required, 3 in response to classmates’ Editorials and 2 in response to classmates’ responses to Editorials (to either the student’s own Editorial or to the Editorials of their classmates). Keep in mind that not everyone has the same opinions, ideas, or backgrounds. Differing opinions are welcome, but must always be stated in a respectful and professional manner. Personal attacks, profanity, or insulting behavior will not be tolerated. Behavior of this type will result in a ban from the Discussion Board Forum and a loss of all points for the Discussion Board Forum assignments. It will also be reported to Student Affairs as a violation of the Honor Code.

Assessment:
• The grading rubric clearly indicates how your work will be graded in terms of point value. Review it carefully to ensure you earn maximum potential points for your efforts.

Submit your Editorial by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Thursday and your Letters to the Editor by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 7.
Q6. Week 5 discussion What are the rele
Discuss the pros and cons of firewall deployments by answering the following questions:
• What are the relevant issues surrounding firewall deployments How does one balance security requirements with usability requirements?
Summarize your thoughts in a Microsoft Word document checking for spelling and grammar, then submit it directly (cut & paste) into the discussion thread. Respond to at least two other students’ views to engage in a meaningful debate regarding their posts or to defend your post.
Required Resources
• Textbook and Internet
• Handout: Firewall Implementation Planning
Submission Requirements
• Format: Please enter directly into the Discussion Question window
• Citation Style: Follow APA

Q7. Define public community health. How
HA560-1: Identify the role of assessment in public health.
HA560-5: Evaluate information used to make public health decisions.
PC-5.1: Use language that is clear, concise, and organized.
This is Part 1 to the assignments throughout this course. All of your assignments tie into each other, so read ahead to Units 4, 6 & 8 to understand what is expected of you for each assignment.
Instructions:
Answer the following questions concerning the role of assessment of public health:
1. Define public community health. How does this differ from personal health What are the benefits of public health assessments? What are the disadvantages, if any? Give an example of a potential conflict within the community that could arise as a result of public health assessments. How can public health advocates and policy makers prevent and/or manage such a conflict?
2. How can public health assessments be used to form public policy?
3. Choose one health concern and cite legislation that has been passed to address this concern. Discuss how this legislation has affected or could affect your
You may choose one of the following or one of your own choosing:
• Smoking in public places
• Accessibility for physically handicapped populations
• Legalization of marijuana for medicinal purposes
• Youth violence
• Domestic violence
• Child abuse
• Elder abuse

Q8. CIS 110Technical Paper Object-orient

CIS110 Week 10 Technical Paper Object-oriented Programming (OOP) / Event-Driven Programming (EDP) versus Procedural Programming (PP)

1. Identify at least two (2) advantages to using OOP as compared to using only PP.
2. Create one (1) original example of a class with at least one (1) attribute and one (1) method. Identify what the class in question represents, the attributes the class stores, and the purpose of the related method. Next, examine the relationship between the class, attributes, and methods that you have identified.
3. Describe at least one (1) feature of object-oriented programming that Visual Logic lacks.
4. Identify at least one (1) advantage to using event-driven programming, as compared to using purely procedural programming.
5. Use at least three (3) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.
Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:
• Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
• Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

Q9. Conduct some independent research
Researchers are increasingly looking for answers as allergic diseases continue to rise in the population. The predominant explanation, coined the “hygiene hypothesis” by Professor David Strachan in 1989, states that a lack of early childhood exposure to microbes and other infectious agents increases susceptibility to allergic diseases by suppressing the natural development of the immune system. The idea was widely reported by the media that developed societies, like the United States, have become “too clean”.
Read the following article about the hygiene hypothesis to learn more, then answer the questions below in your initial post:
Bradford, A. (2016). What is the Hygiene Hypothesis? Live Science. Accessed at http://www.livescience.com/54078-hygiene-hypothesis.html on September 14, 2016.
1. Conduct some independent research on the hygiene hypothesis. What contradictory evidence against the hypothesis can you find?
2. Have any new hypotheses been proposed to explain the increase in allergic conditions? How does it support the original hygiene hypothesis?
Do you think the hygiene hypothesis needs to be renamed? Why or why not?

Q10. Find an article on the Internet, outline
Find an article on the Internet, outline a security breach or cyberattack. Provide a link to the article and suggest a control that would mitigate against that attack. Clearly explain why that control would be an effective mitigation strategy.

HEALTH CARE.
Q1. NURSING 212 Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
Before donning gloves to perform a procedure, proper hand hygiene is essential. The nurse understands that the most important aspect of hand hygiene is the amount of
A nurse is demonstrating postoperative deep breathing and coughing exercises to a client about to undergo emergency abdominal surgery for appendicitis. The nurse realizes the client may be unprepared to learn if the client
A client comes to the emergency department reporting that he has had diarrhea for 4 days and is urinating less than usual. When assessing the client’s skin turgor, the nurse should
A nurse is planning interventions for a group of
clients who are obese. What can the nurse do to
improve their commitment to a long term goal of weight loss?
When admitting a client, the nurse records which information in the client’s record first?
StudyBlue Flashcard Printing of ATI Final
Friction
reports severe pain.
grasp a fold of skin on the chest under the clavicle, release it, and note if it springs back.
Attempt to develop the clients’ self-motivation.
Assessment of the client
1/27 5/25/2019
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A nurse tells a client that the provider has prescribed IV fluids. The client appears to be upset about the IV catheter insertion, but says nothing to the nurse. Which of the following of the following is an appropriate nursing response?
A client who is unstable and requires frequent vital signs has an electronic blood pressure machine automatically measuring his blood
pressure every 15 min. However, the machine is reading the client’s blood pressure at more frequent intervals, and the readings are not similar. The nurse checks the machine settings and observes the additional readings, but the problem continues. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing action?
A nurse is caring for a client just diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. The client is resistant to learning self injection of insulin and asks the nurse to administer all the injections. The nurse explains the importance of learning self care and appropriately adds which of the following statements?
An assistive personnel (AP) says to the nurse, “This client is incontinent of stool three or four times a day. | get angry, and | think that the client is doing it just to get attention. | think we should put adult diapers on her.” Which is the appropriate nursing response?
A nurse’s neighbor is scheduled for elective surgery. The neighbor’s provider indicated that a moderate amount of blood loss is expected during the surgery, and the neighbor is anxious about acquiring an infection from a blood transfusion. Which of the following is appropriate for the nurse to suggest?
“Is there something about this procedure that concerns you?”
Disconnect the machine, and measure the blood pressure manually every 15 min.
“Tell me what | can do to help you overcome your fear of giving yourself injections.”
“It is very upsetting to see an adult client regress.”
Donating autologous blood before the surgery
2/27 5/25/2019
At a mobile screening clinic, a nurse is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur due to aortic stenosis. To auscultate the aortic valve, the nurse should place the stethoscope at which location?
A client is admitted to the hospital with decreased circulation in the left leg. During the admission assessment, which is the most important nursing action initially?
A nurse is caring for a client who requires rectal temperature monitoring. Available at the client’s bedside is a thermometer is with a long, slender tip. Which of the following is the appropriate action for the nurse to take?
A nurse is teaching a client who has cardiovascular disease how to reduce his intake of sodium and cholesterol. The nurse understands that the most significant factor in planning dietary changes for this client is the
A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is confused and continually grabs at the nurses. Which of the following is an nursing action?
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Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum.
Evaluate the pedal pulses.
Obtain a thermometer with a short, blunt insertion end.
involvement of the client in planning the change.
Firmly tell him to not grab
3/27 5/25/2019
An assistive personnel (AP) tells the nurse, “I am unable to find a large blood pressure cuff for a client who is obese. Can | just use the regular cuff if | can get it to stay on?” The nurse replies
that taking the blood pressure of a morbidly obese client with a regular blood pressure cuff will result in a reading that is
Which of the following should the nurse do first when preparing to provide tracheostomy care?
A 3 year old child has had multiple tooth extractions while under general anesthesia. The client returns from the postanesthesia care crying, but awake, from the recovery room. Which approach is likely to be successful?
A nurse admits a client to a same-day surgery center for an exploratory laparotomy procedure this morning. The client’s surgeon asks the nurse to witness the signing of the preoperative consent form. In signing the form as a witness, the nurse affirms that
To use proper body mechanics while making an occupied bed for a client on bed rest, the nurse should
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high
Perform hand hygiene.
Examine the mouth last.
the signature on the preoperative consent form is the client’s.
place the bed in a high horizontal position.
4127 5/25/2019
Which of the following should a group of community health nurses plan as part of a primary prevention program for occupational pulmonary diseases?
When initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), the nurse must confirm which of the following assessment findings prior to beginning chest compressions?
A nurse on a rehabilitation unit is transferring a client from a bed to a chair. To avoid a back injury, which of the following techniques should the nurse use?
An older adult client appears agitated when the nurse requests that the client’s dentures be removed prior to surgery and states, “| never go anywhere without my teeth.” Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?
To use the nursing process correctly, the nurse must first
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Elimination of the exposure
Absence of pulse
Bend at the knees while maintaining a wide stance and a straight back, with the client’s hands on the nurse’s shoulders, and the nurse’s hands under the client’s axillae.
“You seem worried. Are you concerned someone may see you without your teeth?”
obtain information about the client.
5/27 5/25/2019
A postoperative client has been diagnosed with paralytic ileus. When performing auscultation of the client’s abdomen, the nurse expects the bowel sounds to be
While starting an intravenous infusion (IV) for a client, the nurse notices that her gloved hands get spotted with blood. The client has not been diagnosed with any infection transmitted via the bloodstream. Which of the following should the nurse do as soon as the task is completed?
A nurse is precepting a newly licensed nurse who is preparing to help a client perform tracheostomy care. The nurse should intervene if the equipment the preceptee gathered included
A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a terminal illness. The client asks several questions about the nurse’s religious beliefs related to death and dying. An appropriate nursing response is to
When assessing a client’s heart sounds, the nurse hears a scratching sound during both systole and diastole. These sounds become more distinct when the nurse has the client sit up and lean forward. The nurse should document the presence of a(n)
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Absent
Throw gloves away, perform hand hygiene
Cotton balls
encourage the client to express his thoughts about death and
dying.
pericardial friction rub.
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A client admitted with abdominal pain tells the nurse that her father died recently, and she begins crying while talking about him. The nurse determines that the client’s temperature is 39.2° C (102.6° F), her abdomen is soft without tenderness, and her menses is overdue by 2 days. To which observation should the nurse give priority attention?
At the surgical scrub sink, a surgical nurse demonstrates the proper surgical handwashing technique by scrubbing
A client scheduled for a hysterectomy has not yet signed the operative consent form. When the nurse approaches the client and asks that she review and sign the form, the client says she no longer wants to have the surgery. At this time, which action should the nurse take?
A nurse prepares to admit a client who is immediately postoperative to the unit following abdominal surgery. When transferring the client from the gurney to the bed, the nurse should
A client is admitted to the hospital in the terminal stage of cancer. The nurse enters the client’s room to administer medications and finds the client crying. The appropriate nursing action is
to
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The client’s temperature
with her hands held higher than her elbows
Ask the client why she has changed her mind.
lock the wheels on the bed and stretcher.
sit and hold the client’s hand.
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A nurse is performing an abdominal assessment of an adult client. Identify the correct sequence of steps used for this assessment.
While measuring a client’s vital signs, the nurse notices an irregularity in the heart rate. Which nursing action is appropriate?
A nurse is caring for a client who has hypertension. Which approach is the priority when the nurse is measuring the client’s blood pressure?
A hospitalized client needs a chest x ray. The radiology department calls the nursing unit and says that they are sending a transporter for the
client. When entering the client’s room, the priority action is to
An older adult client just diagnosed with colon cancer asks the nurse what the primary care provider is going to do. The provider will be making rounds within the hour. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate?
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Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
Count the apical pulse rate for 1 full min, and describe the rhythm in the chart.
Obtain the blood pressure under the same conditions each time.
check the client’s identification bracelet.
Help the client write down the questions to ask the provider, so that the client doesn’t forget.
8/27 StudyBlue Flashcard Printing of ATI Final
5/25/2019 A nurse is teaching a client with a new wg: . . . colostomy about how to irrigate the ostomy. The positions the irrigating solution nurse realizes that the client needs further i teaching when the client bag 30 inches above the stoma. When replacing a client’s surgical dressing, the nurse don clean Bessa une
should
When a nurse makes an initial assessment of a
client who is postoperative following a gastric
resection, the client’s nasogastric tube is not draining. The nurse’s attempt to irrigate the tube ;
with 10 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride is Notify the surgeon. unsuccessful, so she determines that the tube is obstructed. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A client returning from the surgical suite
following a vaginal hysterectomy is awake and “| am going to listen to
asking for something to drink. her postoperative diet prescription reads: Clear liquids; advance “W diet as tolerated. Which of the following is You ra bdomen = appropriate for the nurse to tell the client?
The mother of a toddler calls to the nurse, “Help! vps My baby is choking on his food.” The nurse Inability of the toddler to cry OF determines that the Heimlich maneuver is speak
necessary based on which finding?
9/27 5/25/2019 StudyBlue Flashcard Printing of ATI Final
A nurse is caring for a client who is 3 days postoperative following a cholecystectomy. The nurse suspects a wound infection because the
drainage on the dressing is yellow and thick. The nurse identifies this type of drainage as
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for tube feeding. The nurse understands that the provider prescribed tube feeding because the client
A nurse takes an older adult client who has dysphagia following a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) to the dining room for dinner. When assisting the client at mealtime, the nurse should
A nurse is collecting a urine specimen for a client to test via urine dipstick the urine’s specific gravity. The nurse knows the result will indicate the amount of
While changing the linen on a client’s bed, the nurse should
purulent.
is unable to swallow foods by mouth.
solutes tn the urine.
hold the linen away from his body and clothing.
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Which nursing action prevents injury to a client’s eye during the administration of eye drops?
A client returns from surgery with two Penrose drains in place. Anticipating frequent dressing changes, what should the nurse use around the incision area?
A nurse is performing an eye irrigation for a client who has been exposed to smoke and ash. Which of the following nursing actions should receive the highest priority during the irrigation?
A client develops a fecal impaction. Before
digital removal of the mass, which type of
enema should the nurse give to loosen the feces?
When communicating with a client who is hearing impaired the nurse should
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Holding the tip of the container above the conjunctival sac
Montgomery straps
Wearing gloves during the procedure
Oil retention
face the client and speak slowly.
11/27 5/25/2019
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) has been
initiated for a client in the emergency room. The
nurse understands that a critical concept related
to effective cardiac (chest) compressions is the need to
A client is admitted for evaluation and control of hypertension. Several hours after the client’s admission, the nurse discovers the client supine on the floor, unresponsive to verbal or painful stimuli. The nurse’s first action at this time should be to
When ambulating a frail, older adult client, the nurse should
A nurse is caring for a client who is incontinent of loose stool and is reporting a painful perineum. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?
A client being discharged following abdominal surgery will be performing his own dressing changes at home. It is most important for the nurse to include which of the following in the discharge plan?
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push hard and deep on the chest.
establish an airway.
use a transfer belt if the client is unsteady.
Check the client’s perineum.
Demonstration of appropriate hand hygiene
12/27 5/25/2019
When obtaining a urine specimen for a culture and sensitivity from an indwelling catheter, the nurse should
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an intravenous infusion (IV) that has infiltrated. Which of the following would be an unexpected finding when the nurse assesses the client’s infusion line and insertion site?
A client’s provider has ordered that a sputum
specimen be collected for culture and sensitivity.
The nurse plans to collect this specimen
A postoperative client has an indwelling urinary
catheter in place to gravity drainage. The nurse
notes that the client’s urinary drainage bag has
been empty for 2 hr. The first action the nurse should take is to
A client is hospitalized for an infection of a surgical wound following abdominal surgery. To promote healing and fight wound infection the nurse plans to arrange to increase the client’s intake of
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cleanse the entry port prior to withdrawing urine.
The area around the injection site feels warm when touched.
in the morning, on arising.
check to see if the tubing is kinked.
vitamin C and zinc.
13/27 5/25/2019
An older adult client has been hospitalized on bed rest for 1 week. The client reports elbow pain. Which of the following is an appropriate initial action for the nurse caring for this client to take?
A nurse is caring for a client who has just had a mastectomy and has a closed wound suction device (Hemovac) in place. Which nursing action will ensure proper operation of the device?
A client is recovering from gallbladder surgery performed under general anesthesia. The nurse should encourage the client to use the incentive
spirometer how many times per hour?
A nurse is in a public building when someone cries out, “Help! | think he’s having a heart attack!” The nurse responds to the scene and finds an unconscious adult lying on the floor. Another bystander has obtained an automated external defibrillator (AED). The nurse’s first action, after making certain someone has called for emergency medical services (EMS), should be to
A nurse is caring for several clients who are receiving oxygen therapy. Which client should the nurse assess most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity? The client receiving
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Examine the elbow.
Collapsing the device whenever it’s one half to two thirds full of air
Four to five
administer cardiac compressions.
100% oxygen via a partial rebreathing mask.
14/27 5/25/2019
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a partial colectomy. The client has a nasogastric tube set to low continuous suction. The client tells the nurse that his throat is sore and asks the nurse when the nasogastric tube will be taken out. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate at this time?
In planning care for a client with a surgical wound healing by secondary intention, the nurse can anticipate that the client will
A client recovering from an appendectomy for a ruptured appendix has a surgical wound healing by secondary intention. When changing the client’s dressing, which observation should the nurse report to the client’s surgeon?
The nurse is caring for an adult client who has fluid volume excess. When weighing this client, the nurse should
A nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube for a client admitted with a bowel obstruction. Which of the following should the nurse do first?
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“When your gastrointestinal tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.”
be at an increased susceptibility for infection.
A halo of erythema on the surrounding skin
weigh the client on arising.
Explain the procedure to the client.
15/27 5/25/2019 StudyBlue Flashcard Printing of ATI Final
A nurse is planning to collect a liquid stool specimen from a client for ova and parasites. Inaccurate test results may result if the nurse
A nurse has inserted an indwelling urinary catheter for a male client. Where should the nurse tape the catheter to prevent pressure on the client’s urethra at the penoscrotal junction?
A nurse is assisting a client with a meal. The client suddenly grabs at her neck with both hands and appears frightened. The appropriate nursing action is to
A client who is postoperative following a laparotomy is reporting pain and a dry mouth. The client has morphine sulfate ordered to control the pain. Before administering the morphine sulfate prescribed for the client the nurse should first
A nurse is assessing a client admitted with a sudden onset of severe back pain of unknown origin. Which statement would be most effective for the nurse use to elicit further information from this client about his pain?
refrigerates the collected specimen.
Lower abdomen
ask the client if she is choking.
measure the client’s vital signs.
“Tell me how you are feeling right now.”
16/27 5/25/2019 StudyBlue Flashcard Printing of ATI Final
A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following thoracic surgery. Which of the following manifestations should alert the
nurse to the possibility of early hypovolemic shock?
Which nursing action demonstrates safe principles of administering a routine immunization to an infant?
A nurse is caring for a female client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. The nurse determines that the assistive personnel (AP) performing hygiene care for the client requires further education about the care of indwelling catheters when she observes the AP
A nurse caring for a client who is immobilized knows that, without interventions to prevent constipation and fecal impaction, this client is at risk for
A nurse has organized a discussion session for assistive personnel (AP) at an extended care facility about cultural and religious traditions and rituals at the time of death. The nurse determines that one of the participants has a misconception when the AP states that
Irritability
Inject the vaccine into the vastus lateralis muscle.
hanging the collection bag at the level of the bladder.
intestinal obstruction.
organ donation is strictly forbidden by the Baptist Church.
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A nurse is caring for a client on strict bed rest. When entering the client’s room, the nurse notices flames in the waste basket. The nurse’s priority action is to
While preparing a client for discharge, the nurse teaches the proper position for postural drainage. The nurse knows that to achieve success in this teaching program, the information about the client that is most important is the
A right handed client is admitted with a fractured right arm and contusions of the left wrist following a motor vehicle crash. Which intervention should the nurse use when
assisting the client with feeding?
When transcribing the orders for a client admitted with an exacerbation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), a newly licensed nurse notes that the provider has prescribed a medication with which the nurse is unfamiliar. The nurse should
A client is 2 days postoperative following an appendectomy. While changing the linens on the client’s bed, the nurse notes drainage from an infected wound has soiled the bed sheet. The appropriate nursing action is to
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pull the client out into the hall in the bed.
client’s goal concerning his ability to be self-sufficient.
Offer small bites of food.
consult the medication reference book available on the unit.
carefully place the soiled sheet in a moisture-resistant plastic laundry bag.
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Following an accidental fall while playing volleyball, a client is sent home in a lower leg cast due to a hairline fracture of the tibia and
must use crutches. When teaching the client the four-point gait, the nurse explains that the client should
A client is prescribed a hypothermia blanket. When caring for the client, the nurse
A client is ambulating in the hallway in bare feet. What is the priority nursing action at this time?
A client is about to have a nasogastric tube (NG) inserted. The nurse explains the procedure and is ready to begin the insertion when the client says, “No way! You are not putting that hose down my throat. Get away from me.” Which of the following statements is an appropriate nursing response?
A nurse is teaching a client recovering from a cerebrovascular accident how to dress. The client has residual hemiplegia, so the nurse
instructs the client to do which of the following
when putting on a shirt?
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be able to bear weight on both legs.
places a layer of cloth between the client and the blanket.
Get the client’s slippers and have him put them on.
“| can see that this is upsetting you.”
“Slide your weaker arm through its sleeve first.”
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While eating, a client suddenly coughs a few times then attempts to cough and makes a whistling sound on inhalation. The nurse recognizes that the client is choking. When performing the Heimlich maneuver on a conscious client, which nursing action is effective?
A provider has prescribed restraints for a client who

Q2. NURSING N637: Chapter 32: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
What is the initiating event that leads to the development of atherosclerosis?
What is the effect of oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) in atherosclerosis?
Which inflammatory cytokines are released when endothelial cells are injured?
When endothelia cells are injured, what alteration contributes to atherosclerosis?
Which factor is responsible for the hypertrophy of the myocardium associated with hypertension?
What pathologic change occurs to the kidney’s glomeruli as a result of hypertension?
What effect does atherosclerosis have on the development of an aneurysm?
Regarding the endothelium, what is the difference between healthy vessel walls and those that promote clot formation?
What is the usual source of pulmonary emboli?
Which factor can trigger an immune response in the bloodstream that may result in an embolus?
Which statement best describes thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease)?
Which statement best describes Raynaud disease?
What change in a vein supports the development of varicose veins?
Superior vena cava syndrome is a result of a progressive increase of which process?
What term is used to identify when a cell is temporarily deprived of blood supply?
The risk of developing coronary artery disease is increased up to threefold by which factor?
Which risk factor is associated with coronary artery disease (CAD) because of its relationship with the alteration of hepatic lipoprotein?
Nicotine increases atherosclerosis by the release of which neurotransmitter?
Which substance is manufactured by the liver and primarily contains cholesterol and protein?
Which elevated value may be protective of the development of atherosclerosis?
Which laboratory test is an indirect measure of atherosclerotic plaque?
Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions and still return to a viable state for how many minutes?
Which form of angina occurs most often during sleep as a result of vasospasms of one or more coronary arteries?
When is the scar tissue that is formed after a myocardial infarction (MI) most vulnerable to injury?
An individual who is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin, creatine kinase–isoenzyme MB (CK-MB), and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) is exhibiting indicators associated with which condition?
What is the expected electrocardiogram (ECG) pattern when a thrombus in a coronary artery permanently lodges in the vessel and the infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium?
How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction (MI)?
A patient reports sudden onset of severe chest pain that radiates to the back and worsens with respiratory movement and when lying down. These clinical manifestations describe:
Ventricular dilation and grossly impaired systolic function, leading to dilated heart failure, characterize which form of cardiomyopathy?
A disproportionate thickening of the interventricular septum is the hallmark of which form of cardiomyopathy?
Amyloidosis, hemochromatosis, or glycogen storage disease usually causes which form of cardiomyopathy?

Which condition is a cause of acquired aortic regurgitation?
Which predominantly female valvular disorder is thought to have an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, as well as being associated with connective tissue disease?
Which disorder causes a transitory truncal rash that is nonpruritic and pink with erythematous macules that may fade in the center, making them appear as a ringworm?
What is the most common cause of infective endocarditis?
What is the most common cardiac disorder associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which form of heart failure may result from pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance?
What cardiac pathologic condition contributes to ventricular remodeling?
In systolic heart failure, what effect does the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) have on stroke volume?
What is the cause of the dyspnea resulting from a thoracic aneurysm?
Which statement is true concerning the cells’ ability to synthesize cholesterol?
What is the trigger for angina pectoris?
Individuals being effectively managed for type 2 diabetes mellitus often experience a healthydecline in blood pressure as a result of what intervention?
Which statements are true regarding fatty streaks? (Select all that apply.) Fatty streaksprogressively damage vessel walls.
Fatty streaks are capable of producing toxic oxygen radials.
When present, inflammatory changes occur to the vessel walls.
Oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) are involved in their formation.
What factors contribute to the development of orthostatic hypotension? (Select all that apply.)
Altered body chemistry
Drug action of certain antihypertensive agents
Prolonged immobility
Effects of aging on postural reflexes
Which assessment findings are clinical manifestations of aortic stenosis? (Select all that apply.)
Which risk factors are associated with infective endocarditis? (Select all that apply.)
Match the descriptions with the corresponding terms.
A. Impairs flow from left atrium to left ventricle
B. Impairs flow from the left ventricle
C. Backflow into left atrium
D. Backflow into right atrium
E. Backflow into left ventricle
Aortic stenosis
Aortic regurgitation

Mitral stenosis
Tricuspid regurgitation
Mitral regurgitation

Q3. NURS 545/BIOLOGY 4344: Patho Exam 2 Review: 100%
101. The level of TSH in Graves’ disease is usually:
a.
high.
b.
low.
c.
normal.

____ 102. Upon palpation of the neck of a patient with Graves’ disease, what would the nurse expect to find?
a.
Normal-sized thyroid
b.
Small discrete thyroid nodule
c.
Multiple discrete thyroid nodules
d.
Diffuse thyroid enlargement

____ 103. What are clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism?
a.
Intolerance to heat, tachycardia, and weight loss
b.
Oligomenorrhea, fatigue, and warm skin
c.
Restlessness, increased appetite, and metrorrhagia
d.
Constipation, decreased heat rate, and lethargy

____ 104. Diagnosing thyroid carcinoma is best done with:
a.
measurement of serum thyroid levels.
b.
radioisotope scanning.
c.
ultrasonography.
d.
fine-needle aspiration biopsy.

____ 105. Renal failure is the most common cause of _____ hyperparathyroidism.
a.
primary
b.
secondary
c.
exogenous
d.
inflammatory

____ 106. What is the most common cause of hypoparathyroidism?
a.
Pituitary hyposecretion
b.
Parathyroid adenoma
c.
Parathyroid gland damage
d.
Autoimmune parathyroid disease

____ 107. An adult female had a thyroidectomy this morning. She develops muscle spasms, increased deep tendon reflexes, and laryngeal spasm. What is the most common cause of these findings?
a.
Calcium deficit due to reduced parathormone
b.
Overuse of radioactive iodine given pre-operatively
c.
A history of insufficient dietary intake of iodine
d.
An increase in serum phosphorous caused by reduced calcitonin

____ 108. What is the most probable cause of low serum calcium following thyroidectomy?
a.
Hyperparathyroidism secondary to Graves’ disease
b.
Myxedema secondary to surgery
c.
Hypoparathyroidism caused by surgical injury
d.
Hypothyroidism caused by lack of thyroid replacement

____ 109. A male patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following laboratory values: arterial pH 7.20; serum glucose 500 mg/dl; urine glucose and ketones positive; serum K+ 2 mEq/L; serum Na+ 130 mEq/L. He reports that he has been sick with the “flu” for 1 week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency?
a.
Increased glucose use causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the intracellular space.
b.
Decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresis.
c.
Increased glucose and fatty acids stimulate renal diuresis, electrolyte loss, and metabolic alkalosis.
d.
Decreased glucose use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting, respiratory acidosis, and electrolyte loss.

____ 110. What is a description of diabetes mellitus type 2?
a.
There is a resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues.
b.
The patient uses lispro instead of regular insulin.
c.
There is an increased glucagon secretion from -cells of the pancreas.
d.
There are insulin autoantibodies that destroy ß-cells in the pancreas.

____ 111. A patient with diabetes mellitus type 1 experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. What is the most probable cause of these symptoms?
a.
Hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration
b.
Dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bed time
c.
Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise
d.
Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity

____ 112. Which clinical finding occurs first in metabolic acidosis of the patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus?
a.
Ketones in the urine
b.
Palpitations, anxiety, and confusion
c.
Hyperlipidemia
d.
Kussmaul respirations

____ 113. Why does hyperkalemia develop in diabetic ketoacidosis?
a.
Because sodium is low, which stimulates aldosterone to retain sodium and potassium
b.
Because hydrogen shifts into the cell in exchange for potassium to compensate for metabolic acidosis
c.
Because phosphorus shifts into the cell in exchange for potassium due to the lack of insulin
d.
Because the blood is concentrated due to the loss of water from polyuria

____ 114. What is a difference in clinical manifestations between diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperglycemic, hyperosmolar non-ketosis syndrome?
a.
Fluid loss
b.
Glycosuria
c.
Increased serum glucose
d.
Kussmaul respirations

____ 115. Hypoglycemia followed by rebound hyperglycemia is seen in:
a.
the Somogyi effect.
b.
the dawn phenomenon.
c.
diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).
d.
hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketosis syndrome (HHNKS).

____ 116. What is the first lab test that indicates a patient with type 1 diabetes is developing nephropathy?
a.
Dipstick test for urine ketones
b.
Increase in serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c.
Protein in the urinalysis
d.
Cloudy urine on the urinalysis

____ 117. Why do patients with diabetes mellitus develop hyperlipidemia?
a.
Because they have increases in low density lipoproteins (¬LDL) and triglycerides (-TG)
b.
Because they have decreased low density lipoproteins (¯LDL) and increased triglycerides (¬TG)
c.
Because they have decreased low density lipoproteins (¯LDL) and increased high density lipoproteins (¬HDL)
d.
Because they have increased high density lipoproteins (¬HDL) and decreased triglycerides (¯TG)

____ 118. What causes the microvascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus?
a.
The capillaries contain plaques of lipids that obstruct blood flow.
b.
There is increased pressure within capillaries as a result of the elevated glucose attracting water.
c.
The capillary basement membranes thicken and there is endothelial cell hyperplasia.
d.
Fibrous plaques form from the proliferation of subendothelial smooth muscle of arteries.

____ 119. What causes the macrovascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus?
a.
The capillaries contain plaques of lipids that obstruct blood flow.
b.
There is increased pressure within capillaries caused by the elevated glucose attracting water.
c.
The capillary basement membranes thicken and there is endothelial cell hyperplasia.
d.
Fibrous plaques form from the proliferation of subendothelial smooth muscle of arteries.

____ 120. Which chronic complication of diabetes mellitus is caused by microvascular complications?
a.
Nephropathy
b.
Coronary artery disease
c.
Neuropathy
d.
Peripheral vascular disease

____ 121. Why does retinopathy develop in patients with type 2 diabetes?
a.
Because there are plaques of lipids within the retinal vessels
b.
Because of an increased pressure within the retinal vessels from the increased osmotic pressure
c.
Because ketones cause microaneurysms within the retinal vessels
d.
Because of increased retinal capillary permeability and microaneurysm formation

____ 122. A patient has acne, easy bruising, thin extremities, and truncal obesity. These clinical manifestations are indicative of which endocrine disorder?
a.
Hyperthyroidism
b.
Hypoaldosteronism
c.
Diabetes insipidus (DI)
d.
Cushing disease

____ 123. Which statement about the pericardium is false?
a.
It is a double-walled membranous sac that encloses the heart.
b.
It is composed of connective tissue and a layer of squamous cells.
c.
It protects the heart against infection and inflammation from the lungs and pleural space.
d.
It contains pain and mechanoreceptors that can elicit reflex changes in blood pressure and heart rate.

____ 124. During the cardiac cycle, what makes the mitral and tricuspid valves close after the ventricles are filled with blood?
a.
The chordae tendineae relax, which allows the valves to close.
b.
The increased pressure in the ventricles pushes the values to close.
c.
The trabeculae carneae contract, which pulls the valves closed.
d.
The reduced pressure in the atria creates a negative pressure that pulls the valves closed.

____ 125. What is the significance of the “atrial kick”?
a.
It is the contraction of the right atria that is necessary to open the tricuspid valve.
b.
It is the contraction of the right atria that is necessary to increase the blood volume from the venae cavae.
c.
It is the contraction of the left atria that increases the blood volume into the ventricle.
d.
It is the contraction of the left atria that is necessary to open the mitral valve.

____ 126. Occlusion of the left anterior descending artery during a myocardial infarction would interrupt blood supply to which part of the heart?
a.
To portions of the left and right ventricles and much of the interventricular septum
b.
To the left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle
c.
To the upper right ventricle, right marginal branch, and right ventricle to the apex
d.
To the posterior interventricular sulcus and smaller branches of both ventricles

____ 127. Occlusion of the circumflex artery during a myocardial infarction would interrupt blood supply to which part of the heart?
a.
To portions of the left and right ventricles and much of the interventricular septum
b.
To the posterior interventricular sulcus and smaller branches of both ventricles
c.
To the upper right ventricle, right marginal branch, and right ventricle to the apex
d.
To the left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle

____ 128. Where are the coronary ostia located?
a.
Left ventricle
b.
Medial to the aortic valve
c.
Coronary sinus
d.
Aorta

____ 129. The coronary sinus empties into the:
a.
right atrium.
b.
left atrium.
c.
superior vena cava.
d.
aorta.

____ 130. Which statement about development of collateral arteries in the heart is false?
a.
The incidence of aneurysm formation after a myocardial infarction is reduced in individuals who develop significant collateral circulation.
b.
The incidence of myocardial regeneration after a myocardial infarction increases in individuals who develop significant collateral circulation.
c.
The risk of dysrhythmias after a myocardial infarction is reduced in individuals with well-developed collateral circulation.
d.
Collateral circulation may extend the “window of time” to benefit reperfusion therapy after a myocardial infarction, resulting in greater improvement in cardiac function.

____ 131. What is the ratio of coronary capillaries to cardiac muscle cells?
a.
1:1 (1 capillary per 1 muscle cell)
b.
1:2 (1 capillary per 2 muscle cells)
c.
1:4 (1 capillary per 4 muscle cells)
d.
1:10 (1 capillary per 10 muscle cells)

____ 132. What is the function of P cells found in the sinoatrial node and Purkinje fibers?
a.
They are receptors for pain stimuli, such as the pain that occurs during infarction.
b.
They prolong the refractory period before the next contraction.
c.
They are assumed to be the site of impulse formation.
d.
They initiate repolarization of the myocardium.

____ 133. Depolarization of a cardiac muscle cell occurs as the result of a:
a.
decrease in the permeability of the cell membrane to potassium.
b.
rapid movement of sodium into the cell.
c.
rapid movement of calcium into the cell.
d.
slow movement of sodium out of the cell.
e.
slow movement of calcium out of the cell.

____ 134. What occurs during phase 1 of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization?
a.
Repolarization when potassium moves out of the cells
b.
Repolarization when sodium rapidly enters into cells
c.
Early repolarization when sodium slowly enters cells
d.
Early repolarization when calcium slowly enters cells

____ 135. Phase 0 of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization correlates with which part of the electrocardiogram (EKG)?
a.
QRS complex
b.
P-R interval
c.
Q-T interval
d.
U wave

____ 136. Which phase of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization correlates with diastole?
a.
Phase 0
b.
Phase 1
c.
Phase 2
d.
Phase 3
e.
Phase 4

____ 137. _____ nerves can shorten the conduction time of action potential through the atrioventricular (AV) node.
a.
Parasympathetic
b.
Sympathetic
c.
Vagal
d.
Glossopharyngeal

____ 138. If the sinoatrial (SA) node fails, at what rate can the atrioventricular (AV) node polarize?
a.
60 to 70 per minute
b.
40 to 60 per minute
c.
30 to 40 per minute
d.
10 to 20 per minute

____ 139. What, if any, is the effect of epinephrine on b2-receptors of the heart?
a.
None, b1-receptors are the only b-receptors in the heart.
b.
Dilate coronary arterioles
c.
Increase the strength of myocardial contraction
d.
Increase the heart rate

____ 140. Where are the receptors for neurotransmitters located in the heart?
a.
Semilunar and atrioventricular valves
b.
Endocardium and sinoatrial node
c.
Myocardium and coronary vessels
d.
Epicardium and atrioventricular node

____ 141. Within a physiologic range, an increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume (preload) leads to a(n):
a.
increased force of contraction.
b.
decrease in refractory time.
c.
increase in afterload.
d.
increase in repolarization.

____ 142. Continuous increases in left ventricular filing pressures results in which disorder?
a.
Mitral regurgitation
b.
Mitral stenosis
c.
Pulmonary edema
d.
Jugular vein distention

____ 143. The Bainbridge reflex is thought to be initiated by sensory neurons in the:
a.
atria.
b.
aorta.
c.
atrioventricular node.
d.
ventricles.

____ 144. What is the correct sequence of events that occur after the baroreceptor reflex is stimulated?
a.
From the carotid artery to the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic activity
b.
From the carotid artery to glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase sympathetic activity and decrease parasympathetic activity
c.
From the carotid artery to glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic activity
d.
From the carotid artery to glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the hypothalamus to increase parasympathetic activity and decrease sympathetic activity

____ 145. Reflex control of total cardiac output and total peripheral resistance is controlled by:
a.
parasympathetic stimulation of heart, arterioles, and veins.
b.
sympathetic stimulation of heart, arterioles, and veins.
c.
autonomic control of the heart only.
d.
somatic control of the heart, arterioles, and veins.

____ 146. Myogenic regulation of blood vessel diameter and subsequent blood flow through a vessel is an example of _____ of blood vessels.
a.
autonomic regulation
b.
somatic regulation
c.
autoregulation
d.
metabolic regulation

____ 147. In assessing for allergies before coronary angiography, the nurse will be particularly concerned if the patient he has an allergy to:
a.
technetium.
b.
iodine.
c.
penicillin.
d.
warfarin sodium (Coumadin).

____ 148. What is an expected change in the cardiovascular system that occurs with aging?
a.
Arterial stiffening
b.
Decreased left ventricular wall tension
c.
Decreased aortic wall thickness
d.
Arteriosclerosis

____ 149. Which statement is false about the way in which substances pass from capillaries and the interstitial fluid?
a.
Substances pass through junctions between endothelial cells.
b.
Substances pass through pores or oval windows.
c.
Substances pass through vesicles by active transport across the endothelial cell membrane.
d.
Substances pass through by osmosis across the endothelial cell membrane.

____ 150. Which natriuretic peptide inhibits antidiuretic hormone by increasing urine sodium loss?
a.
Urodilatin
b.
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
c.
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
d.
C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP)

____ 151. Which natriuretic peptide complements nitric oxide to mediate vasodilation?
a.
Urodilatin
b.
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
c.
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
d.
C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP)

____ 152. Which natriuretic peptide is proposed to be a biochemical marker to screen for left ventricular dysfunction?
a.
Urodilatin
b.
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
c.
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
d.
C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP)

____ 153. What is the primary mechanism of atherogenesis?
a.
The release of the inflammatory cytokines tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-), interferon gamma (IFN-), and interleukin 1 (Il-1)
b.
The release of the growth factor granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF)
c.
The release of toxic oxygen radicals that oxidize low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
d.
The release of the inflammatory cytokines interferon beta (IFN-ß), interleukin 6 (Il-6), and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)

____ 154. What is the effect of oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDL) in atherosclerosis?
a.
It causes smooth muscle proliferation.
b.
It causes regression of atherosclerotic plaques.
c.
It increases levels of inflammatory cytokines.
d.
It directs macrophages to the site within the endothelium.

____ 155. Which inflammatory cytokines are released when endothelial cells are injured?
a.
Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF)
b.
Beta-interferon (ß-IFN), interleukin 6 (Il-6), and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF).
c.
Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-), gamma interferon (-IFN), and interleukin 1 (Il-1).
d.
Interferon alpha (IFN-), interleukin 12 (Il-12), and macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF)

____ 156. What are the vasoconstricting factors regulated by endothelium?
a.
Thromboxane A and endothelin
b.
Norepinephrine and acetylcholine
c.
Bradykinin and leukotriene
d.
Serotonin and prostacyclin

____ 157. What alteration occurs in injured endothelial cells that contributes to atherosclerosis?
a.
They release toxic oxygen radicals that oxidize low-density lipoproteins (LDL).
b.
They are unable to make the normal amount of vasodilating cytokines.
c.
They produce an increased amount of antithrombic cytokines.
d.
They develop a hypersensitivity to homocystine and lipids.

____ 158. What factor is responsible for the hypertrophy of the myocardium associated with hypertension?
a.
Increased norepinephrine
b.
Adducin
c.
Angiotensin II
d.
Insulin resistance

____ 159. What pathologic change occurs in kidneys of people with hypertension that leads to dysfunction of the glomeruli?
a.
Compression of the renal tubules
b.
Ischemia of the tubule
c.
Increased pressure from within the tubule
d.
Obstruction of the renal tubule

____ 160. Cerebral aneurysms frequently occur in the:
a.
vertebral arteries.
b.
basilar artery.
c.
circle of Willis.
d.
carotid arteries.

____ 161. How does atherosclerosis cause aneurysms?
a.
A reduction in oxygen causes ischemia of the intima.
b.
An increase in endothelin increases nitric oxide.
c.
Plaque formation erodes the vessel wall.
d.
The vessel is obstructed by plaques and thrombus formation.

____ 162. What are the differences in arterial walls versus vs. walls that promote clot formation?
a.
There is inflammation of the endothelium of the artery and roughing of the endothelium of the vein.
b.
There is vasoconstriction of the endothelium of the artery and hypertrophy of the endothelium of the vein.
c.
There is excessive clot formation of the endothelium of the artery and lipid accumulation of the endothelium of the vein.
d.
There is roughening of the endothelium of the artery and inflammation of the endothelium of the vein.

____ 163. What is the usual source of pulmonary emboli?
a.
Deep vein thrombosis
b.
Endocarditis
c.
Valvular disease
d.
Left heart failure

____ 164. Which source of emboli introduces antigens, cells, and protein aggregates that trigger an immune response within the bloodstream?
a.
Amniotic fluid
b.
Fat
c.
Bacteria
d.
Air

____ 165. Which is a description of thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger disease)?
a.
An inflammatory disorder of small- and medium-sized arteries in the feet and sometimes in the hands
b.
A vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers, and less commonly the toes
c.
An autoimmune disorder of the large arteries and veins of the upper and lower extremities
d.
A neoplastic disorder of the lining of the arteries and veins of the upper extremities

____ 166. Which is a description of Raynaud phenomenon and disease?
a.
An inflammatory disorder of small- and medium-sized arteries in the feet and sometimes in the hands.
b.
A neoplastic disorder of the lining of the arteries and veins of the upper extremities.
c.
A vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers, and less commonly the toes.
d.
An autoimmune disorder of the large arteries and veins of the upper and lower extremities.

____ 167. What changes in veins occur to create varicose veins?
a.
An increase in osmotic pressure
b.
Damage to the valves with veins
c.
Damage to the venous endothelium
d.
An increase in hydrostatic pressure

____ 168. Superior vena cava syndrome is a progressive _____ of the superior vena cava that leads to venous distention of the upper extremities and head.
a.
inflammation
b.
occlusion
c.
distention
d.
sclerosis

____ 169. Coronary artery disease can diminish the myocardial blood supply until deprivation impairs myocardial metabolism enough to cause _____, a local state in which the cells are temporarily deprived of blood supply.
a.
infarction
b.
ischemia
c.
necrosis
d.
inflammation

____ 170. Of the following risk factors for coronary artery disease, which is responsible for a twofold to threefold increase in risk?
a.
Diabetes mellitus
b.
Hypertension
c.
Obesity
d.
High alcohol consumption

____ 171. Which of the following risk factors is associated with a twofold increase in the risk for coronary artery disease death and up to a sixfold risk for stroke?
a.
Diabetes mellitus
b.
Hypertension
c.
Obesity
d.
High alcohol consumption

____ 172. How does nicotine increase atherosclerosis?
a.
By the release of histamine
b.
By decreasing nitric oxide
c.
By the release of angiotensin II
d.
By the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine

____ 173. _____ are manufactured by the liver and primarily contains cholesterol and protein.
a.
Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
b.
Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
c.
High-density lipoproteins (HDL)
d.
Triglycerides (TG)

____ 174. Which value may be protective for the development of atherosclerosis?
a.
High values of very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
b.
High values of low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
c.
High values of high-density lipoproteins (HDL)
d.
High values of triglycerides (TG)

____ 175. Which lab test is an indirect measure of atherosclerotic plaque?
a.
Homocysteine
b.
Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
c.
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
d.
C reactive protein (CPR)

____ 176. Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions and still return to a viable state for _____ minutes.
a.
10
b.
15
c.
20
d.
25

____ 177. _____ angina occurs because of vasospasms of one or more coronary arteries and often during sleep.
a.
Unstable
b.
Stable
c.
Silent
d.
Prinzmetal

____ 178. When scar tissue replaces the myocardium after a myocardial infarction (MI), the forming scar tissue is very mushy and vulnerable to injury at about day _____ after MI.
a.
5 to 9
b.
10 to 14
c.
15 to 20
d.
20 to 30

____ 179. An individual is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin, creatine kinase (CK), and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH). These elevated levels indicate:
a.
myocardial ischemia.
b.
hypertension.
c.
myocardial infarction.
d.
coronary artery disease.

____ 180. What is the expected electrocardiogram pattern for a patient when a thrombus in a coronary artery lodges permanently in the vessel and the infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium?
a.
Prolonged Q-T interval
b.
ST elevation (STEMI)
c.
ST depression (STDMI)
d.
Non-ST elevation (non-STEMI)

____ 181. How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction?
a.
By increasing the peripheral vascular resistance
b.
By causing dysrhythmias as a result of hyperkalemia
c.
By reducing the contractility of the myocardium
d.
By stimulating the sympathetic nervous system

____ 182. What is the significance of pulsus paradoxus that occurs in a pericardial effusion?
a.
It reflects impairment of the diastolic filling pressures of the right ventricle and reduction of blood volume in both ventricles.
b.
It reflects impairment of the blood ejected from the right atria and reduction of blood volume in the right ventricle.
c.
It reflects impairment of the blood ejected from the left atria and reduction of blood volume in the left ventricle.
d.
It reflects impairment of the diastolic filling pressures of the left ventricle and reduction of blood volume in all four heart chambers.

____ 183. A patient complains of sudden onset of severe chest pain that radiates to the back and worsens with respiratory movement and when lying down. What is causing these clinical manifestations?
a.
Myocardial infarction
b.
Pericardial effusion
c.
Restrictive pericarditis
d.
Acute pericarditis

____ 184. Biventricular dilation is the result of _____ cardiomyopathy.
a.
hypertrophic
b.
restrictive
c.
congestive
d.
inflammatory

____ 185. _____ cardiomyopathy is characterized by ventricular dilation and grossly impaired systolic function, leading to dilated heart failure.
a.
Dilated
b.
Hypertrophic
c.
Septal
d.
Dystrophic

____ 186. The hallmark of _____ cardiomyopathy is a disproportionate thickening of the interventricular septum.
a.
dystrophic
b.
hypertrophic
c.
septal
d.
dilated

____ 187. _____ cardiomyopathy is usually caused by an infiltrative disease of the myocardium, such as amyloidosis, hemochromatosis, or glycogen storage disease.
a.
Infiltrative
b.
Restrictive
c.
Septal
d.
Hypertrophic

____ 188. What are clinical manifestations of aortic stenosis?
a.
Jugular vein distension
b.
Bounding pulses
c.
Peripheral edema
d.
Dyspnea on exertion

____ 189. Aortic and mitral regurgitation and mitral stenosis are all caused by which of the following?
a.
Congenital malformation
b.
Cardiac failure
c.
Rheumatic fever
d.
Coronary artery disease

____ 190. Which valvular disorder is thought to have an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, to be associated with connective tissue disease that tends to bemost prevalent in young women?
a.
Mitral valve prolapse
b.
Tricuspid stenosis
c.
Tricuspid valve prolapse
d.
Aortic insufficiency

____ 191. Which disorder causes a transitory truncal rash that is nonpruritic and pink with erythematous macules that may fade in the center, making them appear as a ringworm?
a.
Fat emboli
b.
Rheumatic fever
c.
Bacterial endocarditis
d.
Myocarditis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

____ 192. Infective endocarditis is most often caused by:
a.
a virus.
b.
a fungus.
c.
a bacteria.
d.
rickettsiae.

____ 193. For which disorder are the risk factors genitourinary instrumentation, dental procedure, hemodialysis, and intravenous drug use?
a.
Rheumatic fever
b.
Infective endocarditis
c.
Mitral regurgitation
d.
Aortic regurgitation

____ 194. What is the most common cardiac disorder associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) resulting from myocarditis and infective endocarditis?
a.
Inflammatory cardiomyopathy
b.
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
c.
Dilated cardiomyopathy
d.
Restrictive cardiomyopathy

____ 195. A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which of the following heart failures may result from this condition?
a.
Right heart failure
b.
Left heart failure
c.
Low-output failure
d.
High-output failure

____ 196. Ventricular remodeling is a result of:
a.
left ventricular hypertrophy.
b.
right ventricular failure.
c.
myocardial ischemia.
d.
contractile dysfunction.

____ 197. In systolic heart failure, what effect does angiotensin II have on stroke volume?
a.
Increases preload and decreases afterload
b.
Increases preload and increases afterload
c.
Decreases preload and increases afterload
d.
Decreases preload and decreases afterload

Matching

Match the description with its corresponding term.
a.
Loss of differentiation:
b.
Cancer cells secrete growth factor for their own growth
c.
Cells that vary in size and shape
d.
Unaltered normal allele
e.
Responsible for maintenance of genomic integrity

____ 198. Proto-oncogene

____ 199. Pleomorphic

____ 200. Anaplasia

____ 201. Caretaker gene

____ 202. Autocrine stimulation

Match the intracardiac pressures with their description.
a.
a wave
b.
v wave
c.
c wave
d.
x descent
e.
y descent

____ 203. An early diastole peak caused by filling of the atrium from peripheral veins

____ 204. Reflects rapid flow of blood from the great veins and right atrium into the right ventricle

____ 205. Generated by the atrial contraction

____ 206. Produced because of descent of the tricuspid valve ring and by ejection of blood from both ventricles

____ 207. May represent bulging of the mitral valve into the left atrium during early systole

Match th

Q4. NUR 2115: xam 1 review: Focus Points for First WebEx: 100%
What precautions does the nurse take when giving any type of Chemo medications 2. What is Superior vena cava syndrome and what are the symptoms associated with this syndrome 3. What will the nurse do for a patient following a prostatectomy and what should be done for dark red urine output? 4. What post-op care should be provided after a mastectomy 5. What labs should the nurse be concerned with when caring for the cancer patient. Ex: Neutropenia, Thrombocytopenia, etc… 6. Know all signs/symptoms of Neutropenia and Thrombocytopenia 7. What kind of education would you give someone receivingexternal radiation 8. Know the stages of cancer development; malignant transformation occurs through… 9. Know how to interpret the TNM staging system 10. What drug does the physician order for the chemo patient with low hemoglobin levels 11. What the normal ranges for platelet counts and what nursing intervention should the nurse do for a low platelet count 12. What intervention/education should the nurse suggest to the early diagnosed cancer patient concerning memory problems 13. What is mucositis and what interventions does the nurse do to treat it 14. What is the difference between Basal Cell and Squamous cell carcinomas 15. What type of behavior does cancer cells exhibit 16. What interventions are used for nausea/vomiting associated with cancer treatment 17. What education would the nurse give to lessen the impact on the development of cancer 18. What is Tumor lysis syndrome 19. What interventions would the nurse incorporate for the patient diagnosed with a brain tumor 20. What type of education will the nurse teach the patient who takes herbal medications when receiving treatment for cancer 21. Ginger helps the cancer patient with what? 22. What herbal supplement should the patient avoid when taking estrogen 23. Why should the surgical patient stop taking ginger, bilberry, feverfew, and garlic 24. What is the association between cancer and T’ai Chi 25. What types of interventions can the nurse provide for cancer comfort 26. What is Palliative care and what purpose does treatment do for this type of patient 27. What is Hospice and the role of the nurse working with the patient and family 28. What is the difference between agonal breathing, apneustic breathing, and cheyne-stokes respiration 29. What are signs/symptoms of impending death and which sign does the nurse determine is showing nearing death 30. What is the most important treatment the nurse does for the dying patient 31. What are advance directives and what education does the nurse provide the patient/family 32. What is actions should the nurse take for the death of the patient and their families 33. What is the difference between hospice and palliative care 34. How does one identify pain in the cancer patient 35.What task are unlicensed staff allowed to do for the dying patient 36. What interventions does the nurse do for “death rattle” 37. What are the catholic custom associated with death and dying 38. What is terminal dehydration 39. What is the purpose of proportional palliative sedation [Show less]

Q5. NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing
NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing
Project Milestone 1

Directions: Prior to completing this template, carefully review Course Project Milestone 1 Guidelines paying particular attention to how to name the document and all rubric requirements. After saving the document to your computer, type your answers directly on this template and save again. This assignment is due by Sunday end of Week 1 by 11:59 p.m. Mountain Time.
Your Name:__________________________
Assignment Criteria
Your Answers:
NOTE: See Milestone 1 Rubric for details required in each area.
Q6. NURS 6560 Midterm Exam (Latest): Walden University (Already graded A)
NURS 6560 Midterm Exam (2018): Advanced Practice Care of Adults in Acute Care Settings: Walden University
Question 1
S. is a 59-year-old female who has been followed for several years for aortic regurgitation. Serial echocardiography has demonstrated normal ventricular function, but the patient was lost to follow-up for the last 16 months and now presents complaining of activity intolerance and weight gain. Physical examination reveals a grade IV/VI diastolic aortic murmur and 2+ lower extremity edema to the midcalf. The AGACNP considers which of the following as the most appropriate management strategy?
A. Serial echocardiography every 6 months
B. Begin a calcium channel antagonist
C. Begin an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
D. Surgical consultation and intervention
Question 2
An ascending thoracic aneurysm of > 5.5 cm is universally considered an indication for surgical repair, given the poor outcomes with sudden rupture. Regardless of the aneurysm’s size, all of the following are additional indications for immediate operation except:
A. Comorbid Marfan’s syndrome
B. Enlargement of > 1 cm since diagnosis
C. Crushing chest pain
D. History of giant cell arteritis
Question 3
Jasmine is a 31-year-old female who presents with neck pain. She has a long history of injection drug use and admits to injecting opiates into her neck. Physical examination reveals diffuse tracking and scarring. Today Jasmine has a distinct inability to turn her neck without pain, throat pain, and a temperature of 102.1°F. She appears ill and has foul breath. In order to evaluate for a deep neck space infection, the AGACNP orders:
A. Anteroposterior neck radiography
B. CT scan of the neck
C. White blood cell (WBC) differential
D. Aspiration and culture of fluid
Question 4
Mr. Draper is a 39-year-old male recovering from an extended abdominal procedure. As a result of a serious motor vehicle accident, he has had repair of a small bowel perforation, splenectomy, and repair of a hepatic laceration. He will be on total parenteral nutrition postoperatively. The AGACNP recognizes that the most common complications of parenteral nutrition are a consequence of:
A. Poorly calculated solution
B. Resultant diarrhea and volume contraction
C. The central venous line used for infusion
D. Bowel disuse and hypomotility
Question 5
Mr. Mettenberger is being discharged following his hospitalization for reexpansion of his second spontaneous pneumothorax this year. He has stopped smoking and does not appear to have any overt risk factors. While doing his discharge teaching, the AGACNP advises Mr. Mettenberger that his current risk for another pneumothorax is:
A. < 10%
B. 25-50%
C. 50-75%
D. > 90
Question 6
One of the earliest findings for a patient in hypovolemic shock is:
A. A drop in systolic blood pressure (SBP) < 10 mm Hg for > 1 minute when sitting up
B. A change in mental status
C. SaO2 of < 88%
D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H) < 9 g/dL and 27%
Question 7
Traumatic diaphragmatic hernias present in both acute and chronic forms. Patients with a more chronic form are most likely to be present with:
A. Respiratory insufficiency
B. Sepsis
C. Bowel obstruction
D. Anemia
Question 8
The AGACNP is managing a patient in the ICU who is being treated for a pulmonary embolus. Initially the patient was stable, awake, alert, and oriented, but during the last several hours the patient has become increasingly lethargic. At change of shift, the oncoming staff nurse appreciates a profound change in the patient’s mental status from the day before. Vital signs and hemodynamic parameters are as follows: BP 88/54 mm Hg Pulse 110 bpm Respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute SaO2 93% on a 50% mask Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) 1600 dynes ∙ sec/cm5 Cardiac index 1.3 L/min Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) 8 mm Hg This clinical picture is most consistent with which shock state?
A. Hypovolemic
B. Cardiogenic
C. Distributive
D. Obstructive

Question 9
When counseling patients to prevent postoperative pulmonary complications, the AGACNP knows that with respect to smoking cessation, the American College of Surgeons and National Surgical Quality Improvement Program guidelines are clear that patients who stop smoking _____ weeks before surgery have no increased risk of smokingrelated pulmonary complications.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Question 10
Mitch C. is a 39-year-old male who is brought to the ED by paramedics. According to the report of a neighbor, Mitch was distraught over a breakup with his fiancée and attempted to commit suicide by mixing some chemicals from under his kitchen sink and drinking them; afterward he changed his mind and knocked on his neighbor’s door asking for help. Mitch is awake but stuporous, and the neighbor has no idea what he drank. Visual inspection of his mouth and oropharynx reveals some edema and erythema. He is coughing and has large amounts of pooling saliva. Mitch is not capable of answering questions but he appears in pain. Endoscopy reveals full thickness mucosal injury with mucosal sloughing, ulceration, and exudate. The AGACNP knows that the appropriate course of treatment must include:
A.At least 6 hours of observation in the emergency department
B. Periodic esophagram
C. Aggressive fluid resuscitation
D.Esophagogastrectomy
Question 11
Jared V. is a 35-year-old male who presents for evaluation of a dry cough. He reports feeling well overall but notices that he gets out of breath more easily than he used to when playing soccer. A review of systems yields results that are essentially benign, although the patient does admit to an unusual rash on his legs. Physical examination reveals scattered erythematous nodules on both shins. There is no drainage, discomfort, or itch. Additionally, diffuse, mildly enlarged lymph nodes are appreciated bilaterally. Results of a comprehensive metabolic panel and complete blood count are within normal limits. Twelve-lead ECG reveals sinus bradycardia at 58 bpm. Chest radiography reveals bilateral hilar and mediastinal lymphadenopathy. The AGACNP suspects:
A.Bronchiectasis
B. Pulmonary fibrosis
C. Sarcoidosis
D.Lung carcinoma
Question 12
Mrs. Miller is a 44-year-old female who is on postoperative day 1 following a total abdominal hysterectomy. Her urine output overnight was approximately 200 mL. The appropriate response for the AGACNP would be to order:
A.A urinalysis and culture
B. 1 liter of NSS over 8 hours
C. Encourage increased mobility
D.Liberalize salt in the diet
Question 13
All of the following are risk factors for spontaneous pneumothorax except:
A.Connective tissue disease
B. Scuba diving
C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
D.Central line insertion
Question 14
The AGACNP is going over preoperative information and instructions with a patient who is having a major transverse abdominal procedure tomorrow morning. The patient is very nervous and is asking a lot of questions. The AGACNP prescribes a sleeping agent because he knows that anxiety and sleeplessness may:
A.Lead to hypoxia due to hyperventilation
B. Increase the physiologic stress response postoperatively
C. Contribute to risk of delirium and prolonged length of stay
D.Decreasep.o. intake and produce nutritional risk
Question 15
In a patient with thyroid nodules, which of the following is the diagnostic study of choice to rule out thyroid cancer?
A.Radioiodine scanning
B. Percutaneous needle biopsy
C. CT scan
D.Ultrasound
Question 16
When counseling a patient about treatment modalities for achalasia, the AGACNP advised that which of the following is the treatment of choice?
A.Calcium channel antagonists
B. Intrasphincter botulinum injection
C. Pneumatic dilation
D.Myotomy and partial fundoplication

Question 17
Mr. Liu is a 52-year-old male who has a history of thyroidectomy. He presents complaining of numbness and tingling in his legs and feet and generalized fatigue. Physical examination reveals a positive Chvostek’s sign. Which of the following laboratory studies should be ordered first?
A.Renal function tests
B. Parathyroid hormone
C. Calcium
D.Magnesium
Question 18
V. is a 75-year-old male patient who, during a recent wellness evaluation, was found to have a new onset grade II/VI crescendo-decrescendo cardiac murmur at the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal border. He is symptom free and reports no limitations to his usual daily activity. He specifically denies activity intolerance or near syncope, and he is very active physically. Echocardiography reveals a mild aortic calcification. The AGACNP knows that ongoing management for R. V. must include:
A.Annual or biannual serial echocardiography
B. Modification of activity level
C. Baseline cardiac catheterization
D. Statin therapy
Question 19
The lower esophageal sphincter is characterized by periods of intermittent relaxation called transient lower esophageal sphincter relaxations. These relaxations are independent of the relaxation triggered by swallowing and are the most common cause of:
A. Physiologic reflux
B. Symptomatic esophagitis
C. Barrett’s metaplasia
D.Esophageal carcinoma
Question 20
While reviewing morning labs on a postoperative patient, the AGACNP notes that the patient’s basic metabolic panel is as follows: Na+ 132 mEq/L K+ 4.6 mEq/L Cl- 87 mEq/L CO2 25 mEq/L A normal saline infusion is ordered in an attempt to avoid:
A.Hyperkalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D.Metabolic acidosis
Question 21
W. is a 49-year-old man who presents for evaluation. He has a long history of alcohol and tobacco use, with a 65-year pack history and an admitted 14-drink-per-week alcohol habit. He is getting worried because he can no longer swallow his bourbon. He is not a good historian but he does admit to a 1+ year history of bloating, heartburn, and progressive difficulty swallowing food. He didn’t worry too much about his symptoms until he stopped being able to swallow bourbon. He thinks he has lost approximately 15 lbs in the last year. He denies any blood in his stool and has not had any vomiting. The AGACNP knows that the most likely diagnosis is:
A.Zenker’s diverticulum
B. Achalasia
C. Esophageal carcinoma
D.Hiatal hernia
Question 22
Which of the following treatment modalities has no role in the treatment of shock?
A.Lactated Ringer’s
B. Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
C. Vasopressors
D.Colloid solutions
Question 23
The development of coronary artery disease (CAD) and, ultimately, plaque formation is a multifactorial process that includes endothelial injury from hypertension, cigarette smoking, and dyslipidemia. These events lead to endothelial cell dysfunction, which is theorized to result in:
A.Decreased nitric oxide production
B. Smooth muscle cell atrophy
C. Collagen degradation
D.Enlarged arterial lumen
Question 24
Mr. Comstock is a 71-year-old male who presents with a general sense of feeling weak and unwell; he thinks he has the flu even though he received a flu vaccination this year. He describes a vague collection of symptoms, including weakness, nausea, dizziness, and “getting out of breath” very easily. He says he can barely climb the steps anymore without stopping to rest. Of the possible differential diagnoses, coronary artery disease (CAD) is high among the probabilities because of his age and gender. His physical examination is unremarkable except that he appears weak. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 98.0°F, pulse 100 bpm, respiratory rate 16 b.p.m., and BP 178/100 mm Hg. A chest radiograph is within normal limits with no acute pulmonary infection. A 12-lead ECG reveals inverted T waves in leads V1 to V5. The AGACNP is suspicious that most of his symptoms are:
A. Psychosomatic
B. Early congestive heart failure (CHF)
C. Anginal equivalents
D.Normal age-related changes
Question 25
Mrs. Carpenter is a 59-year-old female who presents with an acute myocardial infarction. She is acutely short of breath and has coarse rales on auscultation. Physical examination reveals a grade V/VI systolic murmur, loudest at the point of maximal impulse with radiation to the midaxillary line. The AGACP recognizes:
A. Acute mitral valve regurgitation
B. Acute aortic valve regurgitation
C. Acute cardiac tamponade
D. Acute pulmonary embolus
Question 26
Mr. Nelson is a 65-year-old male who has been advised that he is a candidate for coronary artery bypass grafting. He has been doing some internet research and is asking about whether or not he should have a “beating heart” bypass. Regarding off-pump coronary bypass grafting, the AGACNP advises Mr. Nelson that:
A.There is a slightly higher risk of neurologic complications
B. Long-term results suggest that the grafts do not stay open as long as those in traditional bypass grafting
C. The incidence of off-pump bypass grafting has increased significantly in the last 10 years
D.The off-pump procedure is considerably more expensive but is correlated with better long-term outcomes
Question 27
Mrs. McCallum is a 48-year-old female who presents for evaluation of a vague set of gastrointestinal symptoms. She feels generally well and has always been healthy, but lately she has had a lot of heartburn and a sense of reflux in her throat. Most recently she has had a recurring sense of food getting stuck in her throat. The AGACNP knows that which diagnostic study should be performed first?
A.Barium swallow
B. Upper endoscopy
C. Esophageal manometry
D.Ambulatory pH monitoring
Question 28
Mr. Key is a 53-year-old male patient who developed empyema following a serious bout of bacterial pneumonia. He presented as septic and was started immediately on intravenous antibiotics and drainage of the sinus cavity. Forty-eight hours later, he is much improved clinically and drainage has receded. The next step in his care would be:
A.A CT scan
B. Eloesser’s procedure
C. Decortication
D.Reexpansion
Question 29
Mrs. Bowers is a 41-year-old patient who requires surgical management of osteomyelitis. She has a long history of methamphetamine use and has a BMI of 17.9 kg/m2 . She clearly is nutritionally depleted and volume contracted, but she has no clear chronic medical history except for unmedicated hypertension, which may be due to her chronic stimulant use. She denies alcohol use but admits to a 1½ pack a day cigarette habit. A primary postoperative concern for Mrs. Bowers is:
A.Excess bleeding
B. Thromboemboli development
C. Poor wound healing
D.Renal failure
Question 30
The congenital diaphragmatic hernia that occurs more often in women and does not usually produce symptoms until midlife is known as:
A.Zenker’s hernia
B. Bochdalek’s hernia
C. Morgagni’s hernia
D.Atraumatic hernia
Question 31
B. is a 67-year-old male who is being discharged following inpatient management for unstable angina. S. B. did not know that he had coronary artery disease (CAD) and in fact had not seen a health care provider for many years. While reviewing his lifestyle habits, he admits that he is obese, has poor eating habits, does not engage in any purposeful physical activity, and smokes two packs of cigarettes daily. He verbalizes that he is grateful that this was not a “real” heart attack and does not seem receptive to lifestyle management strategies. The AGACNP advises him that it is important to take this “warning” attack seriously because:
A. 10% of patients with unstable angina will die of cardiovascular disease within 6 months
B. 25% of patients with unstable angina will develop congestive heart failure within 6 months
C. 65% of patients with unstable angina will have an ST elevation MI within 1 year
D. 90% of patients with unstable angina will have cerebrovascular symptoms within 1 year
Question 32
According to the American College of Surgeons (ACS), who among the following patients should have a chest radiograph as part of preoperative assessment?
A.All patients > 40 years of age
B. All patients who smoke cigarettes
C. All patients having thoracic procedures
D.All patients with cardiac disease
Question 33
According to the Carpentier classification scheme of mitral valve regurgitation, a type I regurgitation is most likely due to:
A.Cardiomyopathy
B. Excessive leaflet motion
C. Ruptured papillary muscles
D.Rheumatic heart disease
Question 34
V. is a 37-year-old female who is admitted via the emergency room after her roommate called emergency medical services (EMS). She has no significant medical history and does not know what is wrong with her. She has been feeling generally unwell for the last few days, and today she had an episode of confusion that scared her roommate to the extent that the roommate called EMS. Her physical examination reveals a temperature of 101.9°F, pulse of 110 bpm, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 92/58 mm Hg. A comprehensive metabolic panel reveals a slightly elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine but otherwise is normal. A white blood cell differential reveals a leukocyte count of 14,000 cells/µL with neutrophils of 83%. The AGACNP knows that these values are consistent with:
A. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)
B. High-output septic shock
C. Neurogenic shock
D.Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)
Question 35
Which shock state is worsened in the setting of mechanical ventilation?
A. Septic
B. Cardiac compressive
C. Neurogenic
D.Cardiogenic
Question 36
B. is a 41-year-old male being admitted for surgical reduction of an open femur fracture sustained in a multiple vehicle collision. Preoperative assessment reveals that he is on beta-adrenergic antagonists after having been diagnosed with coronary artery disease approximately 1 month ago. He admits that he feels a little better but says he still gets pain in his chest when he exerts himself. He is pain free now. Vital signs are as follows: temperature 98.1°F, pulse 88 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 142/86 mm Hg. The AGACNP knows that which of the following is the most important action before R. B. goes to the operating room?
A.A cardiology consultation
B. Blood pressure control
C. Resuming beta-adrenergic antagonists
D. Pain control
Question 37
Cholesteatoma is a condition characterized by a collection of desquamated keratin leading to bony erosion in the ossicular chain and inner ear. The goal of surgery in cholesteatoma is:
A. Production of a dry ear
B. Preservation of sensorineural hearing
C. Debridement of infection
D.Restoration of the tympanic membrane
Question 38
The AGACNP knows that when managing a patient with acute cardiogenic shock after myocardial infarction, all of the following pharmacologic agents may be used except:
A.Opioids
B. Diuretics
C. Beta-adrenergic antagonists
D.Anticholinergics
Question 39
Mr. Baer is a 79-year-old man who is being admitted for a carotid endarterectomy. While performing his preoperative evaluation, the AGACNP appreciates two positive answers to the CAGE screening questionnaire. This is an indication for:
A. Perioperative benzodiazepines for withdrawal syndrome
B. Daily multivitamin and 100 mg of thiamine perioperatively
C. Further diagnostic evaluation for alcoholism
D.Delay of operation until completion of detoxification
Question 40
According to the American College of Cardiology Foundation and the American Heart Association (ACCF/AHA), the recommendation regarding antiplatelet therapy in patients with cardiovascular disease preoperatively is that:
A.Antiplatelet therapy should be held for 10 days preoperatively
B. Cardiac consultation is required before an operation in patients who are on antiplatelet therapy
C. Medications should be continued unless concerns about hemostasis are significant
D.Antiplatelet therapy should be initiated in all high-risk cardiac procedures
Question 41
Mr. Austin is a 64-year-old male who has a long history of mitral valve stenosis. His condition has developed to the extent that he has symptomatic congestive heart failure, and due to a variety of comorbidities he is not a candidate for surgery. Ongoing medical therapy for Mr. Austin should include:
A.Anticoagulants
B. Diuretics
C. Antibiotics
D.Inotropes
Question 42
The progression of coronary artery plaque formation can lead to a variety of pathologic conditions. When subtotal plaque disruption occurs resulting in vasoconstriction, platelet activation, and embolization, it most commonly causes which clinical phenomenon?
A.Endothelial cell dysfunction
B. Prinzmetal’s angina
C. Transmural myocardial infarction
D.Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction
Question 43
D. is a 29-year-old male who presents with a chief complaint of profound dizziness for the past 2 to 3 days. Further clarification reveals that he is having brief but intense episodes of a sense of the room spinning. He denies any history of head injury or discharge from the ear. The vertigo is reproduced easily with cervical rotation. The AGACNP knows that the most likely cause is:
A.Cerebral tumor
B. Ménière’s disease
C. Adverse drug effect
D.Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
Question 44
P.T. is a 61-year-old male who is seen in follow-up. He was initially seen for evaluation of dysphagia. An endoscopy was negative for malignancy and subsequent esophageal manometry supported a diagnosis of esophageal achalasia. While discussing implications and treatment options with P.T., the AGACNP tells him that the primary complication of achalasia is:
A. Progressive esophageal discomfort
B. Aspiration pneumonia
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D.Long-term malabsorption problems
Question 45
R. is a 51-year-old female who presents in shock following a penetrating injury to the spinal cord—her boyfriend reportedly stabbed her in the back with an unidentified kitchen utensil. The patient’s mental status is deteriorating, and her vital signs are as follows: temperature 97.2°F, heart rate 131 bpm, respirations 14 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 79/49 mm Hg. The AGACNP presumes neurogenic shock, with the injury likely:
A.Not fully transecting the spinal cord
B. At the level of T10
C. Precipitating sepsis
D. Producing cardiovascular decompensation
Question 46
Janet is a 34-year-old female with no significant medical history who is being evaluated for a planned uterine ablation. She has significant history of menorrhagia and has been unresponsive to a variety of medical therapies to try to stop the bleeding. Her history and physical examination are within normal limits. The AGACNP knows that Janet will require which one of the following preoperative diagnostic studies?
A. Urinalysis
B. Complete blood count
C. 12-lead electrocardiogram
D.Chest radiography
Question 47
Best practices for assessing diseases of the thyroid gland include a thorough but targeted history, systematic physical examination, and selective use of appropriate diagnostic evaluation. The AGACNP knows that although serum T3 and T4 are not indicated routinely, a free T4 test is most useful in evaluating patients:
A.With profound symptoms of hypothyroidism
B. Following treatment for Graves’ disease
C. To rule out autonomous toxic nodule
D. At risk for thyroid cancer

Question 48
Evaluation of cardiac valve disease must include:
A.Chest radiography
B. 12-lead ECG
C. Echocardiography
D.Chemical stress test
Question 49
Jolene L. is a 36-year-old female who presents for an emergent cholecystectomy; she has had progressive acute pain for almost 1 week and now there is concern about gangrenous tissue. Of particular concern is the fact that she has Graves’ disease and has not been adherent to treatment. On admission, her temperature is 102.7°F, pulse is 158 bpm, and blood pressure is 180/114 mm Hg. She is tremulous and anxious. A 12-lead ECG reveals uncontrolled atrial fibrillation. Before cholecystectomy, Jolene must be treated with:
A.Digitalis for heart rate control
B. Radioactive ablation
C. Beta-adrenergic antagonists
D.Reserpine
Question 50
W. is discussing his postoperative hip replacement expectations. He is advised that although he will have some discomfort, he should be vocal about asking for pain medication, because it is essential that he get out of bed and begin ambulating as soon as possible after his surgery. He expresses some fear and is concerned that his hip won’t heal properly if he walks on it. The AGACNP reassures him that he must begin ambulating quickly in order to decrease risk for:
A.Decubitus ulcers
B. Scar tissue formation
C. Pneumonia
D.Anxiety
Question 51
H. is a 71-year-old male with small cell lung cancer; he has been treated with chemotherapy. Initially he had symptom improvement but now appears to have had a recurrence. On examination today, he is quite edematous and has gained 12 lbs since his office visit 1 week ago. A metabolic panel reveals a serum Na+ of 119 mEq/dL. The AGACNP knows that J. H. likely has:
A.Brain metastasis
B. Congestive heart failure (CHF)
C. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
D.Metabolic alkalosis
Question 52
According to the American College of Surgeons (ACS) and the National Surgical Quality Improvement Program (NSQIP) guidelines for preoperative evaluation of the geriatric patient, the preoperative evaluation should include all of the following except:
A.Cognitive ability
B. Functional status
C. Competency assessment
D. Frailty score
Question 53
Improvements in both equipment and technique have led to the evolution of video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS) as being used most commonly for:
A.Mediastinal lymph node dissection
B. Resection of malignant tumor
C. Metastasectomy
D.Thoracic vertebral discectomy
Question 54
Which of the following is a normal finding on postoperative day 8 of a carotid endarterectomy?
A.A temperature of 100.5°F
B. Serosanguinous drainage with some tenderness
C. A flesh-colored induration along the entire length of the incision
D.A fluctuant collection of milky fluid
Question 55
Mrs. Evans is an 82-year-old female who is on postoperative day 3 following resection of a small bowel tumor. She is alert today and her nasogastric tube is removed. The AGACNP knows that if the recovery proceeds normally, Mrs. Evans may begin clear liquids:
A.Immediately
B. In 24 hours
C. When bowel sounds return
D.After a negative swallow study
Question 56
When writing the initial postoperative progress note, the AGACNP should be sure to include all of the following except:
A.A summary of the procedure and any significant deviations from normal
B. An outline of the plan for postoperative management and follow-up
C. The plan for ongoing monitoring
D. Mechanism of DVT prophylaxis
Question 57
T. is a 39-year-old male who presents to the hospital emergency room with a chief complaint of profound substernal chest pain. Results of the 12-lead ECG and cardiac enzymes test are normal. Vital signs are as follows: temperature 101.9°F, pulse 129 bpm, respirations 26 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg. The patient is pale and clearly unwell, and physical examination reveals a systolic pericardial crunching sound. Which of the following additional pieces of history would make the AGACNP suspect acute mediastinitis?
A.A 48 pack year smoke history
B. A 2-day history of vomiting
C. Aortic valve regurgitation
D.Cardiac tamponade
Question 58
Mrs. Van Doern is being examined on postop day 3 following surgical resection following a bowel obstruction. The postoperative course been unremarkable. Upon removal of the dressing, the incision is dry with staples intact. There is an approximately 0.5 cm erythema around the incision. There is no exudate. The patient demonstrates some discomfort on palpation of the site. The most appropriate approach to this patient includes:
A.Leaving the wound open to air and medicating for pain
B. Ordering a topical antibiotic, replacing the dressing with a nonadherent dressing, and following up in 2 days
C. Beginning systemic antibiotics to cover skin flora
D.Obtaining a white blood cell differential, redress the wound and reassess in the a.m.

Question 59
K.T. is a 38-year-old female with a BMI of 39 kg/m2 who needs surgical reduction of a hiatal hernia. She is asking about the recovery process and says that she has read about something called the obesity paradox. She wants to know what that means with respect to her healing. The AGACNP explains that the paradox refers to the fact that:
A. Obesity correlates with poor outcomes for some surgical procedures but not others.
B. There is an inverse relationship between weight and surgical outcomes.
C. Underweight patients have more surgical complications than obese patients.
D. Planned weight loss preoperatively is indicated only when the BMI is > 40 kg/m2 .
Question 60
Esophageal motility disorders are sometimes a consequence of systemic diseases such as scleroderma, Raynaud’s disease, and systemic lupus erythematosus. When patients with these diseases have gastroparesis, which medication should be added to the regimen?
A. A proton pump inhibitor
B. A histamine 2 receptor antagonist
C. A calcium channel antagonist
D. A promotility agent
Question 61
S. is a 46-year-old female with metastatic breast cancer. She is currently off cycle for chemotherapy and generally is feeling well. Today, however, she presents feeling acutely unwell. She says that she has had coldlike symptoms over the last few days, including cough, nasal congestion, headache, and a hoarse voice in the mornings. Today she became acutely concerned because she feels as though her face and even shoulders look swollen and a bit discolored—bluish. She denies any nausea or vomiting but admits to feeling generally fatigued; she attribute it to her cancer. Recognizing the likely diagnosis, the AGACNP knows that treatment will likely include:
A.Radiation
B. Surgery
C. Fibrinolytics
D. Expansile stents
Question 62
D. is a 61-year-old female patient who complaints of pleuritic chest pain and cough. During the history, she indicates that she occasionally has seen a little bit of blood in her sputum, but she thought it was from coughing so hard. What finally prompted her to come in was that she coughed up a “stone.” Recognizing that the patient might have broncholithiasis, the AGACNP asks about exposure to:
A.Cigarettes
B. Asbestos
C. Bird excrement
D. Swimming pools
Question 63
Heart transplant is the surgical option for patients with congestive heart failure for whom medical therapies have failed. All of the following are contraindications to transplant except:
A.New York Heart Association (NYHA) class IV status
B. Obesity
C. Elevated pulmonary vascular resistance
D.Recent malignancy
Question 64
Kelly T. is a 49-year-old female who is being admitted for aortic valve replacement. Her preoperative evaluation revealed an ascending thoracic aneurysm of 4.8 cm in diameter. Kelly has not had any aneurysm symptoms and is generally considered a very strong surgical candidate. The AGACNP knows that the standard of care dictates:
A. Postponing her valve surgery due to the aneurysm
B. Annual imaging of the aneurysm after her valve replacement
C. Surgical repair of the aneurysm at the same time as valve replacement
D. Surgical repair of the aneurysm after successful recovery from valve replacement
Question 65
K. is a 39-year-old female who was admitted for evaluation of progressive activity intolerance, and chest radiography revealed a large right lower lobe pleural effusion. A pleural fluid tap was performed, but fluid analysis results were inconclusive and the cause of the effusion could not be identified. The AGACNP knows that which diagnostic study is most appropriate to identify the cause of pleural effusion when fluid analysis is inadequate?
A. Scalene biopsy
B. Video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS)
C. Pleural needle biopsy
D.Open surgical biopsy
Question 66
While on call, the AGACNP is asked to evaluate a deteriorating patient. The patient was admitted for exacerbation of pneumonia and congestive heart failure (CHF). The systolic blood pressure is < 90 mm Hg, and the urine output is < 10 mL/hr. A 12-lead ECG reveals no acute processes but reveals previously noted changes that are consistent with bilateral atrial and ventricular enlargement and a marked left axis deviation. You insert a pulmonary artery (PA) line and anticipate which of the following pressures? (CI, cardiac index; PAOP, pulmonary artery occlusion pressure ; RAP, right atrial pressure)
A.CI 1.3 L/min, PAOP 27 mm Hg, RAP 18 mm Hg
B. CI 1.9 L/min, PAOP 12 mm Hg, RAP 6 mm Hg
C. CI 2.4 L/min, PAOP 18 mm Hg, RAP 8 mm Hg
D.CI 1.4 L/min, PAOP 7 mm Hg, RAP 4 mm Hg
Question 67
A critically ill patient with multiple traumatic injuries sustained during a motor vehicle accident has had a pulmonary artery line inserted to follow cardiac pressures. Which of the following sets of pressures would be consistent with hypovolemic shock? (CI, cardiac index; CVP, central venous pressure; PCWP, pulmonary capillary wedge pressure)
A.CI 1.3 L/min, PCWP 27 mm Hg, CVP 18 mm Hg
B. CI 1.3 L/min, PCWP 6 mm Hg, CVP 4 mm Hg
C. CI 2.3 L/min, PCWP 12 mm Hg, CVP 8 mm Hg
D.CI 2.9 L/min, PCWP 16 mm Hg, CVP 6 mm Hg
Question 68
Aggressive fluid resuscitation is indicated in all of the following shock states except:
A.Hypovolemic
B. Cardiogenic
C. Obstructive
D.Distributive
Question 69
The risk-benefit ratio always is considered when evaluating patients with mitral valve disease as surgical candidates for valve correction. Who among the following patients is not considered a good operative candidate?
A. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and endocarditis with systemic embolization
B. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and left ventricular dysfunction
C. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and normal ventricular function
D. A patient with severe mitral regurgitation and pulmonary hypertension
Question 70
T. is a 29-year-old male who is recovering from an open fixation of a femur fracture sustained in a diving accident. He has an order for Dilaudid 1 mg IV q2h p.r.n. for pain. He is still having pain and requests more medication. The AGACNP considers that:
A.This is the maximum dose for Dilaudid and nonpharmacologic measures should be maximized
B. The dose may be increased to 2 mg and response assessed
C. He may be opiate addicted, and this should be explored before the dose is increased
D.An adjunct medication such as ibuprofen should be added to his regimen
Question 71
Mrs. Saraceno is a 71-year-old female who had an episode of acute pulmonary edema following an endovascular aneurysm repair. She was managed successfully with a loop diuretic and is ultimately discharged on furosemide 60 mg daily and instructed to follow up with cardiology. She is seen in the office postoperatively 2 weeks after discharge. She has not yet seen a cardiologist but has continued all discharge medications. Her metabolic panel is as follows: Na+ 126 mEq/L K+ 4.0 mEq/L Cl- 93 mEq/L CO2 28 mEq/L BUN 40 mg/dL Cr 1.3 mg/dL The AGACNP recognizes that the patient likely has which abnormality as a consequence of diuretic overuse?
A.Hyponatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Metabolic acidosis
D.Intrarenal failure
Question 72
Mrs. Hoffman is an 82-year-old female who is on postoperative day 4 following mastectomy for breast cancer. This morning her vital signs include a temperature of 101.2°F, pulse of 110 bpm, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg. The incisions look good and there is no physical finding or symptom of incision infection. The only abnormal physical finding is a significant tender edema on the right cheek and neck. In addition to ordering increased intravenous hydration and parenteral antibiotics to target Staphylococcus aureus, the AGACNP orders:
A. Loop diuretics
B. Chewing gum
C. Ambulation
D.Incentive spirometry
Question 73
Kelly is a 50-year-old female who had chest radiography as part of a preoperative history and physical examination before an elective cosmetic procedure. She has no significant medical history and takes no daily medications except hormone therapy for menopausal symptoms. The radiology report of her chest film includes a 4-mm coin lesion in the right middle lobe. Kelly reports her health as excellent and has no clear risk factors for malignancy. The AGACNP knows that the next step in her management should be:
A.Repeat radiography in 6 months
B. CT scan of the chest
C. Needle biopsy of the lesion
D.A pulmonology consult
Question 74
Which of the following esophageal foreign objects should not have endoscopic removal attempted? A.Impacted meat
B. Pointed nail
C. Button battery
D.Cocaine packet
Question 75
Mrs. Glasgow is a 55-year-old female who is day 4 post open cholecystectomy. She has had some unanticipated postoperative ectopy and remains hospitalized. This morning her temperature is 100.9°F. While assessing her for infection, the AGACNP knows that which finding would be most consistent with an infectious process?
A.Neutrophilia of 82% of the white blood cell differential
B. A blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine ratio of > 20
C. Pain to palpation at the incision site
D.A significant decrease in appetite
Question 76
L. is a 48-year-old female who has suffered with profound GERD symptoms for several years. She has had aggressive trials of medical therapies and has been adherent to nonpharmacologic interventions. She is now in the aggressive diagnostic phase of evaluation and is preparing for 24-hour ambulatory pH monitoring. The AGACNP advises that in preparation for this test, M. L. should:
A.Continue her current proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy consistent with the way she has been taking it
B. Eat consistently with her normal eating habits up until the procedure
C. Avoid straining for a bowel movement while the monitor is in place
D.Not do anything differently as compared with her normal daily life
Question 77
Mr. Rowley is a 79-year-old male patient who is having a surgical repair of a thoracic aneurysm. He has significant underlying chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and coronary artery disease (CAD), and his early postoperative course will require ventilator support, nutritional support, and a variety of drains and other apparatuses. His wife has asked that he not be told about the ventilator because he is afraid of it—he watched his brother struggle with ventilator therapy. The best approach would be to tell Mrs. Rowley that:
A.The patient will be sedated and will not remember the ventilator after he recovers
B. Her wishes will be respected and the ventilator specifically will not be discussed
C. Being prepared for his postoperative treatment will lessen his anxiety and fear
D.Every effort will be made to avoid ventilator support

Question 78
Ludwig’s angina is a potentially fatal condition characterized by neck pain, neck edema, edema of the base of the mouth, and tongue displacement. The AGACNP knows that the underlying cause is a consequence of:
A.Arteriolar constriction
B. Hypersensitivity
C. Infection
D.Adverse drug effect
Question 79
When counseling a 41-year-old female patient who requires mitral valve surgery for severe mitral stenosis, the AGACNP helps differentiate among options. She advises the patient that in most circumstances, given her age, she is likely to do best with which type of procedure?
A.Bioprosthetic valve replacement
B. Mechanical valve replacement
C. Native valve debridement
D.Catheter-based balloon valvotomy
Question 80
Alan is a 14-year-old male who has been referred for evaluation of a previously undiagnosed cardiac murmur. According to his parents, Alan has no significant medical history and has always been a healthy child. His growth and development have been within normal limits and his well-child checks have been normal. His cardiac murmur was identified during a soccer preparticipation physical examination. During today’s exam, he denies any cardiopulmonary symptoms. He admits that he gets out of breath when he is running during soccer but assumed it was just because he was running. Physical examination reveals a grade III/VI systolic murmur at the 2nd intercostal space, left sternal border, and a clearly fixed split S2 heart sound. The AGACNP knows that this murmur is probably:
A.Mitral regurgitation
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Atrial septal defect
D. Still’s murmur
Question 81
The AGACNP is evaluating a patient who he believes has fungal pneumonia. The patient says she has just relocated to Pennsylvania from Scottsdale, Arizona. When considering specific types of fungal etiology, the AGACNP knows that which type is endemic to the Arizona desert?
A.Histoplasmosis
B. Blastomycosis
C. Coccidioidomycosis
D.Aspergillosis P
Question 82
With respect to management of chronic illness on the morning of surgery, which of the following is a true statement?
A. Patient with diabetes should be started on an insulin gtt to maintain serum glucose < 150 mg/dL
B. Patients with coronary artery disease should have antiplatelet agents held
C. Patients on beta adrenergic antagonists should continue therapy
D. Patients with Hgb < 9 mg/dL should be transfused with packed red blood cells
Question 83
Mr. Mireya is a 66-year-old male who is admitted for palliative surgery for a glioblastoma. He has borderline stage III-IV chronic kidney disease. The AGACNP realizes that he is at increased risk in the perioperative period for:
A.Hypercalcemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Thrombocytopenia
D.Eosinophilia
Question 84
Barrett’s esophagus is best described as:
A.A symptomatic condition of gastric reflux
B. A condition that occurs more commonly in women of childbearing age
C. A metaplastic adaptation to repeated irritation
D.A secondary motility disorder
Question 85
Ms. Carson is a 71-year-old female who presents with significant pleuritic-type chest pain. She has no known cardiopulmonary history and does not smoke cigarettes. Her history is significant only for an upper endoscopy this morning for evaluation of severe gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). She tolerated the procedure well and was discharged home. Over the afternoon she developed worsening pain on the left side of her chest and finally had to come to the emergency department. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 100.0°F, pulse 116 bpm, respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 96/60 mm Hg. The AGACNP orders which of the following diagnostic studies to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
A.Chest radiograph
B. 12-lead ECG
C. Upper endoscopy
D.Esophagram
Question 86
Lilly M. is a 44-year-old female who is transferred to the emergency department following a severe fall. She had been standing on the balcony of a four-story building and tried to balance on the railing. She fell and sustained numerous internal and external injuries. In the emergency room she was in profound hypovolemic shock. Bleeding appears to have been stopped, and rapid infusion of 2 L of normal saline has just been completed. The AGACNP knows that the next step in fluid resuscitation includes:
A.Transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) based on hematocrit
B. Infusion of 1 L of lactated Ringer’s
C. 1 more liter of normal saline solution (NSS) over 10 minutes
D.No additional fluid unless the systolic blood pressure (SBP) is < 90 mm Hg
Question 87
W. is a 67-year-old male with a history of significant coronary artery disease, who now presents in acute cardiogenic shock. His blood pressure is 82/50 mm Hg, and the pulse is in sinus bradycardia at 44 bpm. He is awake and oriented but lethargic and says he feels lightheaded. The treatment of choice for this patient is:
A. Transvenous pacing
B. Aggressive fluid resuscitation
C. Atropine 0.5 mg q2min × 4
D. Epinephrine 1 mg IV
Question 88
Jeff Z. is a 49-year-old male who is on the heart transplant list due to myocarditis-related end stage congestive heart failure. While counseling Jeff about bridge devices that allow him to be discharged from the hospital, the AGACNP tells Jeff that the most frequently used device is:
A.Ideal for smaller-framed patients
B. Implanted below the diaphragm
C. Independent of external power for up to 24 hours
D.Good for up to 2 years
Question 89
Mrs. Brownlee is a 63-year-old female who is admitted for surgical replacement of her aortic valve. She has a history of symptomatic aortic stenosis, osteoarthritis, and hypothyroidism. She has always been very thin, and her admitting height and weight are 5’4” and 110 lbs. In considering her postoperative nutritional needs, the AGACNP recognizes that:
A. Postoperative calorie requirements are higher than baseline because of the hypermetabolic response to physiologic stress
B. The parasympathetic response to thoracic surgery requires a proportionally greater increase in protein calories
C. Calorie requirements will not change postoperatively, as the increased stress response is balanced by bedrest and decreased activity calorie use.
D.Nutritional requirements are individualized postoperatively, and it is not possible to predict postoperative needs in

Question 90
Mr. Cortez is a 41-year-old male with a long history of chronic allergic rhinitis. He has not had health insurance for most of his adult life, so he has self-treated his nasal symptoms with a combination of over-the-counter agents including antihistamines, decongestants, and nasal sprays. He recently obtained coverage under the Affordable Care Act and presents more regularly for care of his chronic nasal symptoms; he cannot go longer than a few

Q7. NURS 6512 FINAL EXAM: WALDEN UNIVERSITY (Already graded A)

NURS 6512 FINAL EXAM: WALDEN UNIVERSITY
1. Costovertebral angle tenderness should be assessed whenever you suspect the patient may have: –
2. In older adults, overflow fecal incontinence is commonly due to:
3. A 1 month old boy has been vomiting for 2 weeks. How is this symptom of GERD and pyloric stenosis further differentiated in this child’s assessment?
4. Auscultation of borborygmi is associated with:
5. When auscultating the abdomen, which finding would indicate collateral circulation between the portal and systemic venous systems? –
6. Conversion of fat-soluble wastes to water-soluble material for renal excretion is a function of the: –
7. The major function of the large intestine is: –
8. Which structure is located in the hypogastric region of the abdomen? –
9. A 45 year old man relates a several week history of severe intermittent abdominal burning sensations. He relates that the pain is relieved with small amounts of food. Before starting the physical examination, you review his laboratory work, anticipating a (n): –
10. You are caring for a patient with trigeminal neuralgia. During the assessment, the patient would describe the pain as: –
11. Your 85 year old patient is complaining of right knee pain. She has a history of osteoarthritis for which she is given anti-inflammatory medication. To assess her right knee pain, you should ask her if: – 12. A 5 year old is complaining of nondescriptive “belly pain.” Your next action should be to ask him to: – 13. The perception of pain: –
14. Patients presenting with ascites, jaundice, cutaneous spider veins, and nonpalpable liver exhibit signs of: –
15. A patient presents to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The patient sustained blunt trauma to the abdomen and complains of pain in the upper left quadrant that radiates to the left shoulder. What organ is most likely injured?
16. Imaging studies reveal that a patient has dilation of the renal pelvis from an obstruction in the ureter, what condition will be documented in this patient’s health record? –
17. Visible intestinal peristalsis may indicate: –
18. Infants born weighing less than 1500g are at higher risk for:
19. Which of the following factors is not known to affect patient compliance with his or her treatment regimen? –
20. One of the most important aspects to consider in the orthopedic screening examination is: –
21. The sequence of the physical examination should be individualized to:
22. As you greet the patient, which examination technique is first implemented? –
23. Which of the following is most likely to enhance examiner reliability?
24. A 7 year old boy is brought to your office with a chief complaint of possible fracture to his left third finger. He jammed it while playing basketball 2 days ago. The mother states that she really does not think it is broken because he can move it. What is your best response? –
25. A patient presenting for the first time with typical low back pain should receive which of the following diagnostic tests?
26. Skeletal changes in older adults are the result of: –
27. A positive straight leg raise test usually indicates: –
28. What technique is performed at every infant examination during the first year of life to detect hipdislocation? –
29. Expected normal findings during inspection of spinal alignment include-
30. Temporalis and masseter muscles are evaluated by:-
31. When palpating joints, crepitus may be caused when: –
32. A 3 year old is brought to the clinic complaining of a painful right elbow. He is holding the right arm slightly flexed and pronated and refuses to move it. the mother states that symptoms started right after his older brother had been swinging him around by his arms. This presentation supports a diagnosis of: –
33. Light skin and thin body habitus are risk factors for: –
34. Risk factors for sports-related injuries include: –
35. Injuries to long bones and joints are more likely to result in fractures than in sprains until: –
36. Ligaments are stronger than bone until: –
37. The family history for a patient with joint pain should include information about siblings with: –
38. The Thomas test is used to detect: –
39. A goniometer is used to assess: –
40. During a football game, a player was struck on the lateral side of the left leg while his feet were firmly planted. He is complaining of left knee pain. To examine the left knee you should initially perform the ¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬________ test. –
41. You note that a child has a positive Gower Sign. You know that this indicates generalized: –
42. The dowager hump is: –
43. What temporary disorder may be experienced by pregnant women during the third trimester because of fluid retention?–
44. A common finding in markedly obese and pregnant women is: –
45. A 45-year-old laborer presents with low back pain, stating that the pain comes from the right buttock and shoots down and across the right anterior thigh, down the shin to the ankle. Which examination finding is considered more indicative of nerve root compression?A 45 year old laborer presents with low back pain, stating that the pain comes from the right buttock and shoots down and across the right anterior thigh, down the shin to the ankle. Which examination finding is considered more indicative of nerve root compression? –
46. Mrs. Bower is a 57 year old patient who comes in for an office visit. Which of the following disorders is known to be hereditary? –
47. Testing of cranial nerve ¬¬¬¬________ is not routinely performed unless a problem is suspected. – I
48. The patient is able to rapidly touch each finger to his thumb in rapid sequence. What does this finding mean? –
49. Which question asked by the examiner may hellp to determine prevention strategies for seizures that a patient is experiencing? –
50. A patient has a complaint of dizziness. The patient makes the following statement: “I sometimes feel as if the whole room is spinning.” What type of neurologic dysfunction should the examiner suspect? –
51. The examiner asks the patient to close her eyes, then places a vibrating tuning fork on the patient’s ankle and asks her to indicate what is felt. What is being assessed? –
52. Which of the following findings should an examiner consider a normal finding if associated with pregnancy? – –
52. Jack is a 52 year old obese man with a history of poorly controlled diabetes. He also smokes. Based on the above data, the examiner should recognize that Jack has several risk factors for: – –
53. Mrs. Jones is a 24 year old patient who presents to your office 2 days postpartum. She complains that she is experiencing foot drop. Which of the following problems should the examiner consider? –
54. The examiner is assessing deep tendon reflex response in a 12 year old boy. The response is an expected reflex response. Which of the following scores should be documented? –
55. A 68 year old patient presents to your office for follow-up. He tells you, “I have a hard time finding the right words when I am talking;” he also is experiencing numbness. On examination, you note postural instability. This symptom may be: –
56. Motor maturation proceeds in an orderly progression from: –
57. The thalamus is the major integration center for perception of: –
58. The examiner should be concerned about neurologic competence if a social smile cannot be elicited by the time a child is ________old. –
59. Normal changes of the aging brain include: – –
60. When interviewing a 70 year old female clinic patient, she tells you that she takes ginkgo biloba and St. John’s Wort. You make a short note to check for results of the: —
61. The area of body surface innervated by a particular spinal nerve is called a: – –
62. If a patient cannot shrug the shoulders against resistance, which cranial nerve (CN) requires further evaluation? – –
63. The finger-to-nose test allows assessment of: – –
64. You ask the patient to follow a series of short commands to assess: – –
65. As Mr. B. enters the room, you observe that his gait is wide based and he staggers from side to side while swaying his trunk. You would document Mr. B.’s pattern as: –
66. When is the mental status portion of the neurologic system examination performed? –
67. An aversion to touch or being held, along with delayed or absent language development, is a characteristic of: —
68. The autonomic nervous system coordinates which of the following? –
69. The major function of the sympathetic nervous system is to: – –
70. The parasympathetic nervous system maintains the day-to-day function of: –
71. Cerebrospinal fluid serves as a: – –
72. You are performing a two-point discrimination test as part of a well physical examination. The area with the ability to discern two points in the shortest distance is the: —
73. Which type of hallucination is most commonly associated with alcohol withdrawal? – –
74. On a scale of 0 to 4+, which deep tendon reflex score is appropriate for a finding of clonus in a patient? –
75. Which statement is true regarding mental status changes in older adults? – –
76. A characteristic related to syphilis or diabetic neuropathy is testicular: —
77. When collecting personal and social history data from a woman complaining of breast discomfort, you should question her regarding: – –
78. What risk factor is associated with cervical cancer? – –
79. A 23 year old female presents with severe right lower quadrant tenderness. All of the following should be considered in the differential except: – –
80. What is the initial diagnostic radiology test that should be ordered if you suspect a ruptured ovarian cyst? – –
81. A 17 year old male was brought into the emergency room with testicular/scrotal pain. The differential diagnosis should include all except: –
82. The nursing mother complains that her breasts are tender. You assess hard, shiny, and erythremicbreasts bilaterally. You should advise the patient to: – –
83. A normal vas deferens should feel: – –
84. In a woman complaining of a breast lump, it is most important to ask about: – –
85. The finding of a painless indurated lesion on the glans penis is most consistent with: – –
86. Thrombosed hemorrhoids are: – –
87. Pregnancy-related cervical changes include: –
88. You are inspecting the genitalia of an uncircumcised adult male. The foreskin is tight and cannot be easily retracted. You should: – –
89. An adolescent male is being seen for acute onset of left testicular pain. The pain started 3 hours ago. He complains of nausea and denies dysuria or fever. Your prioritized assessment should be to: –
90. A 23 year old white woman has come to the clinic because she has missed two menstrual periods. She states that her breasts have enlarged and that her nipples have turned a darker color. Your further response to this finding is: – –
91. What accommodations should be used in the position of a hearing-impaired woman for a pelvic examination? – –
92. Sexual differentiation in the fetus has occurred by ¬¬¬_______weeks gestation. – –
93. You are performing a clinical breast examination for a 55 year old woman. While palpating the supraclavicular area, you suspect that you felt a node. In order to improve your hooked technique, you should: —
94. If a firm, transverse ridge of compressed tissue is felt bilaterally along the lower edge of a 40 year old patient’s breast, you should: —
95. A therapeutic technique for dealing with grieving individuals is to: –
96. The examination of the newborn should begin with: – –
97. Which one of the following patient characteristics is most likely to limit patient reliability during history taking? – –
98. In crying infants, it is often difficult to: – –
99. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the sensitivity and specificity of laboratory tests? –-
100. Which medical condition would exclude one from sports participation? – –
101. Your 15 year old patient is athletic and thin. Radiography of an ankle injury reveals a stress fracture. You question this patient about her: – –
102. Which of the following are examined with the patient in a reclining 45 degree position? –-
103. Functional assessment is most important during the examination of a(n): —
104. The best way to ease the apprehension of a 3 year old child before a physical examination is to: – –
105. An ophthalmoscopic eye examination involves: – –
106. When conducting a geriatric assessment, basic activities of daily living (ADLs) include: –
107. The checkout station for preparticipation physical evaluation (PPE) is critical because at this point: –
108. Which of the following is true regarding the relationship between the examiner and the patient? –
109. Which of the following factors is not known to affect patient compliance with his or her treatment regimen? –
110. One of the most important aspects to consider in the orthopedic screening examination is: –
111. As you greet the patient, which examination technique is first implemented? –
112. Which portion of the physical examination is best done with the patient standing? –
113. Which patient position facilitates inspection of the chest and shoulders? –
114. The least reliable indicator of newborn distress is: –
115. Proprioception should be assessed while the patient is: –
116. Part of the screening orthopedic component of the examination includes evaluating the person while: –

Q8. NSG 6005 Chapter 1 to Chapter 53 Test Question Bank (Latest)
Chapter 1: The Role of the Nurse Practitioner as Prescriber

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Nurse practitioner prescriptive authority is regulated by:
A.
The National Council of State Boards of Nursing
B.
The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration
C.
The State Board of Nursing for each state
D.
The State Board of Pharmacy

____ 2. Physician Assistant (PA) prescriptive authority is regulated by:
A.
The National Council of State Boards of Nursing
B.
The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration
C.
The State Board of Nursing
D.
The State Board of Medical Examiners

____ 3. Clinical judgment in prescribing includes:
A.
Factoring in the cost to the patient of the medication prescribed
B.
Always prescribing the newest medication available for the disease process
C.
Handing out drug samples to poor patients
D.
Prescribing all generic medications to cut costs

____ 4. Criteria for choosing an effective drug for a disorder include:
A.
Asking the patient what drug they think would work best for them
B.
Consulting nationally recognized guidelines for disease management
C.
Prescribing medications that are available as samples before writing a prescription
D.
Following U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) guidelines for prescribing

____ 5. Nurse practitioner practice may thrive under health-care reform due to:
A.
The demonstrated ability of nurse practitioners to control costs and improve patient outcomes
B.
The fact that nurse practitioners will be able to practice independently
C.
The fact that nurse practitioners will have full reimbursement under health-care reform
D.
The ability to shift accountability for Medicaid to the state level

Chapter 2: Review of Basic Principles of Pharmacology

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. A patient’s nutritional intake and lab work reflects hypoalbuminemia. This is critical to prescribing because:
A.
Distribution of drugs to target tissue may be affected
B.
The solubility of the drug will not match the site of absorption
C.
There will be less free drug available to generate an effect
D.
Drugs bound to albumin are readily excreted by the kidney

____ 2. Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect:
A.
Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only
B.
Bypass the hepatic circulation
C.
Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action
D.
Are converted by the liver to more active and fat-soluble forms

____ 3. The route of excretion of a volatile drug will likely be:
A.
The kidneys
B.
The lungs
C.
The bile and feces
D.
The skin

____ 4. Medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) is prescribed IM to create a storage reservoir of the drug. Storage reservoirs:
A.
Assure that the drug will reach its intended target tissue
B.
Are the reason for giving loading doses
C.
Increase the length of time a drug is available and active
D.
Are most common in collagen tissues

____ 5. The NP chooses to give cephalexin every 8 hours based on knowledge of the drug’s:
A.
Propensity to go to the target receptor
B.
Biological half-life
C.
Pharmacodynamics
D.
Safety and side effects

____ 6. Azithromycin dosing requires the first day’s dose be twice those of the other 4 days of the prescription. This is considered a loading dose. A loading dose:
A.
Rapidly achieves drug levels in the therapeutic range
B.
Requires four to five half-lives to attain
C.
Is influenced by renal function
D.
Is directly related to the drug circulating to the target tissues

____ 7. The point in time on the drug concentration curve that indicates the first sign of a therapeutic effect is the:
A.
Minimum adverse effect level
B.
Peak of action
C.
Onset of action
D.
Therapeutic range

____ 8. Phenytoin requires a trough level be drawn. Peak and trough levels are done:
A.
When the drug has a wide therapeutic range
B.
When the drug will be administered for a short time only
C.
When there is a high correlation between the dose and saturation of receptor sites
D.
To determine if a drug is in the therapeutic range

____ 9. A laboratory result indicates the peak level for a drug is above the minimum toxic concentration. This means that the:
A.
Concentration will produce therapeutic effects
B.
Concentration will produce an adverse response
C.
Time between doses must be shortened
D.
Duration of action of the drug is too long

____ 10. Drugs that are receptor agonists may demonstrate what property?
A.
Irreversible binding to the drug receptor site
B.
Up-regulation with chronic use
C.
Desensitization or down-regulation with continuous use
D.
Inverse relationship between drug concentration and drug action

____ 11. Drugs that are receptor antagonists, such as beta blockers, may cause:
A.
Down-regulation of the drug receptor
B.
An exaggerated response if abruptly discontinued
C.
Partial blockade of the effects of agonist drugs
D.
An exaggerated response to competitive drug agonists

____ 12. Factors that affect gastric drug absorption include:
A.
Liver enzyme activity
B.
Protein-binding properties of the drug molecule
C.
Lipid solubility of the drug
D.
Ability to chew and swallow

____ 13. Drugs administered via intravenous (IV) route:
A.
Need to be lipid soluble in order to be easily absorbed
B.
Begin distribution into the body immediately
C.
Are easily absorbed if they are nonionized
D.
May use pinocytosis to be absorbed

____ 14. When a medication is added to a regimen for a synergistic effect, the combined effect of the drugs is:
A.
The sum of the effects of each drug individually
B.
Greater than the sum of the effects of each drug individually
C.
Less than the effect of each drug individually
D.
Not predictable, as it varies with each individual

____ 15. Which of the following statements about bioavailability is true?
A.
Bioavailability issues are especially important for drugs with narrow therapeutic ranges or sustained release mechanisms.
B.
All brands of a drug have the same bioavailability.
C.
Drugs that are administered more than once a day have greater bioavailability than drugs given once daily.
D.
Combining an active drug with an inert substance does not affect bioavailability.

____ 16. Which of the following statements about the major distribution barriers (blood-brain or fetal-placental) is true?
A.
Water soluble and ionized drugs cross these barriers rapidly.
B.
The blood-brain barrier slows the entry of many drugs into and from brain cells.
C.
The fetal-placental barrier protects the fetus from drugs taken by the mother.
D.
Lipid soluble drugs do not pass these barriers and are safe for pregnant women.

____ 17. Drugs are metabolized mainly by the liver via Phase I or Phase II reactions. The purpose of both of these types of reactions is to:
A.
Inactivate prodrugs before they can be activated by target tissues
B.
Change the drugs so they can cross plasma membranes
C.
Change drug molecules to a form that an excretory organ can excrete
D.
Make these drugs more ionized and polar to facilitate excretion

____ 18. Once they have been metabolized by the liver, the metabolites may be:
A.
More active than the parent drug
B.
Less active than the parent drug
C.
Totally “deactivated” so that they are excreted without any effect
D.
All of the above

____ 19. All drugs continue to act in the body until they are changed or excreted. The ability of the body to excrete drugs via the renal system would be increased by:
A.
Reduced circulation and perfusion of the kidney
B.
Chronic renal disease
C.
Competition for a transport site by another drug
D.
Unbinding a nonvolatile drug from plasma proteins

____ 20. Steady state is:
A.
The point on the drug concentration curve when absorption exceeds excretion
B.
When the amount of drug in the body remains constant
C.
When the amount of drug in the body stays below the MTC
D.
All of the above

____ 21. Two different pain meds are given together for pain relief. The drug-drug interaction is:
A.
Synergistic
B.
Antagonistic
C.
Potentiative
D.
Additive

____ 22. Actions taken to reduce drug-drug interaction problems include all of the following EXCEPT:
A.
Reducing the dose of one of the drugs
B.
Scheduling their administration at different times
C.
Prescribing a third drug to counteract the adverse reaction of the combination
D.
Reducing the dosage of both drugs

____ 23. Phase I oxidative-reductive processes of drug metabolism require certain nutritional elements. Which of the following would reduce or inhibit this process?
A.
Protein malnutrition
B.
Iron deficiency anemia
C.
Both A and B
D.
Neither A nor B

____ 24. The time required for the amount of drug in the body to decrease by 50% is called:
A.
Steady state
B.
Half-life
C.
Phase II metabolism
D.
Reduced bioavailability time

____ 25. An agonist activates a receptor and stimulates a response. When given frequently over time the body may:
A.
Up-regulate the total number of receptors
B.
Block the receptor with a partial agonist
C.
Alter the drug’s metabolism
D.
Down-regulate the numbers of that specific receptor

____ 26. Drug antagonism is best defined as an effect of a drug that:
A.
Leads to major physiologic psychological dependence
B.
Is modified by the concurrent administration of another drug
C.
Cannot be metabolized before another dose is administered
D.
Leads to a decreased physiologic response when combined with another drug

____ 27. Instructions to a client regarding self-administration of oral enteric-coated tablets should include which of the following statements?
A.
“Avoid any other oral medicines while taking this drug.”
B.
“If swallowing this tablet is difficult, dissolve it in 3 ounces of orange juice.”
C.
“The tablet may be crushed if you have any difficultly taking it.”
D.
“To achieve best effect, take the tablet with at least 8 ounces of fluid.”

____ 28. The major reason for not crushing a sustained release capsule is that, if crushed, the coated beads of the drugs could possibly result in:
A.
Disintegration
B.
Toxicity
C.
Malabsorption
D.
Deterioration

____ 29. Which of the following substances is the most likely to be absorbed in the intestines rather than in the stomach?
A.
Sodium bicarbonate
B.
Ascorbic acid
C.
Salicylic acid
D.
Glucose

____ 30. Which of the following variables is a factor in drug absorption?
A.
The smaller the surface area for absorption, the more rapidly the drug is absorbed.
B.
A rich blood supply to the area of absorption leads to better absorption.
C.
The less soluble the drug, the more easily it is absorbed.
D.
Ionized drugs are easily absorbed across the cell membrane.

____ 31. An advantage of prescribing a sublingual medication is that the medication is:
A.
Absorbed rapidly
B.
Excreted rapidly
C.
Metabolized minimally
D.
Distributed equally

____ 32. Drugs that use CYP 3A4 isoenzymes for metabolism may:
A.
Induce the metabolism of another drug
B.
Inhibit the metabolism of another drug
C.
Both A and B
D.
Neither A nor B

____ 33. Therapeutic drug levels are drawn when a drug reaches steady state. Drugs reach steady state:
A.
After the second dose
B.
After four to five half-lives
C.
When the patient feels the full effect of the drug
D.
One hour after IV administration

____ 34. Up-regulation or hypersensitization may lead to:
A.
Increased response to a drug
B.
Decreased response to a drug
C.
An exaggerated response if the drug is withdrawn
D.
Refractoriness or complete lack of response

Chapter 3: Rational Drug Selection

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. An NP would prescribe the liquid form of ibuprofen for a 6 year old because:
A.
Drugs given in liquid form are less irritating to the stomach
B.
A 6 year old may have problems swallowing a pill
C.
Liquid forms of medication eliminate the concern for first-pass effect
D.
Liquid ibuprofen does not have to be dosed as often as tablet form

____ 2. In deciding which of multiple drugs used to use to treat a condition, the NP chooses Drug A because it:
A.
Has serious side effects and it is not being used for a life-threatening condition
B.
Will be taken twice daily and will be taken at home
C.
Is expensive, and is not covered by health insurance
D.
None of these are important in choosing a drug

____ 3. A client asks the NP about the differences in drug effects between men and women. What is known about the differences between the pharmacokinetics of men and women?
A.
Body temperature varies between men and women
B.
Muscle mass is greater in women
C.
Percentage of fat differs between genders
D.
Proven subjective factors exist between the genders

____ 4. The first step in the prescribing process according to the World Health Organization is:
A.
Choosing the treatment
B.
Educating the patient about the medication
C.
Diagnosing the patient’s problem
D.
Starting the treatment

____ 5. Treatment goals in prescribing should:
A.
Always be curative
B.
Be patient-centered
C.
Be convenient for the provider
D.
Focus on the cost of therapy

____ 6. The therapeutic goals when prescribing include(s):
A.
Curative
B.
Palliative
C.
Preventive
D.
All of the above

____ 7. When determining drug treatment the NP prescriber should:
A.
Always use evidence-based guidelines
B.
Individualize the drug choice for the specific patient
C.
Rely on his or her experience when prescribing for complex patients
D.
Use the newest drug on the market for the condition being treated

____ 8. Patient education regarding prescribed medication includes:
A.
Instructions written at the high school reading level
B.
Discussion of expected adverse drug reactions
C.
How to store leftover medication such as antibiotics
D.
Verbal instructions always in English

____ 9. Passive monitoring of drug effectiveness includes:
A.
Therapeutic drug levels
B.
Adding or subtracting medications from the treatment regimen
C.
Ongoing provider visits
D.
Instructing the patient to report if the drug is not effective

____ 10. Pharmacokinetic factors that affect prescribing include:
A.
Therapeutic index
B.
Minimum effective concentration
C.
Bioavailability
D.
Ease of titration

____ 11. Pharmaceutical promotion may affect prescribing. To address the impact of pharmaceutical promotion, the following recommendations have been made by the Institute of Medicine:
A.
Conflicts of interest and financial relationships should be disclosed by those providing education.
B.
Providers should ban all pharmaceutical representatives from their office setting.
C.
Drug samples should be used for patients who have the insurance to pay for them, to ensure the patient can afford the medication.
D.
Providers should only accept low-value gifts, such as pens and pads of paper, from the pharmaceutical representative.

Chapter 4: Legal and Professional Issues in Prescribing

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulates:
A.
Prescribing of drugs by MDs and NPs
B.
The official labeling for all prescription and over-the-counter drugs
C.
Off-label recommendations for prescribing
D.
Pharmaceutical educational offerings

____ 2. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval is required for:
A.
Medical devices, including artificial joints
B.
Over-the-counter vitamins
C.
Herbal products, such as St John’s Wort
D.
Dietary supplements, such as Ensure

____ 3. An Investigational New Drug (IND) is filed with the FDA:
A.
When the manufacturer has completed Phase III trials
B.
When a new drug is discovered
C.
Prior to animal testing of any new drug entity
D.
Prior to human testing of any new drug entity

____ 4. Phase IV clinical trials in the United States are also known as:
A.
Human bioavailability trials
B.
Post-marketing research
C.
Human safety and efficacy studies
D.
The last stage of animal trials before the human trials begin

____ 5. Off-label prescribing is:
A.
Regulated by the FDA
B.
Illegal by NPs in all states (provinces)
C.
Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use
D.
Regulated by the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)

____ 6. The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA):
A.
Registers manufacturers and prescribers of controlled substances
B.
Regulates NP prescribing at the state level
C.
Sanctions providers who prescribe drugs off-label
D.
Provides prescribers with a number they can use for insurance billing

____ 7. Drugs that are designated Schedule II by the DEA:
A.
Are known teratogens during pregnancy
B.
May not be refilled; a new prescription must be written
C.
Have a low abuse potential
D.
May be dispensed without a prescription unless regulated by the state

____ 8. Precautions that should be taken when prescribing controlled substances include:
A.
Faxing the prescription for a Schedule II drug directly to the pharmacy
B.
Using tamper-proof paper for all prescriptions written for controlled drugs
C.
Keeping any pre-signed prescription pads in a locked drawer in the clinic
D.
Using only numbers to indicate the amount of drug to be prescribed

____ 9. Strategies prescribers can use to prevent misuse of controlled prescription drugs include:
A.
Use of chemical dependency screening tools
B.
Firm limit-setting regarding prescribing controlled substances
C.
Practicing “just say no” to deal with patients who are pushing the provider to prescribe controlled substances
D.
All of the above

____ 10. Behaviors predictive of addiction to controlled substances include:
A.
Stealing or borrowing another patient’s drugs
B.
Requiring increasing doses of opiates for pain associated with malignancy
C.
Receiving refills of a Schedule II prescription on a regular basis
D.
Requesting that only their own primary care provider prescribe for them

____ 11. Medication agreements or “Pain Medication Contracts” are recommended to be used:
A.
Universally for all prescribing for chronic pain
B.
For patients who have repeated requests for pain medication
C.
When you suspect a patient is exhibiting drug-seeking behavior
D.
For patients with pain associated with malignancy

____ 12. A prescription needs to be written for:
A.
Legend drugs
B.
Most controlled drugs
C.
Medical devices
D.
All of the above

Chapter 5: Adverse Drug Reactions

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Which of the following patients would be at higher risk of experiencing adverse drug reactions (ADRs):
A.
A 32-year-old male
B.
A 22-year-old female
C.
A 3-month-old female
D.
A 48-year-old male

____ 2. Infants and young children are at higher risk of ADRs due to:
A.
Immature renal function in school-age children
B.
Lack of safety and efficacy studies in the pediatric population
C.
Children’s skin being thicker than adults, requiring higher dosages of topical medication
D.
Infant boys having a higher proportion of muscle mass, leading to a higher volume of distribution

____ 3. The elderly are at high risk of ADRs due to:
A.
Having greater muscle mass than younger adults, leading to higher volume of distribution
B.
The extensive studies that have been conducted on drug safety in this age group
C.
The blood-brain barrier being less permeable, requiring higher doses to achieve therapeutic effect
D.
Age-related decrease in renal function

____ 4. The type of adverse drug reaction that is the result of an unwanted but otherwise normal pharmacological action of a drug given in the usual therapeutic doses is
A.
Type A
B.
Type B
C.
Type C
D.
Type D

____ 5. Digoxin may cause a Type A adverse drug reaction due to:
A.
Idiosyncratic effects
B.
Its narrow therapeutic index
C.
Being a teratogen
D.
Being a carcinogen

____ 6. Changes in the individual pharmacokinetic parameters of adsorption, distribution, or elimination may result in high concentrations of the drug in the body, leading to which type of adverse drug reaction?
A.
Type A
B.
Type C
C.
Type D
D.
Type E

____ 7. According to the World Health Organization Classification, Type B adverse reactions are:
A.
When a drug is a teratogen
B.
When a drug is carcinogenic
C.
A delayed ADR, such as renal failure
D.
An allergic or idiosyncratic response

____ 8. Sarah developed a rash after using a topical medication. This is a Type __ allergic drug reaction.
A.
I
B.
II
C.
III
D.
IV

____ 9. A patient may develop neutropenia from using topical Silvadene for burns. Neutropenia is a(n):
A.
Cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction
B.
Immune complex hypersensitivity
C.
Immediate hypersensitivity reaction
D.
Delayed hypersensitivity reaction

____ 10. Anaphylactic shock is a:
A.
Type I reaction, called immediate hypersensitivity reaction
B.
Type II reaction, called cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction
C.
Type III allergic reaction, called immune complex hypersensitivity
D.
Type IV allergic reaction, called delayed hypersensitivity reaction

____ 11. James has hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis suppression from chronic prednisone (a corticosteroid) use. He is at risk for what type of adverse drug reaction?
A.
Type B
B.
Type C
C.
Type E
D.
Type F

____ 12. The treatment for a patient who experiences hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis suppression while taking the corticosteroid prednisone, a Type C adverse drug reaction, is to:
A.
Immediately discontinue the prednisone
B.
Administer epinephrine
C.
Slowly taper the patient off of the prednisone
D.
Monitor for long-term effects, such as cancer

____ 13. The ACE inhibitor lisinopril is a known teratogen. Teratogens cause Type ____ adverse drug reaction.
A.
A
B.
B
C.
C
D.
D

____ 14. Cardiac defects are a known Type D adverse drug reaction to lithium. Lithium causes a Type D adverse drug reaction because it is:
A.
An immunosuppressant
B.
A carcinogen
C.
A teratogen
D.
An antiseizure medication

____ 15. Immunomodulators such as azathioprine may cause a delayed adverse drug reaction known as a Type D reaction because they are known:
A.
Teratogens
B.
Carcinogens
C.
To cause hypersensitivity reactions
D.
Hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis suppressants

____ 16. A 24-year-old male received multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident that required significant amounts of opioid medication to treat his pain. He is at risk for Type __ adverse drug reaction when he no longer requires the opioids.
A.
A
B.
C
C.
E
D.
G

____ 17. Drugs that may cause a Type E adverse drug reaction include:
A.
Beta blockers
B.
Immunomodulators
C.
Antibiotics
D.
Oral contraceptives

____ 18. Unexpected failure of drug therapy is a Type __ adverse drug reaction, commonly caused by____.
A.
B; cytotoxic hypersensitivity
B.
B; idiosyncratic response
C.
C; cumulative effects of drug
D.
F; drug-drug interaction

____ 19. Clopidogrel treatment failure may occur when it is co-administered with omeprazole, known as a Type __ adverse drug reaction.
A.
A
B.
C
C.
E
D.
F

Chapter 6: Factors that Foster Positive Outcomes

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. A comprehensive assessment of a patient should be holistic when trying to determine competence in drug administration. Which of the following factors would the NP omit from this type of assessment?
A.
Financial status
B.
Mobility
C.
Social support
D.
Sexual practices

____ 2. Elena Vasquez’ primary language is Spanish and she speaks very limited English. Which technique would be appropriate to use in teaching her about a new drug you have just prescribed?
A.
Use correct medical terminology since Spanish has a Latin base
B.
Use a family member who speaks more English to act as interpreter
C.
Use a professional interpreter or a reliable staff member who can interpret
D.
Use careful, detailed explanations

____ 3. Rod, age 68, has hearing difficulty. Which of the following would NOT be helpful in assuring that he understands teaching about his drug?
A.
Stand facing him and speak slowly and clearly
B.
Speak in low tones or find a provider who has a lower voice
C.
Write down the instructions as well as speaking them
D.
If he reads lips, exaggerate lips movements when pronouncing the vowel sounds

____ 4. Which of the following factors may adversely affect a patient’s adherence to a therapeutic drug regimen?
A.
Complexity of the drug regimen
B.
Patient perception of the potential adverse effects of the drugs
C.
Both A and B
D.
Neither A nor B

____ 5. The health-care delivery system itself can create barriers to adherence to a treatment regimen. Which of the following system variables creates such a barrier?
A.
Increasing copayments for care
B.
Unrestricted formularies for drugs including brand names
C.
Increasing the number of people who have access to care
D.
Treating a wider range of disorders

____ 6. Adverse drug reactions and patients’ perceptions of them are likely to produce non-adherence. Which of the following ADRs are least likely to produce non-adherence?
A.
Severe hypotension and anaphylaxis
B.
Constipation and diarrhea
C.
Headache and dizziness
D.
Nausea and vomiting

____ 7. Ralph’s blood pressure remains elevated despite increased doses of his drug. The NP is concerned that he might not be adhering to his treatment regimen. Which of the following events would suggest that he might not be adherent?
A.
Ralph states that he always takes the drug “when I feel my pressure is going up.”
B.
Ralph contacts his NP to discuss the need to increase the dose.
C.
Ralph consistently keeps his follow-up appointments to check his blood pressure.
D.
All of the above show that he is adherent to the drug regimen.

____ 8. Non-adherence is especially common in drugs that treat asymptomatic conditions, such as hypertension. One way to reduce the likelihood of non-adherence to these drugs is to prescribe a drug that:
A.
Has a short half-life so that missing one dose has limited effect
B.
Requires several dosage titrations so that missed doses can be replaced with lower doses to keep costs down.
C.
Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness.
D.
Must be taken no more than twice a day.

____ 9. Factors in chronic conditions that contribute to non-adherence include:
A.
The complexity of the treatment regimen
B.
The length of time over which it must be taken
C.
Breaks in the usual daily routine, such as vacations and weekends
D.
All of the above

____ 10. While patient education about their drugs is important, information alone does not necessarily lead to adherence to a drug regimen. Patients report greater adherence when:
A.
The provider spent a lot of time discussing the drugs with them
B.
Their concerns and specific area of knowledge deficit were addressed
C.
They were given written material, such as pamphlets, about the drugs
D.
The provider used appropriate medical and pharmacologic terms

____ 11. Patients with psychiatric illnesses have adherence rates to their drug regimen between 35% and 60%. To improve adherence in this population, prescribe drugs:
A.
With a longer half-life so that missed doses produce a longer taper on the drug curve
B.
In oral formulations that are more easily taken
C.
That do not require frequent monitoring
D.
Combined with patient education about the need to adhere even when symptoms are absent

____ 12. Many disorders require multiple drugs to treat them. The more complex the drug regimen, the less likely the patient will adhere to it. Which of the following interventions will NOT improve adherence?
A.
Have the patient purchase a pill container with compartments for daily or multiple times per day dosing.
B.
Match the clinic appointment to the next time the drug is to be refilled.
C.
Write prescriptions for new drugs with shorter times between refills.
D.
Give the patient a clear drug schedule that the provider devises to fit the characteristic of the drug.

____ 13. Pharmacologic interventions are costly. Patients for whom the cost/benefit variable is especially important include:
A.
Older adults and those on fixed incomes
B.
Patients with chronic illnesses
C.
Patients with copayments for drugs on their insurance
D.
Patients on public assistance

____ 14. Providers have a responsibility for determining the best plan of care, but patients also have responsibilities. Patients the provider can be assured will carry through on these responsibilities include those who:
A.
Are well-educated and affluent
B.
Have chronic conditions
C.
Self-monitor drug effects on their symptoms
D.
None of the above guarantee adherence

____ 15. Monitoring adherence can take several forms, including:
A.
Patient reports from data in a drug diary
B.
Pill counts
C.
Lab reports and other diagnostic markers
D.
All of the above

Chapter 7: Cultural and Ethnic Influences in Pharmacotherapeutics

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Cultural factors that must be taken into account when prescribing include(s):
A.
Who is the decision maker in the family regarding health-care decisions
B.
The patient’s view of health and illness
C.
Attitudes regarding the use of drugs to treat illness
D.
All of the above

____ 2. Ethnic differences have been found in drug:
A.
Absorption
B.
Hepatic metabolism
C.
Filtration at the glomerulus
D.
Passive tubular reabsorption

____ 3. The National Standards of Culturally and Linguistically Appropriate Services (CLAS) are required to be implemented in all:
A.
Hospitals
B.
Clinics that serve the poor
C.
Organizations that receive federal funds
D.
Clinics that serve ethnic minorities

____ 4. According to the National Standards of Culturally and Linguistically Appropriate Services (CLAS), interpreters for health care:
A.
May be a bilingual family member
B.
May be a bilingual nurse or other health-care provider
C.
Must be a professionally trained medical interpreter
D.
Must be an employee of the organization

____ 5. According to the U.S. Office of Minority Health, poor health outcomes among African Americans are attributed to:
A.
The belief among African Americans that prayer is more powerful than drugs
B.
Poor compliance on the part of the African-American patient
C.
The genetic predisposition for illness found among African Americans
D.
Discrimination, cultural barriers, and lack of access to health care

____ 6. The racial difference in drug pharmacokinetics seen in American Indian or Alaskan Natives are:
A.
Increased CYP 2D6 activity, leading to rapid metabolism of some drugs
B.
Largely unknown due to lack of studies of this population
C.
Rapid metabolism of alcohol, leading to increased tolerance
D.
Decreased elimination of opioids, leading to increased risk for addiction

____ 7. Pharmacokinetics among Asians are universal to all the Asian ethnic groups.
A.
True
B.
False

____ 8. Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians may lead to:
A.
Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses
B.
Faster metabolism of neuroleptics, requiring higher doses
C.
Altered metabolism of omeprazole, requiring higher doses
D.
Slower metabolism of alcohol, requiring higher doses

____ 9. Asians from Eastern Asia are known to be fast acetylators. Fast acetylators:
A.
Require acetylization in order to metabolize drugs
B.
Are unable to tolerate higher doses of some drugs that require acetylization
C.
May have a toxic reaction to drugs that require acetylization
D.
Require higher doses of drugs metabolized by acetylization to achieve efficacy

____ 10. Hispanic native healers (curanderas):
A.
Are not heavily utilized by Hispanics who immigrate to the United States
B.
Use herbs and teas in their treatment of illness
C.
Provide unsafe advice to Hispanics and should not be trusted
D.
Need to be licensed in their home country in order to practice in the United States

Chapter 8: Pharmacogenomics

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Genetic polymorphisms account for differences in metabolism, including:
A.
Poor metabolizers (PMs) who lack a working enzyme
B.
Intermediate metabolizers (IMs) who have one working, wild-type allele and one mutant allele
C.
Extensive metabolizers (EMs), with two normally functioning alleles
D.
All of the above

____ 2. Up to 21% of Asians are ultra-rapid 2D6 metabolizers, leading to:
A.
A need to monitor drugs metabolized by 2D6 for toxicity
B.
Increased dosages needed of drugs metabolized by 2D6, such as the SSRIs
C.
Decreased conversion of codeine to morphine by CYP 2D6
D.
The need for lowered dosages of drugs, such as beta blockers

____ 3. Rifampin is a nonspecific CYP450 inducer that may:
A.
Lead to toxic levels of rifampin and must be monitored closely
B.
Cause toxic levels of drugs, such as oral contraceptives, when co-administered
C.
Induce the metabolism of drugs, such as oral contraceptives, leading to therapeutic failure
D.
Cause nonspecific changes in drug metabolism

____ 4. Inhibition of P-glycoprotein by a drug such as quinidine may lead to:
A.
Decreased therapeutic levels of quinidine
B.
Increased therapeutic levels of quinidine
C.
Decreased levels of a co-administered drug, such as digoxin, that requires P-glycoprotein for absorption and elimination
D.
Increased levels of a co-administered drug, such as digoxin, that requires P-glycoprotein for absorption and elimination

____ 5. Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with VCORC1 mutation, leading to:
A.
Toxic levels of warfarin building up
B.
Decreased response to warfarin
C.
Increased risk for significant drug interactions with warfarin
D.
Less risk of drug interactions with warfarin

____ 6. Genetic testing for VCORC1 mutation to assess potential warfarin resistance is required prior to prescribing warfarin.
A.
True
B.
False

____ 7. Pharmacogenetic testing is required by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) prior to prescribing:
A.
Erythromycin
B.
Digoxin
C.
Cetuximab
D.
Rifampin

____ 8. Carbamazepine has a Black Box warning recommending testing for the HLA-B*1502 allele in patients with Asian ancestry prior to starting therapy due to:
A.
Decreased effectiveness of carbamazepine in treating seizures in Asian patients with the HLA-B*1502 allele
B.
Increased risk for drug interactions in Asian patients with the HLA-B*1502 allele
C.
Increased risk for Stevens-Johnson syndrome in Asian patients with HLA-B*1502 allele
D.
Patients who have the HLA-B*1502 allele being more likely to have a resistance to carbamazepine

____ 9. A genetic variation in how the metabolite of the cancer drug irinotecan SN-38 is inactivated by the body may lead to:
A.
Decreased effectiveness of irinotecan in the treatment of cancer
B.
Increased adverse drug reactions, such as neutropenia
C.
Delayed metabolism of the prodrugirinotecan into the active metabolite SN-38
D.
Increased concerns for irinotecan being carcinogenic

____ 10. Patients who have a poor metabolism phenotype will have:
A.
Slowed metabolism of a prodrug into an active drug, leading to accumulation of prodrug
B.
Accumulation of inactive metabolites of drugs
C.
A need for increased dosages of medications
D.
Increased elimination of an active drug

____ 11. Ultra-rapid metabolizers of drugs may have:
A.
To have dosages of drugs adjusted downward to prevent drug accumulation
B.
Active drug rapidly metabolized into inactive metabolites, leading to potential therapeutic failure
C.
Increased elimination of active, nonmetabolized drug
D.
Slowed metabolism of a prodrug into an active drug, leading to accumulation of prodrug

____ 12. A provider may consider testing for CYP2D6 variants prior to starting tamoxifen for breast cancer to:
A.
Ensure the patient will not have increased adverse drug reactions to the tamoxifen
B.
Identify potential drug-drug interactions that may occur with tamoxifen
C.
Reduce the likelihood of therapeutic failure with tamoxifen treatment
D.
Identify

Q9. NSG 6005 Final Exam / NSG6005 Final Exam (Latest): South University (Already graded A)
NSG 6005 Final Exam / NSG6005 Final Exam (Latest): South University

An ACE inhibitor and what other class of drug may reduce proteinuria in patients with diabetes better than either drug alone?

A. Beta blockers
B. Diuretics
C. Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers
D. Angiotensin II receptor blockers
C. Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers

Adam has type I diabetes and plays tennis for his university. He exhibits knowledge deficit about his insulin and his diagnosis. He should be taught that:

A. He should increase his increase his carbohydrate intake during times of exercise intake during times of exercise.
B. Each brand of insulin is equal in bioavailability, so buy the least expensive.
C. Alcohol produces hypoglycemia and can help control his diabetes when taken in small amounts.
D. If he does not want to learn to give himself injections, he may substitute an oral hypoglycemic to control his diabetes.
A. He should increase his increase his carbohydrate intake during times of exercise intake during times of exercise.

Age is a factor in different responses to pain. Which of the following age-related statements about pain is not true?

A. Preterm and newborn infants do not yet have functional pain pathways.
B. Painful experiences and prolonged exposure to analgesic drugs during pregnancy may permanently alter neuronal organization in the child.
C. Increases in pain threshold in older adults may be related to peripheral neuropathies and changes in skin thickness.
D. Decreases in pain tolerance are evident in older adults.
A. Preterm and newborn infants do not yet have functional pain pathways.

Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians may lead to:

A. Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses
B. Faster metabolism of neuroleptics, requiring higher doses
C. Altered metabolism of omeprazole, requiring higher doses
D. Slower metabolism of alcohol, requiring higher doses
A. Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses

Amiodarone has been prescribed in a patient with a supraventricular dysrhythmia. Patient teaching should include all of the following except:

A. Notify your healthcare provider immediately if you have visual change.
B. Monitor your own blood pressure and pulse daily.
C. Take a hot shower or bath if you feel dizzy.
D. Use a sunscreen on exposed body surfaces.
C. Take a hot shower or bath if you feel dizzy.

Anticholinergic agents, such as benztropine (Cogentin), may be given with a phenothiazine to:

A. Reduce the chance of tardive dyskinesia.
B. Potentiate the effects of the drug.
C. Reduce the tolerance that tends to occur.
D. Increase CNS depression.
A. Reduce the chance of tardive dyskinesia.

An appropriate drug for the treatment of depression with anxiety would be:

A. Alprazolam (Xanax)
B. Escitalopram (Lexapro)
C. Buspirone (Buspar)
D. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
B. Escitalopram (Lexapro)

Cara is taking levetiracetam (Keppra) to treat seizures. Routine education for levetiracetam includes reminding her:

A. To not abruptly discontinue levetiracetam due to the risk of withdrawal seizures
B. To wear a sunscreen due to photosensitivity from levetiracetam
C. To get an annual eye exam while on levetiracetam
D. To report weight loss if it occurs
A. To not abruptly discontinue levetiracetam due to the risk of withdrawal seizure

Cecilia presents with depression associated with complaints of fatigue, sleeping all the time, and lack of motivation. An appropriate initial antidepressant for her would be:

A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
B. Paroxetine (Paxil)
C. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

Chemical dependency assessment is integral to the initial assessment of chronic pain. Which of the following raises a “red flag” about potential chemical dependency?

A. Use of more than one drug to treat the pain
B. Multiple times when prescriptions are lost with requests to refill
C. Preferences for treatments that include alternative medicines
D. Presence of a family member who has abused drugs
B. Multiple times when prescriptions are lost with requests to refill

Common mistakes practitioners make in treating anxiety disorders include:

A. Switching medications after an eight-week trial to a twelve-week trial
B. Maximizing dosing of antianxiety medications
C. Encouraging exercise and relaxation therapy before starting medication
D. Thinking a partial response to medication is acceptable
D. Thinking a partial response to medication is acceptable

David presents to clinic with symptoms of allergic conjunctivitis. He is prescribed cromolyn sodium (Opticrom) eyedrops. The education regarding using cromolyn eyedrops includes which one of the following tips?

A. He should not wear his soft contacts while using the cromolyn eyedrops.
B. Cromolyn drops are instilled once a day to prevent allergy symptoms.
C. Long-term use of the eyedrop may cause glaucoma.
D. He may experience bradycardia as an adverse effect.
A. He should not wear his soft contacts while using the cromolyn eyedrops.

The DEA:

A. Registers manufacturers and prescribes controlled substances
B. Regulates NP prescribing at the state level
C. Sanctions providers who prescribe drugs off-label
D. Provides prescribers with a number they can use for insurance billing
A. Registers manufacturers and prescribes controlled substances

Diagnostic criteria for diabetes include:

A. Fasting blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl on two occasions
B. Postprandial blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl
C. Fasting blood glucose 100 to 125 mg/dl on two occasions
D. Symptoms of diabetes plus a casual blood glucose greater than 200 mg/dl
D. Symptoms of diabetes plus a casual blood glucose greater than 200 mg/dl

Disease states in addition to hypertension in which beta blockade is a compelling indication for the use of beta blockers include:

A. Heart failure
B. Angina
C. MI
D. Dyslipidemia
C. MI

The drug of choice for type II diabetics is metformin. Metformin:

A. Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver
B. Increases the release of insulin from beta cells
C. Increases intestinal uptake of glucose
D. Prevents weight gain associated with hyperglycemia
A. Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver

The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in men over seventy years is:

A. Alendronate (Fosamax)
B. Ibandronate (Boniva)
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Raloxifene (Evista)
A. Alendronate (Fosamax)

The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in women over seventy years old is:

A. Alendronate (Fosamax)
B. Ibandronate (Boniva)
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Raloxifene (Evista)
A. Alendronate (Fosamax)

The drugs recommended by the American Academy of Pediatrics for use in children with diabetes (depending upon type of diabetes) are:

A. Metformin and insulin
B. Sulfonylureas and insulin glargine
C. Split-mixed dose insulin and GLP-1 agonists
D.Biguanides and insulin lispro
A. Metformin and insulin

Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect:

A. Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only
B. Bypass the hepatic circulation
C. Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action
D. Are converted by the liver to more active and fat-soluble forms
C. Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action

Dwayne has classic tinea capitis. Treatment for tinea on the scalp is:

A. Rubbing in miconazole cream well for four weeks
B. Intake of oral griseofulvin for six to eight weeks
C. Shampooing with ketoconazole shampoo daily for six weeks
D. Using ciclopirox cream daily for four weeks
B. Intake of oral griseofulvin for six to eight weeks

Dwayne was recently started on carbamazepine to treat seizures. He comes to see you, and you note that while his carbamazepine levels had been in the therapeutic range, they are now low. The possible cause for the low carbamazepine levels is:

A. Dwayne hasn’t been taking his carbamazepine because it causes insomnia.
B. Carbamazepine auto-induces metabolism, leading to lower levels in spite of good compliance.
C. Dwayne was not originally prescribed the correct amount of carbamazepine.
D. Carbamazepine is probably not the right antiseizure medication for Dwayne.
B. Carbamazepine auto-induces metabolism, leading to lower levels in spite of good compliance.

Erik presents with a golden-crusted lesion at the site of an insect bite consistent with impetigo. His parents have limited finances and request the least expensive treatment. Which medication would be the best choice for treatment?

A. Mupirocin (Bactroban)
B. Bacitracin and polymixin B (generic double antibiotic ointment)
C. Retapamulin (Altabax)
D. Oral cephalexin (Keflex)
B. Bacitracin and polymixin B (generic double antibiotic ointment)
First-line therapy for hyperlipidemia is:

A. Statins
B. Niacin
C. Lifestyle changes
D. Bile acid-binding resins
C. Lifestyle changes

First-line therapy for treating topical fungal infections such as tinea corporis (ringworm) or tinea pedis (athlete’s foot) would be:

A. OTC topical azole (clotrimazole, miconazole)
B. Oral terbinafine
C. Oral griseofulvin microsize
D. Nystatin cream or ointment
A. OTC topical azole (clotrimazole, miconazole)

Furosemide is added to a treatment regimen for heart failure, which includes digoxin. Monitoring for this combination includes:

A. Hemoglobin
B. Serum potassium
C. Blood urea nitrogen
D. Serum glucose
B. Serum potassium

Genetic polymorphisms account for differences in metabolism, including:

A. Poor metabolizers (PMs) that lack a working enzyme
B. Intermediate metabolizers (IMs) that have one working, wild-type allele and one mutant allele
C. Extensive metabolizers (EMs), with two normally functioning alleles
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Genetic testing for VCORC1 mutation to assess potential warfarin resistance is required prior to prescribing warfarin.

A. True
B. False
B. False

Goals of treatment when treating hypothyroidism with thyroid replacement include:

A. Normal TSH and free T4 levels
B. Resolution of fatigue
C. Weight loss to baseline
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Heart failure is a chronic condition that can be adequately managed in primary care. However, consultation with or referral to a cardiologist is appropriate when:

A. Symptoms markedly worsen or the patient becomes hypotensive and has syncope.
B. There is evidence of progressive renal insufficiency or failure.
C. The patient remains symptomatic on optimal doses of an ACE inhibitor, a beta blocker, and a diuretic.
D. All the above options are correct.
D. All the above options are correct.

Hypoglycemia can result from the action of either insulin or an oral hypoglycemic. Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:

A. “Fruity” breath odor and rapid respiration
B. Diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, and hypertension
C. Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia
D. Easy bruising, palpitations, cardiac dysrhythmias, and coma
C. Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia

If a patient with H. pylori positive PUD fails first-line therapy, the second-line treatment is:

A. A PPI BID plus metronidazole plus tetracycline plus bismuth subsalicylate for fourteen days
B. Testing H. pylori for resistance to common treatment regimens
C. A PPI plus clarithromycin plus amoxicillin for fourteen days
D. A PPI and levofloxacin for fourteen days
A. A PPI BID plus metronidazole plus tetracycline plus bismuth subsalicylate for fourteen days

In addition to methimazole, a symptomatic patient with hyperthyroidism may need a prescription for:

A. A calcium channel blocker
B. A beta blocker
C. Liothyronine
D. An alpha blocker
B. A beta blocker

Inadequate vitamin D intake can contribute to the development of osteoporosis by:

A. Increasing calcitonin production
B. Increasing calcium absorption from the intestine
C. Altering calcium metabolism
D. Stimulating bone formation
B. Increasing calcium absorption from the intestine

Incorporating IT into a patient encounter takes skill and tact. During the encounter, the provider can make the patient more comfortable with the IT the provider is using by:

A. Turning the screen around so the patient can see material being recorded
B. Not placing the computer screen between the provider and the patient
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A and B

Infants with reflux are initially treated with:

A. Histamine 2 receptor antagonist (ranitidine)
B. A PPI (omeprazole)
C. Antireflux maneuvers (elevate the head of the bed)
D. Prokinetic (metoclopramide)
C. Antireflux maneuvers (elevate the head of the bed)

In five- to eleven-year-old children, mild-persistent asthma is diagnosed when asthma symptoms occur:

A. At nighttime one to two times a month
B. At nighttime three to four times a month
C. Less than twice a week
D. Daily
B. At nighttime three to four times a month

Jack, eight years old, has attention deficit disorder (ADD) and is prescribed methylphenidate (Ritalin). He and his parents should be educated about the side effects of methylphenidate, which are:

A. Slurred speech and insomnia
B. Bradycardia and confusion
C. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension
D. Insomnia and decreased appetite
D. Insomnia and decreased appetite

Janie presents to clinic with hard ear wax in both ear canals. Instructions regarding home removal of hard cerumen includes:

A. Moistening a cotton swab (Q-tip) and swabbing the ear canals twice daily
B. Instilling tap water in both ears while bathing
C. Squirting hydrogen peroxide into ears with each bath
D. Instilling carbamide peroxide (Debrox) twice daily until the ear canals are clear
D. Instilling carbamide peroxide (Debrox) twice daily until the ear canals are clear

Jim presents with complaints of “heart burn” that is minimally relieved with Tums (calcium carbonate) and is diagnosed with GERD. An appropriate first step therapy would be:

A. Omeprazole (Prilosec) twice a day
B. Ranitidine (Zantac) twice a day
C. Famotidine (Pepcid) once a day
D. Metoclopramide (Reglan) four times a day
B. Ranitidine (Zantac) twice a day

Jim presents with fungal infection of two of his toenails (onychomycosis). Treatment for fungal infections of the nail includes:

A. Miconazole cream
B. Ketoconazole cream
C. Oral griseofulvin
D. Mupirocin cream
C. Oral griseofulvin
Josie is a five-year-old who presents to the clinic with a forty-eight-hour history of nausea, vomiting, and some diarrhea. She is unable to keep fluids down, and her weight is 4 pounds less than her last recorded weight. Besides intravenous (IV) fluids, her exam warrants the use of an antinausea medication. Which of the following would be the appropriate drug to order for Josie?

A. Prochlorperazine (Compazine)
B. Meclizine (Antivert)
C. Promethazine (Phenergan)
D. Ondansetron (Zofran)
D. Ondansetron (Zofran)

Kirk sprained his ankle and is asking for pain medication for his mild-to-moderate pain. The appropriate first-line medication would be __________.

A. ibuprofen (Advil)
B. acetaminophen with hydrocodone (Vicodin)
C. oxycodone (OxyContin)
D. oral morphine (Roxanol)
A. ibuprofen (Advil)

Liza is breastfeeding her two-month-old son, and she has an infection that requires an antibiotic. What drug factors influence the effect of the drug on the infant?

A. Maternal drug levels
B. Half-life
C. Lipid solubility
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Long-acting beta-agonists received a black box warning from the US Food and Drug Administration due to the:

A. Risk of life-threatening dermatological reactions
B. Increased incidence of cardiac events when long-acting beta-agonists are used
C. Increased risk of asthma-related deaths when long-acting beta-agonists are used
D. Risk for life-threatening alterations in electrolytes
C. Increased risk of asthma-related deaths when long-acting beta-agonists are used

Long-term treatment of moderate atopic dermatitis includes:

A. Topical corticosteroids and emollients
B. Topical corticosteroids alone
C. Topical antipruritics
D. Oral corticosteroids for exacerbations of atopic dermatitis
A. Topical corticosteroids and emollients

Medications used in the management of patients with COPD include:

A. Inhaled beta 2 agonists
B. Inhaled anticholinergics (ipratropium)
C. Inhaled corticosteroids
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Monitoring for a child on methylphenidate for ADHD includes:

A. ADHD symptoms
B. Routine height and weight checks
C. Amount of methylphenidate being used
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Narcotics are exogenous opiates. They act by ______.

A. inhibiting pain transmission in the spinal cord
B. attaching to receptors in the afferent neuron to inhibit the release of substance P
C. blocking neurotransmitters in the midbrain
D. increasing beta-lipoprotein excretion from the pituitary
B. attaching to receptors in the afferent neuron to inhibit the release of substance P

A nineteen-year-old male was started on risperidone. Monitoring for risperidone includes observing for common side effects, including:

A. Bradykinesia, akathisia, and agitation
B. Excessive weight gain
C. Hypertension
D. Potentially fatal agranulocytosis
A. Bradykinesia, akathisia, and agitation

Nonadherence is especially common in drugs that treat asymptomatic conditions, such as hypertension. One way to reduce the likelihood of nonadherence to these drugs is to prescribe a drug that:

A. Has a short half-life so that missing one dose has limited effect
B. Requires several dosage titrations so that missed doses can be replaced with lower doses to keep costs down
C. Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness
D. Must be taken no more than twice a day
C. Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness

Off-Label prescribing is:

A. Regulated by the FDA
B. Illegal by NPs in all states (provinces)
C. Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use
D. Regulated by the DEA
C. Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use

One goal of asthma management in children is:

A. They should independently manage their asthma.
B. They should participate in school and sports activities.
C. There should be no exacerbations.
D. The use of inhaled corticosteroids should be minimal.
B. They should participate in school and sports activities.

The ongoing monitoring of patients over the age sixty-five years taking alendronate (Fosamax) or any other bisphosphonate is:

A. Annual dual energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scans
B. Annual vitamin D level
C. Annual renal function evaluation
D. Electrolytes every three month
C. Annual renal function evaluation

A patient has been prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) cream to treat burns on his or her leg. Normal adverse effects of silver sulfadiazine cream include:

A. Transient leukopenia on days two to four that should resolve
B. Worsening of burn symptoms briefly before resolution
C. A red, scaly rash that will resolve with continued use
D. Hypercalcemia
A. Transient leukopenia on days two to four that should resolve

Patients who are on or who will be starting chronic corticosteroid therapy need monitoring of __________.

A. serum glucose
B. stool culture
C. folate levels
D. vitamin B12
A. serum glucose

Patients who have angina, regardless of class, who are also diabetic should be on:

A. Nitrates
B. Beta blockers
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Calcium channel blockers
C. ACE inhibitors

Patients with psychiatric illnesses have adherence rates to their drug regimen between 35% and 60%. To improve adherence in this population, prescribe drugs:

A. With a longer half-life so that missed doses produce a longer taper on the drug curve
B. In oral formulations that are more easily taken
C. That do not require frequent monitoring
D. Combined with patient education about the need to adhere even when symptoms are absent
A. With a longer half-life so that missed doses produce a longer taper on the drug curve

A patient with a COPD exacerbation may require:

A. Doubling of inhaled corticosteroid dose
B. Systemic corticosteroid burst
C. Continuous inhaled beta 2 agonists
D. Leukotriene therapy
B. Systemic corticosteroid burst

Pharmacokinetics among Asians are universal to all the Asian ethnic groups.

A. True
B. False
B. False

A potentially life-threatening adverse response to ACE inhibitors is angioedema. Which of the following statements is true about this adverse response?

A. Swelling of the tongue and hoarseness are the most common symptoms.
B. It appears to be related to a decrease in aldosterone production.
C. The presence of a dry, hacky cough indicates a high risk for this adverse response.
D. Because it takes time to build up a blood level, it occurs after being on the drug for about one week.
A. Swelling of the tongue and hoarseness are the most common symptoms.

Prescribing for women during their childbearing years requires constant awareness of the possibility of:

A. Pregnancy unless the women is on birth control
B. Risk for silent bacterial or viral infections of the genitalia
C. High risk for developmental disorders in their infants
D. Decreased risk for abuse during this time
B. Risk for silent bacterial or viral infections of the genitalia

Prior to prescribing metformin, the provider should:

A. Draw a serum creatinine to assess renal function.
B. Try the patient on insulin.
C. Tell the patient to increase iodine intake.
D. Have the patient stop taking any sulfonylurea to avoid dangerous drug interactions.
A. Draw a serum creatinine to assess renal function.

Progesterone-only pills are recommended for women who:

A. Are breastfeeding
B. Have a history of migraine
C. Have a medical history that contradicts the use of estrogen
D. All of the above
D. All of the above

Sadie is a seventy-two-year-old who takes omeprazole for her chronic GERD. Chronic long-term omeprazole use places her at increased risk for:

A Megaloblastic anemia
B. Osteoporosis
C. Hypertension
D. Strokes
B. Osteoporosis

Sarah, a forty-two-year-old female, requests a prescription for an anorexiant to treat her obesity. A trial of phentermine is prescribed. Prescribing precautions include understanding that:

A. Obesity is a contraindication to prescribing phentermine.
B. Anorexiants may cause tolerance and should only be prescribed for six months.
C. Patients should be monitored for postural hypotension.
D. Renal function should be monitored closely while the patient is on anorexiants.
B. Anorexiants may cause tolerance and should only be prescribed for six months.

Scott is presenting for follow-up on his lipid panel. He had elevated total cholesterol, elevated triglycerides, and an LDL of 122 mg/dL. He has already implemented diet changes and increased physical activity. He has mildly elevated liver studies. An appropriate next step for therapy would be:

A. Atorvastatin (Lipitor)
B. Niacin (Niaspan)
C. Simvastatin and ezetimibe (Vytorin)
D. Gemfibrozil (Lopid)
B. Niacin (Niaspan)

Second-generation antihistamines such as loratadine (Claritin) are prescribed for seasonal allergies because they:

A. Are more effective than first-generation antihistamines
B. Are less sedating than first-generation antihistamines
C. Are prescription products and, therefore, are covered by insurance
D. Can be taken with CNS sedatives, such as alcohol
B. Are less sedating than first-generation antihistamines

Severe contact dermatitis caused by poison ivy or poison oak exposure often requires treatment with:

A. Topical antipruritics
B. Oral corticosteroids for two to three weeks
C. Thickly applied topical intermediate-dose corticosteroids
D. Isolation of the patient to prevent spread of the dermatitis
B. Oral corticosteroids for two to three weeks

Sitagliptin has been approved for:

A. Monotherapy in once-daily doses
B. Combination therapy with metformin
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A and B

A sixty-six-year-old male was prescribed phenelzine (Nardil) while in an acute psychiatric unit for recalcitrant depression. The nurse practitioner managing his primary healthcare needs to understand the following regarding phenelzine and other monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs):

A. He should not be prescribed any serotonergic drug such as sumatriptan (Imitrex).
B. MAOIs interact with many common foods, including yogurt, sour cream, and soy sauce.
C. Symptoms of hypertensive crisis (headache, tachycardia, sweating, etc.) require immediate treatment.
D. All the above options are correct.
D. All the above options are correct.

Six-year-old Lucy has recently been started on ethosuximide (Zarontin) for seizures. She should be monitored for:

A. Increased seizure activity as this drug may auto-induce seizures
B. Altered renal function, including renal failure
C. Blood dyscrasias, which are uncommon but possible
D. CNS excitement, leading to insomnia
C. Blood dyscrasias, which are uncommon but possible

Stage C patients usually require a combination of three to four drugs to manage their heart failure. In addition to ACE inhibitors and beta blockers, diuretics may be added. Which of the following statements about diuretics is not true?

A.Diuretics reduce preload associated with fluid retention.
B. Diuretics can be used earlier than Stage C when the goal is control of hypertension.
C. Diuretics may produce problems with electrolyte imbalances and abnormal glucose and lipid metabolism.
D. Diuretics from the potassium-sparing class should be used when using an ARB.
D. Diuretics from the potassium-sparing class should be used when using an ARB.

A stepwise approach to the pharmacologic management of asthma:

A. Begins with determining the severity of the asthma and assessing asthma control
B. Is used when the asthma is severe and requires daily steroids
C. Allows for each provider to determine his or her personal approach to the care of asthmatic patients
D. Provides a framework for the management of severe asthmatics but is not as helpful when patients have intermittent asthma
A. Begins with determining the severity of the asthma and assessing asthma control

Studies have shown that control targets that reduce the hemoglobin A1c to less than 7% are associated with fewer long-term complications of diabetes. Patients who should have such a target include:

A. Those with long-standing diabetes
B. Older adults
C. Those with no significant cardiovascular disease
D. Young children who are early in their disease
C. Those with no significant cardiovascular disease

Tiotropium bromide (Spiriva) is an inhaled anticholinergic:

A. Used for the treatment of COPD
B. Used in the treatment of asthma
C. Combined with albuterol for the treatment of asthma exacerbations
D. Combined with fluticasone for the treatment of persistent asthma
A. Used for the treatment of COPD

To reduce mortality, all patients with angina, regardless of class, should be on:

A. Aspirin 81 to 325 mg/d
B. Nitroglycerin sublingually for chest pain
C. ACE inhibitors or ARBs
D. Digoxin
A. Aspirin 81 to 325 mg/d

The treatment for vitamin B12 deficiency is:

A. 1,000 mcg daily of oral cobalamin
B. 2 gm/day of oral cobalamin
C. 100 mcg/day vitamin B12 IM
D. 500 mcg/dose nasal cyanocobalamin two sprays once a week
A. 1,000 mcg daily of oral cobalamin

Treatment of a patient with hypothyroidism and cardiovascular disease consists of:

A. Levothyroxine
B. Liothyronine
C. Liotrix
D. Methimazole
A. Levothyroxine

The trial period to determine effective anti-inflammatory activity when starting a patient on aspirin for RA is _____.

A. forty-eight hours
B. four to six days
C. four weeks
D. two months
B. four to six days

A twenty-four-year-old male received multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident that required significant amounts of opioid medication to treat his pain. He is at risk for Type __ ADR when he no longer requires the opioids.

A. A
B. C
C. E
D. G
C. E

The type of ADR that is the result of an unwanted but otherwise normal pharmacological action of a drug given in the usual therapeutic doses is:

A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Type D
A. Type A
Unlike most type II diabetics where obesity is a major issue, older adults with low body weight have higher risks for morbidity and mortality. The most reliable indicator of poor nutritional status in older adults is:

A. Weight loss in previously overweight persons
B. Involuntary loss of 10% of body weight in less than six months
C. Decline in lean body mass over a twelve-month period
D. Increase in central versus peripheral body adiposity
B. Involuntary loss of 10% of body weight in less than six months

Vicky, age fifty-six years, comes to clinic requesting a refill of her Fiorinal (aspirin and butalbital) that she takes for migraines. She has been taking this medication for over two years for migraine and states one dose usually works to abort her migraine. What is the best care for her?

A. Switch her to sumatriptan (Imitrex) to treat her migraines.
B. Assess how often she is using Fiorinal and refill medication.
C. Switch her to a beta-blocker such as propranolol to prevent her migraine.
D. Request her to return to the original prescriber of Fiorinal as you do not prescribe butalbital for migraines
B. Assess how often she is using Fiorinal and refill medication.

Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with VCORC1 mutation, leading to:

A. Toxic levels of warfarin building up
B. Decreased response to warfarin
C. Increased risk for significant drug interactions with warfarin
D. Less risk of drug interactions with warfarin
B. Decreased response to warfarin

What impact does developmental variation in renal function has on prescribing for infants and children?

A. Lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than six months
B. Higher doses of water-soluble drugs may need to be prescribed due to increased renal excretion
C. Renal excretion rates have no impact on prescribing
D. Parents need to be instructed on whether drugs are renally excreted or not
A. Lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than six months

When a patient is on selective-serotonin reuptake inhibitors:

A. The complete blood count must be monitored every three to four months
B. Therapeutic blood levels must be monitored every six months after a steady state is achieved.
C. Blood glucose must be monitored every three to four months.
D. There is no laboratory monitoring required.
D. There is no laboratory monitoring required.

When obtaining a drug history from Harold, he gives you a complete list of his prescription medications. He denies taking any other drugs, but you find that he occasionally takes aspirin for his arthritis flare-ups. This is an example of:

A. His appropriately only telling you about his regularly prescribed medications
B. His hiding information regarding his inappropriate use of aspirin from you
C. A common misconception that intermittently taken OTC medications are not an important part of his drug history
D. A common misuse of OTC aspirin
C. A common misconception that intermittently taken OTC medications are not an important part of his drug history

When prescribing any headache therapy, appropriate use of medications needs to be discussed to prevent medication-overuse headaches. The clinical characteristics of medication-overuse headaches include ________.

A. headaches increasing in frequency
B. headaches increasing in intensity
C. headaches recurring when medication wears off
D. headaches beginning to “cluster” into a pattern
C. headaches recurring when medication wears off

When Sam used clotrimazole (Lotrimin AF) for athlete’s foot, he developed a red, itchy rash consistent with a hypersensitivity reaction. He now has athlete’s foot again. What would be a good choice of antifungal for Sam?

A. Miconazole (Micatin) powder
B. Ketoconazole (Nizoral) cream
C. Terbinafine (Lamisil) cream
D. Griseofulvin (Grifulvin V) suspension
C. Terbinafine (Lamisil) cream

When starting a patient with hypothyroidism on thyroid replacement hormones, patient education would include the following:

A. He or she should feel symptomatic improvement in one to two weeks.
B. Drug-related adverse effects such as lethargy and dry skin may occur.
C. It may take four to eight weeks to get to euthyroid symptomatically and by lab testing.
D. Due to the short half-life of levothyroxine, its doses should not be missed.
C. It may take four to eight weeks to get to euthyroid symptomatically and by lab testing.

Which of the following adverse effects may occur due to a dihydropyridine-type calcium channel blocker?

A. Bradycardia
B. Hepatic impairment
C. Increased contractility
D. Edema of the hands and feet
D. Edema of the hands and feet

Which of the following classes of drugs is contraindicated in heart failure?

A.Nitrates
B. Long-acting dihydropyridines
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Alpha-beta blockers
C. Calcium channel blocker

Which of the following disease processes could be made worse by taking a nonselective beta blocker?

A. Asthma might worsen.
B. Diabetes might worsen.
C. Both might worsen.
D. Beta blockade does not affect these disorders.
C. Both might worsen.

Which of the following factors may adversely affect a patient’s adherence to a therapeutic drug regimen?

A. Complexity of the drug regimen
B. Patient’s perception of the potential adverse effects of the drugs
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
C. Both A and B

Which of the following is the goal of treatment of acute pain?

A. Pain at a tolerable level where patient may return to activities of daily living
B. Reduction of pain with a minimum of drug adverse effects
C. Reduction or elimination of pain with minimum adverse reactions
D. Adequate pain relief without constipation or nausea from the drugs
C. Reduction or elimination of pain with minimum adverse reactions

Which of the following is the mechanism of action of oral combined contraceptives that prevent pregnancy?

A. Estrogen prevents the LH surge necessary for ovulation.
B. Progestins thicken cervical mucous and slow tubal motility.
C. Estrogen thins the endometrium, making implantation difficult.
D. Progestin suppresses FSH release.
B. Progestins thicken cervical mucous and slow tubal motility.

Which of the following statements is true about age and pain?

A. Use of drugs that depend heavily on the renal system for excretion may require dosage adjustments in very young children.
B. Among the NSAIDs, indomethacin is the preferred drug because of lower adverse effects profiles than other NSAIDs.
C. Older adults who have dementia probably do not experience much pain due to loss of pain receptors in the brain.
D. Acetaminophen is especially useful in both children and adults because it has no effect on platelets and has fewer adverse effects than NSAIDs.
D. Acetaminophen is especially useful in both children and adults because it has no effect on platelets and has fewer adverse effects than NSAIDs.

A woman who has migraine with aura:

A. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to the interaction between triptans and estrogen, limiting migraine therapy choices
B. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased incidence of migraines with the use of estrogen
C. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased risk of stroke occurring with estrogen use
D. May be prescribed estrogen without any concerns
C. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased risk of stroke occurring with estrogen use

A woman with an intact uterus should not be prescribed:

A. Estrogen/progesterone combination
B. Intramuscular (IM) medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera)
C. Estrogen alone
D. Androgens

Q10. Abdominal assessment | abdominal pain assessment
Are you experiencing abdominal pain?
How would you describe the pain? How bad is the pain(severity) on a scale of 1 to 10, with 10 being the worst?
How did (does) the pain begin?
Where is the pain located? Does it move or has it changedfrom the original location?
When does the pain occur (timing and relation to par-ticular events, such as eating, exercise, bedtime)?
What seems to bring on the pain (precipitating factors),make it worse (exacerbating factors), or make it better (alle- viating factors)?
Do you have any abdominal issues?
Do you have any abdominal pain?
How often do you have a bowel movement?
When was your last bowel movement?
Have you…

LITERARY STUDIES
Q1. This is a literature Question kindly assist

List three prominent themes in A Doll’s House by Henrik Ibsen

Q2. Quiz 4.2 Using Sources
Brook, R. H. (2012). Two years and counting: How will the effects of the Affordable Care Act be
monitored? JAMA: Journal of the American Medical Association, 41–42. doi:10.1001/jama.2011.1948

article title

volume and issue information

journal title

author

Q3. Quiz 4.1 Incorparating Sources
To some, Facebook serves as more of a distraction than a learning tool (Wise, Skues & Williams, 2011), which is not an unreasonable deduction since Facebook’s primary use is as a social connection tool, and not an academic one.
How are Magro et al. using the work of Wise, Skues & Williams in this example?

paraphrase

hanging quote

direct quote

Q4. Annabel Lee Poem by Edgar Allan
The review of Annabel Lee Poem by Edgar Allan

Q5. Models of sustainability integration within the construction industry
I need literature review on sustainability integration within the construction industry.
Models of sustainability.
types of models.
Integration process
Detailed study of the current literature within sustainability integration within the construction industry, Good collection of peer reviewed articles(i.e Journals/conference;(no wikipedia), new models and any relevant informations regarding sustainability integration
ATTENTION:
Please make sure you check on how to write a literature review.
Please make sure all the resources are peer-reviewed
Read a sample to fully understand what is required of you.

Q6. UMUC LIBS 150 – Final Exam 96.67% final score latest test
University of Maryland University College – UMUC
Fall 2016 LIBS 150 Final exam Final quiz – 96.67% score

Latest test
Q7. UMUC LIBS 150 – Research Log Project Part 2 – 100%
University of Maryland University College
Research Log Project Part 2
Final score 100%

Q8. UMUC LIBS 150 – Research Log Project Part 1
UMUC LIBS 150
University of Maryland University College LIBS 150
Research Log Project Part 1
9/10 90% final score
Full document
Q9. Quiz 3.2: Determining if a Source Is Relevant for an Information Need
September 2016 – Latest
University of Maryland University College (UMUC)
LIBS 150 Introduction to Research Quiz 3.2: Determining if a Source Is Relevant for an Information Need
Final score: 100%
Q10. Quiz 3.1: Elements of a Citation
September 2016 – Latest
University of Maryland University College (UMUC)
LIBS 150 Introduction to Research Quiz 3.1: Elements of a Citation
Final score: 100%

PHILOSOPHY.
Q1. Liberty University PHIL 201 quiz 5 complete solutions correct answers |Rated A+
Liberty University PHIL 201 quiz 5 complete solutions correct answers A+ work.
More than 9 different versions

Question 1
By “high accessibility requirements” the internalist means:
Question 2
The view in which the basing relationship between beliefs is deductive:
Question 3
Rene Descartes was a:
Question 4
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 5
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 6
For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 7
Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 8
The virtue of studiousness does not take into account the proper kinds of motives for seeking knowledge.
Question 9
Vices might be described as characteristics that are destructive in nature.
Question 10
Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 11
What is the point of Descartes’ evil demon argument?
Question 12
According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 13
To suggest that we should suspend all judgments about any claim to knowledge, is to suggest a softer and mitigated form of skepticism in contrast to its more unmitigated expressions.
Question 14
When Larry claims definitely and dogmatically that he knows we cannot know anything at all, he is expressing:
Question 15
Among some of the reasons why unmitigated skepticism is difficult for a person to consistently hold as a serious philosophical position is because
Question 16
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
Question 17
While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a selfdefeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.
Question 18
Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 19
My belief is a justified belief if and only if it is, in fact, a true belief.
Question 20
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.

• Question 1
3 out of 3 points
The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
• Question 2
3 out of 3 points
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
• Question 3
3 out of 3 points
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
• Question 4
3 out of 3 points
The answers to the skeptical challenge suggested in the pointecast presentation include:
• Question 5
3 out of 3 points
Noetic structure refers to:
• Question 6
3 out of 3 points
Humility helps us fight against intellectual vices like pride and vanity that keep us from seeing the truth.
• Question 7
3 out of 3 points
Carefulness is an intellectual virtue that helps us:
• Question 8
3 out of 3 points
For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.

• Question 9
3 out of 3 points
The intellectual virtue of humility can be described as the mean between:
• Question 10
• 3 out of 3 points
Which is not one of the ways that Wood says moral and intellectual virtues parallel each other?
• Question 11
3 out of 3 points
Hume thinks that, while we may assume connections of causality (i.e., every event has a cause), we never actually perceive a necessary connection of causality and therefore we cannot know a causal connection has actually occurred.
• Question 12
3 out of 3 points
If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
• Question 13
3 out of 3 points
One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
• Question 14
3 out of 3 points
It is a commonly accepted fact that it is impossible to be certain about any belief
• Question 15
3 out of 3 points
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
• Question 16
3 out of 3 points
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own
Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
• Question 17
If a person thinks she has a moral responsibility to determine that any belief she holds is based on sufficient evidence, that is, evidence that strikes her as being based on indisputably good reasons or arguments, she is likely representing the epistemological position of
• Question 18
The problem with W. K. Clifford’s statement “It is wrong always, everywhere and
for anyone, to believe anything upon insufficient evidence” is that:

Question 1
Christopher Columbus was convinced that he discovered a route to the East Indies because it lined up with his maps and the current beliefs of his day. However, he was wrong. This example demonstrates a problem with:
Question 2
Noetic structure refers to:
Question 3
The doxastic assumption is:
Question 4
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 5
The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
Question 6
Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 7
Vices might be described as characteristics that are destructive in nature.
Question 8
Intellectual virtue is best described as:
Question 9
Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 10
Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 11
When the used car salesman tells Steve that the particular car he is considering purchasing has less than fifteen thousand actual miles on it, Steve is, quite naturally, a bit skeptical about this claim, particularly since the car is over ten years old and looks a little worse for wear. In exhibiting this level of doubt, Steve is expressing:
Question 12
When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 13
According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 14
Which of the following is NOT commonly given by philosophers as a reason for adopting some form of skepticism:
Question 15
To say that it is impossible to have knowledge is itself a claim to knowledge, and is for that reason a selfdefeating assertion.
Question 16
Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 17
Externalism in epistemology is an approach to rationality which argues that
Question 18
While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a selfdefeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.
Question 19
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
Question 20
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.

Question 1
When considering our noetic structure we recognize that we hold beliefs in varying degrees of strength.
Question 2
The motivation behind externalism is:
Question 3
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 4
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 5
The view in which the basing relationship between beliefs is deductive:
Question 6
Intellectual virtue is best described as:
Question 7
Aristotle thought that the virtues are present naturally in all people.
Question 8
The intellectual virtue of humility can be described as the mean between:
Question 9
Vices might be described as characteristics that are destructive in nature.
Question 10
Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 11
When Larry claims definitely and dogmatically that he knows we cannot know anything at all, he is expressing:
Question 12
According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 13
One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
Question 14
If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
Question 15
Robert is a scientist who firmly believes in empirical truths and the physical laws of causality (e.g. when he builds a fire in his fireplace, it will produce heat), but he expresses serious reservations about the rational credibility of whether there are objective moral virtues, such as goodness, or whether such a being as the traditional God of theism does in fact exist. In such a case, Robert is expressing a form of
Question 16
Coherentism in epistemology is a position which holds that a particular belief is justified for a person so long as that belief is consistent with everything else that person holds to be true.
Question 17
Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
Question 18
Suppose a person is deeply concerned about whether her belief in God is rational. In order to make this determination, she reflects on the kind of evidence she thinks she has for God’s existence (e.g., the apparent design and beauty of the universe, the existence of other sentient beings, the almost universal acceptance of some degree of objective morality, etc.). In light of her awareness of, and access to, this potential evidence, she would be considered:
Question 19
If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and fine tuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 20
Coherentism is a position in epistemic justification which holds that

Question 1 3 out of 3 points
According to externalism one must be aware of whether his cognitive processes are functioning properly or not.
Question 2 3 out of 3 points
Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 3 3 out of 3 points
The motivation behind internalism is:
Question 4 3 out of 3 points
The motivation behind externalism is:
It seems intuitively to be the way we normally form beliefs
Question 5 3 out of 3 points
The answers to the skeptical challenge suggested in the pointecast presentation include:
Question 6 3 out of 3 points
Aristotle said that virtue is the “mean between two vices, one of excess and one of deficiency.”
Question 7 3 out of 3 points
Carefulness is an intellectual virtue that helps us:
Question 8 3 out of 3 points
Virtue epistemologists think that intellectual virtues might helps us with the Gettier problem by:
Question 9 3 out of 3 points
Aristotle’s notion of happiness focused on:
Question 10 3 out of 3 points
The intellectual virtue of studiousness leads one to seek knowledge with the right kind of motives and desires.
Question 11 3 out of 3 points
When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 12
3 out of 3 points
Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 13 3 out of 3 points
One reason why certainty in knowledge is not likely a reasonable alternative to unmitigated skepticism is because
Question 14 3 out of 3 points
Among some of the reasons why unmitigated skepticism is difficult for a person to consistently hold as a serious philosophical position is because
Question 15 3 out of 3 points
Sextus Empiricus adopted a version of Pyhrro’s skepticism mainly because he believed that
Question 16 3 out of 3 points
While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a selfdefeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.
Question 17 3 out of 3 points
If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and finetuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 18
Coherentism is a position in epistemic justification which holds that
Question 19
Select the one below that does NOT belong : The justification of one’s beliefs is a matter that deals with
Question 20 3 out of 3 points
Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.

Question 1 The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
Question 2 Clifford was a:
Question 3 Karen says she doesn’t believe that you can ever have real knowledge. When asked if she claims to know that as a fact, she says no, but she believes that is the case. What category would you place her in:
Question 4 A major criticism that internalism raises against externalism is:
Question 5 David Hume was a:
Question 6 Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 7 For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 8 Intellectual courage helps us to:
Question 9 Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 10 Aristotle thought that the virtues are present naturally in all people.
Question 11 If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
Question 12 Robert is a scientist who firmly believes in empirical truths and the physical laws of causality (e.g. when he builds a fire in his fireplace, it will produce heat), but he expresses serious reservations about the rational credibility of whether there are objective moral virtues, such as goodness, or whether such a being as the traditional God of theism does in fact exist. In such a case, Robert is expressing a form of
Question 13 To suggest that we should suspend all judgments about any claim to knowledge, is to suggest a softer and mitigated form of skepticism in contrast to its more unmitigated expressions.
Question 14 When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 15 Among some of the reasons why unmitigated skepticism is difficult for a person to consistently hold as a serious philosophical position is because
Question 16 If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and fine¬tuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 17 If an individual is an externalist in terms of epistemic warrant, then that person thinks that
Question 18 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 19 Ginger believes that the dog she sees in her neighbor’s back yard is her own Labrador Retriever named Sam. Since there are no other Labrador Retrievers in the neighborhood fitting the same description as Sam, and since the dog Ginger sees in her neighbor’s yard seems to recognize Ginger’s voice when she calls out to it, Ginger quite naturally believes the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is her dog Sam. It turns out, however, that the dog in her neighbor’s back yard is in fact not Ginger’s dog but the Labrador of a visiting relative of her neighbor. On an internalist account of justification, since it turns out not to be true that Ginger saw her dog Sam in her neighbor’s back yard, Ginger was not justified in believing it was her own dog in the first place.
Question 20 While Clifford’s form of evidentialism may have its difficulties, most contemporary epistemologists agree that it is, at the very least, not a self¬defeating position, and this is part of what makes it a good option for epistemic justification.

Question 1 Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 2 A major criticism that internalism raises against externalism is:
Question 3 Clifford was a:
Question 4 When considering our noetic structure we recognize that we hold beliefs in varying degrees of strength.
Question 5 To say that a belief is defeasible is to say;
Question 6 The intellectual virtue of humility can be described as the mean between:
Question 7 For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 8 Aristotle thought that the virtues are present naturally in all people.
Question 9 Which is not one of the ways that Wood says moral and intellectual virtues parallel each other?
Question 10 Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 11 Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 12 According to Dew and Foreman, most rational people believe that it is extremely rarely for our senses to mislead us.
Question 13 When the used car salesman tells Steve that the particular car he is considering purchasing has less than fifteen thousand actual miles on it, Steve is, quite naturally, a bit skeptical about this claim, particularly since the car is over ten years old and looks a little worse for wear. In exhibiting this level of doubt, Steve is expressing:
Question 14 Hume thinks that, while we may assume connections of causality (i.e., every event has a cause), we never actually perceive a necessary connection of causality and therefore we cannot know a causal connection has actually occurred.
Question 15 One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
Question 16 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 17 Coherentism in epistemology is a position which holds that a particular belief is justified for a person so long as that belief is consistent with everything else that person holds to be true.
Question 18 If an individual is an externalist in terms of epistemic warrant, then that person thinks that
Question 19 Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
Question 20 According to reliabilism, in order for a person’s belief to be rational, that person must at least:

Question 1 Christopher Columbus was convinced that he discovered a route to the East Indies because it lined up with his maps and the current beliefs of his day. However, he was wrong. This example demonstrates a problem with:
Question 2 The doxastic assumption is:
Question 3 When considering our noetic structure we recognize that we hold beliefs in varying degrees of strength.
Question 4 By “high accessibility requirements” the internalist means:
Question 5 The areas on knowledge that Descartes doubted include:
Question 6 Intellectual courage helps us to:
Question 7 Which is not one of the ways that Wood says moral and intellectual virtues parallel each other?
Question 8 Carefulness is an intellectual virtue that helps us:
Question 9 Discussions of vice and virtues tend to arise within which major area of philosophy?
Question 10 For Aristotle, the “Golden Mean” points to fixed and universal ethical norms for all people to follow.
Question 11 One of the factors that fuels skepticism is our inability to demonstrate epistemic certainty about many of the beliefs we think are true.
Question 12 If Robert thinks that the only way in this world for a person to know whether God exists is to have some kind of sensory experience of God, along with an active mind that is able to process, structure and arrange ones experiences in a way that makes sense to him, then Robert would be following Kant in thinking that:
Question 13 Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 14 Hume thinks that, while we may assume connections of causality (i.e., every event has a cause), we never actually perceive a necessary connection of causality and therefore we cannot know a causal connection has actually occurred.
Question 15 When Descartes employs systematic doubt against the beliefs he holds, he discovers that:
Question 16 According to reliabilism, in order for a person’s belief to be rational, that person must at least:
Question 17 If an individual is an externalist in terms of epistemic warrant, then that person thinks that
Question 18 Select the one below that does NOT belong: To suggest that a person’s approach to justification is internalist is to suggest that
Question 19 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism
Question 20 It is a commonly accepted fact that it is impossible to be certain about any belief

Question 1 By “high accessibility requirements” the internalist means:
Question 2 To say that a belief is defeasible is to say;
Question 3 Coherentism holds that some beliefs are more foundational than others.
Question 4 David Hume was a:
Question 5 The doxastic assumption is:
Question 6 Thomas Aquinas thought that moral and intellectual virtues were closely related.
Question 7 Aristotle’s notion of happiness focused on:
Question 8 Humility helps us fight against intellectual vices like pride and vanity that keep us from seeing the truth.
Question 9 Being intellectually virtuous helps us to avoid common mistakes in our thinking that keeps us from knowledge.
Question 10 Virtue epistemologists think that intellectual virtues might helps us with the Gettier problem by:
Question 11 To suggest that we should suspend all judgments about any claim to knowledge, is to suggest a softer and mitigated form of skepticism in contrast to its more unmitigated expressions.
Question 12 Rather than having certainty about our beliefs, it is more likely that we have varying degrees of rational support for our beliefs.
Question 13 When the used car salesman tells Steve that the particular car he is considering purchasing has less than fifteen thousand actual miles on it, Steve is, quite naturally, a bit skeptical about this claim, particularly since the car is over ten years old and looks a little worse for wear. In exhibiting this level of doubt, Steve is expressing:
Question 14 If skepticism is an indefensible philosophical position to hold, then by the process of elimination, epistemic certainty is the only reasonable alternative.
Question 15 What is the point of Descartes’ evil demon argument?
Question 16 Those holding to some form of externalism in rationality tend to argue that, since it is impossible for persons to have any cognitive access to the reasons and evidence that support some of a person’s beliefs, internalists cannot be right with respect to their account of justification for all beliefs.
Question 17 If Jacob thinks there is overwhelming evidence for the existence of God, especially in light of what he thinks is the apparent design and fine¬tuning of the universe, but John claims that the obvious existence of evil argues against the rationality of Jacob’s belief in the existence of God, then John has
Question 18 Select the one below that does NOT belong: To suggest that a person’s approach to justification is internalist is to suggest that
Question 19 If a person thinks she has a moral responsibility to determine that any belief she holds is based on sufficient evidence, that is, evidence that strikes her as being based on indisputably good reasons or arguments, she is likely representing the epistemological position of
Question 20 Select the one below that is NOT a difficulty with W.K. Clifford’s approach to evidentialism

Q2. 201820 Spring 2018 PHIL 201-B08 LUO
• Question 1
3 out of 3 points
If love is regarded as a _________________ principle, then it needs to ground the principle of _________________ on more than simply utility.
Selected Answer:
Consequentialist; Distributive Justice
• Question 2
3 out of 3 points
The Ten Commandments are an example of:
Selected Answer:
Moral Rules

Q3. PHIL 201 Quiz 4 Liberty University
• Question 1
0 out of 3 points
Which of the following represents the key difference in thought from Descartes to Bacon?
Selected Answer:
critique of Aristotle
• Question 2
3 out of 3 points
Epicureans held to empiricism because:
Selected Answer:
They believed all of reality was composed of atoms

Q4. PHIL 201 Quiz 7 Answers Liberty University
Question 1 The most severe version of the problem of horrendous evil is
Question 2 The view advanced by C. S. Lewis in The Great Divorce is
Question 3 The argument that there is probably pointless suffering that renders God’s existence unlikely is called
Question 4 Criticisms of mild hell include that
Question 5 The problem of evil comes about when we try to reconcile
Question 6 The Bible tells us everything we need to know and can benefit from ethically.
Question 7 Ethics is about the ________ and about the _________:
Question 8 All religions are concerned with the promulgation of certain values and the cultivation of specific virtues except Christianity.
Question 9 Where in the Bible can one find ethical material?
Question 10 Which of the following is a way Scripture does NOT contribute to philosophical ethics?
Question 11 For virtues ethics the “good” is located in the:
Question 12 In the end, Dr. Martin appealed to what factor in answering the question of gratuitous evil:
Question 13 The pointecast presentation on why be moral would support the idea that each individual should be free to formulate his/her own ethical norms.
Question 14 Natural Law theory comes under the category of
Question 15 When I ask “Why am I doing this?” I am seeking the ___________ behind my action:
Question 16 The dependency thesis states that morality is a matter of independent, rational judgment.
Question 17 According to emotivism, moral language is basically ___________, because it is not empirical or analytic.
Question 18 Which thesis holds that morality is not a matter of independent rational judgment but is causally dependent on cultural context:
Question 19 Moral practices and beliefs do not vary from culture to culture; they are universal.
Question 20 What is really at stake in the dependency thesis is the question of __________ and ___________.

Q5. PHI 210 Assignment 2 Problem Solving(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)
PHI 210 Assignment 2 Problem Solving(6 pages word paper)

Q6. Responce paper Phil 201
Having completed the unit of philosophy of religion, you are now ready to respond to an article written by an actual atheist. This article titled “On Being an Atheist,” was written by H. J. McCloskey in 1968 for the journal Question. McCloskey is an Australian philosopher who wrote a number of atheistic works in the 1960s and 70s including the book God and Evil (Nijhoff, 1974). In this article, McCloskey is both critical of the classical arguments for God’s existence and offers the problem of evil as a reason why one should not believe in God. Please note the following parameters for this paper:

1. Your assignment is to read McCloskey’s short article found in the Reading & Study folder in Module/Week 7 and respond to each of the questions below. Your instructor is looking for a detailed response to each question.
2. The response paper is to be a minimum of 1,500 words (not including quotes) and must be written as a single essay and not just a list of answers to questions.
3. The basis for your answers must primarily come from the resources provided in the lessons covering the philosophy of religion unit of the course (Evans and Manis, Craig, and the presentation) and these sources must be mentioned in your paper. You are not merely to quote these sources as an answer to the question—answer them in your own words.
4. You may use other outside sources as well, as long as you properly document them. However, outside sources are not necessary. Each of the questions can be answered from the sources provided in the lessons.
5. While the use of the Bible is not restricted, its use is not necessary and is discouraged unless you intend to explain the context of the passage and how that context applies to the issue at hand in accordance with the guidelines provided earlier in the course. You are not to merely quote scripture passages as answers to the questions. Remember this is a philosophical essay not a biblical or theological essay.
6. While you may quote from sources, all quotations must be properly cited and quotes from sources will not count towards the 1,500 word count of the paper.
7. You may be critical of McCloskey, but must remain respectful. Any disparaging comment(s) about McCloskey will result in a significant reduction in grade.
8. Please note that this paper will be submitted through SafeAssign, which is a plagiarism detection program. The program is a database of previously submitted papers including copies of papers that have been located on the Internet. Once submitted, your paper will become part of the database as well. The program detects not only exact wording but similar wording. This means that if you plagiarize, it is very likely that it will be discovered. Plagiarism will result in a 0 for the paper and the likelihood of you being dropped from the course.

Specifically, you must address the following questions in your paper:

1. McCloskey refers to the arguments as “proofs” and often implies that they can’t definitively establish the case for God, so therefore they should be abandoned. What would you say about this in light of Foreman’s comments in his “Approaching the Question of God’s Existence” presentation?
2. On the Cosmological Argument:
a. McCloskey claims that the “mere existence of the world constitutes no reason for believing in such a being [i.e., a necessarily existing being].” Using Evans and Manis’ discussion of the non-temporal form of the argument (on pp. 69–77), explain why the cause of the universe must be necessary (and therefore uncaused).
b. McCloskey also claims that the cosmological argument “does not entitle us to postulate an all-powerful, all-perfect, uncaused cause.” In light of Evans and Manis’ final paragraph on the cosmological argument (p. 77), how might you respond to McCloskey?
3. On the Teleological Argument:
a. McCloskey claims that “to get the proof going, genuine indisputable examples of design and purpose are needed.” Discuss this standard of “indisputability” which he calls a “very conclusive objection.” Is it reasonable?
b. From your reading in Evans and Manis, can you offer an example of design that, while not necessarily “indisputable,” you believe provides strong evidence of a designer of the universe?
c. McCloskey implies that evolution has displaced the need for a designer. Assuming evolution is true, for argument’s sake, how would you respond to McCloskey (see Evans and Manis pp. 82–83)?
d. McCloskey claims that the presence of imperfection and evil in the world argues against “the perfection of the divine design or divine purpose in the world.” Remembering Evans’ comments about the limitations of the conclusion of the cosmological argument, how might you respond to McCloskey’s charge about the teleological argument?
4. On the Problem of Evil:
a. McCloskey’s main objection to theism is the presence of evil in the world and he raises it several times: “No being who was perfect could have created a world in which there was avoidable suffering or in which his creatures would (and in fact could have been created so as not to) engage in morally evil acts, acts which very often result in injury to innocent persons.” The language of this claim seems to imply that it is an example of the logical form of the problem. Given this implication and using Evans and Manis’ discussion of the logical problem (pp. 159–168, noting especially his concluding paragraphs to this section), how might you respond to McCloskey?

b. McCloskey specifically discusses the free will argument, asking “might not God have very easily so have arranged the world and biased man to virtue that men always freely chose what is right?” From what you have already learned about free will in the course, and what Evans and Manis says about the free will theodicy, especially the section on Mackie and Plantinga’s response (pp. 163–166) and what he says about the evidential problem (pp. 168–172), how would you respond to McCloskey’s question?
5. On Atheism as Comforting:
a. In the final pages of McCloskey’s article, he claims that atheism is more comforting than theism. Using the argument presented by William Lane Craig in the article “The Absurdity of Life without God,” (located in Reading & Study for Module/Week 6), respond to McCloskey’s claim.

Q7. Essay for KEVIN
Essay Instructions
Plato, Descartes, and The Matrix
In this unit, we have been discussing how we “know.” The modern American philosopher, Hilary Putnam, popularized a well-known thought experiment highlighting the problem of skepticism and our knowledge of reality. To understand Putnam’s experiment, we need to consider how we normally obtain knowledge of reality. Our knowledge of reality usually begins with sensory input. While each of our five senses perceives the world according to their individual means, we will use seeing as an example. Light is reflected off of objects and enters through our eyes, which focus an image of these objects to the back of our eyeball, where it hits our optic nerve. Our nerve transforms this image into electrical/neural impulses that travel through the optic nerve up to where it is plugged into the brain. The brain then processes these impulses where they are transformed into an image in our mind. What our minds experience is an image of the outside world, similar to how a television projects an image captured by a television camera.

In Putnam’s thought experiment, you imagine that your brain has been severed from the nerves connecting it to your senses (eyes, ears, nose, etc.) and has been removed from your skull and placed in a vat filled with the nutritional fluid necessary to keep your brain alive and functioning. Electrical wires have been spliced into your sensory nerves that are connected to the sensory inputs in your brain. The other ends of these wires are connected to the outputs of a giant super computer. A man sits at the keyboard of this super computer, inputting data. This data is transformed into electrical/neural impulses that travel through the spliced wire/sensory nerves and into your brain. The brain processes this information as if it were from your senses. Hence, you have whatever image the man at the keyboard wants you to have. Suppose he inputs data that you are sitting in a café in France, drinking an espresso. He includes all the usual sensory data, including the smell and taste of the coffee, the hardness of the chair and table, the cool breeze blowing by, the sounds of the traffic, and the view of the Eiffel Tower. You experience all of this exactly as if you are really there. In such a situation, you would have no idea that you (or at least your brain) are actually sitting in some vat in some laboratory.

In 1999, Putnam’s thought experiment became the basis of a megahit movie, The Matrix. However, Putnam was not the first to suggest that there may be a problem with perceiving and knowing reality. A number of philosophers have wrestled with this problem. This brings us to your assignment, described below.

In Module/Week 5’s Reading & Study folder, there are 3 short readings. Your assignment is to read them and then write an essay of at least 600 words (in current MLA, APA, or Turabian format) addressing some of the questions listed below (in the “Questions to Consider” section). You must address the first question; then, choose 1 of the other questions to address also.

While you are free to quote from sources, quotations will not count towards the minimum word count. Plagiarism of any kind will result in a 0 for the assignment and may result in being dropped from the course.

A note about the readings: The first reading is a synopsis of The Matrix. If you have seen the movie, this will function as a review for you. If you have not seen the movie, you may choose to do so. However, you should know that the movie is rated R for language and violence. It is not necessary to view the movie to fulfill the assignment, as the synopsis is enough to consider the questions. The second reading comes from Plato’s classic work, The Republic. It is in the form of a dialogue between Socrates and Glaucon, a brother of Plato, and contains the famous cave allegory. The third and final reading is a section from Meditation I, from Meditations on First Philosophy by Rene Descartes, who offers some reasons to doubt his senses.

Questions to Consider

1. Compare and contrast The Matrix with the readings from Plato and Descartes. What are some similarities and differences?

2. Can we prove that the world we are experiencing is real? How do we know we are not dreaming, living in a Platonic cave, or trapped in some sort of matrix?

3. At the end of the cave allegory, Socrates implies that most men would want to escape the cave and see reality as it really is. However, in his betrayal of Morpheus, Cypher implies that it is better to live in the artificial world of the Matrix. Which is better: the harshness of reality, or the “ignorance is bliss” of illusion? Defend your answer.

4. Since much of our knowledge is based on sensory experience, and since our senses are imperfect and can be deceived, can we ever be certain that our beliefs are true? Defend or explain your answer.

Q8. Organizational and Strategic leadership
Question:
Discuss about the case study Organizational Leadership and strategic leadership roles in American history

Q9. Critical Writing Assignment
Writing assignment (critical) 10-12 pt. double spaced 3-5 pages. Defend a thesis and proceed according to the following format: Thesis, Arument, Objective(S), Response (S), Conclusion.
Clifford’s evidentialist argument from module 2 and then contrast Clifford’s position with one of the non evidentialist positions encountered Module 6. Deciding which position, evidentialism or nonevidentialism, more closely aligns with your own point of view and argue for that position.
Citations and any additional sources must be properly cited using MLA format.
Due Sunday 8/5/18 by 11:59

Q10. PHIL 201 Quiz 8 Liberty University | Complete Solution
PHIL 201 Quiz 8 Answers Liberty University | Complete Solution

The below shown questions is just one version sample.
Download the solution .PDF document for the complete different version solutions and get A grade.

Question 1 What is one of the two alternatives to the consequentialist response to moral dilemmas of trying to minimize the bad and maximize the good, do deontologists provide?
Question 2 Which ethic presupposes that no universal and lasting structures to human life exist:
Question 3 If love is regarded as a _________________ principle, then it needs to ground the principle of _________________ on more than simply utility.
Question 4 Which of these is not one of Holmes’ aspects of moral reasoning for Christians?
Question 5 What is the highest end for Christians?
Question 6 Which of these is not an example of how Aristotle viewed virtues as relative to excess and deficiency?
Question 7 Which one of the below is NOT what Eudaimonia means:
Question 8 Which of the following is not one of Plato’s four cardinal virtues:
Question 9 Stanley Hauerwas has stressed the crucial role of Christian ____________ in moral formation.
Question 10 According to Aristotle, the less virtuous are simply weak¬willed people who act out of ignorance and need education.
Question 11 Ethical egoism seeks a social order where conflicting self¬interests can be brought together in a peaceable and orderly way.
Question 12 The fact that we cannot logically derive ethical conclusions from merely empirical observations is called:
Question 13 A person wants to attend seminary to become more knowledgeable about the Scriptures and theology than others while earning a prestigious graduate degree. But this person also wants to become a pastor and be able to serve others with their education. Which philosopher would be most supportive of this desire?
Question 14 Holmes states that a non¬consequential decision is needed as to the _______ of consequence we are to seek.
Question 15 What process did Jeremy Bentham propose to quantify pleasure versus pain with regards to which action one should take:
Question 16 Pragmatic means:
Question 17 Some deontologists equate the right with the good.
Question 18 That which has value in and of itself:
Question 19 According to deontology, what justifies the means:
Question 20 Consequentialism is not interested in keeping rules at all.

RELIGIOUSN STUDY
Q1. 2019 Answer key BIBL 104 Quiz 8 Final complete solutions correct answers A+
BIBL 104 Quiz 8 Final
• Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Jude wants believers to contend actively and aggressively for the fundamentals of the Christian faith.
Selected Answer:

• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
Almost half of the twenty-five verse in Jude share a similar thought, idea, or example with material from 2 Peter.
Selected Answer:

• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
According to the author of Hebrews, In light of what Jesus has done, believers are encouraged to:
Selected Answer:

• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Peter believers are identified as
Selected Answer:

• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
In Jesus’ priestly duties, he offered his own blood once and for all.
Selected Answer:

• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
In the seven seal judgments the black horse stands for bloodshed
Selected Answer:

• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not something John claimed about love in 1 John?
Selected Answer:

• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to 1 Peter, Christ is the
Selected Answer:

• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
James believes that those who only hear the Word of God deceive themselves
Selected Answer:

• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
James uses two Old Testament illustrations to show the works of people who were saved by faith. One of these is
Selected Answer:

• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
______________ was one of the three people in the inner circle of our Lord’s disciples
Selected Answer:

• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the emphasis of Revelation is to assure us that Jesus is indeed, coming again.
Selected Answer:

• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
___________ was the persevering church
Selected Answer:

• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
James warns believers about
Selected Answer:

• Question 15
1 out of 1 points
The author of Hebrews explains what it means for Jesus to be the Mediator of a better covenant.
Selected Answer:

• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
In 1 John, John reminds his audience that those who profess to know Jesus yet do not keep His commandments are liars and the truth is not in them.
Selected Answer:

• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
According to 1 Peter, Christians viewed themselves “as God’s slaves.” This meant that they were truly free from the dominion of the world.
Selected Answer:

• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
The book of Hebrews contains 5 warnings. One of these warnings is
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
Jude directs his readers to “contend for the church that was instituted for the communion of the saints and the salvation of the world.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
Hebrews compares Jesus’ priesthood with ___________ priesthood.
Selected Answer:

• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
According to the writer of Hebrews, believers should stand firm in their confession because they have something those following Moses did not have. They have Jesus, the Son of God, as their Great High Priest.
Selected Answer:

• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
In 1 John, John remind his audience what they already know, specifically that God hears and grants their prayer requests.
Selected Answer:

• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
As a sinless priest, Jesus did not have to offer sacrifices for Himself as Aaron did.
Selected Answer:

• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
In the new eternal city eternal city sin, rebellion, sorrow, sickness, pain, and death are eliminated.
Selected Answer:

• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not one of the new things found in the eternal state?
Selected Answer:

• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
In the seven trumpets of judgment the sun is darkened through air pollution.
Selected Answer:
True
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Jude describes false teachers as
Selected Answer:

• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, some feel that James’ teaching on faith and works runs counter to the teachings of
Selected Answer:

• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not one of the sevens that form the outline for the book of Revelation?
Selected Answer:

• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the book of Revelation ends with a dramatic postscript which describes the millennium in which Satan is bound in the abyss and Christ and His saints rule the world with a “rod of iron.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
James teaches that God is waiting to give wisdom to anyone who asks for it
Selected Answer:

• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, some scholars view Hebrews as a sermon or even as a series of sermons.
Selected Answer:

• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In light of what Jesus has done, the author encourages his audience to:
Selected Answer:

• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
The book of Hebrews contains 5 warnings. One of these warnings is
Selected Answer:

• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to the author of Hebrews, Jesus’ priestly duties were not performed in an earthly sanctuary, a mere copy of the heavenly, but in the heavenly sanctuary itself.
Selected Answer:
True
• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
_____________ was the powerless church
Selected Answer:

• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Jude uniquely ties together doctrinal error with the immoral lifestyle of false teachers suggesting immorality leads to heresy.
Selected Answer:

• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
In 3 John, John acknowledges that Diotrophes refusal to be corrected will lead to his exposure when John arrives.
Selected Answer:

• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
According to 1Peter, believers should submit to every Christian institution in order to
silence the unfounded criticism of unbelievers.
Selected Answer:

• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Jude’s reference to both Old Testament examples and those of Jewish non-canonical books indicate his readers were Jewish Christians.
Selected Answer:

• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the author of 2 John is most likely not the same author as 1
John.
Selected Answer:
False
• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
____________ was the prosperous church
Selected Answer:

• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
In James’ discussion on hearing and doing he uses the example of
Selected Answer:

• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
Jude describes false teachers as
Selected Answer:
fruitless trees
• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
Hebrews begins by asserting that Jesus is greater than
Selected Answer:

• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
____________ was the persecuted church.
Selected Answer:

• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
In 2 John, John expresses the joy he felt when he learned that some members of the recipient’s church body were following the Father’s command to walk in truth.
Selected Answer:

• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
The rock of refuge represents the church and believers everywhere and is one of the seven symbolic players in the eschatological drama of the book of Revelation.
Selected Answer:

• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
The author of Hebrews list several personal examples of faith. From this list select the one Biblical character that is not mentioned by the author of Hebrews in Hebrews 11:1-40.
Selected Answer:

• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
The author of 2 John and 3 John calls himself
Selected Answer:

Q2. 2019 Answer key Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 7
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.
Selected Answer:

• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.
Selected Answer:

• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on
Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.
Selected Answer:

• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are
“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.
Selected Answer:

• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
1 Timothy can be divided into two sections. The first section deals with _____________
while the second section deals with personal instructions.
Selected Answer:

• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, of all the cities where Paul ministered, perhaps the __________
had more evidence of Satanic activity and demonic oppression than any other place.
Selected Answer:

• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 2 Thessalonians that the Day of the Lord
will not begin until the “man of lawlessness” (the Antichrist) is revealed.
Selected Answer:

• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
Paul reminds the Colossians to focus on their heavenly standing because “you have
been raised with the Messiah, seek what is above, where the Messiah is, seated at the right hand of God. Set your minds on what is above.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
In the letter of ___________, Paul emphasized that believers can experience true joy by
living out the mind of Christ within the body of Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in
and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his
weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.
Selected Answer:

• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul’s pastoral letters emphasize the importance of
Selected Answer:

• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He
makes this conclusion through allegorically explaining the stories of
Selected Answer:

• Question 15
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Timothy Paul argues that pastors should get paid but should not be appointed
until they have proven they are of godly character.
Selected Answer:

• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, the story of ____________ demonstrates that salvation and
God’s righteousness are God’s gift through faith.
Selected Answer:

• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their
persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.
Selected Answer:

• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
First Corinthians is a pastoral letter to a local church from a father addressing his
spiritually erring children
Selected Answer:

• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
At the bottom of all the problems addressed in First Corinthians was a self-serving,
indulgent attitude. This attitude stood in contrast to the death of Christ as a self-giving sacrifice for the sins of others.
Selected Answer:

• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.
Selected Answer:

• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
Some scholars believe that the absence of personal greetings in Ephesians suggests that
neither did Paul found the church in Ephesus nor did he know anyone in the church.
Selected Answer:

• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
Paul and Epaphras visited Colossae and founded the church in Colossae after
ministering in Ephesus.
Selected Answer:
False
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.
Selected Answer:

• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
One of Paul’s principal achievements was that he wrote thirteen books of the New
Testament, which are a primary source of theological information
Selected Answer:

• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.
Selected Answer:

• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of
Selected Answer:

• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Paul founded the church in Rome on his first missionary journey.
Selected Answer:

• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
In the first section of Romans Paul shows that _____________ are under condemnation.
Selected Answer:

• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that the whole world is under sin and therefore guilty before
God.
Selected Answer:

• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
_____________, a wealthy businessman who lived in Colossae, owned slaves, and the
church met in his house.
Selected Answer:

• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament
truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.
Selected Answer:

• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul tells Philemon to receive back his runaway slave “on the basis of
love.” Paul is suggesting Philemon not only forgive his crimes but also give Onesimus his freedom.
Selected Answer:

• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that all are accountable and no one can be justified by his own
good works, with or without the law.
Selected Answer:

• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s letters to the Corinthians deal with the challenges of Christians living in a hostile
culture.
Selected Answer:

• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is
that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.
Selected Answer:

• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law
is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for
both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to
Selected Answer:

• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they
should have dealt with this sin problem.
Selected Answer:

• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances
but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.
Selected Answer:

• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He
breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.
Selected Answer:

• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
The book of Colossians can be divided into two section. The first section is a section of
doctrine and the second section is a section on
Selected Answer:

• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Galatians, the law locked imprisoned us, but provided no remedy.
Only faith in Christ can atone for sin and free us from the law’s condemnation.
Selected Answer:

• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is
the Bridegroom.
Selected Answer:

• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul refused to answer any questions the Corinthians had until
they had corrected their three current issues.
Selected Answer:

• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesian, Paul pictures believers as being “in Christ.” This is a special relationship
with God because they are perfect in Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, sanctification includes the imputation of God’s
righteousness by means of faith in Jesus Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the
resurrection of believers.
Selected Answer:

• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul uses ___________ as an example of one justified by faith.
Selected Answer:

• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul seems to sum up the Colossian heresy of gnosis calling it,
“Philosophy and empty deceit based on human tradition, based on the elemental forces of the world.”
Selected Answer:

Q3. 2019 Answer key Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 4
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Paul sees believers as having three chief duties. One of these duties is towards the
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul reminds the Thessalonians that their fellow believers
who have died will all be resurrected and translated (glorified) together, to be with Christ forever.
Selected Answer:

• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The church at Thessalonica was founded by Paul during his first missionary journey.
Selected Answer:

• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
_____________ emphasizes the coming judgment on the enemies of Christ and focuses on
Satan, the Antichrist, and the world.
Selected Answer:

• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
Epistles are the most common literary form in the New Testament. They are
“occasional” letters; that is, they were designed to deal with specific situations.
Selected Answer:

• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
1 Timothy can be divided into two sections. The first section deals with _____________
while the second section deals with personal instructions.
Selected Answer:

• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, of all the cities where Paul ministered, perhaps the __________
had more evidence of Satanic activity and demonic oppression than any other place.
Selected Answer:

• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 2 Thessalonians that the Day of the Lord
will not begin until the “man of lawlessness” (the Antichrist) is revealed.
Selected Answer:

• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
Paul reminds the Colossians to focus on their heavenly standing because “you have
been raised with the Messiah, seek what is above, where the Messiah is, seated at the right hand of God. Set your minds on what is above.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
In the letter of ___________, Paul emphasized that believers can experience true joy by
living out the mind of Christ within the body of Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, justification is the impartation of God’s righteousness in
and through the believer to conform him progressively to the image of Jesus Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
In order to demonstrate the self-sacrifice and humility of Jesus, Paul boasted in his
weakness rather than his strength in 2 Corinthians.
Selected Answer:

• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Paul’s pastoral letters emphasize the importance of
Selected Answer:

• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul’s conclusion was that “we are not children of the slave but of the free.” He
makes this conclusion through allegorically explaining the stories of
Selected Answer:

• Question 15
1 out of 1 points
In 1 Timothy Paul argues that pastors should get paid but should not be appointed
until they have proven they are of godly character.
Selected Answer:

• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, the story of ____________ demonstrates that salvation and
God’s righteousness are God’s gift through faith.
Selected Answer:

• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their
persecutors and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.
Selected Answer:

• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
First Corinthians is a pastoral letter to a local church from a father addressing his
spiritually erring children
Selected Answer:

• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
At the bottom of all the problems addressed in First Corinthians was a self-serving,
indulgent attitude. This attitude stood in contrast to the death of Christ as a self-giving sacrifice for the sins of others.
Selected Answer:

• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
__________ is a short and extremely practical book that is focused primarily on church
ministry and, secondarily, on Christian discipleship.
Selected Answer:

• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
Some scholars believe that the absence of personal greetings in Ephesians suggests that
neither did Paul found the church in Ephesus nor did he know anyone in the church.
Selected Answer:

• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
Paul and Epaphras visited Colossae and founded the church in Colossae after
ministering in Ephesus.
Selected Answer:
False
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
__________ was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.
Selected Answer:

• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
One of Paul’s principal achievements was that he wrote thirteen books of the New
Testament, which are a primary source of theological information
Selected Answer:

• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.
Selected Answer:

• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul contrasted the permanence of love to the temporary nature of
Selected Answer:

• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Paul founded the church in Rome on his first missionary journey.
Selected Answer:

• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
In the first section of Romans Paul shows that _____________ are under condemnation.
Selected Answer:

• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that the whole world is under sin and therefore guilty before
God.
Selected Answer:

• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
_____________, a wealthy businessman who lived in Colossae, owned slaves, and the
church met in his house.
Selected Answer:

• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul explains that true biblical wisdom was based on Old Testament
truth, but now it is even more “fully known” through Christ’s Apostles.
Selected Answer:

• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul tells Philemon to receive back his runaway slave “on the basis of
love.” Paul is suggesting Philemon not only forgive his crimes but also give Onesimus his freedom.
Selected Answer:

• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In Romans Paul shows that all are accountable and no one can be justified by his own
good works, with or without the law.
Selected Answer:

• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
Paul’s letters to the Corinthians deal with the challenges of Christians living in a hostile
culture.
Selected Answer:

• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 1 Thessalonians, the will of God for the Thessalonian believers is
that they might be progressively sanctified and have a strong hope for the future.
Selected Answer:

• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law
is no longer necessary because Christ took “it out of the way by nailing it to the cross.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for
both the crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to
Selected Answer:

• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they
should have dealt with this sin problem.
Selected Answer:

• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances
but rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.
Selected Answer:

• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He
breathed inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.
Selected Answer:

• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
The book of Colossians can be divided into two section. The first section is a section of
doctrine and the second section is a section on
Selected Answer:

• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Galatians, the law locked imprisoned us, but provided no remedy.
Only faith in Christ can atone for sin and free us from the law’s condemnation.
Selected Answer:

• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is
the Bridegroom.
Selected Answer:

• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
In First Corinthians, Paul refused to answer any questions the Corinthians had until
they had corrected their three current issues.
Selected Answer:

• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
In Ephesian, Paul pictures believers as being “in Christ.” This is a special relationship
with God because they are perfect in Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
According to Paul in Romans, sanctification includes the imputation of God’s
righteousness by means of faith in Jesus Christ.
Selected Answer:

• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
In the Corinthian church some believed in Christ’s resurrection but not in the
resurrection of believers.
Selected Answer:

• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
In Galatians, Paul uses ___________ as an example of one justified by faith.
Selected Answer:

• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
In Colossians, Paul seems to sum up the Colossian heresy of gnosis calling it,
“Philosophy and empty deceit based on human tradition, based on the elemental forces of the world.”
Selected Answer:

Q4. 2019 Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 6 complete solutions
• Question 1
2 out of 2 points
______________ became the first Christian martyred for preaching the gospel.
Selected Answer:

• Question 2
0 out of 2 points
The author of Acts is clearly not an eyewitness of much of what he writes about.
Selected Answer:

• Question 3
2 out of 2 points
Who did Paul take with him on his second missionary journey.
Selected Answer:

• Question 4
2 out of 2 points
According to our textbook, the Acts of the Apostles” isn’t a survey of the ministry of all twelve disciples; rather it is about ____________ and _____________.
Selected Answer:

• Question 5
2 out of 2 points
The book of Acts includes twenty-three ___________ which make up one-third of the book.
Selected Answer:

• Question 6
2 out of 2 points
The book of Acts is filled with gospel preaching, including sermons by Peter, __________, and Paul.
Selected Answer:

• Question 7
2 out of 2 points
While at Perga on his first missionary journey, _____________ left and returned to Jerusalem while Paul and Barnabas went on.
Selected Answer:
• Question 8
2 out of 2 points
The Holy Spirit was poured out on the believers at _______________.
Selected Answer:
• Question 9
2 out of 2 points
__________, pastor of the Jerusalem church, presided over the council.
Selected Answer:

• Question 10
2 out of 2 points
Church leadership in Acts consisted of deacons but not elders.
Selected Answer:

• Question 11
2 out of 2 points
According to our textbook, there are five key ideas in the book of Acts. _____________ is one of these ideas.
Selected Answer:

• Question 12
2 out of 2 points
What member of the Jewish Sanhedrin was converted to Christ on the road to Damascus.
Selected Answer:

• Question 13
2 out of 2 points
The birth and growth of the church in Acts reveals God’s plan to take the gospel to the world as an extension of the Jewish messianic hope from its beginning in Jewish Jerusalem to the heart of the Gentile world in Rome.
Selected Answer:

• Question 14
0 out of 2 points
Paul begins his third missionary journey from
Selected Answer:
• Question 15
2 out of 2 points
On Paul’s first missionary journey he took ___________ and ___________ with him.
Selected Answer:
Barnabas/ John Mark
• Question 16
2 out of 2 points
Jewish authorities finally arrested Paul at __________ where he defended himself before the Sanhedrin.
Selected Answer:
• Question 17
2 out of 2 points
On his second missionary journey, Paul receives a vision at ________ that encourages him to travel to Macedonia.
Selected Answer:

• Question 18
2 out of 2 points
In ______________ on their first missionary journey, Paul and Barnabas were mistaken for gods.
Selected Answer:

• Question 19
2 out of 2 points
Paul asked ________________ to join him in his work at Lystra while on his second missionary journey.
Selected Answer:

• Question 20
2 out of 2 points
While ministering ______________ during his first missionary journey, a Jewish magician was struck blind and a Roman proconsul was converted.
Selected Answer:

• Question 21
2 out of 2 points
The convert Saul would eventually exchange his Jewish name for the Greco-Roman name ___________, as he expanded his ministry to the Gentiles.
Selected Answer:

• Question 22
2 out of 2 points
A serious disagreement arose at Antioch as to whether the new Gentile converts
Selected Answer:

• Question 23
2 out of 2 points
According to our textbook, the birth of the church to place in Jerusalem at _____________.
Selected Answer:

• Question 24
2 out of 2 points
According to our textbook, there are five key ideas in the book of Acts. _____________ is one of these ideas.
Selected Answer:

• Question 25
2 out of 2 points
In __________ on his second missionary journey, Paul speaks to the Areopagus.
Selected Answer:

Q5. 2019 Answer key to Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 5

42 out of 50 points
Time Elapsed
55 minutes out of 1 hour and 30 minutes
Instructions
• Time limit: 1 hour and 30 minutes
• 50 true/false and multiple-choice questions
• Open-book/open-notes
• Do not hit the BACK button as this will lock you out of the quiz.
• The timer will continue if you leave this quiz without submitting it.
Results Displayed
Submitted Answers, Feedback
• Question 1
1 out of 1 points
John views the soldiers’ division of Jesus’ clothes is viewed as a prophetic fulfillment.
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
John addresses his Gospel to Theophilus who may have been a Roman official or a nobleman who recently became a Christian.
Selected Answer:
• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of John can be divided into two sections. The first section is the _____________ and the second section is the Book of Glory.
Selected Answer:
• Question 4
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?
Selected Answer:
• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
The book of Jude belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Selected Answer:
• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
According to our textbook, the book of Revelation is written in apocalyptic symbolism and makes use of numbers, animals, and colors as graphic symbols of prophetic realties.
Selected Answer:
• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
The book of Mark belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Selected Answer:
• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
John wants Theophilus and other readers to “know the certainty of the things about which you have been instructed.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
Luke’s portrait of Christ is that of
Selected Answer:
• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
The passion week of Jesus life took place in the city of Nazareth since he was known as Jesus of Nazareth.
Selected Answer:
• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Selected Answer:
• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
Matthew’s Gospel describes five extended teaching sessions, which are arranged in five major discourses. This was done so that readers could better follow what Jesus said about specific subjects.
Selected Answer:
• Question 13
0 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?
Selected Answer:
• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
The Acts of the Apostles covers the time from Pentecost to Paul’s imprisonment.
Selected Answer:
• Question 15
1 out of 1 points
In order to speed up Jesus’ death so that it did not conflict with the Sabbath, the Jesus legs were broken at the request of the religious leaders.
Selected Answer:
• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.
Selected Answer:
• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
The New Testament begins with the first coming of Christ and ends with the promise of His Second Coming.
Selected Answer:
• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospels, __________, Paul’s physician-missionary, writes with the Greek mentality in view.
Selected Answer:
• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
All the authors of the New Testament were Jews, with the possible exception of the Roman citizen Paul.
Selected Answer:
• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
The content of the New Testament Letters is doctrinal and personal.
Selected Answer:
• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
The book of Philemon belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
Selected Answer:
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am” declarations is:
Selected Answer:
• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
According to early church tradition, Mark was a close disciple of James, the brother of Jesus. So, he heard James tell and retell the stories about Jesus everywhere they went.
Selected Answer:
• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?
Selected Answer:
• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of _____________ is the only Gospel to mention that Jesus was a carpenter during His early adulthood.
Selected Answer:
Mark
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
Jesus was buried in a new tomb by Nicodemus and Joseph of Arimathea.
Selected Answer:
• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
The book of Revelation was written by John on the island of
Selected Answer:
• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
Because Luke was a physician, there seems to be an interest in sickness and healing in the Third Gospel.
Selected Answer:
• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
Matthew originally crafted this Gospel for a group of Christians who needed to become more familiar with the Old Testament.
Selected Answer:

• Question 31
0 out of 1 points
In Matthew, the Parables of the Kingdom contrasts the righteousness of the kingdom of heaven with the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees.
Selected Answer:

• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following people wrote at least one letter that is included in the New Testament canon.
Selected Answer:

• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
In the Gospel of Mark there is only one quote from the Old Testament and a marked absence of references to the law of Moses.
Selected Answer:

• Question 34
0 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is
Selected Answer:

• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
The Mark who authored the Gospel of Mark is not the John Mark that Paul did not want to take with him on his second missionary journey.
Selected Answer:

• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
At his crucifixion Jesus asked for a drink. John view this as a prophetic fulfillment.
Selected Answer:

• Question 38
0 out of 1 points
Jesus asked James three times, “Do you love Me?” Upon Peter’s positive confession Jesus recommissioned him to service.
Selected Answer:

• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?
Selected Answer:

• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Matthew’s Gospel names no audience for its message other than that which is implied in its Great Commission. Its message was ultimately intended to go to “all nations.”
Selected Answer:

• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
John’s portrait of Christ is that of
Selected Answer:

• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
The Gospel of Matthew is the most comprehensive of the four Gospels.
Selected Answer:

• Question 43
0 out of 1 points
Mark recounts nearly _______ miracles of Jesus.
Selected Answer:

• Question 44
0 out of 1 points
Matthew’s Gospel opens with the genealogy of Jesus traced all the way back through King David and concluding with Isaac who was the child of promise.
Selected Answer:

• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a conclusion.
Selected Answer:

• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
During Jesus’ post-resurrection appearances He comforted Mary, convinced Thomas of His resurrection, and reassured Peter that he was forgiven for denying Him.
Selected Answer:

• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
The New Testament Epistles are personal letters written to churches and individuals.
Selected Answer:

• Question 48
0 out of 1 points
According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven miraculous signs. One of these signs is
Selected Answer:

• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
Luke’s Gospel is the most universal Gospel because the good news about Jesus is for the whole world, not for the Jews only.
Selected Answer:

• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
The last twelve verses of Mark are included in the KJV but modern translations like the NASB, NKJV, ESV, HCSB, and NIV usually use footnotes or a combination of footnotes and brackets to indicate that some manuscripts lack the verses.
Selected Answer:

Q6. 2019 Answers to Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 4

Liberty University BIBL 104 quiz 4 Answers 2019
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
In Haggai’s final message the Lord promised to bless Zerubbabel who was the weak governor of Judah and a member of the house of David.
Selected Answer:
• Question 2
1 out of 1 points
Amos opened his book of prophecies with the startling image of God as a ___________. Rather than protecting them, Yahweh would roar out in judgment against them.
Selected Answer:
• Question 3
1 out of 1 points
According to Lamentations, Jerusalem’s fate was worse than that of Sodom.
Selected Answer:
• Question 4
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy depicts one whose government is marked by grace and truth.
Selected Answer:
• Question 5
1 out of 1 points
In Malachi, God denounces His people by raising the question of
Selected Answer:
• Question 6
1 out of 1 points
Habakkuk’s message is a personal one in which the prophet laments and dialogues with the Lord over the justice of His ways in using the Babylonians to punish Judah’s sins.
Selected Answer:
• Question 7
1 out of 1 points
In Malachi, the Lord promised that He would send the prophet _________ prior to the future Day of the Lord to restore His people.
Selected Answer:
• Question 8
1 out of 1 points
According to Micah, because the rich deprived the poor of their land, the Lord would now do the same to them.
Selected Answer:
• Question 9
1 out of 1 points
_________ is the shortest book in the Old Testament.
Selected Answer:
• Question 10
1 out of 1 points
Hosea charged Israel with three separate indictments. One of these indictments indicated that “They have broken the covenant; they were unfaithful to me there.” (Hos. 6:7)
Selected Answer:
• Question 11
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the key word(s) for the book of Lamentations is Faithful love which means chêsêd in Hebrew.
Selected Answer:
• Question 12
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy in Isaiah makes clear that this is not a typical human child because he is described as a “Might Savior.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 13
1 out of 1 points
Edom was lifted up because of excessive pride. They trusted in their political and military advisors for their security.
Selected Answer:
• Question 14
1 out of 1 points
Like a con artist, Nineveh had seduced other nations into alliances and then had
betrayed them because of her greed and lust for wealth.
Selected Answer:
• Question 15
0 out of 1 points
The book of Ezekiel is structured around seven visions of the Lord.
Selected Answer:
• Question 16
1 out of 1 points
Luke 22:37 quotes from Isa 53:12 (“And he was numbered with the transgressors”) as evidence that Jesus is Isaiah’s suffering servant.
Selected Answer:
• Question 17
1 out of 1 points
In his first vision, Zechariah saw a flying scroll that measured thirty feet by fifteen feet and was covered with written curses against those who had broken God’s commandments
Selected Answer:
• Question 18
1 out of 1 points
Amos’ prophecies of judgment demanded a response because they were not absolute predictions of what must happen in the future as much as they were warnings of what would happen if Israel did not repent and change its ways.
Selected Answer:
• Question 19
1 out of 1 points
______________ is the central theme of the book of Zephaniah.
Selected Answer:
• Question 20
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, the New Testament explains that John the Baptist is the fulfillment of the messenger prophesied by Malachi.
Selected Answer:
• Question 21
1 out of 1 points
Edom was lifted up because of excessive pride. They believed their mountain fortresses made them invulnerable to enemy attack.
Selected Answer:
• Question 22
1 out of 1 points
The book of Malachi is structured around disputations in which the Lord dialogues with His people in a series of questions and answers.
Selected Answer:
• Question 23
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy depicts one whose government is from the throne of David.
Selected Answer:
• Question 24
1 out of 1 points
Amos concluded his prophecies of unrelenting judgment with a message of hope concerning Israel’s future restoration. God promised:
Selected Answer:
• Question 25
1 out of 1 points
According to the textbook, Zephaniah’s ministry reminds us of the importance of preaching which confronts evil, calls for repentance, and leads to revival.
Selected Answer:
True
• Question 26
1 out of 1 points
Lamentations reveals that, as the Divine Warrior, the Lord poured out His anger on the city of Jerusalem. However, He would not abandon the Temple for it was His own sanctuary.
Selected Answer:
• Question 27
1 out of 1 points
The ultimate fulfillment of the Immanuel prophecy in Isaiah was the virgin birth of Jesus Christ, who was literally God incarnate and who would preserve the line of David forever.
Selected Answer:
• Question 28
1 out of 1 points
Ezekiel’s vision of _____________ confirmed the Lord’s promise to restore and spiritually renew the people of Israel.
Selected Answer:
• Question 29
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy in Isaiah makes clear that this is not a typical human child because he is described as an “Everlasting Father.”
Selected Answer:
• Question 30
1 out of 1 points
Daniel was thrown into a lion’s den because he refused to stop praying.
Selected Answer:
• Question 31
1 out of 1 points
Nebuchadnezzar built a golden statue and required Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego, as well all of his government officials to worship this statue when certain music played.
Selected Answer:
• Question 32
1 out of 1 points
The book of Lamentations is a series of five separate laments over the fall of Jerusalem to the __________.
Selected Answer:
• Question 33
1 out of 1 points
The Babylonians allowed Jeremiah to remain in the land of Judah, and he ministered there until he and his scribe Baruch were kidnapped by a faction of Jews and taken away as hostages to Egypt.
Selected Answer:
• Question 34
1 out of 1 points
The enormity of the temple rebuilding process, economic hardships, and opposition from the surrounding peoples stalled the project for sixteen months.
Selected Answer:
• Question 35
1 out of 1 points
According to Nahum, God’s justice demanded the Assyrians experience the suffering and degradation they inflicted on others.
Selected Answer:
• Question 36
1 out of 1 points
Hosea compared Israel’s unfaithfulness to spoiled grapes, a wild vine, a trained heifer, and a rebellious daughter.
Selected Answer:
• Question 37
1 out of 1 points
Zephaniah began his ministry at approximately the same time as Ezekiel.
Selected Answer:
• Question 38
1 out of 1 points
The ____________ were descendants of Esau and had a stormy relationship with Israel throughout their history.
Selected Answer:
• Question 39
1 out of 1 points
The book of Lamentations is an anonymous composition but early tradition identifies ___________ as the author of the book.
Selected Answer:
• Question 40
1 out of 1 points
Peter cites and quotes from Isa 53:4–5, 9, 11–12 (“He committed no sin, and no deceit was found in his mouth,” and “by his wounds you have been healed”) in 1 Peter 2:21-25 as evidence that Jesus is Isaiah’s suffering servant.
Selected Answer:
• Question 41
1 out of 1 points
The story of Jonah is a reminder that the Lord’s plan of salvation extends beyond Israel to include all the nations, even those who were Israel’s greatest enemies.
Selected Answer:
• Question 42
1 out of 1 points
In Isaiah, Christ is pictured as a suffering servant.
Selected Answer:
• Question 43
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy in Isaiah makes clear that this is not a typical human child because he is described as a “Wonderful Counselor”
Selected Answer:
• Question 44
1 out of 1 points
One lament in Lamentations features a beleaguered individual who probably is the personification of the city of Jerusalem.
Selected Answer:
• Question 45
1 out of 1 points
In the final section of the book of Micah, God’s relationship to His people is presented as
Selected Answer:
• Question 46
1 out of 1 points
In Malachi, God denounces His people by raising the question of
Selected Answer:
• Question 47
1 out of 1 points
The judgment of the Edomites is a reminder that God stands opposed to all forms of human arrogance and pride.
Selected Answer:
• Question 48
1 out of 1 points
In Isaiah, Christ is pictured as the bread of life.
Selected Answer:
• Question 49
1 out of 1 points
Habakkuk’s third question was:
Selected Answer:
• Question 50
1 out of 1 points
The Immanuel prophecy depicts one whose reigns forever.
Selected Answer:

Q7. Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 10
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 10
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 10

Q8. Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 9
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 9
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 9
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 9

Q9. Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 8
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 8
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 8
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 8

Q10. Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 7
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 7
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 7
Liberty University HIEU 201 Quiz chapter 7

CHEMISTRY.

Q1. Citric Acid Cycle

 

Balance Sheet for the Citric Acid Cycle The citric acid cycle has eight enzymes: citrate synthase, aconitase, isocitrate dehydrogenase, a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase, succinyl-CoA synthetase, succinate dehydrogenase, fumarase, and malate dehydrogenase. (a) Write a balanced equation for the reaction catalyzed by each enzyme. (b) Name the cofactor(s) required by each enzyme reaction. (c) For each enzyme determine which of the following describes the type of reaction(s) catalyzed: condensation (carbon–carbon bond formation); dehydration (loss of water); hydration (addition of water); decarboxylation (loss of CO2); oxidation-reduction; substrate-level phosphorylation; isomerization. (d) Write a balanced net equation for the catabolism of acetyl-CoA to CO2

 

Q2. Chapter 17 – Acid-Base (Proton Transfer) Reactions

 

Chapter 17 – Acid-Base (Proton Transfer) Reactions

 

According to the Arrhenius definition, what is the substance that provides hydroxide ions in solution?

Solvent

Precipitate

Base

Acid

Salt

 

According to Arrhenius theory, what is an acid?

  1. A substance that contains a high concentration of hydrogen ions in solutions with water.
  2. A substance that will lower the hydrogen ion concentration when placed in water.
  3. A substance that has an H in its formula.
  4. An electron pair donor.
  5. An electron pair acceptor.

 

Which of the following is not capable of acting like a Brønsted–Lowry base?

  1. H2O()
  2. NH4+ion
  3. Clion
  4. HNO3(aq)
  5. H2PO4(aq)

 

Which of the following cannot act as a Brønsted–Lowry acid?

  1. HCO3(aq)
  2. HOH()
  3. NH3(g)
  4. CO32–(aq)
  5. CH3OH()

Consider the following generalized reaction.

 

For this reaction, which of the following is correct?

  1. A is proton source.
  2. B is a proton remover.
  3. A is an electron pair donor.
  4. B is an electron pair acceptor.
  5. This a Lewis acid-base reaction.

 

Which of the following is a Lewis acid but not a Brønsted–Lowry acid?

  1. OH
  2. HPO42–
  3. HCl
  4. NH4+
  5. Fe3+

 

 

Which one of the following pairs does not represent a conjugate acid-base pair?

H3PO4 / HPO42-

H2O / OH

HBr / Br

NO3 / HNO3

HClO2 / ClO2

 

Choose the pair that does not constitute a conjugate acid-base pair.

CH3CO2H / CH3CO2

H3O+ / H2O

HSO4 / SO42-

H3PO4 / HPO42-

None. All of these are conjugate acid base pairs.

 

Which one of the following is a strong acid?

nitric acid, HNO3

phosphoric acid, H3PO4

hypobromous acid, HOBr

bromic acid, HBrO3

carbonic acid, H2CO3

 

Given the following relative acid strengths, starting with the weakest: HCO3 < HNO3 < HBr, what is the relative strength of each conjugate base, starting with the weakest?

  1. CO32–< NO3< Br
  2. Br< CO32–< NO3
  3. NO3< Br< CO32–
  4. Br< NO3< CO32–
  5. CO32–< Br< NO3

 

 

Which of the following is the correct net ionic equation for the reaction between nitrous acid and hydrogen sulfide ion?

  1. HNO2+ HSH2NO2+ + S2–
  2. HNO2+ HSNO2 + H2S
  3. HNO2+ HSO4H2NO2+ + SO42–
  4. HNO2+ HSO4NO2 + H2SO4
  5. HNO3+ HSO4NO3 + H2SO4

 

Which is the correct net ionic equation for the reaction between HC2O4 and HPO42–? (Note: H2C2O4 is a stronger acid than H2PO4.)

  1. HC2O4+ HPO42–H+ + H2O42– + HPO42–
  2. HC2O4+ HPO42–H+ + HC2O4 + PO43–
  3. HC2O4+ HPO42–C2O42– + H2PO4
  4. HC2O4+ HPO42–H2C2O4 + PO43–
  5. HC2O4+ HPO42–H2 + C2O42– + PO43–

 

Which one of the following chemical equations illustrates the ionization of perchloric acid, HClO4, when it dissolves in water?

2 HClO42 ClO4 + H2

HClO4 + H2O H3O+ + ClO4

HClO4 + OH H2O + ClO4

3 HClO4 + 2 H2O 2 H2O+ + 3 HClO4

HClO4 + H2O H2ClO4+ + OH

 

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  1. Acid-base reactions involve a transfer of protons; redox reactions involve a transfer of electrons.
  2. In both redox and acid-base reactions, the reactants are given special names to indicate their roles in the transfer process.
  3. Just as certain species can either donate or accept protons and thereby behave as an acid in one reaction and a base in another, certain species can either accept or donate electrons, acting as an oxidizing agent in one reaction and a reducing agent in another.
  4. Just as acids and bases may be classified as “strong” or “weak” depending on how readily they donate or accept protons, the strengths of oxidizing and reducing agents may be compared according to their tendencies to attract or release electrons.
  5. Unlike most acid-base reactions in solution, which reach a state of equilibrium, most aqueous redox reactions do not reach a state of equilibrium and proceed entirely either in the forward or reverse direction.

 

The autoionization of water, as represented by the below equation, is known to be endothermic. Which of the following correctly states what occurs as the temperature of water is raised? H2O(l) + H2O(l) H3O+(aq) + OH(aq)

The pH of the water does not change, and the water remains neutral.

The pH of the water decreases, and the water remains neutral.

The pH of the water increases, and the water becomes more acidic.

The pH of the water decreases, and the water becomes more acidic.

The pH of the water increases and the water remains neutral.

 

Which of the following statements is incorrect?
i. Kw = [H+][OH] = 1.0 × 10–14 at 25°C.
ii. Water or water solutions in which [H+] = [OH] = 10–7 M are neutral solutions, neither acidic nor basic.
iii. A solution in which [H+] > [OH] is basic.
iv. A solution in which [OH] > [H+] is acidic.

  1. i and ii
  2. iii and iv
  3. ii, iii, and iv
  4. All statements are correct.
  5. All statements are incorrect.

 

At 55°C, the ion-product constant of water, Kw, is 7.05 × 10-14. The pH of pure water at 55°C is

4.384

7.000

3.804

4.484

None of these choices are correct.

 

Carbonic acid is a diprotic acid, H2CO3, with Ka1 = 4.2 × 10–7 and Ka2 = 4.8 × 10–11 at 25°C. The ion product for water is Kw = 1.0 × 10–14 at 25°C. What is the OH concentration of a solution that is 0.15 M in Na2CO3?

2.7 × 10-6 M

6.0 × 10-5 M

5.6 × 10-3 M

2.1 × 10–4 M

2.5 × 10-4 M

 

What is the [ OH ] in a solution that has a pH of 10.15 ?

1.41×10-4 M

0.213 M

1.41×10-5 M

7.08×10-10 M

7.08×10-11 M

 

Which of the following is true for a basic solution?

[ H+ ] < [ OH ]

Kw = [ H+ ]

[ OH ] = [ H+ ]

[ H+ ][ OH ] = 1

[ OH ] < [ H+ ]

 

What is the pH of a solution when [OH] = 5.0×10-2 mol/L?

12.70

7.00

13.70

0.30

1.30

 

What is the [ H+ ] of a solution that has a pH of 7.37?

4.27×106

2.34×10-7

4.27×10-8

2.34×107

 

Which one of the following is not characteristic of a acid?

Producing a solution with a pH less than 7

Tasting sour

Producing hydrogen ions in solution

Turning red litmus blue

 

If the pH of a solution is equal to 7.00, the solution is _____.

basic

amphoteric

neutral

acidic

 

The pH of a solution is 5.330. Find [OH].

  1. [OH] = 2.14 × 10–9molar
  2. [OH] = 4.70 × 10–11molar
  3. [OH] = 5.33 × 10–7molar
  4. [OH] = 4.70 × 10–6molar
  5. [OH] = 5.33 molar

 

A solution is made by dissolving 12.50 g of NaOH, a strong base, in water to produce 2.0 liters of solution. What is the pH of this solution?

  1. 13.50
  2. 13.19
  3. 11.74
  4. 0.81
  5. 0.31

 

The following three equations represent equilibria that lie to the right.

HNO3(aq) + CN(aq) HCN(aq) + NO3 (aq)

HCN(aq) + OH(aq) H2O(l) + CN(aq)

H2O(l) + CH3CH2O(aq) CH3CH2OH(aq) + OH(aq)

Identify the strongest base.

  1. CH3CH2O
  2. NO3
  3. CN
  4. CH3CH2OH
  5. H2O

 

Carbonic acid is a diprotic acid, H2CO3, with Ka1 = 4.2 × 10–7 and Ka2 = 4.8 × 10–11 at 25°C. The ion product for water is Kw = 1.0 × 10–14 at 25°C. What is the OH concentration of a solution that is 1.15 M in Na2CO3?

7.4 × 10-6 M

1.7 × 10-4 M

2.1 × 10–4 M

6.9 × 10-4 M

1.5 × 10-2 M

 

As water is heated, its pH decreases. This means that

the dissociation of water is an endothermic process.

the water has a lower [OH] than cooler water.

the Kw value is decreasing.

the water is no longer neutral.

None of these choices are correct.

 

Calculate the pH of a 8.22×10-2 M NaF solution (Kb = 1.4 x 10-11).

11.94

2.06

5.97

3.15

8.03

 

At 65°C, the ion-product constant of water, Kw, is 1.20 × 10-13. The pH of pure water at 65°C is

3.727

7.000

4.307

4.407

None of these choices are correct.

 

Calculate the hydroxide concentration in a 3.0 M HCl aqueous solution.

3.0*10^-14 M

7.0*10^-13 M

1.0*10^-7 M

3.4*10^-15 M

3.0*10^14 M

 

 

 

 

Q3. Chapter 16 – Solutions

 


Chapter 16 

 

  1. Consider the following beaker which has had its contents (KBr and water) mixed until no further change occurs.

 

Which of the following best describes the contents of the beaker?

  1. KBr – solute and water – solvent.
  2. Saturated solution.
  3. Addition of enough water would produce an unsaturated solution.
  4. A heterogeneous mixture.
  5. All of the above correctly describe the contents of the beaker.

 

2.

Which of the following correctly applies to the term “solution”?

  1. heterogeneous mixture
  2. variable composition
  3. constant properties
  4. dissolved particles can are usually larger than about 10–7cm
  5. exist only in the liquid and gas state

3.

A solution that has a relatively large amount of solute dissolved in it at a particular temperature is said to be _____.

unsaturated

oversaturated

dilute

supersaturated

concentrated

 

4.

Suppose you are given a beaker containing a solution. None of the solute is on the bottom. You drop a small crystal of the solute into the solution, and it readily dissolves into the solution. Which one of the following terms best describes the solution?

concentrated

supersaturated

unsaturated

static

saturated

 

5.

Which of the following substances should be the most soluble in ethanol (CH3CH2OH)?

CH4

NaCl

Mg3(PO4)2

CH2Cl2

O2

 

6.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  1. The roles ofsoluteand solvent are not always clearly defined in the solution of one liquid in another.
  2. When water and carbon tetrachloride are in the same test tube, a denser layer of carbon tetrachloride forms beneath a less dense layer of water. The liquids are said to be miscible.
  3. A solution of a given concentration that is saturated at one temperature may be unsaturated at another temperature.
  4. Dilute nitric acid and dilute sulfuric acid may or may not have the same concentration.
  5. The concentration of solute in a supersaturated solution is greater than the normal solubility limit.

 

7.

“Like dissolves like” essentially means:

Solids won’t dissolve in liquids.

Ionic compounds will only dissolve in molten salts.

Ionic compounds won’t vaporize easily.

Polar solutes will dissolve in polar solvents.

 

8.

In carbon steel, carbon is the _____ and iron is the _______.

solute, solution

solvent, solute

solute, solvent

solution, solute

 

9.

dentify the incorrect statement about events that occur between the time excess solid solute is first introduced to a liquid solvent and the time when the solution becomes saturated. Assume that the surface area of the solute remains constant throughout the process.

  1. The rate of concentration change is zero when the solution is saturated.
  2. The net rate of concentration change is greatest at the beginning of the process.
  3. The rate of dissolving is greater than the rate of crystallization when the solution is one-half saturated.
  4. If temperature remains constant, the rate of dissolving is constant.
  5. If temperature remains constant, the rate of crystallization remains constant.

 

10.

When a saturated solution is in equilibrium with undissolved solute, …

  1. the solution separates into layers.
  2. dissolving and crystallization stop.
  3. the quantity of dissolved solute equals the quantity of undissolved solute.
  4. the concentration of the solution remains constant.
  5. the temperature increases until more solute dissolves.

 

  1. Which of the following will always cause the greatest increase in the solubility of a gas in a liquid?

increasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid and lowering the liquid temperature

decreasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid and lowering the liquid temperature

increasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid and raising the liquid temperature

decreasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid with no temperature change of the liquid

decreasing the pressure of the gas above the liquid and raising the liquid temperature

  1. Rank the following compounds according to increasing solubility in water.
  2. CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3
  3. CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3
  4. CH3–CH2–OH
  5. CH3–OH

I < III < IV < II

I < II < IV < III

III < IV < II < I

I < II < III < IV

None of these is correct.

 

13.

The structures of cyclohexane and benzene are shown below.

cyclohexane

benzene

It is logical to expect that these liquids are…

  1. miscible because of their similar structures and sizes.
  2. miscible because they contain the same number of carbon atoms.
  3. immiscible because benzene, with half as many hydrogen atoms, has less hydrogen bonding than cyclohexane.
  4. immiscible because one molecule is polar and the other nonpolar.
  5. immiscible because both molecules have ring structures

 

 

14.

Consider the graph shown below.

 

Which substance shows the smallest increase in solubility as the temperature is increased?

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. E

 

15.

To determine the mass percent of a solution’s composition, what do you need to know?

Mass of solute and mass of solution

Volume of solute and mass of solution

Volume of solute and volume of solution

Mass of solute and volume of solution

 

16.

 

Find the mass percent of CuSO4 in a solution whose density is 1.30 g/mL and whose molarity is 1.36 M.

2.66%

16.7%

1.77%

83.3%

None of these choices are correct.

 

17.

If 8.73 g Ca(NO3)2 is dissolved in enough water to make 0.750 L of solution, what is the molar concentration of Ca(NO3)2?

11.6 M

1.16×10-2 M

7.09×10-2 M

25.1 M

0.114 M

 

18.

What is the concentration of chloride ions in a 0.20 M FeCl3 solution?

6.7×10-2 M

0.80 M

0.60 M

0.20 M

0.40 M

 

19.

What concentration unit is necessary for the calculation of vapor pressure lowering of a solvent?

mass fraction of solvent

molarity of solute

mole fraction of solvent

molality of solvent

mole fraction of solute

 

20.

 

75.0 mL of water is added to 12.9 mL of 0.250 M KMnO4. What is the concentration of the diluted solution?

  1. 1.70 M
  2. 1.45 M
  3. 0.0581 M
  4. 0.0430 M
  5. 0.0367 M

 

21.

 

What volume of hydrogen gas, measured at STP, is produced in the reaction of excess aluminum with 50.0 mL of 0.935 M hydrochloric acid?

  1. 0.531 L
  2. 1.06 L
  3. 2.12 L
  4. 0.0474 L
  5. 0.0237 L

 

22.

Write the balanced equation for the reaction of aluminum chloride with silver nitrate and determine what volume of 0.107 M silver nitrate is required to precipitate all the chloride from 15.00 mL of 0.0500 M aluminum chloride.

  1. 45.0 mL
  2. 7.01 mL
  3. 21.0 mL
  4. 63.1 mL
  5. 15.0 mL

 

23.

Potassium hydrogen phthalate is used as a primary standard in finding the concentration of a solution of sodium hydroxide by the reaction KHC8H4O4 + NaOH → NaKC8H4O4 + H2O. What is the molarity of the base if 32.75 mL is required to titrate 1.732 g of the primary standard?

  1. 0.5189 M
  2. 0.2590 M
  3. 1.732 M
  4. 3.861 M
  5. 3.275 M

 

24.

The citric acid in a lemon juice sample was neutralized by titration with NaOH solution. If 5.00 mL of lemon juice required 47.8 mL of 0.121 M NaOH for neutralization, what was the molarity of the citric acid in the lemon juice? The reaction is 3 NaOH + H3C6H5O7 → 3 H2O + Na3C6H5O7.

  1. 1.16 M
  2. 3.47 M
  3. 0.110 M
  4. 0.386 M
  5. 0.329 M

 

25.

A 50.0 mL hydrochloric acid sample is analyzed for its concentration by titration. Determine the concentration of the sample, given that it requires 21.50 mL of 0.102 M sodium hydroxide solution to neutralize the acid.

  1. 0.105 M
  2. 1.05 M
  3. 22.8 M
  4. 0.0439 M
  5. 0.237 M

 

How many of the following help determine whether or not a solution forms?

  1. the polarities of the solute and solvent
  2. the densities of the solute and solvent
  3. the probability of the mixed state (of the solution)
  4. the energies needed for the solution formation to occur
  5. the state of matter of the solute (solid, liquid, gas)

h

3

1

2

5

4

 

Which of the following statements concerning the solubility of a solute is/are correct?

(1) The dissolution of a gas in a liquid is an endothermic process.
(2) The solubility of a gas in a liquid decreases with increasing temperature.
(3) The dissolution of a gas in a liquid is an exothermic process.

2 and 3

1 and 2

3 only

2 only

1 only

 

The solubility of a gas usually increases with increasing temperature.

True

False

 

How many of the following help determine whether or not a solution forms?

  1. the polarities of the solute and solvent
  2. the densities of the solute and solvent
  3. the probability of the mixed state (of the solution)
  4. the energies needed for the solution formation to occur
  5. the state of matter of the solute (solid, liquid, gas)

 

 

 

 

Q4. Chapter 15 – Gases, Liquids, and Solids

 

Chapter 15 – Gases, Liquids, and Solids

1.

 

Dalton’s law of partial pressures states that:

equal amounts of gases occupy the same volume at constant temperature and pressure.

the volume of a fixed amount of gas is directly proportional to its temperature in Kelvin at constant pressure.

the volume of a fixed amount of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure at constant temperature.

the total pressure of a mixture of gases is the sum of the partial pressure of all of the gaseous compounds.

the rates of effusion of gases are inversely proportional to the square roots of their molar masses.

 

2.

Hydrogen gas can be collected by water displacement when magnesium reacts with hydrochloric acid. When the container is filled with the hydrogen gas, which of the following is true of the total pressure (P) inside the container?

 

 

3.

 

What is the phase change from liquid to solid called?

Fusion

Freezing

Condensation

Sublimation

Evaporation

 

4.

 

Which of the following properties of liquids is the least affected by the strength of intermolecular forces?

  1. vapor pressure
  2. boiling point
  3. heat of vaporization
  4. density
  5. viscosity

 

5.

 

Arrange the following molecules, CH3CHO, SO2, and H2O, in order of increasing strength of intermolecular forces.

CH3CHO, SO2, H2O

SO2, CH3CHO, H2O

H2O, SO2, CH3CHO

H2O, CH3CHO, SO2

CH3CHO, H2O, SO2

 

6.

Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. Intermolecular forces are weaker in liquids than in gases because the particles are closer to each other.
  2. Smaller intermolecular distances in liquids result in stronger intermolecular forces, when compared to intermolecular distances and forces in gases.
  3. Compared to liquids, large distances between gaseous molecules yield large intermolecular attractions.
  4. The smaller the distance between molecules the smaller the intermolecular attractions, therefore attractions are weaker in liquids than gases.
  5. All statements are correct.

 

7.

The kinetic molecular theory as applied to liquids differs in two major ways from the theory as applied to gases. One of these is that…

  1. Matter no longer appears to be made up of discrete particles
  2. Energy changes result from intermolecular collisions
  3. Attractive forces between molecules are significant
  4. Molecules are no longer in motion relative to each other
  5. Forces between molecules are no longer electrostatic in character

 

8.

Considering the molecular mass and polarity influences on physical properties, which of the following predictions about the boiling points of elemental bromine and chlorine fluoride is most apt to be correct?

  1. Both molecular mass and polarity predicts Br2has the lower boiling point.
  2. Both molecular mass and polarity predicts Br2has the higher boiling point.
  3. Molecular mass predicts Br2has the lower boiling point, but molecular polarity predicts it has the lower boiling point.
  4. Molecular mass predicts Br2has the higher boiling point, but molecular polarity predicts it has the lower boiling point.
  5. Molecular mass and polarity have an insignificant influence on the physical properties of these molecules.

 

9.

 

The normal boiling point of liquid X is less than that of Y, which is less than that of Z. Which of the following is the correct order of increasing vapor pressure of the three liquids at STP?

 

10.

 

The vapor pressure of water at 80°C is

 

 

11.

 

Which of the following molecules will have the highest boiling point?

CH4

I2

SiH4

SO2

O2

 

12.

 

Select from the following the statement that is incorrect or contrary to the generalizations that you’ve learned.

  1. The strength of induced dipole forces depends on the ease with which electron distributions can be polarized.
  2. Dipole forces are present in NF3, but not in CF4.
  3. The principal intermolecular forces in a straight chain hydrocarbon such as C8H18are induced dipole forces.
  4. Intermolecular forces are usually stronger for substances that exhibit hydrogen bonding than for otherwise similar substances lacking hydrogen bonds.
  5. Induced dipole forces exist in both polar and nonpolar molecular substances, but they are essentially the only attractions in polar compounds.

 

 

13.

Which of the species below would you expect to show the least hydrogen bonding?

HF

NH3

CH4

H2O

all the same

 

14.

 

The elements of group 5A, the nitrogen family, form compounds with hydrogen having the boiling points listed below:

SbH3 –17°C, AsH3 –55°C, PH3 –87°C, NH3 –33°C

The first three compounds illustrate a trend where the boiling point decreases as the mass decreases; however, ammonia (NH3) does not follow the trend because of:

dipole-dipole attraction.

hydrogen bonding.

metallic bonding.

London dispersion forces.

ionic bonding.

 

 

 

15.

 

Which substance involves no bonding forces except London dispersion forces?

NaCl(l)

N2(s)

HF(l)

H2O(l)

K(s)

 

16.

 

Draw the Lewis diagrams of CH3OH and water, then from the Lewis diagrams, identify the statement among the following that is most apt to be incorrect.

  1. Hydrogen bonds are probably the principal intermolecular force in both compounds.
  2. Both compounds have both hydrogen bonding and induced dipole forces.
  3. Both molecules being polar, dipole-dipole forces are present in both compounds.
  4. Induced dipole forces are present in CH3OH, but not water.
  5. Induced dipole forces are probably the least significant intermolecular forces in both compounds.

 

17.

 

There is 250 mL of water stored in a 500-mL sealed container. As the temperature increases from 298 K to 308 K:

the number of water molecules in the vapor phase increases indefinitely.

the number of water molecules in the liquid phase decreases.

the number of water molecules in the vapor phase decreases.

the number of water molecules in the vapor phase remains constant.

the number of water molecules in the vapor phase decreases indefinitely.

 

18.

 

What would happen to the average kinetic energy of the molecules of a gas sample if the temperature of the sample increased from 20°C to 40°C?

It would decrease.

It would double.

It would become half its value.

It would increase.

Two of these choices are correct.

 

19.

 

Among the following, identify the incorrect statement about a boiling liquid:

  1. Boiling temperature may be increased by raising surrounding pressure.
  2. The temperature of the liquid must be greater than that of the gas above the liquid.
  3. Boiling in an open beaker occurs at a lower temperature at higher altitudes.
  4. Equilibrium vapor pressure at boiling temperature equals, or is slightly higher than, surrounding pressure.
  5. All statements are correct.

 

20.

Among the following, identify the correct statement about a boiling liquid:

  1. The temperature of a liquid boiling in an open beaker is equal to the temperature of the gas space above the liquid.
  2. Equilibrium vapor pressure at the boiling temperature is higher than the surrounding pressure.
  3. Vapor pressure in a bubble in the liquid is equal to or slightly greater than the equilibrium pressure at boiling temperature.
  4. Boiling temperature can be increased by boiling in a vacuum.
  5. All statements are incorrect.

21.

Although both are readily soluble in water, why does table salt (NaCl) conduct an electric current when dissolved in water but table sugar (C12H22O11) does not?

Because table salt has a simpler formula than table sugar.

Because sugar contains carbon atoms which do not conduct electricity.

Because sugar has a larger mass than salt.

Because salt forms ions of Na+ and Cl in water which are free to move about to conduct an electric current whereas sugar does not form ions in water.

22.

Why does ice float on liquid water?

  1. It is a compound without carbon atoms that exists in the liquid state at room temperature and pressure.
  2. The linear structure of the water molecule allows ice molecules to pack together tightly enough to allow ice to float.
  3. Ice is structurally similar to wood, so ice floats on water in a manner similar to wooden ships where air becomes trapped in cells within the solid structure.
  4. Oxygen’s low electronegativity leads to the collapse of the crystal structure, allowing the molecules to become closer together in water.
  5. Water molecules in the solid form are held in a crystal pattern that has voids between the molecules.

23.

In which of the following processes will energy be evolved as heat?

vaporization

sublimation

melting

crystallization

None of these choices are correct.

24.

 

Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. There is long-range order in a crystalline solid
  2. Graphite is an example of an amorphous solid.
  3. Glass, rubber, and plastic are examples of crystalline solids
  4. Particles in an amorphous solids are arranged in a distinct geometric order
  5. In a crystalline solid particles can move past the closest neighboring particles.

 

25.

 

Which of the following is an example of an ionic solid?

White phosphorus

Calcium fluoride

Sulfur hexafluoride

Carbon dioxide

Silver

 

26.

 

Which of the following substances is most likely to be a solid at room temperature?

NH3

MgCl2

Cl2

H2S

CH4

 

27.

 

The heat of fusion of gold is 63 joules per gram. Once a 25.0 g sample of gold has been heated to its melting point, 1063°C, how much additional heat is required to melt it?

  1. 89 kJ
  2. 39 kJ
  3. 2.7 kJ
  4. 2.6 kJ
  5. 1.6 kJ

 

28.

Calculate the heat of fusion of an unknown pure substance if 5.33 × 103 kJ of heat is required to melt a 17.2 kg sample.

  1. 1.09 × 10–5J/g
  2. 3.23 × 10–3J/g
  3. 3.10 × 102J/g
  4. 9.17 × 104J/g
  5. 3.10 × 105J/g

29.

Calculate the enthalpy of vaporization of C4H10. This compound has vapor pressures of 492 mmHg and 355 mmHg at -12.0 °C and -20.0 °C, respectively. (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)

-81.4 kJ/mol

30.7 kJ/mol

9.73*10^3 kJ/mol

2.24*10^4 kJ/mol

22.4 kJ/mol

30.

Calculate the specific heat of an unknown metal if a 123 gram sample requires 8.8 kJ of heat to change from 16°C to 97°C.

  1. 0.88 J/g · °C
  2. 1.1 J/g · °C
  3. 5.8 × 103J/g · °C
  4. 1.3 × 104J/g · °C
  5. 8.8 × 107J/g · °C

31.

The graph below represents a temperature versus energy plot for a pure substance.

Identify the point(s) where…
(i) only gas exists
(ii) both solid and liquid exist

  1. (i) 7 (ii) 2 and 3
  2. (i) 7 (ii) 5 and 6
  3. (i) 1 (ii) 2 and 3
  4. (i) 4 (ii) 5 and 6
  5. (i) 4 (ii) 2 and 3

 

What is the total heat flow if 27 grams of steam at 143°C is cooled to become water at 34°C? The specific heat of water is 4.18 J/g · °C; the specific heat of steam is 2.0 J/g · °C. The heat of vaporization of water is 2.26 kJ/g, and the boiling point of water is 100°C.

  1. 2.3 kJ
  2. 7.4 kJ
  3. 61 kJ
  4. 71 kJ
  5. 9.8 × 103kJ

 

A gaseous mixture containing 1.5 mol Ar and 3.5 mol CO2 has a total pressure of 9.4 atm. What is the partial pressure of CO2?

6.6 atm

With all other factors being equal, which of the following correctly lists intermolecular forces in order of increasing strength?

  1. Dipole forces < Induced dipole forces < Hydrogen bonds
  2. Induced dipole forces < Dipole forces < Hydrogen bonds
  3. Hydrogen bonds < Dipole forces < Induced dipole forces
  4. Dipole forces < Hydrogen bonds < Induced dipole forces
  5. Induced dipole forces < Hydrogen bonds < Dipole forces

The normal boiling point of bromine is 58.8 °. Using the heat of vaporization of bromine (30.0 kJ/mol), calculate the vapor pressure of bromine at 28.5 °C. (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)

226 torr

680 torr

760 torr

505 torr

255 torr

 

Which of the following is not a postulate of the kinetic molecular theory?

The moving particles undergo perfectly elastic collisions with the walls of the container.

The forces of attraction and repulsion between the particles are insignificant.

Gas particles have most of their mass concentrated in the nucleus of the atom.

The average kinetic energy of the particles is directly proportional to the absolute temperature.

All of these are postulates of the kinetic molecular theory.

 

 

Among the following, identify the correct statement about a boiling liquid:

  1. The temperature of a liquid boiling in an open beaker is equal to the temperature of the gas space above the liquid.
  2. Equilibrium vapor pressure at the boiling temperature is higher than the surrounding pressure.
  3. Vapor pressure in a bubble in the liquid is equal to or slightly greater than the equilibrium pressure at boiling temperature.
  4. Boiling temperature can be increased by boiling in a vacuum.
  5. All statements are incorrect.

 

What is the total heat flow if 28 grams of water at 12°C is cooled to become ice at –19°C? The specific heat of liquid water is 4.18 J/g · °C; the specific heat of ice is 2.1 J/g · °C. The heat of fusion of ice is 333 J/g, and the freezing point of water is 0.0°C.

  1. 1.1 kJ
  2. 1.4 kJ
  3. 9.4 kJ
  4. 10.8 kJ
  5. 11.8 kJ

 

The normal boiling point of bromine is 58.8 °. Using the heat of vaporization of bromine (30.0 kJ/mol), calculate the vapor pressure of bromine at 24.5 °C. (R = 8.314 J/mol·K)

543 torr

669 torr

266 torr

217 torr

760 torr

 

 

Q5. i a need diagrams

 

Using the notation scheme for defining manipulator configurations (Section 8.1.2), draw diagrams (similar to Figure 8.1) of the following robots: (a) TRT, (b) VVR, (c) VROT.

 

Q6. Non-profit organization Propose two te

 

Non-Profit Organizations

Please respond to the each and every single requested information following in 2-3 thorough paragraphs: (Please provide your resources)

  • 1. Propose two (2) techniquesthat a nonprofit can use to measure management and employee efficiency within its organization.
  • —Speculate on the major benefitsthat these techniques may have on the organization.
  • 2. Determine whether or not traditional financial and management evaluation ratios such as return on assets (ROA), return on equity (ROE), economic value added (EVA), and market value added (MVA)apply to nonprofits.

 

Q7. One argument in the debate surround

 

  1. One argument in the debate surrounding globalization is about the inequality between nations. Discuss the major points of the inequality between nations argument and describe how falling barriers to trade and investment might help reduce the inequality between nations. In three paragraphs

 

  1. Globalization’s impact on jobs and wages is an important topic for debate. Discuss the major points for globalization in the jobs and wages debate, and describe how the actions of large multinational corporations affect the issues in the jobs and wages debate. In three paragraphs

 

  1. Identify the World Trade Organization’s (WTO) three main goals and explain how the WTO differs from the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).

 

  1. Summarize each benefit a company might obtain from the globalization of markets.

 

  1. Explain globalization of production and its benefits. 3 benefits

 

 

 

 

One argument in the debate surrounding globalization is about the inequality between nations. Discuss the major points of the inequality between nations argument and describe how falling barriers to trade and investment might help reduce the inequality between nations.

 

Q8. Stoichiometry Answer

8.39 grams of Zinc (MW=65.39 g/mole) and 12.2 grams of AgNO3 (169.87g/mol) are placed in a flask and react to form zinc (II) nitrate. how many grams of zinc nitrate will form?

 

Q9. The appraisal process is one step involved in i

 

The appraisal process is one step involved in identifying potential improvements on individual performances. What is the most difficult part in determining the dimensions to be appraised? What is most helpful on a job analysis for designing an appraisal tool?

The appraisal process is one step involved in identifying potential improvements on individual performances. What is the most difficult part in determining the dimensions to be appraised? What is most helpful on a job analysis for designing an appraisal tool?

 

Q10. Assess the value of branding in health

 

Module 3 – Case

Branding & Online Marketing

Case Assignment

Your assignment is to write a 4- to 5-page scholarly position essay in which you assess the value of branding in health care. Specifically, under what circumstances do you feel that it is beneficial for health care organizations to use branding?

  1. Can the use of branding have unexpected negative consequences? Explain in detail.

 

 

COMMUNICATIONS.

Q1. ASSIGNMENT 8 EN360 Technical Communication

 

ASSIGNMENT 8

EN360 Technical Communication

ASSIGNMENT 8

EN360 Technical Communication

Directions:  Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double-spaced pages; refer to the “Assignment Format” page located on the Course Home page for specific format requirements.

 

Part A: Email/Text Problems

 

What are some of the problems that you have experienced when writing or receiving poorly, perhaps hastily, written emails/texts? Describe at least five (5) types of issues.

 

Part B: Writing a Process Description

 

Select a specialized process that you understand well and that has several distinct steps. Using the process description discussed in Chapter 19 of your textbook as a model, write a one page description of this process.

 

Part C: Difficult to Follow Instructions

 

Find a short set of instructions or some other technical document from work or the Internet that is hard to follow. Replicate or download those instructions at the top of a one-page analysis. Assume that you are the Associate Director of Communications for the company that produced this document and that you are doing a final review before the document is released. Using the “Checklist for Instructions and Procedures”on the following page (also found in Chapter 20 of your textbook), identify what, specifically, makes the document difficult to use, providing a specific reference for each problem area.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q2. technical commumications

ASSIGNMENT 8

EN360 Technical Communication

Directions:  Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double-spaced pages; refer to the “Assignment Format” page located on the Course Home page for specific format requirements.

 

Part A: Email/Text Problems

 

What are some of the problems that you have experienced when writing or receiving poorly, perhaps hastily, written emails/texts? Describe at least five (5) types of issues.

Part B: Writing a Process Description

 

Select a specialized process that you understand well and that has several distinct steps. Using the process description discussed in Chapter 19 of your textbook as a model, write a one page description of this process.

 

Part C: Difficult to Follow Instructions

 

Find a short set of instructions or some other technical document from work or the Internet that is hard to follow. Replicate or download those instructions at the top of a one-page analysis. Assume that you are the Associate Director of Communications for the company that produced this document and that you are doing a final review before the document is released. Using the “Checklist for Instructions and Procedures” on the following page (also found in Chapter 20 of your textbook), identify what, specifically, makes the document difficult to use, providing a specific reference for each problem area.

 

 

 

Part D: Ted Talk Lecture Evaluation

 

Watch a 10-20 minute TED Talks lecture online (www.ted.com). There are 27 evaluation criteria on the “Checklist for Oral Presentations” below (also found in Chapter 24 of your textbook). Select 10 among them that you believe are most salient for this speaker. Identify strong areas and areas that could have been better. Provide an example for each. (These are skilled speakers, so you’ll probably be highlighting more strengths than weaknesses.)

 

Grading Rubric

 

Please refer to the rubric below for the grading criteria for this assignment.

 

 

 

 

This is the end of Assignment 8.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q3. EN 360 technical communications 

 

 

ASSIGNMENT 8

EN360 Technical Communication

Directions:  Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double-spaced pages; refer to the “Assignment Format” page located on the Course Home page for specific format requirements.

Part A: Email/Text Problems

 

What are some of the problems that you have experienced when writing or receiving poorly, perhaps hastily, written emails/texts? Describe at least five (5) types of issues.

Part B: Writing a Process Description

Select a specialized process that you understand well and that has several distinct steps. Using the process description discussed in Chapter 19 of your textbook as a model, write a one page description of this process.

Part C: Difficult to Follow Instructions

Find a short set of instructions or some other technical document from work or the Internet that is hard to follow. Replicate or download those instructions at the top of a one-page analysis. Assume that you are the Associate Director of Communications for the company that produced this document and that you are doing a final review before the document is released. Using the “Checklist for Instructions and Procedures” on the following page (also found in Chapter 20 of your textbook), identify what, specifically, makes the document difficult to use, providing a specific reference for each problem area.

 

Q4    COMS 101 Reading Analysis 3: Liberty University (Latest) (Already Graded A)

 

Question 1

40 out of 40 points

Match the term with the description to which it correctly links.

o

Question

Selected Match

According to one early researcher, we can recall about what percent of a speech immediately after a speech.

According to one early researcher, we recall about what percent of a speech after several days.

The first of Lyman Steil’s progressive stages of listening.

The fourth of Lyman Steil’s progressive stages of listening.

The number of decibels created by the normal speaking voice.

The phase of listening in which you attach meaning to words.

The phase of listening in which you assess the worth of the speaker’s ideas and determine their importance.

Changing an attitude or behavior to eliminate an inconsistency.

Listeners have the ability to process about this many words per minute.

Most people use about this many words per minute when talking.

  • Question 2

10 out of 10 points

Match the term to the description to which it correctly links.

o

Question

Selected Match

The background noise we encounter in communication situations.

The attitudes, emotions, beliefs, assumptions, and biases that, as noise, condition our responses in communication situations.

For most serious special-occasion speeches, you should use this style of language?

Speeches that honor and highlight events, institutions, and individuals.

A speech in which demonstrates interest in and enthusiasm about his or her speech.

 

Q5. COMS 101 Reading Analysis 2: Liberty University (Latest) (Already Graded A

 

Question 1

30 out of 30 points

Match the term with the description to which it correctly links.

o

Question

Selected Match

Goals that center around specific tasks to be performed.

Goals that relate to the individual’s personal needs and ambitions.

As groups grow in number, the need for this increases.

In this small group format, group members have an informal interchange on the issues in front of an audience.

In this structured small group format, speakers who have expertise in the particular areas give prepared speeches on specified topics.

In this audience-centered small group format, group members respond to audience questions but do not interact with each other.

Making sure group members understand and agree on the problem is part of the ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.

The ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Proces is to analyze the problem.

Determining criteria for an acceptable solution is the ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.

Generating possible solutions is the ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.

Choosing the best solution to the problem is the ____ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.

Putting the best solution into effect is the ___ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.

Evaluating your group’s success or the lack thereof is the ___ step of the Reflective Thinking Process.

He stated that the ideal group size is 5-7 members.

He devised a theory of reflective thinking.

  • Question 2

20 out of 20 points

Match the term to the description to which it correctly links.

o

Question

Selected Match

In the Johari Window, information known to self and to others.

In the Johari Window, information known to others but not to self.

In the Johari Window, information known to self but not to others.

In the Johari Window, information known neither to self nor to others.

The relational dialectic that concerns our need to relate to others yet independent.

The relational dialectic that concerns our needs to share information yet be private.

The relational dialectic that concerns our needs for excitement and uncertain yet stable.

The lose/lose approach to conflict management that is characterized by withdrawal.

The win/lose approach to conflict management in which parties strive to be on the top.

The win/win approach to conflict management in which each person leaves the conflict satisfied with the outcome.

 

Q6. COMS 101 Reading Analysis 1: Liberty University (Latest) (Already Graded A)

 

COMS 101 Reading Analysis 1: Liberty University (Latest)

Liberty University COMS 101 Reading Analysis 1

  • Question 1

10 out of 10 points

Use this week’s textbook reading assignment to match the following terms with their definitions.

o

Question

Selected Match

The use of volume, pitch, tone, accent, speaking pace, and silence to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.

The use of gestures, facial expressions and eye contact to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.

The use of space to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.

The sender’s use of touch to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.

The sender’s use of time or timing to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.

The sender’s use of material objects to impact a recipient’s interpretation of his or her message and motives.

Social interaction among two or more people, usually in a face-to-face environment, but possibly also in real-time virtual environments.

Interaction among three or more people who come together for a common purpose.

When a speaker formally addresses a group of typically 10 or more individuals in a face-to-face environment where interactivity is possible but generally not practiced.

When people use a media technology to distribute information to a large group of physically detached people.

  • Question 2

10 out of 10 points

Use this week’s textbook reading assignment to match the following terms with their definitions.

o

Question

Selected Match

A figurative form identifies one thing in a way that symbolically stands for another thing, such as when Martin Luther, in his great hymn, describes God as a mighty fortress

A figurative form explicitly compares two otherwise dissimilar things, usually via the modifiers like or as, such as when the poet Robert Burns wrote, “My love is like a red, red rose.”

A figurative form that alludes to something by either highlighting only one aspect of it or something broader that includes it, such as when journalists use the term Washington as a reference to America’s federal government.

The figurative use of a mild term in place of a harsh term to relay the same basic idea in a more tasteful form, such as when we say that someone “passed into God’s presence” rather than that this someone died.

The figurative use of a harsh term instead of a mild term for an intended effect, such as when one calls a lawyer an “ambulance chaser.”

The figurative ascription of human qualities to something that is not human, such as the Old Testament prophet Isaiah, in his book’s 55th chapter, anticipates the day when the trees of the field will clap their hands.

A statement that appears to be self-refuting but that is, in fact, true or possibly true, such as the statement, “The more things change, the more they stay the same.”

A combination of words that means something different than the words’ literal meaning, such as “You will do well if you play your cards right.”

Words that are used indirectly to signify a secondary meaning that is not patently obvious when the words are taken at face value.

Words that are used forthrightly to signify the person, place, thing, idea, action, or state of being that the words or combination of words evidently symbolize.

  • Question 3

Use this week’s textbook reading assignment to match the following terms with their definitions.

o

Question

Selected Match

A composite of your beliefs about human origin (where we came from), human nature (what makes us human), human purpose (why we are here), and human destiny (where we are going).

Someone who is aware of and content to live with an inconsistency between the belief system he or she professes and the one he or she practices

Someone who does not know that such an inconsistency exists because he or she chooses to disbelieve in its existence, even though this person has reason for believing that it does exist.

Someone who does not know that such an inconsistency exists because he or she has no reason to know it exists.

A person’s history of interactions with people whose input helps to shape the way he or she sees and acts toward the world.

A truth standard which holds that a belief, feeling, or behavior is acceptable if it promotes the greatest good not for the individual, but for humanity as a whole.

A truth standard which holds that a belief, feeling, or behavior is acceptable if it simply “works” for the person who holds it, regardless of whether it logically consists with anyone else’s experiences and standards.

Systems of belief that people develop on their own, primarily in response to what human standards have taught them to deem believable or acceptable.

Recognizes that God, the timeless, changeless source and sustainer of the universe and the source of all knowledge, discloses otherwise indiscernible foundational truths through Scripture, and that these otherwise hidden disclosures rightly frame and give direction to human questions to make sense of anything, including communication.

A truth standard which holds that a belief, feeling, or behavior is unacceptable if it is illogical or if it is at odds with what common human observations tell us is true.

  • Question 4

10 out of 10 points

Use this week’s textbook reading assignment to match the following terms with their definitions.

o

Question

Selected Match

Sees the universe as a self-created, self-sustaining machine, consisting of material processes and particles and nothing more than these, that invariably follow the course that physics has blindly programmed it to follow.

Holds that although we come to see the world as we do by the people who influence us through socialization, this neither has to be nor should be so.

Social constructionists who aim to show how social influencers can impact what people become and how privileged groups use this to promote themselves at others’ expense.

The attempt to make sense of human communicative behavior and specific human communications in the light of divine revelation.

Verbal and/or nonverbal behavior manifest God’s love to others in a way that promotes what God values in the world.

 

Q 7. COMS 101 Quiz 4: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 4 (Already Graded A)


COMS 101 Quiz 4: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 4

 

Question 1

 

 

An organizational pattern that focuses on relationships in time is referred to as:

Question 2

 

 

____________ function as a reminder of what you plan to say and the order in which you plan to say it and are used during the presentation.

Question 3

 

 

Organization refers to the placement of lines of reasoning and supporting materials in a pattern that helps to achieve your specific purpose.

Question 4

 

 

All of the sub-points in a speech do not have to be logical extensions from preceding points.

Question 5

 

 

Which verbal connection follows a main point and acts to remind the audience of what a speaker has just expressed?

Question 6

 

 

“To explain to the class how participating in an athletic sport can bring psychological as well as physical benefits” is an example of a(n):

Question 7

 

 

If you were presenting a speech about traveling to Europe and deciding to start with places in Northern Europe, then moved to Eastern Europe, Southern Europe, and Western Europe, this speech would have what type of organizational pattern?

Question 8

 

 

A speech discussing the relationship of industrial pollution to higher cancer rates in the general population would be most effective in what order?

Question 9

 

 

Mood is the emotional disposition of the speaker as the speech is being delivered whereas tone refers to the overall feeling you hope to create in your audience.

Question 10

 

 

Which of the following WAS NOT listed as one of the three things you need to do when you “focus attention on topic and speaker”?

Question 11

 

 

One of the guidelines for introductions is to prepare the introduction after preparing the body of the speech.

Question 12

 

 

Quotations can be interwoven into the fabric of the speech without telling your listeners that you are speaking the words of another, but it’s important that you use the quote exactly and attribute it to the writer.

Question 13

 

 

Physically involving your audience in your introduction is not an appropriate introductory technique.

Question 14

 

 

According to Professor John Baird, “Summaries may be effective when presented at the conclusion of a speech (because) they provide the audience with a general structure under which to subsume the more specific points of the speech.”

Question 15

 

 

“This morning I will discuss the scientific, therapeutic, physiological facts and myths about the effects and the effectiveness of alternative medicine” is an example of which function of a speech introduction?

Question 16

 

 

Telling the audience what you’re planning to discuss during your speech is called:

 

Question 17

 

 

The characteristic of spoken language that refers to how ideas are arranged in a sentence is called:

Question 18

 

 

Imagery involves creating a vivid description through the use of one or more of our five senses.

Question 19

 

 

Which of the following phrases is NOT considered a signal?

Question 20

 

 

Often the best humor for speeches comes from your own experiences.

Question 21

 

 

Jesse Jackson’s line, “We cannot be what we ought to be if we push dope in our veins, rather than hope in our brains,” is an example of antithesis.

Question 22

 

 

The arrangement of a series of words, phrases or sentences in a similar form is referred to as:

Question 23

 

 

Your audience is more likely to agree on the connotative definition of a word than it’s denotative definition.

Question 24

 

 

Putting too much information on note cards can result in:

Question 25

 

 

Which of the following is a guideline for EMPHASIS?

Question 26

 

 

Which of the following IS NOT true regarding rate of speech?

Question 27

 

 

Which of the following is a guideline for physical movement?

 

 

Question 28

 

 

According to your text, no other aspect of nonverbal communication is more important than:

Question 29

 

 

Which of the following is an aspect of physical delivery?

Question 30

 

 

What should a speaker avoid doing when she or he wishes to engage in effective eye contact during a speech?

 

Q8. COMS 101 Quiz 4: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 4 (Already Graded A)

 

COMS 101 Quiz 4: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 4

 

  • Question 1

 

The ____________ outline is also known as the full-content outline.

  • Question 2

 

If you were presenting a speech about traveling to Europe and deciding to start with places in Northern Europe, then moved to Eastern Europe, Southern Europe, and Western Europe, this speech would have what type of organizational pattern?

  • Question 3

 

The first step in organizing your speech is:

  • Question 4

 

Which verbal connection follows a main point and acts to remind the audience of what a speaker has just expressed?

  • Question 5

 

If I’m giving a speech about participating in Living History, I may talk about choosing a character, researching the person, developing the speech, and presenting to the various classrooms.  The organization of this speech would be considered:

  • Question 6

 

Outlining is regarded by our authors as:

  • Question 7

 

When presenting a speech on the evaluation of jazz as a musical art form in America, Betsy first spoke about Dixieland jazz, the period of swing followed by be-bop. She concluded her remarks with comments on progressive and fusion sounds. Betsy used which organizational pattern in her speech?

  • Question 8

 

Organization refers to the placement of lines of reasoning and supporting materials in a pattern that helps to achieve your specific purpose.

  • Question 9

 

According to your authors, the first few minutes are critical to the success of the entire speech.

  • Question 10

 

An effective speaker will quickly establish a reason for audience members to listen.  This part of the introduction is referred to as:

  • Question 11

 

According to Professor John Baird, “Summaries may be effective when presented at the conclusion of a speech (because) they provide the audience with a general structure under which to subsume the more specific points of the speech.”

  • Question 12

 

One of the guidelines for introductions is to prepare the introduction after preparing the body of the speech.

  • Question 13

 

Never use your conclusion to connect your speech topic to a broader context or societal issue.

  • Question 14

 

According to your authors, which of the following is not considered a technique to use in the introduction of a speech?

  • Question 15

 

Which of the following WAS NOT listed as one of the ten introduction techniques?

  • Question 16

 

Telling the audience what you’re planning to discuss during your speech is called:

  • Question 17

 

The arrangement of a series of words, phrases or sentences in a similar form is referred to as:

  • Question 18

 

Using signals when writing is just as important as using signals in a speech.

  • Question 19

 

Your audience is more likely to agree on the connotative definition of a word than it’s denotative definition.

  • Question 20

 

Parallel structure refers to the arrangement of a series of words, phrases or sentences in a similar form.

  • Question 21

 

Jargon can be used effectively if you are sure the members of your audience understand your references.

  • Question 22

 

If I’m talking about my cat, and instead of saying, “I have a cat,” I say, “I have a white, long-haired, 12-year-old cat that weighs 20 pounds,” I am following what guideline regarding language usage?

  • Question 23

 

Which of the following phrases is NOT considered a signal?

  • Question 24

 

A(n) ______________ speech involves the least amount of preparation.

  • Question 25

 

The most appropriate mode of delivery for students in a public speaking class is memorization.

  • Question 26

 

According to your text, no other aspect of nonverbal communication is more important than:

  • Question 27

 

Which of the following is a characteristic of a manuscript speech?

  • Question 28

 

All of the following are relevant aspects of speech preparation.  However, the key to successful manuscript speaking is ___________.

  • Question 29

 

One of the performance guidelines for memorizing speeches is to memorize small sections of your speech at a time.

  • Question 30

 

Which of the following is TRUE about gestures?.

 

Q9. COMS 101 quiz 2: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 2 (Already Graded A)

 

COMS 101 quiz 2: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 2

  • Question 1 

 

Which is not included in the body of the speech?

  • Question 2 

 

Plagiarism involves using another’s work, words, or ideas without adequate acknowledgement.

  • Question 3 

 

A _________________ expresses your speech’s main point in one complete sentence.

  • Question 4 

 

Which of the following strategies will help to reduce speech tension most effectively?

  • Question 5 

 

The most effective way to organize your speech is to divide your message into four parts: opening remarks, thesis, body, and conclusion.

  • Question 6 

 

Jessie referred to an study, reported on ScienceDaily, in which communication professors Amy Nathanson and Eric Rasmussen found that early TV exposure harms parent-child communication. Jessie offered a quote from Nathanson and Rasmussen state this point. This is an example of which kind of support?

  • Question 7 

 

Which of the following is a literal analogy?

  • Question 8 

 

The specific purpose of your speech is ____________.

  • Question 9 

 

Which of the following is an example of a specific purpose?

  • Question 10 

 

____________ involves using other people’s works, words or ideas without adequate acknowledgement.

  • Question 11 

 

Burt, attending a Midwestern university, delivered his first speech in his public speaking class on the growing numbers of automobile accidents in Italy. The problem with his speech, however, essentially was:

  • Question 12 

 

“Ornate ambiguity” is the term used for a speaker who plans to be vague, sketchy, and considerably abstract.

  • Question 13 

 

Which of the following IS NOT one of the types of informative speaking?

  • Question 14 

 

“Show trends” is one of the suggestions provided when discussing which goal of informative speaking?

  • Question 15 

 

This type of speech deals with abstract subjects such as ideas, theories, and principles.

  • Question 16 

 

The notion of avoiding information overload refers to which goal of informative speaking?

  • Question 17 

 

Saying “first, “second,” “third,” as you cover your three main points is an example of:

  • Question 18 

 

A speech that paints a picture of an event, person, concept, and so on.

  • Question 19 

 

Which of the following is the definition of a speech of description?

  • Question 20 

 

Guidelines for the informative speaking goal of ____________ include questioning the source of the information, considering the timeliness of the information.

  • Question 21 

 

___________________ is the process of preparing and delivering messages through verbal and nonverbal symbols to individuals or groups in order to alter, strengthen, or maintain attitudes, beliefs, values, or behaviors.

  • Question 22 

 

The two overall persuasive goals are:

  • Question 23 

 

“Consider now how you can enjoy retirement lounging in the sunshine of a warm climate, secure financially, and with both a mind and a soul for pleasure and comfort from making good investments during your working years.” This statement is found in which step in the motivated sequence?

  • Question 24 

 

In the satisfaction step of the motivated sequence, you describe the problem you will address in your speech.

  • Question 25 

 

In all cases of inductive reasoning, you can never be sure that your conclusions are absolutely accurate.

  • Question 26 

 

Of the three parts of an argument, the most difficult part to understand is often the:

  • Question 27 

 

The statement, “Malnutrition is a growing problem worldwide, especially in Asia,” is:

  • Question 28 

 

Staging refers to the sequence of interlinking claims that establish the content and force of your position.

  • Question 29 

 

“Dynamism” in credibility studies refers to logical precision.

  • Question 30 

 

The part of an argument that links the evidence with the statement (claim) is called the:

 

 

Q10. COMS 101 quiz 3: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 3 (Already Graded A)

 

COMS 101 quiz 3: Liberty University / Liberty University COMS 101 Quiz 3

 

Question 1 Which of the following is not true regarding occupation as a demographic characteristic? 

Question 2 Which of the following was not listed as one ofthe five variables related to “Who are my listeners?‘ 

Question 3 questions limit responses to several choices, yielding valuable information about such demographic factors a age, education, and income. 

Question 4 Which question is NOT a key question the text indicates is essential in audience analysis? 

Question 5 Audience expectations are rarely defined for you by the speaking invitation. 

Question 6 The first step in using a questionnaire is designing specific questions that are likelyto get you the information you need. 

Question 7 Attitudes are predispositions to act in a particular way that influence individuals responses to objects, events, and situations. 

Question 8 Which of the following is true about “avoid the age gap” when ma kingthe speaker—audience connection? 

Question 9 When trying to influence listeners, it is easier to change their attitudes than their beliefs or values. 

Question 10 A spea ker must be inclusive to avoid unfairly categorizing or stereotyping members of the audience. 

Question 11 If you were interested in discovering material from a comprehensive source on art and artists in your preparation for an informative speech. which of the fol lowing sou rces is most likely to provide you with the best information? 

Question 12 Identifi’ the best description of what research is: 

Question 13 An effective library search strategy moves you from the most specific information to be located in governmental sources to the very general information found in encyclopedias. 

Question 14 A credible speaker is perceived as a fan 

Question 15 lf you use a diagram, illustration, or graph from some source, you need to cite that source during your speech. 

Question 16 If you decide to interview, make sure you contact the person in advance, prepare questions in advance, develop questions in a logical order, and: 

Question 17 Message credibility is the extent to which a speaker is perceived as a competent spokesperson. 

Question 18 Which of the following IS NOT one of the four steps in developing a research strategy? 

Question 19 A website that is(has) is reliable and error-free. 

Question 20 Message credibility is defined as 

Question 21 A study bythe University of Minnesota and the 3M Corporation found that speakers who integrate visuals into their talks are 60 percent more likelyto persuade their audiences than speakers who rely solely on verbal images. 

Question 22 Which ofthe following WAS NOT identified as a function of presentational aids? 

Question 23 A key advantage in using presentational aids in a speech is: 

Question 24 Visual aids fall into four categories. Which of the following is not one of these categories? 

Question 25 While other aspects of your speech should be audience-centered. the presentational aid is designed specifically to help the speaker. 

Question 26 Research has shown that three days after an event, people retain ‘IU percent of what they heard from an oral presentation, but they retain 35 percent of a visual presentation. Question 27 If you see audiences looking at your presentational aid as though asking, “What does THAT mean?” then you have violated which of the criteria for a presentational aid? 

Question 28 When using two-dimensional presentational aids, you want to ask yourself what its purpose is and if it will make the speech better. This question relates to which criteria for using two—dimensional presentational aids? 

Question 29 A study bythe University of Minnesota and the 3M Corporation found that speakers who integrate visuals into their talks are more likelyto persuade their audiences than speakers who rely solely on verbal images. 

Question 30 Which ofthe following WAS NOT identified as one ofthe general criteria for using presentational aids?

 

 

 

 

 

 

ARCHITECTURE

Q1. Architecture, Building and Planning-

Get creative. Write about what inspires you. Add photo to support your idea.

 

Q2. Elizabeth is a Fundamentalist living

Elizabeth is a Fundamentalist living in the 1930s. Your task is to go back in time and interview Elizabeth. The focus of your interview is twofold. First, you are to discern from Elizabeth what it meant to be a Fundamentalist in the 1930’s, how that shaped her worldview, and how America understood fundamentalism at the time. Second, you are to learn from Elizabeth how American religion has changed over time. How is being a Fundamentalist in the 1930’s the same and/or different from being a Puritan in the Colonial period? What, if anything, has changed? Again, your goal is to help the modern reader to understand the religious milieu and fervor that would have shaped Elizabeth’s world.
The script of your interview should be written in full; showing both the questions you would ask and the responses Elizabeth might provide. You must ask a minimum of 5 questions. Insert citations in the interview script so the modern reader might go and learn more about life as a Puritan and/or the religious setting of the period. You should list those sources at the end of your interview document. Your interview should use a minimum of 3 sources and should be between 2-3 pages long.

 

Q3. ACC-281-Week-5-Final-Paper

Focus of the Final Paper

Write an 8 to 10 page Case Analysis of the following article (which can be found in the Ashford Online ProQuest database):

Souza, M. & McCarty, B. (2007). From bottom to top: How one provider retooled its collections [electronic version]. Healthcare Financial Management, 61(9), 67-73.

Include the following:

1) Complete summary of the case study that identifies the key problems and issues, provides background information, relevant facts, the solution employed, and the results achieved.

2) Identify and explain the accounting practices California Sutter Health used in defining and solving its collection problems. Develop an alternative solution based on your own research using 3 to 5 academic sources from journals, professional organizations, and websites.

3) State your informed opinion of the approach used by California Sutter Health, and provide support using concepts from your research and personal experience.

 

Q4. BCOM 230 Week 1 Individual Assign

Reviewthe chosen organization’s philosophy, mission, vision, and values statements. This statement identifies the organization’s espoused values. Research the University Library or the Internet to locate articles about the organization’s enacted values.

Writea 350- to 700-word paper based on your review and research. Complete the following in your paper:
Describe the culture of the organization.
Discuss the types of communication this organization uses for internal and external communication.
The extent to which communication in an organization is determined by the organization’s culture.
Do the espoused values of the selected organization align with its enacted values?

 

Q5. Go to YouTube, and search for an epis

Go to YouTube, and search for an episode of UnderCover Boss. Imagine you are the CEO of the company in the selected episode.Compare two (2) job positions from the episode and perform a job analysis of each position.

  1. Describe your method of collecting the information for the job analysis (i.e., one-on-one, interview, survey, etc.).
  2. Create a job description from the job analysis.
  3. Justify your belief that the job analysis and job description are in compliance with state and federal regulations.
  4. Use at least three (3) quality academic resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.

 

Q6. Parkway Distributors is a wholesale fi

Smith Construction is building a warehouse for Raymond. The construction firm routinely leaves certain construction equipment at the building site overnight and on weekends. Late one night, Fred, age 10, began playing on some of Smith’s construction equipment. Fred accidentally released the brakes of a tractor on which he was playing, and the tractor rolled down a hill and smashed into the building under construction. Fred was severely injured in the accident. Fred’s parents sue both Smith Construction & Raymond for the injury.

  • What legal doctrine is applicable in this case? Explain.

Parkway Distributors is a wholesale firm that employs several outside salespersons. Emily, a salesperson employed by Parkway Distributors, was involved in an accident with another motorist while she was using her car to make regular sales calls for Parkway distributors. Emily and the motorist are seriously injured in the accident. The motorist sues both Emily and Parkway Distributors for the injury based on negligence.

  • Is there a legal basis for Parkway Distributors to be held legally liable for the injury to the motorist? Explain.

 

 

 

  1. Whirlwind Mowers manufactures and sells power lawn mowers to the public and distributes the products through its own dealers. Andrew is a homeowner who has purchased a power mower from an authorized dealer on the basis of the dealer’s recommendation that “the mower is the best one available to do the job.” Andrew was cutting his lawn when the mower blade flew off and seriously injured his leg.
  • Andrew sues Whirlwind Mowers and asks for damages based on negligence in producing the power mower. Is Whirlwind Mowers guilty of negligence? Explain.

 

Q7. HLT 362 Module 5 Correlation Regression and Chi Square Excel Worksheet

HLT 362 Module 5 Correlation Regression and Chi Square Excel Worksheet

SYSTOLIC AND DIASTOLIC BLOOD PRESSURE OF FEMALES

The following table represents systolic and diastolic blood pressure measurements of 40 females.

 

  1. A) Use the Excel Analysis ToolPak to find the linear correlation coefficient for the systolic and diastolic measurements.

 

  1. B) Use the Excel Analysis ToolPak to determine the linear regression equation that uses the systolic pressure to predict the diastolic pressure.

 

  1. C) What is the best predicted value for diastolic pressure given that a woman has a systolic level of 100?

 

 

 

Q8. HLT 310V A Spirituality Assessment

HLT 310V A Spiritualit

HLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality AssessmentHLT 310V A Spirituality Assessment

 

 

 

Q9. Hlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 W

hlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 Which patient scored the highest on the preoperative CVLT Acquisition What was his or her T scorehlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 Which patient scored the highest on the preoperative CVLT Acquisition What was his or her T scorehlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 Which patient scored the highest on the preoperative CVLT Acquisition What was his or her T scorehlt 362v Workbook exercise 20 Which patient scored the highest on the preoperative CVLT Acquisition What was his or her T score

 

Q10. Who is an Entrepreneur Where do

Who is an Entrepreneur Where do Entrepreneurs find opportunities to seize upon Describe what some of these opportunities are?  And, describe the creative destruction process.Who is an Entrepreneur Where do Entrepreneurs find opportunities to seize upon Describe what some of these opportunities are?  And, describe the creative destruction process.Who is an Entrepreneur Where do Entrepreneurs find opportunities to seize upon Describe what some of these opportunities are?  And, describe the creative destruction process.

 

BIOLOGY.

Q1. NURS 545/BIOLOGY 4344: Patho Exam 2 Review: 100%

True/False

Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false. (T/F, ANSWERS AT THE END OF THE PAPER)

 

____    1.   Anaplasia is recognized by loss or organization and a marked increase in nuclear size.

 

____    2.   A hallmark of cancer cells is their immortality.

 

____    3.   For the function of tumor suppressor genes to be lost, only one chromosome (allele) of the gene must be inactivated.

 

____    4.   Most cancers must acquire mutation in six distinct areas: growth signals, antigrowth signals, evading apoptosis, replicating ability, angiogenesis, and invasion and metastasis.

 

____    5.   There is no current evidence that associates obesity with cancer formation.

 

____    6.   The term “neoplasm” can refer to a benign tumor.

 

____    7.   The brain does not require insulin for glucose uptake.

 

____    8.   Somatostatin produced by the hypothalamus inhibits the release of growth hormone and thyroid stimulating hormone.

 

____    9.   Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) directly affects melanocyte stimulation.

 

____  10.   Aldosterone secretion is stimulated by angiotensin I.

 

____  11.   Antidiuretic hormone has no direct effect on electrolyte levels.

 

____  12.   A person with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) usually craves cold drinks.

 

____  13.   Pituitary adenomas are malignant tumors.

 

____  14.   Abnormal immunologic mechanisms producing autoantibodies are responsible for both Graves’ disease and hypothyroidism.

 

____  15.   Thyroid carcinoma, although rare, is the most common endocrine malignancy.

 

____  16.   The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is damage to the glands during surgery.

 

____  17.   Individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus have a greater degree of pancreatic changes than individuals with type 1 diabetes.

 

____  18.   Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by increased levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

 

____  19.   Glucose levels are considerably lower in hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketosis syndrome (HHNKS) than in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).

 

____  20.   When the myocardium hypertrophies, the capillaries of the heart become more extensive and numerous.

 

____  21.   Veins are less compliant than arteries.

 

____  22.   Autoregulation ensures constant coronary blood flow despite normal shifts in perfusion pressure.

 

____  23.   Metabolic or hormonal agents produce changes in the heart and circulatory system faster than autonomic neural transmission.

 

____  24.   While both produce vasoconstriction, the effects of norepinephrine are quantitatively more vasoconstrictive than the effects of epinephrine.

 

____  25.   Decreasing low-density lipoproteins (LDL) can cause regression of atherosclerotic lesions and improve endothelial function.

 

____  26.   Once fatty streaks accumulate, they form foam cells that cause immunologic changes that damage the endothelium.

 

____  27.   Even though air is lighter than blood, it can form an embolism and cause the occlusion of a blood vessel.

 

____  28.   Raynaud disease is characterized by vasospasms of large peripheral arteries.

 

____  29.   Many people with diabetes mellitus type 2, who were treated with drugs that increased insulin sensitivity, experienced a decline in their blood pressure without taking antihypertensive drugs.

 

____  30.   Chronic venous insufficiency can progress to varicose veins and valvular incompetence.

 

____  31.   Although cholesterol can be easily obtained via dietary intake, most body cells are also capable of synthesizing cholesterol.

 

____  32.   In high output failure, the heart increases its output, but the body’s metabolic needs are still not met.

 

____  33.   When fluid collects gradually in a pericardial effusion, the pericardium stretches to accommodate large quantities of fluid without compressing the heart.

 

____  34.   Acute rheumatic fever can develop only as a sequel to pharyngeal infection by group A -streptococcus.

 

____  35.   An increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume in diastolic heart failure may lead to pulmonary edema.

 

____  36.   Many cases of mitral valve prolapse are completely asymptomatic.

 

____  37.   Chorea or St. Vitus dance is the most definitive sign of rheumatic fever.

 

____  38.   Atrial and brain natriuretic peptides are increased in congestive heart failure and may have some protective effect in decreasing preload.

 

Multiple Choice

Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

____  39.   Which are cancers arising from connective tissue tissues?

a.

Osteogenic sarcoma

b.

Basal cell carcinoma

c.

Multiple myeloma

d.

Adenocarcinoma

 

 

____  40.   Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin?

a.

Blood vessels

b.

Epithelium cells

c.

Connective tissue

d.

Glandular tissue

 

 

____  41.   What are characteristics of cancer in situ?

a.

Cells have broken through the local basement membrane.

b.

Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue.

c.

Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells.

d.

Cellular and tissues changes indicate dysplasia.

 

 

____  42.   Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized. This is an example of:

a.

dysplasia.

b.

hyperplasia.

c.

myoplasia.

d.

anaplasia.

 

 

____  43.   What are tumor cell markers?

a.

Hormones, enzymes, antigens, and antibodies produced by cancer cells

b.

Receptor sites on tumor cells that can be identified and marked

c.

Cytokines produced against cancer cells

d.

Identification marks used in administering radiation therapy

 

 

____  44.   How are tumor cell markers used?

a.

To provide a definitive diagnosis of cancer

b.

To treat certain types of cancer

c.

To predict where cancers will develop

d.

To screen individuals at high risk for cancer

 

 

____  45.   Intestinal polyps are benign neoplasms and the first stage in development of colon cancer. These findings support the notion that:

a.

cancers of the colon are more easily diagnosed in the benign form because they can be visualized during colonoscopy.

b.

an accumulation of mutations in specific genes is required for the development of cancer.

c.

tumor invasion and metastasis progress more slowly in the gastrointestinal tract.

d.

apoptosis is triggered by diverse stimuli including excessive growth.

 

 

____  46.   What is autocrine stimulation?

a.

The ability of cancer cells to stimulate angiogenesis to create their own blood supply

b.

The ability of cancer cells to stimulate secretions that turn off normal growth inhibitors

c.

The ability of cancer cells to secrete growth factors that stimulate their own growth

d.

The ability of cancer cells to divert nutrients away from normal tissue for their own use

 

 

____  47.   Many cancers create a mutation of ras. What is ras?

a.

A tumor suppressor gene

b.

A growth promoting gene

c.

An intracellular signaling protein that regulates cell growth

d.

A cell surface receptor that allows signaling to the nucleus about cell growth

 

 

____  48.   What are oncogenes?

a.

Genes that have undergone mutation that direct the synthesis of protein to accelerate the rate of tissue proliferation

b.

Genes that direct synthesis of proteins to regulate growth and provide necessary replacement of tissue

c.

Genes that encode proteins that negatively regulate the synthesis of proteins to show or halt replacement of tissue

d.

Genes that have undergone mutation to direct malignant tissue toward blood vessels and lymph nodes for metastasis

 

 

____  49.   Burkitt lymphomas designate a chromosome that has a piece of chromosome 8 fused to a piece of chromosome 14. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?

a.

Point mutation

b.

Chromosome translocation

c.

Gene amplification

d.

Chromosome fusion

 

 

____  50.   In chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) a piece of chromosome 9 fuses to a piece of chromosome 22. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?

a.

Point mutation

b.

Chromosome fusion

c.

Gene amplification

d.

Chromosome translocation

 

 

____  51.   What aberrant change causes the abnormal growth in retinoblastoma?

a.

Proto-oncogenes are changed to oncogenes.

b.

The tumor suppressor gene is turned off.

c.

Genetic amplification causes the growth.

d.

Chromosomes 9 and 21 are fused.

 

 

____  52.   Why are two “hits” required to inactivate tumor suppressor genes?

a.

Because each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent

b.

Because the first “hit” stops tissue growth and the second “hit” is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth

c.

Because they are larger than proto-oncogenes requiring two “hits” to effect carcinogenesis

d.

Because the first “hit” is insufficient to cause sufficient damage to cause a mutation

 

 

____  53.   By what process does the ras gene convert from a proto-oncogene to an oncogene?

a.

By designating a chromosome that has a piece of one chromosome fused to a piece of another chromosome

b.

By duplicating a small piece of a chromosome repeatedly making numerous copies

c.

By alternating one or more nucleotide base pairs

d.

By promoting proliferation of growth signals by impairing tumor suppressor genes

 

 

____  54.   What are characteristics of benign tumors?

a.

They invade local tissues.

b.

They spread through lymph.

c.

They cause systemic symptoms.

d.

They have a low mitotic index.

 

 

____  55.   Which of the following represents the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?

a.

Liposarcoma, lipoma

b.

Lipoma, liposarcoma

c.

Adisarcoma, adipoma

d.

Adipoma, adisarcoma

 

 

____  56.   Most human cancers appear to arise via:

a.

autosomal recessive gene inheritance.

b.

spontaneous gene mutations.

c.

X-linked recessive gene inheritance.

d.

autosomal dominant gene inheritance.

 

 

____  57.   Smoking is associated with cancers of all of the following except:

a.

lung.

b.

skin.

c.

bladder.

d.

kidney.

e.

pancreas.

 

 

____  58.   The major virus involved in cervical cancer is:

a.

herpes simplex virus type 6.

b.

herpes simplex virus type 2.

c.

human papillomavirus.

d.

human immunodeficiency virus.

 

 

____  59.   The Papanicolaou (Pap) test is used to screen for which cancer?

a.

Ovarian

b.

Uterine

c.

Cervical

d.

Vaginal

 

 

____  60.   Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses?

a.

Papovaviruses, adenoviruses, and herpesviruses

b.

Retroviruses, papovaviruses, and adenoviruses

c.

Adenoviruses, herpesviruses, and retroviruses

d.

Herpesviruses, retroviruses, and papovaviruses

 

 

____  61.   Which characteristic among women correlates with a high morbidity of cancer of the colon, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, breast, uterus, and kidney?

a.

Women over 45 years

b.

Women who never had children

c.

Women who had a high body mass index

d.

Woman who smoked for more than 10 years

 

 

____  62.   Which cancers are associated with chronic inflammation?

a.

Skin, lung, and pancreatic

b.

Colon, liver, and lung

c.

Bone, blood cells, and pancreatic

d.

Bladder, skin, and kidney

 

 

____  63.   How does chronic inflammation cause cancer?

a.

By vasodilation and increased permeability that alter cellular response to DNA damage

b.

By liberating lysosomal enzymes when cells are damaged, which initiates mutations

c.

By releasing compounds such as reactive oxygen species that promote mutations

d.

By increasing the abundance of leukotrienes that are associated with some cancers

 

 

____  64.   Inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost invariably what kind of gene?

a.

Proto-oncogenes

b.

Oncogenes

c.

Tumor suppressor genes

d.

Growth promoting genes

 

 

____  65.   Regulation of the release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla is an example of _____ regulation.

a.

negative-feedback

b.

positive-feedback

c.

neural

d.

physiologic

 

 

____  66.   Hormones are effective communicators because they:

a.

are regularly synthesized in response to cellular and tissue activities.

b.

increase their secretion in response to rising hormone levels.

c.

are rapidly degraded once they enter the cell.

d.

decrease their secretion in response to rising plasma hormone levels.

 

 

____  67.   Which of the following is a protein hormone that is water soluble?

a.

Thyroxine (T4)

b.

Aldosterone

c.

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

d.

Insulin

 

 

____  68.   How are most protein hormones transported in the bloodstream?

a.

Bound to a lipid-soluble carrier

b.

Free in an unbound, water-soluble form

c.

Bound to a water-soluble binding protein

d.

Free because of their lipid-soluble chemistry

 

 

____  69.   Which second messenger is stimulated by epinephrine binding to a ß-adrenergic receptor?

a.

Calcium

b.

Inositol triphosphate (IP3)

c.

Diacylglycerol (DAG)

d.

Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)

 

 

____  70.   Which of the following hormones acts on its target cell via a second messenger?

a.

Angiotensin II

b.

Thyroxine

c.

Estrogen

d.

Testosterone

e.

Aldosterone

 

 

____  71.   Calcium is rigidly controlled within cells. It is highly regulated because it:

a.

is controlled by the calcium negative-feedback loop.

b.

is continuously synthesized.

c.

acts as a second messenger.

d.

carries lipid-soluble hormones in the bloodstream.

 

 

____  72.   Under what circumstances does antidiuretic hormone act to cause vasoconstriction?

a.

When urine output is less than 20 ml per hour

b.

When serum osmolality is increased

c.

When osmotic and oncotic pressures are increased

d.

When vasopressin is given pharmacologically

 

 

____  73.   What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor?

a.

Hypothalamus

b.

Anterior pituitary

c.

Mammary glands

d.

Posterior pituitary

 

 

____  74.   Where is oxytocin synthesized?

a.

Hypothalamus

b.

Paraventricular nuclei

c.

Anterior pituitary

d.

Posterior pituitary

 

 

____  75.   Norepinephrine stimulates the release of which hormone?

a.

Thyroxine

b.

Adrenocorticotropic hormone

c.

Growth hormone

d.

Insulin

 

 

____  76.   What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes?

a.

It increases serum calcium.

b.

It decreases serum calcium.

c.

It decreases serum magnesium.

d.

It increases serum magnesium.

 

 

____  77.   Which electrolyte does insulin transport in the cell?

a.

Potassium

b.

Calcium

c.

Sodium

d.

Magnesium

 

 

____  78.   Which lab value would be expected for the patient with hypothyroidism?

a.

Increased triiodothyronine (T3)

b.

Increased thyroxine (T4)

c.

Increased thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

d.

Increased calcitonin

 

 

____  79.   Target cells for parathyroid hormone (PTH) are located in the:

a.

tubules of nephrons.

b.

thyroid gland.

c.

glomeruli of nephrons.

d.

smooth and skeletal muscles.

 

 

____  80.   A surgical patient just arrived on the unit from the post-anesthesia care unit. This patient’s respirations are 4 per minute and shallow. As the nurse calls for assistance, the patient suddenly feels jittery and breathing quickens. Which of the following feedback loops is operating for the nurse in this situation?

a.

The central nervous system stimulates hypothalamus-releasing factor, which acts on the anterior pituitary gland to secrete thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and stimulates the release of thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3).

b.

The central nervous system directly stimulates the release of insulin, which reduces blood glucose levels.

c.

The central nervous system directly stimulates the adrenal medulla to secrete epinephrine and stimulates hypothalamus-releasing factor, which acts on the anterior pituitary gland to secrete adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH), stimulating the release of cortisol.

d.

The central nervous system stimulates the hypothalamus to synthesize oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone, which are secreted by the posterior pituitary, activating uterine contraction and renal absorption of water.

 

 

____  81.   What are actions of glucocorticoids?

a.

Protein catabolism and liver gluconeogenesis

b.

Fat storage and glucose use

c.

Decreased blood glucose and fat mobilization

d.

Fat, protein, and carbohydrate anabolism

 

 

____  82.   What are the effects of high levels of aldosterone?

a.

Hypokalemia and alkalosis

b.

Hyperkalemia and alkalosis

c.

Hyperkalemia and acidosis

d.

Hypokalemia and acidosis

 

 

____  83.   What effect does aldosterone have on fluid and electrolyte imbalances?

a.

It directly increases magnesium reabsorption.

b.

It directly increases calcium reabsorption.

c.

It directly increases sodium reabsorption.

d.

It directly increases water reabsorption.

 

 

____  84.   Which of the following is an expected change in an older patient?

a.

Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) secretion below normal

b.

Triiodothyronine (T3) level below normal

c.

Cortisol level above normal

d.

Adrenocorticotropin hormone (ACTH) level above normal

 

 

____  85.   Cell surface receptors include all of the following except:

a.

G-protein–linked.

b.

ion channel.

c.

second messenger.

d.

tyrosine-kinase linked.

 

 

____  86.   What are the effects of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

a.

Solute retention and water retention

b.

Solute retention and water loss

c.

Solute dilution and water retention

d.

Solute dilution and water loss

 

 

____  87.   The nurse is evaluating a patient with oat cell adenocarcinoma of the lung for syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following laboratory values would the nurse expect to find if the patient had SIADH?

a.

Hypernatremia and urine hypo-osmolality

b.

Serum K5 and urine hyperosmolality

c.

Serum Na120 and serum hypo-osmolality

d.

Hypokalemia and serum hyperosmolality

 

 

____  88.   A patient with a closed head injury secondary to a motorcycle accident has a urine output of 6 to 8 L/day and electrolytes are within normal limits. The nurse draws a serum ADH level and conducts a water deprivation test. With no intake for 4 hours, there is no change in the patient’s polyuria. The serum ADH level is low. These are an indication of:

a.

neurogenic diabetes insipidus.

b.

syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH).

c.

psychogenic polydipsia.

d.

osmotically induced diuresis.

 

 

____  89.   Which is a cause of diabetes insipidus (DI)?

a.

Organic lesion of the anterior pituitary

b.

Organic lesion of the thalamus

c.

Organic lesion of the posterior pituitary

d.

Organic lesion of the renal tubules

 

 

____  90.   If the target cells for ADH do not have receptors, the result is _____ diabetes insipidus (DI).

a.

neurogenic

b.

nephrogenic

c.

psychogenic

d.

ischemic

 

 

____  91.   Which laboratory value is consistent with diabetes insipidus (DI)?

a.

Urine specific gravity is low.

b.

Serum sodium is low.

c.

Urine protein is low.

d.

Serum total protein is low.

 

 

____  92.   The type of diabetes insipidus that is most likely to be treatable with exogenous ADH is:

a.

neurogenic.

b.

psychogenic

c.

nephrogenic.

d.

ischemic.

 

 

____  93.   Hyperpituitarism is generally caused by:

a.

a pituitary adenoma.

b.

hypothalamic hyposecretion.

c.

autoimmune disorder of the pituitary.

d.

a neurohypophysial tumor.

 

 

____  94.   What is the term used to describe a patient who experiences cortisol deficiency from lack of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), thyroid deficiency from lack of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), and gonadal failure with loss of secondary sex characteristics from the absence of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)?

a.

Panhypopituitarism

b.

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) deficiency

c.

Hypopituitarism

d.

Anterior pituitary failure

 

 

____  95.   How does a primary adenoma cause thyroid and adrenal hypofunction?

a.

The tumor metastasizes to the thyroid and adrenal glands through the lymphatic system causing reduce secretion of necessary hormones.

b.

The tumor has a paradoxical effect on adjacent cells, which results in hyposecretion of other anterior pituitary hormones.

c.

The tumor invades the hypothalamus adjacent to it and causes a reduction in the amount of hormones produced.

d.

The tumor releases tumor markers that occupy the hormone receptor sites of other endocrine organs.

 

 

____  96.   Which disorder is caused by hypersecretion of the growth hormone in adults?

a.

Cushing syndrome

b.

Acromegaly

c.

Gigantism

d.

Myxedema

 

 

____  97.   What tumor causes amenorrhea, galactorrhea, hirsutism, and osteopenia?

a.

Posterior pituitary adenoma

b.

Thymoma

c.

Prolactinoma

d.

Growth hormone adenoma

 

 

____  98.   How does Graves’ disease develop?

a.

A viral infection of the thyroid gland that causes overproduction of thyroid hormones

b.

A chronic autoimmune process in which thyroid tissue is replaced by lymphocytes and fibrous tissue

c.

A development of thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins that causes overproduction of thyroid hormones

d.

An ingestion of goitrogens or foods that inhibits synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing a goiter

 

 

____  99.   What are signs of thyroid crisis from Graves’ disease?

a.

Weight gain to 155 lb with height of 5’8″

b.

Heart rate 90 beats/min and respiratory rate 16 breaths/min

c.

Hot and moist skin with protrusion of eyeballs

d.

Constipation and amenorrhea

 

 

____ 100.   What pathologic changes occur in Graves’ disease?

a.

High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins

b.

Stimulation by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)

c.

Stimulation by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

d.

Stimulation of thyroid-binding globulin

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q2 DDBA 8151: Organizational Leadership: Doctoral Theory and Practice

To prepare for this Assignment, review this week’s Learning Resources and select four leadership theories. Search the Walden Library for additional peer-reviewed, scholarly resources about your selected leadership theories. You should use both the articles in the Learning Resources and additional scholarly resources in your evaluation.

Submit an evaluation of at least four leadership theories in the form of a properly formatted, APA-compliant taxonomy table. For each of the theories you select, you should include the following:

  • The name of the theory
  • The year the theory was introduced
  • The theorist/author
  • Key components of the theory

For each theory presented, be sure to include a minimum of two references to peer-reviewed, scholarly resources, as well as appropriate in-text citations.

Note: Be sure to use the Leadership Theory Taxonomy Template to complete this Assignment. Also, refer to the Week 3 Assignment Rubric for specific grading elements and criteria.

The assignment will be submitted to SafeAssign.

 

Q3. Need help with DB post

 

Topic: The Brain on Mind Altering Drugs

Psychoactive drugs alter brain function by acting at synapses in the brain, where they may mimic, enhance, or block the effects of natural signaling molecules (neurotransmitters). The neurotransmitter dopamine plays a particularly important role in creating the dependency aspect of both drug and behavioral addictions. Natural behaviors which enhance survival and/or reproduction, such as eating or engaging in sex, result in a surge of dopamine. Normally, this response helps individuals learn to repeat beneficial behaviors. However, when an addict uses a drug or behavior to cause dopamine release, they are using this learning pathway to teach themselves that this behavior is essential to their well-being. These circuits become a lifelong plague which makes the addict more prone to relapse.

 

Brain imaging studies from drug-addicted individuals show physical changes in areas of the brain that are critical to judgment, decision-making, learning and memory, and behavior control. Psychoactive drugs affect signal transmission in the brain by encouraging or inhibiting release of a neurotransmitter, blocking or mimicking its action, or affecting its reuptake. The effect of a particular neurotransmitter on a postsynaptic cell depends on the type of neurotransmitter and the type of receptor it binds to. The neurotransmitter ACh affects alertness and plays a role in memory. Norepinephrine and epinephrine (adrenaline) prepare the body to respond to stress or excitement. Dopamine influences reward-based learning and acts in fine motor control. Serotonin influences mood and memory. Glutamate is the main excitatory signal in the central nervous system. Endorphins are the body’s natural pain relievers.

 

Important Concepts from Chapter 13:

  • Section 13.3: How Neurons Communicate The region where an axon terminal sends chemical signals to a neuron, a muscle fiber, or a gland cell is a chemical synapse. Axon terminals have synaptic vesicles filled with neurotransmitter, a signaling molecule that relays messages between cells at a synapse. The plasma membrane of a postsynaptic cell has receptor proteins that reversibly bind neurotransmitter. How a receiving cell responds depends on the type and amount of the neurotransmitter, the kinds of receptors, and other factors. Certain drugs can block reuptake of neurotransmitters.
  • Section 13.13: The Brain on Mind Altering Drugs Drugs such as morphine and heroin mimic a neurotransmitter’s effect on a postsynaptic cell; they bind to receptors for endorphins (natural pain relievers), and elicit pain relief and feelings of well-being. Caffeine binds and inactivates receptors for adenosine, a neurotransmitter that causes drowsiness. Alcohol encourages drowsiness by releasing adenosine. Other drugs interfere with reuptake of neurotransmitter from the synaptic cleft. For example, cocaine slows reuptake of several neurotransmitters, including dopamine.

 

Assignment:

  1. Visit the NIH National Institute on Drug Abuse and read the article Drugs, Brains and Behavior: The Science of Drug Addiction.
  2. Go to Indiana University and read an article on Addictive Behaviors.

 

Prompt : – Using the sources provided, briefly describe one factor that can increase the risk of drug addiction, and one protective factor that can reduce the risk of drug addiction. – Why do you think Americans use so many legal drugs (e.g., alcohol, tobacco, and OTC drugs)?

 

 

Topic: The Brain on Mind Altering Drugs

Psychoactive drugs alter brain function by acting at synapses in the brain, where they may mimic, enhance, or block the effects of natural signaling molecules (neurotransmitters). The neurotransmitter dopamine plays a particularly important role in creating the dependency aspect of both drug and behavioral addictions. Natural behaviors which enhance survival and/or reproduction, such as eating or engaging in sex, result in a surge of dopamine. Normally, this response helps individuals learn to repeat beneficial behaviors. However, when an addict uses a drug or behavior to cause dopamine release, they are using this learning pathway to teach themselves that this behavior is essential to their well-being. These circuits become a lifelong plague which makes the addict more prone to relapse.

Brain imaging studies from drug-addicted individuals show physical changes in areas of the brain that are critical to judgment, decision-making, learning and memory, and behavior control. Psychoactive drugs affect signal transmission in the brain by encouraging or inhibiting release of a neurotransmitter, blocking or mimicking its action, or affecting its reuptake. The effect of a particular neurotransmitter on a postsynaptic cell depends on the type of neurotransmitter and the type of receptor it binds to. The neurotransmitter ACh affects alertness and plays a role in memory. Norepinephrine and epinephrine (adrenaline) prepare the body to respond to stress or excitement. Dopamine influences reward-based learning and acts in fine motor control. Serotonin influences mood and memory. Glutamate is the main excitatory signal in the central nervous system. Endorphins are the body’s natural pain relievers.

Important Concepts from Chapter 13:

  • Section 13.3: How Neurons Communicate The region where an axon terminal sends chemical signals to a neuron, a muscle fiber, or a gland cell is a chemical synapse. Axon terminals have synaptic vesicles filled with neurotransmitter, a signaling molecule that relays messages between cells at a synapse. The plasma membrane of apostsynaptic cell has receptor proteins that reversibly bind neurotransmitter. How a receiving cell responds depends on the type and amount of the neurotransmitter, the kinds of receptors, and other factors. Certain drugs can block reuptake of neurotransmitters.
  • Section 13.13: The Brain on Mind Altering Drugs Drugs such as morphine and heroin mimic a neurotransmitter’s effect on apostsynaptic cell; they bind to receptors for endorphins (natural pain relievers), and elicit pain relief and feelings of well-being. Caffeine binds and inactivates receptors for adenosine, a neurotransmitter that causes drowsiness. Alcohol encourages drowsiness by releasing adenosine. Other drugs interfere with reuptake of neurotransmitter from the synaptic cleft. For example, cocaine slows reuptake of several neurotransmitters, including dopamine.

Assignment:

  1. Visit the NIH National Institute on Drug Abuse and read the article Drugs, Brains and Behavior: The Science of Drug Addiction.
  2. Go to Indiana University and read an article on Addictive Behaviors.

Prompt : – Using the sources provided, briefly describe one factor that can increase the risk of drug addiction, and one protective factor that can reduce the risk of drug addiction. – Why do you think Americans use so many legal drugs (e.g., alcohol, tobacco, and OTC drugs)?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q4. PAPER ON DISEASE PROCESS MUST BE PLAGIARISM FREE

PAPER CAN BE ON BREAST CANCER, LYME DIESEASE OR OVERIAN CANCER

 

This paper must be 900–1,200 words. Do not exceed this word limit. The title page and reference page do not count toward this word total.

You must use current APA formatting. Papers must be double-spaced with 1-inch margins. Font is to be 12-point Times New Roman. Include a title page with your name, instructor’s name, course number and title (i.e., BIOL101, Human Biology), date, and paper title. There is no need to include an abstract in your paper. APA Style Central http://ezproxy.liberty.edu/login?url=http://APAStyleCENTRAL.apa.org

 

Paper on Disease Process Instructions

The focus of this course has been the structure and function of the human body. A disease process results when there is a disorder of this structure or function.This paper will be a 900-1,200-word research-based paper in current APA format focusing on a disease process of your choice. The paper must include at least 2 scholarly references in addition to the course textbooks and materials. The disease chosen must involve at least three organ systems and the effect of the disease on these systems must be detailed in the paper. If you choose a broad disease process like cancer, you will need to specify the type, such as pancreatic cancer. The body is interrelated and the effects of a given disease will often present with common symptoms. The effect of the disease on the body’s efforts to maintain homeostasis should be addressed, as should all other given parameters.

 

Content and Outline

Use the following headings when writing your paper. Each point on the outline below must be a separate section (with the section heading in APA format) within your paper.

 

  1. Introduction
  • Indicate the disease to be discussed
  • Indicate the organ systems affected
  • Provide a brief overview of disease

 

  1. Description
  • Describe disease process
  • Explain disease effect on organ systems
  • Discuss effect on homeostasis and the body as a whole

III.                Diagnosis

  • Outline how the disease is diagnosed
  • Include common symptoms
  • Discuss the main causes of the disease

 

  1. Treatment
  • Discuss treatment and management of the disease
  • Outline steps for prevention of diseasae (if possible)
  1. Conclusion
  • Provide a summary statement for your paper.
  • Do not introduce new material in your conclusion.

 

Length

This paper must be 900–1,200 words. Do not exceed this word limit. The title page and reference page do not count toward this word total.

Format

You must use current APA formatting. Papers must be double-spaced with 1-inch margins. Font is to be 12-point Times New Roman. Include a title page with your name, instructor’s name, course number and title (i.e., BIOL101, Human Biology), date, and paper title. There is no need to include an abstract in your paper. APA Style Central http://ezproxy.liberty.edu/login?url=http://APAStyleCENTRAL.apa.org

 

Sources

Your papaer must include at least 2 scholarly sources in addition the course textbooks and materials.

Acceptable sources include journal articles, manuscripts, scholarly textbooks, and/or internet sites from .edu or .gov sources. Avoid internet sites from .com, .net, .org, etc. as the information contained therein is not often peer reviewed.

 

Citation

Be sure to cite your sources in the body of your paper using current APA formatting. Examples of current APA formatting rules can be found here. Also, a presentation about current APA formatting is provided in Module/Week 6.

 

Plagiarism

Plagiarism is a serious academic infringement. Avoid it at all costs. To learn more about plagiarism and how to avoid it, visit this website. Note that you are fully responsible for any plagiarism detected by the instructor of this course. Cases of plagiarism will be dealt with according to current policies established by Liberty University Online.

 

Submission

Submit your work to Blackboard as a Microsoft Word document. Do not paste your paper in the submission box in Blackboard, only upload the Word document.

 

Submit your Disease Essay by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 6.

 

 

 

Q5. Liberty University CJUS330 Test 3

Liberty University CJUS330 Test 3

Liberty University CJUS330 Test 3

 

 

Q6. BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (3 Latest versions): Liberty University (Already Graded A)

BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University

 

  • Question 1

 

Baleen whales use _______ to prey on herring fish.

  • Question 2

 

The state of flux in modern systematic groupings could best be described as/seen in

  • Question 3

 

The microbe, Paramecium aurelium belongs to the large “Group” Alveolata because it

  • Question 4

 

Seeking to scientifically name each variety of life-form we find and relate it to other similar species is a discipline known as

  • Question 5

 

The state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exists is shown by the fact that the largest category in some groupings is the “Kingdom” while in others it is the

  • Question 6

 

Interspecific competition is defined as

  • Question 7

 

Species of warblers (birds) living in the same general region minimize their interspecific competition by

  • Question 8

 

The large eukaryote, Amoeba proteus belongs to the large “Group” Amoebozoa because

  • Question 9

 

Which of the following is not one of the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

  • Question 10

 

The phytoplankton of a lake would be found in highest numbers in the ________ zone.

  • Question 11

 

A good example of commensalism would be the relationship between

  • Question 12

 

Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

  • Question 13

 

An area providing cool, moist conditions with rocks and decaying logs at an appropriate elevation and rainfall level constitutes a good ________ for the Peaks of Otter salamander.

  • Question 14

 

The term “systematics” refers to

  • Question 15

 

Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

  • Question 16

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

  • Question 17

 

A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because

  • Question 18

 

The microbe, Euglena gracilis belongs to the large “Group” Discicristates because it

  • Question 19

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

  • Question 20

 

A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group

  • Question 21

 

In the human – Greater honeyguide mutualism, the honeyguide bird is benefited by

  • Question 22

 

An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .

  • Question 23

 

The large eukaryote, Zonotrichialeucophrys belongs to the large “Group” Opisthokonta because it

  • Question 24

 

During the springtime, a light wind blowing across a lake will foster the process of lake overturn. This timely event will bring together ___________ with _____________.

  • Question 25

 

The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it

 

 

 

 

BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University

 

  • Question 1 

 

Species of warblers (birds) living in the same general region minimize their interspecific competition by

  • Question 2 

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

  • Question 3 

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

  • Question 4 

 

Seeking to scientifically name each variety of life-form we find and relate it to other similar species is a discipline known as

  • Question 5 

 

Which of the following is not one of the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

  • Question 6 

 

The convention used for representing scientific names for newly discovered species is that ___________ root words are used in order to name the organism’s ___________.

  • Question 7 

 

In the human – Greater honeyguide mutualism, the honeyguide bird is benefited by

  • Question 8 

 

At which of the following levels of organization can the Peaks of Otter salamander be studied?

  • Question 9 

 

The state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exists is shown by the fact that the largest category in some groupings is the “Kingdom” while in others it is the

  • Question 10 

 

The state of flux in modern systematic groupings could best be described as/seen in

  • Question 11 

 

In the mind of evolutionary theorists, separate clades (large groups) derive from

  • Question 12 

 

An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .

  • Question 13 

 

The best term to describe the species-species interaction between Pseudomyrmex ants and the bullhorn acacia plant would be

  • Question 14 

 

Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

  • Question 15 

 

Young Balanus barnacles cannot compete with Chthamalus barnacles in higher intertidal regions because

  • Question 16 

 

A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group

  • Question 17 

 

Interspecific competition is defined as

  • Question 18 

 

When a species of fly has a bold coloration very similar to that of an unpalatable (stinging) Yellowjacket, the fly’s “strategy” is termed

  • Question 19 

 

Which of the following choices reflects a currently accepted classification scheme resulting from the state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exist?

  • Question 20 

 

A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because

  • Question 21 

 

The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it

  • Question 22 

 

Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

  • Question 23 

 

Which of the following defense tactics do plants use to keep from being preyed upon?

  • Question 24 

 

The functional role of a species within its habitat is referred to as its

  • Question 25 

 

A relationship between individuals of two species in which members of one species are benefited and members of the other species are unaffected is termed

 

 

 

BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University

 

  • Question 1 

 

The large eukaryote, Pisum sativum belongs to the large “Group” Plants because it

  • Question 2 

 

From the species level upwards toward higher levels of classification, which of the following choices gives the correct order?

  • Question 3 

 

From the Family level upwards toward higher levels of classification, which of the following choices gives the correct order?

  • Question 4 

 

Which of the following choices names one of the various zones found in a lake?

  • Question 5 

 

Species of organisms are collected into a Genus by

  • Question 6 

 

An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .

  • Question 7 

 

Young Balanus barnacles cannot compete with Chthamalus barnacles in higher intertidal regions because

  • Question 8 

 

Which of the following defense tactics do plants use to keep from being preyed upon?

  • Question 9 

 

Studying competition between the Peaks of Otter salamander and the Eastern Redback salamander would be an example of studying ecology at the _______ level.

  • Question 10 

 

A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group

  • Question 11 

 

A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because

  • Question 12 

 

A good example of commensalism would be the relationship between

  • Question 13 

 

Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

  • Question 14 

 

The convention used for representing scientific names for newly discovered species is that ___________ root words are used in order to name the organism’s ___________.

  • Question 15 

 

When a species of fly has a bold coloration very similar to that of an unpalatable (stinging) Yellowjacket, the fly’s “strategy” is termed

  • Question 16 

 

Which of the following choices reflects a currently accepted classification scheme resulting from the state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exist?

  • Question 17 

 

The microbe, Paramecium aurelium belongs to the large “Group” Alveolata because it

  • Question 18 

 

The microbe, Pyrodictiumoccultum belongs to the large “Group” Archaea because it

  • Question 19 

 

Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

  • Question 20 

 

In the mind of evolutionary theorists, separate clades (large groups) derive from

  • Question 21 

 

The large eukaryote, Amoeba proteus belongs to the large “Group” Amoebozoa because

  • Question 22 

 

At which of the following levels of organization can the Peaks of Otter salamander be studied?

  • Question 23 

 

Your textbook describes two sequential _________ of interaction between organisms and their environments that have existed since God’s creative work began.

  • Question 24 

 

The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it

  • Question 25 

 

In the minds of design theorists, separate clades (large groups) derive from

 

 

Q7. BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University (Already Graded A)

BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University

 

  • Question 1 

 

Species of warblers (birds) living in the same general region minimize their interspecific competition by

  • Question 2 

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

  • Question 3 

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

  • Question 4 

 

Seeking to scientifically name each variety of life-form we find and relate it to other similar species is a discipline known as

  • Question 5 

 

Which of the following is not one of the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

  • Question 6 

 

The convention used for representing scientific names for newly discovered species is that ___________ root words are used in order to name the organism’s ___________.

  • Question 7 

 

In the human – Greater honeyguide mutualism, the honeyguide bird is benefited by

  • Question 8 

 

At which of the following levels of organization can the Peaks of Otter salamander be studied?

  • Question 9 

 

The state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exists is shown by the fact that the largest category in some groupings is the “Kingdom” while in others it is the

  • Question 10 

 

The state of flux in modern systematic groupings could best be described as/seen in

  • Question 11 

 

In the mind of evolutionary theorists, separate clades (large groups) derive from

  • Question 12 

 

An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each ot

An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .

·         Question 13 

 

The best term to describe the species-species interaction between Pseudomyrmex ants and the bullhorn acacia plant would be

·         Question 14 

 

Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

·         Question 15 

 

Young Balanus barnacles cannot compete with Chthamalus barnacles in higher intertidal regions because

·         Question 16 

 

A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group

·         Question 17 

 

Interspecific competition is defined as

·         Question 18 

 

When a species of fly has a bold coloration very similar to that of an unpalatable (stinging) Yellowjacket, the fly’s “strategy” is termed

·         Question 19 

 

Which of the following choices reflects a currently accepted classification scheme resulting from the state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exist?

·         Question 20 

 

A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because

·         Question 21 

 

The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it

·         Question 22 

 

Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

·         Question 23 

 

Which of the following defense tactics do plants use to keep from being preyed upon?

·         Question 24 

 

The functional role of a species within its habitat is referred to as its

·         Question 25 

 

A relationship between individuals of two species in which members of one species are benefited and members of the other species are unaffected is termed

 

Q8. BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University (Already Graded A)

BIOL 101 Quiz 8 (Latest): Liberty University

 

·         Question 1

 

Baleen whales use _______ to prey on herring fish.

·         Question 2

 

The state of flux in modern systematic groupings could best be described as/seen in

·         Question 3

 

The microbe, Paramecium aurelium belongs to the large “Group” Alveolata because it

·         Question 4

 

Seeking to scientifically name each variety of life-form we find and relate it to other similar species is a discipline known as

·         Question 5

 

The state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exists is shown by the fact that the largest category in some groupings is the “Kingdom” while in others it is the

·         Question 6

 

Interspecific competition is defined as

·         Question 7

 

Species of warblers (birds) living in the same general region minimize their interspecific competition by

·         Question 8

 

The large eukaryote, Amoeba proteus belongs to the large “Group” Amoebozoa because

·         Question 9

 

Which of the following is not one of the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

·         Question 10

 

The phytoplankton of a lake would be found in highest numbers in the ________ zone.

·         Question 11

 

A good example of commensalism would be the relationship between

·         Question 12

 

Which one of the following is not included among the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

·         Question 13

 

An area providing cool, moist conditions with rocks and decaying logs at an appropriate elevation and rainfall level constitutes a good ________ for the Peaks of Otter salamander.

·         Question 14

 

The term “systematics” refers to

·         Question 15

 

Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?

·         Question 16

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

·         Question 17

 

A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because

·         Question 18

 

The microbe, Euglena gracilis belongs to the large “Group” Discicristates because it

·         Question 19

 

Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for study?

·         Question 20

 

A Genus of organisms differs from a species of organisms in what way? The Genus group

·         Question 21

 

In the human – Greater honeyguide mutualism, the honeyguide bird is benefited by

·         Question 22

 

An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by _________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in _________ .

·         Question 23

 

The large eukaryote, Zonotrichialeucophrys belongs to the large “Group” Opisthokonta because it

·         Question 24

 

During the springtime, a light wind blowing across a lake will foster the process of lake overturn. This timely event will bring together ___________ with _____________.

·         Question 25

 

The diatom, Ellerbeckiaarenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it

 

Q9. BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (3 Latest versions): Liberty University (Already Graded A)

BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University

·         Question 1

 

The sentence, “O you, who look on this our machine, do not be sad that with others you are fated to die, but rejoice that our Creator has endowed us with such an excellent instrument as the intellect” was first spoken by

·         Question 2

 

Directional selection

·         Question 3

 

Preening behavior enables a bird to continue to fly successfully by

·         Question 4

 

To a Darwinist, a beneficial mutation

·         Question 5

 

“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that

·         Question 6

 

Which of the following organisms were not observed by Charles Darwin while reading and voyaging the world?

·         Question 7

 

Romans 8 describes modern living organisms as

·         Question 8

 

Could RNA have been the original site of information storage in the primitive cell? A difficult problem with this possibility is that

·         Question 9

 

Which of the following could be a new mutation needed to generate appropriate structures for flight feathers? a mutation that:

·         Question 10

 

Which of the following is a component structure of a primary flight feather?

·         Question 11

 

Charles Darwin believed that whole new species originated as a result of

·         Question 12

 

Which of the following is a basic evolutionary advance needed to convert a down-like feather into a primary flight feather.

·         Question 13

 

Mycoplasma genitalium is well known for the _________ infections it causes.

·         Question 14

 

One popular evolutionary model for the origin of flight in vertebrates is that flight evolved in

·         Question 15

 

The term _________ represents a predictive theory of how a species might change with time, whereas the term ________ assumes that nature can create whole new structures and organisms.

·         Question 16

 

Charles Darwin’s view of the species was

·         Question 17

 

Directional selection has been used to

·         Question 18

 

Stabilizing selection

·         Question 19

 

One feature of Enlightenment Thinking was the tendency to

·         Question 20

 

To a design theorist a beneficial mutation

·         Question 21

 

Which stage of life history implied in the early pages of the Genesis record appears least likely to involve any biological change in populations with time?

·         Question 22

 

Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?

·         Question 23

 

The Design theorist comes to the conclusion that most mutations occurring today are harmful because

·         Question 24

 

In the evolutionary model, mutation ______ genes that will develop a better organism while natural selection ______ genes that will develop a better organism.

·         Question 25

 

Which of the following represents an observation Charles Darwin made while reading and voyaging the world?

 

 

 

 

 

BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University

 

·         Question 1 

 

In the early pages of the Genesis record, the first stage of life history could best be described as

·         Question 2 

 

Charles Darwin’s view of the species was

·         Question 3 

 

Which of the following could be a new mutation needed to generate appropriate structures for flight feathers? a mutation that:

·         Question 4 

 

Darwin interpreted his observations of nature to mean that

·         Question 5 

 

One feature of Enlightenment Thinking was the tendency to

·         Question 6 

 

Could RNA have been the original site of information storage in the primitive cell? A difficult problem with this possibility is that

·         Question 7 

 

Mycoplasma genitalium is well known for the _________ infections it causes.

·         Question 8 

 

Which of the following classes of mutations accumulate silently in the DNA having no obvious effect on one’s ability to reproduce?

·         Question 9 

 

Sometimes a force within the environment reduces the reproductive ability of one variety of individual in a species compared to that of another variety. This force is termed

·         Question 10 

 

Stabilizing selection

·         Question 11 

 

Which of the following is a component structure of a primary flight feather?

·         Question 12 

 

“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that

·         Question 13 

 

Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?

·         Question 14 

 

To a design theorist a beneficial mutation

·         Question 15 

 

In physical size, Mycoplasma genitalium is

·         Question 16 

 

One advantage associated with viewing RNA as the original site of information storage in the primitive cell is that RNA

·         Question 17 

 

Preening behavior enables a bird to continue to fly successfully by

·         Question 18 

 

Directional selection has been used to

·         Question 19 

 

Which of the following is a basic evolutionary advance needed to convert a down-like feather into a primary flight feather.

·         Question 20 

 

Natural selection is an “expensive” process. This is true because

·         Question 21 

 

Romans 8 describes modern living organisms as

·         Question 22 

 

Directional selection

·         Question 23 

 

The Design theorist comes to the conclusion that most mutations occurring today are harmful because

·         Question 24 

 

Which of the following organisms were not observed by Charles Darwin while reading and voyaging the world?

·         Question 25 

 

The genome of Mycoplasma genitalium is about _______ genes in size.

 

 

 

 

 

BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University

 

·         Question 1 

 

Which of the following represents an observation Charles Darwin made while reading and voyaging the world?

·         Question 2 

 

Which of the following could be a new mutation needed to generate appropriate structures for flight feathers? a mutation that:

·         Question 3 

 

In the evolutionary model, mutation ______ genes that will develop a better organism while natural selection ______ genes that will develop a better organism.

·         Question 4 

 

Which of the following represents three classes of mutations, each of which affects the evolutionary process differently?

·         Question 5 

 

Both the theist and the naturalist come to the conclusion that most mutations occurring today are harmful because

·         Question 6 

 

The potential power of directional selection cannot be demonstrated in a real population if

·         Question 7 

 

The term _________ represents a predictive theory of how a species might change with time, whereas the term ________ assumes that nature can create whole new structures and organisms.

·         Question 8 

 

Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?

·         Question 9 

 

Preening behavior enables a bird to continue to fly successfully by

·         Question 10 

 

Which of the following classes of mutations accumulate silently in the DNA having no obvious effect on one’s ability to reproduce?

·         Question 11 

 

In the early pages of the Genesis record, the first stage of life history could best be described as

·         Question 12 

 

One problem associated with evolving a system in which RNA bases code for amino acids is that

·         Question 13 

 

Sometimes a force within the environment reduces the reproductive ability of one variety of individual in a species compared to that of another variety. This force is termed

·         Question 14 

 

Directional selection

·         Question 15 

 

Stabilizing selection

·         Question 16 

 

The sentence, “O you, who look on this our machine, do not be sad that with others you are fated to die, but rejoice that our Creator has endowed us with such an excellent instrument as the intellect” was first spoken by

·         Question 17 

 

Natural selection is an “expensive” process. This is true because

·         Question 18 

 

“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that

·         Question 19 

 

The genome of Mycoplasma genitalium is about _______ genes in size.

·         Question 20 

 

The third stage of life history implied in the early pages of the Genesis record could best be described as

·         Question 21 

 

One important value that disruptive selection can have to a natural population is that it

·         Question 22 

 

Which of the following is a component structure of a primary flight feather?

·         Question 23 

 

One feature of Enlightenment Thinking was the tendency to

·         Question 24 

 

Romans 8 describes modern living organisms as

·         Question 25 

 

The role of the barbule in the primary flight feather is to

 

 

Q10. BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University (Already Graded A)

BIOL 101 Quiz 7 (Latest): Liberty University

 

·         Question 1 

 

In the early pages of the Genesis record, the first stage of life history could best be described as

·         Question 2 

 

Charles Darwin’s view of the species was

·         Question 3 

 

Which of the following could be a new mutation needed to generate appropriate structures for flight feathers? a mutation that:

·         Question 4 

 

Darwin interpreted his observations of nature to mean that

·         Question 5 

 

One feature of Enlightenment Thinking was the tendency to

·         Question 6 

 

Could RNA have been the original site of information storage in the primitive cell? A difficult problem with this possibility is that

·         Question 7 

 

Mycoplasma genitalium is well known for the _________ infections it causes.

·         Question 8 

 

Which of the following classes of mutations accumulate silently in the DNA having no obvious effect on one’s ability to reproduce?

·         Question 9 

 

Sometimes a force within the environment reduces the reproductive ability of one variety of individual in a species compared to that of another variety. This force is termed

·         Question 10 

 

Stabilizing selection

·         Question 11 

 

Which of the following is a component structure of a primary flight feather?

·         Question 12 

 

“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that

·         Question 13 

 

Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?

·         Question 14 

 

To a design theorist a beneficial mutation

·         Question 15 

 

In physical size, Mycoplasma genitalium is

·         Question 16 

 

One advantage associated with viewing RNA as the original site of information storage in the primitive cell is that RNA

·         Question 17 

“Natural selection is cybernetically blind”. This means that

·         Question 13 

 

Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?

·         Question 14 

 

To a design theorist a beneficial mutation

·         Question 15 

 

In physical size, Mycoplasma genitalium is

·         Question 16 

 

One advantage associated with viewing RNA as the original site of information storage in the primitive cell is that RNA

·         Question 17 

 

Preening behavior enables a bird to continue to fly successfully by

·         Question 18 

 

Directional selection has been used to

·         Question 19 

 

Which of the following is a basic evolutionary advance needed to convert a down-like feather into a primary flight feather.

·         Question 20 

 

Natural selection is an “expensive” process. This is true because

·         Question 21 

 

Romans 8 describes modern living organisms as

·         Question 22 

 

Directional selection

·         Question 23 

 

The Design theorist comes to the conclusion that most mutations occurring today are harmful because

·         Question 24 

 

Which of the following organisms were not observed by Charles Darwin while reading and voyaging the world?

·         Question 25 

 

The genome of Mycoplasma genitalium is about _______ genes in size.

 

 

COMPUTER SCIENCE.

 

Q1. CIS 210 Assignment 2: Use Cases

Prepare a 5-6 page paper in which you:

·         Describe (in a one to two (1-2) page narrative) a use case, complete with typical and alternate courses, that documents the event of a bank customer withdrawing money from an ATM.

·         Illustrate the use case using Visio or a similar product.

·         Describe (in a one to two (1-2) page narrative) a use case dependency for making an account deposit. Illustrate this use case with Visio or a similar product.

·         Describe (in a one to two (1-2) page narrative) a use case dependency for making an account transfer. Illustrate this use case with Visio or a similar product.

·         Identify and explain at least one (1) ethical issue that the use case exposes in connection with the development or use of the ATM system.

·         Research and cite at least three (3) authoritative academic sources.

 

Q2. Network Planning Assignment

Network Planning Assignment

 

Overview

The main objectives of this assignment are:

·         To help students gain a good understanding of the IP (Internet Protocol), which is the major underlying technology of the Internet. 

·         To help students to understand the importance of subnet and routing of IP address.

·         To encourage students to conduct an independent investigation into IP related topics from books, the Internet and through practical investigation.

                                                                                      

Engagement with this assignment should help students to understand the major underlying concepts of the Internet world.

Scenario

You have been appointed as a Network System Administrator by the Australian government to allocate public IP Version 4 (IPv4) addresses and build a routing table for edge routers to connect the Australian states as shown in Figure 1.

                          

The IPv4 is an exhaustive list of IPv4 addresses for current Internet users in the world. However, in this scenario you have the liberty to use the entire available unreserved public IPv4 addresses for the Internet users in Australia.

 

 

 

 

R2

 

 

 

R1

 

 

QLD

NT

 

 

 

 

WA

 

 

R4

 

 

R3

SA

 

 

 

NSW

 

 

 

R5

 

 

 

VIC

 

 

 

 

R6

 

 

TAS

 

 

 

 

Figure 1: Edge routers R1 – R6 connecting different Australian states.

Tasks                                                  

The major task is to allocate the unreserved public IPv4 addresses to different states in Australia based on the Internet users in those states. The number of Internet users for Australian states are given below:

 

New South Wales (NSW)                                              : 6 Million

Victoria (VIC)                                                                : 4 Million

Queensland (QLD)                                                        : 3 Million

Western Australia (WA)                                                 : 2 Million

South Australia (SA)                                                     : 1 Million

Tasmania (TAS)                                                            : 300 Thousand

Northern Territory (NT)                                                 : 150 Thousand

 

The task needs to be completed based on the following constraints and assumptions:

 

§  Only unreserved public IPv4 address should be used for allocation.

§  Each state should have unique set of addresses – no address or set of addresses can be reassigned for any other state.  

§  You should use only the classless IPv4 addressing in the assignment.

§  The number of allocated addresses for each state should not exceed by 20% of the specified Internet users for that particular state. For instance, the allocated addresses for Tasmania should not exceed 360 Thousand addresses.

§  It is allowed to use one or more subnets to achieve the number of required address for a given state.

 

The minor task is to create a routing table for edge routers only for the state NT, WA and SA. The task needs to be completed based on the following constraints and assumptions:

 

§  The routing table should be minimal with no redundant routes in the table.

§  Any packets from the source (NT or WA or SA) should take minimal route to reach the destination (NT or WA or SA).

§  Identify the Network Interface Card Address to connect NT, WA and SA.

 

Recommended Readings

The required materials for this assignment are covered from Week 4 onwards. It is highly recommended to read the following resources to complete the assignment:

§  Topic 5 – IP settings and configuration in Moodle resource

§  Topic 5 – Network Layer (IPv4 & IPv6 address format) in Moodle resource

§  Subnetwork (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Subnetwork)

§  IP address (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IP_address)

§  Routing concepts: How to read the Routing Table (https://www.ictshore.com/free-ccna-course/ routing-table-fundamentals/

 

 

 

Learning Outcomes Assessed

The following course learning outcomes are assessed by completing this assessment:

·       K1. Describe and explain the role and function of network connectivity in current computing.

·       K2. Describe and explain the principles of communication in networks.

·       K3. Describe the role and functionality of hardware and software entities that contribute to the network
communications.

·       K4. Describe and explain the protocols and interactions that implement network communications.

·       K6. Describe fundamental aspects of cloud computing.

·       A1. Apply networking architecture knowledge to analyze the networking needs of business.

Assessment Details

 

All works submitted must be authored by the individual student submitting the work or where material from other sources is included it must be referenced using APA referencing.

 

Please note it is highly unlikely two students can have the same set of addresses allocated for a given state. Students found to have plagiarised will be dealt with according to university plagiarism policy (https://federation.edu.au/current-students/learning-and-study/online-help-with/ plagiarism).

Submission

 

Students are required to use the template, along with references, given in the Appendix A to complete the assignment. The completed template with your name and student number (3 pages plus reference page only) should be submitted through Turnitin in Moodle by Week 10 – refer course description for exact due date and time.

Marking Guidelines

 

IP address for each state (7 x 9 marks)

63 Marks

Subnet mask for each state (7 x 4 marks)

28 Marks

Allocation not more than 20% (7 x 2 marks)

14 Marks

Routing Table for each 3 edge routers (3 x 11 marks)  

33 Marks

Router Link (NIC) address for 3 edge routers (12 x 1 mark)

12 Marks

Total marks

150 Marks

 

The total marks for this assignment is 150 (15% Weighting for the course).

 

The marks will be available in Moodle and in FDLMarks by the end of week 12 of the semester.

 

 

IP Address (NT)

 

Subnet Mask

 

Number of Address

 

Appendix A                                                                                                                                             

IP Address (SA)

 

Subnet Mask

 

Number of Address

 

IP Address (TAS)

 

Subnet Mask

 

Number of Address

 

Page 1: Insert IP address and the Subnet Mask in the box provided for each state

 

 

WA

NT

NSW

QLD

VIC

TAS

SA

IP Address (WA)

 

 

Subnet Mask

 

Number of Address

 

 

IP Address (QLD)

 

Subnet Mask

 

Number of Address

 

IP Address (NSW)

 

Subnet Mask

 

Number of Address

 

IP Address (VIC)

 

Subnet Mask

 

Number of Address

 

 

Destination Network

Interface

Next Hop

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Page 2: Insert routing table entry in the box for 3 edge routers

 

Routing Table for R1 

 

Destination Network

Interface

Next Hop

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

WA

NT

NSW

QLD

VIC

TAS

SA

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Routing Table for R2 

 

 

R1

 

 

R2

 

 

 

 

 

Routing Table for R3 

R3

 

 

Destination Network

Interface

Next Hop

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

WA

NT

NSW

QLD

VIC

TAS

SA

Page 3: Insert the IP address for the Network Interface Card (NIC) to connect NT, WA and SA

 

 

Router

NIC 

IP Address

R1

#5

 

R1

#8

 

R1

#6

 

R1

#7

R1

#7

 

R2

#4

 

R2

#2

 

R2

#3

 

R2

#1

 

R3

#9

 

R3

#10

 

R3

#11

 

R3

#12

 

 

R2

R3

R1

NIC #6

NIC #1

NIC #2

NIC #3

NIC #4

NIC #5

NIC #8

NIC #11

NIC #12

NIC #9

NIC #10

NIC #7

 

Q3. Application 7: Johari Window Reflection

The Johari Window is a model that we use to understand and frame some of the important skills explored in HD205, including self-disclosure, feedback, self-awareness and self-management. The ultimate goal of using this model is to appropriately enlarge the open area by disclosing information or asking for feedback. Remember that the open pane includes all information known to self and known to others. When we expand our open pane and decrease our hidden and blind panes, this allows us to make deeper connections with those around us and we will be more productive, cooperative, and effective when working together. People who have a large open pane are usually easier to talk to, practice open and honest communication and get along well with others.

 

The open pane expands into the hidden pane through self-disclosure about ourselves. Expansion could be through sharingThis could be one of your deepest dreams, life goals, fears, challenges or aspirations.  Really it is sharing anything about yourself with someone who doesn’t already know those stories.  Remember to moderate your level of self-disclosure to a level that is appropriate for the relationship and the environment.

 

The open pane also expands into the blind pane whenever we receive feedback about ourselves about something we were previously unaware of. This can be done by asking someone about their observations of you.  You may be interested in knowing what someone notices about your communication style, your unconscious patterns, filler words that you habitually use, or the positive and not-so-positive ways you interact around people.

 

Part 1 – Focus on Decreasing the Hidden Pane or the Blind Pane: The purpose of this stretch is for you to mindfully expand the open area of your Johari Window and thereby skillfully shrink the blind or hidden panes. You have the option to choose eitherfrom the hidden or blind pane as an area in which you wishwork.

 

  • If you wish to expand your open pane by decreasing your hidden pane, this is done through self-disclosure to another person. Find someone in your life that you know and trust and tell them something that you typically keep hidden. Expansion could be through sharing one of your deepest dreams, life goals, fears, challenges or aspirations.  Really it is sharing anything about yourself with someone who doesn’t already know those stories.  Remember to moderate your level of self-disclosure to a level that is appropriate for the relationship and the environment; yRemember that you are at choice about the appropriate level of disclosure.  Make the stretch meaningful and powerful by choosing someone to work with that deserves to know more about you.

 

ü   The open pane also expands into the blind pane whenever we receive feedback about ourselves about something we were previously unaware of. This can be done by asking someone about their observations of you. .

  • If you choose to expand your open pane through decreasing your blind pane, please fthis happens by asking for feedback. Find someone in your life that you know and trust and ask them for feedback about some aspect of yourself.  This could be about your contribution to a work team, class project, study group or living situation.  It could be about how you show up in a personal or professional relationship.  You could choose to speak with a parent, sibling or professor or someone else.    You may be interested in knowing what someone notices about your communication style, your unconscious patterns, filler words that you habitually use, or the positive and not-so-positive ways you interact around people. Choose someone that you really value their opinion and ask them about their perspective on some area of your life that is important for you to gain information about.  When asking for feedback, use the active listening skills that have been previously discussed in class. This should be meaningful conversation rather than a quick “drive-by” feedback session.

 

Part 2 – Stretch Reflection: Please spend time reflecting on the questions below and answer each of the following prompts. A recommendation is that the length of your responses should be approximately 500 – 600 words in length, total.

Prompts: 

  1. In your own words define and describe the four panes of the Johari Window.
  2. During this stretch, which pane did you choose to decrease? Describe your experience during the stretch and how it relates to that specific pane.
  3. From the six principles of ACT (expansion, defusion, observer self, connection, committed action, and values), which one(s) supported you in expanding your open pane? How specifically did you implement this principle during the stretch and how did practicing this concept assist you?

 

Q4. Assignment 1: The CEO Challenge

 

 

You’ve just left an all – hands meeting at your company * The CEO was very upset at the rise of shadow IT projects – a major indicator that the company’s internal information system has failed to meet its needs.

Because the current information system is inadequate, inefficient, and outdated, the CEO is inviting everyone in the organization to propose a new operational, decision support, or enterprise information system to replace it. The executives have allocated $5 million to fund the most promising idea

This is your chance to make a difference in the company (not to mention your own career). Write your proposal as a memo that the entire C – suite will review. Include at least these points, in your own words, to be persuasive:

  1. Identify the main functions of your proposed information system and why they are important to the business.
  2. Describe what types of data your information system will hold and how data quality will be ensured.
  3. Explain how the old information system handles the functions you mentioned, the problems that occur, and why your information system will handle things better.
  4. Offer evidence of feasibility: Show that similar information systems have been built successfully and that they save more money than they cost.

The executives are busy, so keep your memo to 1-4 pages and avoid any extraneous content.

*You may use a current or former employer, but do not disclose anything confidential. Or, you can pick another organization if you are familiar with their internal (not customer – facing) information systems. You can disguise the organization and populate it with famous names. Made – up companies are problematic because of the amount of detail and realism they require.

 

 

 

 

To:  Replace with name

From: Replace with name

Date: Replace with date

Subject: Replace with subject of memo

Introduction

Lorem i psum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Vestibulum et nisl ante. Etiam pulvinar fringilla ipsum facilisis efficitur. Maecenas volutpat risus dignissim dui euismod auctor. Nulla facilisi. Mauris euismod tellus malesuada dolor egestas, ac vulputate odio suscipit.

Sed pellentesque sagittis diam, sit amet faucibus diam lobortis quis. Sed mattis turpis ligula, in accumsan ante pellentesque eu. Quisque ut nisl leo. Nullam ipsum odio, eleifend non orcinon, volutpat sollicitudin lacus. (Beetle Baily Cartoon)

Proposed Information System

Donec tincidunt ligula eget sollicitudin vehicula. Proin pharetra tellus id lectus mollis sollicitudin. Etiam auctor ligula a nulla posuere, consequat feugiat ex lobortis. Duis eu cursus arcu, congue luctus turpis. Sed dapibus turpis ac diam viverra consectetur. Aliquam placerat molestie eros vel posuere.

 

Figure 1.  Title (Source: www.source-of-graphic.edu

Functions Important to Business

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Figure 2. Title (Source of data citation)

Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Vestibulum et nisl ante. Etiam pulvinar fringilla ipsum facilisis efficitur. Maecenas volutpat risus dignissim dui euismod auctor. Nulla facilisi. Mauris euismod tellus malesuada dolor egestas, ac vulputate odio suscipit.

 Data Management

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Data Types

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Storage Methods

Sed facilisis, lacus vel accumsan convallis, massa est ullamcorper mauris, quis feugiat eros ligula eget est. Vivamus nunc turpis, lobortis et magna a, convallis aliquam diam. Lorem ipsudolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit.

Data Quality

Sed facilisis, lacus vel accumsan convallis, massa est ullamcorper mauris, quis feugiat eros ligula eget est. Vivamus nunc turpis, lobortis et magna a, convallis aliquam diam. Lorem ipsudolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit.

Transition of System Functions

Sed facilisis, lacus vel accumsan convallis, massa est ullamcorper mauris, quis feugiat eros ligula eget est. Vivamus nunc turpis, lobortis et magna a, convallis aliquam diam. Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit.

Evidence of Feasibility

Sed facilisis, lacus vel accumsan convallis, massa est ullamcorper mauris, quis feugiat eros ligula eget est. Vivamus nunc turpis, lobortis et magna a, convallis aliquam diam. Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit.

 

 

References

American Psychological Association. (2001). Publication manual of the American Psychological Association (5th ed.). Washington, DC: Author.

Cuddy, C.M. (2002). Demystifying APA style. Orthopaedic Nursing, 21(5), 35-42. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from EBSCOhost database.

Daniels, C. (2004, July 28). 50 Best companies for minorities. Fortune, 149(13), 136-

  1. Retrieved October 19, 2004, from ProQuest database.

Lawton. K. A., Cousineau, L., & Hillard, V.E. (2001). Plagiarism: Its nature and consequences. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from Duke University Guide to Library Research Web site: http://www.lib.duke.edu/libguide/plagarism.htm

Proofreading for commas. (n.d.). Retrieved June 28, 2004, from Purdue University Online Writing Lab Web site: http://owl.english.purdue.edu/handouts/grammar/g_commaproof.html

Sterngold, A. (2004). Confronting plagiarism: How conventional teaching invites cyber-cheating. Change, 36(3), 16+. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from ProQuest database

Strunk, W., Jr. (1999). Omit needless words. In The elements of style (chap. 3). Retrieved June 28, 2004, from http://www.bartleby.com/141/strunk5.html#13

Venes, D. (2001). Taber’s cyclopedic medical dictionary (19th ed.). Philadelphia: F.A. Davis Company.

 

 

Q5. Week 1 Assignment 3: Dropbox Hierarchy Charts

Week 1 Assignment 3: Dropbox

Hierarchy Charts

In this assignment, you will learn how hierarchy charts are used to represent program design.

  • you will create a hierarchy chart.

Creating a Hierarchy Chart

Using the South University Online Library or the Internet, research on hierarchy charts.

Based on your research and using one of the appliances that you chose in W1 Assignment 2, complete the following tasks:

  • Using Microsoft Word, Microsoft PowerPoint, or Microsoft Visio, create a hierarchy chart that reflects the appliance’s modules and how the modules call each other. Keep in mind that a hierarchy chart is different from a flowchart or pseudocode.
  • In about 2 paragraphs, describe what your hierarchy chart represents.

Support your responses with appropriate examples.

Cite any sources in APA format on a separate page.

 

Submission Details

Based on the tool you chose to create the hierarchy chart, name your deliverable as:

  • SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.doc if it is a Microsoft Word document.
  • SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.ppt if it is a Microsoft PowerPoint presentation.
  • SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.vsd if it is a Microsoft Visio document.

Submit your hierarchy chart and the Alice World file to the W1 Assignment 3 Dropbox

 

 

Q6. ITECH7201 Software Engineering: Analysis and Design


Assignment 1   

2018 Sem01

Overview

You are required to design and develop a small Java console application. Completion of this assignment  requires an understanding of:

  • Analysis and design techniques, including development of use cases and UML diagrams – specifically, use case diagrams, class diagrams and sequence diagrams
  • Object-oriented programming, focusing on polymorphism and the use of interfaces

Timelines and Expectations

Percentage Value of Task: 20%

Due: Sunday, September (Week 7)

Minimum time expectation: 20 hours

Learning Outcomes Assessed

The following course learning outcomes are assessed by completing this assessment:

  • Understand the significance of detailed project planning and control, good communication and documentation and the use of appropriate tools in order to provide a quality product
  • Understand the distinction between software engineering and programming, and thus the distinction between a software configuration and a program
  • Understand the methods and techniques involved in designing, implementing and maintaining an information system, in particular using an object-oriented approach
  • Demonstrate skills in designing and implementing an information system

Assessment Details

FedHire is a car hire company that offers vehicle rentals to its clients. Clients are able to hire vehicles according to availability and preference. FedHire offers 10% loyalty discount on the rental fees to members of its loyalty club. No discount is offered to standard clients who are not members of the loyalty club. A special discount of 20%, is offered to clients who are also employees of the company.

You have been hired to design and develop a Java application for FedHire employees to manage the car rental system. The application should have an interactive menu, allowing the user to select the type of client (standard, loyalty member or staff member) making the booking and determine and track the appropriate discounts. The menu should also provide different other options, such as, displaying clients list, generating a report to display the current payments received, and quitting the execution. In the report the payments should be broken down into different categories of bookings such as standard, loyalty and staff, and the total discounts given in each category (using the discounted values where appropriate). At this stage there is no need for data to persist once the program finishes execution.

FedHire wants the system to be flexible so that users can include additional functionality at a later date without having to rewrite the entire program. This means you will need to use an interface for processing payments, and polymorphism for the various payment classes, so that new, different payment types may be added at a later date with minimal updates to the code.

FedHire asked that you provide it with some documentation before you commence coding, so that the manager is able to verify that the program you intend to code will address the business requirements. The manager would like to see use cases that summarizes the requirements in written format, as well as use case diagrams, class diagrams and sequence diagrams.

Startup codes (AD_asgn01.zip) are provided herewith for your convenience. You are free to use, update and build your program on this. A sample expected output of an execution of a complete program is also attached. Notice in the sample output the clients 1, 2, and 3 are hard coded in the program; clients 4, 5, and 6 are entered at execution. Similarly, your program should include hard coded clients, at least one client in each category.

Submission

You are required to submit the assignment before the due date consisting of:

  • A Zip file containing the following (submitted via Moodle under the Assignment 1 link) o A written report comprising:
  • Use Cases summarizing the requirements
  • Copy of UML Diagrams, created in Enterprise Architect, comprising:
  • a Use Case Diagram for processing a car rental booking
  • a Class Diagram of the intended system
  • a Sequence Diagram showing how a new car rental booking is processed
  • A short reflection (approximately 200-300 words) of what you have learned, if anything, on this assignment, particularly relating to requirements design and analysis, UML diagrams and object- oriented programming with interfaces and polymorphism. As an example, if you found that you would change your initial UML diagrams after you had commenced coding, you should explain what these changes would be and explain what you learnt that led to these changes.

o    Enterprise Architect file(s) containing your UML Diagrams for the Use Case, Class Diagrams and Sequence Diagrams

o    Your complete Java program, addressing the requirements outlined in the Assignment

Details.

Marking Criteria/Rubric

Task

Max Marks

Obtained Marks

Requirements Analysis and Design

 

 

  • Use Cases summarizing the requirements of the program

10

 

  • A Use Case Diagram for processing a car rental booking

10

 

  • A Class Diagram of the intended system

10

 

  • A Sequence Diagram for processing a loyalty client’s car rental booking.

10

 

Development of Code

 

 

A complete Java program addressing the requirements outlined in the Assignment Details section of this specification, including:

 

 

  • Functionality to process standard (non-member) client’s payments

5

 

  • Functionality to process loyalty and employee payments, including display of the total sales amount with a 10% or 20% discount removed.

10

 

  • A payments received option that displays the total standard booking amount, the total loyalty booking amount, the total employee booking amount, the total discounts given and the total amount (all types of booking taking discounts into account where appropriate)

5

 

  • Code demonstrating the use of an interface and polymorphism to handle payments and the various payment options available

25

 

  • Code validating all inputs and adhering to Java conventions

5

 

Reflection on Learning

 

 

  • A short reflection (approximately 200-300 words) of what you have learned, if anything, on this assignment, particularly relating to requirements design and analysis, UML diagrams and objectoriented programming with interfaces and polymorphism.

10

 

Total

100

 

Scaled to 20 

20

 

Feedback

Marks will be uploaded in fdlGrades and a complete marking sheet will be provided in Moodle.

Plagiarism:

This is an individual assignment. You are not to attempt this assignment (or any part thereof) in conjunction with any other parties. All work handed in for marking should be your own and any help received should be explicitly acknowledged.

It is important to learn from the work of others and you are encouraged to explore the library, World Wide Web resources and have discussions with other students. However, work for assessment must be entirely your own work.

Plagiarism is the presentation of the expressed thought or work of another person as though it is one’s own without properly acknowledging that person. You must not allow other students to copy your work and must take care to safeguard against this happening. More information about the plagiarism policy and procedure for the university can be found at http://federation.edu.au/students/learning-and- study/online-help-with/plagiarism.

 

Q7. Assignment Name: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

IT Infrastructure Practical Assignment 2 Instructions

Assignment Name: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

Hypertext Transfer protocol is known as the mechanism for delivering web pages. The JASPER applet supports the simulation of HTTP. URLs (Universal Resource Locators) are abstract represented as URL1, URL2… URLn, and likewise for DATA which represents web pages.

Below are some experiments you can go through to understand HTTP and its commands. The first two experiments will give a feel to using the simulator and simply relate to real scenarios. Subsequent experiments will be complex, yet still relating to real events.

Launching the HTTP Simulator

  • Ensure that your default browser supports Java applets. Note that you may need to run Java in low security for the Java applets in this exercise to work properly.
  • For access to all simulations, click on the rotating globe at this book’s Companion Web site at http://williamstallings.com/BusinessDataComm/BDC7e-student/.
  • Click the spinning globe icon, and then click on the link to the HTTP Simulator.
  • This will launch the HTTP Simulator applet along with a description of the main commands we will be using for our experiments.

Main Commands Description

HTTP supports a relatively modest suite of commands. The protocol simulator supports the following, most frequently used, HTTP commands.

 

Command

Description

GET

Get data for URL

HEAD

Get header for URL

POST

Append data to URL

PUT

Send data to URL

Response Codes

HTTP provides a range of response codes, each uniquely indicating the response to the corresponding command previously received. The protocol simulator here supports a limited range of HTTP response codes, as described below.

 

Code

Description

200 OK

Command completed successfully

301 MOVED

Requested URL has moved to another location

400 ERROR

The command encountered an error

Applet Interface

The applet graphical interface consists of the control panel (bottom left corner), the commands panel (bottom right), and the simulation view (top half).

The control panel consists of several buttons. Run will perform an automatic simulation of the protocol. Stop will halt the automatic simulation. Undo will revert back one step from the latest command. Redo will revert what undo does. Clear will clear off the current simulation, resulting in a clean simulation view. Load,Save and Print buttons are only available when the protocol simulator is launched in standalone mode, which are not available as we are using the applet mode.

The command panel displays the available commands at the current point of simulation. Clicking on one of the commands will progress the simulation seen in the simulation view.

 

Continue to Experiment #1 Instructions on the following page…

 

 

EXPERIMENT #1: RETRIEVING A WEB PAGE SUCCESSFULLY

This is the simplest example: fetching the data (which is the web page contents) of a particular URL (location). To do this the client will send a GET(url) command to the server, which will respond with a 200 response code along with the contents of the location specified in the GET command.

 

  1. Click the Clearbutton to start a fresh simulation.

2.      In the command panel, click on Client: GET(URL1) – get data for URL. You should be able to see in the simulation view a corresponding flow of this command

[SR1]Remove all comments in paper before submitting. One way to do this, right click on each comment, select ‘Delete Comment’.

 

[SR2]The CEO challenge is for an internal employee provide recommendation of new IT system to remove or bring the Shadow IT projects under the IT department.

Include how this assignment will communicate how your project proposal satisfied the CEO’s concern.

[SR3]Replace Latin text with your writing for this assignment.

[SR4]Identify the main functions of your proposed information system and why they are important to the business.

[SR5]Add diagrams when applicable

[SR6]Include source if applicable, remove when diagram is original)

[SR7]Add Charts when applicable.

[SR8]Include source if applicable, remove when diagram is original).

[SR9]Describe what types of data your information system will hold and how data quality will be ensured.

[SR10]Explain how the functions you mentioned are being handled by the old information system, the problems that occur, and why your information system will handle things better.

[SR11]Offer evidence of feasibility: Show that similar information systems have been built successfully and that they save more money than they cost.

[SR12]Reference Page Notes: Use a separate references page and double space. Note that throughout the paper and reference list, titles of non-periodicals and the names of journals, book titles, and volume are set in italics rather than being underlined. See APA Manual, pages 239-281 for examples of various references.  In addition, please read pages 215-232 for basic reference guidelines.

 

Remove References in example that you do not use.

American Psychological Association. (2001). Publication manual of the American Psychological Association (5th ed.). Washington, DC: Author.

Cuddy, C.M. (2002). Demystifying APA style. Orthopaedic Nursing, 21(5), 35-42. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from EBSCOhost database.

Daniels, C. (2004, July 28). 50 Best companies for minorities. Fortune, 149(13), 136-

  1. Retrieved October 19, 2004, from ProQuest database.

Lawton. K. A., Cousineau, L., & Hillard, V.E. (2001). Plagiarism: Its nature and consequences. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from Duke University Guide to Library Research Web site: http://www.lib.duke.edu/libguide/plagarism.htm

Proofreading for commas. (n.d.). Retrieved June 28, 2004, from Purdue University Online Writing Lab Web site: http://owl.english.purdue.edu/handouts/grammar/g_commaproof.html

Sterngold, A. (2004). Confronting plagiarism: How conventional teaching invites cyber-cheating. Change, 36(3), 16+. Retrieved June 28, 2004, from ProQuest database

Strunk, W., Jr. (1999). Omit needless words. In The elements of style (chap. 3). Retrieved June 28, 2004, from http://www.bartleby.com/141/strunk5.html#13

Venes, D. (2001). Taber’s cyclopedic medical dictionary (19th ed.). Philadelphia: F.A. Davis Company.

 

 

Q5. Week 1 Assignment 3: Dropbox Hierarchy Charts

Week 1 Assignment 3: Dropbox

Hierarchy Charts

In this assignment, you will learn how hierarchy charts are used to represent program design.

  • you will create a hierarchy chart.

Creating a Hierarchy Chart

Using the South University Online Library or the Internet, research on hierarchy charts.

Based on your research and using one of the appliances that you chose in W1 Assignment 2, complete the following tasks:

  • Using Microsoft Word, Microsoft PowerPoint, or Microsoft Visio, create a hierarchy chart that reflects the appliance’s modules and how the modules call each other. Keep in mind that a hierarchy chart is different from a flowchart or pseudocode.
  • In about 2 paragraphs, describe what your hierarchy chart represents.

Support your responses with appropriate examples.

Cite any sources in APA format on a separate page.

 

Submission Details

Based on the tool you chose to create the hierarchy chart, name your deliverable as:

  • SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.doc if it is a Microsoft Word document.
  • SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.ppt if it is a Microsoft PowerPoint presentation.
  • SU_ITS2104_W1_A3_LastName_FirstInitial.vsd if it is a Microsoft Visio document.

Submit your hierarchy chart and the Alice World file to the W1 Assignment 3 Dropbox

 

 

Q6. ITECH7201 Software Engineering: Analysis and Design


Assignment 1   

2018 Sem01

Overview

You are required to design and develop a small Java console application. Completion of this assignment  requires an understanding of:

  • Analysis and design techniques, including development of use cases and UML diagrams – specifically, use case diagrams, class diagrams and sequence diagrams
  • Object-oriented programming, focusing on polymorphism and the use of interfaces

Timelines and Expectations

Percentage Value of Task: 20%

Due: Sunday, September (Week 7)

Minimum time expectation: 20 hours

Learning Outcomes Assessed

The following course learning outcomes are assessed by completing this assessment:

  • Understand the significance of detailed project planning and control, good communication and documentation and the use of appropriate tools in order to provide a quality product
  • Understand the distinction between software engineering and programming, and thus the distinction between a software configuration and a program
  • Understand the methods and techniques involved in designing, implementing and maintaining an information system, in particular using an object-oriented approach
  • Demonstrate skills in designing and implementing an information system

Assessment Details

FedHire is a car hire company that offers vehicle rentals to its clients. Clients are able to hire vehicles according to availability and preference. FedHire offers 10% loyalty discount on the rental fees to members of its loyalty club. No discount is offered to standard clients who are not members of the loyalty club. A special discount of 20%, is offered to clients who are also employees of the company.

You have been hired to design and develop a Java application for FedHire employees to manage the car rental system. The application should have an interactive menu, allowing the user to select the type of client (standard, loyalty member or staff member) making the booking and determine and track the appropriate discounts. The menu should also provide different other options, such as, displaying clients list, generating a report to display the current payments received, and quitting the execution. In the report the payments should be broken down into different categories of bookings such as standard, loyalty and staff, and the total discounts given in each category (using the discounted values where appropriate). At this stage there is no need for data to persist once the program finishes execution.

FedHire wants the system to be flexible so that users can include additional functionality at a later date without having to rewrite the entire program. This means you will need to use an interface for processing payments, and polymorphism for the various payment classes, so that new, different payment types may be added at a later date with minimal updates to the code.

FedHire asked that you provide it with some documentation before you commence coding, so that the manager is able to verify that the program you intend to code will address the business requirements. The manager would like to see use cases that summarizes the requirements in written format, as well as use case diagrams, class diagrams and sequence diagrams.

Startup codes (AD_asgn01.zip) are provided herewith for your convenience. You are free to use, update and build your program on this. A sample expected output of an execution of a complete program is also attached. Notice in the sample output the clients 1, 2, and 3 are hard coded in the program; clients 4, 5, and 6 are entered at execution. Similarly, your program should include hard coded clients, at least one client in each category.

Submission

You are required to submit the assignment before the due date consisting of:

  • A Zip file containing the following (submitted via Moodle under the Assignment 1 link) o A written report comprising:
  • Use Cases summarizing the requirements
  • Copy of UML Diagrams, created in Enterprise Architect, comprising:
  • a Use Case Diagram for processing a car rental booking
  • a Class Diagram of the intended system
  • a Sequence Diagram showing how a new car rental booking is processed
  • A short reflection (approximately 200-300 words) of what you have learned, if anything, on this assignment, particularly relating to requirements design and analysis, UML diagrams and object- oriented programming with interfaces and polymorphism. As an example, if you found that you would change your initial UML diagrams after you had commenced coding, you should explain what these changes would be and explain what you learnt that led to these changes.

o    Enterprise Architect file(s) containing your UML Diagrams for the Use Case, Class Diagrams and Sequence Diagrams

o    Your complete Java program, addressing the requirements outlined in the Assignment

Details.

Marking Criteria/Rubric

Task

Max Marks

Obtained Marks

Requirements Analysis and Design

 

 

  • Use Cases summarizing the requirements of the program

10

 

  • A Use Case Diagram for processing a car rental booking

10

 

  • A Class Diagram of the intended system

10

 

  • A Sequence Diagram for processing a loyalty client’s car rental booking.

10

 

Development of Code

 

 

A complete Java program addressing the requirements outlined in the Assignment Details section of this specification, including:

 

 

  • Functionality to process standard (non-member) client’s payments

5

 

  • Functionality to process loyalty and employee payments, including display of the total sales amount with a 10% or 20% discount removed.

10

 

  • A payments received option that displays the total standard booking amount, the total loyalty booking amount, the total employee booking amount, the total discounts given and the total amount (all types of booking taking discounts into account where appropriate)

5

 

  • Code demonstrating the use of an interface and polymorphism to handle payments and the various payment options available

25

 

  • Code validating all inputs and adhering to Java conventions

5

 

Reflection on Learning

 

 

  • A short reflection (approximately 200-300 words) of what you have learned, if anything, on this assignment, particularly relating to requirements design and analysis, UML diagrams and objectoriented programming with interfaces and polymorphism.

10

 

Total

100

 

Scaled to 20 

20

 

Feedback

Marks will be uploaded in fdlGrades and a complete marking sheet will be provided in Moodle.

Plagiarism:

This is an individual assignment. You are not to attempt this assignment (or any part thereof) in conjunction with any other parties. All work handed in for marking should be your own and any help received should be explicitly acknowledged.

It is important to learn from the work of others and you are encouraged to explore the library, World Wide Web resources and have discussions with other students. However, work for assessment must be entirely your own work.

Plagiarism is the presentation of the expressed thought or work of another person as though it is one’s own without properly acknowledging that person. You must not allow other students to copy your work and must take care to safeguard against this happening. More information about the plagiarism policy and procedure for the university can be found at http://federation.edu.au/students/learning-and- study/online-help-with/plagiarism.

 

Q7. Assignment Name: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

IT Infrastructure Practical Assignment 2 Instructions

Assignment Name: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

Hypertext Transfer protocol is known as the mechanism for delivering web pages. The JASPER applet supports the simulation of HTTP. URLs (Universal Resource Locators) are abstract represented as URL1, URL2… URLn, and likewise for DATA which represents web pages.

Below are some experiments you can go through to understand HTTP and its commands. The first two experiments will give a feel to using the simulator and simply relate to real scenarios. Subsequent experiments will be complex, yet still relating to real events.

Launching the HTTP Simulator

  • Ensure that your default browser supports Java applets. Note that you may need to run Java in low security for the Java applets in this exercise to work properly.
  • For access to all simulations, click on the rotating globe at this book’s Companion Web site at http://williamstallings.com/BusinessDataComm/BDC7e-student/.
  • Click the spinning globe icon, and then click on the link to the HTTP Simulator.
  • This will launch the HTTP Simulator applet along with a description of the main commands we will be using for our experiments.

Main Commands Description

HTTP supports a relatively modest suite of commands. The protocol simulator supports the following, most frequently used, HTTP commands.

 

Command

Description

GET

Get data for URL

HEAD

Get header for URL

POST

Append data to URL

PUT

Send data to URL

Response Codes

HTTP provides a range of response codes, each uniquely indicating the response to the corresponding command previously received. The protocol simulator here supports a limited range of HTTP response codes, as described below.

 

Code

Description

200 OK

Command completed successfully

301 MOVED

Requested URL has moved to another location

400 ERROR

The command encountered an error

Applet Interface

The applet graphical interface consists of the control panel (bottom left corner), the commands panel (bottom right), and the simulation view (top half).

The control panel consists of several buttons. Run will perform an automatic simulation of the protocol. Stop will halt the automatic simulation. Undo will revert back one step from the latest command. Redo will revert what undo does. Clear will clear off the current simulation, resulting in a clean simulation view. Load,Save and Print buttons are only available when the protocol simulator is launched in standalone mode, which are not available as we are using the applet mode.

The command panel displays the available commands at the current point of simulation. Clicking on one of the commands will progress the simulation seen in the simulation view.

 

Continue to Experiment #1 Instructions on the following page…

 

 

EXPERIMENT #1: RETRIEVING A WEB PAGE SUCCESSFULLY

This is the simplest example: fetching the data (which is the web page contents) of a particular URL (location). To do this the client will send a GET(url) command to the server, which will respond with a 200 response code along with the contents of the location specified in the GET command.

 

  1. Click the Clearbutton to start a fresh simulation.
  2. In the command panel, click on Client: GET(URL1) – get data for URL. You should be able to see in the simulation view a corresponding flow of this command from the client to the server via the medium. Notice that the available choices in the command panel change as the request is received at the server.
  3. Now click the Server: 200 OK(DATA1) – send requested data. Similarly the simulation view reflects the response from server to the client.

 

The simulation is now complete for URL1. Observe the interaction between the client and server.

Capture a screenshot of your simulation that includes a date/time stamp or unique desktop element, and answer the following question.

Q1: In reality, what does the client represent? Relate the client/server interaction you observed in this experiment to a regular activity that occurs on the Internet.

 

 

EXPERIMENT #2: UNSUCCESSFUL RETRIEVAL OF A WEB PAGE

 

Repeat Experiment 1 again, but this time selecting Server: 400 Error(Code) – report requested data unavailable at the last step.

The simulation is now complete for URL1. Observe the interaction between the client and server.

Capture a screenshot of your simulation that includes a date/time stamp or unique desktop element, and answer the following question.

Q2: Identify a real scenario when this client and server interaction would occur.

 

 

Continue to Experiment #3 Instructions on the following page…

EXPERIMENT #3: REDIRECTION OF REQUESTED DATA

 

Repeat Step 1 and 2 of Experiment One, and then do the following

  1. In command panel, select Server: 301 MOVED(URL2) – report moved URL.
  2. Select Client: GET(URL2) – get data for new URL.
  3. Select Server: 200 OK(DATA2) – send requested data.

 

Capture a screenshot of your simulation that includes a date/time stamp or unique desktop element, and answer the following question.

 

Q3: Observe the simulation and compare with the results in Experiment One. What is the difference in the flow, and what does it mean?

 

 

EXPERIMENT #4: POST INFORMATION TO WEB PAGES

 

It should be obvious that there are many types of interactions that a client might have with a web server. One such interaction is when a client appends data to the URL to be received by the server.

Start a new simulation similar to Experiment #1, but this time choose Client: POST(URL1, DATA1) for step 2.

Capture a screenshot of your simulation that includes a date/time stamp or unique desktop element, and answer the following question.

Q4: What is the key difference that you observe in the interaction?

Q5: Relate the client/server interaction you observed in this experiment to a regular activity that occurs on the Internet.

 

 

Submitting your work

In a new Word document, include your screenshots of the simulations for each experiment, along with your answers for each of the five questions. Save the file as Lastname_Firstname_Assignment #. Include your name in the assignment file itself and submit your file to Blackboard. Any assignment with screenshots that do not include a visible date and timestamp or a unique desktop element to identify the student’s work will not be accepted.

 

Q8. Reference Figure 1.  Friendly Care Hospital is one of the biggest hospitals in D

IT INFRASTRUCTURE PROJECT PHASE I INSTRUCTIONS

Project Background

Reference Figure 1.  Friendly Care Hospital is one of the biggest hospitals in DC. You have recently bought the hospital, naming it [Your Firstname Lastname] Hospital.  For example, Jane Doe Hospital.  Jane Doe Hospital owns a 5-story building and houses many departments that span multiple floors. Its Radiology department is spread across the first and second floors, connected by a dedicated LAN. The department has recently deployed a new “Radiology Images” application as part of their initiative to digitize patient records.  However, the department staff sometimes faces long application delays during busy hours. It also experiences regular delays in Internet connectivity, FTPS services, web services, and email services.

Their original design, depicted in Figure 1, was categorized as a small network, providing services for up to 200 devices.  They have well surpassed this.  You, as their senior network engineer, are tasked with the job of a complete re-design.  This design must support a mediumsize network for 200 to 1,000 devices.

 

Figure 1. Friendly Care Hospital Network Design                                                  

Project Overview

This project along with the Phase II IT Infrastructure Project will help you understand how a network administrator improves network performance in wired and wireless local area and wide area networks, using the application Cisco Packet Tracer. To learn more about Packet Tracer please read the Cisco Packet Tracer DS PDF.

In this project, you will study performance improvements in a congested, wired LAN/WAN environment that can be solved to varying degrees by a new IT infrastructure design and fully functional implementation in Packet Tracer. Later, in Phase II of the project, you will scale this design to a larger enterprise IT infrastructure.

To begin the projects, you will complete a review of related literature to identify what is appropriate to improve system feasibility, RAS (reliability, availability, serviceability), security, and disaster recovery of the existing IT infrastructure and model of your hospital.  Once this review of literature is complete, you will use the outcomes and research results to advance and improve the IT infrastructure.  Proper data analysis, comparison, and contrast will be summarized within in-text tables and figures as well as appendixes to explain the results of the IT infrastructure re-design and improvement.

 

Project Requirements

  • Take screenshots demonstrating your network, servers, configurations, and protocols properly functioning in the new design.  Screenshots must include a unique piece of information identifying the student’s computer along with a proper operating system date/time.  Submit these as appendices in the Word document.
  • Submit a working Packet Tracer lab, typically this file has a .pkt file extension.

o        This will include the fully operational new IT infrastructure design o All devices in the lab must be named with your first name and last name

  • Example: Jane_Doe_Router_1 o All hardware and software should be configured properly and should be able to communicate securely using optimized networking designs, configurations, and protocols
  • IT Infrastructure Design Requirements o You must start with a blank/new Packet Tracer file, existing labs or modified labs of existing solutions will receive a zero without exception

o        Include the existing hospital services and systems but optimized/improved o Design a medium-size network for 200 to 1,000 devices

  • For example, an N-Tier design or superior supported by research
  • Add appropriate routers and switches to support this new design
  • Design and configure at least one appropriate networking protocol,

IPv4 or IPv6

  • Design IP addressing that will scale to 1,000 devices
  • Use proper network address translation (NAT)

o   Add an Internet Service Provider (ISP) into the design o Add appropriate security into the design

o   Add sufficient modularity, resiliency, and flexibility into the design

o   Design and implement the following new services and servers

  • A Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server that automatically assigns working IP addresses to new workstations that allows them to connect to all network devices properly
  • A name server that manages the Domain Name System (DNS) and allows workstations to communicate with a web server external to the local area network
  • An external web server that hosts your favorite website, accessible via the ISP
  • Two new user workstations in eachbuilding that uses the new services and services properly
  • Show these services working on each workstation in your project (e.g. a website from the web server, DHCP, etc)
  • Written Requirements (Introduction, Literature Review, and Conclusion) o Submit a properly formatted APA paper in Microsoft Word o Here is an example paper: https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/560/18/

o   Table of Contents that automatically adjusts page numbers of the main headings

o   Introduction

  • Introduce the primary goals and objectives of the project o Review of literature that supports the new system simulation, model, and design
  • Include appropriate IT frameworks and standards in which to design the new system
  • Address system feasibility, RAS (reliability, availability, serviceability), security, and disaster recovery
  • Include at least 10 scholarly journal articles focusing on relevant research on the problems being addressed

o   Packet Tracer design explanation

  • Explain each of the additions and improvements
  • Reference the primary configurations and how these were developed
  • Include running configurations from routers/switches as appendices o Conclusion
  • Highlight any limitations, managerial implications, and conclusions of the project deliverables and outcomes
  • Save the file as Lastname_Firstname_ProjectPhaseI. Include your name in the assignment file itself and submit your file to Blackboard.
  • Any assignment without working Packet Tracer files or without screenshots that do not include a visible date and timestamp from the operating system and a unique desktop element to identify the student’s work will not be accepted.· To copy screenshots to Microsoft Word:

o   Press the “Print Screen” key on your keyboard. The key is usually located at the upper right corner of a keyboard.

o   You can also use the “snipping tool” in Windows

o   For Windows users, open application “Paint” and paste the screen shot over.

“Paint” usually can be accessed this way: Start à All Programs à

Accessories. For users of other operating systems, use a similar application.

o   In “Paint”, select the graph or area needed and copy it. You need to click this icon  in order to be able to select an area. The icon is listed on the left side of the window.

o   Paste the selected area to a word processor.

o   Save the file as Lastname_Firstname_ProjectPhaseI 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q9. Week 8 Assignment

Create a spreadsheet that includes a list of the students.

 

  1. a) Import the data from the spreadsheet to the table student; you need to create a query (Week8-del-students)to Delete the existing records.

 

  1. b) Link the spreadsheet. Create a report from the linked spreadsheet.

 

2) You are going to create the following queries

List the content of each table using condition (criteria) of your choice, you MUST explain each condition

 

You are going to add your name (Lewis Ministrelli) as student too,

Try to use criteria (condition) for the following (explain each condition)

 

Create at least one update query

Create at least one insert query

Create at least one delete query

 

Create a query and use it in a report to show the schedule of courses

Create a query and use it in a report to the list of students per class

Create a query and use it in a report to list the courses per instructor

 

3) Create a form with a custom navigation buttons (command button) to open each form and report.

 

Do the following tasks

The name of each Object should start with Week8

 

1) Create a spreadsheet that includes a list of the students.

 

  1. a) Import the data from the spreadsheet to the table student; you need to create a query (Week8-del-students) to Delete the existing records.

 

  1. b) Link the spreadsheet. Create a report from the linked spreadsheet.

 

2) You are going to create the following queries

List the content of each table using condition (criteria) of your choice, you MUST explain each condition

 

You are going to add your name (Lewis Ministrelli) as student too,

Try to use criteria (condition) for the following (explain each condition)

 

Create at least one update query

Create at least one insert query

Create at least one delete query

 

Create a query and use it in a report to show the schedule of courses

Create a query and use it in a report to the list of students per class

Create a query and use it in a report to list the courses per instructor

 

3) Create a form with a custom navigation buttons (command button) to open each form and report.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q10. Network Penetration Testing (CIS or SEC 435)

Week 1 Lab 1 submission

tudents, please view the “Submit a Clickable Rubric Assignment” in the Student Center.
Instructors, training on how to grade is within the Instructor Center.

If you have not logged into the iLabs environment yet, use your access code emailed to you by the bookstore when you purchased the books to register.

Lab Assignments

Submit each lab based on the following:

  1. Log into the EC-Council iLab environment.
  2. Complete the weekly lab assignment described below using EC-Council iLab.
  3. Submit the screenshots for the steps specified in each lab assignment.
  4. Write a short answer in Word format and include with the assignment submission link the following:
  5. Summarize the technical experiences in completing the lab assignment.
  6. Identify the commands that were of greatest benefit to you.
  7. Provide general comments on the overall lab assignment experience.
    Note:This is an academic writing assignment. Correct punctuation, grammar, and spelling are necessary. Points may be deducted for poor writing.

 

Lab Assignment 1

Due Week 1 and worth 30 points

Complete the following EC-Council Labs.

Note: Lab 1 contains deliverables that are partially derived from the following course required textbook: EC-Council Press. (2017). Ethical Hacking and Countermeasures: Web Applications and Data Servers (2nd ed.). Cengage Learning.

 

Lab Version

Module Title

Location

Lab #: Title

Deliverable(s) for Submission

Strayer

SEC435

(CEHv.9)

Session Hijacking

iLab

Module 1o

Lab 1:  “Session Hijacking Using Zed Attack Proxy.”

  1. Screenshots after Steps 8 and 22.

Q1. Artificial Neural Network

 

1). What would happen if Artificial Neural Networks (ANN) did not have any bias (fixed input)? For instance, suppose that ‘y’ must be 5 when all inputs are 0.

2). What are the main similarities and differences between the functions ‘logsig’ and ‘tanh’?

3). Indicate whether the next statements are true or false and explain:

  • When the neutrons of an artificial neural network (ANN) use the LOGSIG function, the output values of the network cannot exceed a value of one no matter what input is applied tot he network. A value outside the range [0 1] is impossible to attain at the output of the ANN. If the required range is bigger than zero to one, then the output signal must be scaled appropriately.
  • When the neutrons of an artificial neural network (ANN) use the TANH function, it is very important to note that the output signal is limited to the range from -1 to 1. The ‘tanh’ function has a shape very similar to the shape of the ‘logsig’ function. However, the lower range for the ‘logsig’ function is zero when compared with the lower range of the ‘tanh’ which is -1.

 

Q2. Master-Slave J-K Flip-Flop using NAND gages with explanation of Truth Table with arbitrary clock

 

Question: Find the output using the input sequences of the J-K Master-Slave flipflop using NAND gates. Follow the input sequences. Observe and record the output sequences.

 

Q3. Frequency Modulation (FM) demodulation

 

Find an expression for the instantaneous frequency of FM modulation

Find the followings expression for the signals z(t), w(t), of an FM demodulation as shown in the diagram. Determine the bandwidth of the signal w(t) according to Carson’s rule.

The received signal passes through a square law device, DC blocker, again a square law device, again a DC blocker.

w(t) is the output of the final DC blocker

z(t) is the output of the first DC blocker

x(t) is the output of the first square law device and x2(t) is the output of the second square law device.

 

Q4. Principle and Operation of Quadrature Phase Shift Keying (QPSK) receiver

 

 

The QPSK receiver, like the BPSK receiver, can create a synchronous carrier when the received signal has a phase shift. Show that even if the signal s(t) is shifted by an angle, the output of the frequency divider produces cosine and sin carrier wave synchronous to the received signal.

Q5. Electrical Hazards, potential severity, the extent of severity and consequences, Safe Practices

 

identify the type of hazard, the potential severity and potential consequences for the plant employee due to the application of insulating tape to the exposed high-voltage wire

 

Q6. Find the Standing Wave Ratio of a Transmission Line

 

Given a lossless Transmission line with Z0=50ohm, terminated at a resistive load RL>Z0. The plot of voltage standing wave ratio is given with vmax=6volt, vmin=2volt.

(a) Determine the standing wave ratio on the line terminated (resistive).

(b) Determine RL.

(c) Determine the voltage magnitude of the incident wave.

(d) Determine the wavelength of the line if the distance between the consecutive maxima and minima is given.

 

Q7. Write an essay (1,250-1,500 words)

 

 

Many theories and intervention techniques in performance psychology have a cognitive-behavioral approach. The interactional model of personality which describes behavior as the sum of personality (p), the environmental situation (s), and the interaction (i.e., Behavior = P + S + P x S) is generally a better predictor of success than the environmental situation or the personality alone. However, in many situations the environmental conditions are so influential that the stable personality characteristics will have little effect. This is known as the personality paradox. In this assignment, you will discuss the Cognitive Affective Processing System as a way of explaining both the personality paradox and how a performer’s personality interacts with the environment to produce a behavioral response.

General Requirements:

Use the following information to ensure successful completion of the assignment:

  • Instructors will be using a grading rubric to grade the assignments. It is recommended that learners review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment in order to become familiar with the assignment criteria and expectations for successful completion of the assignment.
  • Doctoral learners are required to use APA style for their writing assignments. The APA Style Guide is located in the Student Success Center.
  • This assignment requires that at least two additional scholarly research sources related to this topic, and at least one in-text citation from each source be included.

Directions:

Write an essay (1,250-1,500 words) in which you will discuss the Cognitive Affective Processing System as a way of explaining both the personality paradox and how a performer’s personality interacts with the environment to produce a behavioral response. In your paper, include the following:

  1. An explanation of how the personality paradox might occur.
  2. A discussion of the Cognitive Affective Processing System as a way of explaining the personality paradox.
  3. A discussion of the Cognitive Affective Processing System as a way of explaining how the performer’s personality interacts with the environment.

 

Q8. Monostable or one-shot multi-vibrator

 

  •  Explain the conditions that the trigger signal that you will apply at trigger input (pin No.2) should have in order to trigger the monostable multivibrator. Explain your result.

Or

  • Explain the principle of working of mono-stable multi-vibrator (One-shot multi-vibrator)

Or

  • Give the pin description of IC 555 timer or mono-stable multi-vibrator and explain its principle of operation.

 

Q9. Binary Phase Shift Keying

 

What is the need to use the synchronous carrier in BPSK demodulation?

Can a non-synchronos carrier such as cos(w0t) be used instead?

What is the use of the square-law device, the band-pass filter, and the frequency divider?

What is the function of the bit synchronizer?

How the integrate-and-dump circuit is used to recover the original signal? Show it mathematically.

Mathematically prove how the effect of 2wcan be eliminated.

 

Q10. python programming

The assessment requires the student to incorporate all the learned technologies in single testbed/simulation. All the students are required to communicate their project that they are working on as Coursework Testbed implementation/Simulation.

 

Example projects that could be undertaken as Coursework Project include the following:

  • Manage Cloud resources: The proposed solution is to run Apache Mesos/DCOS which is a cluster management solution that is typically deployed in data centres, it manages and monitors resources and combines the resources of servers such as CPU, RAM, STORAGE and serves software applications through its framework called Marathon, it enables various applications and frameworks to share cluster resources affectively as well as in isolation.
  • VM Tool Comparisons: The purpose of this purpose is to evaluate the scalability (VM set-up and termination) using two of the most commonly used VIMs Eucalyptus, and OpenNebula.
  • Test-driven and Object-Oriented Implementation of 5G architecture: While NFV has an ETSI defined reference architecture, its beneficial to implement a pure software representation of architecture. The purpose of this project is to design Class, Interaction, State Chart, Component, Deployment Diagrams for 5G architecture using UML software such as IBM Rational Rose / MagicDraw / Lucidchart. The project requires good practice and documentation.
  • Cloud based Multimedia Streaming and Transcoding (Student may use a VMware Hypervisor to create VMs to transcode and stream multimedia contents using FFMPEG to support HLS based http streaming, this project can also be developed as Virtual Network functions.
  • Datacentre Implementation using VMware Hypervisor: Student may design and implement a data centre using VMWARE Hypervisor to meet the needs of a particular organisation.
  • Docker Management Platform: This project requires to design and develop a docker management platform using python.

The above listed are just an example projects, student may choose any one of them or may also propose a project that helps him to implement the cloud and virtualisation concepts that he has learned in this module. This would be required an approval from the Module leader.

 

Coursework Specification

  1. Each group must provide a report comprising: abstract, introduction, experimentation objectives and experimental results and conclusions
  2. Please use the appendix to provide a logbook with the contributions of each member of the group
  3. The minimum length of the report is 3500 words with at least 6 screenshots from experimental development-testing.

 

The assessment requires the student to incorporate all the learned technologies in single testbed/simulation. All the students are required to communicate their project that they are working on as Coursework Testbed implementation/Simulation.

 

Example projects that could be undertaken as Coursework Project include the following:

  • Manage Cloud resources: The proposed solution is to run Apache Mesos/DCOS which is a cluster management solution that is typically deployed in data centres, it manages and monitors resources and combines the resources of servers such as CPU, RAM, STORAGE and serves software applications through its framework called Marathon, it enables various applications and frameworks to share cluster resources affectively as well as in isolation.
  • VM Tool Comparisons: The purpose of this purpose is to evaluate the scalability (VM set-up and termination) using two of the most commonly used VIMs Eucalyptus, and OpenNebula.
  • Test-driven and Object-Oriented Implementation of 5G architecture: While NFV has an ETSI defined reference architecture, its beneficial to implement a pure software representation of architecture. The purpose of this project is to design Class, Interaction, State Chart, Component, Deployment Diagrams for 5G architecture using UML software such as IBM Rational Rose / MagicDraw / Lucidchart. The project requires good practice and documentation.
  • Cloud based Multimedia Streaming and Transcoding (Student may use a VMware Hypervisor to create VMs to transcode and stream multimedia contents using FFMPEG to support HLS based http streaming, this project can also be developed as Virtual Network functions.
  • Datacenter Implementation using VMware Hypervisor: Student may design and implement a data center using VMWARE Hypervisor to meet the needs of a particular organisation.
  • Docker Management Platform: This project requires to design and develop a docker management platform using python.

The above listed are just an example projects, student may choose any one of them or may also propose a project that helps him to implement the cloud and virtualisation concepts that he has learned in this module. This would be required an approval from the Module leader.

 

Coursework Specification

  1. Each group must provide a report comprising: abstract, introduction, experimentation objectives and experimental results and conclusions
  2. Please use the appendix to provide a logbook with the contributions of each member of the group
  3. The minimum length of the report is 3500 words with at least 6 screenshots from experimental development-testing.

 

 

PHYSICS

Q1. Calculate the magnetic field in a Toroidal ring

3.5. A laminated toroidal iron core has a mean magnetic path of diameter 15 cm and relative permeability 1000. The core has a circular cross-section of diameter 2 cm and a coil with 100 turns. The flux density in the core is 1T. Calculate

(a)the value of magnetic field strength H in the core
(b)the required coil mmf.
(c)the coil current
(d)the coil flux
(e)the coil flux linkage
(f) the coil inductance from the coil flux-linkage

 

Q2. What are the inductive and deductive methods of science? How they are involved in technology?

  • Discuss the differences between inductive and deductive methods of science
  • Elaborate on how they are involved in technology.
  • What is grounded theory?
  • The general rules to follow to apply the inductive and deductive method to technology
  • Approaches to follow to make the inductive and deductive methods successful

 

Q3. PHSC 210 Comparative Essay

Comparative Essay Instructions

Selection of Topic

Choose 1 of the following topics for your Comparative Essay:

  1. Age of the earth (radioisotope dating vs. alternative methods)
  2. Origin of coal (swamp forests vs. marine deposition)
  3. Dating the rock layers seen in the Grand Canyon (old earth vs. young earth)
  4. The fossil record (evidence of: long periods of time vs. short periods of time)
  5. Mass extinctions in the fossil record (old-earth vs. young-earth)

 

Content and Outline

Use the following outline when writing your paper. Each point on the outline below must be a separate section (with the section heading, as indicated) within your paper.

  1. Introduction
  • Indicate which topic you chose from the list above.
  • Indicate the purpose of your paper (i.e., to compare old-earth and young-earth viewpoints on your chosen topic).
  1. Old-Earth Secular View
  • What is the old-earth secular viewpoint and the evidence supporting that viewpoint on your chosen topic? Are there assumptions that are part of this viewpoint?

o   Do not discuss the old-earth creationist viewpoint on your chosen topic. For a description of old-earth creationism, go to http://www.icr.org/article/4535/.

III.                Young-Earth View

  • What is the young-earth viewpoint and the evidence for that viewpoint on your chosen topic? Are there assumptions that are part of this viewpoint?
  1. Comparison of the Viewpoints
  • Comparison is articulating similarities between the 2 viewpoints. What are the similarities (if any) in time, sequence, and processes involved?
  • Be sure to provide at least 2 similarities (comparisons) between the viewpoints.
  1. Contrast of the Viewpoints
  • Contrast is articulating differences between the 2 viewpoints. What are the differences (if any) in time, sequence, and processes involved?
  • Be sure to provide at least 2 differences (contrasts) between the viewpoints.
  1. Conclusion
  • Provide a summary statement for your paper.
  • Be sure to restate your purpose.
  • Do not introduce new material in your conclusion.

 

Avoid using first person throughout the paper. Use of “I” or “we” should be avoided.

 

Length

This paper must be 1,000–1,500 words. Do not exceed this word limit. The title page and reference page do not count toward this word total.

 

Format

You must use current APA formatting. Papers must be double-spaced with 1-inch margins. Font is to be 12-point Times New Roman. Include a cover or title page with:

Ø  paper title

Ø  your name

Ø  instructor’s name

Ø  course number, section number and course name (i.e., PHSC 210 B21, Elements of Earth Science)

Ø  date

There is no need to include an abstract in your paper.

 

Sources

Your Comparative Essay must include at least 4 scholarly sources in addition the course textbook and the Bible. Of these required sources, 2 must be from an old-earth perspective and 2 from a young-earth perspective. Acceptable sources include journal articles, manuscripts, scholarly textbooks, and/or internet sites from .edu or .gov sources. Avoid internet sites from .com, .net, .org, etc. as the information contained therein is not often peer reviewed. There are exceptions to this rule (e.g., the Institute for Creation Research site is a .org site, but it has been judged a reputable site by those in the young-earth community. Answers in Genesis is also acceptable.). In particular, avoid Wikipedia. Study Bibles are also not appropriate for this assignment.

 

Citation

Be sure to cite your sources in the body of your paper using current APA formatting. Examples of current APA formatting rules can be found here. Also, a presentation about current APA formatting is provided in Module/Week 6.

 

Plagiarism

Plagiarism is an academic infringement and a violation of Liberty’s Honor Code. To learn more about plagiarism and how to avoid it, visit this website. All submitted essays are subject to a SafeAssign review. This will compare your paper against thousands of other submissions.   Cases of plagiarism will be dealt with according to current policies established by Liberty University Online.

Submission

Submit your work to Blackboard as a Microsoft Word document. Do not paste your paper in the submission box in Blackboard, only upload the Word document. Do not submit as .pdf file.

Submit your Comparative Essay by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 6.

 

Title [This should be one of the 5 options from the instructions.)
Student name

PHSC 210-[Section]

Date

Instructor

Introduction

Old-Earth Secular View

Young-Earth View

Comparison of the Viewpoints

Contrast of the Viewpoints

Conclusion

[Content needs to be a bit more than 1,000 words and less than 1,500 words full credit. The Cover and Reference pages do not count in this word total. Delete all blank lines. Left align all text except headings and always indent the first line of each paragraph. ]

 

 

References

[At least 4 sources are required – at least 2 from each side of the debate – in the format below.]

Author(s) (year). Title. Publication. DOI or Retrieved from [url] [Use hanging indent format where the second line is indented as shown on this line and the line following. Please include an adequate number of sources for this essay other than your course texts (see assignment Instructions).]

 

 

Q4. PHSC 210 dISCUSSION 2

Discussion Board Forum 2 Prompt

Topic: Current Young-Earth Research

 

Thread:

In this 350 word (minimum) discussion board thread, you will choose from 1 of 10 current young-Earth Institute for Creation Research articles based on your interest. Follow these steps:

  1. Choose ONE of the following a current young-Earth articles from the list below.
    1. Oil, Fracking and Recent Global Flood (http://www.icr.org/article/oil-fracking-recent-global-flood/)
    2. Dinosaur Fossils in Late Flood Rocks (http://www.icr.org/article/dinosaur-fossils-late-flood-rocks)
    3. The Ice Age and Scattering of the Nations (http://www.icr.org/article/ice-age-scattering-nations/)
    4. Dinosaur Soft Tissues: They’re Real! (http://www.icr.org/article/4819)
    5. World’s Most Catastrophic Extinction (http://www.icr.org/article/worlds-most-catastrophic-extinction)
    6. Is there Geological Evidence for the Young Earth? (http://www.icr.org/article/there-geological-evidence-for-young-earth)
    7. The Ice Age: Causes and Consequences (http://www.icr.org/article/4788)
    8. Dinosaur Fossils Found in Marine Rocks…Again (http://www.icr.org/article/dinosaur-fossils-found-marine-rocksagain)
    9. One-Hour Oil Production? (http://www.icr.org/article/one-hour-oil-production/)
    10. Radioactive Decay Rates Not Stable (http://www.icr.org/article/radioactive-decay-rates-not-stable)

 

  1. Read the article by clicking on the matching link to the article in the Reading and Study Folder > Discussion Board 2 Article Links for this module (or copy and paste a link above into your browser).
  2. In 3 to 5 paragraphs, include the following in your thread:
    1. The author and title of the article.
    2. A summary the main finding(s) of the article.
    3. A discussion the significance of the findings.
    4. Your reasons for choosing this article.
    5. A short concluding sentence or two.
    6. (No bibliography is needed unless other sources are included. Cite using APA formatting. Also, provide in-text citations, as appropriate.).

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Replies: (Two 100-word replies are required)

After reading a classmate’s thread, answer the following questions in a minimum of 100 words:

  1. What most interested you about your classmate’s thread?
  2. Is there anything you want to add to your classmate’s thread?
  3. Are there any unanswered questions in the thread?

 

Submit your thread by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Thursday of the Module/Week of the assignment and submit your replies by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the same module/week.

 

Q5. PHSC 210 DISCUSSION 1

Discussion Board Forum 1 Prompt

 

Topic: Earth Science in Action

 

Thread:

Complete the following step-by-step process:

  1. Watch the presentation entitled “How to Find Articles for the ‘Earth Science in Action’ Assignment” in the Reading & Study folder for Module/Week 4.
  2. Explore the following 3 websites which are also available in the Reading & Study folder for Module/Week 4:

http://www.sciencedaily.com/news/earth_climate/geology/

http://geologytimes.com/

http://geology.com/news

  1. Find 1 article that interests you from 1 of the links above. Do NOT choose 1 article from each link.
  2. Read the article and take notes.
  3. Write a thread that addresses the following questions related to your chosen article:
  4. What is the title of the article?
  5. What is the web address for the article?
  6. Who is(are) the author(s)?
  7. What is(are) the topic(s) covered in the article?
  8. What new information have scientists found?
  9. Why is this new information important?
  10. What impact will this new information have on mankind and/or on science?
  11. What drew you to this article? That is, why did you find this article interesting?

 

Notes:

  1. The article chosen must have been written within the last 5 years.
  2. If you cannot answer all of the questions above, then you must choose another article.
  3. Do not look for the shortest article as it will most likely not contain sufficient information for this assignment.
  4. Be sure you do not merely list and answer the questions above. You must construct a well-written thread in narrative format with an introduction and conclusion. The following outline is recommended:
  5. Introductory paragraph (include article title, web address, author(s), and topic(s) covered)
  6. Paragraph discussing the new information found, why this information is important, and how this information will impact mankind and/or science
  7. Paragraph discussing your interest in the article
  8. Concluding paragraph
  9. Be sure to reference your article in a bibliography using current APA format. Also, provide in-text citations, as appropriate.

 

Replies:

After reading a classmate’s thread and reviewing the article at the hyperlink provided by the classmate, answer the following questions:

  1. What most interested you about the classmate’s thread and article?
  2. Is there anything fascinating about the article that the classmate did not identify?
  3. Would you recommend this article to someone else? Why or why not? Provide at least 2 reasons.

 

Submit your thread by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Thursday of Module/Week 4 and your replies by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of the same module/week.

Q6. Flight Performance and Compressibility Effects Exercise

 

Complete the Aircraft Performance Exercise linked below. Review the Examples and Tutorials before you start solving the problems. Make sure that it is your own work and show work with references.

 

 

Exercise 7: Maneuvering & High Speed Flight

 

For this week’s assignment you will research a historic or current fighter type aircraft of your choice (options for historic fighter jets include, but are not limited to: Me262, P-59, MiG-15, F-86, Hawker Hunter, Saab 29, F-8, Mirage III, MiG-21, MiG-23, Su-7, Electric Lightning, Electric Canberra, F-104, F-105, F-4, F-5, A-6, A-7, Saab Draken, Super Etendard, MiG-25, Saab Viggen, F-14, and many more)

 

As previously mentioned and in contrast to formal research for other work in your academic program at ERAU, Wikipedia may be used as a starting point for this assignment. However, DO NOT USE PROPRIETARY OR CLASSIFIED INFORMATION even if you happen to have access in your line of work.

 

Notice also that NASA has some great additional information at: http://www.hq.nasa.gov/pao/History/SP-468/contents.htm.

 

  1. Selected Aircraft:

 

  1. Aircraft Gross Weight [lbs]:

 

  1. Aircraft Wing Area [ft2]:

 

  1. Positive Limit Load Factor (LLF – i.e. the max positive G) for your aircraft:

 

  1. Negative LLF (i.e. the max negative G) for your aircraft:

 

  1. Maximum Speed [kts] of your aircraft. If given as Mach number, convert by using Eq. 17.2 relationships with a sea level speed of sound of 661 kts.

 

 

For simplification, assume the CLmax for your aircraft was 1.5 (unless you can find a different CLmax in your research).

 

 

  1. Find the Stall Speed [kts] at 1G under sea level standard conditions for your aircraft (similar to all of our previous stall speed work, simply apply the lift equation in its stall speed form from page 44 to the above data):

 

 

  1. Find the corresponding Stall Speeds for 2G, 3G, 4G, and so on for your selected aircraft (up to the positive load limit from 4. above), using the relationship of Eq. 14.5. You can use the table below to track your results.

 

 

  1. Add the corresponding Stall Speeds for -1G, -2G, and so on for your selected aircraft (up to the negative load limit from 5. above) to your table. Assume that your fighter wing has symmetrical airfoil characteristics, i.e. that the negative maximum CL value is equal but opposite to the positive one. (Feel free to use specific airfoil data for your aircraft, but please make sure to use the correct maximum positive and negative Lift Coefficients in the correct places, i.e. CLmax in the positive part and highest negative CL in the negative part of the table and curve, and indicate your changes to the given example.)

 

Explanation: Making the assumption of symmetry simplifies your work, since the stall curve in the negative part of the V-G diagram becomes a mirror image of the positive side. Notice also that the simplified form of Eq. 14.5 won’t work with negative values; however, if using the G-dependent stall equation in the middle of page 222, it becomes obvious that negative signs cancel out between the negative G and the negative CLmax, and Stall Speeds can actually be calculated in the same way as for positive G, reducing your workload on the negative side to only one calculation of the stall speed at the negative LLF, if not a whole number.)

 

 

  1. Track your results in the V-G diagram below by properly labeling speeds at intercept points. Add also horizontal lines for positive and negative load limits on top and bottom and a vertical line on the right for the upper speed limit of your aircraft at sea level from 6. above. (Essentially you are re-constructing the V-G diagram by appropriately labeling it for your aircraft. Notice that the shape of the diagram and the G-dependent curve relationship is essentially universal and just the applicable speeds will change from aircraft to aircraft. Make sure to reference book Fig. 14.8 for comparison.)

 

 

 

G

VS

(kts)

PLL:
10
9
8
7
6
5
4
3
2
1
0
-1
-2
-3
-4
-5
NLL:

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. Find the Ultimate Load Factor (ULF) based on your aircraft’s Positive Limiting Load Factor (LLF). (For the relationship between LLF and ULF, see book discussion p. 226 and Fig. 14.9):

 

 

  1. Find the Positive Ultimate Limit Load [lbs] based on the ULF in E. above and the Gross Weight from 2.?

 

 

  1. Explain how limit load factors change with changes in aircraft weight. Support your answer with formula work and/or calculation example.

 

 

  1. What is the Maneuvering Speed [kts] for your aircraft?

 

 

  1. At the Maneuvering Speed and associated load factor, find the Turn Radius ‘r’ [ft] and the Rate of Turn (ROT) [deg/s].

 

  1. I) Use Eq. 14.3 to find bank angle ‘f’ for that load factor (i.e. G). (Remember to check that your calculator is in the proper trigonometric mode when building the arccos).

 

 

  1. II) With bank angle from I) above and maneuvering speed from H., use Eq. 14.15 to find turn radius ‘r’.

 

 

III) With bank angle from I) above and maneuvering speed from H., use Eq. 14.16 to find             ROT. (Make sure to use the formula that already utilizes speed in kts and gives results in             degree per second).

 

 

  1. For your selected aircraft, describe the different features that are incorporated into the design to allow high-speed and/or supersonic flight. Explain how those design features enhance the high-speed performance, and name additional features not incorporated in your aircraft, but available to designers of supersonic aircraft.

 

 

  1. Using Fig. 14.10 from Flight Theory and Aerodynamics, find the Bank Angle for a standard rate (3 deg/s) turn at your aircraft’s maneuvering speed. (This last assignment is again designed to review some of the diagram reading skills required for your final exam; therefor, please make sure to fully understand how to extract the correct information and review book, lecture, and/or tutorials as necessary. You can use the below diagram copy to visualize your solution path by adding the appropriate lines, either via electronic means, e.g. insert line feature in Word or Acrobat, or through printout, drawing, and scanning methods.)

 

 

 

From: Dole, C. E. & Lewis, J. E. (2000). Flight Theory and Aerodynamics. New York, NY: John Wiley & Sons Inc.

 

 

Example Problems Module 8

GIVEN:

W= 25,000lb

Stall Speed @1G Level Flight = 125 KEAS= Vs1

S= 314.5 ft2

CLmax = 1.5

Sea Level Standard Day (σ = 1.0)

Utility Certification (+4.4G to -2.0G)

 

Find stall speed (KEAS) at 4.0 G (Vs2)

From the Lecture Notes and Dole & Lewis-page 222

VsKEAS =  =  =250 KEAS

or

Equation 14.5  Vs2 = Vs1   = 125 KEAS   = 250 KEAS

 

 

 

Find Va (Maneuvering Speed) (KEAS)

Equation 14.9  Va = Vs   = 125 KEAS   = 262 KEAS

 

Find Stall speed (KEAS), level flight  at 0.5 G

Equation 14.5  Va = Vs   = 125 KEAS   = 88.4 KEAS

 

 

Find Stall speed (KEAS) , level flight 60 deg bank angle

 

Equation 14.6  Vs2 = Vs1   = 125  = 176.8 KEAS

 

 

Find turn radius (r) and Rate of Turn (ROT) at 250KEAS and 70 deg bank angle level turn

 

Equation 14.15            r =    =  == 2020 ft

 

Equation 14.16            ROT() =     =  = 11.98 deg/sec

or approximated graphically using Figure 14.10

(Note: The figure has two scales for Bank Angle.  One you use for Rate of Turn (ROT) and the other you use for Radius of Turn (r).The example lines are for 70 degrees bank angle

 

 

Q7. Pecha Kucha Presentation on aging aircraft inspection and documentation

 

Please find the attachment for an abstract for your research paper on aging aircraft inspection and documentation. In this activity, you will prepare a Pecha Kucha presentation based on your topic proposal. Provide 10 slides, with a 20 second presentation for each slide, either in audio or caption format.

Important: Be sure to properly cite and reference sources for all content. Citations and references are required and must be in APA style/format. Make sure it is own work not from other sources.

Refer to the  Pecha Kucha Presentation Guidelines  for content and delivery format and guidelines.

Content Format Guidelines

This course uses a modified Pecha Kucha approach, in which each of the three Pecha Kucha Presentation activities require a varying number of slides presented in varying time frames. See each activity for specific content format guidelines. Discussion may be in either audio or caption format for the activities, with audio formats requiring an accompanying transcript.

  • Important: Be sure to properly cite and reference sources for all content. Citations and references are required and must be in APA style/format. Review the evaluation rubric to make sure that your presentation aligns to the grading standard.

Delivery Format Guidelines

The recommended presentation format for Pecha Kucha presentations in this course is a screencast, which records your slides and audio together in a single video file. However, you may also use a lower-tech approach, such as a traditional Microsoft® Office PowerPoint or Apple Keynote, combined with captions to convey your message. There are a variety of presentation software and authoring tools available online for you to develop your presentation. Review the document linked below for a list of some of the more popular tools. All of these tools offer either a free version or free 30-day trial. Examples/tutorials are often included on the product websites. Note: ERAU does not provide technical support on any products external to the Canvas learning management system.

Again, there is no specific presentation format requirement other than the guidelines outlined above. Think outside the box and be creative in your presentation!

Note: View the evaluation rubric in the each Pecha Kucha activity. Please read these instructions for information on accessing the rubric.Links to an external site.

Tips: Since this may be your first Pecha Kucha, ensure you understand what the concept is and how it works, then build your presentation and practice presenting it before recording, should you plan to create a screencast. When available, please also use streaming video links for any video recordings, as opposed to uploading complete video files to the course which are usually very large.

Accessibility Support: If your presentation uses audio, please include a written transcript. Some of the presentation authoring tools, such as Camtasia, affords the opportunity to convert its transcription files to Microsoft® Office Word format.

 

ABSTRACT

This paper is going to discuss about aging aircraft inspection and what documentation is required of aircraft in the general aviation industry that are past two decades. It would start out with the publication of the FAA produced entitled “Best Practices for Aging General Aviation Airplanes.” (Federal Aviation Administration, 2003).  This article published by the FAA was endorsed by three non-government aircraft organizations. This paper will get the source from the Hunt Library, internet researches, and utilize those sources to present information. Also would include feedbacks from pilots that operate and maintenance crews on the Civil Air Patrol Aircraft.

And some of the questions that will be brought up in this research paper would be what inspection approach existed before the Aging Aircraft Inspection criteria established by the FAA? What differences in approach did the international aviation community take and what are the differences from the domestic industry? Are they more or less comprehensive and if so how? If I would not be able to get the answer to the questions, I would focus on the requirements of the aging aircraft maintenance documentation.

 

Reference

Federal Aviation Administration (01/09/2015). Advisory Circular 120-84 Aging Aircraft Inspections and Record Reviews. Retrieved October 05, 2017, from www.faa.gov/documentLibrary/media/Advisory_Circular/AC_120-84.pdf

Parr, N. (1970, January 01). Aging Aircraft. Retrieved October 05, 2017, from http://parr-agingaircraft.blogspot.com/2014/07/documentation-for-aging-aircraft.html

Q8. Drag Exercise (Answer the questions on word file)

Complete the Drag Exercise with showing work. Need to be answered on the attached word file.

Make sure its own work and with showing work for the solution.

 

Exercise 4: Drag and Applications

 

The first part of this week’s assignment is to revisit our reciprocating engine powered (i.e. propeller type) aircraft from last week.

 

  1. Selected Aircraft (from last week’s module):

 

 

Make sure to review your data and results from last week and any feedback that you may have received on your work, in order to prevent continuing with faulty data.

 

 

 

  1. Main Wing Airfoil type & on-line database designator (from last week’s module):

 

 

  1. Aircraft Maximum Gross Weight [lbs] (from last week’s module):

 

 

  1. Wing Span [ft] (from last week’s module):

 

 

  1. Average Chord Length [ft] (from last week’s module):

 

 

  1. Wing Area ‘S’ [ft2] (from last week’s module):

 

 

  1. Find the Aspect Ratio ‘AR’ for your selected aircraft wing. (Use the wing span and average chord length from last week’s module/from above. See also page 63 in your textbook.):

 

 

  1. CLmax for your airfoil (from last week’s module):

 

 

  1. Standard sea level Stall Speed ‘Vs’ for your aircraft [kts] (from last week’s calculation):

 

 

Find the appropriate drag polar curve for your airfoil selection (2. above; from last week’s module). You can utilize any officially published airfoil diagram for your selected airfoil or use again the Airfoil Tool at http://airfoiltools.com/search .

 

 

 

 

 

 

Concentrate for this exercise on the Cl/Cd (coefficient of lift vs coefficient of drag) plot, i.e. the so called drag polar. Use again only the curve for the highest Reynolds-number (Re) selected (i.e. remove all checkmarks, except the second to last, and press the “Update plots” tab).

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. From the polar plot, find the CDmin value for your airfoil, i.e. the lowest value that the coefficient of drag ‘Cd’ (bottom scale in the online tool depiction) reaches. (Tip: for a numerical breakdown of the plotted curve, you can again select the “Details” link and directly read the lowest CD value in the table – third column, labeled “CD”):

 

What we’ve just found (…with some degree of simplification…) is the parasite drag coefficient for our airfoil, i.e. the drag that exists due to skin friction and the shape of our airfoil, even when little or no lift is produced. However, this value will only represent the airfoil, i.e. main wing portion of our aircraft; therefore, let us for the remainder of our calculations assume that our aircraft is a Flying Wing type design and the total CDP for the aircraft is the same as the CDmin that we’ve just found.

 

Let us also assume that we are at standard sea level atmospheric conditions and that our wing has an efficiency factor of e = 0.82.

 

  1. Prepare and complete the following table for your aircraft (with the data from 1. through 8. above). Start your first row with the Stall Speed ‘Vs’ (from 7. above) and start the second row from the top with the next higher full twenty knots above that stall speed. Then increase speed with every subsequent row by another 20 knots until reaching 300 kts. You are again encouraged to utilize MS® Excel as shown in the tutorial video and can also increase your table detail. However, the below depicted, and above described, interval is the minimum required for this assignment.

 

V

(KTAS)

q

(psf)

CL  

CDP

 

CDI

CD CL / CD DP

(lb)

DI

(lb)

DT

(lb)

VS
60
80
100
120
140
160
180
200
220
240
260
280
300

 

Equations for Table:

 

q =                                    CL =                   CDi =[1/ (πeAR)] CL 2                      

CD = CDP + CDi                       CD = CDP + [1/ (e AR)] CL 2                                  Dp = CDp q S

Di = CDi q S = [1/ (e AR)] CL2 q S                                   Dt = Di + Dp = CD q S

 

Answer the following questions from your table.

 

  1. I) Determine the minimum total drag ‘Dmin[lbs] (i.e. the minimum value in the total drag ‘DT’ column):

 

 

  1. II) Determine the airspeed at which this minimum drag occurs ‘VDmin[kts] (i.e. the speed associated with the row in which ‘Dmin’ was found):

 

 

III) Compare parasitic ‘DP’ and induced ‘DI’ drag at VDmin. What is special about this point          in your table?

 

 

  1. IV) Determine the maximum CL/CD value in your table (i.e. the maximum value in the CL/CD column) and the speed at which it occurs.

 

 

  1. V) Compare your results in IV) with II) and comment on your findings.

 

 

  1. VI) Explain which values in your table will directly allow glide performance prediction and how (Tip: Reference again the textbook discussion pp. 61-63).

 

  1. If the gross weight of your aircraft is decreased by 10% (e.g. due to fuel burn), how would the stall speed change? Support you answer with calculation as well as written assessment. (Remember, stall speed references and discussions can be found pp. 43-45 in your textbook.)

 

 

 

For the second part of this assignment use the given figure below (Figure 1.13 from Aerodynamics for Naval Aviators [1965]) to answer the following questions. (This assignment is designed to review some of the diagram reading skills required for your midterm exam; therefore, please make sure to fully understand all the diagram information and review book, lecture, and/or tutorials if necessary.):

 

Figure 1.13 from Aerodynamics for Naval Aviators (1965).

  1. What is the Angle of Attack at Stall for the aircraft in Figure 1.13?

 

 

  1. What Angle of Attack is associated with Best L/D?

 

 

  1. What would be the best Glide Ratio for this aircraft?

 

 

  1. What is the maximum coefficient of lift (CLmax) value?

 

Q9. Lift and Airfoils Exercise

Complete the Lift and Airfoils Exercise linked below. This exercise requires you to complete some on-line research on airfoil profiles and lift curves, which will familiarize you with another type of data depiction: charts and graphs.

Must show work and references.

Answers need to be added in the attached word file

Exercise 3: Lift and Airfoils

 

The first part of this week’s assignment is to choose and research a reciprocating engine powered (i.e. propeller type) aircraft. You will further use your selected aircraft in subsequent assignments, so be specific and make sure to stay relatively conventional with your choice in order to prevent having trouble finding the required data during your later research. Also, if you find multiple numbers (e.g. for different aircraft series, different configurations, and/or different operating conditions), please pick only one for your further work, but make sure to detail your choice in your answer (i.e. comment on the condition) and stay consistent with that choice throughout subsequent work.

 

In contrast to formal research for other work in your academic program at ERAU, Wikipedia may be used as a starting point for this assignment. However, DO NOT USE PROPRIETARY OR CLASSIFIED INFORMATION even if you happen to have access in your line of work.

 

  1. Selected Aircraft:

 

For the following part of your research, you can utilize David Lednicer’s (2010) Incomplete Guide to Airfoil Usage at http://m-selig.ae.illinois.edu/ads/aircraft.html or any other reliable source for research on your aircraft.

 

  1. Main Wing Airfoil (if more than one airfoil is used in the wing design, e.g. different between root and tip, pick the predominant profile and, as always, stay consistent):

Please note also the database designator in the following on-line tool (see picture below):

 

Find the appropriate lift curve for your Airfoil from 4. You can utilize any officially published airfoil diagram for your selected airfoil or use the Airfoil Tool at http://airfoiltools.com/search and text search for NACA or other designations, search your aircraft, or use the library links to the left of the screen. Once the proper airfoil is displayed and identified, select the “Airfoil details” link to the right, which will bring up detailed plots for your airfoil similar to the ones in your textbook.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Concentrate for this exercise on the Cl/alpha (coefficient of lift vs angle of attack) plot. Start by de-cluttering the plot and leaving only the curve for the highest Reynolds-number (Re) selected (i.e. remove all checkmarks, except the second to last, and press the “Update plots” tab).

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. From the plot, find the CLmax for your airfoil (Tip: for a numerical breakdown of the plotted curve, you can select the “Details” link and directly read the highest CL value, i.e. the highest number within the second column, and associated AOA in the table, i.e. the associated number in the first column):

 

 

  1. Find the Stall AOA of your airfoil (i.e. the AOA associated with CLmax in 3.):

 

 

  1. Find the CL value for an AOA of 5° for your selected airfoil:

 

 

  1. Find the Zero-Lift AOA for your airfoil (again, the numerical table values can be used to more precisely interpolate Zero-Lift AOA, i.e. the AOA value for which CL in the second column becomes exactly 0):
  2. Compare your researched airfoil plot to the given plot of NACA 4412 (http://airfoiltools.com/airfoil/details?airfoil=naca4412-il).

 

  1. a) How do the two CLmax compare to each other? Describe the differences in airfoil characteristics (i.e. camber & thickness) between your airfoil and the given NACA 4412,            and how those differences affect CLmax. (Use your knowledge about airfoil designation          together with the airfoil drawings and details in the on-line tool to make conclusions about )

                                                         

 

  1. b) How do the two Stall AOA compare to each other? Explain how the differences in airfoil characteristics (i.e. camber & thickness) between your airfoil and the given NACA           4412 affect Stall AOA.

 

 

  1. c) How do the two Zero-Lift AOA compare to each other? Evaluate how the differences in airfoil characteristics between your airfoil and the given NACA 4412 affect Zero-Lift AOA.

 

 

  1. Compare your researched airfoil plot to the NACA 0012 plot.

 

  1. a) How do the two Zero-Lift AOA compare to each other? Evaluate how the differences in airfoil characteristics between your airfoil and the given NACA 0012 affect Zero-Lift AOA.

 

 

  1. b) What is special about the design characteristics of NACA 0012? How and where could this airfoil design type be utilized on your selected aircraft? Describe possible additional       uses of such airfoil in aviation.

 

 

For the second part of this assignment use your knowledge of the atmosphere and the Density Ratio, (sigma), together with Table 2.1 and the Lift Equation, Equation 4.1, in your textbook (remember that the presented equation already contains a conversion factor, the 295, and speeds should be directly entered in knots; results for lift will be in lbs):

 

L = CL *  * S * V2 / 295

 

Additionally, for your selected aircraft use the following data when applying Equation 4.1:

 

  1. Research the Wing Span [ft]:
  2. Find the Average Chord Length [ft]:

      Note: Average Chord = (Root Chord + Tip Chord) / 2          (if no Average Chord is directly found                                                                                         in your research)

 

  1. Find the Maximum Gross Weight [lbs] for your selected aircraft:

 

  1. Calculate the Wing Area ‘S’ [ft2] based on your aircraft’s Wing Span (from 9.) and Average Chord Length (from 10.):

 

  1. Use the CL value for an AOA of 5° for your airfoil found in 5. above to simulate cruise conditions in the following exercise B. (Note it here for easier reference):

 

  1. Prepare and complete a table of Lift vs. Airspeed at different Pressure Altitudes utilizing the given Lift Equation and your previous data. (For the calculation of Density Ratio ‘ you can assume standard temperatures and neglect humidity.)

You can utilize MS® Excel (ideal for repetitive application of the same formula) to populate table fields and examine additional speeds and altitudes, but as a minimum, include six speeds (0, 40, 80, 120, 160, & 200 KTAS) at three different altitudes (Sea Level, 10000, 40000 ft), as shown below:

 

Calculate LIFT (lb) Pressure Altitude (PA) ft
Airspeed: 0 10,000 40,000
0 KTAS
40 KTAS
80 KTAS
120 KTAS
160 KTAS
200 KTAS

 

 

  1. I) What is the relationship between Airspeed and Lift at a constant Pressure Altitude? Evaluate each Altitude column of your table individually and describe how changes in       Airspeed affect the resulting Lift. Be specific and mathematically precise, and support   your answer with the relationships expressed in the Lift Equation.

 

 

  1. II) What is the relationship between Altitude and Lift at a constant Airspeed? Evaluate each Airspeed row of your table individually and describe how changes in         Altitude affect the resulting Lift. Be specific and mathematically precise, and support       your answer with the relationships expressed in the Lift Equation.

 

 

III) Estimate the Airspeed required to support the Maximum Gross Weight of your           selected airplane (from 11. above) at an Altitude of 10000 ft and flying at the given AOA    of 5°. (As initially indicated, a   more detailed table/Excel worksheet is beneficial to     precision for this task. To support the Weight of any aircraft in level flight, an equal    amount of Lift has to be generated – therefore, you can also algebraically develop the lift equation to yield a precise Airspeed result, i.e. substituting L=W and solving for V in the lift equation. Remember that conditions in this question are not at sea level.)

 

 

  1. In B.III) above, we noted that lift has to equal weight in order to sustain level flight. Using the same Maximum Gross Weight (from 11.), and the same Wing Area (from A.), calculate required AOA for level flight at the different airspeeds in your table under standard, sea level conditions (i.e. =1). You can start a new table or expand your existing one. (See also step by step instructions below the table.):

 

Airspeed (KTAS) Required Lift = Weight Required CL Corresponding AOA for your airfoil
0
40
80
120
160
200

 

First and similar to the note in B.III) above, develop the lift equation algebraically to yield CL results based on Airspeed inputs (i.e. substitute Lift with the aircraft Weight and solve the Lift Equation for the Coefficient CL; then insert the different Airspeeds into V, calculate the corresponding CL values, and note them in your table).

 

Finally, use your researched airfoil Cl/alpha plot (from 3. through 8.) to find corresponding AOA to your calculated CL values (enter the plot in the left scale with each calculated CL value, trace horizontally to intercept the graph for that CL value, then move down vertically to find the corresponding AOA and note it in your table (alternatively, you can also look up values in the detailed table):

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

  1. I) Comment on your results. Are there airspeeds for which you could not find useful results? Describe where in the step by step process you’ve got stuck and why. Explain     what it aerodynamically means for your airfoil if a required CL value is greater than the          CLmax that you found in 3.

 

 

  1. II) What is the standard sea level Stall Speed for your selected aircraft at its Maximum Gross Weight? (Utilize above data and the Stall Speed Equation on page 44 of “Flight   Theory and Aerodynamics”).

 

Q10. Assignment 1: Applications of the Scientific Method

 

Assignment 1: Applications of the Scientific Method
The scientific method is useful in problem solving and decision-making in a wide variety of fields. In this assignment, you will demonstrate how to use the scientific method to make decisions and solve problems in your field of study or everyday life.

Identify a specific problem often faced in your field of study or everyday life. Research your problem and assess your data / research. Examples of such problems could be:

  1. Business
  2. Developing a new product that is superior to competitor’s brands; or
  3. Establishing a price for a new product using the law of supply and demand;
  4. Information Systems and Technology
  5. The use of personal electronic devices for work purpose, or
  6. Determining in the most cost-effective computer for your business;
  7. Criminal Justice
  8. The reliability of eyewitness testimony, or
  9. Determining what evidence reveals to you about a crime;
  10. Everyday Life
  11. Selecting a particular brand of detergent, or
  12. Determining the most cost-efficient transportation / route for your commute.

Write a three to five (3-5) page paper in which you:

  1. Explain the scientific method and describe the overall manner in which you would apply it in your field of study or everyday life.
  2. Propose one (1) testable hypothesis to explain / solve the problem you have selected. State the expected outcomes of your actions and include criteria for determining whether or not these actions would succeed. Note:Your hypothesis should be stated very precisely.
  3. Describe the main actions that you intend to put into place to test the hypothesis that you proposed in Question 2. Describe the way in which you would evaluate the success of your program. Include the results that you would deem as a success and the results that would be considered a failure.
  4. Discuss the wisdom behind the strategy you would use to test the hypothesis from Question 3, and describe the additional steps you might take, depending on the results of your test. Note:These additional steps might be to revise your original hypothesis (if the results were unsatisfactory) or to propose new hypotheses. The goal is to continuously improve your understanding of the factors influencing your outcomes, to be able to achieve greater results over time.
  5. Use at least two (2) quality resources / references in this assignment. Note:Wikipedia and personal blogs do not qualify as quality resources.

Your report must follow these formatting requirements:

  • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

  • Apply concepts in physical sciences to evaluate current trends and issues in the modern world.
  • Describe the physical processes influencing climate and weather.
  • Use technology and information resources to research issues in physical sciences.
  • Write clearly and concisely about physical sciences using proper writing mechanics.

 

MUSIC

 

Q1. Music homework assignment A grade

Until this January, few researchers did, either. In the largest-ever study of how parental involvement affects academic achievement, Keith Robinson, a sociology professor at the University of Texas at Austin, and Angel L. Harris, a sociology professor at Duke, mostly found that it doesn’t. The researchers combed through nearly three decades’ worth of longitudinal surveys of American parents and tracked 63 different measures of parental participation in kids’ academic lives, from helping them with homework, to talking with them about college plans, to volunteering at their schools. In an attempt to show whether the kids of more-involved parents improved over time, the researchers indexed these measures to children’s academic performance, including test scores in reading and math.

 

 

Q2. Using Music to Manage Duties

“pretend you are a pediatrican, a pre game football coach, and the owner of an expensive and sophisticated restaurant. Choose music for each of these duties keeping the role of music as physical and emotional stimulus in mind. Give detailed reasons why you programmed what you did for each and list your objectives”

 

 

Q3. Watch the film The Agony and the Ecstasy

Watch the film The Agony and the Ecstasy (1965) (dir. Carol Reed)

link: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=-LnVqkwSRbc

Finish the following questions

  1. The “Prologue”: Although the opening 12-13 minutes of the film appear to simply give a biographical account of Michelangelo’s life and a kind of inventory of his work, please consider why this feature film bio-pic opens with a kind of documentary-type introduction to the man – and to his (sculptural) work. Who is the target audience of this opening sequence? Is there any kind of rivalry or tension between the story of Michelangelo the man and Michelangelo the artist mapped out here, and how does the opening sequence either anticipate or differ from the shape of the rest of the film in this respect? How does the film art / the film as art compete with the ‘real’ art that is showcased in the “Prologue”? How does Michelangelo’s art in the film(the Sistine Chapel frescoes) compare to Michelangelo’s art as it appears in the “Prologue”?

 

  1. Charlton Heston and Rex Harrison were major mid-twentieth century actors. (Please note that they nevertheless appear not to have been the first casting choices for this film!). As it turns out, they did not get along during the making of the film. Think about the film as a star vehicle and the need for there to be (plot-driven) tension between the characters of Michelangelo and Pope Julius II, but also eventual resolution. Do you think the two men’s actual dislike for one another helped the character development in the film? How does Rex Harrison represent Julius II – as generous, as militaristic, as proud, as a believer? How does Charlton Heston portray Michelangelo – as proud, driven, a loner, a believer? How does the cinematography capture these traits in both cases? (HINT: Harrison as Julius II on his horse and the Papal throne vs. Heston as Michelangelo silhouetted against the sky in the mountains around Carrara (at 59 minutes). Finally: What do you make of the camera angle and sweeping view of the completed Sistine Chapel at 2 hours, 9 min.? Does the ceiling – rather than the actors – end up being the star of the show?

 

  1. The post-“Prologue” parts of Reed’s film are elaborately ‘choreographed’; its two parts (before and after the “Intermission”) contain multiple parallel scenes that ask the viewer to assess what kinds of developments occur as the story unfolds. Please consider the following patterns:
  2. The opening sequence of Part I in the quarry (carving out the marble that is headed for Rome to become a sculpture by Michelangelo) that then erupts into a battle scene vs. / and the opening sequence of Part II as Michelangelo (the artist) bursting into Julius II’s camp. Has anything changed in the status of the art object? What about the sequence near the end of the film when Michelangelo seeks out the (defeated) Pope in a military camp to as to be able to finish the ceiling? Or the very brief scene of cannons firing just before the final scene of the crowds gathered in the completed Sistine Chapel (at 2 hours, 7 min.). What is the relation between war / military activity and art in this film?
  3. The two entries of the Pope into Rome in Parts I and II – once in triumph, the second time in defeat.
  4. The multiple scenes when Pope Julius II is celebrating mass in the Sistine Chapel with negotiations about the ceiling / the actual painting of the ceiling interrupting the religious services. What is the relation between religious belief / faith, religious ritual, and art in this film?
  5. The multiple scenes between Michelangelo and the Contessina de Medici. Is there a development in their relationship? NB: Please note that it was and is well known that Michelangelo was homosexual. Why does Reed emphasize the relationship with the Contessina the way he does? Is there any subtle / indirect evidence of Michelangelo’s homosexuality in the film? (HINT: The scene in the brothel when the Pope’s men are searching for Michelangelo and the dark-haired young male apprentice who seems to be ever present in Part II…).
  6. The multiple scenes of direct conflict, but then also clever manipulation of Michelangelo by Julius II and vice versa. How does Julius II succeed in getting Michelangelo to go back to work after he has fallen from the scaffolding? How does Michelangelo provoke Julius II to recover from what appears to be his near death after his defeat in battle in Part II? Consider carefully the scene in Part II when the two of them meet up on the scaffolding and discuss the central fresco of the Creation of Adam (1 hour, 57 min. to 2 hours, 2 min.). What does Julius II see in Michelangelo’s depiction of God and Adam? Does he believe what Michelangelo believes? How does their final conversation in the Sistine Chapel relate to the conversation on the scaffolding? Is this some kind of buddy film?

 

  1. There are two main locations of the action of this film: the city of Florence and the city of Rome. Who and what are the main focus of attention in the respective cities? Who (what classes and / or institutions) sponsor art in these two locations? There are of course other unnamed cities in the film, and the quarry at Carrara; what do these locations represent? Consider especially the class politics of the quarry and the workers’ support of Michelangelo vs. the skepticism – at least in Part I – of the people of Rome vis-à-vis the Pope.

 

  1. Pay careful attention to the politics of the film – which are pretty accurate! What / against whom is Pope Julius II fighting and why? Who are his “enemies” (both locally in Italy and in the rest of Europe) and what countries / leaders are characterized as his friends. Why is he concerned to get the Papal States back under his control? NB: The clearest statement of the politics that Reed would have us think were at stake for Julius II are voiced by the Medici duke at 2 hours, 3 min. to 2 hours, 7 minutes.

 

  1. We see three of Renaissance Italy’s most famous artists depicted in this film: Bramante, Michelangelo, and Raphael. What pieces / kinds of art is each man most clearly identified with in the film? Where does Michelangelo stand on the matter of the relation of ‘modern’ Renaissance art to the art of the ancient Greeks (at 1 hour, 20 minutes to 1 hour, 24 min.)? What about Raphael (please note that what we see Raphael painting is his famous “School of Athens” in the Vatican Stanze at 1 hour, 31 min.)? Are there rivalries between the various artists? Do we see these artists producing alone (as great geniuses) or are they part of a team? Consider Raphael’s speech about patronage at 1 hour, 45 min. Does he accurately describe the situations of patronage depicted in / referred to in the film? Consider the ways that Julius II and Michelangelo constantly bicker about money.

 

Some more specific questions:

 

  • What was the original design for the Sistine Chapel ceiling, and what is the overall story of the final design? Why does Michelangelo destroy the first version?
  • What is the difference between Bramante’s scaffolding and Michelangelo’s scaffolding?
  • Describe what is (more or less accurately) shown to be the way that frescoes are designed and painted (at 43 minutes and at 1 hour, 9 minutes).
  • Where is Michelangelo considering fleeing to – and to do what – after he destroys the first version of the Sistine frescos?
  • Why does Michelangelo fall from the scaffolding?
  • Why does Julius II order the scaffolding taken down at 1 hour, 40 min.?
  • How does Julius II eventually pay for Michelangelo to finish the Sistine Chapel ceiling (at 1 hour, 55 min.)?

 

Q4. A Man for all Seasons

A Man for all Seasons all thing is available character and all scene describe 

 

Q5. The movie “A Man for All Season” and finish the viewing questions

the movie “A Man for All Season” and finish the viewing questions

Q1. SOC 205 Week 9 Case Study 2 I Pledge Allegiance To The Flag(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

Case Study 2: I Pledge Allegiance to the Flag

Due Week 9 and worth 200 points

Religion and Politics have traditionally been highly debated topics in our society. Recently, the Pledge of Allegiance has added to this debate.

American citizens have generally recited the Pledge of Allegiance at important ceremonies ranging from presidential inaugurations to the beginning of the school day. The pledge has a great deal of sentimental value to many Americans, but also creates a great deal of controversy for others.

Review the Supreme Court case Elk Grove Unified School District v. Newdow, which highlights the debate.

Write a five to eight (5-8) page paper in which you:

  1. Summarize the salient points of the Supreme Court case Elk Grove Unified School District v. Newdow.
  2. Discuss the levels of the court through which the case evolved before it reached the Supreme Court.
  3. Explain the decision of the Supreme Court in this case in brief.
  4. Explain the fundamental impact that the court decision in question has had on American society in general and on ethics in American society in particular. Provide a rationale for the response.
  5. Discuss whether you believe that the recitation of the Pledge of Allegiance is a religious issue or a sign of respect for the United States.
  6. Discuss whether or not you think public schools should be allowed to recite the pledge.
  7. Use at least three (3) quality academic resources. Note:Wikipedia and other Websites do not qualify as academic resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

  • This course requires use of Strayer Writing Standards (SWS). The format is different than other Strayer University courses. Please take a moment to review the SWS documentation for details.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

  • Examine the current ethical issues inherent throughout the criminal and civil justice systems.
  • Describe the dispensation of justice through the criminal and civil justice systems.
  • Use technology and information resources to research issues in the criminal court and the judicial process in America.
  • Write clearly and concisely about the American court system using proper writing mechanics and SWS style conventions.

 

Q2. POLI 330 Week 2 Quiz Latest 2018…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK

Question 1

 

(TCO 6) Aristotle said that extreme democracies, pure oligarchies, or tyrannies can develop from what cause?

 

Communities where some possess much

 

Communities where some have nothing

 

All of the above

 

None of the above

 

Question 2

 

(TCO 6) Hobbes, Locke, and Rousseau would likely agree on which of the following?

 

Individuals join and stay in civil society.

 

Life is nasty and brutish.

 

Power resided with the proletariat.

 

Empirical research is important.

 

Question 3

 

3 / 3 pts

 

(TCO 6) Social contracts, the state of nature, and civil society are phrases that are best associated with _____.

 

the contractualists

 

Marxists

 

behavioralism

 

systems theory

 

Question 4

 

(TCO 6) Karl Marx used the term _____ to refer to everything built on top of the economy.

 

the social contract

 

institutions

 

behavioralism

 

superstructure

 

Question 5

 

(TCO 6) Which statement best supports Marxist theories?

 

The United States provides ample opportunities for all who work hard.

 

Similarities exist between economies in both Europe and the United States.

 

Tax breaks will often create jobs, benefiting the working class.

 

Uneven benefits to corporations with few benefits for workers led to the economic crises in the early 2000s.

 

Question 6

 

(TCO 6) Which of the following best describes classical liberalism and modern conservatism?

 

Classical liberalism is the opposite of modern conservatism.

 

Classical liberalism is similar to modern conservatism.

 

Neither classical liberalism, nor modern conservatism continues to exist.

 

Classical liberalism and modern conservatism were developed by Karl Marx.

 

Chapter 3, page 37

 

Question 7

 

(TCO 6) Thomas Hill Green might agree with which of the following?

 

No one is forced to take a job he or she doesn’t like.

 

Unions are necessary to protect workers against business owners.

 

Taxes should benefit business owners because they allow owners to hire more workers.

 

Markets regulate themselves.

 

Question 8

 

(TCO 6) Where do modern conservatives diverge from Adam Smith?

 

Adam Smith was resolute in his belief that markets produced fair outcomes, whereas modern conservatives are not.

 

Adam Smith believed government could help regulate market, but modern conservatives do not.

 

Modern conservatives believe government can help regulate markets, but Adam Smith did not.

 

Modern conservatives are resolute in their beliefs that markets are fair, but Adam Smith acknowledged that they could be unfair.

 

Question 9

 

(TCO 6) _____ prefer virtually no government involvement in anything.

 

Liberals

 

Conservatives

 

Marxists

 

Libertarians

 

Question 10

 

(TCO 6) _____ is an extreme form of nationalism.

 

Liberalism

 

Conservatism

 

Socialism

 

Fascism

 

Q3. PAD 515 Assignment 1 Theories Of Leadership(USE AS A GUIDE)

Assignment 1: Theories of Leadership
Due Week 4 and worth 150 points

For all assignments, assume that the City Manager has hired you as the Chief of Staff for your local government. The City Manager has tasked you with developing and implementing the government’s new million dollar grant funded Public Leadership Academy. The mission of the Public Leadership Academy is to provide ongoing training and development of the local government’s current and prospective public leaders. This program was developed in an effort to build and sustain world class public leadership that exemplifies exceptional leadership traits and skills, while fostering long-term relationships internal and external stakeholders and constituents. In the upcoming weeks, you will deliver your first presentation to the government’s local councilpersons, in which you address the type of public leadership model(s) that is both needed within the local government for its public leaders and required to fulfil the mission of the Public Leadership Academy.

After careful review and analysis of the steps needed to meet your goal, your first assignment is to revisit the theories and styles of leadership. You will examine the theories and styles that support the role of the public leader.

You may use the Internet and / or Strayer databases to complete any additional research.

Note: You may create and / or make all necessary assumptions needed for the completion of this assignment.

Use the basic outline below to draft your paper. Organize your responses to each question (except Question 4) under the following section headings:

  • Defining The Public Leader (for Question 1)
  • Leadership Theories (for Question 2)
  • Leadership Styles (for Question 3)

Write a four to five (4-5) page paper in which you:

  1. Determine two (2) leadership theories and two (2) leadership styles that support the definition of a public leader. Provide a rationale for your response.
  2. Assess the effectiveness of the two (2) leadership theories from Question 1. Provide two (2) examples for each leadership theory.
  3. Assess the effectiveness of the two (2) leadership styles from Question 1. Provide two (2) examples for each leadership style.
  4. Include at least four (4) peer-reviewed references (no more than five [5] years old) from material outside the textbook. Note: Appropriate peer-reviewed references include scholarly articles and governmental Websites. Wikipedia, other wikis, and any other websites ending in anything other than “.gov” do not qualify as academic resources.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

  • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

  • Evaluate the theories and models of public leadership.
  • Differentiate among the styles of public leadership.
  • Use technology and information resources to research issues in public leadership and conflict resolution.
  • Write clearly and concisely about issues in public leadership and conflict resolution using proper writing mechanics.

 

Q4. Discuss one effect that the two-party system of the USA

Third Party Candidates – Please respond to the following:

  • Discuss one effect that the two-party system of the United States has on the political interests of American citizens. Suggest one reason or strategy used by the two-party system to keep third party candidates from successfully running for president.

 

 

2pgs

 

Q5. SCI 110 Assignment 2 Global Warming Cause And Mitigation(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

SCI 110 Assignment 2 Global Warming Cause and Mitigation(6 pages word paper)

 

Q6. SEJPME Final Exam (Already graded A+)

 

SEJPME Final Exam

1) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially       atomic                        battlefield?    [objective81]              vertical           envelopment beachhead    assault            tentative         landings        fleet dispersion

 

2) Which of the following is the Coast Guard motto? [objective88]
“Semper         Fideles”
“Semper         Paratus”
“Anchors Aweigh”

 

3) The following Reserve Components have both a Federal (Title 10) mission and a State (Title 32) mission, and therefore can be used to enforce State laws. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Air National Guard and Army National Guard
Army Reserve and Army National Guard
Navy Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve
Air Reserve and Air National Guard

4) Which of the following options represent the Statutory Advisors of the National Security Council? [objective63] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Staff to the President, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Director of National
Intelligence
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff and Director of National Intelligence
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and Secretary of Defense
Secretary of the Treasury and Secretary of Homeland Security

 

5) During the early 1990s, what event shifted the focus of the Army’s activities toward the stopping old
rivalries and conflicts? [objective79] [Remediation Accessed :N]
the end of the Cold War
the rise of global terrorism
the breakup of the Soviet Union into smaller states
the collapse of the Warsaw Pact

6) What is the role of the U.S. Armed Forces today? (Select all that apply.) [objective72] [Remediation Accessed :N]
to organize forces
to train forces
to retain forces
to equip forces

7) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [objective58] [Remediation Accessed :N]
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
report the problem to the commanding officer
define the problem
draft an action plan

8) Regardless of when or where employed, the Armed Forces of the United States abide by U.S. values,
the standards for the profession of arms, and _____. [objective96] [Remediation Accessed :N]
uniformed code of military justice
constitutional principles
Geneva convention
military law

9) Which reserve mobilization authority provides the President a means to activate, without a declaration of
national emergency, not more than 200,000 reservists for not more than 365 days to meet the support
requirements of any operational mission? [objective90]
selective mobilization (SM)
SECDEF call-up (SCU)
presidential reserve call-up (PRC)
partial mobilization (PM)

10) There are eight distinct domains within the Total Force Fitness (TFF) Program. This one refers to the
ability to physically accomplish all aspects of the mission while remaining healthy and uninjured.
[objective105]
Environmental Fitness
Behavioral Fitness
Social Fitness
Physical Fitness

11) The term “scuttlebutt” is a Navy word referring to the kitchens of the ship. [objective85]
True
False

12) Ice Operations and Marine Environmental Protection fall under which role of the Coast Guard? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship
maritime safety
maritime security

13) Flexibility in aerospace power allows forces to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far
greater extent than surface forces can. [objective76]
True
False

14) The multinational force commander must resolve or mitigate sovereignty through which of the following? (Select all that apply.) [objective70] [Remediation Accessed :N]
compromise
communication
consensus
coordination

15) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces. [objective91]
Adaptability
Transformation
Predictability
Training

16) Leaders at all levels should be vigilant and consistent in the prevention, identification, and fraud, waste,
and abuse (FWA). [objective102]
False
True

17) Which of the following are among Marine Corps customs, courtesies and traditions? (Select all that apply.) [objective86]
addressing enlisted Marines
Marine Corps birthday ball
hail and farewell
Dining-In and Mess Night

18) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed. [objective75]
True
False

19) Leaders should look for which of the following warning signs that are suggestive of trauma
spectrum disorders? [objective103] [Remediation Accessed :N]
nightmares
all of the answers are correct
memory loss
depression

20) Special Operations Forces are a valuable asset for the joint planner; however, they comprise only a small
part of the total force, a little over _____ percent of the total force. [objective95]
15
2
5
10

21) The non-operational chain of command runs directly from the President to the Secretary of Defense and then to the _____. [objective60]
combatant commanders via the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the Service chiefs
Secretaries of the military departments and then to the combatant commanders
Service chiefs via the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

22) Risk assessment, risk management, and recommending mitigating measures to the commander or
others, are all steps that must be taken in order to properly mitigate risk. [objective100]
False
True

23) The Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower is the application of maritime forces to
support the United States’ Security Strategy. [objective74] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True

24) _____ are operations require independent actions involving a high degree of professionalism, selfdiscipline, flexibility, patience, and tact. [objective101]
Support for civil authorities
Major combat operations
Humanitarian assistance operations
Peacekeeping operations

25) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces in
coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [objective59] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Operational design
Strategic direction
Law of warfare
Joint doctrine

26) Units that support military commanders by working with civil authorities and civilian populations in the commander’s area of operations during peace, contingency operations, and war are known as _____ teams. [objective94]
civil affairs
foreign area officers
special forces
political advisors

27) Who is considered the “Father of the Coast Guard?” [objective83]
Douglas Munro
Ida Lewis
Sumner Kimball
Alexander Hamilton

28) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [objective78] [Remediation Accessed :N]
when directed by the President
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war

29) National Security Agency (NSA) provides the following support: (Select all that apply.)
[objective57] [Remediation Accessed :N]
signals intelligence
timely, relevant, and accurate geospatial intelligence
solutions, products, and services
information systems security

30) Joint _____ prepares individual members and units of the Armed Forces to field a joint force that
integrates service capabilities in order to execute assigned missions. [objective97] [Remediation
Accessed :N]
force   development
force   planning
force training
doctrine

31) Which of the following would be initiated into the “Top 3”? [objective87]
Sgt. Maj.
Master Sgt.
Col.

32) What are the key criticisms of the interagency process? (Select all that apply.) [objective62]
no one is in charge
it can be cumbersome
it is often time-consuming
it is rarely effective

33) The Department of State assigns a ______ to combatant commanders, and increasingly to Join Task Force commanders, to provide foreign policy perspective and to establish linkage with U.S. embassies in the area of responsibility or joint operations area and the Department of State. [objective64] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Chief of Mission (COM)
Political Advisor (POLAD)
Liaison Officer (LNO)
Joint Interagency Coordination Group (JIACG)

34) _____ is the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It includes authoritative direction over all aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the command.
Combatant Command (COCOM)
Administrative Control (ADCON)
Operational Control (OPCON)
Tactical Control (TACON)

35) A group or person is honor-bound to do which of the following upon receiving a limerick at mess? [objective84] [Remediation Accessed :N]
return the embarrassment in kind
refute the remark prior to the close of the dinner hour
ignore it as any self-generated entertainment

36) The Army aids in shaping the international environment through an extensive forward presence in which of the following? [objective73]
Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Balkans, Middle East, Europe, Southwest Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan
Europe, Asia, the Korean Peninsula, and Japan

37) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [objective98]
segregated
ill-prepared
dynamic
predictable

38) Because not every nation will agree with proposed coalition actions, what is an acceptable workarounds to accomplish the mission without offending other nations? [objective71] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Rotating coalition partners through lead roles to promote their own political agendas
Establish a basis for coalition members to easily accept and advocate preferred coalition options
Openly show favoritism towards one nation over another nation
Establish temporary consensus through personal and professional relationships

39) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent
60 percent
30 percent
40 percent

40) Reconnaissance and surveillance actions normally conducted in a clandestine or covert manner to collect or verify information of strategic or operational significance, employing military capabilities not normally found in conventional forces are called _____. These actions acquire information concerning the capabilities, intentions and activities of an enemy. [objective93] [Remediation Accessed :N]
foreign internal defense
strategic reporting
unconventional warfare
special reconnaissance

41) Unlike the military, most U.S. Government agencies and nongovernmental organizations are _____ to create separate staffs at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels, with the result that Joint Task Force personnel interface with individuals who are coordinating their organization’s activities at more than one level. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
not equipped and organized
usually willing, but hesitant
not educated and trained
not eager

42) Joint force commanders must perform an analysis of the adversary, known as a _____, to know what actions will be an effective deterrent. This continuous analytical process is used by joint intelligence organizations to produce intelligence estimates and other intelligence products in support of the commander’s decision-making process. [objective67] [Remediation Accessed :N]
joint intelligence preparation of the battlefield
commander’s estimate
joint intelligence preparation of the operational environment
national intelligence estimate

43) Which technological advancements turned the tide on the U-boats? (Select all that apply.) [objective80]
escort carriers
anti-submarine weapons
direction-finding equipment
long-range reconnaissance planes
destroyers equipped with advanced sonars

44) Successful teamwork requires _____ commensurate with responsibility. [objective99]
[Remediation Accessed :N]
delegation of authority
experience
maturity
rank

45) The complexity and challenges associated with planning for and executing an operation includes: (Select all that apply). [objective66] [Remediation Accessed :N]
interagency
intergovernmental
multinational partners
military

46) The DoD Reorganization Act of 1958 _____. [objective56] [Remediation Accessed :N]
eliminated the position of Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
separated the Unified/Specified Commands from the Military Departments
placed the Services directly under the President
combined the Unified/Specified Commands during times of war

47) Resilience-based training contributes to the overall mission readiness of the Armed Forces.
[objective104]
True
False

48) Which of the following represent highlights of Air Force history? [objective82]
design of a doctrine of strategic bombing and one of organizational independence
expansion into space
all of the answers are correct
development of the Strategic Air Command

49) Factors that enhance interoperability are _____. [objective69] [Remediation Accessed :N]
varying levels of experience among coalition partners
conflicting personalities
a command atmosphere that permits positive criticism and reward the sharing of information
lack of coalition security teams

50) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to prepare clear, uncomplicated plans and concise orders to ensure thorough understanding. [objective68] [Remediation Accessed :N]
security
simplicity
clarity
objective

 

Post Test
1) The end strength of the U.S. Coast Guard Reserve is _____ percent of the total Coast
Guard. [objective92] [Remediation Accessed :N]
10
20
50
30

2) The National Security Council comprises of which three levels of formal interagency
committees for coordination and making decision on national security issues? [objective63]
principals, deputies, and interagency policy
principals, deputies, and interagency working group
executive, deputies, and interagency coordination
strategic, operational, and tactical

3) By the time of the Mexican-American War, U.S. soldiers were technologically equivalent to those
of Europe due to advances in_____. [objective79]
standardization of the potency of field artillery
mobility, flexibility, and potency of field artillery
training and standardization

4) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation. [objective72]
False
True

5) Which of the following are keys to success in joint assignments? (Select all that apply.)
[objective58]
Knowing how to solve problems
Checking the work of members from other Services
Knowing the people around you
Having competence in your area of the Service

6) The term _____ refers to the aggregate of features and traits that form the individual nature of a person. In the context of the profession of arms, it entails moral and ethical adherence to our
values. It is at the heart of the relationship of the profession with the American people, and to each other. [objective96]
leadership
competence
character
justice

7) The abilities of the Coast Guard to operate in severe weather conditions, 24 hours a day,
year round, are called? [objective77] [Remediation Accessed :N]
Search and Rescue missions
Marine Safety missions
Defense Readiness missions
Deepwater missions

8) Factors affecting military capabilities of nations include _____. [objective70]
the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
leader development and national interests
nongovernmental organizations (NGOs)
religion and culture

9) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly
and ethically. [objective103]
False
True

10) These capabilities comprise the core of U.S. maritime power and reflect an increase in
emphasis on those activities that prevent war and build partnerships: [objective74]
forward presence, deterrence, sea control, power projection, maritime security, humanitarian assistance and disaster response (HA/DR)
readiness, preparedness, technical prowess, and training
peacekeeping and contingency operations
forward presence, deterrence, sea control

11) The _____ is the primary vehicle through which the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
(CJCS) exercises responsibility to provide for the preparation of joint operation plans. It provides
guidance and direction from the CJCS to the combatant commanders and the Service chiefs for
preparation of contingency plans. [objective59]
Unified Command Plan
Guidance for Employment of the Force
National Military Strategy
Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan

12) Upon a declaration of war the Coast Guard may be transferred to and operate as a service of
the U.S. Navy? [objective78]
True
False

13) Which branch of the armed forces operates within the Department of Homeland Security?
[objective57]
Navy
Army
Coast Guard
Air Force
Marines
None of the branches

14) U.S. Law, Title 10, USC Section 153, gives the _____ authority regarding joint force
development, specifically providing authority to develop doctrine for the joint employment of the Armed Forces, and to formulate policies for the joint training of the Armed Forces to include policies for the military education and training of members of the Armed Forces. [objective97]
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
Secretary of Defense
Service Chiefs
Joint Chiefs of Staff

15) The ______ is an interagency staff group that establishes or enhances regular, timely, and
collaborative working relationships between other government agency (e.g., CIA, DOS, FBI)
representatives and military operational planners at the combatant commands. [objective64]
JIACG
HAST
CMOC
POLAD

16) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell. [objective84]
True
False

17) _____ and _____ are two key structural enhancements that should improve the coordination of multinational forces. [objective71]
Liaison network, coordination centers
Rationalization, training
Interoperability, liaison network
Training, interoperability

18) There are a total of how many Reserve Components in the Armed Forces of the United
States? [objective89] [Remediation Accessed :N]
6
5
8
7

19) Special operations forces are organized under the _____, a functional unified command
responsible for providing mission capable special operations forces to the geographic combatant
commanders. [objective93]
United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM)
United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM)
United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)
United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM)

20) Nongovernmental organizations are usually willing to quickly align themselves with
intervening military forces in order to ensure their ability to achieve their objectives and for
their physical security. [objective65] [Remediation Accessed :N]
False
True

21) Operations designed to demonstrate U.S. resolve and involve the appearance of a credible
military force in an attempt to defuse a situation that, if allowed to continue, may be detrimental to U.S. interests are known as _____ operations. [objective67]
enforcement
nation assistance
economy of force
show of force

22) The foremost value of joint force leaders is _____. [objective99]
physical courage
integrity
experience
competence

23) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on their
third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges. [objective66]
rotation
transition
situational awareness
influence

24) Under the U.S. Constitution, the Congress has the power to _____. [objective56]
provide tanks and other equipment of war for Canada and Mexico
declare war, support allied armies, and provide ships for allied navies
close the U.S. borders
declare war, raise and support Armies, provide and support a Navy, make rules for the
government and regulation of the land and naval forces

25) Security cooperation activities include _____. [objective69]
foreign military training
individual training exercises
domestic community support
restricted navigational exercises

26) The purpose of the _____ principle of joint operations is to concentrate the effects of combat
power at the most advantageous place and time to produce decisive results. [objective68]
offensive
mass
objective
maneuver

 

Pre Test (contains 50 Questions)

1) The cornerstone of ARSOAC, the _____, is organized into four like battalions and
provides nighttime, all-weather, medium range insertion, extraction, and resupply
capability in hostile or denied areas. [Remediation Accessed :N]
106th Special Operations Helicopter Regiment
101st Airborne Division (Air Assault)
160th Special Operations Aviation Regiment

3rd Combat Aviation Brigade

2) To accomplish U.S. objectives, the national security strategy guides the coordination of
the instruments of national power which include _____. (Select all that apply.)
[Remediation Accessed :N]
information

economics

diplomacy

the military

3) Today, the U.S. and its partners find themselves in an era in which they are unlikely to be fully at
war or fully at peace.
False
True

4) The _____ is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by the Secretary of
Defense, a combatant commander, a subordinate unified commander, or an existing Joint
Task Force commander to accomplish missions with specific, limited objectives and which do
not require overall centralized control of logistics. It is dissolved when the purpose for which
it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer required. [Remediation Accessed :N]
Service component command
combatant command
joint task force

subordinate unified command

5) Within joint command organizations, leadership and ethics considerations require us to _____ and consider not only personal experiences, but also the lessons learned from others’ experiences- both positive and negative.
critically think about

acknowledge our own prejudice
seek out professional assistance
know all of the facts

6) Special operations involve the use of small units of specially trained personnel using
specialized tactics and equipment to achieve _____ objectives. [Remediation Accessed :N]
tactical
insignificant
strategic or operational

intermediate

7) What are the peacetime roles of the Coast Guard? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation
Accessed :N]
maritime stewardship around the U.S. and U.S. territories
maritime stewardship around the globe

maritime safety

maritime security

8) During the 1930s, which essential building blocks for an effective air force fell into place?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
a comprehensive doctrine of air warfare

a vision of a long-range, four-engine bomber that became reality with the first B-17

clear tactics, techniques, and organization for air-ground cooperation

9) The statutory members of the National Security Council are _____. [Remediation
Accessed :N]
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of State
President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Homeland Security
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Treasury
President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of Energy

10) Key considerations involved in planning and conducting multinational operations are affected
by _____.
motives and values of the organization’s members

media influence
non-military organizations
financial resource constraints

11) The Coast Guard was officially created in 1915 when which two services were combined?
(Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
Steamboat Inspection Service
Revenue Cutter Service
Life-Saving Service

Bureau of Navigation

12) Leaders at all levels must understand, establish, and support a Total Force Fitness program
within their organizations.
True
False

13) Under what circumstances may the Coast Guard be transferred to and operate as a
service of the Navy? (Select all that apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
when ordered by the Secretary of Defense
upon a declaration of war

when directed by the President

14) Through which of the following strategies has the Navy adopted, which advanced the concept
of combat operations in littoral waters?
“From the Sea” and later “Forward from the Sea”

Sea power concept
U.S. Containment Policy

15) Deliberations involving the possible use of force must include the Reserve Component at what
point in the planning process?
late in the planning process
after all of the planning is completed
somewhere – early, mid, or later – as long as they are included
early in the planning process

16) Simultaneous and parallel operations are the most effective use of aerospace power in
producing which of the following?
shock, confusion, and paralysis within the adversary’s system

initiative, situational responsiveness, and tactical flexibility
confusion, situational responsiveness, and paralysis within the adversary’s system

17) Which of the following is a technical or personal risk when using social media?
[Remediation Accessed :N]
espionage
all of the answers are correct

network security intrusions
personal identity theft and impersonation
none of the choices are correct

18) With over half of its forces in the Reserve Components, the Army relies heavily on _____.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
the Army National Guard
the Army Reserve
none of the answers are correct
both the Army National Guard and Army Reserve

19) Reserve Components now comprise almost what percent of the Total Force and are an
integral part of the Armed Forces of the United States? [Remediation Accessed :N]
50 percent

60 percent
40 percent
30 percent

20) _____ presents fundamental principles that guide the employment of U.S. military forces
in coordinated and integrated action toward a common objective. It represents what is
taught, believed, and advocated as what is right (i.e., what works best). [Remediation
Accessed :N]
Strategic direction
Operational design
Joint doctrine

Law of warfare

21) Use of joint capabilities in _____ helps shape the operational environment and keeps the
day-to-day tensions between nations and groups below the threshold of armed conflict, while
maintaining U.S. global influence. [Remediation Accessed :N]
strikes and raids
military engagement, security cooperation, and deterrence activities

major combat operations
forcible entry operations

22) In crisis response and limited contingency operations, having an understanding of the
political objective helps to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
prevent the commander from having to explain the plan to the President
avoid actions that may have adverse effects

assure friends and allies and dissuade adversaries
ensure the integration and synchronization of maneuver and interdiction

23) The offering of ceremonial toasts is a traditional Army custom at a formal Dining-In, which
includes passing the wine, “over the water,” an historical reference to King James I, who was
exiled by Oliver Cromwell.
True

False

24) It is imperative that the combatant commander or Joint Task Force commander
coordinate closely with the ______ on military activities in a particular country because,
while not authorized to command military forces, he or she can deny military actions.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Foreign Policy Advisor
National Security Advisor
Ambassador

Secretary of State

25) Which core value does the following tenet represent: Make decisions in the best interest
of the Navy and the nation, without regard to personal consequences? [Remediation
Accessed :N]
honor
commitment
courage

26) Receiving realistic training, understanding the types of situations encountered in war, eating
well, getting enough rest, and having meaningful relationships and friendships are all helpful in
building _____ to the challenges and strains of military service.
resilience

opposition
vulnerability
indifference

27) The _____ is the principal forum to advise the President with respect to the integration of
domestic, foreign, and military policies relating to national security and for coordinating these
policies among various government agencies.
National Security Council
Homeland Security Council
Foreign Affairs Council
National Economic Council

28) Marine Corps forces exploit the Total Force concept, employing combinations of active duty
and reserve Marines to ensure that missions are effectively and efficiently executed.
True
False

29) The first step in solving a problem is to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
report the problem to the commanding officer
gather multiple perspectives on the problem
draft an action plan
define the problem

30) Marines had to develop which method to achieve speed and dispersion on a potentially
atomic battlefield? [Remediation Accessed :N]
fleet dispersion
tentative landings
vertical envelopment

beachhead assault

31) The Joint Task Force (JTF) commander cannot dictate cooperation among other
governmental agencies, intergovernmental organizations, and nongovernmental
organizations. In the absence of a formal command structure, JTFs are required to build
consensus to achieve _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
synchronization
unity of effort

command and control authority
unity of command

32) What is the purpose of sending someone to the Grog Bowl?
as punishment for violating the rules of the mess

as a reward for attendance
recognition for a job well done

33) Recognizing potentially hazardous or negative situations in advance is crucial to being
prepared to prevent them from occurring to begin with. With experience and maturity, the ability to
instinctually recognize signs of potential trouble increases.
True
False

34) To the greatest extent possible coalition members should _____.
consider the ramifications of labeling information about operational areas as intelligence prevent the sharing of relevant intelligence about the situation and adversary
occasionally seek the necessary authorization for foreign disclosure of information
disseminate information freely without a tear line

35) Within the joint environment, cooperation requires team players, and the willingness to
share _____ with all team members. [Remediation Accessed :N]
ideas
credit

effort
workload

36) _____ is key to successful employment, readiness, and use of Reserve Component forces.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Transformation
Training
Adaptability
Predictability

37) A _____ is the principal joint Special Operations Forces organization tasked to meet all
special operations requirements in major operations, campaigns, or a contingency.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
Civil-Military Operations Center (CMOC)
Joint Special Operations Task Force (JSOTF)
Special Operations Joint Task Force (SOJTF)

Theater Special Operations Command (TSOC)

38) The primary function of the Air Force is to provide prompt and sustained offensive and
defensive air operation.
False
True

39) Historically, the practice of keeping pets onboard may have started when cats were brought
onboard to combat the rat population, the practice continued to help keep the crew’s morale high.
False
True
40) Service members with good psychological health contribute to force readiness by being
focused, alert, prepared for new tasks, able to engage in critical thinking, and behave responsibly and ethically.
False
True

41) While it is appropriate and strongly recommended to greet a person by name and grade, if you
are unsure of an enlisted Marine’s name or grade, “Marine” is as appropriate as, “Good morning,
Sir,” in the case of an officer.
False
True
42) What WWII conference established the Joint Chief of Staff? [Remediation Accessed :N]
First Moscow Conference (RIVIERA)
U.S.-British Staff Conference (ABC-1)
First Washington Conference (ARCADIA)

Casablanca Conference (SYMBOL)

43) Army Special Operations missions can include which of the following? (Select all that
apply.) [Remediation Accessed :N]
training of foreign militaries

cyberspace operations
major combat operations

humanitarian assistance

44) The joint force commander has the operational authority and responsibility to tailor forces for
the mission at hand, selecting those that most effectively and efficiently ensure success.
False
True

45) The U.S. Army was originally formed to fight in which war?
World War II

Mexican-American War
World War I
American Civil War

46) The difficulty some units face adapting their mindset to vastly changed conditions on
their third or fourth deployment to the same location is known as _____ challenges.
[Remediation Accessed :N]
transition
rotation

situational awareness
influence

47) When employing local national support, appropriate security measures should be taken
to _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
only validate cross-cultural communications skills of select coalition partners
ensure that contracted linguists do not jeopardize operations through espionage
utilize contracted linguists with general knowledge of some areas but no specific knowledge of
any one location
ensure that contracted linguists promote only U.S. interests

48) In the Chairman’s White Paper, “Mission Command” (2012), the Joint Force of the future
will find themselves operating in a security environment that is _____. [Remediation Accessed :N]
predictable
dynamic

ill-prepared
segregated

49) One of NATO’s goals is to promote democratic values.
False
True

50) The concept of “Jointness” must be advanced through continual joint force development
efforts. What does that statement imply? [Remediation Accessed :N]
Joint force development is a “one time” occurrence in one’s career.
Joint staff leaders do not endorse joint force development.
“Jointness” is not an automatic service state of being.

Service members naturally embrace “Jointness.”

 

Q7. POLI 330 Final Exam (Already graded A+)

POLI 330 Final Exam 

  1. (TCO 1) Which best explains the differences between historians and political scientists? (Points : 2)

Historians look for generalizations, and political scientists are reluctant to generalize.
Historians are reluctant to generalize, and political scientists look for generalizations.
Historians are more likely to look for comparisons than political scientists.
Historians tend to focus on nature-based explanations, and political scientists focus on nurture-based explanations.

 

Question 2. 2. (TCO 1) The notion that politicians think practically and political scientists think abstractly is indicative of which of the following? (Points : 2)

Political scientists often train politicians.
Politicians often train political scientists.
Political scientists and politicians are different in that the former studies the latter.
Political scientists and politicians are often indistinguishable.

 

Question 3. 3. (TCO 1) When people base their views on beliefs that may not be based in reality, they are behaving _____. (Points : 2)

irrationally
rationally
politically
legitimately

 

Question 4. 4. (TCO 1) A political leader’s ability to command respect and exercise power is known as _____. (Points : 2)

sovereignty
corruption
authority
legitimacy

 

Question 5. 5. (TCO 1) Despite a disputed 2000 presidential election, once President George W. Bush took office, few people doubted his _____. (Points : 2)

charisma
control
legitimacy
sovereignty

 

Question 6. 6. (TCO 1) Relating concepts in a way that connects them in an empirical manner is the basis of _____ building. (Points : 2)

scholarship
theory
power
culture

 

Question 7. 7. (TCO 1) A(n) _____ is an initial theory a researcher starts with to be proved with evidence. (Points : 2)

quantification
hypothesis
qualification
empirical

 

Question 8. 8. (TCO 4) Unlike natural law, positive law uses _____. (Points : 2)

the spirit of the law to make determinations
books to reach conclusions
judicial sentencing to determine case outcomes
jury selection to manipulate judgment

 

Question 9. 9. (TCO 4) Under which of the following circumstances might a case be pursued as both a criminal and a civil case? (Points : 2)

The federal government accuses investment houses of wrongdoing and investors who lost money sue them.
Drug traffickers violate property and federal law by moving drugs across state borders.
Burglars violate federal property and the state sues them for damages.
A state accuses banks of mortgage fraud in mortgages sold to investors elsewhere in the nation.

 

Question 10. 10. (TCO 4) Describe the significance of Marbury v. Madison. (Points : 2)

The ruling laid precedent for judicial review.
The ruling stated that the president is subject to the court’s decisions.
The ruling decreed that current administrations must honor the appointments of previous administrations.
The ruling claimed that federal taxes could not be levied on the states.

 

Question 11. 11. (TCO 4) What legal agency in the United States generates reputation-based ratings of prospective federal judges? (Points : 2)

Judicial Ratings Bureau
Federal Bureau of Judicial Review
American Bar Association
Office of Legal Assessment

 

Question 12. 12. (TCO 4) When was judicial review granted to the Supreme Court within the United States? (Points : 2)

It was granted during the Constitution Convention of 1787.
It was granted in the Bill of Rights.
It was the result of the Marbury v. Madison decision of 1803.
It was never officially adopted but is an unofficial practice.
 

 

Question 13. 13. (TCO 4) Which of the following best articulates the stance of judicial restraint advocates? (Points : 2)

Judicial review is the best and only true method of checking legislative power.
The court should practice restraint in cases in which legislative acts are presented for interpretation.
Only the executive branch can restrain the court, keeping the power of judicial review in balance with the other governing branches.
Only Congress should make public policy and, unless a legislative act clearly violates the Constitution, the law should stand.

 

Question 14. 14. (TCO 4) The Supreme Court’s decision in _____ (1954) triggered a revolution in American race relations, an area Congress had been unwilling to touch. (Points : 2)

Miranda v. Arizona
Dred Scott v. Sandford
Brown v. Board of Education
Gibbons v. Ogden

 

Question 15. 15. (TCO 5) Which systems demonstrate the clearest separation of power between the executive and legislative branches? (Points : 2)

Parliamentary
Presidential
Monarchies
Ministerial

 

Question 16. 16. (TCO 5) How often does the cabinet change in a parliamentary system? (Points : 2)

Every 4 years
Every 6 years
Every 8 years
When the cabinet is voted out or resigns

 

Question 17. 17. (TCO 5) Voters receive the most direct representation in which system? (Points : 2)

Parliamentary
Presidential

Electoral
Coalition

 

Question 18. 18. (TCO 5) The head of ministry is equivalent to the _____ in the United States. (Points : 2)

chief of government
head of state
departmental secretary
premier

 

Page 2 – Multiple Choice

  1. (TCO 5) The only political system that could guarantee the cooperation between the legislative and executive branches is _____. (Points : 2)

a monarchy
a dictatorship
a democracy
an oligarchy

 

Question 2. 2. (TCO 5) In the case of both parliamentary and presidential systems, examine the reason democracies will not vanish, even though the executive seems to be receiving more and more power. (Points : 2)

Checks and balances keep the chief executive from gaining too much power.
Chief executives will eventually have to face reelection, which depends greatly on the approval of voting citizens.
Both systems have methods by which to oust chief executives.
Subordinates carry out some of the workload of the chief executive.

 

Question 3. 3. (TCO 5) Explain which type of candidate parliamentary systems seek out to become ministers. (Points : 2)

Those who have experience winning elections and serving on a parliamentary committee
Newcomers who can bring in a fresh perspective to the ministry
Individuals who possess a great knowledge of the specific ministry’s area
Those who have political experience regardless of whether or not they have been elected in the past

 

Question 4. 4. (TCO 7) Radicals use the term political economy instead of _____,”which is a hard sell these days. (Points : 2)

late capitalism
Marxism
pure market system
utilitarianism

 

Question 5. 5. (TCO 7) Early 20th-century European governments subscribed to _____ doctrines, generally keeping their hands away from the economy. (Points : 2)

classic liberal
inflationary
neoclassical
Smithian

 

Question 6. 6. (TCO 7) Between 1965 and 1973, the percentage of Americans living below the poverty line _____. (Points : 2)

doubled
greatly decreased
slightly increased
rapidly increased

 

Question 7. 7. (TCO 7) Which of the following is an increasing financial concern of the Medicare program? (Points : 2)

The proportion of older people in American society is increasing steadily.
Every American citizen on reaching 65 obtains Medicare, regardless of class.
Economic inequality renders Medicare more necessary for some than for others.
Wealthy Americans are taking advantage of the Medicare system.

 

Question 8. 8. (TCO 7) Why are many politicians wary about limiting Social Security and Medicare expenses? (Points : 2)

Many would be left without enough to support them.
Caps to these programs would undermine the welfare state.
It can cost them votes.
Both are primary social safety nets.
 

 

Question 9. 9. (TCO 7) How does the American welfare state compare to those of other industrialized nations? (Points : 2)

Much less is allocated to welfare in the United States.
Other nations allocate less to welfare than the United States.
The United States allocates about the same to welfare.
Few nations besides the United States maintain funds for welfare.

 

Question 10. 10. (TCO 7) Theoretically, what are the consequences if the government assumes the burden of bad loans? (Points : 2)

Citizens will default on their mortgages.
Banks will learn from their mistakes and pay back the burden with interest.
Ultimately, the government will profit.
Firms will be encouraged to continue their risky behavior.

 

Question 11. 11. (TCO 9) _____ is a small or moderate change that essentially leaves the system intact. (Points : 2)

Mass discontent
Reform
Dramatic system change
A coup d’etat

 

Question 12. 12. (TCO 9) Describe what can often happen in a changing society when, during times of prosperity, some people get rich faster than others. (Points : 2)

Jealousy is aroused.
Politicians pay more attention to poverty.
The very poor revolt.
Economists become confused.

 

Question 13. 13. (TCO 9) What is likely to happen if the people are unhappy and there is no organization to focus their discontent? (Points : 2)

They will almost surely turn to violence.
Not much will happen.
The people will organize themselves, regardless.
They will eventually find other means of achieving contentedness.

 

Question 14. 14. (TCO 9) What about U.S. agencies such as the Department of Homeland Security, the FBI, and the CIA make them so ill prepared to fight terrorism? (Points : 2)

They have extremely different missions when it comes to terrorism.
They are poorly funded.
They have a great deal of red tape to get through in order to be able to communicate.
They are often unwilling to communicate with each other.

 

Question 15. 15. (TCO 9) According to Hannah Arendt, the American struggle was indeed a revolution, perhaps history’s only complete revolution, _____. (Points : 2)

because it alone ended with democratic institutions.
because it became an example for other nations.
because it managed to route what was then the great world power.
because it alone ended with a new foundation of liberty instead of the tyranny that came after other revolutions.

 

Question 16. 16. (TCO 9) Does terrorism work? (Points : 2)

Rarely, and seldom without political and/or economic pressure
Rarely, but primarily when brought against democratic nations
Often, and without much need for political pressure to aid it
Often, but only with the assistance of economic and/or political pressure

 

Question 17. 17. (TCO 9) Hannah Arendt pointed out that rage is the fuel of revolution, but what is now the greatest cause of rage? (Points : 2)

The low level of education in developing nations
The enormous economic mismanagement in industrialized nations
The extreme violence utilized by industrialized nations against developing nations
The massive corruption now found in developing lands

 

 Page 3 – Essay

 

  1.  Evaluate Aristotle’s six types of government. In doing so, please be sure to list and define the categorizations. Please then assess how these classifications can be useful today to someone analyzing current governmental structures. (Points : 40)
  2. Explain the relationship between electoral systems and party systems. Answers should be sure to assess this question from the perspective of both proportional representation and single-member districts and provide examples to support your points. (Points : 40)
  3. The United States has utilized multiple forms of liberalism throughout its history. Please distinguish the specific characteristics of classical and modern liberalism and outline the evolution of these forms of liberalism within the United States. Please be sure to include specific historic examples to support your points. (Points : 40)
  4. Today’s world seems to be moving beyond sovereignty and toward supranational leadership to cooperate on issues of global importance. What are some of these issues? How might they be solved through supranational cooperation? Does such cooperation impede the sovereignty of independent nations? Please sure to include specific examples in supporting your points. (Points : 40)

 

 

 

Q8. POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elec

POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elections Multimedia

POL 115 Week 5 Political Parties, Political Participation, Campaigns and Elections Multimedia Presentation

Create a multimedia presentation of 10 to 12 content slides on political parties, political participation, and the American campaign and election process.  Address the following in your multimedia presentation:

  • Describe the purpose and functions of political parties in the United States and the various ways American citizens can participate in the campaign and election process.
  • What are the function and purpose of caucuses and primary elections in political campaigns, particularly in the presidential election process?
  • What role do national political party conventions play in the presidential election process?
  • Describe the presidential general election campaign and the important factors and events that influence it.
  • What role does the media (TV, radio, the Internet) play in modern political campaigns?
  • What is the role and influence of money in the modern political campaign?

 

Include photos, illustrations, videos, or audio clips, as appropriate. Document the source of each media item you include in your presentation.

Note: A content slide does not include the presentation’s title slide and any slide(s) containing references.

Format your references consistent with APA guidelines. Include any citations in the speaker notes.

Submit your presentation using the Assignment Files tab

  • For Local Campus students, be prepared to deliver in-class a 10- to 12-minute oral presentation accompanied by your slides or multimedia enhancements.
  • For Online Campus students, provide detailed speaker notes for each content slide in the presentation file or in a separate Word document.

 

Q9. POL 115 Week 5 Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet

POL 115 Week 5 Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet

Complete the University of Phoenix Material: Electoral College Simulation Exercise Worksheet.

Submit your assignment using the Assignment Files tab.

Electoral College Simulation Exercise

Please review the following chart which contains the Electoral College votes assigned to each state and the District of Columbia, and the popular vote results for each state and the District of Columbia in a simulated American presidential election.  Based on information contained in the chart determine the following

  1. The total popular vote won by Candidate A and Candidate B in the election
  2. Which presidential candidate, A or B, won the Electoral College vote for each state and the District of Columbia, and how many total Electoral College votes did Candidate A and Candidate B receive?. Assume for this simulation that all 50 states and the District of Columbia award their Electoral College votes on a “winner-take-all” basis

Name of StateNumber of Electoral College Votes assigned to statePopular vote for Candidate A cast in the statePopular Vote for Candidate B cast in the stateWhich Candidate, A or B, won the state’s Electoral College vote?

Alabama91,159,245749,948

Alaska3195,227112,878

Arizona111,089,449975,674

Arkansas6554,724478,912

California555,976,0486,350,244

Colorado91,076,1241,055,465

Connecticut7714,368824,202

Delaware3184,348190,229

District of Columbia390,108125,978

Florida294,129,9973,784,259

Georgia161,740,7761,508,254

Hawaii4200,454224,728

Idaho4376,989245,774

Illinois202,529,4272,615,226

Indiana111,257,0701,148,334

Iowa6740,291752,882

Kansas6645,822512,678

Kentucky8997,244878,421

Louisiana81,002,124924,855

Maine4332,427368,399

Maryland101,029,2781,257,722

Massachusetts111,284,5891,596,331

Michigan162,414,7772,391,872

Minnesota101,346,6761,431,624

Mississippi6649,442502,292

Missouri101,245,9781,440,356

Montana3259,129174,434

Nebraska5499,927276,321

Nevada6398,727412,012

New Hampshire4340,492332,638

New Jersey141,792,4421,874,209

New Mexico5369,284370,544

New York293,688,4213,828,477

North Carolina151,745,2281,628,476

North Dakota3197,245110,289

Ohio182,829,6872,777,421

Oklahoma7845,779624,552

Oregon7901,244904,100

Pennsylvania202,797,4942,840,542

Rhode Island4200,440210,402

South Carolina9850,050714,846

South Dakota3230,727154,786

Tennessee111,242,7971,096,385

Texas383,789,4593,598,334

Utah6500,450401,290

Vermont3122,774182,104

Virginia131,547,9941,607,747

Washington121,390,2241,420,462

West Virginia5364,449367,429

Wisconsin101,492,4211,477,202

Wyoming3130,757100,527

 

 

 

Total Number of Electoral College Votes won by Candidate A: _________

 

Total Number of Electoral College Votes won by Candidate B: _________

 

Total Popular Votes won by Candidate A: _________________________

 

Total Popular Votes won by Candidate B: _________________________

 

 

Q10. Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

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Click the link above to submit your assignment.

Students, please view the “Submit a Clickable Rubric Assignment” in the Student Center.
Instructors, training on how to grade is within the Instructor Center.

Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

Research, review and analyze Korb v. Raytheon, 707 F.Supp. 63 (D.Mass. 1989). Based on your research and the case, write a 5-6 page paper in which you:

  1. Analyze and evaluate each case independently by providing the following (about two paragraphs per case):
  • Facts of the case
  • Issues
  • Rule
  1. Analyze and explain the challenges with freedom of speech.
  2. Analyze and explain any challenges with freedom of information.
  3. Analyze and explain any challenges with employment law.
  4. Analyze and discuss the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.
  5. Analyze and discuss any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.
  6. Provide at least four (4) additional court cases that support your analysis.

Your assignment must:

  • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required page length.

The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

  • Recommend how the legal system addresses critical issues faced by public officials to include freedom of the press, funding of government contracts, separation of church and state, public ethics law, hiring lawyers, and handling civil litigation.
  • Evaluate legal subjects relevant to public administration to include property, government contracts, employment, and torts.
  • Relate the administrative process, constitutional and statutory requirements, to the scope of judicial review of administrative agency decisions.
  • Assess legal decisions related to the administration of public goods.
  • Use technology and information resources to research issues in constitution and administrative law.
  • Write clearly and concisely about issues in constitution and administrative law using proper writing mechanics.

Grading for this assignment will be based on answer quality, logic/organization of the paper, and language and writing skills, using the following rubric found here.

 

Rubric:

Name: PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

Description: PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

 

  • Grid View
  • List View

 

Unacceptable Below 70% F

Fair 70-79% C

Proficient 80-89% B

Exemplary 90-100% A

PAD525-A3-1
1. Analyze and evaluate case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and evaluated case 1, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

PAD525-A3-2
2. Analyze and evaluate case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and evaluated case 2, including the facts of the case, issues, and rule.

PAD525-A3-3
3. Analyze and explain the challenges with freedom of speech. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and explained the challenges with freedom of speech.

PAD525-A3-4
4. Analyze and explain any challenges with freedom of information. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and explained any challenges with freedom of information.

PAD525-A3-5
5. Analyze and explain any challenges with employment law. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and explained any challenges with employment law.

PAD525-A3-6
6. Analyze and discuss the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense. Weight: 13%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 33.63 (9.09%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.

Points Range:33.67 (9.1%) – 38.44 (10.39%)

Partially analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.

Points Range:38.48 (10.4%) – 43.25 (11.69%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.

Points Range:43.29 (11.7%) – 48.1 (13%)

Thoroughly analyzed and discussed the public perceptions of Raytheon and its influence with the Department of Defense.

PAD525-A3-7
7. Analyze and discuss any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case. Weight: 12%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 31.04 (8.39%)

Did not submit or incompletely analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.

Points Range:31.08 (8.4%) – 35.48 (9.59%)

Partially analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.

Points Range:35.52 (9.6%) – 39.92 (10.79%)

Satisfactorily analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.

Points Range:39.96 (10.8%) – 44.4 (12%)

Thoroughly analyzed and discussed any fraud or misrepresentation on either side of the case.

PAD525-A3-8
8. Clarity and writing mechanics Weight: 10%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 25.86 (6.99%)

More than 6 errors present

Points Range:25.9 (7%) – 29.56 (7.99%)

5-6 errors present

Points Range:29.6 (8%) – 33.26 (8.99%)

3-4 errors present

Points Range:33.3 (9%) – 37 (10%)

0-2 errors present

PAD525-A3-9
9. Research and cite at least four (4) court cases that support the analysis. Weight: 5%

Points Range:0 (0%) – 12.91 (3.49%)

Researched and cited no court cases that support the analysis.

Points Range:12.95 (3.5%) – 14.76 (3.99%)

Researched and cited one or two (1 or 2) court cases that support the analysis.

Points Range:14.8 (4%) – 16.61 (4.49%)

Researched and cited three (3) court cases that support the analysis.

Points Range:16.65 (4.5%) – 18.5 (5%)

Researched and cited at least four (4) court cases that support the analysis.

Name:PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

Description:PAD525 Week 7 Assignment 3: Constitutional Rights

 

LAW

 

Q1. Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 3

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 3

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 3

Q2. Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 4

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 4

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 4

 

 

Q3. Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 2

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 2

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 2

 

 

Q4. Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 1

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 1

Liberty University CJUS 330 Test 1

 

Q5. Lexis Uni Supreme Court Research Search

Lexis Uni Supreme Court Research Search
Sign in to the Lexis Uni website and navigate to the Criminal Justice Home page. Under “Recent Supreme Court Decisions”, click on “View all Supreme Court Decisions for Criminal Justice”. Then, narrow your search by “violent crimes”
Locate two U.S. Supreme Court cases that discuss various types of criminal defenses.
Write a 700- to 1,050-word case analysis in which you identify and examine the types of criminal defenses that were used. Include the following:
Explain the nature and types of defenses used in the cases. What evidence was used to demonstrate the defense?
Explain the similarities and differences between justification and excuse. Describe how justification and excuse play a role in the cases.
Describe the outcome of each case.
Format your case analysis consistent with APA guidelines.

 

Q6. The significant role of agencies in the budget process in 813 words with APA Style

Question: Agencies implement policy through various methods. Either they enforce laws and regulations, manage programs or manage and/or disburse public funds. What roles do agencies in your state play in the budget process?

 

Q7. The significant roles that agency play in rulemaking in 553 words APA

Question: “Rulemaking is probably the most important political activity of bureaucracy. In fact, it is a large lawmaking operation that citizens do not even know exists.” (Smith, 2008) What specific roles do agencies play in your state in the rulemaking process? Hint: Research your state’s own administrative procedures act.

 

Q8. CJS 241 Week 3 Individual Assignment Police Personnel and the Community Paper(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

Write a 1,050- to 1,400-word paper in which you address the following:  •  How do police agencies at the local, state, and federal level recruit, hire, and train employees?

?

  • How can agencies ensure they are promoting diversity by hiring women and minorities?
  • How significant is stress in police training? Why should it be included in training programs?
  • How does proper recruitment and selection assist with implementation of community policing by local agencies?
  • Include a summary of the discussion on the improper hiring practices article located by your collaborative group.
  • A minimum of three (3) references are required Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines. Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your assignment.

 

Q9. CPSS 210 Week 3 Correctional Support Staff Response Paper

Assume the role of correctional support staff dedicated to assisting prisoners with reaching personal goals for probation and inclusion into society. A university counseling professor has asked you to speak to her class about your experiences. To prepare for the visit, she has sent you the questions that the students will ask you.

Write a 750- to 1,050-word response paper in which you answer the following questions:

Describe the different types of cultures and subcultures you might face in prison.
Does the prison cultural influence the prison management culture?
Does the prison culture influence the way you determine treatment in prison?
How are mental health programs delivered in prison?
In your opinion, does prison help prepare prisoners to become law-abiding citizens?
List each question and your response to the question. Your paper’s format does not need to be consistent with APA guidelines.

 

Q10. LAW 531 Final Exam…GUARANTEED A+ ANSWERS! GOOD LUCK

1) Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of a common law legal system?

  1. Requiring guilt be proven beyond a reasonable doubt
  2. The sole source of law is a comprehensive civil code
  3. An appeal process
  4. The making of law by the judges and the following of precedent

2) Which best describes the types of agency authority held by officers of a corporation?

  1. Vicarious authority
  2. Express and obvious authority
  3. Implied and apparent authority only
  4. Express, implied, and apparent authority

3) If an LLC fails to follow formalities such as keeping minutes of meetings, which of the following is true?

  1. Only the managers of a manager-managed LLC will lose limited liability.
  2. All members will lose their limited liability.
  3. This failure will not result in imposing personal liability on any member.
  4. Only the parties responsible for the failure will lose limited liability.

4) Martha started a flower shop as a sole proprietor. After 1 year, she was forced to close the shop because business was so bad. At that time, the business assets totaled $50,000, but the business liabilities totaled $125,000. Which of the following statements is true?

  1. Martha is personally liable for the additional $75,000.
  2. Martha’s business creditors can collect only the $50,000 of business assets.
  3. Martha’s business creditors can collect only the $50,000 now, but if Martha ever goes into business again, they can get the assets of the new business.
  4. Once Martha terminates the sole proprietorship; the business creditors cannot even get the $50,000

5) Partners of a general partnership

  1. Are protected from litigation against the partnership by statute
  2. Are liable for the obligations of the partnership only to the extent of their capital contributions
  3. Do not have to pay taxes on the profits of the partnership that are distributed to them
  4. Are liable for all the obligations of their partnership

6) Which of the following forms of alternative dispute resolution allows both parties to see the strengths and weaknesses of both sides of the case through the presentation of evidence?

  1. Negotiated settlement
  2. Mini-trial
  3. Mediation
  4. Conciliation

7) A ___________ is a court-appointed party who conducts a private trial and renders a judgment

  1. Fact-finder
  2. Arbitrator
  3. Judicial referee
  4. Negotiator

8) What is a form of alternative dispute resolution that is often used when the parties involved do not want to face one another?

  1. Arbitration
  2. Fact-finding
  3. Mini-trial
  4. Conciliation

9) Which of the following is true regarding mediation?

  1. A mediator often meets with both parties at the same time
  2. A settlement agreement is never reached with a mediator.
  3. A mediator does not make a decision or award
  4. If a settlement agreement is not reached in mediation, then the parties hire a new mediator

10) There are no accountants on the board of the Oriole Corporation, a privately held corporation. The board routinely relies on a Certified Public Accountant (CPA) to explain the financial situation of the corporation. Law 531 final exam. The board does not do an independent analysis of the CPA’s report. In these circumstances, the board is

  1. Violating a duty of loyalty
  2. Violating a duty to exercise due care
  3. Violating the business judgment rule
  4. Not violating any duty

11) Self-dealing by a director of a corporation can best be described as

  1. A breach of a director’s duty of notification
  2. A breach of a director’s duty of care
  3. A breach of the Business Judgment Rule
  4. There was no breach of duty

12) Which of the following is likely to be a breach of a corporate officer or director’s duty of care?

  1. Failing to anticipate a precipitous drop in consumer demand of the company’s product
  2. Failing to make a reasonable investigation of relevant facts
  3. Failing to predict the unexpected startup of a new competitor
  4. Failing to foresee a sudden rise in the interest rate

13) In what ways may officers and directors be protected by the corporation from liability for actions taken as an officer or director?

  1. The officer or director must purchase personal liability insurance to cover such losses.
  2. Have the corporation purchase liability insurance and indemnify the officers and directors
  3. Officers and directors cannot be protected from liability
  4. Officers and directors are automatically protected from liability by virtue of corporate

14) If a plaintiff voluntarily participates in a risky activity that results in injury, what is the most likely defense to a claim that the plaintiff assumed the risk?

  1. Contributory negligence
  2. Defendant was negligent per se
  3. Defendant assumed the risk under the “danger invites rescue” doctrine
  4. Comparative negligence

15) Mark is the treasurer of Sky-Hi Tech Corporation and, as such, he is responsible for protecting the assets of the corporation. One of Mark’s subordinates, Jill, is in charge of reconciling the monthly corporate bank statements. Law/531 week 5 final. Over a period of several months, Jill embezzled a large amount of money from Sky-Hi Tech, covering up the theft using her bank reconciliations. If Mark had adequately supervised Jill, she could not have embezzled this money. Mark’s actions (or inactions) constitute a breach of his duty of

  1. Due care
  2. Obedience
  3. Loyalty
  4. Good business judgment

16) Barry buys a new sports car. The car sits low to the ground and because of the styling; visibility to the rear is limited. About a month after Barry buys the car, he backs over his pet poodle as he is leaving for work. In his strict liability suit against the car manufacturer, Barry will

  1. Win because driving a sports car is an inherently dangerous activity
  2. Win on the basis of design defect
  3. Win on the basis of packaging defect because the car could have been packaged in a differently styled body
  4. Lose because he assumed the risk of backing up in a car when he could not see to the rear

17) If a judge rules that a party lost its case because of the Statute of Frauds, the judge has essentially stated which of the following?

  1. The losing party purposely deceived the other party about a material fact.
  2. The losing party will not be allowed to introduce evidence to contradict a written agreement
  3. The losing party cannot enforce an oral contract that should have been in writing
  4. The losing party was found by the court to have lied, and therefore will lose the case

18) What does the parole evidence rule do?

  1. It limits the ability of parties to written contracts from introducing certain evidence related to the contract.
  2. It sets the rules for admissibility of evidence relating to releasing a criminal from a prison term
  3. It sets the general rules for the admissibility of evidence in criminal actions
  4. It determines which contracts are required to be in writing

19) ABC LLC and XYZ Corp. entered into a contract whereby ABC is to supply XYZ with widgets. After receiving the first shipment of widgets, XYZ finds that the widgets, while meeting the physical standards specified in the contract, do not perform as XYZ anticipated. The contract is silent as to performance specifications, but XYZ suspects that ABC knew that it was manufacturing and supplying widgets that would not perform according to industry standard. XYZ initiates a lawsuit against ABC, alleging that ABC knowingly supplied defective widgets. What process will XYZ use to help it develop its case against ABC?

  1. Pleadings
  2. Motion for summary judgment
  3. Discovery
  4. Trial

20) Under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA), an employee’s benefits must vest

  1. Within 10 years
  2. By the time of the employee’s retirement
  3. In total within 5 years or gradually within 7 years
  4. Only as provided in the pension plan

21) Which of the following statutes provides that it is legal for employees to organize a union?

  1. The Norris-LaGuardia Act
  2. The National Labor Relations Act
  3. The Labor-Management Relations Act
  4. The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act

22) William was a factory worker at the Spruce Industries plant. When management found out that William is gay, he was fired. The plant’s action is

  1. Not prohibited under federal law
  2. A violation of Title VII
  3. A violation of the Equal Pay Act
  4. A violation of the Americans with Disabilities Act

23) Janet is manager of a bank. She has all the qualifications to be promoted to bank manager. In fact, she is better qualified than any of the men being considered for the position. However, the owner of the bank believes that bank customers will LAW/531 not accept a woman as bank manager, so the owner promotes one of the males. The owner’s actions would best be described as what?

  1. Quid pro quo
  2. Hostile work environment
  3. Gender discrimination
  4. Pregnancy discrimination

24) Which one of the following statutes allows a prevailing party to recover attorney’s fees in an action against the government for an action of an agency?

  1. The Freedom of Information Act
  2. The Government Compensation Act
  3. The Administrative Procedure Act
  4. The Equal Access to Justice Act

25) Which of the following would prevent someone from acquiring land by adverse possession?

  1. The person never had to fight the original owner to remain on the land
  2. The person lived on the land secretly so that the original owner would not find out he or she was there
  3. The person lived on the land without the original owner’s permission
  4. The person was the only person who lived on the land in question

26) Which of the following would be classified as tangible personal property, as opposed to other property categories, such as fixtures or intangible property?

  1. A freestanding desk
  2. Built-in cabinets in an office
  3. A copyright to a literary work
  4. A field of corn

27) As the CEO of a high tech company, you become aware that your chief competitor is working on a new computer program that will revolutionize your industry. You know that if you can find out several key functions about the new product, LAW/531 final exams your own programmers will be able to duplicate the function of the program without actually copying its code. Which of the following actions can you ethically take?

  1. Paying the garbage company to deliver the competitor’s garbage to you
  2. Hiring a former employee of the competitor and paying her a bonus to tell you the competitor’s secrets
  3. Hiring a researcher to review all available information about the competitor, including patents, types and names of employees hired, reports by the competitor, including all SEC filings
  4. Hacking into the competitor’s computer systems to find out what you need

28) From a practical perspective, what are some of the elements of Sarbanes-Oxley?

  1. Ensuring transparency, accountability and internal controls
  2. Ensuring companies are profitable
  3. Ensuring that CEOs do not make more than 10 times the lowest paid employee
  4. Ensuring that large shareholders do not have board representation

29) Under Title IX of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, the penalty for someone who certifies “any statements as set forth in subsections (a) and (b) of this section knowing that the periodic report accompanying the statement does not comport . . .” is. Law 531 final exam answer

  1. No more than $1,000,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 10 years, or both
  2. No more than $500,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 6 months, or both
  3. No more than $2,000,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 3 years, or both
  4. No more than $5,000,000.00 or imprisoned no more than 20 years, or both

30) Which is prohibited under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?

  1. High salaries for corporate executives
  2. Using an independent accounting firm for audit purposes
  3. Public companies making personal loans to their directors and executives
  4. Directors and executives attending board meetings on a regular basis

ANTHROPOLOGY.

 

Q1. ACBS 160D section 1: Should Animals Be Used For The Sport(S) In Rodeo. Graded A

 

ACBS 160D section 1:Should Animals Be Used For The Sport(S) In Rodeo. Graded A

 

ACBS 160D: Human and Animal Interrelationships

 

Term Paper Topics

 

Select one of these questions to answer:

  1. Should animals be used in medical research (e.g., research on cancer)?
  2. Should animals be kept in factory farms for human consumption?
  3. Should it matter how animals are housed and treated if they are going to be killed for consumption later? (e.g., Should it matter how animals are treated in slaughterhouses before they are killed for consumption? Should it matter how chickens or pigs are kept in factory farms if they are going to be killed for meat? )
  4. Should wildlife protection have a higher priority than commercial interests (e.g., Should the pygmy owl have a higher priority than the development of housing and businesses around Tucson?  Should wildlife be protected and hinder logging or oil pipelines?)
  5. Should animals be kept for human food consumption (i.e., should humans eat other animals)?
  6. Should animals be kept in zoos or aquaria?
  7. Should animals be used in circuses?
  8. Should horses be used for the sport of racing?
  9. Should animals be used for the sport(s) in rodeo (e.g., bull riding, bronc riding, calf roping)?
  10. Should animals be hunted (e.g., commercial big game hunting, state license hunting)?
  11. Should animals be used in modern warfare?
  12. Should children/adolescents raise animals for slaughter in youth programs such as 4H or FFA? (Is this desensitization or education?)
  13. Should elderly care facilities be requiredto allow the residents to keep pets?
  14. Should animals be used in religion?

 

 

Think of all the possible perspectives that might answer the question in different ways. Put yourself in their shoes of different people and answer the topic question. Examples of different perspectives:

 

o    Animal welfare proponents

o    Animal rights advocates

o    Food security proponents

o    Ethicists, philosophers

o    National and local economic / employment interests

o    Educators

o    Medical researchers

o    Parents

o    Small business owners

o    Family ranchers or farmers

o    Large-scale agriculturalists /factory farmers

o    Wildlife managers

o    Conservationists

 

EXAMPLE:

 

The question I selected is:

 

  1. Should animals be used in medical research (e.g., research on cancer)? 

 

My Thesis statement might be:

 

In this paper I will present alternative position on the topic of animal use for medical research, considering a variety of perspectives, and concluding with a position on animal testing that seems most justifiable.

 

The body of my paper would include these sections:

 

PRO: PERSPECTIVES IN FAVOR:

Yes- animals should be used in medical research

(Include at least 1 of these perspectives)

  • Some Medical researches hold this perspective because …

o   evidence, references

  • Some Parents may also hold this perspective because ….

o   evidence, references

  • Some Animal welfare proponents may also hold this perspective because ….

o   evidence, references

  • Some Ethicists / Philosophers hold this perspective because…

o   evidence, references

 

 

CON: PERSPECTIVES AGAINST

No- animals should not be used in medical research

(Include at least 1 of these perspectives)

  • Animal rights advocates hold this perspective because…

o   evidence, references

  • Other Medical researches hold this perspective because …

o   evidence, references

  • Some Ethicists / Philosophers hold this perspective because…

o   evidence, references

 

Q2. AnthropologyWhy is it inappropriate tKINDLY BE BRIEF AND STRAIGHT FOWARD IN YOUR ANSWER

WHY IS IT NOT APPROPRIATE TO DEPOSIT NON-WESTERN ARTIFACTS IN THE NATURAL COLLECTION OF HISTORY?

 

Writea 1,050- to 1,400-word paper in which your team compares the Normal Accident Theory to the Culture of Safety model.

Include the following in your paper:

  • Explain what factors can play a role in organizational accidents similar to the one highlighted in the scenario.
    • How do organizational processes give rise to potential failures?
    • How can certain conditions influence errors and violations within the workplace (e.g., operating room, pharmacy, intensive care unit)?

Q3. The red carpet cleaning

This is a bank statement of the evidence is well taken care of. I ensured that the drive would not be scratched, bent or even slightly destroyed. the container in which I placed the evidence was well labelled. the hand drive should be cushioned from any potential shock Potential Use of the Evidence This kind.

 

Q4. ANT208H5S FINAL STUDY QUESTIONS, 2016

ANT208H5S  FINAL STUDY QUESTIONS, 2016

 

Final exam is scheduled for April 20th from 1-4 pm in Gym A/B. Please check the Registrar website for updates or changes, and for which ROOM you will write in. If there is a room split, you must write the exam in the room location you have been assigned based on your last name.

 

These are SHORT ANSWER questions, which means about a paragraph or half a page, at most. Each questions is different, and some answers require more detail than others. Thus, read each question carefully so you understand the components of the question, and make sure to answer fully (all parts). Be concise but clear.

To help you study for the exam, it is a good idea to answer these questions completely in full, as you would on the final exam. However, it is suggested that you then come up key points or words to help you remember each answer, rather than try to memorize an answer in its entirely.  Good luck!

 

 

  1. What is popular culture? Define the concept in detail, and list two examples of popular culture.

 

  1. What is cultural anthropology and two of its guiding principles? Based on the reading and lecture (week 2), also provide two detailed examples of how cultural anthropologists are represented in horror films.

 

  1. Define semiotics and hermeneutics. Using one example from the Cormack article, explain how Tim Horton’s coffee (through its commercials) is a symbol of Canadian identity.

 

  1. Define discourse and colonial discourse. Provideone example of a colonial discourse and briefly describe what that discourse consists of.

 

  1. According to the readings and lecture (week 4), what is the national discourse produced at the Vancouver Olympics and why is this problematic? Please describe and explain your answer clearly and succinctly.

 

  1. Drawing from the “What is a Nation? The Appropriation of First Nations as Canadian” readings and/or lecture, provide an example of how either First Nations and other marginal members of society contested power (representations and discourses) at the Vancouver Olympics. Explain your example in some detail.

 

  1. Some scholars argue that the spread of Hollywood films globally is a form of cultural imperialism. What does cultural imperialism mean? Define and explain the concept in detail. 

 

  1. While Bollywood has achieved international success, many filmmakers wish to expand their market globally (i.e. to the U.S, Canada, and Britain). Briefly discuss two of the issues surrounding the question “can Bollywood go global?”

 

  1. How is managing your facebook profile like neoliberalism (use a neoliberalism logic)? Explain and provide two examples (week 5)

 

  1. Based on the article by Gershon (2011) or lecture (week 5), describe two ways facebook influences social relationships.

 

  1. Soap operas such asForbidden Love produce hegemonic discourses and reproduce societal norms. However, fans have edited and remade this soap into ‘webisodes,’ Christian & Oliver, as a form of resistance. Describe the changes made and how these changes subvert dominant norms.

 

  1. The lifestyle reality television show What Not to Wear (WNTW) is a space where identity is produced and remade. The authors argued that this is achieved through governmentality. Define governmentatity and explain how it works in the show WNTW to remake identity. 

 

  1. In his article about blackness in science fiction films, Russell (week 7) argues that blackness appears as avatarism. Define avatarism and provide two examples of avatarism in film. Describe your examples.

 

  1. In her article (week 8), Abu-Lughod (2002) discusses how Egyptian melodramatic serials are embedded with political and moral messages. What are these messages and how are these messages received by the lower economic classes? Explain in detail.

 

  1. Stuart Hall (week 8) argues that audiences read, rather than passively consume, popular culture. Although audiences actively construct meaning and interpret messages, this does not mean that they can construct ANY meaning. Identify and define the three possible reading positions.

 

  1. Based on the article Luo and Sun (2015) and lecture in week 10, explain two ways in which the Chinese dating showFei Cheng Wu Rao (“If You the One?”) produces sociocultural gender norms. In your answer, identify what gender norm is being produced.

 

  1. Jhally (2002) writes that we live in an “image based culture,” which has skewed our views of gender. According to his article, how can society reveal more of the “real world of substance?” Outline his four points and explain you answer using the Dove Campaign as an example (film: The Beauty Backlash, reading and film from week 11).

 

 

 

Q5. Please remember that you may utilize LIRN

PART I

Directions: Read the questions below and formulate a response to each that is at least one hundred words in length.  Please cite the textbook and external resources to support your answer (Wikipedia sources are not permitted).  List each resource used at the end of paper in the reference list section.  Please remember that you may utilize LIRN to help you search for resources.  You can visit the Academic Resource Center for a guide on how to utilize LIRN successfully
PART II: Journal

Using a minimum of three resources (Wikipedia.com is not an option) write a 1 to 2 page paper in APA format to discuss and review your own work, school, and life experiences in which the use of participant observation to gather data would have provided unique insights.  Identify the sides in the conflict.  Where did the “data” or information used by each side in the situation originate?  How, specifically, might the data gathered by a trained anthropologist, who adheres to the anthropological code of ethics, help each side understand the other?

 

 

Q6. Hlt 362v Exercise 36 The researchers

The researchers found a significant difference between the two groups (control and treatment) for change in mobility of the women with osteoarthritis (OA) over 12 weeks with the results of F(1, 22) = 9.619, p = 0.005. Discuss each aspect of these results.

The F-value is high enough at the 5% level of significance to suggest a significant difference between the control and treatment groups. The p-value 0.005 < 0.05, so this recommends a rejection of the null hypothesis, meaning that the control and treatment groups are found to be different.

State the null hypothesis for the Baird and Sands

 

Q7. Article The Real Legacy of Steve Jo

article The Real Legacy of Steve Jobs and the case about Jobs and Apple. If we consider the five functions of management, in which of the functions do you think that Jobs excelled??

Which of the five functions were his weakest??

 

article The Real Legacy of Steve Jobs and the case about Jobs and Apple. If we consider the five functions of management, in which of the functions do you think that Jobs excelled??

Which of the five functions were his weakest??

 

Q8. CJA 344 Police Influence on Society W

Public Opinions of Police and the Justice System Police Influence on Society Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper that describes how the historical development of policing in the United States relates to the current relationship between police and different
ethnic groups and social classes. • Support your discussion with examples from law enforcement practices, court procedures, corrections populations, or all three. • Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines. Please note that utilizing popular internet

Q9. How might you use probability theory in everyday living?

Week 2 DQ1

How might you use probability theory in everyday living?

 

Q10. Assignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity Constraints

Assignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity ConstraintsAssignment 1: Relational Model and Integrity Constraints

 

 

 

ASTRONOMY.

 

Q1. Self-esteem in the work environment is

Unit II PowerPoint Presentation

 

Self-esteem in the work environment is crucial to the overall success of everyday business operations and functions for the employee and employer; therefore, it is important to identify healthy self-esteem development and how to overcome communication barriers.

Create a PowerPoint presentation (minimum of 10 slides) on how to overcome communication barriers—verbal and nonverbal (identify and explain with supported data and illustrations). You must use at least two sources with one being the textbook. Be sure to cite any sources used in a reference slide with proper APA formatting. The cover and reference slides do not count toward the total slide requirement. Also, use the speaker notes function to explain the content in detail for each of the slides.

Note: Keep in mind the 6×6 PowerPoint rule: slides should only include six to seven lines of content with no more than six to seven words per line. Also, illustrations should relate to the content being discussed—be creative.

Refer to the following tutorial from the Success Center on developing good PowerPoint presentations:

https://columbiasouthern.adobeconnect.com/_a1174888831/powerpointbestpractices/

Information about accessing the grading rubric for this assignment is provided below.

 

This Unit covers Chapters 3, 4, & 5 in the textbook on “Building Self-Esteem & Self-Confidence, Interpersonal Communications, & Interpersonal Skills for the Digital World”.   There is a PowerPoint presentation paper due and a Journal entry that centers on self-esteem and ways to improve it in the workplace.   The PowerPoint presentation is on communications flow and barriers that get in the way of quality communications.  Keep in mind that just providing slides with bullets and data doesn’t demonstrate that the student actually understands the information in the bullets so approach this assignment from the perspective that you and I are in the classroom alone and you are doing this presentation for me knowing that I have zero knowledge of the topics addressed on the slides.   Read the syllabus instructions carefully and be sure to comply with all the requirements.  Keep in mind that originality, presentation, graphics, and quality will be part of the grade along with your speaker notes.  This unit is a good next step from what was covered in unit one because interacting with employees and interpersonal skills require high self-esteem and confidence as well as good communications flow that are the focus of this unit.  In Unit three we will focus on developing quality teams and decision-making skills all of which are tied to what was covered in the first two units.

Let me know if you have a question.

 

DuBrin, A. J. (2015). Human relations: Interpersonal job-oriented skills (12th ed.). Upper Saddle River, NJ: Pearson.

 

 

Q2. What kind of information do you think

Based on Walmart’s success in the United States, many expected the company to quickly dominate the British market after it bought the Asda grocery chain in 1999. That did not happen; Walmart’s market share in groceries grew to a little more than half that of its biggest competitor, Tesco. Initially, Tesco’s sales and net income rose significantly while Walmart’s sales and net income increased at a much slower rate. More recently, Walmart has made small gains in market share, and Tesco has had small decreases. Walmart found out that Tesco is a formidable worldwide competitor. Tesco operates almost 2,400 stores in Britain in four different formats. It has a very successful operation in Central Europe, and it expanded to the United States with Fresh & Easy stores. In Korea, Tesco’s 174 stores thrived while Walmart gave up after an eight-year effort to succeed and sold its 16 stores. One of the biggest reasons for Tesco’s success is its use of technology. In 1995, Tesco started a loyalty card program, called Clubcard, and over 80% of its shoppers are members. Shoppers fill out an application in the store and receive a plastic card and a key fob in the mail that is scanned before they make a purchase. Tesco gathers massive amounts of data about its customers’ 15 million purchases each week. Sales data are analyzed and turned into information that provides Tesco with a significant competitive advantage. As traditional advertising loses effectiveness, these large stores of data allow Tesco to find new and creative ways to market its products.

REQUIRED • a.What kind of information do you think Tesco gathers .How do you think Tesco has motivated over 22 million customers to sign up for its Clubcard program? • c.What can Tesco accomplish with the Clubcard data it collects? Think in terms of strategy and competitive advantage. • d.What are some of the disadvantages to the Clubcard program? • e.Do an Internet search to find out how Tesco is doing in comparison to Walmart and other grocers and retailers. Write a few paragraphs explaining your findings.

 

Q3. Being a small-business owner such a

Being a small-business owner such as a custom framing store, a restaurant, a garage, or a specific small local business of your choice, apply the basic supply management principles to the acquisition of services.

  • Discuss the trade-offs of quantity, quality, and cost in a small business such as a custom framing store, a restaurant, a garage, or a specific small local business of your pick.
  • Planning systems such as MRP and CRP might be overkills for a small-business owner. Devise a simplified version of an MRP and/or CRP such as a supply planning chart or a supply planning template for a small local business. A local small business could be a custom framing store, a restaurant, a garage, or a specific small local business of your pick.

 

Q4. Internet Research: Cabin Environmental Control Systems

In this second Internet Research assignment, find an article in an aviation related journal or other current resource focused on cabin environmental control systems. Some examples of topics that could be used in your search would be aircraft pressurization systems, oxygen systems, air conditioning systems, and aircraft heating systems. Explain the design of the cabin environmental system, how it affects human physiology, and what would happen if the system malfunctioned. This is a general assignment, but intended to get you familiar with the resources available pertaining to aviation maintenance as well as to broaden your knowledge of cabin environmental control systems. Below are some recommended resources to get you started:

  • General Aviation News (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. https://generalaviationnews.com/
  • Aviation Week (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.http://aviationweek.com/
  • AVM Magazine (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. https://www.avm-mag.com/
  • DOM Magazine (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. http://www.dommagazine.com/
  • Hunt Library (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

After conducting your research, write a one to two page synopsis of your findings. Page requirements does not include your cover page and reference page.  Your submission is expected to be grammatically sound, free of spelling errors, and formatted according to the current APA Edition. Provide at least one in-text citation and separate reference page to support your research.

 

Q5. Review Questions

These review questions will broaden your application of a few key topics from the chapters and the Module 3 objectives . Answer all four questions. All references are required to be in current APA format.

  1. Discuss the importance of integrating the voice of the customer into all decisions under the concept of Quality Function Deployment (QFD).
  2. Describe service process design and the service encounter design.
  3. What is Design for Reliability?  Why is reliability important? Describe series and parallel systems?
  4. Describe Throughput and explain why the identification and elimination of bottlenecks are key to improving productivity.

Module Report Guidelines

  • 750-word minimum, not including Reference or Cover Page
  • Current APA format
  • Double Spaced
  • A minimum of 3 references, in the Reference section at the end of the paper, are required.

o    Two references must be scholarly, peer-reviewed, and from reputable sources.

o    One textbook reference is acceptable.

Module Review Guidelines

  • Current APA format

 

Q6. Airline Service Delivery

How do the service delivery requirements of a passenger airline provider differ from the service delivery requirements of a cargo airline service?

Requirements

Discussion Board Posting Requirements

  • Create a primary response on the discussion topic. This response should be 400 words minimumfor each question and with a minimum of two references. You are welcome to write more if you feel it is warranted. It is highly recommended that you post your initial responses no later than the fourth night of the module week so that your classmates have a good chance to read and reply before the end of the week.
  • Respond to at least twoof your peers. Provide cogent responses by either supporting or debating your fellow students’ posts, and explain your viewpoint(s) clearly. Be sure to justify your responses. Your responses should be at least 100 words each. You are welcome to write more if you feel it is warranted.
  • All references must be in current APA format.

 

Below are the two peers postings

 

There are two main “servicescapes” in the aviation world (Collier & Evans, 2015). Those of us who have flown/worked with cargo on a regular basis know that doing so is a lot easier than dealing with customers and human lives all day. The cargo world operates on the “lean servicescape” which basically means that it requires less human (and financial) input to operate efficiently. Although there are still deadlines for cargo and a lot of logistics that go into flight planning, cargo involves less work and less planning to ensure a successful, profitable and safe flight. Cargo airlines don’t need to spend extra money and time to deck their aircraft out with creature comforts, put good-looking customer service staff out at the check-in’s in the terminals, or maintain a corporate social presence like passenger airlines do. Passenger airlines operate on the “elaborate servicescape”, which, in essence, means that they have to do a lot more to maintain their business and keep customers happy. While passenger airlines have to deal with ticketing, meals, accommodations for disabled passengers, planning recurring flights, angry passengers when flights are canceled or delayed, and all of the other things that come with providing a service to humans over inanimate objects, cargo airlines just have to make sure that their flights are safe, on-time, and able to generate a profit. They still have a human operating component (employees such as load masters, pilots, managers, flight planners, MX personnel, etc) but it doesn’t need to be anywhere near as developed as a passenger airline’s.

 

Collier, D. A., & Evans, J. R. (2015). OM5 (5th ed.). Boston, MA: Cengage Learning.

 

How do the service delivery requirements of a passenger airline provider differ from the service delivery requirements of a cargo airline service?

The biggest difference, in my opinion, is that for all the people who fly for fun or business it’s that they will never get to see the cargo operations side.  Spending my entire military career in and around passenger and cargo aviation I have much experience dealing with both.  For example, Lockheed Martin developed the C-5 Galaxy and its primary mission is moving cargo, people, and equipment on a global scale.  Or it can be converted into one huge passenger jet by palletizing airline seats to the cargo floor.  In its “air-bus configuration the C-5 can carry 270 passengers” (Lockheed Martin C-5 Galaxy, 2017).

So quite frankly the simplest answers are passenger aircraft move people and cargo aircraft move cargo.  However, there are air carriers which have aircraft that move people and cargo as a combination.  As we compare the two, cargo and people air carriers our textbook says that “integrating all of the elements (for both) is necessary to design a service that provides value to customers and can create a competitive advantage” (Collier D., Evans J., 2015, p. 121).  In your spare time, if you have any, look up an airline, any airline and they will most likely have passenger flights and cargo flights with aircraft designated to each.

For example, I have researched a United States air carrier by simply searching U.S. Airlines cargo and came up with American Airlines.  Punch up the website and it states that “American Airlines provides more than 100 million pounds of weekly cargo lift to major cities in the United States, Europe, Canada, Mexico, the Caribbean, Latin America and Asia Pacific” (About AACargo, 2016).  The website also discusses facilities, services, and processes.

On the other hand, at the American Airlines passenger travel site, it is geared towards personal travel, vacation packages and incentives to fly with American Airlines.  The travel site supports passenger travel such as “Black Friday Savings, Connect Your World, and Relax Before the Runway” (Plan Travel, 2017).  Both websites however different are basically the same type of layout and relatively easy to use in my opinion.  They both provide their own unique “service-delivery system design” (Collier D., Evans J., 2015, p. 121) by focusing on the customer’s wants and needs.

Cargo air services provide cargo space to customers for personal and business applications to deliver goods and products to destinations where needed. Additionally, cargo air carriers utilize technology to track freight and provide customers tracking information as a service to follow their products throughout the shipping process.  Passenger air services deliver people from one place to another.  They also provide online service to plan, make, and purchase a person’s travel arrangements.

v/R

Ken

References

About AACargo. (2016). Retrieved from American Airlines Cargo: https://www.aacargo.com/about/aacargo.html

Collier D., Evans J. (2015). Operations Management. Boston, MA: Cengage Learning.

Lockheed Martin C-5 Galaxy. (2017). Retrieved from The Aviation Zone: http://www.theaviationzone.com/factsheets/c5.asp

Plan Travel. (2017). Retrieved from American Airlines: https://www.aa.com/homePage.do

 

Q7. You Tube Video Analysis Report

You Tube Video Analysis Report

Must be own works and with references

Please go to YouTube Video site and find a video that pertains to one of the following topics:

  • Computer Aided Design (CAD)
  • Computer Aided Manufacturing (CAM)
  • Computer Aided Engineering (CAE)
  • Computer Integrated Manufacturing (CIM)

In your paper write the following:

  • Describe the topic and specify what you learned from the video
  • Explain the pros and cons of this approach
  • Compare manual operations vs. the new computer-aided technology
  • Find at least two additional references to support your paper

 

 

Q8. Pecha Kucha Presentation: Aircraft Instrument

Every instrument has two parts, the sensing mechanism and the display mechanism. For this activity, choose one instrument from the three basic instrument classifications. The three classifications are the: flight instrument, engine instrument, and navigation instrument. Explain how the instrument works, what flight input it measures and is a glass cockpit (digital flight instrument display) beneficial, why or why not? Your Pecha Kucha should be no more than 15 slides of 20 seconds each. Be creative and think how you can incorporate other visual aids to add to your presentation!

 

Q9. Fuel System internet research paper

For this first Internet Research assignment, find an article in an aviation related journal or other current resource focused on an aircraft fuel system or subsystem. Explain the design of the fuel system or subsystem and how it affected the aircraft and any type of problems associated with this fuel system (e.g. fuel imbalance). This is a general assignment, but intended to get you familiar with the resources available pertaining to aviation maintenance as well as to broaden your knowledge of aircraft fuel systems. Below are some recommended resources to get you started:

  • General Aviation News (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.https://generalaviationnews.com/
  • Aviation Week  (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. http://aviationweek.com/
  • AVM Magazine  (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. http://www.avm-mag.com/
  • DOM Magazine  (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.http://www.dommagazine.com/
  • Hunt library  (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

After conducting your research, write a one to two page synopsis of your findings. Page requirements does not include your cover page and reference page. document. Your submission is expected to be grammatically sound, free of spelling errors, and formatted according to the current APA Edition. Provide at least one in-text citation and separate reference page to support your research.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q10. Order Winners and Order Qualifiers Report

Order Winners and Order Qualifiers Report

Make sure it is your own works and with references. 

Evaluate the two requirements for understanding your customers’ requirements:

Order Qualifiers:

  • Why must companies understand this requirement?
  • What can you do as an operations manager to improve this requirement?

Order Winners:

  • What is the main definition and why is it different than Order Qualifiers?
  • As a professional operations manager, what can you do to differentiate your company from the competition? Please provide examples.

Module Report Guidelines

  • 750-word minimum, not including Reference or Cover Page
  • Current APA format
  • Double Spaced
  • A minimum of 3 references, in the Reference section at the end of the paper, are required.

o    Two references must be scholarly, peer-reviewed, and from reputable sources.

o    One textbook reference is acceptable.

 

GENERAL QUESTIONS

 

Q1. HARPER NTR101 Test 1A, Test 2A, Test 3A, Test 4A,Test 5A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 1A, Test 2A, Test 3A, Test 4A,Test 5A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 1A, Test 2A, Test 3A, Test 4A,Test 5A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 1A, Test 2A, Test 3A, Test 4A,Test 5A Latest 2019

 

Q2. HARPER NTR101 Test 5A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 5A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 5A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 5A Latest 2019

 

Q3. HARPER NTR101 Test 4A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 4A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 4A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 4A Latest 2019

 

Q4. PSYC305 Midterm Exam Latest 2019

psyc305 Midterm Exam Latest 2019

psyc305 Midterm Exam Latest 2019

psyc305 Midterm Exam Latest 2019

 

Q5. HARPER NTR101 Test 2A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 2A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 2A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 2A Latest 2019

 

Q6. HARPER NTR101 Test 1A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 1A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 1A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 1A Latest 2019

 

Q7. HARPER NTR101 Test 3A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 3A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 3A Latest 2019

HARPER NTR101 Test 3A Latest 2019

 

Q8. South University NSG6001 Midterm Exam (New)

South University NSG6001 Midterm Exam (New)

South University NSG6001 Midterm Exam (New)

South University NSG6001 Midterm Exam (New)

 

 

Q9. South university nsg5003 midterm exam 2019

Why is nasal congestion a serious threat young infants

How does chest wall compliance in an infant differ from that of an adult?a.An adult’s chest wall compliance is lower than an infant’s.b.An adult’s chest wall compliance is higher than an infant’s.c.An adult’s chest wall compliance is the same as an infant’s.d.An adult’s chest wall compliance is dissimilar to that of an infant’s

 

Q10. South University NSG5003 Week 4 Quiz Latest (SET 2)

South University NSG5003 Week 4 Quiz Latest (SET 2)

South University NSG5003 Week 4 Quiz Latest (SET 2)

South University NSG5003 Week 4 Quiz Latest (SET 2)

 

 

 

MATHEMATICS.

 

  1. Need help in Acct 211

 

I need some assistance with several of my accounting assignments.  Is anyone available to assist me with this?

Q2. MATH Week 7 – HT of Two Population Means and Proportions

 

Confidence Interval and Significance Test Problems for Two Population Means and Proportions

 

*****Notes to Tutor*****

Work must be turned in on a Word Doc, Must have Minitab/Minitab Express, if minitab work cannot be turned-in/attached as a solution. Screen shot or use snipping tool to create an image of the minitab work.

 

 

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 1  of 3

MATH232 Assignment 07

Confidence Intervals and Hypothesis Testing for Two

Populations

Guidelines

  • Your work must be organized neatly and typed
  • Clearly indicate your name and the assignment number in the file name
  • Electronic copies of your work can be submitted as an attachment to the drop box
  • You need to hand in individual work. You may talk with each other about the problems
  • However, everything in the assignment must be your own work. You are not allowed to use

classmate’s Minitab Express output. Using Minitab Express output that is not your own is a

violation of academic integrity

  • No late assignments will be accepted

Instructions

The key steps to tests of significance are to state H0 and HA, calculate the test statistic, compute the pvalue,

and make a conclusion based on the given significance level. If you input the hypotheses and the

summary statistics into Minitab Express, Minitab Express will output the test statistic and p-value and

you will not have to do any complex calculations. Keep in mind that the results obtained from software

are not meaningful unless the correct null and alternative hypotheses are determined.

If the question requires a test of significance, your solution should clearly show the four steps to the

test. In addition, you should show that you have checked that the conditions for inference are met.

Step 1: State the null and alternative hypothesis. (Use “mu” or the symbol μ.)

Step 2: Calculate the test statistic.

Step 3: Find the p-value.

Step 4: State your conclusion in the context of the problem.

(Do not just say “Reject H0” or “Do not reject H0.”)

If the question requires a confidence interval, be sure to make a statement about the confidence

interval in context of the problem.

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 2  of 3

MATH232 Assignment 07

Confidence Intervals and Hypothesis Testing for Two

Populations

  1. (4 points) Professor Handy measured the time in seconds required to catch a falling meter stick for

12 randomly selected students’ dominant hand and nondominant hand. The Minitab Express file

contains these measurements. Professor Handy claims that the reaction time in an individual’s

dominant hand is less than the reaction time in their nondominant hand. Assuming that the

differences follow a normal distribution, test the claim at the 5% significance level.

  1. (4 points) The New England Patriots. The 2017 roster of the New England Patriots, winners of the

2017 NFL Super Bowl included 12 defensive linemen and 9 offensive linemen. The Minitab Express

file for this problem contains the weights in pounds of the offensive and defensive linemen. Use

this data set to test the claim that the defensive linesmen weigh less that the offensive linemen at

the 5% level of significance.

  1. (4 points) Stress and weight in rats. In a study of the effects of stress on weight in rats, 71 rats were

randomly assigned to either a stressful environment or a control (nonstressful) environment. After

21 days, the change in weight (in grams) was determined for each rat. The table below summarizes

the data on weight gain. Test the claim that stress effects weight. (Use a 10% significance level.)

Group n Sample mean Sample Standard Dev.

Stress 20 26 13.4

No stress 51 32 14.2

  1. (4 points) A study was conducted to investigate the effectiveness of hypnotism in reducing pain.

Results for randomly selected subjects are given below. At the 1% level of significance, test the claim

that the sensory measurements are lower after hypnotism (scores are in cm. on a pain scale). Assume

sensory measurements are normally distributed. Note: You do not need to type these values into

Minitab Express; the data file has been created for you.

Before 6.6 6.5 9.0 10.3 11.3 8.1 6.3 11.6

After 6.8 2.4 7.4 8.5 8.1 6.1 3.4 2.0

  1. (4 points) Nicotine patches are often used to help smokers quit. Does giving medicine to fight

depression help? A randomized double-blind experiment assigned 244 smokers who wanted to

stop to receive nicotine patches and another 245 to receive both a patch and the antidepressant

drug bupropion. After a year, 40 participants in the nicotine patch group and 87 in the patch-plusdrug

group had abstained from smoking.

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 3  of 3

MATH232 Assignment 07

Confidence Intervals and Hypothesis Testing for Two

Populations

Count that Abstained From Smoking Sample Size

Patch + bupropion 87 245

Patch Only 40 244

Is there a significantly higher proportion of the patients that receive the patch plus bupropion

abstaining from smoking than the patch only group? Carry out a test of significance at the 5%

significance level.

  1. (4 points) A random sample of individuals participating in a survey in 2000 was asked “Do you

favor or oppose the death penalty for murder?” The results were 130 out of 200 females favored

capital punishment and 188 out of 250 males favored capital punishment. Find an approximate

95% confidence interval for the difference between the proportion of females and males that

favor capital punishment. Based upon your confidence interval do you believe the proportion of

males that favor capital punishment is greater than the proportion of females that favor capital

punishment? Justify your answer.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Number Name Position Weight Line
97 Branch, Alan NT 325 Defensive Line
99 Buchanan, Michael DE 255 Defensive Line
74 Easley, Dominique DE 290 Defensive Line
98 Forston, Marcus DT 305 Defensive Line
95 Jones, Chandler DE 265 Defensive Line
94 Jones, Chris DT 309 Defensive Line
90 Moore, Zach DE 275 Defensive Line
50 Ninkovich, Rob DE 260 Defensive Line
96 Siliga, Sealver DT 325 Defensive Line
90 Smith, Will DE 282 Defensive Line
72 Vellano, Joe DT 300 Defensive Line
75 Wilfork, Vince DT 325 Defensive Line
61 Cannon, Marcus G 335 Offensive Line
63 Connolly, Dan G 305 Offensive Line
65 Devey, Jordan G 317 Offensive Line
71 Fleming, Cameron G 325 Offensive Line
67 Kline, Josh G 295 Offensive Line
77 Solder, Nate T 320 Offensive Line
66 Stork, Bryan C 310 Offensive Line
76 Vollmer, Sebastian T 320 Offensive Line
62 Wendell, Ryan G 300 Offensive Line

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Name

Course

Professor

Date

QUESTION 1

Differences as normally distributed.

Dominant Non dominant d
1 0.177 0.179 -0.002
2 0.21 0.202 0.008
3 0.186 0.208 -0.022
4 0.189 0.184 0.005
5 0.198 0.215 -0.017
6 0.194 0.193 0.001
7 0.16 0.194 -0.034
8 0.163 0.16 0.003
9 0.166 0.209 -0.043
10 0.152 0.164 -0.012
11 0.19 0.21 -0.02
12 0.172 0.197 -0.025
d-bar -0.0132
sd= 0.0164

Paired t test:

Let d =dominant-non dominant

Test statistic:

t=(-0.0132-0)/(0.0164/SQRT(12))

t=-2.78

df=12-1=11

p-value=tdist(2.78,11,1)=0.0090

As,p-value<0.05,we reject the null hypothesis.

There is sufficient evidence to support the claim that reaction time for dominant hand is less than non dominant hand.

 

 

 

 

 

 

QUESTION 2

The test statistic and critical point has been found by running the following R code:

off <- c(335,305,317,325,295,320,310,320,300)
def <-c(325,255,290,305,265,309,275,260,325,282,300,325)t.test(off,def,alternative=”greater”,var.equal=TRUE)
qt(0.95,19)

QUESTION 3
Hypotheses.
 The first step is to state the null hypothesis and an alternative hypothesis.

Null hypothesis: uStress> uNo Stress
Alternative hypothesis: uStress < uNo Stress

An analysis plan: The significance level is 0.10. Using sample data, we will conduct a two-sample t-test of the null hypothesis.

Analyze sample data. Using sample data, we compute the standard error (SE), degrees of freedom (DF), and the t statistic test statistic (t).

SE = sqrt[(s12/n1) + (s22/n2)]
SE = 3.6342
DF = 69

t = [ (x1 – x2) – d ] / SE

t = – 1.65

where s1 is the standard deviation of sample 1, s2 is the standard deviation of sample 2, n1 is thesize of sample 1, n2 is the size of sample 2, x1 is the mean of sample 1, x2 is the mean of sample 2, d is the hypothesized difference between population means, and SE is the standard error.

The observed difference in sample means produced a t statistic of – 1.65.

P-value is 0.052

Conclusion: Since the P-value (0.052) is less than the significance level (0.10), we have to reject the null hypothesis.

From the above test we have sufficient evidence in the favor of the claim that stress effects weight.

 

QUESTION 4

QUESTION 5

QUESTION 6

 

 

 

Before After
6.6 6.8
6.5 2.4
9 7.4
10.3 8.5
11.3 8.1
8.1 6.1
6.3 3.4
11.6 2

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Student Dominant Hand Non-dominant Hand
1 0.177 0.179
2 0.21 0.202
3 0.186 0.208
4 0.189 0.184
5 0.198 0.215
6 0.194 0.193
7 0.16 0.194
8 0.163 0.16
9 0.166 0.209
10 0.152 0.164
11 0.19 0.21
12 0.172 0.197

 

 

 

Q3. MATH Week 7 – HT of Two Population Means and Proportions

See Attachments

 

Confidence Interval and Significance Test Problems for Two Population Means and Proportions

 

*****Notes to Tutor*****

Work must be turned in on a Word Doc, Must have Minitab/Minitab Express, if minitab work cannot be turned-in/attached as a solution. Screen shot or use snipping tool to create an image of the minitab work.

 

 

 

 

 

 

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 1  of 3

 

 

MATH232 Assignment 07

Confidence Intervals and Hypothesis Testing for Two

Populations

Guidelines

  • Your work must be organized neatly and typed
  • Clearly indicate your name and the assignment number in the file name
  • Electronic copies of your work can be submitted as an attachment to the drop box
  • You need to hand in individual work. You may talk with each other about the problems
  • However, everything in the assignment must be your own work. You are not allowed to use

classmate’s Minitab Express output. Using Minitab Express output that is not your own is a

violation of academic integrity

  • No late assignments will be accepted

Instructions

The key steps to tests of significance are to state H0 and HA, calculate the test statistic, compute the pvalue,

and make a conclusion based on the given significance level. If you input the hypotheses and the

summary statistics into Minitab Express, Minitab Express will output the test statistic and p-value and

you will not have to do any complex calculations. Keep in mind that the results obtained from software

are not meaningful unless the correct null and alternative hypotheses are determined.

If the question requires a test of significance, your solution should clearly show the four steps to the

test. In addition, you should show that you have checked that the conditions for inference are met.

Step 1: State the null and alternative hypothesis. (Use “mu” or the symbol μ.)

Step 2: Calculate the test statistic.

Step 3: Find the p-value.

Step 4: State your conclusion in the context of the problem.

(Do not just say “Reject H0” or “Do not reject H0.”)

If the question requires a confidence interval, be sure to make a statement about the confidence

interval in context of the problem.

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 2  of 3

MATH232 Assignment 07

Confidence Intervals and Hypothesis Testing for Two

Populations

  1. (4 points) Professor Handy measured the time in seconds required to catch a falling meter stick for

12 randomly selected students’ dominant hand and nondominant hand. The Minitab Express file

contains these measurements. Professor Handy claims that the reaction time in an individual’s

dominant hand is less than the reaction time in their nondominant hand. Assuming that the

differences follow a normal distribution, test the claim at the 5% significance level.

  1. (4 points) The New England Patriots. The 2017 roster of the New England Patriots, winners of the

2017 NFL Super Bowl included 12 defensive linemen and 9 offensive linemen. The Minitab Express

file for this problem contains the weights in pounds of the offensive and defensive linemen. Use

this data set to test the claim that the defensive linesmen weigh less that the offensive linemen at

the 5% level of significance.

  1. (4 points) Stress and weight in rats. In a study of the effects of stress on weight in rats, 71 rats were

randomly assigned to either a stressful environment or a control (nonstressful) environment. After

21 days, the change in weight (in grams) was determined for each rat. The table below summarizes

the data on weight gain. Test the claim that stress effects weight. (Use a 10% significance level.)

Group n Sample mean Sample Standard Dev.

Stress 20 26 13.4

No stress 51 32 14.2

  1. (4 points) A study was conducted to investigate the effectiveness of hypnotism in reducing pain.

Results for randomly selected subjects are given below. At the 1% level of significance, test the claim

that the sensory measurements are lower after hypnotism (scores are in cm. on a pain scale). Assume

sensory measurements are normally distributed. Note: You do not need to type these values into

Minitab Express; the data file has been created for you.

Before 6.6 6.5 9.0 10.3 11.3 8.1 6.3 11.6

After 6.8 2.4 7.4 8.5 8.1 6.1 3.4 2.0

  1. (4 points) Nicotine patches are often used to help smokers quit. Does giving medicine to fight

depression help? A randomized double-blind experiment assigned 244 smokers who wanted to

stop to receive nicotine patches and another 245 to receive both a patch and the antidepressant

drug bupropion. After a year, 40 participants in the nicotine patch group and 87 in the patch-plusdrug

group had abstained from smoking.

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 3  of 3

MATH232 Assignment 07

Confidence Intervals and Hypothesis Testing for Two

Populations

Count that Abstained From Smoking Sample Size

Patch + bupropion 87 245

Patch Only 40 244

Is there a significantly higher proportion of the patients that receive the patch plus bupropion

abstaining from smoking than the patch only group? Carry out a test of significance at the 5%

significance level.

  1. (4 points) A random sample of individuals participating in a survey in 2000 was asked “Do you

favor or oppose the death penalty for murder?” The results were 130 out of 200 females favored

capital punishment and 188 out of 250 males favored capital punishment. Find an approximate

95% confidence interval for the difference between the proportion of females and males that

favor capital punishment. Based upon your confidence interval do you believe the proportion of

males that favor capital punishment is greater than the proportion of females that favor capital

punishment? Justify your answer.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Number Name Position Weight Line
97 Branch, Alan NT 325 Defensive Line
99 Buchanan, Michael DE 255 Defensive Line
74 Easley, Dominique DE 290 Defensive Line
98 Forston, Marcus DT 305 Defensive Line
95 Jones, Chandler DE 265 Defensive Line
94 Jones, Chris DT 309 Defensive Line
90 Moore, Zach DE 275 Defensive Line
50 Ninkovich, Rob DE 260 Defensive Line
96 Siliga, Sealver DT 325 Defensive Line
90 Smith, Will DE 282 Defensive Line
72 Vellano, Joe DT 300 Defensive Line
75 Wilfork, Vince DT 325 Defensive Line
61 Cannon, Marcus G 335 Offensive Line
63 Connolly, Dan G 305 Offensive Line
65 Devey, Jordan G 317 Offensive Line
71 Fleming, Cameron G 325 Offensive Line
67 Kline, Josh G 295 Offensive Line
77 Solder, Nate T 320 Offensive Line
66 Stork, Bryan C 310 Offensive Line
76 Vollmer, Sebastian T 320 Offensive Line
62 Wendell, Ryan G 300 Offensive Line

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Before After
6.6 6.8
6.5 2.4
9 7.4
10.3 8.5
11.3 8.1
8.1 6.1
6.3 3.4
11.6 2

 

 

Student Dominant Hand Non-dominant Hand
1 0.177 0.179
2 0.21 0.202
3 0.186 0.208
4 0.189 0.184
5 0.198 0.215
6 0.194 0.193
7 0.16 0.194
8 0.163 0.16
9 0.166 0.209
10 0.152 0.164
11 0.19 0.21
12 0.172 0.197
 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q4. MATH Week 5 CI One Mean & Proportion

 

See attachment.

 

*****Notes to Tutor*****

Work must be turned in on a Word Doc, Must have Minitab/Minitab Express, if minitab work cannot be turned-in/attached as a solution. Screen shot or use snipping tool to create an image of the minitab work.

 

 

 

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 1  of 2

MATH232 Week 05 Assignment

Confidence Intervals for One Population Mean and

Proportion

Guidelines

  • Your work must be organized neatly and typed
  • Clearly indicate your name and the assignment number in the file name
  • Electronic copies of your work can be submitted as an attachment to the drop box
  • You need to hand in individual work. You may talk with each other about the problems
  • However, everything in the assignment must be your own work. You are not allowed to use

classmate’s Minitab Express output. Using Minitab Express output that is not your own is a

violation of academic integrity

  • No late assignments will be accepted

Example Solution

You measure the weights of a random sample of 24 male runners 18 to 24 years old. The sample

mean is 60kg and sample standard deviation is 5kg. A local gym advertises that the mean weight

for this group of men is 62kg. Calculate a 95% confidence interval for the mean weight for male

runners 18 to 24 years old.

WORK YOU NEED TO SUBMIT:

I am 95% confident that the true mean weight for male runners 18 to 24 years old is between

57.9 and 62.1 kgs.

1) (5 points) The increasing cost of health care is an important issue today. Suppose that a

random sample of 36 small companies that offer paid health insurance as a benefit was

selected. The mean health insurance cost per worker per month was $124 with a

standard deviation of $32. Construct a 99% confidence interval for the average health

cost per worker per month for all small companies.

© 2014 Norwich University, CGCS Page Revised: 11 June 2018 Page 2  of 2

MATH232 Week 05 Assignment

Confidence Intervals for One Population Mean and

Proportion

2) (5 points) Salmon Farming. Researchers tested 150 farm-raised salmon for organic

contaminants. They found the mean concentration of the carcinogenic insecticide mirex to

be 0.0913 parts per million, with standard deviation 0.0495 ppm. As a safety

recommendation to recreational fishers, the Environmental Protection Agency’s (EPA)

recommended “screening value” for mirex is 0.08 ppm. Calculate a 99% confidence interval

for the mean concentration of mirex. Based upon your confidence interval, are farmed

salmon contaminated beyond the level permitted by the EPA? Justify your answer.

3) (5 points) In a survey of 284 smokers, 197 smokers reported that they wanted to quit smoking.

Compute a 90% confidence interval for the true proportion of smokers that want to quit smoking.

(Adapted from the American Lung Association)

4) (5 points) When 460 junior college students were surveyed, 100 said they have a passport. Construct

a 95% confidence interval for the proportion of junior college students that have a passport. Round

to the nearest thousandth.

5) Housing Starts The attached data set represents the number of housing starts predicted for the

2nd quarter of 2014 for a random sample of 40 economists.

  1. a) Draw a histogram of the data. Comment on the shape of the distribution.
  2. b) Draw a boxplot of the data. Are there any outliers?
  3. c) Discuss the need for a large sample size in order to use the Student’s t-distribution to obtain a

confidence interval for the population mean forecast of the number of housing starts in the

second quarter of 2014.

 

 

 

Housing Starts
984
1260
1009
992
975
993
1025
1164
1060
992
1100
942
1050
1047
1000
938
1035
1030
964
970
1061
1067
1100
1095
976
1012
1038
929
920
996
990
1095
1178
1017
980
1125
964
888
946
1004

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Q5. Math Week 8 Assignment

For the test of significance questions, clearly indicate each of the formal steps in the test of significance.
Step 1: State the null and alternative hypothesis.
Step 2: Calculate the test statistic.
Step 3: Find the p-value.
Step 4: State your conclusion. (Do not just say “Reject H0” or “Do not reject H0”, state the conclusion
in the context of the problem.)

  1. A market research group is interested in comparing the mean weight loss for two different popular diets.
    The researcher chooses two random samples of participants for the two diet programs. For Diet A, the
    mean weekly weight loss for 10 participants was 1.5 pounds with standard deviation 0.4 pounds. For Diet
    B, the mean weekly weight loss for 12 participants was 1.2 pounds with standard deviation 0.6 pounds. At
    a 5% significance level, does this indicate that Diet A is better than Diet B?
  2. Random samples of 50 women and 50 men are taken at Norwich University. They are asked their reaction
    to increased tuition fees. Of the women, 23 favored the increase. Of the men, 19 favor the increase. At a
    10% significance level, does this indicate that a larger proportion of women favor the increase than men?
  3. A method currently used by doctors to screen patients for a certain type of cancer fails to detect cancer in
    15% of the patients who actually have the disease. A new method has been developed that researchers hope
    will be able to detect cancer more accurately. A random sample of 80 patients known to this type of cancer
    is screened using the new method and the method failed to detect the cancer in 8 patients. At the 5% level
    of significance, can the researchers conclude that the new method is better than the one currently in use?
    (Can they conclude that the new method fails to detect cancer in less than 15% of the patients who actually
    have the disease?)
  4. Beetles in oats. In a study of leaf beetle damage on oats, researchers measured the number of beetle larvae
    per stem in small plots of oats after randomly applying one of two treatments: no pesticide or malathion at
    the rate of 0.25 pound per acre. Below are the summary statistics. Compute a 95% confidence interval for
    the difference in the mean number of beetle larvae per stem for the no pesticide group and malathion group.

Group Treatment Mean, St. Dev,  n
1 no pesticide        3.47, 1.21, 13
2 malathion           1.36, 0.52, 14

  1. A coffee shop claims that its fresh-brewed drinks have a mean caffeine content of 80 milligrams per 5
    ounces. A city health agency believes that the coffee shop’s fresh- brewed drinks have higher caffeine
    content. To test this claim the health agency takes a random sample of 100 five-ounce servings and found
    the average mean caffeine content of the sample was 87 milligrams with standard deviation of 25
    milligrams. Does this provide enough evidence at the 1% significance level to claim that the coffee shop’s
    fresh- brewed drinks have higher caffeine content? (Adapted from Reader’s Digest Eating for Good
    Health.)
    6. In a recent survey of county high school students, 100 males and 100 females, 66 of the male students and
    47 of the female students sampled admitted that they consumed alcohol on a regular basis. Find a 90%
    confidence interval for the difference between the proportion of male and female students that consume
    alcohol on a regular basis. Can you draw any conclusions from the confidence interval?
    7. Does using premium gas increase your miles per gallon? A study was conducted with nine vehicles that can
    run on regular gas to see if using premium gas will get better gas mileage. Each car in our sample was
    randomly filled first with either regular or premium gasoline, and the mileage for that tankful recorded. The
    mileage was recorded again for the same cars for a tankful of the other kind of gasoline. Is there evidence to
    suggest that using premium gas will increase your miles per gallon? (Use 10% significance level.)
    Gas Mileage (mpg)
    Premium, Regular, Difference
    Vehicle 1: 19, 20, -1
    Vehicle 2: 35, 32, 3
    Vehicle 3: 34, 33, 1
    Vehicle 4: 18, 19, -1
    Vehicle 5: 40, 37, 3
    Vehicle 6: 26, 27, -1
    Vehicle 7: 36, 33, 3
    Vehicle 8: 28, 29, -1
    Vehicle 9: 34, 31, 3
    Mean:      30, 29, 1
    St Dev: 7.7, 6.1, 2.0
  2. Suppose the mean salary for full professors in the United States is believed to be $71,650. A sample of 15
    full professors revealed a mean salary of $74,250 with a standard deviation of $5,000. Can it be concluded
    that the average salary has increased using a 1% level of significance?

 

*****Notes to Tutor*****

Work must be turned in on a Word Doc, Must have Minitab/Minitab Express, if minitab work cannot be turned-in/attached as a solution. Screen shot or use snipping tool to create an image of the minitab work.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Elementary Statistics

Week 08 – Part 2 of the Final Exam

Each question is worth 13.75 points.

For the test of significance questions, clearly indicate each of the formal steps in the test of significance.

Step 1: State the null and alternative hypothesis.

Step 2: Calculate the test statistic.

Step 3: Find the p-value.

Step 4: State your conclusion. (Do not just say “Reject H0” or “Do not reject H0”, state the conclusion

in the context of the problem.)

On your written assignment copy and paste the following statement. Please state that you agree with the

following academic honesty statement.

I pledge that all of the following work is my own and I am following the rules of conduct

consistent with Norwich University’s Academic Honesty Policy stated in the Student’s

Academic Regulations.

I have not and will not receive help from any outside source on this final exam. I have not

and will not use any resources such as classroom notes, previous quizzes, or any other course

material, other than a calculator, the hypothesis testing flow chart provided, the normal

table, and Minitab Express.

I will not aid any other student on this exam. I am aware that it is a violation of academic

honesty to share or receive any information about the exam with any other student.

  1. A market research group is interested in comparing the mean weight loss for two different popular diets.

The researcher chooses two random samples of participants for the two diet programs. For Diet A, the

mean weekly weight loss for 10 participants was 1.5 pounds with standard deviation 0.4 pounds. For Diet

B, the mean weekly weight loss for 12 participants was 1.2 pounds with standard deviation 0.6 pounds. At

a 5% significance level, does this indicate that Diet A is better than Diet B?

  1. Random samples of 50 women and 50 men are taken at Norwich University. They are asked their reaction

to increased tuition fees. Of the women, 23 favored the increase. Of the men, 19 favor the increase. At a

10% significance level, does this indicate that a larger proportion of women favor the increase than men?

  1. A method currently used by doctors to screen patients for a certain type of cancer fails to detect cancer in

15% of the patients who actually have the disease. A new method has been developed that researchers hope

will be able to detect cancer more accurately. A random sample of 80 patients known to this type of cancer

is screened using the new method and the method failed to detect the cancer in 8 patients. At the 5% level

of significance, can the researchers conclude that the new method is better than the one currently in use?

(Can they conclude that the new method fails to detect cancer in less than 15% of the patients who actually

have the disease?)

  1. Beetles in oats. In a study of leaf beetle damage on oats, researchers measured the number of beetle larvae

per stem in small plots of oats after randomly applying one of two treatments: no pesticide or malathion at

the rate of 0.25 pound per acre. Below are the summary statistics. Compute a 95% confidence interval for

the difference in the mean number of beetle larvae per stem for the no pesticide group and malathion group.

Group Treatment Mean St. Dev n

1 no pesticide 3.47 1.21 13

2 malathion 1.36 0.52 14

  1. A coffee shop claims that its fresh-brewed drinks have a mean caffeine content of 80 milligrams per 5

ounces. A city health agency believes that the coffee shop’s fresh- brewed drinks have higher caffeine

content. To test this claim the health agency takes a random sample of 100 five-ounce servings and found

the average mean caffeine content of the sample was 87 milligrams with standard deviation of 25

milligrams. Does this provide enough evidence at the 1% significance level to claim that the coffee shop’s

fresh- brewed drinks have higher caffeine content? (Adapted from Reader’s Digest Eating for Good

Health.)

  1. In a recent survey of county high school students, 100 males and 100 females, 66 of the male students and

47 of the female students sampled admitted that they consumed alcohol on a regular basis. Find a 90%

confidence interval for the difference between the proportion of male and female students that consume

alcohol on a regular basis. Can you draw any conclusions from the confidence interval?

  1. Does using premium gas increase your miles per gallon? A study was conducted with nine vehicles that can

run on regular gas to see if using premium gas will get better gas mileage. Each car in our sample was

randomly filled first with either regular or premium gasoline, and the mileage for that tankful recorded. The

mileage was recorded again for the same cars for a tankful of the other kind of gasoline. Is there evidence to

suggest that using premium gas will increase your miles per gallon? (Use 10% significance level.)

Gas Mileage (mpg)

Premium Regular

Difference

Vehicle 1 19 20 -1

Vehicle 2 35 32 3

Vehicle 3 34 33 1

Vehicle 4 18 19 -1

Vehicle 5 40 37 3

Vehicle 6 26 27 -1

Vehicle 7 36 33 3

Vehicle 8 28 29 -1

Vehicle 9 34 31 3

Mean 30 29 1

St Dev 7.7 6.1 2.0

  1. Suppose the mean salary for full professors in the United States is believed to be $71,650. A sample of 15

full professors revealed a mean salary of $74,250 with a standard deviation of $5,000. Can it be concluded

that the average salary has increased using a 1% level of significance?

 

Q6. Statistics Review

These terms include (i) population vs. sample; (ii) parameter vs. statistic; and (iii) margin of error (and how to apply it to determine the range of values –

Know the types of sampling methods (e.g., random, simple random, systematic, convenience, stratified, and cluster).

Know the difference between an observational study versus an experimental one (and related terminology, like retrospective, cross-section, prospective/longitudinal, treatment group vs control group, and placebo).

(i) qualitative/categorical vs. quantitative; (ii) continuous vs. discrete; and (iii) the four levels of measurement (nominal, ordinal, interval, ratio). The questions you will be asked will be fill-in-the-blank.

Know how to convert a number between scientific notation and standard notation

Given a graphical/pictorial representation of data (e.g., histogram, stem-and-leaf, frequency polygon, ogive, pie chart, and so on), be prepared to answer a question or two that will demonstrate your understanding of the picture/chart

 

 

Q7 Derive the formula to find sums of integers, squares, cubes, fourth power of integers

Derive or Evaluate the formula for

  • the sum of ‘n’ positive integers
  • the sum of the squares of ‘n’ positive integers
  • the sum of the cubes of ‘n’ positive integers
  • the sum of the fourth power of ‘n’ positive integers
  • the sum of consecutive even numbers
  • the sum of consecutive odd integers

 

 

 

Q8. Derive the formula for the sum of positive integers and sum of the square of positive integers

Explain/ walk through the concept by deriving the formula for

  • The sum of positive integers
  • the sum of the square of positive integers

 

Q9. Derive the formula for Sum of cubes and the sum of the fourth power of ‘n’ positive integers

Evaluate the sum of the square of positive integers

Evaluate the sum of ‘n’ positive integers of the fourth power.

 

 

Q10. Stats of Psyc help needed

 

 

 

Please see the attached file with my assigement. This for Statistics of Psychology. Thank you!

 

SPSS HOMEWORK 1

 

40 POINTS

 

 

Factual Informative Scenario Anecdotal “Identifiable Victim” Scenario
25

10

25

15

10

20

32

15

10

15

15

35

30

50

45

30

 

  1. Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)

 

  1. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)

 

 

 

 

Cooperation Competition
88

91

73.5

82

84

92.5

76

95

98

81.5

92

87

85

79

91

95.5

72.5

74

63

 

 

  1. Paste SPSS output. (7 pts)

 

  1. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)

 

 

 

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday at the end of Module/Week 1.

 

SOCIOLOGY

Q1. 1. According to Robert Putnum, a scholar of social capital discussed in Chapter 5 of the Conley

Write a 4-6 page essay on two of the following questions. Your total assignment should be 4-6 pages long, plus an additional bibliography page. Please be very careful to cite your resources, including the textbook and/or films carefully and correctly.

  1. According to Robert Putnum, a scholar of social capital discussed in Chapter 5 of the Conley text, people have less connection and trust in their neighbors and communities today than in the past, resulting in a decline in civic (public) engagement. Conduct research on his claim. Based on data you locate from academic sources, explain how and why people are being less engaged with their communities OR conversely argue that Putnam is incorrect and that civic engagement is occurring in other spaces (the internet for example). Avoid using anecdotal or personal experience for this essay and focus on and creating a persuasive academic argument.
  2. The United States has the highest incarceration rate in the world and about 1 in 34 Americans is under correctional supervision. Based on the theories and data presented in Chapter 6 of the Conley text, consider why this might be the case. What is causing the high incarceration rate? What role does racism, poverty, and masculinity play in this pattern? Next, evaluate the rehabilitative vs. punishment approach to crime reduction. Which one does the US employ? How effective is this approach and why might this be the case?
  3. Pascoe identifies a number of social issues or problems in her book, including, gender inequality, masculine dominance and violence/homophobia in schools. Choose an issue or concern that Pascoe raises and discuss her analysis of the issue.

o    Why is it a problem?

o    Where does the problem or issue come from?

o    How have those issues been discussed in our other readings?

o    What are some possible solutions?

 

Q2. SOC 110 Week 2 Creating an Agenda

Instructions:

Resource: Ch. 11 & 12 of Working in Groups

Create an agenda for a virtual team meeting on a topic of your choice.

Draw from your own experience working within a group with the goal of achieving a specific task. You may use your experience as a student working in a group, or develop a plan for a future learning team. Your agenda should include specific items requiring group discussion and

Consensus.

In addition to the agenda, write a 200- to 350-word summary of the following:

  • In a virtual meeting, how can you ensure a group is communicating effectively?
  • How can you ensure that each team member understands what the next steps are required to achieve the meeting’s goals?

Click the Assignment Files tab to submit your agenda and summary.

 

Q3. Caste systems in India

How does the caste culture in India work? Is it still being used? Bad effects of the caste system. Good effects of the caste system

 

Q4. Programs to counter teen age smoking

What are the various programs conducted by the National Cancer Institute (NCI) and Media Campaign Resource Centers to prevent teenage cigarette smoking?

 

 

 

Q5. What is the story of social mobility in your family?

What is the story of social mobility in your family? To what extent have there been shifts both across and within generations? What factors, such as family connections or historical events, contributed to the occurrence of your social mobility? Your journal entry must be at least 200 words. No references or citations are necessary.

 

220 words

 

think as american

 

Q6. SOC 100 Week 9 Assignment 3 Obesity In America(USE AS A GUIDE ONLY)

SOC 100 Week 9 Assignment 3 Obesity in America(4 pages word paper)

 

Q7. Comparing Factors that Lead to Underdevelopment

This assignment calls for you to select two Less Developed Countries (LDCs) and assess if there are any factors that are common to both as far as their development is concerned. Your two countries must come from the following list:

Burundi

Benin

Cameroon

Nigeria

Nicaragua

Guatemala

Central African Republic

North Korea

Angola

Ghana

Chad

Yemen

Eritrea

Cuba

Congo

Thailand

Egypt

Iran

Equatorial Guinea

Zimbabwe

Zambia

Oman

Ethiopia

Philippines

Congo

Liberia

Gabon

Bahrain

Tanzania

India

Guyana

Mexico

El Salvador

Lebanon

Honduras

Pakistan

Syria

Guinea

Kenya

Sri Lanka

Algeria

Gambia

Mozambique

Senegal

Malawi

Indonesia

Namibia

Vietnam

Morocco

Myanmar

Rwanda

Haiti

Sudan

Bolivia

Somalia

Kuwait

Mauritania

Mali

South Africa

Iraq

Botswana

Bangladesh

Tunisia

Niger

Libya

Malaysia

Uganda

Panama

 

Source: United Nations, 2014

It may help you to be familiar with the concept of poor governance, because this often plays a significant part in why a country is underdeveloped. According to the World Bank, governance is defined as how power is exercised in the management of a country’s economic and social resources for development. Therefore, if good governance is synonymous with sound development management, then poor governance means a government has failed to deliver desirable outcomes for its people. This could mean that officials are corrupt, not transparent with their decisions, unqualified to make decisions in the first place, or prone to make decisions based on racism, tribalism or ethnicity — all of which are very common practices in LCDs.

The most common factor used to decide whether countries are underdeveloped nations is through the Human Development Index. Countries that are underdeveloped in nature offer poor health care, few educational opportunities, a low average life expectancy, a low number of job opportunities, few recreational facilities, poor economic growth, a low standard of living and a poverty-stricken life.

Instructions:

Write at least a six-page paper, in which you:

  1. Identify the two LDCs (from the list above), which you will compare and assess. Explain why you chose these two countries.
  2. Analyze the features that the LDCs have in common using at least five of the following nine factors(clearly label the five factors using headings):
  3. geography
  4. extractive institutions
  5. governmental corruption
  6. internal or external conflicts
  7. shaky financial systems
  8. unfair judicial systems
  9. ethnic, racial or tribal disparities
  10. lack or misuse of natural resources
  11. closed (statist) economies
  12. Use at least seven credible sources. Wikipedia, encyclopedias, dictionaries, blogs and other material that does not qualify as reputable academic source work at the college level. Do not use sources that are older than seven years.

Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

  • Be typed, double-spaced (no extra spacing between paragraphs), using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides.
  • Citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
  • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date (do not include an abstract).
  • The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length. Graphs, tables and photographs are notcounted toward the length of the paper; only what you have written as text itself.

 

 

Q8. SOCS 185 Week 4 quiz (Already graded A+)

SOCS 185 Week 4 quiz

Question 1

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 4) Swedish Attorney, Bjorn Liar has been asked to lead a group that will decide which of his firm’s associates will be offered partner status. He’s been asked to be more expressive and to include everyone in the decision-making process. What leadership style should Bjorn use?

 

Authoritarian

 

 

Democratic

 

Laissez-faire

 

Bureaucratic

 

Political

Chapter 5

 

Question 2

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 4) Select the appropriate conclusion from Stanley Milgram’s experiment on authority and the infliction of suffering.

 

The results of sociological investigation can be shocking.

 

Thresholds of physical pain differ substantially.

 

 

People are surprisingly likely to follow not only the directions of legitimate authority figures, but also groups of “ordinary individuals.”

 

The conclusions from Solomon Asch’s study of conformity were incorrect.

 

During times of war, values toward authorities and violence change markedly.

Chapter 5

 

Question 3

0 / 2 pts

(TCO 4) A group of businesswomen meet on a monthly basis to assist one another in advancing their careers. They give each other job leads and advice. This group is an example of _____.

You Answered

 

a role connection

 

impression management

 

status assistance

 

a network

 

LinkedIn individuals

Chapter 5

 

Question 4

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 4) By working at a specific task, people are more likely to become highly skilled and carry out a job with maximum efficiency. This is the rationale for the bureaucratic characteristic of _____.

 

employment based on technical qualifications

 

hierarchy of positions

 

 

specialization

 

rules and regulations

 

impersonality

Chapter 5

 

Question 5

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 4) Which statement is true concerning intersexual people?

 

They are sexually attracted to both sexes.

 

They are attracted to neither sex.

 

 

They have both female and male characteristics.

 

They have no gender.

 

They are in the middle of gender reassignment surgery.

Chapter 6

 

Question 6

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 6) Pat Rearc argues that without norms controlling sexual behavior and thus giving the forces of sexual passion free reign, family life and the raising of children would be threatened. To which paradigm would Pat be aligned?

 

 

Structural Functional Theory

 

Symbolic Interaction Theory

 

Social Conflict Theory

 

Queer Theory

 

Exchange Theory

Chapter 6

 

Question 7

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 6) Emile Durkheim proposed several functions of deviance. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

 

Deviance affirms cultural values and norms.

 

 

Deviance provides employment for a large segment of the work force.

 

Responding to deviance clarifies moral boundaries.

 

Deviance encourages social change.

 

Deviance promotes social unity.

Chapter 7

 

Question 8

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 6) Travis Hirschi’s approach to deviance and control proposes that

 

Hirschi is a deviant spelling of Hershey.

 

deviance results from differential access to wealth.

 

deviance is a frustration of ambition.

 

individualism inhibits the deviance.

 

 

everyone finds at least some deviance tempting.

Chapter 7

 

Question 9

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 6) Which of the following is NOT a reason researchers have given for decline in violent crime?

 

 

Increased use of the death penalty

 

Reduction in the youth population

 

Changes in policing

 

Better economy

 

Declining drug trade

Chapter 7

 

Question 10

2 / 2 pts

(TCO 3) While a _____ system is social stratification based on ascription; a _____ system is social stratification based on both birth and individual achievement.

 

caste; crass

 

caste; classless

 

cask; class

 

mobility; closed

 

 

caste; class

Chapter 8

 

Question 11

0 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) According to the Davis-Moore thesis:

You Answered

 

Equality is functional for society.

 

World inequality results from the activities of global multinationals.

 

The greater the functional importance of a position, the more rewards a society attaches to it.

 

Stratification ultimately will be eliminated in the U.S., due to our meritocracy.

 

Viola Davis and Demi Moore are same actress.

Chapter 8

 

Question 12

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) _____ is the term for earnings from work or investments and _____ is the term for the total value of money and other assets, minus outstanding debts.

 

Income; personal property

 

Profit; income

 

Wealth; income

 

 

Income; wealth

 

Rent; net worth

Chapter 8

 

Question 13

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 3) _____ refers to the deprivation of some people in relation to those who have more, while _____ refers to a deprivation of resources that is life-threatening.

 

 

Relative poverty; absolute poverty

 

Absolute poverty; comparative poverty

 

Normative deprivation; non-normative deprivation

 

Comparative deprivation; incomparable deprivation

 

Absolute poverty; relative poverty

Chapter 8

 

Question 14

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 5) Marx claimed social stratification would end with the creation of a socialist economy. What was Weber’s view?

 

 

Weber thought socialism would reduce economic differences but also create a political elite, increasing differences in power.

 

Weber thought capitalism could not be changed.

 

Weber thought socialism would create a new high-prestige nobility.

 

Weber agreed with Marx.

 

Weber thought social stratification would only increase as the world became more industrialized.

Chapter 8

 

Question 15

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 4) Accounts Payable Administrator Imelda Czechs works for a small international corporation. This category of work can be described as _____

 

blue-collar work.

 

 

white-collar work.

 

pink-collar work.

 

fur collar work.

 

no-collar work.

Chapter 8

 

Question 16

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 4) Which type of slavery consists of employers holding workers by paying them too little to cover their debts?

 

Chattel slavery

 

Child slavery

 

 

Debt bondage

 

Debit slavery

 

Revolving credit slavery

Chapter 9

 

Question 17

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 4) Which of the following gives the correct order of stages of modernization according to W. W. Rostow?

 

High mass consumption, traditional, drive to technological maturity, and take-off

 

Traditional, drive to technological maturity, take-off, and high mass consumption

 

High mass consumption, traditional, take-off, and drive to technological maturity

 

 

Traditional, take-off, drive to technological maturity, and high mass consumption

 

Take-off, drive to traditional maturity, technological, and consume mass quantities

Chapter 9

 

Question 18

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 4) A social theorist who contributed to the development of dependency theory by tracing the growth of the capitalist world economy is

 

Max Weber.

 

Emile Durkheim.

 

Walt Rostow.

 

Oliver Clozov

 

 

Immanuel Wallerstein.

Chapter 9

 

Question 19

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 4) The model of the capitalist world economy is

 

Karl Marx’s view that the bourgeois nations, such as England, would dominate the proletarian nations, such as India.

 

Erving Goffman’s view that world peace would result from many types of nations interacting with one another.

 

Talcott Parsons’s view that the inequality that exists among nations is necessary for world stability.

 

 

Immanuel Wallerstein’s view of the global economic system as divided between certain industrialized nations that control wealth, and developing countries that are controlled and exploited.

 

Gerhard Lenski’s view that, as countries gain more technology, they move through levels of development.

Chapter 9

 

Question 20

3 / 3 pts

(TCO 5) _____ is a model of economic and social development that explains global inequality in terms of technological and cultural differences between nations and _____ is a model of economic and social development that explains global inequality in terms of the historic exploitation of poor nations by rich ones.

 

Dependency theory; modernization theory

 

Destiny; manifest destiny

 

Neocolonialism; colonialism

 

 

Modernization theory; dependency theory

 

Colonialism; neocolonialism

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

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  1. QSO 630 wk1

Description

1-1 Discussion: Definition of Supply Chain

Contains unread posts

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Consider Dell which is famous for its low inventory of parts (from Dell’s suppliers) and finished products (assembled at Dell’s manufacturing facilities). If Dell maintains low inventory of parts, and if Dell wants the suppliers to ship the parts soon after it places an order for them, does it mean that the suppliers shall maintain a high inventory of parts? And if the suppliers shall maintain a high inventory of parts, do the suppliers incur high holding costs? And if the suppliers incur high holding costs, who will eventually pay for those costs? Dell? Or its suppliers? Or ultimately the customer? If you were Dell, discuss how you would ensure that the holding costs are actually reduced, not just transferred.

  1. Implementing Policy

Description

Agencies implement policy through various methods. Either they enforce laws and regulations, manage programs or manage and/or disburse public funds. What roles do agencies in your state play in the budget process?

 

  1. Rulemaking

Description

“Rulemaking is probably the most important political activity of bureaucracy. In fact, it is a large lawmaking operation that citizens do not even know exists.” (Smith, 2008) What specific roles do agencies play in your state in the rulemaking process? Hint: Research your state’s own administrative procedures act.

 

  1. Unit 4 Assignment

Description

Analyze the administrative process within the executive branch

Assessment: Research and develop a flow chart of your state’s own process for agency rulemaking starting with the executive branch review through to the final adoption of the rule. All the major steps and alternative steps as well as players must be identified including any relevant time lines or deadlines. Sources must be appropriately cited. Hint: Go to your own state’s website and key in appropriate search words or phrases. Start with your state’s code sections that contain its own version of the Administrative Procedures Act.

For a how-to guide on creating a PowerPoint flowchart review the resource below:

 

5.Business

With the first weekend of March Madness underway, there has been plenty of talk regarding Power 5 (P5) Conferences versus non-P5 schools.  Many sports analysts believe the P5 schools have an advantage in making the NCAA MBB tournament and when it comes to seeding in the tournament.

Read these articles:

http://www.newsobserver.com/sports/college/acc/article139198713.html (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

http://sports.yahoo.com/news/march-madness-day-2-recap-power-conference-dominance-sets-up-second-round-showdowns-042714662.html (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

If you are unfamiliar with the term P5, read this article to familiarize yourself.  http://www.huffingtonpost.com/ken-reed/big-five-have-changed-col_b_5725772.html (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

The P5 schools earned $6 billion dollars last year compared to a mere $4 billon for ALL of the other schools combined.

Do you think March Madness favors P5 schools? Why or why not?  If you think they do, what solutions do have to create parity for all schools?  What are things FGCU can do to improve our likelihood of being selected to the NCAA tournament as an at-large bid.

 

6.Psychological Statistics

SPSS HOMEWORK 1

 

40 POINTS

 

 

Factual Informative Scenario Anecdotal “Identifiable Victim” Scenario
25

10

25

15

10

20

32

15

10

15

15

35

30

50

45

30

 

  1. Paste SPSS output.  (7 pts)

 

  1. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)

 

 

Online Professional Tutoring meets its match at www.homeworknest.com . This is by far the tested and most trusted Online College Homework Help /Tutoring Website for College Students in Universities and Colleges across the Globe. Get Online Homework Help, Assignments Help at www.homeworknest.com  . Chat With Your Tutors in Real Time. Homework Nest offers unmatched Answers to Your Pressing College Assignment Quizzes. Register as a Student at www.HomeworkNest.com  .  Today!

 

 

Cooperation Competition  
88

91

73.5

82

84

92.5

76

95

98

81.5

  92

87

85

79

91

95.5

72.5

74

63

 

 

 

  1. Paste SPSS output.  (7 pts)

 

  1. Write an APA-style Results section based on your analysis. Include your boxplot as an APA-style figure as demonstrated in the APA writing presentation. (Results = 8 pts; Graph = 5 pts)

 

  1. Describe in 3 Paragraphs – Law Question

Anne is 10 years old and lives in a major metropolitan U.S. city and is currently in the 4th grade. Today, during gym class, Anne’s teacher notices several large bruises on all of Anne’s arms and legs and that her clothing is torn and dirty. When the teacher questions Anne about how she got the bruises, Anne replies “I fell on the playground.” The teacher reports the bruising to the school principal. The teacher and principal request Anne’s mother attend a conference after school.

During the conference, Anne’s mother is difficult to communicate with. She appears to be intoxicated, but denies having had anything to drink. She is also very defensive, states that Anne is a clumsy, lazy child and that Anne lies to get attention. The mother denies that anyone has physically hurt Anne. During the conference, Anne sits next to her mother but does not make eye contact with anyone in the room, nor does she speak. When questioned as to why Anne’s father could not attend the conference, Anne’s mother replies that he was too tired because he works two jobs and has to sleep during the day. Anne and her mother leave the conference and Anne is not in school the next day.

In 2-3 paragraphs, using your own words:

  • List 3 signs and/or symptoms of possible child abuse and neglect with respect to Anne.
  • List 3 risk factors present in Anne’s family that could contribute to abuse.
  • What do you think would be the best course of action for Anne regarding treatment, placement, and services?
  • When responding to peers, consider whether you agree with the course of action suggested by your peers. Why might that be the best course of action, or why might another action be more appropriate. Provide support for your choices.
  1. Answer the following questions

The Swift Corporation has 5,000 sales representatives and employees in the United States who drive company cars. The company’s risk manager has recommended to the firm’s management that the company should implement a partial retention program for physical damage losses to company cars.

  1. Explain the advantages and disadvantages of a partial retention program to the Swift Corporation.
  2. Identify the factors that the Swift Corporation should consider before it adopts a partial retention program for physical damage losses to company cars.
  3. If a partial retention program is adopted, what are the various methods the Swift Corporation can use to pay for physical damage losses to company cars?
  4. Identify two risk-control measures that could be used in the company’s partial retention program for physical damage losses.
  1. Need help with the following questions

Chris and Karen are married and own a three-bedroom home in a large midwestern city. Their son, Christian, attends college away from home and lives in a fraternity house. Their daughter, Kelly, is a senior in high school. Chris is an accountant who works for a local accounting firm. Karen is a marketing analyst and is often away from home several days at a time. Kelly earns extra cash by babysitting on a regular basis.The family’s home contains household furniture, personal property, a computer that Chris uses to prepare business tax returns on weekends, and a laptop computer that Karen uses while traveling. The Swifts also own three cars. Christian drives a 2007 Ford; Chris drives a 2012 Pontiac for both business and personal use; and Karen drives a 2014 Toyota and a rental car when she is traveling. Although the Swifts have owned their home for several years, they are considering moving because of the recent increase in violent crime in their neighborhood.

  1. Describe briefly the steps in the personal risk management process.
  2. Identify the major pure risks or pure loss exposures to which Chris and Karen are exposed with respect to each of the following:
    1. Personal loss exposures
    2. Property loss exposures
    3. Liability loss exposures
  3. With respect to each of the loss exposures mentioned above, identify an appropriate personal risk management technique that could be used to treat the exposure.
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  1. Design and analysis of algorithms

Analysis & Design of Algorithms

Please answer the question in your own words, in less than 5 sentences.

Question 1

Explain the differences between java.util.Vector and java.util.ArrayList.

Question 2

Explain the differences between java.util.ArrayList and java.util.LinkedList.

Question 3

Explain the differences between java.util.TreeMap and java.util.TreeSet.

Question 4

Explain the differences between java.util.SortedSet and java.util.SortedMap.

Question 5

Explain the differences between java.util.HashMap and java.util.HashSet.

Question 6

Explain the differences between java.util.TreeMap and java.util.HashMap.

Question 7

Explain the differences between java.util.HashSet and java.util.TreeSet.

  1. Software design and construction quiz

Please answer correctly all the questions below and justify where applicable.

QUESTION 1

Not yet answered

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QUESTION TEXT

You have been tasked with implementing an entreprise architecture strategy at VIU. Which framework would be the most useful?

Select one:

  1. TOGAF
  2. IEEE
  3. MICROSOFT .NET
  4. JAVA

QUESTION 2

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QUESTION TEXT

What does the MVC pattern do?

Select one:

  1. IT MUST BE USED OR YOUR JAVA APPLICATION WILL NOT WORK.
  2. SEPARATES TEXT FROM GRAPHICS.
  3. IT DOES NOT REALLY DO ANYTHING.
  4. SEPARATES USER INTERFACE FROM COMPUTATION AND COORDINATION.

QUESTION 3

Not yet answered

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QUESTION TEXT

Was understanding the architecture of the ATM simulation that you did in your homework useful?

Select one:

  1. NO, IT WAS A WASTE OF TIME.
  2. YES, I UNDERSTOOD HOW THE SIMULATION WORKS AT A HIGH LEVEL.
  3. YES, IT ENABLED ME TO DEBUG THE CODE IN DETAIL.
  4. NO, THE CODE IS WHAT MATTERS.

QUESTION 4

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QUESTION TEXT

Is there a difference between the old mainframe architecture and the new cloud architecture?

Select one:

  1. WHY ARE WE TALKING ABOUT MAINFRAMES NOW? THEY WERE BEFORE I WAS BORN.
  2. YES, THE CLOUD USES THE INTERNET OR THE NETWORK IN GENERAL. MAINFRAMES DID NOT.
  3. NO, THEY ARE EXACTLY THE SAME.
  4. MAINFRAMES DID NOT HAVE AN ARCHITECTURE.

QUESTION 5

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QUESTION TEXT

Do you think that computer programs can solve Rubic Cube puzzles?

Select one:

  1. YES, IT HAS BEEN DONE.
  2. NO WAY, ONLY THE BAMBOZZLERS CAN.
  3. NO. RUBIC IS SMARTER THAN ANY COMPUTER.
  4. YES, BUT ONLY FAKE RUBIC CUBES.

QUESTION 6

NOT YET ANSWERED

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QUESTION TEXT

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Object Oriented Programming?

Select one:

  1. WELL DEFINED INTERFACES
  2. MODULARITY
  3. AGILITY
  4. INFORMATION HIDING

 

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QUESTION 7

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QUESTION TEXT

Which of the following is not an architectural style?

Select one:

  1. CONNECTOR.
  2. LAYERED.
  3. CLIENT-SERVER
  4. PEER-TO-PEER.

QUESTION 8

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QUESTION TEXT

Can we simulate a client server architecture containing one server and three clients using one computer?

Select one:

  1. YES, BUT THE COMPUTER MUST BE OPERATING A LINUX OR UNIX OPERATING SYSTEM.
  2. YES, YOU CAN, IT’S DONE ALL THE TIME.
  3. NO, YOU NEED 4 COMPUTERS.
  4. NO, YOU NEED ONE COMPUTER.

QUESTION 9

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Do you think that software architecture can enhance software reliability?

Select one:

  1. IN SOFTWARE ENGINEERING WE DON’T CARE ABOUT RELIABILITY.
  2. I REALLY DON’T KNOW.
  3. YES, A GOOD ARCHITECTURE CAN ENHANCE RELIABILITY.
  4. NO. THEY ARE NOT RELATED.

QUESTION 10

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QUESTION TEXT

What is software efficiency?

Select one:

  1. HIGHEST NUMBER OF LINES OF CODE.
  2. LOW COST.
  3. HIGH OCTANE.
  4. BEST USE OF RESOURCES.

QUESTION 11

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QUESTION TEXT

Is user-friendliness a functional or non-functional property?

Select one:

  1. NON-FUNCTIONAL.
  2. NEITHER.
  3. BOTH.
  4. FUNCTIONAL.

QUESTION 12

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Does architecture-based design help meet non-functional properties?

Select one:

  1. THERE IS NO RELATIONSHIP.
  2. YES, IT DOES.
  3. IS THIS A TRICK QUESTION?
  4. NO, IT DOES NOT.

QUESTION 13

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QUESTION TEXT

What is a method for handling exceptions used in java applications?

Select one:

  1. HIDE … POUNCE.
  2. LISTEN … CORRECT.
  3. WATCH …. GRAB.
  4. TRY … CATCH.

QUESTION 14

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QUESTION TEXT

What is the role of connectors in software architecture.

Select one:

  1. THEY CONNECT COMPUTER HARDWARE.
  2. THEY HAVE NO ROLE.
  3. THEY CONNECT DEVELOPERS AND CUSTOMERS.
  4. THEY CONNECT THE COMPONENTS THAT PERFORM THE COMPUTATIONS.

QUESTION 15

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QUESTION TEXT

Which of the following is an example of a Connector?

Select one:

  1. REMOTE PROCEDURE CALL.
  2. BACKING UP FILES.
  3. PARALLEL COMPUTATIONS.
  4. GRAPHICS PROCESSING.

QUESTION 16

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QUESTION TEXT

What are the basic elements of software architecture that you studied in this course?

Select one:

  1. COMPONENTS, CONTROLLERS, VIEWERS
  2. COMPONENTS, PACKAGES, SUB-PACKAGES, AND MODULES.
  3. COMPONENTS, CONNECTORS, INTERFACES AND CONFIGURATION.
  4. PROJECTS, PACKAGES, COMPONENTS, AND CLASSES.

QUESTION 17

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What was the contribution of Roy Fielding to the World Wide Web architecture?

Select one:

  1. HE INVENTED THE WEB.
  2. HE DEVELOPED THE REST ARCHITECTURAL FRAMEWORK.
  3. WHO IS ROY FIELDING ANYWAY?
  4. HE DID NOT MAKE ANY CONTRIBUTIONS.

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What was the contribution of Roy Fielding to software architecture?

Select one:

  1. HE INTRODUCED AN ARCHITECTURE SUGGESTING HOW THE WEB SHOULD FUNCTION.
  2. HE DEFINED RULES FOR HOW THE UNIVERSE SHOULD FUNCTION.
  3. HE CREATED THE AGILE APPROACH TO SOFTWARE DEVELOPMENT.
  4. HE INVENTED MICROSOFT EXPLORER BROWSER.

QUESTION 19

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QUESTION TEXT

Can you generate code from architecture in Object-Oriented Programming?

Select one:

  1. ME? NO WAY.
  2. NO, THAT IS IMPOSSIBLE.
  3. YES, BUT ONLY IF THE PROGRAM HAS ONE CLASS.
  4. YES, THERE ARE TOOLS THAT HELP WITH THAT.

QUESTION 20

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QUESTION TEXT

How do you think software developers view the UML 2.0 standard?

Select one:

  1. THEY ALL HATE IT AND NEVER USE IT.
  2. SOFTWARE DEVELOPERS DON’T CARE ABOUT UML. THEY JUST WRITE CODE.
  3. THEY ALL LOVE IT.
  4. MANY THINK THAT IT’S TOO COMPLICATED AND USE A SIMPLIFIED SUBSET OF IT.

 

  1. ​Create a small GUI application

Create a GUI application that displays 4 text fields, and 4 label fields and two buttons. The layout is up to you, but must be logical. A number is entered into each text field. When the “Calculate” button is pressed the application will calculate the following and display the results in each of the four label fields.

Sum of the four values

Product of the four values

The smallest value

The largest of the values

The exit button will exit the application.

  1. Sport Management and Drugs

Sports Management:

  • Describe your current knowledge regarding drugs and alcohol. Elaborate as much as possible on specific drugs.
  • What influences you to use or not use drugs and/or alcohol? Describe your beliefs, ideas, and situations that influence this decision. How did your parents and/or older siblings influence this decision? Why do these things have such an impact on your decision?
  • Describe these thoughts in detailed paragraphs. Please be honest in your responses. (These will only be read by me.)

Your paper should be at least 2 pages in length (double spaced, font size of <14). Be sure you answer each question!

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  1. Capital Budgeting

Question

Regis International Corporation (RIC), a Denver based technology company, has been applying its expertise in microprocessor technology to develop a small computer specifically designed to control home appliances.  Once programmed, the computer would automatically control the heating and air-conditioning system, hot water heater, and even small appliances such as coffee makers.  By increasing the energy efficiency of a home, the appliance control computer can save on costs hence pay for itself in a few years.  This effort has now reached the stage where a decision on whether or not to go forward with production must be made.

RIC’s marketing department plans to target sales of the appliance control computer to the owners of larger homes – the computer is cost effective only on homes with 2,000 or more square feet of heated/air-conditioned space.  The marketing vice-president forecasts sales in 2018 to be $40 million and to increase by 6 percent per year.  The engineering department has estimated that the firm would need a new manufacturing plant; this plant could be built and made ready for production in 1 year, once the “go” decision is made.  The plant would require a 25-acre site, and RIC currently has an option to purchase a suitable tract of land for $1.2 million; the land option must be exercised on December 31, 2016.  Building construction would begin in early 2017 and would continue through the end of 2017.  The building, which would fall into the MACRS 39-year class (ignore any half-year convention), would cost an estimated $8 million, payable on December 31, 2017.

span class=”Apple-converted-space”>  The equipment, which would fall into the MACRS 7-year class, would have a cost of $6.5 million, including transportation, plus another $500,000 for installation.

span class=”Apple-converted-space”>  The initial working capital investment would be made on December 31, 2017, and on December 31 of each following year, net working capital would be increased by an amount equal to 12 percent of any sales increase expected during the coming year.  The project’s estimated economic life is 6 years.  At that time, the land is expected to have a market value of $1.7 million, the building a value of $1.0 million, and the equipment a value of $2 million.  The production department has estimated the variable manufacturing costs would total 65 percent of dollar sales, and that fixed overhead costs, excluding depreciation, would be $8 million for the first year of operation.  Fixed overhead costs, other than depreciation, are projected to increase with inflation which is expected to average 6 percent per year over the 6 year life of the project.

RIC’s marginal tax rate (federal and state) is 40 percent; its weighted average cost of capital is 15%; and the company’s policy, for capital budgeting purposes, is to assume that operating cash flows occur at the end of each year.  Since the plant would begin operations on January 1, 2018, the first operating cash flows would thus occur on December 31, 2018.  The capital gains tax rate is the same as the ordinary income tax rate.

As one of the company’s financial analysts, you have been assigned the task of supervising the capital budgeting analysis.  For now, you may assume that the project has the same risk as the firm’s current average project, and hence you may use the corporate cost of capital, 15 percent, for this project.  Calculate the NINV, NPV, IRR, and payback period for the appliance control computer project.  Create Best Case and Worst Case scenarios based on the Sales number only.  Assume the Best and Worst are +/- 25% for Revenues.

In addition to showing the values for the NINV, FCFs, NPV, IRR, and payback period, please provide a copy of your spreadsheet that shows your calculated values for the initial investment, the cash flows, and the salvage value.

 

  1. Moment of Inertia

Question

A constant t A large wheel in the shape of a cylinder with a 0.333 m radius is free to rotate on a frictionless vertical axle. A constant tangential force of 250 N applied to the edge causes an angular acceleration of 0.94 rad/sec2. What is the moment of inertia of the wheel? What is the mass of the wheel? If the wheel starts at rest, what is its angular velocity after 5.0 sec?

  1. Why was grassroots conservatism particularly strong in the Sun Belt in the 1970s and 1980s?

Question

  1. Why was grassroots conservatism particularly strong in the Sun Belt in the 1970s and 1980s? Book used is an American promise with a concise history.  I need question answered with a 5 paragraph summary. one introduction, 3 for body and one conclusion.
  2. What developments in Americans society in the 1950s were at odds with prevailing norms and values?

Question

  1. What developments in Americans society in the 1950s were at odds with prevailing norms and values? Book used an American promise with concise history. I need a simple 5 paragraph essay with key terms please.

 

  1. Question from the Preston Plant Case Study

Question

What are the most significant events in the story of how the plant survived because of its adoption of quality-based principles?

  1. Data warehouse

Question

You are a senior analyst in the IT department of a company manufacturing automobile parts. The marketing Vice President (VP) is complaining about the poor response by IT in providing strategic information.

  • Draft a proposal for VP to introduce the concept of business intelligence.
  • How data warehousing and analytics as part of business intelligence for your company would be the optimal solution

 

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  1. Individual Programmatic Assessment paper

Question

Select a neurological, psychological, or neurodevelopmental disorder.

Write a 2,450- to 3,500-word paper comparing and contrasting three therapeutic interventions used to treat this disorder. Compare measures of effectiveness, such as validity, efficacy, symptom and behavior management, and recidivism. One therapy should be cognitive in nature, one should be pharmacological in nature, and the third should be an alternative therapeutic treatment.

Identify common symptoms associated with your disorder and rates of symptom reduction or management as reported with the three treatments. Based on your research, what would be your approach to treating the condition? Identify which treatments you would use. Explain why.

Analyze the neurophysiological underpinnings of diseases and disorders.

Examine contemporary attitudes toward the three treatments you selected.

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

Include 7 to 10 peer-reviewed sources.

 

  1. Week five discussion

Question

Students need to contribute eight substantive posts in this discussion by the due date indicated. The substantive posts can be any combination of responses and replies. Here are our topics!

 

What are some neurodevelopmental disorders resulting from toxic chemicals? Do you think these disorders can be prevented? If so, how? If not, why not?

 

What are effective disorders? How might they have an impact on functioning?

  1. Homework:LCM and GCF Review

Question

Ms. James is making fruit baskets. She has 15 apples and 6 oranges. She wants to make all fruit baskets identical without having any pieces of fruit left over. What is the greatest number of fruit baskets Ms. James can make?(Hint:GCF)

  1. Chem Help

Question

The salt sodium formate, NaCHO2(s), completely dissociates into Na+(aq) and CHO2−(aq) in an aqueous environment. The Na+ ion has no acid or base properties, but the formate ion is the conjugate base of the weak acid, formic acid.

Part a. Write a balanced chemical equation showing how the formate ion reacts with water to affect the pH of the resulting solution (you can ignore the sodium ion in your balanced equation).

Part b. Find the pH of a 0.100 M solution of sodium formate, NaCHO2.  The Ka for formic acid is 1.8×10−4.

I know the equation is HCOOH(s) + H2O(l) ⇆ CHO2−(aq) + H3O+(aq) but I don’t understand how to get the pH.

 

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  1. Colgate Canada

Question

Given that Colgate Canada plans to hike its marketing spend by $3 million for the toothpaste category, how would you spend it?

  1. Information Communication Technology

Question

Subject: Information Technology.

Question: Project Work on Poultry farm monitoring using technology such as sensors and internet.

Instructions:

*Introduction

*Literature Review

*Methodology

*System Design Analysis

*Implementation and Conclusion

*Reference

*Software

  1. What is an integrated marketing commutation?

Question

Please find at least one article which helps to define integrated marketing communication, share it with the class and use it to help provide your take on what integrated marketing communication means. Please use a credible source to locate your article. A mainstream marketing publication like Brandweek, or Adweek is fine, but an academic journal article is even better. Spend a little time describing the importance of integration and what exactly we are striving to integrate. Please source your article in your post.

 

  1. Marketing

Question

Please read the ATTACHMENT (Ivey) Colgate Palmolive Canada case study. Then discuss one important issue that needs to be addressed by Colgate based on the case and why. Their are several issues just discuss one.

Write 8 complete sentences.

  1. General Assignment

Question

In a certain community, 8 percent of all adults over 50 have diabetes. If a health service
in this community correctly diagnoses 95 percent of all persons with diabetes as having the disease and incorrectly diagnoses 2 percent of all persons without diabetes as having the disease, and the probabilities that, (a) the community health service will diagnose an adult over 50 as having diabetes. (b) a person over 50 diagnosed by the health service as having diabetes actually has the disease.

 

  1. Week 6 discussion question

Question

I do not need a paper. This is discussion question. I need 8 different 150 word answers to the question below. I need to post 8 times for discussion questions below.

Students need to contribute eight substantive posts in this discussion by the due date indicated. The substantive posts can be any combination of responses and replies. Here are our topics!

 

Do you believe that drug abuse/dependence (i.e., the tendency toward addiction) is hereditary? Why or why not?

 

From a psychological what do you think are the most important aspects of drug use? (e.g., reinforcement, brain regions that mediate rewarding feelings, cravings, etc). What are some areas that would be challenging from a treatment perspective?

  1. Stats Discrete Probability Distribution Questions

Question

Suppose that past history show that 60% of students prefer Brand C cola. A sample of 5 students is selected.

What is the probability that exactly 3 of the 5 students selected will prefer brand C

Suppose that past history show that 60% of students prefer Brand C cola. A sample of 5 students is selected.

What is the probability that at least 3 of the 5 students selected will prefer brand C?

Suppose that past history show that 60% of students prefer Brand C cola. A sample of 5 students is selected.

What is the probability that at most 2 of the 5 students selected will prefer brand C?

  1. Finance

Question

During a year of operation, a firm collects 175,000 in revenue and spends 80,000 on raw materials, labor expenses, utilities, and rent. The owners of the firm provided 500,000 of their own money to the firm instead of investing the money and earning a 14 percent annual rate of return

What’s the explicit cost of the firm?

What’s the implicit cost of the firm?

Total economic cost?

Total accounting cost?

 

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  1. Google Internet Inc

Question

Google Internet, Inc. is evaluating its cost of capital under alternative financing arrangements. In consultation with investment bankers, the company expects to be able to issue new debt at par with a coupon rate of 8% and to issue new preferred stock with a ksh. 2.50 per share dividend at ksh. 25 a share. The common stock of the company is currently selling for ksh. 20.00 a share. Google expects to pay a dividend of ksh. 1.50 per share next year. Market analysts foresee a growth in dividends at a rate of 5% per year. Google’s corporation’s tax rate is 30%.

Required:

Calculate the component cost of capital for the three sources of finance to Google Company.

  1. Write a 3 to 4-page essay (1 ½ spaced, one-inch margins) discussing how the use of electronic devices impacts on these three sources of philosophy: sense experience, leisure, and wonder.

How to Write a Paper

 

Every paper needs a title, an introductory paragraph, a body, and a concluding paragraph.

 

For an academic paper you want to pick a title that would allow a reader who was researching your topic to be able to find your paper on a database.  If you can make the title sound intriguing so much the better; however, it is more important that the title gives the reader an accurate idea of the paper’s content.  Vague titles are virtually useless.  If your paper is specifically on whether squirrels remember where they hid nuts, and you entitled it “Squirrels” or “Memory in Animals” the person who wanted to know about whether squirrels remember where they hid nuts is not going to readily find your paper in a database, if he or she finds it at all.

 

The introductory paragraph should explain to your reader exactly what you intend to do in the paper.  It should also try to gain the reader’s interest by displaying the importance of the topic.  You should state in a very general way what your conclusion or conclusions are.

 

In the body you present your various arguments for the conclusion or conclusions that you draw.  It is important to define the relevant terms.  It is always useful to consider viewpoints contrary to your own, to the extent that space allows for it, and to give a reason for why you rejects them.  In regard to some topics, you yourself may argue both that something is good in one way for reason X, but bad in another way for reason Y.  Being one-sided is a huge flaw in a philosophy paper.

 

The concluding paragraph should mirror the opening paragraph, except now you can summarize why you conclude what you conclude, as your reader will now readily follow what you are talking about.

 

[     ] Title was missing or inappropriate

[   ] YOU DID NOT WRITE AN APPROPRIATE INTRODUCTORY PARAGRAPH – reread How to Write a Paper

[    ] YOU DID NOT WRITE AN APPROPRIATE CONCLUDING PARAGRAPH

[     ] YOU DID NOT DEFINE/DESCRIBE ONE OR MORE OF THE SOURCES IN TERMS OF IT BEING A SOURCE OF PHILOSOPHY.

[     ]  YOU DID NOT STAY ON TOPIC (The paper is not about the impact of electronic devices on human life in general, but on their impact on three specific sources of philosophy.)

[    ] YOU DID NOT GIVE PROS (THE BENEFITS) of electronic devices in regard to some or all of the sources.

[    ] YOU DID NOT GIVE CONS (THE NEGATIVES) of electronic devices in regard to some or all of the sources.

[    ] YOU DID NOT SUFFICIENTLY ADDRESS ONE OR MORE OF THE BELOW:

Is the answer that comes up on a search engine always true?

Even if it is true, in the case of a philosophical question, is it an answer for the person who googled it simple b/c s/he has read what comes up?

What has to be the case in order for a philosophical question to be an answer for you?

Tie the above in with the notion of double ignorance.

[     ] Answers to philosophical questions referred to as “information.”  “Information” is typically a contingent truth (one that could be other), such as where is the nearest Starbucks or how to change a print cartridge for a given printer (that Starbucks could close and that printer could have had another design).  Philosophy seeks to know unchanging truths concerning the nature of things and their causes.

[      ] Paper would be improved by additional reflections.

 

  1. Computer Science

Instruction

Briefly describe Windows PowerShell and Linux Shell scripts. Find or create a short PowerShell script or a Linux shell script. Briefly summarize what the script does. Then, post the script as text in your answer and a screenshot of the output after running the script. If you find it somewhere, please give the source (e.g. URL) of your finding and author name if available.

Write about 150-200 words Provide citations and references for any sources

 

  1. Business

Instruction

Marketing Case Analysis Paper- This assignment requires an analysis of a case (stated in the textbook). All of the requirements on the rubric needs to be addressed in the analysis. I will provide the rubric and screenshots of the case analysis once I assignment the homework.

  1. Religious Studies

Writing Instructions:

 

Your journal will have three sections:

 

  1.  Introduction: (about two pages/600 words).  This should contain a brief description of the storyline of which this meditation is a part.  Answer the five basic questions of meaning regarding your meditation experience:
  2. Where do you come from?
  3. Where do you want to go?
  4. What obstacles must you overcome to get there?
  5. What is your plan to do that?
  6. What kind of help can you expect?

 

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  1. Meditating:  Ideally, you need to meditate for about 25 minutes once a day, for a period of seven days.  If you miss a day, or cut short the time, you will need to add it later.  You can break these up in the beginning but you need to aim for doing twenty-five minutes at one time.  I do not advise doing any one sitting for longer than that.  If you want to go longer, alternate the sitting meditations with walking meditations.

 

III.      Journal Entries:  Don’t wait!  Immediately after every sitting, write at least two hundred words detailing your experience.  All you really need to do is make some notes which you can polish later, but get them down as soon as you can!

 

As much as possible, just report your actions, thoughts and feelings, as clearly and as accurately as possible.  Pay special attention to the physical sensations that go with the thoughts and emotions, and the thoughts and emotions that go with the physical sensations.  Also note the changes in your body, mind, emotions, etc. that went on during the meditation.  Until you get all these into your notes, avoid interpretation.  Time spent interpreting these should be reserved for later, at least until you get the bare experience recorded in your notes.

 

The following questions are meant to prompt your recollection for journal entries.  You need not answer all of them in every journal entry, nor to exclude other questions and concerns:

 

  1. What was your state of mind to begin?

 

  1. What exercises and actions did you take during the session, including changes from pervious meditations?

 

  1. What did you find most difficult?

 

  1. What changes took place in your mental and physical state?

 

  1. To what extent was your meditation dominated by particular thoughts, images, feelings, etc?

 

  1. What insights or inspirations did you experience?

 

  1. What memories and associations came through your steam of consciousness?

 

  1. Conclusion: (300-500 words) This section should consist of three parts:

 

  1. Answer all the same questions that you did in the introduction, but now from hindsight interpreting what actually happened. Compare and contrast these two narratives.

 

  1. Briefly state how this experience corresponds to anything you encountered in the readings for class.

 

  1. Briefly state what you learned from meditating. What do you know now that you did not know before?  With what questions did this experience leave you?

 

  1. General

Instruction

In this essay, you will present your own Personal Philosophy of Success, identifying the On Course success strategies that you will use for years to come. This essay is your opportunity to write the script that will keep you on course to a rich, personally fulfilling life! (2-3 pages) An “A” paper will . . . Demonstrate the writer’s careful consideration of one or more On Course success strategies. Contain extensive support (examples, experiences, evidence, and/or explanation) for each strategy, and Show a commitment to excellence in preparation, including professional appearance and a command of Standard English.

 

  1. Judicial Activism

Instruction

Judicial Activism Write a 2-3 page, APA style paper on judicial activism. Present the arguments on both sides of the question as to whether judges should interpret or simply apply the Constitution. Research and provide more current examples (the current Supreme Court docket) and predict how you think the justices will decide. Then think about the idea that if one can predict the decisions of the justices on the Supreme Court–where does that leave the idea that no case is prejudged? Please include 2-3 references. Only one reference may be from an internet source (not Wikipedia) the other references must be located in the Grantham University Online Library. Only the body of the paper will count toward the page requirement. Include a title sheet. Please see the rubric below.

 

  1. Simio program

IMfgE. 565 -SYSTEMS SIMULATION

PROJECT Step 1

20 points

 

Objective: You are to conduct a simulation study of a system that includes one or two queues.  This will include the steps in the simulation study covered in class (hand out will be provided).  The goal of your study is to construct a valid simulation model of the system as it currently exists.  This will include the collection of data for use as input to your simulation.

Projects will be conducted in groups of two or three.  As an example, assume that we are modeling a queue(s) in the RSC bookstore and you have examined the system and chosen a queue or queues to be modeled.  In your analysis of the system keep in mind:

  1. a) The elements of a queuing system.
  2. b) Performance measures of a queuing system described in Chapter 2 of your ARENA text.

 

Turn in a report that includes the following:

1) Decide on the boundaries and limits of your system.  For now consider:

  1. a) Time – We are interested in the busiest time of the day. State beginning and end points?.  Is there a day of the week effect? i.e. Are some days busier than others?  If so, what days will you analyze?
  2. b) What are the physical entry and exit points to the system?
  3. c) What is the initial state of the system?

 

2) How much detail will you include?  Your level of detail depends upon the output.  You want to capture the essence of the system.  (Note: Since level of effort is a part of your grade, too little detail will result in a reduction in points)

  1. a) Are there different kinds of customers?
  2. b) What kinds of servers (manpower)?
  3. c)

 

3) Draw a logical diagram of the system. Include:

  1. a) What will be flowing through your system (food, customers, and money)?
  2. b) Where are the entry and exit points?
  3. c) Where are the servers (manpower)?

 

4) Construct a flow chart of the process.

5) What are the inputs to your systems (stochastic and deterministic)? List data to be collected.

6) How will you validate the system? i.e. Validation of the system will be performed using the number of customers that have gone through the system.

 

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IMfgE. 565 -SYSTEMS SIMULATION

 

PROJECT Step 1

SAMPLE

Goal: This project will model the checkout queue in the RSC bookstore.

 

System boundaries:

Time:

Look at one of the busiest times of the day: 4:30 – 5:30pm.  The system was inspected during weekdays only.  There was a day of week effect in that Fridays was least busy.  This study will only consider Mon. though Thurs.

Physical entry points:

Entrance and exits to the system are the natural entrance and exit points to the bookstore.

Initial state:

After several, days of observation, the state of the system was found to be busy with a few customers in the system (in service, in queues, in store).

Detail:

There are two types of customers:  customers that leave without buying anything (A), and customers that buy something (B).  There are 2 banks of cash registers, but a single queue feeding all of them, so this will be modeled as a FIFO.  There are 6 servers, and each customer will go to the next available server.

Logical Diagram:

RSC Book Store
Proportion of A and B customers.
Check out Queue
Time spent in system.
Processing time (time to service one customer).
6 servers
A
B
 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

B

 

Inter-arrival times.

 

 

 

 

Inut:

 

 

 

INPUT:

  1. Deterministic:
    1. Number of check out clerks = 6.
    2. Types of customers = 2 (A and B).
  2. Stochastic (data collection)
    1. Probability of customer type.
    2. Time between arrivals data.
    3. Time spent in bookstore.
    4. Processing time at check out counter.
    5. Time in system for Type B customers (validation data).

 

VALIDATION:  Validation of the system will be based on the time in the system for Type B customers.

 

 

 

 

Flow Chart:

 

  1. White Collar Crime

Instruction

White Collar Crime I Have to do What? This chapter discusses the differences between self-policing and traditional policing. In 1-2 pages, compare and contrast self- policing efforts with traditional policing efforts. In your opinion which model is better? Explain why.

 

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  1. PHI 101 Short paper assignment

Instruction

Metaphysics, epistemology, logic, ethics, and aesthetics are the major branches of philosophy. You need to write a brief paper about one of them. You need to do a little research and then describe in your paper what the branch of philosophy is AND why it’s important. Make your paper between 400 to 500 words. You need to cite at least one book or scholarly journal. No websites, wikis, or encyclopedias!! Submitting your assignment: 1) Write your essay in a word procession program. (Word, Google Docs, whatever fake thing Apple uses, etc…) 2) Then, copy the essay from the document, and paste it into the Blackboard “Text Submission” – “Write Submission” section. 3) Make sure that you save your original document. So, if anything goes wrong, you can resubmit. 4) Check the box to allow SafeAssign to check your work.

 

  1. Nursing Final Term Paper Nursing Theory Comparison (Major )Transcultural Nursing (formerly Culture-Care) – Madeleine Leininger (Middle Range)Marion Good & Shirley Moore – Acute Pain Management (Adults)

Instruction

Choose one grand nursing theory and one middle-range theory and have them approved by your instructor. Write an 10 page comparison paper based on your approved theories. Based on the reading assignment (McEwen & Wills, Theoretical Basis for Nursing, Theories, select a grand nursing theory. • After studying and analyzing the approved theory, write on this theory, which includes an overview of the theory and specific examples of how it could be applied in your own clinical setting. • After studying and analyzing the approved theory, write on this theory, which includes an overview of the theory and specific examples of how it could be applied in your own clinical setting. The following should be included: • An introduction, including an overview of both selected nursing theories • Background of the theories • Philosophical underpinnings of the theories • Major assumptions, concepts, and relationships • Clinical applications/usefulness/value to extending nursing science testability • Comparison of the use of both theories in nursing practice • Specific examples of how both theories could be applied in your specific clinical setting • Parsimony • Conclusion/Summary • References: Use the course text and a minimum of three additional sources, listed in APA (6th ed.) format The paper should be 8–10 pages long and based on instructor-approved theories. It should be typed in Times New Roman using 12-point font, and double-spaced with 1″ margins. APA format (6th ed.) must be used, including a properly formatted cover page and reference list. The proper use of headings in APA format is also required.

 

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  1. General

Instruction

Module 4

 

For this assignment, I want you to create a Windshield survey of your community.  This is to be a fun assignment and one I hope you will learn from. use your hometown!  The reason for this assignment is so you can learn and show us about where you grew up and how your environment and its resources affect your daily life.

 

 

Windshield surveys are a form of direct observation that involves making visual observations of a neighborhood or community while driving—literally “looking through the windshield.”

The purpose of the windshield survey is to gain a better understanding of the environment you are studying to provide insight to the resources available in a community. Specifically, windshield surveys allow for the observation of neighborhood boundaries, housing conditions, use of open spaces, shopping areas, schools, religious facilities, human services (such as hospitals and physician offices), modes of transportation, protective services (such as fire stations), and overall neighborhood life within the community. “Windshield” surveys can even be conducted on foot if a vehicle is not available. Here is a link to help you with understanding what I am wanting:

http://www.ehow.com/how_5006863_perform-windshield-survey.html

Perform a Windshield Survey of a community you choose.  With this assignment, I want you to learn more about your community, what is available and what you can give back to your community.  I also hope this will let you see from a “different perspective” what your community has to offer and any opportunities that you might find that are available from a job status in your community.

After you complete your survey, you will create a presentation about your experience.  So you will have at least two documents.  Here are some helpful tips to creating a ‘great’ presentation:

TIPS

Ø  You might want to take someone with you to be the ‘driver’ while you observe the community.

Ø  Take a digital camera.  You’ll want to get some photos to document what you find.  The pictures will also add value to your presentation.

Ø  Take a pad of paper and something to write with; you’ll want to stop and take some notes.

o   Make notes, but don’t get bogged down in the ‘details.’

Ø  You can interview someone in the community if you can’t find the information you want.

Ø  Stop and have something to eat or drink and observe what goes on around you.  Who is there? What are they talking about? What is the latest ‘buzz’ in the town?

Ø  If this is a community you know well, you’ll be challenged to NOT make a biased survey.  To avoid bias, you might want to go to the next town/community down the road and observe that community.

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Ø

 

Please use the following as criteria for both observing your “community of choice” and writing the final report.  This will be a paper different from your presentation.  No pictures will be in this paper only the data questioned below.

 

Paper:  (80 points) Label the paper with the heading you are discussing.

 

  1.  Boundaries (5 pts.) Identify the boundaries for the entire community. You can include a map, highlighting the city limits or just describe the location.
  2. Housing (5 pts.) How old are the houses.  Are they of particular style?  What materials are they made from? How well are the homes maintained? What kinds of multiple family dwellings exist (apartments, duplexes, and subsidized housing complexes)? Are there vacant houses? Is this an established community or is there a lot of new construction? Are there for-sale signs, for rent signs? What does the housing indicate about the income level of the residents?
  3. Signs of decay and/or pollution (5 pts.) Identify if there are poorly maintained homes, trash in streets, garbage-filled vacant land, etc. Describe any evidence of water, air, and/or ground pollution.
  4. Parks, recreational areas (5 pts.) Are there parks and/or playgrounds? Are they being used? What is their condition? What recreational areas or facilities were observed?
  5. Transportation (5 pts.) What forms of transportation do you see people using? Is public transportation available? How well are streets and highways maintained? Is there traffic congestion?
  6. Health and social service agencies (5 pts.) What social service agencies, including health care facilities, are in the area you surveyed? (MAP IT!)  What gaps in services did you observe?
  7. Economics (5 pts.) List the location, number, and type of industries you observe. Who are the major employers?
  8. Protective services (5 pts.) What evidence do you see of police and fire protection; sanitation services; water treatment plants?
  9.  Faith/Religion (5 pts.) List the number and types of religious facilities.
  10. Schools (5 pts.) List the location, type (e.g., private, public, vocational education), level (elementary, intermediate, middle school or junior high school, high school, college) and number of schools.
  11. General (5 pts.) Is there evidence of gangs (describe how you know whether there is gang activity present.)?  How do billboards/signs reflect information about character of the community (e.g., political affiliation, adult entertainment)? Describe the downtown area.  What cultural and ethnic groups are represented?
  12. Subjective feeling (5 pts.) How do you feel, being in the community? Do you feel comfortable? Are people friendly? Would this area be one in which you would live and/or work? Explain.
  13. Problem identification/ community needs (10 pts.) Based on your observations in the Windshield Survey, comprehensively identify any presenting problems (including gaps in service) in the community you surveyed. Be sure to identify problems.  You may want to talk to a few “key informants” or “gatekeepers” to help you with this.  This should be a detailed explanation of what you feel and others believe are problems in your community.  Reasons for non-growth?
  14. Community Strengths (10 pts.) Did you observe any community resources that may address identified problems? Develop a comprehensive list of all community strengths that you observed during your survey.  EVERY community has strengths!!  You might have to look hard, but they ARE THERE!!!This should also be a detailed explanation of what you feel and others believe are the Strengths of your community.

 

 

 

 

Module 4   Presentation Project – 40 points

 

The format for your presentation slide show should be:

  1. Introduction of your community (from Boundaries through General)
  2. Subjective feelings

III. Community needs

  1. Community assets/strengths – this is a great place to put in a photo of your communities point of pride! This could be a park, football field, local restaurant, etc.
  2. Conclusions

 

Make sure you use a presentation software that everyone can view.  .

 

You may make the presentation fancy or plain; you can use music or video; this is YOUR project and YOUR community of choice.  Have fun and make it your own. I want to see pictures of your community and only bulleted list of topics you want to discuss.

 

If the presentation is too long it will not upload correctly and you will have issues.  Limit the presentation to around 10-15 slides.

 

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  1. General

Instructions

 

Leader PowerPoint Using the guidelines provided, create a leadership PowerPoint. Grading Rubric Leader Experience: Summary in PowerPoint presentation summarizes learning experience (leader interview) with chosen leader, including 3-4 slides for each concept as follows: Content • Analyze the importance of the leader’s role to the organization and the effectiveness of the individual in the role • Relate insights and knowledge gained through the Learning experience to course and address the following concepts; (1) major role responsibilities, (2) personal leadership style of the chosen leader, (3) alignment of personal values with organization.

  1. General

Instruction

Teaching tool The Leadership Teaching Tool addresses an identified area of concern that the student has about a specific issue. Examples may include Healthy Patient Communications in the Prison System, Managing Conflict in a Critical Care Unit, Dealing with Stress while holding a Middle Management Position, Ensuring Quality Outcomes in Constrained Economic Times, etc The Teaching Tool will be in brochure format. Points will be assigned based upon the following criteria: Content • Introduce the issue being addressed, demographic data (statistics/numbers of people effected) and provide teaching information from health care providers in addressing this issue; i.e. enhancing communication, increasing quality of care, etc… (4 points) • Outline teaching interventions for this issue, the role of the healthcare provider; i.e. specific teaching interventions. (4 points) • Provide a minimum of two learning objectives at the beginning of the teaching tool

  1. Health Care

Instruction

Write a paper with evidenced based policy and reasoning explaining whether or not you believe that nurse practitioners should work independently. This would be with no physician neither signing off on anything nor supervising any of the nurse practitioner’s functions. If the NP is independent, then what would be the difference in the skills, functions, duties of the physician? Why do you feel this way? How could the present medical system go from its current state to one that functioned as in your world? Limited to 10 pages APA format

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  1. Algebra I

Instruction

Students need to complete one project and submit it before Friday of week 15. The official deadline for submission is Apr 12, 2019, before 9 PM. Format guidelines The project can be any topic in relation to algebra and its applications. However, it should NOT be on the material that is already covered in class. The students must select their own projects and articles. Important: No part of the project can be a copy and paste from anywhere, including the article under discussion (except the data and images, which need to be properly cited). If in doubt read https://ombud.msu.edu/academic-integrity/plagiarism-policy.html Turnitin has a built-in plagiarism tracker. Please use it to your advantage. The entire document should be written in APA format and should be between 4 to 10 pages in length not including images and the cover page. No extra wide margins are allowed. The margins should not be more than 1” in any direction. Choosing a topic Students must choose their own topics. Once the topic is chosen please post the topic in the following thread https://online.brooklinecollege.edu/mod/forum/view.php?id=539558 Start a new thread with the topic of your project as the subject line and post your topic in this thread. The same topic is not allowed for any two students. The student who posts a topic first gets it. Examples of viable projects: Mortgage rates Auto loan Compound interest Submission All papers should be submitted as a pdf file via the Turnitin module of Week 15. If any technical issues are encountered then contact your instructor asap. Rubric The following are the sections on which the project will be graded. A clear description of the objective of the article (20%) A clear description of the algebraic methods used (30%) Interpretation of the results (30%) Analysis of the conclusions of the article (20%) These 4 sections form the essential parts of any research article. The competence demonstrated in achieving the objective of each of these sections will be awarded accordingly. The rubric for each section and the article as a whole is 0 – Incoherent content, rambling on for pages, a clear indication of no work done, poorly chosen topic, a generic topic with no original content, copy paste from Wikipedia, a topic which is disallowed on grounds of being textbook material 1 – Some content, poorly researched, and hastily put together at the last minute 2 – Some research is done but the substance is still incoherent showing a lack of understanding 3 – Sufficient work is done, but the sections are not well-written and contain loose language and lack general cohesiveness 4 – Well researched and well-written. Minor typos, grammatical errors, lack of organization of the paper, too short a paper 5 – Excellent work, very well researched. Sections are clearly defined in terms of meaningful progress. The plan of the paper binds everything together in a cohesive manner This is applicable to each of the four sections and the whole article. So a total of 25 points possible. That will be scaled to 100 by multiplying by 4.

 

  1. Week 8 – Assignment: Interpret the Implications of Unethical Behavior

Instruction

Now is the time to compile all the concepts you have learned in this course into a comprehensive case study analysis. Assume you are an instructor presenting an unethical case study to your graduate students. Develop a PowerPoint presentation on a business of your choice. Be sure you include clear examples to support your findings. Please discuss unethical business actions that occurred from 2015 to present. Ensure to address the following key components for your student audience: Provide a brief historical summary of the organization. Identify and explain the unethical business practice examined. Reflect on ethical standards and why this practice was a violation of ethical behavior. Determine the influence of leadership in regards to this behavior. Explain any related cultural, environmental, and legal implications related to the behavior. Interpret the impact of the behavior on individuals, the organization, and society as a whole. Explain the outcome of the event, along with a comparison of the consequences (mention legal implications for the action). Determine the fairness of punishment. Explain your rationale using an ethical theory, as found in the recommended reading, to justify your rationale for the punishment’s fairness. Explain how organizational policies and procedures could be implemented to deter future occurrences like this from happening. Incorporate appropriate animations, transitions, and graphics as well as speaker notes for each slide. The speaker notes may be comprised of brief paragraphs or bulleted lists. Support your presentation with at least eight scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources may be included. Length: 15-20 slides (with a separate reference slide) Notes Length: 200-350 words for each slide Be sure to include citations for quotations and paraphrases with references in APA format and style where appropriate.

 

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  1. Week 7 – Assignment: Assess the Effectiveness of SOX Legislation

Instruction

This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions Prepare a paper in which you address the following: Identify and explain the key ethical components of SOX. Explain why financial fraud and abuse still occurs despite the passage of SOX. Recommend potential improvements of the SOX legislation based on your research. Recommend measures, beyond the scope of SOX, that organizations can implement to prevent financial statement fraud and abuse. Support your paper with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.

 

  1. Week 6 – Assignment: The Organization’s Influence on Unethical Behavior

Instruction

This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions The assigned reading articles provide a great deal of information regarding the impact that organizational systems have on unethical behavior. For example, in the article by Kilduff et al. (2016), the researchers note that rivalry can often increase unethical behaviors. This week, you will explain how an organization’s culture (e.g., systems and practices) can unknowingly/unintentionally increase unethical behavior among employees. Explain the importance of organizational culture and codes of conduct in encouraging ethical behavior. Assess three organizational policies or practices, as found in the reading and outside research, which can increase unethical behavior among employees. Propose informal and formal system solutions to reduce unethical behavior in organizations. Explain the benefits of these system solutions, as well as possible implications for these solutions. Support your paper with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic.

 

  1. Week 5 – Assignment: Critique Ethical Issues Regarding Information Technology

Instruction

You have been hired as a consultant in the IT Department at Northcentral University. One of the University’s current goals is to minimize security threats and prevent breaches. To accomplish this, you have been asked to research last year’s “major hacks” to understand technology, information security measures, and issues in security management. Prepare a report for the IT supervisor that includes the following: Select one major incident to research regarding technological breaches. Identify the company that was affected, and then describe this incident and why you selected it. Explain the implications associated with this breach, specifically in terms of privacy laws and violations of the law. Analyze the impact that these technological breaches have on consumer safety and well-being. What recommendations would you make to this organization to further protect the privacy of clients? Support your report with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic

 

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  1. Computer Science

 

Instruction

  1. Data Analysis and Reporting Class: / Is SQL database / ERDs so you will use Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio inside the VMware Horizon client. You also will use Visual Studio 2017. Also, there’s reading quizzes and assignment quizzes. These class 8 weeks work, which means 8 assignments in SQL database / ERDs. 24 quizzes “I will support you will old papers for all quizzes” 2. Data Analysis/Visualization Class: / Is an Excel database and you will use excel 2016. Also, there’s an assignment project om SAM project website. Every week assignment which means 8 assignments. 3. Predictive Data Analysis Class: / Is an Excel database and you will use excel 2016 and you will Using R programing language for Introductory Econometrics by Florian Hess. Every week assignment which means 8 assignments. I will put the syllabus here and please read it carefully and tell me if you can handle the whole classes or not. please note if you cannot take the responsibility or you’re not the right person I’m looking for please ignore this announcement. I don’t want to waste my time again! That’s all. Before you do anything READ the syllabus 1,2,3. These classes will end on May 6. So, it’s only 2 months’ work.

53 . 300-Word Philosophy Essays

Instruction

Instruction

For every 300-400 word essay. Each essay is addressing two different questions to be answered. It should not be hard at all for someone who understands philosophy. If the essays are well written I might have some other things you could help me with for the class if you’re interested.

 

  1. Health Care

Instruction

There are seven components to this paper. They follow the EBP process. You will combine all the components into one project. See attachment.

Research Methods & Evidence-Based Practice Project PICOT QUESTION: In the primary care setting, does clustering care during (acute visits) increase patient satisfaction (%) while decreasing office wait time ?

 

  1. Psychology

Instruction

Each student will be required to submit one reflection paper. For this paper, you will choose any phenomenon and explain its development from the perspective of at least 2 theories that have been presented in class powerpoint notes or in assigned reading from the text. For example, if you have noticed that a small child you know seems to always want to be near his or her mother, you could attempt to explain why this may be based on the behavioral and cognitive developmental perspectives.

 

Providing only a summary of an experience or observed phenomenon will NOT meet the requirements for the reflection paper; instead, each student MUST demonstrate that he/she can explain the chosen phenomenon using theoretical perspectives discussed in the course material to receive partial/full points for this portion of the course grade. Examples of theoretical perspectives you may choose include: behaviorism (classical and/or operant conditioning), Freud’s psychoanalytic theory, Piaget’s cognitive

 

  1. Economics

Instruction

You must have access to the MSExcel and R to complete the course assignments. Course Description: Students will apply analytical techniques informed by economic theory and probability theory to solve real-life practical problems taken from a diverse set of applications such as anticipating behavioral outcomes and estimating worst-case scenarios. • How will a change in price affect quantity demanded for a given product? • How many citizens will participate in a government program (e.g. health care reform)? • What is the likely range of financial outcomes for a specific firm or industry? • How many customers will call a support service during a given period? These questions and more will be addressed. Business students interested in any quantitative discipline will find this course useful. Course Objectives: After successfully completing the course, the student will be able to: • Apply the fundamental theories of probability in a business context • Use mathematical and statistical tools to value, summarize, and analyze various outcomes • Forecast the timing and level of various outcomes using advanced regression techniques and time series models (ARIMA). • Use Quantile Regression to look at distributional outcomes • Evaluate, critique, and comment on the assumptions made and the mathematical techniques used to analyze various problems. • Develop significant computer spreadsheet skills by implementing the theory discussed in class. • Conduct advanced data analysis using a script-based analysis tool (R).

 

  1. Writing a Python script to implement computer animation tools within Autodesk Maya

Instruction

– Resetting the software package, i.e. only one instance of the tool is allowed to be open. – Creating geometric objects, more specifically boxes (of user input dimensions and locations) and spheres (of user input radii and locations). – Creating an appropriate interface to allow a user to interact with the created objects. This should be shown by demonstrating the application of geometric transformations, more specifically translations by user input (along with the x, y, and z-axes) and rotations by a user input angle (around the x, y, and z-axes). – Exiting the tool. The attached file is an example of what it should look like.

 

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  1. Psychology Homework

Develop a research question on any of these topics only pick one of these. they are  1.attention, 2.learning, 3.memory, 4.language, or 5.decision making),

Revisit the Module One Areas of Interest and Practical Applications in Cognitive Psychology discussion topic, where you examined your interests, potential problems, and applied settings related to cognitive psychology. Building on those conversations, draft a topic suggestion by identifying your particular area of interest in cognitive psychology (attention, learning, memory, language, or decision making), select an applied setting (education, law, mental health, or technology), and describe the contemporary problem as it relates to your topic and setting. Last, draft three potential research questions that explore potential improvements related to your topic and the applied setting.

For example, if you suggested the topic of attention and online students, the applied setting would be education, and you might develop the following research questions:

  • How does multitasking while studying (e.g., listening to music while reading, or texting while reading) influence attention to course material?
  • How do individuals with ADHD perform in an online learning environment, and what strategies can help them succeed?
  • What strategies can teachers and students use to increase attention to relevant material in an online course?

The instructor will provide feedback on your topic submission and make recommendations as to which research question is most feasible to pursue, given the parameters of the final project.

59.Big Data

Compare and contrast five clustering algorithms on your own. Provide real-world examples to explain any one of the clustering algorithm. In other words, how is an algorithm beneficial for a process, industry or organization.

What clustering Algorithms are good for big data? Explain your rationale?

Please locate and review an article relevant to Chapter 4. The review is between 200-to-250 words and should summarize the article. Please include how it applies to our topic, and why you found it interesting.

 

– Please write in APA Style and include at least three (3) reputable sources. (No Plagiarism)


  1. Engineering Homework

SWOT Analysis

SWOT analysis is acronym of strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats.  SWOT analysis reveals what factors or forces work in favor or against the company on the market. These factors can be internal or external, or both.  Your assignment is to complete a SWOT of the 3 companies from your previous assignment.  You should complete this assignment in Power Point.  I would also like you to add a company overview slide before each company’s SWOT analysis.  You can use bullets or a grid for the SWOT – do what is easy for you.  I’m look for a visually appealing, but concise presentations.  In the company overview cover:

  1. Company Name
  2. Summary of what they do
  3. Number of Employees
  4. Location of Company
  5. CEO and a little of his background

Please keep this overview slide concise – I’m looking for a high-level overview followed by a SWOT analysis.


  1. Week 1 – Assignment 2

Sustainable Living Guide Contributions, Part 1 of 4: Sustaining Biodiversity and Ecosystems

[WLO: 2] [CLOs: 2, 3, 4, 5, 6]

Prior to beginning work on this assignment, read Chapters 1 and 4 in the Turk and Bensel’s Contemporary Environmental Issues textbook (2014).

The purpose of this assignment is twofold: first, to enable you to explore a term (concept, technique, place, etc.) related to this week’s theme of sustaining Earth’s biodiversity and ecosystems; second, to provide your first contribution to a collective project, the Class Sustainable Living Guide. Your work this week, and in the weeks that follow, will be gathered (along with that of your peers) into a master document you will receive a few days after the end of the course. The document will provide everyone with a variety of ideas for how we can all live more sustainably in our homes and communities.

To complete this assignment, you will

  • Select a term from the list of choices in the Week 1 – Term Selection. Reply to the forum with the term that you would like to research. Do not select a term that a classmate has already chosen. No two students will be researching the same topic.
  • Download the Week 1 Assignment Template and replace the guiding text with your own words based upon your online research. Please do not include a cover page. All references, however, should be cited in your work and listed at the end, following APA format expectations.

In the template, you will

  • Define the term thoroughly.
  • Clearly relate the term to the week’s theme.
  • Explain how the term affects living things and the physical world.
  • Relate the term to the challenge of achieving environmental sustainability.
  • Justify if the term represents an obstacle to that goal, or perhaps a technique or technology that might promote it.
  • Suggest two specific actions we can take to promote sustainability in relationship to this term.
  • Provide detailed examples to support your ideas.

Please do not include a cover page, or even place your name directly on the work. In addition to submitting this assignment to Waypoint, you will also be submitting it for anonymous peer review by classmates in Week 2.

The Sustaining Biodiversity and Ecosystems assignment

  1. Marketing

If abc has total dealers =350

Out of which 50 are exclusive dealers and sales per ecxlusive dealer is =$6.44 million

Whereas 300 are non-exclusive dealers sales per nonexclusive dealer is =$9.2k

How effectively does ABC compete in exclusive dealerships? Compare with served market data.

 

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  1. IEP Lesson Development Using Evidence-Based Strategies

We have been working with Huang throughout this course. As we continue to develop his IEP, an important component of developing this plan is to identify the EBP strategies that can be used to target each goal and objective of the program. When EBP instructional strategies are determined, they can be incorporated into lesson design and planning.

Instructions:

  • Select one of the goals that you developed for Huang in Week Two.
  • Use the What Works Clearinghouse (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. or some other source to find an evidence-based strategy for teaching the selected goal.
  • Create a sample lesson plan that can be provided to Mr. Franklin that targets the selected goal for Huang and other classmates using differentiation strategies to individualize the lesson, as well as accommodations and/or modifications. You may use one of these provided formats (Lesson Plan Sample 1 or Lesson Plan Sample 2) or use a format that you are already familiar with using.

The IEP Lesson Development Using Evidence-Based Strategies paper

  • Must be two to three double-spaced pages in length (not including title and references pages) and formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site..
  • Must include a separate title page with the following:
    • APA heading/page numbers
    • Title of paper
    • Student’s name
    • Course name and number
    • Instructor’s name
    • Date submitted
  • Must use at least two scholarly sources in addition to the course text.
  • Must document all sources in APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
  • Must include a separate references page that is formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.
  • Recommend using APA level headings to organize your work.
  1. Nursing Paper

A seven (7) page APA style paper on Quality and Safety in Nursing.

Must have a minimum three (3) peer review articles Published within the last 10 years, referenced in the paper.

Must be typed and double spaced.

The main body of the paper must be a minimum 4 pages in length.

The peer review articles that are using must be attached to the paper as an appendix. And provide a reference page.

Please upload the link for the article so that I can print it out. Please do not use Wikipedia! 

  1. Nursing Paper

APA paper 2 pages in length excluding cover page to include a minimum of one reference. Label each topic

Introduction– Define what philosophy means to you.

-Describe your personal philosophy for nursing profession.

-Describe influential experiences which impacted your decision to pursue nursing as a profession.

-Describe your professional goals

-Define what health and wellness means to you

-Conclusion

Please make sure to include proper grammer, proper word use, punctuation, sentence composition, paragraph development, sentence clarity, spelling.logical and clear essay development: easily readable(Use heading). APA style as appropriate for referencing and format and reference.

 

  1. Discussion Questions

Need the following in 150 word minimum and if references used cited in APA format.

 

  1.  What four criteria are used to define a trait as positive?
  2.  What differences led Lyubomirsky to conclude that happy and unhappy people live in separate worlds?
  3. What is the value of self-esteem as a general life outlook and a coping resource?
  4. What is the value of self-esteem as a general life outlook and a coping resource?
  5. Relationships Brochure

Create a brochure in which you communicate the following to engaged couples:

  • 1. The effect of intimate relationships on wellbeing
  • 2. Strategies to maintain healthy relationships
  1. Information Technology

The United States Supreme Court denied a petition for certiorari (refused to review the lower court’s ruling) in the case of Authors Guild v. Google, Inc., 804 F. 3d 202 – Court of Appeals, 2nd Circuit 2015.

Tell me what you would do if you were the Supreme Court.

That case let stand the ruling of the Court of Appeals which can be found at the following website:

https://scholar.google.com/scholar_case?case=2220742578695593916&q=Authors+Guild+v.+Google+Inc&hl=en&as_sdt=4000006  last accessed February 9, 2019.

Please write a 500-word summary of fair use as this court decision says it.

  1. Week 1 – Assignment 1

Stream Morphology Laboratory

[WLO: 1] [CLOs: 1, 3, 5]

This lab enables you to construct a physical scale model of a stream system to help you understand how streams and rivers shape the landscape, and how human actions can affect river ecosystems. This lab is done with materials that you will need to supply; the list of items you will need to obtain is in the Stream Morphology Investigation Manual.

The Process:

Take the required photos and complete all parts of the assignment (calculations, data tables, etc.). On the “Lab Worksheet,” answer all of the questions in the “Lab Questions” section. Finally, transfer all of your answers and visual elements from the “Lab Worksheet” into the “Lab Report.” You will submit both the “Lab Report” and the “Lab Worksheet” to Waypoint.

The Assignment:

Make sure to complete all of the following items before submission:

  • Before you begin the assignment, read the Stream Morphology Investigation Manual and review The Scientific Method (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. presentation video.
  • Complete Activity 1 and Activity 2 using the materials that you supply. Photograph each activity following these instructions:
    • When taking lab photos, you need to include in each image a strip of paper with your name and the date clearly written on it.
  • Complete all parts of the Week 1 Lab Worksheet and answer all of the questions in the “Lab Questions” section.
  • Transfer your responses to the lab questions and the data tables and your photos from the “Lab Worksheet” into the Lab Report Template.
  • Submit your completed “Lab Report” and “Lab Worksheet” through Waypoint.
  1. Answer (8-9 Sentences)

Compare contrast the stages of Erikson and Piaget. How would you take these stages into consideration while doing your job as a parent or teachers?

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  1. APA Paper

APA paper 2 pages in length excluding cover page to include a minimum of one reference.

 Label each topic (Subheadings)

Introduction: Define what philosophy means to you.

-Describe your personal philosophy for nursing profession.

-Describe influential experiences which impacted your decision to pursue nursing as a profession.

-Describe your professional goals

-Define what health and wellness means to you

-Conclusion

 

Please make sure to include proper grammar, proper word use, punctuation, sentence composition, paragraph development, sentence clarity, and spelling. Logical and clear essay development: easily readable (Use heading). APA style as appropriate for referencing and format and reference.

  1. Discussion Topic (Mapping Cloud Security Controls To Existing Frameworks Or Regulations.)

This discussion focuses on mapping cloud security controls to existing frameworks or regulations.

You will need to create 1 new thread AND post AT LEAST 2 comments on other students’ threads. Here’s how to get started:

Download the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix spreadsheet. (A quick Internet search should give you the address of the most current version for download.) Under the “Scope Applicability” heading, select a category that is applicable to the organization for which you work. For example, if your organization handle personal medical data and uses the COBIT framework, you could choose either COBIT or HIPAA/HITECH. Once you select a category, choose  row from “Control Domain” (that no other student has already selected!) Then, create a new thread in this week’s discussion with the title from column B (i.e. CCM V3.0 Control ID.) Explain the control domain, how it maps to your chosen scope, and specifically what your organization does to implement the stated control.

If you don’t know which scope applies to your organization, just use the University of the Cumberlands (UC) as your organization. As a university, we are under the domain of FERPA, So, is you choose UC, you would need to choose a Control Domain and explain how it maps to FERPA, and how UC implements the controls.

So, here’s an example. Let’s suppose I work for a large on-line retailer. We handle payment cards and are therefore under PCI DSS requirements. I’ll select BCR-03 control ID (Business Continuity Planning.) So I would create a new thread in this week’s discussion with the title “BCR-03.” Then I’d explain what BCR-03 is, what it maps to in PCI DSS (4.1, 4.1.1, 9.1, 9.2), and then I’d explain what my organization does to comply with this control requirement.

Once you create your new thread, you need to find AT LEAST 2 other threads from other students and comment on their threads. Make sure your comments are more than “I agree”, or “Good post.”

Points:  3

  1. ACCOUNTING HOMEWORK

This assessment includes two parts. Use the templates provided as you complete each part. Both of the templates are linked in the Resources under the Required Resources heading. Note that for Part 2 you will use the template for data but will create your own document to submit.

Part 1: Ratio Analysis

Making sense of accounting data on financial statements can be difficult. Thankfully, combining numbers from income statements, balance sheets, and other data provides a starting point to analyze a company’s financial results. You now have the opportunity to demonstrate your prowess by identifying and computing financial ratios.

Using the Assessment 5, Part 1 Template, analyze and compute the necessary financial ratios. The Financial Statements worksheet in the template contains the income statement, balance sheets, and additional information needed. The Ratio Analysis worksheet contains space for your calculations and answers.

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Part 2: Interpreting Financial Statement Analysis

What does the calculation of a financial statement ratio represent? How does one year compare to another? Is there a trend to the ratio data? Is the trend positive or negative? What can be done to change the trend? These are some of the questions that can be answered when the ratio data is interpreted. For this part of the assessment, demonstrate your ability to interpret the results of a multi-year financial ratio analysis.

On the Assessment 5, Part 2 Template you will find selected ratios for a company over a two-year period. Compare the ratios, and in a separate document (Word or Excel), submit your answers to the following questions:

  1. What does the calculation of each ratio represent?
  2. How does year one compare with year two, and what trend can be seen when you compare the two years?
  3. Is the trend from year one to year two positive or negative?
  4. What are the possible reasons for the trend?
  5. What recommendations do you have for turning a negative trend to a positive trend?

Submit the completed template for Part 1 and the document you created with answers to the questions for Part 2 for this assessment.

  1. Strategic Plan Part 3: Organizational Chart and Operations Chart

For the Strategic Plan assignment, you will work throughout the course to create a market entry plan (entrepreneurial), a market expansion plan for an existing organization, or a mergers and acquisitions plan that seeks to increase your organization’s competitive advantage.

Complete Part 3 of the Strategic Plan assignment according to the directions in the Part 3: Organizational Chart and Operations Chart section of the “Strategic Plan” resource.

This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

75.Social Determinants Of Health In Teenagers In Liberty City Miami,FI

Hi I need a paper on the social determinants of health in teenagers in Liberty City, Miami Florida.. the paper must talk about the social determinants of health in teenagers. this is a paper for my nursing class and the information will be used in a powerpoint. the social determinants of health that should be included in this paper include:

-neighborhood and health environment

-economic stability

– health and health care services

-education

-and others as applicable

PLEASE MAKE SURE IS BASE IN LIBERTY CITY MIAMI FLORIDA AND IS ON TEENAGERS.. ALSO PAPER MUST BE APA AND NO PLAGIARISM  SHOULD BE MAX 3 PAGES MINIMUN 2. MUST HAVE THE REFERENCE PAGE.

  1. Incidence And Health Care Access Of Teenagers In Liberty City

I need a paper on the incidence and health care access of teenagers in Liberty City Miami, Fl. This is a research that must be done so that the information can be put into a PowerPoint. I need at least 2 pages of information and it should be double spaced and follow proper apa 6th edition format. Thank you

  1. Pathophysiology Disease Paper and Presentation Congestive Heart Failure

Here are the guidelines for the patho paper you will be writing.

Pathophysiology Disease Paper and Presentation Congestive heart failure

For this assignment you will need to write a 3-page paper (not including title page or bibliography) and give a 5-10 minute presentation to the class on your topic. Make sure to create a concept map to hand out to the class that includes the information stated below. Please add some creativity to your presentation.

In your presentation you will need to include the following and create a concept map as well:

Pathophysiology of the disease process

Etiology of the disease process

Signs and symptoms (manifestations) of the disease process

Treatment of the disease process

Diagnostic test

1-2 nursing diagnosis with interventions

One NCLEX-type question for the class

One interesting piece of information about your disease process found from a reputable source outside of your textbook (this should be included as a citation in your paper. It should also be included on your reference page at the end of your paper).

  1. Discussion Question with 400 Words In APA Format With No Plagarism With References

 

Data/Information/Knowledge

  1. Discuss the relationship between data, information, and knowledge. Support your discussion with at least 3 academically reviewed articles.
  2. Why do organization have information deficiency problem? Suggest ways organizations can overcome information deficiency problems.

 

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  1. Unit VI Scholarly Activity

In the following assignment, you will be given two different questions concerning the material covered in this unit. Each question should be answered using a minimum of 250 words. Any resources, including your textbook, that are utilized to answer the questions should be cited and referenced using APA formatting. A template has been provided here for you to use to answer the questions. Enter your answers into the template, and upload the template into the assignment area within Blackboard. The questions you will be answering are shown below (and in the template).

The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) currently has a permissible exposure limit (PEL) for noise of 90 dBA at an 8-hour time-weighted average (TWA) exposure with an action level of 50% of that exposure. OSHA uses a 5 dB exchange rate (doubling rate); this means that if the exposure increases from 90 dBA to 95 dBA, the allowed exposure time decreases to one-half—from 8 hours to 4 hours.

The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) and the American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists (ACGIH) recommend using an exposure limit of 85 dBA instead of 90 dBA and also recommend using a 3 dB exchange rate. These levels are much more protective than the levels currently used by OSHA.

Discuss the merits of each of the two methods. Provide your opinion as to which of the approaches you believe should be used. Support your answer with at least one professional/scholarly reference.

OSHA does not currently have a regulation specifically covering ergonomic issues. OSHA has issued several guidelines for some specific industries. Consider a workplace you are familiar with where there is a potential for repetitive motion injuries.

Discuss what methods you would use to identify tasks that would present the greatest risk for repetitive motion injuries. How would you establish an ergonomics program to address the issues? What would be the greatest obstacles in establishing the ergonomics program?

  1. Entrance Essay Writing

Only imagine: hundreds of students applying to various schools where the approval committee is tired of checking the same papers! Now think a bit what can be done to make the committee regard your entrance essay as the most impressive one?

  1. Entrance essay performs you as a person and as a student;
  2. Entrance essay shows your writing skills: it reveals your abilities to write in a clear, concise and structured way;
  3. Entrance essay shows how creative and inventive you are;
  4. Entrance essay shows your burning and sincere desire to enroll to this very school, college or university;
  5. Entrance essay informs the committee on the way their institution may benefit from you;
  6. Entrance essay is your last resort; make sure it is memorable and impressive.
  7. Entrance Essays: Advice to Win
  8. Set teeth for the essay writing process;
  9. Forget about every day problems;
  10. Find some quiet spot;
  11. Brainstorm ideas and approaches;
  12. Write several drafts;
  13. Experiment with different beginnings and conclusions;
  14. Study the entrance essay requirements you have to follow. Make sure you meet all of them;

Study the topic suggested (as a rule, this is some question to answer), if some misunderstanding tortures you, do not hesitate to consult your committee or website that writes essays.

Focus on the topic suggested: support your ideas with concrete arguments;

Use clear transitions within the paragraphs and the entire entrance essay;

Do not lie –speak about the achievements you truly have only and give a critical evaluation of your negative traits which need improvement.

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Do not let your entrance essay be another one in the dump of papers; let it be a constituent part of your entrance success!

And:

Sample Statement of Purpose Essays: Your Best Opportunity to Prepare

What is the gist of the essay called “statement of purpose”? Why is it of great importance to every student? Well, in other words, statement of purpose essays can be defined as mere college application essays. And, you definitely know that it is a critically important part of the application process.

All students who write a statement of purpose essay have one common question “What makes statement of purpose essays effective and unique?” A good way to find this out is to put yourself into the shoes of admission officers. In their place, what would you like to see in the statement of purpose essays?

I can briefly explain you what qualities the adcom appreciates and what they want to read about in the statement of purpose essays.

Your enthusiasm about studies (sure, they do not need students who will do nothing);

Your ability to work in a team (or, your ability to communicate and cooperate with others);

Your independent thinking (they need guys with good thinking and analytical skills);

Your creativity, etc.

It is a kind of psychological portrait that an applicant should create in his/her statement of purpose essay. However, everything is not that easy with this portrait. You cannot just list your good qualities. That is why we strongly recommend you start with an analysis of the statement of purpose sample essays and check how everything works in reality. Carefully read past sample statement of purpose essays and check how successful applicants did the following:

emphasized their talents and uniqueness;

talked about their weak sides;

provided examples that supported and proved things they described.

In other words, statement of purpose essay samples will help you understand what a good application is and is not.

  1. Discussion Board 150 To 200 Words

As discussed in the Unit VI Lesson, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) published a final ergonomics program standard on November 14, 2000, which took effect January 16, 2001. Congress passed Senate Joint Resolution 6, which rescinded the original ergonomics rule that, under the Congressional Review Act, prohibited OSHA from issuing a rule that is substantially the same as the former one. Since 2001, OSHA has issued several ergonomics guidelines for some specific industries, and OSHA can cite ergonomic hazards only under the General Duty Clause.
What are your thoughts about the way Congress rescinded the original ergonomics rule and how OSHA currently regulates ergonomic hazards in the workplace?

  1. English homework

Provide substantive content and formatting feedback for a classmate’s expository essay.   You are being asked to act as an interested reader and respond to the draft as a reader. You need to consider the following question: How can I provide quality feedback that will help my peer when he/she is making revisions?

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  1. OPERATIONS FORCE MANAGEMENT RESTRUCTURING

IN 500 words complete a project management plan for

 OPERATIONS FORCE MANAGEMENT RESTRUCTURING  

Must utilize the PMP Concepts: The 5 Project Management Steps

  • Step 1: Initiation.
  • Step 2: Planning. ..
  • Step 3: Execution. …
  • Step 4: Monitoring and Controlling. …
  • Step 5: Closure.
  • Reference page not needed and cannot count , own words
  1. Reading Reflection

Question:

Herman and Chomsky critique media being in too few corporate hands. Is the democratization of information offered by the internet better or worse? In what ways?

 

12 font single space

Up to 3/4 page but no more than one page

  1. Information Silos

Scenario: A company called Colony Nursery and Landscaping opened a new store   located a few hundred miles away from its original location. The company wants   to implement an award system that awards their customers with points whenever   customers make a purchase, but the two stores are not able to share  information.  Colony Nursery and Landscaping will need to implement an  enterprise resource  planning (ERP) system that will solve the information silo  problem by collecting  and making this user data available. Colony Nursery and  Landscaping is hoping  that by providing customers with this award system, they  will be able to  maintain competitive advantage. Colony Nursery and Landscaping  cannot afford to  purchase, develop, or maintain this system on-site, so they  are investigating  cloud solutions.

 

In addition, for many organizations, Colony Nursery and Landscaping included,  information silos make it difficult to tap into needed information. Discuss   whether or not the problem of information silos can be solved by using the   cloud. Some organizations do not have the resources to construct or maintain   their computer infrastructure, so they utilize cloud services instead to reduce   costs and improve scalability. In this assignment, you will discuss whether or   not the cloud offers solutions for Colony Nursery and Landscaping and identify   an application that the ERP system could provide. Compose an essay that  includes  the elements listed below.

 

Define what an information silo is.

Explain why information silos are a problem for organizations.

Discuss why organizations are moving to the cloud.

Determine whether or not using cloud services, such as a cloud-based host       for data storage, would solve the ERP information silo problem at Colony       Nursery and Landscaping.

Explain how using the ERP system and awards program would provide a       competitive advantage for Colony Nursery and Landscaping.

Discuss why the implementation of an ERP system might require business       process reengineering for Colony Nursery and Landscaping. Be sure to explain       the business processes that will be affected (e.g., the customer awards       system). Use diagrams or tables as needed, but this is not required.

 

Your essay must be a minimum of two pages in length (not counting the title   and reference pages), and it must be formatted in APA style. You should include   an introduction section that gives background and context to your reader. You   must use at least two scholarly resources as references. Any information from   these resources must be cited and referenced in APA format.

  1. African Perspectives on Slavery and Freedom

Assignment 2:

African Perspectives on Slavery and Freedom: Movie and Text Review (1000 words) 6 Intro: This unit looks at African perspectives of “slavery” and “freedom” through primary sources, African film, and documentaries. It shows why historians have called for other scholars and students to understand slavery as a phenomenon shaped by time and place—whether the murkiness of categories such as “slave” and “free

” or African bonds-peoples’ contributions to economic, political, and cultural life in Atlantic and Indian Ocean worlds. In particular, the unit asks you to set your assumptions about slavery and its opposite (freedom or autonomy) aside in order to understand these terms’ ironic histories from the experiences of enslaved Africans and their descendants. 

Prompt: How have primary and secondary sources from this unit challenged the way your approach histories of enslavement from you own upbringing? Your answer need not take on everything in the unit. For example, you may choose to emphasize the limits of the slave/free dichotomy for understanding texts like Bakari’s “Of Slavery” and the movie, “Adanggaman,” or you may choose to look at Africans’ contributions to the Atlantic world. Regardless of your choice, all papers must show an understanding of slavery’s variations over time and place to receive a C or above. The movie, “Adanggaman,” provides clear examples of slavery’s changing and nature, and therefore, each paper must situate it correctly in historical context.

87. Develop A Research Question On Any Of These Topics Only Pick One Of These. They Are 1.Attention, 2.Learning, 3.Memory, 4.Language, Or 5.Decision Making),

Develop a research question on any of these topics only pick one of these. they are  1.attention, 2.learning, 3.memory, 4.language, or 5.decision making),

Revisit the Module One Areas of Interest and Practical Applications in Cognitive Psychology discussion topic, where you examined your interests, potential problems, and applied settings related to cognitive psychology. Building on those conversations, draft a topic suggestion by identifying your particular area of interest in cognitive psychology (attention, learning, memory, language, or decision making), select an applied setting (education, law, mental health, or technology), and describe the contemporary problem as it relates to your topic and setting. Last, draft three potential research questions that explore potential improvements related to your topic and the applied setting.

For example, if you suggested the topic of attention and online students, the applied setting would be education, and you might develop the following research questions:

  • How does multitasking while studying (e.g., listening to music while reading, or texting while reading) influence attention to course material?
  • How do individuals with ADHD perform in an online learning environment, and what strategies can help them succeed?
  • What strategies can teachers and students use to increase attention to relevant material in an online course?

 

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The instructor will provide feedback on your topic submission and make recommendations as to which research question is most feasible to pursue, given the parameters of the final project.

88. Article Summary

Choose an article with a min. 250 words and write a summary. length  should depend on length of article 

 

89. Psychology Homework

Define the following assessments and provide an example when each should be used:

  1. Forensic assessment
  2. Therapeutic assessment
  3. Psychological assessment
  4. Personality assessment

Remember to not go over the max words. no more than 250 words. 

 

TEXT REFERENCE CHAPTERS 11, 12, and 14 this week 

 

Cohen, R. J.& Swerdlik,ME.(2018). Psychological testing and assessment (9th ed.). New York, NY: McGraw-Hill Companies. ISBN: 9781259870507

90. Psychology Homework

#1.  Why is it important for counselors and other behavioral health professionals to become familiar with the use of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5)? How can use of the DSM’s cross-cutting symptom measures aid counselors in clinical diagnosing? 

 

Remember to not go over the max words. no more than 250 words. 

 TEXT REFERENCE cHAPTERS 11, 12, and 14 this week 

Cohen, R. J. & Swerdlik, M. E.(2018). Psychological testing and assessment (9th ed.). New York, NY: McGraw-Hill Companies. ISBN: 9781259870507

 

91. Business Assignment

·  Problem Statement

·  New Product Idea

·  Publically Traded Company who will own your innovation

Statement of the Problem.Identify how you arrived at the problem, taking between 300 (minimum) to 500 (maximum) words.  You will address questions such as the following: Does the problem have a commonly identifiable name?  Is there a root cause of the problem (i.e. obesity for type II diabetes)? How do people currently solve this problem (living with it is a solution, but generally not a pleasant one)?  Are people actively seeking out solutions, and do they understand clearly the problem they have? What is it about their current solutions that are not very attractive? 

Introduction of the Company.Tell us about the company that you have selected. Make sure your company is publically traded, to ensure you have sufficient information to complete the assignment moving forward. Any exceptions to using a publically traded company must be approved in advance, by the instructor. Provide a company overview (Business Source Complete). Where is the company headquartered? How many employees do they have? What is their stock market ticker symbol? Starbucks is a publically traded company on the NASDAQ Ticker SBUX.Include a SWOT analysis on the publically traded company that employs your team. The SWOT should be in a matrix format and summarized in your own words how the various parts impact your idea. 

Is your team struggling with a new product/service idea?Reviewing the company’s weakness or opportunities may help you identify ideas. In Starbucks case, they are focused on a growing office coffee marketplace, looking at expansion in Asia and focusing on health and wellness foods in the U.S. Humm… you now know their problem and guessing with a team conversation you could brainstorm some ideas to solve one of their problems. Do not forget to research the company (annual report to stockholders, notes) to make sure they do not already have your idea.

New Product or Service to be Introduced.  What is your product? Create a 15 word (maximum) title to your idea that gives a good clue to the new product or service.  Additionally, you will describe your unique product in good detail, taking between 300 (minimum) to 500 (maximum) words. You should identify theindustry,using GICS or Global Industry Classification Standard (Standard & Poors) or NAICS (Wards) of your new innovation.  What trends are taking place in this industry (IBIS World) that indicates opportunity for your product. Additionally,identify a minimum of 2 key featuresthat make your product unique from what is already available. 

Explain how this product fits with the overall company strategy and answer WHY customers would want to purchase and senior management should invest resources

92. Review The PERI (Problem Etiology Recommendations Implementation) Public Health Model Described Below. Select A Communicable Public Health Disease From One Of The Health Concerns Addressed In This Week’s Learning Resources.

 

Write a 1- to 2-page overview of your selected public health issue, making sure to respond to each of the following prompts:

  1. Problem: What is the health problem or issue? Use appropriate sources, including Public Health data sources (e.g., CDC, Census, etc.), to describe this problem (e.g., HIV/AIDS).
  2. What population does it impact (e.g., Women in sub-Saharan Africa)?
  3. Etiology: What are the contributory causes? What is the burden of disease for this health issue? Are certain populations or cultures more impacted than others?
  4. Recommendations: What can be done to reduce the health impact of your issue?
  5. Implementation: How can health be improved in this population? What organizations or professionals should be involved?

93. Clinical

Pedagogy is a broad term used to describe the science and art of effective teaching. Student learning is reliant upon a teacher’s ability to select specific methods and strategies that meet the needs of all students.

Allocate at least 5 hours in the field to support this field experience.

Part 1: Observation

Observe your mentor teacher in your chosen content area delivering lessons and interacting with students. While observing one specific lesson, take notes using the “Observation, Interview, and Reflection” template .

Part 2: Interview

Outside of class time, interview your mentor teacher on his or her instructional strategies. Keep in mind the most recent lesson you observed and the pedagogical approaches used during this lesson.

Include the following topics in your interview:

  • What effective, research-based pedagogical strategies does your mentor teacher typically use during instruction?
  • How does your mentor teacher connect instruction to students’ backgrounds and interests?
  • How does your mentor teacher differentiate instruction to meet the needs of exceptional students, including students with gifted abilities, students with disabilities, as well as English language learners?
  • How does your mentor teacher integrate technological tools into instructional planning and day-to-day professional practices?

You do not need to submit interview notes to the LMS, but you are strongly encouraged to take notes to inform Part 3 of the assignment.

Use any remaining field experience hours to assist the mentor teacher in providing instruction and support to the class.

Part 3: Reflection Summary

In 500-750 words, summarize your observation and interview with your mentor teacher, as well as synthesize outside research to further your understanding of best pedagogical approaches. Drawing on your observation and interview, address the following questions in your reflection:

  • What effective, research-based pedagogical strategies did you observe during the lesson? What strategies does your mentor teacher typically use in instruction?
  • How does your mentor teacher connect instruction to students’ backgrounds and interests?
  • How does your mentor teacher differentiate instruction to meet the needs of exceptional students?
  • How does your mentor teacher integrate technological tools into instructional planning and day-to-day professional practices?
  • What pedagogical approaches do you anticipate using in your future professional practice?

 

Synthesize what you experienced in your mentor teacher’s classroom or learned in your interview by drawing on outside scholarly resources to support or extend your understanding of best pedagogical approaches.

Support your reflection with 3-5 scholarly resources.

Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.

This assignment uses a rubric. Review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

You are required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite. Refer to the LopesWrite Technical Support articles for assistance.

94. Week 11 Discussion

 W11DQ Week 11 Discussion Question Discuss the importance of guidelines and procedures for access control. Your initial response is due by Thursday 11:59PM. It must be at least 250 words and have references. Your grade will reflect both the quality of your initial post and the depth of your responses. Refer to the Discussion Forum Grading Rubric under the Settings icon above for guidance on how your discussion will be evaluated. Guided Response: Respond to at least two of your classmates’ posts. Evaluate their discussions by agreeing, disagreeing, or adding other ideas to strengthen or enhance the perspectives presented in their initial posts.   

 

W11P Week 11 paper 

Discuss the best practices for implementing an access control system. Length, 2 – 3 pages. All paper are written in APA formatting, include title and references pages (not counted). Must use at least two references and citations. Please reference the rubric for grading All paper are checked for plagiarism using SafeAssign, you can review your score.  

 

JW11 Journal Week 11 Enter a brief paragraph of what you learned this week. 

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95. Putting AutoZone into Drive

Q1. Using no more than two sentences, describe AutoZone’s strategy. 

Q2. Based on Michael Porter’s discussion of the characteristics of an effective strategy, does AutoZone have a good strategy for growth? Explain. 

Q3. To what extent is AutoZone following the five steps of the strategic-management process? 

Q4. Conduct an environmental scan o

or SWOT analysis of AutoZone’s current reality and recommend whether the company’s current strategy is poised to succeed.

  1. Free Sample Marketing (Briefly)

From 7 to 10 slide small presentation (briefly)

 

Titles :

1) what is free sample marketing ?

2)benefit of using free sample ?

3)why free samples should be part of your marketing strategy?

4) marketing plan example (sample marketing plan)

5) when using free sample affect negatively ?

  1. Argumentive 2 Page Essay

Before you begin writing the Argument Essay, you will need to propose your treatment of the issue.  This proposal is your opportunity to consider your plan for tackling the argument.  You will need to figure out what about the issue you want to focus your argument on.  You cannot possibly cover the whole issue in this coming essay, so plan to write about a specific aspect of that issue.  Your argument will need to be proven throughout the course of your essay.  In order to prove your argument, you will need to select specific topics which you will want to highlight in your thesis statement.  In this proposal, you will pitch those topics and how you will discuss them.     Instructions:  • Create a two to three-page proposal for your Argument Essay.  The Argument Essay requires that you argue your position on an issue facing your community. • Consider the following questions when starting this assignment: o What specifically is the issue you will be exploring? o What is your argument?   o How do you propose handling the argument in your essay?  Proposal of Content This proposal is your opportunity to pitch your instructor your plan for the essay.  The structure of the Argument Essay should be discussed within the proposal.  You also should propose how you intend to gather research for this argument.  You do not have to include any research, but you should figure out how you want to incorporate it.  You also want to tell the instructor how you plan to structure the essay.  Finally, include in the proposal what will make your approach to the argument unique.   Requirements:  • The assignment should be two to three pages in length.

 

  1. Health Management

Research and pinpoint a specific health care organization, you can use the one from Unit 3. You will be using a SWOT (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats) analysis to assess the health care organization and its environment. Strengths and weaknesses are internal factors. Opportunities and threats are external factors.

You are to complete the following in your strategic action plan:

  • Create a SWOT analysis.
  • Define a strategic action plan using your SWOT analysis.
    • Identify the strengths of the organization’s structure. (internal)
    • Identify the weaknesses of the organization’s structure. (internal)
    • Identify the opportunities. (external)
    • Identify the threats. (external)
    • Match the internal and external environments to attain the organization’s goals.
  • Identify how your action plans are linked to the following:
    • Vision statement
    • Mission statement
    • Service strategy
  • Summarize your overall strategic plan, indicating its current limitations and implications for the health care industry.

Keep your SWOT analysis short and simple, and avoid complexity and over-analysis. If it helps to organize your thoughts, use a SWOT table.

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  1. Health/Public Policy

Select your state on the County Health Rankings & Roadmaps website:

  • Review the most recent state Summary Report (Downloads tab)
  • Review the Health Gaps Report for your state, paying close attention to the Highlighted Health Gaps section that are considered to be meaningful gaps that policymakers and leaders may want to examine more closely.

Prepare a report discussing the meaningful health gaps in your state and how health policies supporting community and national health can help close those gaps. Your report should also include a discussion of differences in health outcomes and health factors between the county ranked #1 in your state and the one ranked the lowest, suggesting county health policies that could help improve the ranking of the latter. Finally, your report should conclude with a summary of how public policies support community and national health.
The body of the report should be 3-4 pages, excluding the title page and references page. The County Health Rankings and the Health Gaps Report must be listed on the references page along with any other references you use in preparing the report. Use the following format for these required references:

  • Robert Wood Johnson Foundation & University of Wisconsin Population Health Institute (insert copyright year). (insert state name) Health Gaps Report. Retrieved (insert date) from http://www.countyhealthrankings.org/
  • Robert Wood Johnson Foundation & University of Wisconsin Population Health Institute (insert copyright year). (insert state name) Summary Report. Retrieved (insert date) from http://www.countyhealthrankings.org
  1. English Homework

As discussed throughout this novel, Christopher is a very unique character. It is important, when reading this novel that we take what we are learning about Christopher and translate it to our understanding of real individuals with disabilities. With a partner, you will construct a research-based essay on the importance of representing individuals with autism and other intellectual or physical disability. There are questions below to help guide your research and your writing.

INTRO:  Three or four sentences that do the following: mention book title and author; reveal that you are taking characteristics of a fictional character and discussing how similar or other relevant characteristics are depicted in important ways within media.

BODIES: You should have a minimum of 2-body paragraphs. The organization of this essay is totally up to you, but should answer the questions below.

CONCLUSION: Your conclusion will look very similar to your intro. And should contain a restatement of your thesis. The restatement of your thesis, however, should be written in different language to avoid redundancy.

Guiding Questions:

  1. To what degree are differently abled people represented in today’s media vs. that of ten years ago
  2. Why is the representation of differently abled people in media important?
  3. What is the impact of differently abled representation in the media for other differently abled
  1. Medical Coding and Billing

Write about current procedural terminology (CPT) 4 pages with reference.

 

  1. 2-Please Answer Based on These Answers as They Are Listed, Each One Must Be Answered in APA form And Not Less Than 150 Words

4-The Collaborative Patient Care Management Model, which is a multi-disciplinary and a population-based case management model, was first introduced in the year 2006. The prime objective of the model was to target such patients, which could be classified as high-cost and high-risk. The nurses not only manage these patients but also play a vital in the development of inter-disciplinary care plan (Kimball, Joynt, Cherner, & O’Neil, 2007). The model allows to develop a highly potent care plan, which has 1) greater potential to produce the desired results, and 2) the ability to reduce the overall cost of the care to be provided without compromising on its quality.

Reference

Kimball, B., Joynt, J., Cherner, D., & O’Neil, E. (2007). The Quest for New Innovative. Journal of Nursing Administration, 37(9), 392-398.

5-Thank you for sharing your post.  I agree that the ACO’s are beneficial in helping to streamline healthcare.  I have enjoyed the creation of the EMR as it allows other doctors within the same health organization access to my record so they know what it going on with me and I do not have to remember all the details.  This can be important especially in the older population as many forget to write things down.  Providing coordinated care helps to ensure that patients are receiving the right care.  Continuity of care is important to patients as well because they do not want to repeat everything that is going on with them when it has already been asked.  I find that many patients want the same nurse back if they are going to be there for several shifts in a row as they can build a short term relationship with them.

 

6-Accountable Care Organizations (ACO) is a network of doctors, hospitals, care providers home care and long-term care agencies, physician group practices, and other health care entities, such as medical homes, that come together to form a network to coordinate Medicare patient care. They share financial and medical responsibility for providing coordinated care to patients in hopes of limiting unnecessary spending. ACO are beneficial to both providers and patients. Providers become eligible for bonuses if they keep their patient’s healthy, while also meeting quality targets keep a portion of the savings. Patient’s benefit from having their care coordinated instead of getting each part of their health care separately. This reduces hospital stays, emergency room visits and expensive specialist and testing services that may be repeated by multiple healthcare providers. To protect patients ACOs must meet a long list of quality measures to ensure they are not saving money by stinting on necessary care. And if a patient is unsatisfied with there ACO they can see doctors of their choice outside the network without paying more and decline to have their information shared with the ACO (KaiserHealthnews.2015).

Reference

Kaiser Health News.(2015). Accountable Care Organizations, Explained. Retrieved from https://khn.org/news/aco-accountable-care-organization-faq/

  1. Business and Finance

Management Action Plan

An action plan is a written strategy used to achieve outlined goals. For the purposes of this assignment, the action plan will be created using PowerPoint. An action plan includes the components listed below.

  1. State the goal, which should identify what training content will be used and how it will be used.
    1. The goal for this action plan is to assist managers with identifying how performance appraisals are used to demonstrate the success of training efforts.
  2. Include the strategies for reaching the goal including what the trainee must do, what resources will be needed, and the type of support from managers and peers that will be necessary.
  3. Include the strategies for receiving the feedback, which will be used to demonstrate the success of the training efforts.
  4. Define the expected assessment results and how the results can be used to improve training.

After the title slide, begin your action plan by stating the goal. Next, identify at least three strategies for reaching the goal. Briefly explain your chosen strategies with supporting data in the speaker notes section of the PowerPoint presentation. For the third part of the action plan, develop a 10-question survey that could be used to demonstrate the success of the plan. Conclude your action plan with a summary of the expected results and how the manager could use them to improve training.

This action plan should contain at least 12 slides.

Here are some general guidelines to follow when preparing your PowerPoint presentation.

  • Design your presentation with the back of the room in mind. It is important that everyone can easily see and read the content.
  • Select a professional-looking slide design appropriate for the presentation and audience.
  • White text on a dark background is the easiest for the audience to see.
  • Use a large font size.
  • Use color and graphics when appropriate. Illustrations should relate to the content being discussed. Be creative.
  • Follow the 6 x 6 rule (i.e., use no more than six lines per slide and no more than six words per line).
  • Utilize the speaker notes function to add your talking points.
  • Bullet points work best on the slides.
  • Add slide transitions to enhance the audience’s experience.
  1. Psychology Homework

Dear Son

I have learned that various elements contribute to development over the lifespan. Furthermore, you are now aware that numerous factors that shape one’s personality are present. How can you use this newly acquired knowledge to positively shape future generations?

For this assignment, you are going to write a letter to your son or daughter that you will present to him or her on the child’s 21st birthday. If your child is already over 21, imagine back to when he or she was born. If you do not plan to have children, you may write the letter to a child who is important in your life: a niece, nephew, or friend’s child, for example. Within your letter, you must discuss the following items:

  • When and why did you decide to have the child? If writing to a child that is not your own, describe why the child is important to you.
  • What are the most important qualities for a parent to have, and why?
  • What personal characteristics do you hope your young adult son or daughter will possess, and why?
  • How did you attempt to influence the child’s physical, motor, cognitive, moral, social, personality, and sex-role development? Give specific examples in each area while detailing how each one will influence your young adult’s future actions and decision-making abilities.
  • Identify cultural influences that could affect your son’s or daughter’s motivation and drive.

In your letter, incorporate research from the textbook to explain how you have sought to positively influence your son or daughter’s development. 1 page minimum

  1. Psychology Homework

 

I  learned that certain links exist between emotions, motivation, and stress. In fact, if one does not handle his or her stress effectively, numerous health issues could arise.

For this assignment, you are to compose a reflection paper in which you examine a current or past stressful event in your life. You must embrace Selye’s general adaptation syndrome (GAS) and describe your reactions to the stressful event during each stage. You should describe the various facial expressions that you displayed as you progressed through each stage as well. Be sure also to address the following questions:

  • What coping strategies did you embrace to help solve the problem?
  • How was your professional life affected by the stressor?
  • How does Maslow’s hierarchy of needs relate to your stressor? What motivated you to solve the problem?
  • Did you experience additional conflicts with other individuals as you endured this life trial?

Tips for writing your reflection paper:

  • Introduction: This is meant to give a concise overview of the featured stressful event and is usually one paragraph in length. In your introduction, you will reveal the featured stressful event that you will examine for this paper.
  • Summary: This contains your description of the required areas listed above in the opening statement, including Selye’s GAS, your facial expressions, coping strategies, professional impact, and relationship conflicts.
  • Analysis: In this portion of the paper, you should provide information from the textbook to analyze the impact that the stressful event could have placed upon your health, future goals, and motivation. You may use sources identified from the CSU Online Library to assist your analysis efforts, but this is not required.
  • Conclusion: This summarizes your final reflections for the featured topic. For instance, what implications have you uncovered during your research that you will apply to future stressful events?

Must be at least one page in length, not counting the title and reference pages, but it can be longer if necessary to address all aspects of the assignment. It should be formatted in APA style. You are required to utilize the textbook, but other sources may be used if needed.

  1. Psychology Homework

Wade and Tavris explain that various factors combine to influence one’s thinking patterns, intelligence, and memories. In fact, we often embrace certain biases and mental shortcuts to assist our cognitive processing. These efforts can prove both costly and beneficial.

This assignment is divided into parts, so it is suggested that you begin working on it in advance.

  • Find a popular press article or story from the nightly news in which someone argues a point that you disagree with. Write a paragraph agreeing with this person. Allow one day before moving on to the next part.
  • Make sure at least one day has passed since writing the first paragraph. Now, write another paragraph disagreeing with the person. You will include both of these paragraphs in your essay.
  • Discuss the differences between your arguments from the first paragraph in which you agree and the second paragraph in which you disagree. Elaborate on whether you think that your opinion has changed on this topic, particularly thinking about your initial thoughts on the topic before you wrote either paragraph.
  • In your discussion, incorporate research from the textbook to explain how reasoning, intelligence, and memories influenced your arguments. How did cognitive dissonance affect your reasoning abilities?

Response must be at least two pages in length, but it can be longer if necessary to address all aspects of the assignment. You must use the Wade and Tavris textbook and at least one additional source. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.

  1. Psychology homework

I have learned about various psychological disorders and the complexities involved with proper diagnoses and treatment efforts. Now it is time to put your skills to the test. Choose ONE of the cases listed below and create a mental health assessment for your chosen case. In the assessment, you should address the following:

  1. Why is your client coming for treatment?
  2. What are his or her current symptoms?
  3. Does he or she have a history with this problem? If so, please describe it.
  4. How could the issue affect his or her daily life functions?
  5. What is your client’s specific diagnosis?
  6. What is the general class(es) of disorders to which this disorder belongs?
  7. What are your recommendations? What specific treatment plan will you prescribe for this patient? You should use your textbook as a reference to substantiate your plan.
  8. How could you get his or her family involved?

Choose ONE of these cases to analyze.

  1. Tony sometimes seems very wound up. At those times, he seems full of energy, talks very rapidly, and makes very grandiose plans. Once, he gave away all of his belongings and was planning to move to Washington, D.C., so that he could advise the President. At these times, he also seems to need almost no sleep. During other periods of time Tony seems very down. During these times, he does not take care of himself. He seems to want to sleep all the time, and he often makes thinly veiled references to wanting to commit suicide.
  2. Paula has not left her house for several months. When she tries to go out, she experiences great anxiety. She says she is afraid that if she leaves her house to go somewhere, she will not be able to get back. Before all this started, Paula seemed fairly normal except for having several episodes where, for no apparent reason, her heart started pounding, she started to sweat profusely, and she experienced all the symptoms of fear and terror. One of the reasons she is afraid to leave the house is because she is afraid she will have one of these episodes again. Hint: there are two specific diagnoses here.
  3. Horace sleeps a lot, has great difficulty getting out of bed in the morning, and generally does not want to do anything. He has stopped seeing friends whom he used to see often and declines all invitations to do things socially. His most common response is “I just do not feel like it.” He looks sad all the time and does not seem to take pleasure in everyday activities. This has been going on for the past two months.
  4. Patricia is a 44-year-old female who reports that she has periods of time where she cannot remember what she has done. She reports that after one such period, she received a telephone call from a man who claimed to have met her in a bar where she was “the life of the party.” She had also told the man her name was Priscilla. Patricia thinks that this is odd because she does not drink, and she is a rather shy and retiring person. However, the man had her correct telephone number and was able to give a good physical description of her.
  5. Frank was attending college in San Francisco during a recent earthquake. He lived in the area that was hardest hit by the quake. Frank was not home when the earthquake hit and was not injured in any way, but when he returned home, he found his building demolished and his two roommates crushed to death. Frank immediately drove himself to the airport, bought a ticket to Boston, and got on the plane. His parents found him on their doorstep in Boston the next morning. Frank remembers nothing about the earthquake and nothing about going to college in San Francisco. The last thing he remembers is being a high school student and living with his parents in Boston.
  1. INTERNET AND ICT

Explain how the internet and other ICTs has done the following:

  1. Transformed the society
  2. Improved mutual understanding
  3. Eliminated power differences
  4. Brought about realization of truly free and Democratic world society.
  1. Week 5 Assignment

Final Paper

The Final Paper provides you with an opportunity to integrate and reflect on what you have learned during the class.

The question to address is: “What have you learned about statistics?” In developing your responses, consider—at a minimum—and discuss the application of each of the course elements in analyzing and making decisions about data (counts and/or measurements).

In your paper,

  • Discuss the following course elements:
    • Descriptive statistics
    • Inferential statistics
    • Hypothesis development and testing
    • Selection of appropriate statistical tests
    • Evaluating statistical results.

The Final Paper

  • Must be three to five double-spaced pages in length (not including title and references pages) and formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site..
  • Must include a separate title page with the following:
    • Title of paper
    • Student’s name
    • Course name and number
    • Instructor’s name
    • Date submitted
  • Must begin with an introductory paragraph that has a succinct thesis statement.
  • Must address the topic of the paper with critical thought.
  • Must end with a conclusion that reaffirms your thesis.
  • Must use at least three scholarly sources in addition to the course text.
  • Must document all sources in APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center
  • Must include a separate references page that is formatted according to APA style as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center.

Carefully review the Grading Rubric (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. for the criteria that will be used to evaluate your assignment.

  1. Law Homework

No directly quoted material may be used in this project paper.

Resources should be summarized or paraphrased with appropriate in-text and Resource page citations.

Write a paper comparing and contrasting the four major classifications of drug actions on the human body (stimulants, depressants, hallucinogens, and narcotics).

Select one drug from each classification for an in-depth analysis, which should include at least:

  • the effects of those drugs on the human body,
  • a discussion of the dependence aspects of the drugs, and
  • their interactions with other drugs
  • how this drug impacts crime in the US

This paper must be from three to five full pages of text, not including the cover page or the references page and a minimum of two scholarly sources.

  1. Environmental Science Homework

Please note that these answers should be submitted on different doc and ppt

Read The Kohala Center attached  and examine the Material Flows on the Island of Hawai‘i report

Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper on industrial ecology.

Focus your paper on the following, based on the industrial ecological report you chose:

  • Explain the basic materials used.
  • Discuss an energy flows analysis based on the scenario.
  • Explain how renewable and nonrenewable sources impact the industry.

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

  1. Write a conclusion based on the attached a,b,c papers attache while also considering the narrative . Not less than 500 words
  • What sustainable engineering role do corporations and the government play within the oil and gas industry? What is the future outlook?
  • What is the outlook for renewable and nonrenewable sources within the oil and gas industry?
  1. Prepare a power point conclusion with speaker notes based on your Industrial Sector ( Oil and Gas) Ecology Paper.
  2. Need DQ Answer 300 Words, No Plagiarism, Use 3 References And In-Text Citation And Turn It In For The Content.

Subject: Marketing and Consumer Behaviour

  • Reading:
    • Hawkins, Mothersbaugh, Chapter(s) 15, 16
    • Topics: Information Search; Alternative Evaluation and Selection

 

Discussion Question 1 – CLO 5 

 

What are two characteristics of the source of a message that influence its ability to change attitudes? Describe each and provide with real-life examples. Provide your explanations and definitions in detail and be precise. Comment on your findings.

Provide references for content when necessary. Provide your work in detail and explain in your own words. Support your statements with peer-reviewed in-text citation(s) and reference(s).

——————————-

Need DQ Answer  300 words, no palgiarism, use 3 references and in-text citation and turn it in for the content.

113. Legal & Ethical Concepts In Management

Essay On Apple

For this assignment, the student chooses one listed company in any Stock Exchange in the world as far as the documentation filed on the company’s website is in English as well. (Apple)

 

Below there is an indicative guidance of information that could be collected in order to analyse your company from the point of view of its legal disclosure and liabilities:

The main points to cover when analysing your company:

 

  • Brief introduction to your company: you could include information related to the sector it operates, some financial indicators, where it is listed, its marketcap and its marketshare on its sector.

 

  • Static analysis: this is the legal picture of the company and basically it looks at the disclosure provided to investors on its website. There are two main players in the company: shareholders and directors:

 

  • Shareholders: Free float and whether there are core or dominant shareholders, type of shareholders (ordinary and/or preference), AGM (Annual General Meeting) agenda and type of items that are included over the last five years. Please note that in the US this tends to be under the heading “proxy statement”.

 

  • Directors: Board of Directors and composition including both executive and non-executive directors together with the Auditing and Compensation Committee. Regarding auditors: how are auditors appointed? Are they changing every certain number of years? Please consider any changes over the last 5 years auditors’ letters. Look at the compensation committee and investigate how the directors’ remuneration is devised. Note that there is no need to include directors’ CVs or even names, just look at a qualitative analysis unless there is other type of relevant information that needs to be included.

 

  • Dynamic analysis: Look at the litigation in which your company has been involved (probably by carrying out internet searches as companies are not very keen to disclose details on their own litigation unless they have a substantial impact on their accounts). You need to include a brief characterisation of the cases (criminal, tort, contractual) explaining whether the cases are due to the sector on which the company operates or they are indifferent for that matter. Pick up one or two examples to explain to the class in your oral presentation. If possible try to find out the outcome of the case (was it settled?)

 

  • Critical conclusion: Based on your findings, what is your view of the company regarding its corporate disclosure? Would you invest on it based on its degree of transparency and functioning? Why?

 

  • Referencing: Although you can use a variety of sources you need to include at least 4-6 academic sources as part of your assignment. Harvard referencing.

Format

Written assignment comprising  2,500 word (+10%)

  1. Discussion
  2. Read section 8.1. What is ‘technological inequality’ and how have you seen this inequality play out in your own life? (10 points)
  3. Read section 8.3. What have been some global implications of technology and the role it’s had in society? Be specific. Look at section 8.4. Which theoretical perspective do you most align yourself with regarding perspectives on media & technology? (15 points)

 

  1. Read section 9.4 on “Theoretical Perspectives on Social Stratification”. Which perspective do you most identify with regarding social stratification & inequality (functionalism, conflict, or symbolic interactionist)? Why? (10 pts)
  2. In your personal opinion along with facts, is the American dream available to all people? Why or Why not? Look at section 9.2 in our text. Which class would you say you are a part of (upper-class, middle-class, or lower-class)? Why?
  3. Synthesis Paper

Congratulations! You have just been hired by the Gainesville United Sports Association (totally fictional)! Because you are (now) an expert on social issues in youth sport, you were awarded a consulting contract to implement a parent education program for the youth sport organizations in Gainesville.

The Gainesville United Sports Association oversees and writes recommendations for “best practice” in privatized youth sport organizations (organized club/travel sports). For your parent education program, you will:

  1. select the 3 most pressing social issues in youth sport about which you think parents MUST be informed
  2. provide a background on each issue and justify why it is critical that the issue be addressed (benefits or consequences of the issue)
  3. provide your recommendation for “best practice” in which parents should either be engaged, or seek out (in a coach, an organization,…) – this means you can write about what parents do (their behavior or expectations), what coaches do (behavior or programming), or what an organization does (programming), or any combination of the 3.

In the end, your Synthesis Paper is a guide for parents to know the issues, and know what should be happening in their child’s youth sport organization (in the best interest of their child).

  1. Case Study

 Read the following case study on the attachment and answer the following questions:

1- What are some aspects of this program that ensured its success?

1page

2- What are important aspects of Chagas disease that influence measures to control it?: What are the activities for Chagas control? How are these activities accomplished?

3 pages

3-how would you describe JICA’s model for working in Guatemala?: Who did JICA work in Guatemala and why? What are the advantages and disadvantages of the JICA’s cooperation model?

2pages

4-In adapting the Guatemalan project model, Dr. Zuniga and his colleagues faced challenges. What were they and did Dr. Zuniga deal with them?: There are various stakeholders in Chagas disease control in Guatemala. How did Dr. Zuniga deal with them? Dr. Zuniga and his colleagues had to modify their successful program for the surveillance phase. Why? and what were the challenges they faced? How did they establish the surveillance model?

3 pages

  1. Industrial Espionage


Consider this hypothetical situation:

David Doe is a network administrator for the ABC Company. David is passed over for promotion three times. He is quite vocal in his dissatisfaction with this situation. In fact, he begins to express negative opinions about the organization in general. Eventually, David quits and begins his own consulting business. Six months after David’s departure, it is discovered that a good deal of the ABC Company’s research has suddenly been duplicated by a competitor. Executives at ABC suspect that David Doe has done some consulting work for this competitor and may have passed on sensitive data. However, in the interim since David left, his computer has been formatted and reassigned to another person. ABC has no evidence that David Doe did anything wrong.

What steps might have been taken to detect David’s alleged industrial espionage?

What steps might have been taken to prevent his perpetrating such an offense?

  1. Questions

Please answer the following questions.

Early-Stage Financing and Venture Capital is the topics!

1) Can someone explain Venture Capital and Stages of Financing?

2) What are some Venture Capital Realities?

3) Lastly, lets discuss Venture Capital Investments and Economic Conditions!

Ah a great topic: Corporate Long-Term Debt!

1) Is It Debt or Equity and why?

2) Can someone explain Long-Term Debt: The Basics?

3) What is The Indenture?


  1. Knowledge Management Systems

Choose one of the scenarios below (A or B) to complete the assignment.

Scenario AYou are the business owner of a local small engine repair shop, and you have   been thinking about implementing a knowledge management system for your   customer  service technicians. You are thinking about this because there are   times when  some of your technicians know how to fix certain engine problems  and  others do  not. Providing a central knowledge repository could help share   troubleshooting  and repair knowledge among your technicians.

Scenario BYou are the business owner of a local cleaning service, and you have been   thinking about implementing a knowledge management system for your cleaning   technicians, especially for those who troubleshoot and solve cleaning problems,  such as removing certain carpet and water stains, addressing mold, and  selecting  the proper tools and products to use for other types of cleaning  issues. You  are  thinking about this because there are times when some of your  cleaning  technicians know how to properly clean carpets and others do not.  Providing a  central knowledge repository could help share cleaning knowledge  among your  cleaning technicians.

After you chose your scenario (A or B), compose a paper that addresses the   elements listed below.

  1. Explain the role of knowledge management systems. Explain what is meant by expert systems.
  2. Explain what is meant by content management systems.
  3. Discuss how the business in the selected scenario could benefit from an         expert system and a content management system, and provide two examples for         each type of system.
  4. Discuss how the business in the selected scenario could benefit from         business intelligence, and provide two examples of these benefits.
  5. Discuss how the business in the selected scenario can use social media to         not only obtain information and knowledge but to share it as well, and       provide   two examples of how the business might use social media information       systems.

Your paper must be at least two pages in length (not counting the title and   reference pages), and you must also use at least two scholarly sources, one of   which must come from the CSU Online Library. Any information from a source must   be cited and referenced in APA format, and your paper must be formatted in   accordance to APA guidelines.

  1. PENETRATRATION TESTING

A

There are a lot of strategies for setting up network defense systems. Physical restrictions can be put in place, such as separating hardware, or using switches and cabling to do so. One can also use virtualized segmentation in the form of VLANs, and virtual networks (including switches). What strategy do you feel is best suited to defend against modern cyber security threats? State your opinion concerning which technologies you would deploy if you were positioned to protect the COPPIN campus from cyber security threats.

 

B

There are hundreds of thousands of potential cyber security attacks, which exist in the form of hackers, viruses, malware, ransomware, and other vectors. The most effective way of mitigating their effects is identifying them before they can become active. What modern security methods and tools can be used to do this? Why are they not 100% effective? Explain your rationale.

 

 

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HIUS 221 National Park Essay

Museum or National Park Assignment Instructions

 

Statement of Purpose or “Why Am I Doing This?”

There are many benefits to visiting historical museums or sites via walking tours. By actually witnessing a historical site, greater understanding of the events of past can be achieved. The visual learning dynamic as well as the tour guide learning scenario can all the more make “history come alive” and provide the student with a hands-on learning experience.

 

Completing This Assignment:

 

  • The student will visit one of three options related to U.S. historical events between the 1500s-1865: 1. A local museum. 2. A National Park. 3. A befitting video website walking video tour or suitable YouTube link of a Museum or National Park related to U.S. historical events between the 1500s-1865. Regardless of whether the student chooses to physically visit a location or view a site via a weblink route, it is required that they submit a request proposal (via the Mod. 4 DB assignment) to the course instructor seeking formal approval before taking the next steps in completing the Mod. 7 writing assignment.
  • Following the site visit, using the available assignment template, the student will then type a double space 12 font reflection (700-800 words) answering the following questions… How is this historical site relevant to events within the 1500s-1865 and the area now known as the United States? What historical information did you learn from this visit? What historical event or events were covered via this site? What (i.e.) artifacts and/or other displayed items were interesting to you and why? In other words, what stood out about this place and why? How did the site help you appreciate history?
  • The title page and reference page do not count towards the total page count.
  • When you are finished, your assignment must be:

o    In a Microsoft Word (or compatible) document

o    Formatted, including:

  • 12-point Times New Roman font
  • double-spaced
  • 1-inch margins
  • Page numbers placed at the bottom center of each page of text (not including the title page)

o    Proofread carefully to ensure it is written in scholarly language with no grammar, spelling, or punctuation errors and conforms to the standards of mechanics and style expected at the university level

  • You must use the template for the assignment provided in Assignment site.

 

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 7.

 

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Mrs. Linde was a patient who was admitted to a surgical unit at Ocala Regional Medical Center

Name of the patient: Mrs. Linde

Age: 76 years

Gender: Female

Clinical Scenario

Mrs. Linde was a patient who was admitted to a surgical unit at Ocala Regional Medical Center where I worked as a nurse. While attending to her, I realized that she as well as most of the patients in my surgical unit developed a high level of acuity that could easily result into severe cardiac arrest and sudden death. Mrs. Linde was therefore transferred to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) following her critical condition. I decided to talk to my Nurse Manager about rapid response team and how it can be helpful in reducing increasing cases of the contraction of cardiac arrest by the in-patients and unexpected admissions to the ICU. I believed this could be of great help to the hospital. Researchable and answerable is a significant step in the Evidence Based Practice (Fineout-Overholt and Johnston, 2005). Therefore, my manger suggested that I conduct more research to find solid evidence on the contribution of rapid response team in healthcare system. This prompted me to formulate a clinical question.

Research Question

I used PICOT (Patient’s population, issue of Interest, Comparison, Outcome and Time) format to formulate a research question. My PICOT question was derived from the prevailing aspects of the clinical issue at my surgical unit. These aspects include the increased level of acuity among the hospitalized patients in the surgical unit, increased number of in-patients contracting cardiac arrest, unexpected admissions into the ICU, and the intervention by the rapid response team. Since there was no team to provide rapid response to such patients and the hospital was not planning to address the issue of patient’s acuity prior to the impending crisis, element of the comparison (C component) in the PICOT was lack of rapid response team.  The outcomes or the results in the question were constant admission into the ICU and in-patients contracting cardiac arrest.  Other possible outcomes included prolonged hospitalization and deaths. My proposed picot question therefore was; “Among the adult in-patients in the surgical unit, how does the presence of a rapid response team compared with the absence of rapid response team influence the cases of cardiac arrests among the hospitalized patients and the unexpected admissions to the intensive care unit for patients hospitalized for three months? In this question, the components of PICOT include

  • Patient Population (P) – the adult in-patients
  • Issue of Interest (I) – the presence of a rapid response team
  • Comparison(C) – the absence of rapid response team
  • Outcome (O) – influence the cases of cardiac arrests among the hospitalized patients and the unexpected admissions to the intensive care unit for patients
  • Time (T) – hospitalized for three months

Literature Review

According to Stillwell et al. Evidence-Based Practice involves solving a problem in the health care delivery system by integrating the available evidences from the data of the patients and studies with the expertise of medical practitioners and values. From the above scenario, it is clear that various aspects affect personal experiences of patients throughout their stay in the hospital. Additionally, social aspects may influence and surpass curative variables without necessarily involving antiretroviral measures. However, Melnyk et al. 2009 suggests that it is important for nurses and medical practitioners to understand that the formulated question influences any attempt to find evidence to achieve a desirable outcome in patients so as to support a practical change.  It is also evident from the previous studies that Rapid Response Teams are the best weapon to curb cardiac arrests since they evaluate the patients at an early stage of the disease thus reducing mortality rate (Dacey et al. 2007). Another study also pointed that while therapeutic interventions have been successfully administered to the patients, such interventions may not be helpful for long-term health care processes (Cheng, 2011).

 

References

Dacey MJ, et al. The effect of a rapid response team on major clinical outcome measures in a community hospital. Crit Care Med 2007;35(9):2076-82

Abstract

Background: Rapid Response Teams (RRTs) assess patients during early phases of deterioration to reduce patient morbidity and mortality. Objectives: This study aimed to evaluate the ability of earlier medical intervention by an RRT prompted by clinical instability in patients to reduce the incidence of and mortality from unexpected cardiac arrest at our hospital. Patients and Methods: A nonrandomized, population-based study before 2008 and after 2010 introduction of the Rapid Response Teams in a 300-bed private hospital. All patients were admitted to the hospital in 2008 (n = 25348) and 2010 (n = 28024). RRT (One doctor, one senior intensive care nurse and one staff nurse) attended to clinically unstable patients immediately with resuscitation drugs, fluid, and equipment. Response was activated by the bedside nurse or doctor according to predefined criteria. Main outcome measures were incidence and outcome of unexpected cardiac arrest. Results: The incidence of unexpected cardiac arrest was 17 per 1000 hospital admissions (431 cases) in 2008 (before RRT intervention) and 12.45 per 1000 admissions (349 cases) in 2010 (after intervention), with mortality being 73.23% (274 patients) and 66.15% (231 patients) respectively. After adjustment for case mix the intervention was associated with a 19% reduction in the incidence of unexpected cardiac arrest (odds ratio 0.81, 95% confidence interval 0.65-0.98). Conclusions: The RRT was able to detect preventable adverse events and reduce the mortality and incidence of unexpected cardiac arrests

Stillwell SB et al, Evidence-based practice, step by step: asking the clinical question: a key step in evidence-based practice. 2nd ed. Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health/Lippincott Williams and Wilkins.

Abstract

The purpose of this series is to give nurses the knowledge and skills they need to implement EBP consistently, one step at a time. Articles will appear every two months to allow you time to incorporate information as you work toward implementing EBP at your institution. Also, we’ve scheduled “Ask the Authors” call-ins every few months to provide a direct line to the experts to help you resolve questions. Details about how to participate in the next call will be published with May’s Evidence-Based Practice, Step by Step

Melnyk BM, et al. Igniting a spirit of inquiry: an essential foundation for evidence-based practice. Am J Nurs2009;109(11):49-52

Abstract

This is the third article in a series from the Arizona State University College of Nursing and Health Innovation’s Center for the Advancement of Evidence-Based Practice. Evidence-based practice (EBP) is a problem-solving approach to the delivery of health care that integrates the best evidence from studies and patient care data with clinician expertise and patient preferences and values. When delivered in a context of caring and in a supportive organizational culture, the highest quality of care and best patient outcomes can be achieved.

 

.

Cheng, H. Y. Evidence-Based Medicine (EBM): What t Long -Term Care Providers Need to Know

Abstract

Evidence-based medicine (EBM) has been exponentially disseminated to every field of medicine over past 2 decades.1–7 EBM is now a part of postgraduate competency through practice-based learning.8 However, its potential use in the long-term care setting was only recently appreciated in the literature.1,9,10 EBM may play an important role in reforming nursing homes and improving quality care.1–5,9,10 The simple search term “EBM,” limited to English and human in Medline, generated 49,304 citations, which narrowed to only 173 when “nursing homes” was added, indicating that EBP is not rare and is being implemented in long-term care. It has been a great effort that each article in this special issue presents evidence-based recommendations to long-term care providers to guide their daily practice. In contrast to the evidence-based approach to individual geriatric conditions addressed in the other articles in this issue, this article briefly introduces the basic concept of EBM; addresses some potential benefits, harms, and challenges of its practice in a long-term care setting; and promotes its appropriate use among providers of long-term care. For those who already know the EBM basics and are interested in becoming experts, several textbooks on EBM are recommended.11–13 Attending an EBM workshop, such as one run by McMaster University,14 could also be helpful. Many Internet resources are also useful, including PIER: The Physicians’ Information and Education Resource (pier.acponline.org), Clinical Evidence.

 

 

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Hawkeye Pierce and BJ Hunnicutt built years of unethical situations on the popular show MASH

Hawkeye Pierce and BJ Hunnicutt built years of unethical situations on the popular show MASH. Through their comical depiction of these situations, the viewer might have been left with the impression that the unethical behavior was actually appropriate. Share your thoughts about what can happen to a business if ethical standards are not taken seriously.

Your journal entry must be at least 250 words. No references or citations are necessary.

 

Article Reviews Homework Help ASAP!

With the first weekend of March Madness underway, there has been plenty of talk regarding Power 5 (P5) Conferences versus non-P5 schools.  Many sports analysts believe the P5 schools have an advantage in making the NCAA MBB tournament and when it comes to seeding in the tournament.

Read these articles:

http://www.newsobserver.com/sports/college/acc/article139198713.html (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

http://sports.yahoo.com/news/march-madness-day-2-recap-power-conference-dominance-sets-up-second-round-showdowns-042714662.html (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

If you are unfamiliar with the term P5, read this article to familiarize yourself.  http://www.huffingtonpost.com/ken-reed/big-five-have-changed-col_b_5725772.html (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.

The P5 schools earned $6 billion dollars last year compared to a mere $4 billon for ALL of the other schools combined.

Do you think March Madness favors P5 schools? Why or why not?  If you think they do, what solutions do have to create parity for all schools?  What are things FGCU can do to improve our likelihood of being selected to the NCAA tournament as an at-large bid.

For this paper, you will need two pages typed.

 

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In the case of the Coyote and Road Runner

n the case of the Coyote and Road Runner (attached), one might question the ethics of the two characters’ behaviors on many fronts. Think of a company that you have worked for or that you know about that has not successfully implemented a culture of ethical business behavior. What would you suggest to that company in order for the leaders to improve their culture?

Your journal entry must be at least 250 words.

Within the realm of the Star Trek show, Mr. Spock seemed to present continuous questions

Within the realm of the Star Trek show, Mr. Spock seemed to present continuous questions about the ethics of space travels with his crew. Do you think character has any role in business ethics? Why or why not? How does character and personal integrity pertain to you in your profession or future profession? Your Response Must be over 200 words!

Select and describe a specialty that has evolved in a different direction from that of advanced

  1. Select and describe a specialty that has evolved in a different direction from that of advanced practice nursing (e.g., administration, nursing education, health policy, and/or forensic nursing).
  2. What key differences do you see in this evolution as compared with developed APN specialties?
  3. Describe the future vision and goals each role and relate to emerging healthcare trends and needs.

Directions

The paper must be between 3 to 4 pages in length, not including the title and reference list pages. The paper must use proper APA Publication Manual, 6th Edition formatting, including title page, running head, and reference list with properly formatted citations in the body of the paper.

 

In the case of the Coyote and Road Runner

In the case of the Coyote and Road Runner (attached), one might question the ethics of the two characters’ behaviors on many fronts. Think of a company that you have worked for or that you know about that has not successfully implemented a culture of ethical business behavior. What would you suggest to that company in order for the leaders to improve their culture?

Batman and Commissioner Gordon constantly involved themselves with local, state, and federal regulations. Think about the regulations in your locality and specifically reflect on one regulation that could use some improvement. What could be improved regarding this regulation?

Your journal entry must be at least 250 words. No references or citations are necessary.

Your journal entry must be at least 250 words.

Nursing Paper PicOT Statement Help at www.homeworknest.com

This paper is on rapid research teams, it includes reasearch critique topic one and two as well as Picot statement with final draft.

 

This paper is on rapid research teams, it includes reasearch critique topic one and two as well as Picot statement with final draft.

Liberty University Math 201 Project 3 brase & brase

Select and describe a specialty that has evolved in a different direction from that of advanced

  1. Select and describe a specialty that has evolved in a different direction from that of advanced practice nursing (e.g., administration, nursing education, health policy, and/or forensic nursing).
  2. What key differences do you see in this evolution as compared with developed APN specialties?
  3. Describe the future vision and goals each role and relate to emerging healthcare trends and needs.

Directions

The paper must be between 3 to 4 pages in length, not including the title and reference list pages. The paper must use proper APA Publication Manual, 6th Edition formatting, including title page, running head, and reference list with properly formatted citations in the body of the paper.

 

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  1. Analyzing Researched Information

Description

Overview

For this assignment, you will use the same method for reading a scholarly, published article that was introduced and practiced in Unit 4, to help you analyze the information and discuss insights about its value in addressing the business management issue you have identified as a step in the EbM process.

My Business Management Issue is: Employee Job Satisfaction Problems.

Instructions

For this assignment:

  • Locate and read an article that reports on a research study related to the business management issue, key performance questions (KPQs), and key analytic questions (KAQs) you have discussed in previous units. Note:You may use one of the two articles in your annotated list from the Unit 7 assignment if it is applicable.
  • Complete the Analyzing Researched Information Template, linked in the Resources. Follow the instructions in the template, save it, and then submit it to this assignment.

 

  1. Conducting a Job Analysis

 

Description

Overview

Write a 3–4 page memo outlining O*Net findings used to prepare a CapraTek regional sales representative job description.

Context

Job analysis can be seen as the foundation on which the entire staffing process is built. An effective job analysis informs which knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSAs) are needed to effectively perform the job.

Preparation

To prepare for this assessment, complete the following:

Read Chapters 5 and 7 and review Chapter 6 in Arthur’s Recruiting, Interviewing, Selecting, and Orienting New Employees e-book.

Read the scenario below.

Scenario
Alfred! will be produced in a new manufacturing facility. Groundbreaking on the new facility will begin this summer with full operations to be accomplished in three phases over the next two years. Distribution of the Alfred! device and components will be through existing distributors and retail outlets. While most of the new hires associated with this product line will be at the new manufacturing facility, four regional sales representatives will be hired to support the new product line.

Requirements

You have been asked to develop a job analysis, job specifications, and a job description for the four regional sales representative positions. To develop the initial information for this assessment, use O*Net OnLine, a U.S. Department of Labor-sponsored Web site of occupational information containing a database of both standardized and occupation-specific descriptors, linked in the Resources.

Hint: Begin your search by clicking Find Occupations. Then, under the Career Cluster heading, go to Marketing, Sales, and Service. From there, you can search for a sales representative in any of the technical fields.

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Write a memo to your supervisor outlining your findings, and explain why a job analysis is required for any recruiting and selection process. In addition, address the following:

A tentative wage plan and the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed for this job.
The job duties, qualifications, education, work experience, and job competencies required.
Wage information and employment trends for this position in your chosen state.
Additional Requirements

Required  length 3–4 pages.
Use Times New Roman font, 12 point.
Double space your memo.

Resources

Arthur, D. (2012). Recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and orienting new employees (5th ed.). New York, NY: AMACOM.
Chapters 5–7.

U.S. Department of Labor, Employment & Training Administration. (n.d.). O*NET online. Retrieved from http://www.onetonline.org/

  1. Question unit 1

Description

does the class think that when looking at data and reviewing numbers, that these numbers can be used to make changes in government and its agencies, where the provisioning of services tends to remain the same, rather than what we see in the private sector with improved production and sales goals?

 

Explain in a paragraph

 

  1. Unit 2 Role of the Governor

Description

Constitutional constraints notwithstanding, the role and power of the governor has changed over the nation’s history. The office has evolved over time based on societal, technological and political needs. Compare the role of the executive office as described in your state’s constitution with the current roles and functions that your state governor plays. Does your state constitution state or imply the roles you have described for your current governor? Hint: Check local media stories or news articles.

 

  1. Unit 2 Advice about Agency Heads

Description

The following summarizes the advice of one governor to his cabinet members as guidelines to give to their agency heads concerning the decisions they make: (1) stay within the budget, (2) avoid negative press coverage, and (3) abstain from actions that would start conflict between agencies. What if any directives or direction has the governor of your state provided to his/he cabinet secretaries that are consistent with or inconsistent with the admonitions listed above? Cite the sources which support your response including any policy statements, press conferences, press releases, newspaper articles or legislative commentaries. Hint: Online videos of press conferences are particularly informative.

 

 

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  1. Recruiting

Description

Create a 10–12 slide presentation that includes your findings about Internet recruiting and a job posting for a sales representative position.

How organizations begin transitioning from recruiting a large pool of qualified applicants to selecting the best applicant for the position is a complex process that changes over time.

Employment selection decisions are significant for managers and organizations. Poor decisions can result in a tremendous loss for the company. Employee performance is critical to organizational effectiveness because an organization will only be as productive as its workers.

The Assessment 4 Context document contains additional information about the types of assessments used to select personnel.

To deepen your understanding, you are encouraged to consider the questions below and discuss them with a fellow learner, a work associate, an interested friend, or a member of your professional community.

  1. Have you ever taken a test in school or for a job that simply did not make sense to you? Which test would you have chosen instead?
    2. Which type of hiring strategy (for example, permanent hire, using a temporary agency, et cetera) would you use for CapraTek’s new manufacturing employees? Why?
    3. Which type of recruiting strategy (for example, permanent hire, contract-to-hire, et cetera) would you use to fill the four CapraTek sales positions? Why?
    4. How might social media fit into your hiring plans?

Preparation

To prepare for this assessment, complete the following:

Read Chapters 3 and 4 and review Chapters 1 and 2 in Arthur’s Recruiting, Interviewing, Selecting, and Orienting New Employees e-book, linked in the Resources.

Read the scenario below.

Scenario
As part of CapraTek’s human resources team, you have been asked to research other employers and their Internet recruiting practices. This assessment has three parts:

  1. Evaluate two employers’ online application processes.
    2. Evaluate two general online job search sites for ease of use and information available.
    3. Develop a job description for the CapraTek regional sales representative posting.

Present your information in the form of a PowerPoint presentation deck of 10–12 slides. Ensure your slides are uncrowded, visually appealing, and easy to read.

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Requirements

Part 1: Identify two employers whose Web sites permit candidates to apply for positions online. You may choose any employer but preferably ones you might work for. Select only employers that allow online applications. Evaluate the user-friendliness of the application process and the value of the general job information found online. Consider whether the posted job information provides candidates with what they would want to know regarding the organization.

Using information from your research, create a PowerPoint slide presentation with bulleted points highlighting your key findings. Include the sites’ links. Add information in the slides’ notes section addressing the following:

* Articulate the user-friendliness of the Web sites.
* Compare the quality of the job information for each Web site from an employer’s point-of-view.

Part 2: Select two general job search Web sites (such as CareerBuilder, Indeed, SimplyHired, Monster). You may choose local or specific job sites. Look at the ease of use and the value of the general information provided on these Web sites.

Create additional slides for your presentation in which you include the links to the two Web sites and highlight your findings about them. Add information in the slides’ notes sections that includes the following:

* Articulate the user-friendliness of these Web sites. Would you use them to search for a job? Why or why not?
* Compare the quality of the job information for each Web site from an employer’s point-of-view.
* Summarize findings for or against CapraTek using these selected Web sites for posting positions and searching for applicants.

Part 3: Using your job analysis information for CapraTek’s regional sales representatives, develop a job posting for this position. Make location, salary, and working conditions assumptions as needed. Finish the presentation with slides outlining the essentials for the regional sales representative job description as follows:

* List the necessary qualifications, including educational background, technical experience, skills, and abilities.
* Describe the physical environment and working conditions.
* List the most important duties and responsibilities, with percentage of time spent on each, classifying each duty as essential or non-essential.

Resources

* Arthur, D. (2012). Recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and orienting new employees (5th ed.). New York, NY: AMACOM.
Chapters 1–4.

* Black, T. (2010). How to use social media as a recruiting tool. Retrieved from http://www.inc.com/guides/2010/04/social-media-recruiting.html

* Hartley, D. (2014). 8 findings about the impact of social media on hiring. Retrieved from http://thehiringsite.careerbuilder.com/surprising-findings-social-media-hiring/

* Heathfield, S. (2015). Recruiting stars: Top 10 ideas for recruiting great candidates. Retrieved from http://www.humanresources.about.com/cs/recruiting/a/candidatepool.htm

* JobDiva.com. (n.d.). Resume harvesting. Retrieved from http://www.jobdiva.info/transcripts/demos/harvesting.htm

* Larsen, M. (2013). The perfect recruiting email. Retrieved from http://www.recruiter.com/i/the-perfect-recruiting-email/

* Recruiter.com. (n.d.). Recruitment. Retrieved from http://www.recruiter.com/i/recruitment/

* Software Advice. (n.d.). Compare recruiting management software. Retrieved from http://www.softwareadvice.com/hr/recruiting-software-comparison/?layout=var_c0

  1. Economics and the Growth of Modern Medicine

Description

In the history of health care delivery, the development of various types of technologies has advanced the growth of medical care. Examples of lifesaving technology include the development of the microscope, X-rays, surgical equipment, and medications. These lifesaving technologies have contributed to increased longevity and life expectancy. These technologies have also brought with them increased cost, the emergence of health insurance, managed care, and high malpractice premiums and awards.

Has the benefit derived from these technologies outweighed the associated costs? Why or why not? To support your comments, select, state, and explain about at least two technological developments that have impacted these costs.

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  1. The Economics of Global Health Care

Description

As the costs of health care delivery in the United States continue to soar, it has become necessary to ‘benchmark’ with other countries abroad on how they deliver health care to their citizens. Countries to consider reviewing include:

  • England.
  • Canada.
  • France.
  • Germany.
  • Sweden.
  • Japan.
  • Cuba.

Select two countries and evaluate how they compare and contrast to how health care is financed.

  1. Methods of Presenting and Communicating Information

Description

Discussion Resources

The following resources are provided to help you complete this discussion and may be useful in completing your course assignments:

  • Marr, B. (2010). The intelligent company: Five steps to success with evidence-based management.Hoboken, NJ: Wiley.

o    Chapter 6, “Present and Communicate the Information,” pages 135–160.

o    The “Action Checklist” for Chapter 6, pages 204–205.

Discussion Instructions

Graphs, charts, and dashboards are common methods of presenting and communicating information in a business environment. Marr (2010) recommends that leaders and managers keep the target audience in mind when using a four-step process to facilitate Step 4 of the EbM model: presenting and communicating information.

Research up-to-date Internet resources related to business management graphs, charts, and dashboard designs and templates.

For your initial discussion post, address the following:

  • Explain how a manager can be certain that a presentation focuses on the needs of the audience.
  • Explain how Marr’s four-step process ensures that presentations are compelling and powerful enough to engage the minds of the audience.
  • Identify common format choices for graphic presentations.
  • Discuss one of Marr’s tips for producing useful graphics. Why would this tip be effective?
  • Explain why dashboards are popular methods for business managers to communicate information.

 

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  1. EBM Process Reflection

Description

Discussion Resource

The following multimedia presentation is provided to help you complete this discussion:

Discussion Instructions

Overview

Through the successful completion of your coursework in Units 6–9, you have explained the key components of the evidence-based management process used in health care management, analyzed sources of information used in evidence-based health care management, demonstrated analytical decision-making skills through the application of an evidence-based management process, and communicated in a manner that is professional and consistent with expectations for members of the business professions. Now that you have reached the end of the course, take time to reflect on your experience and learning over the past five weeks.

Instructions

For your initial discussion post, address the following:

  • Briefly discuss one of the most valuable personal learning experiences you have had in the last five weeks. Why does this experience stand out for you?
  • Share an example of something you learned that you will be able to use in your health care management career, either now or in the future. How will it affect your role?
  • Share an idea, material, resource, or topic that you would like to research or use further, in either your coursework or your career.
  • Provide links to resources you used in Units 6–9 that you want to save for future use. Provide the APA citations for your resources, and include the URLs for any online materials.

Support your ideas with references from the resources and your own research. Follow APA Style and Format guidelines for references and citations.

  1. Knowledge-to-Action Organizational Culture

Description

Discussion Resources

The following resources are provided to help you complete this discussion:

  • Marr, B. (2010). The intelligent company: Five steps to success with evidence-based management.Hoboken, NJ: Wiley.

o    Chapter 7, “Turning Information Into Actionable Knowledge,” pages 163–188.

o    The “Action Checklist” for Chapter 7, pages 206–208.

Discussion Instructions

Step 5 of the EbM model, making evidence-based decisions, involves asking two important questions:

  • How can we ensure that available evidence is used to make the decisions?
  • How do we create a knowledge-to-action culture?

For your initial discussion post, address the following:

  • Briefly discuss how each of these questions can be successfully answered through management or leadership style and actions.
  • Think about the organization where you currently work, or one where you worked in the past.

o    Analyze the organization’s leadership, IT capability, and organizational culture in terms of the ability to turn information into action.

o    Refer directly to Marr’s seven steps to creating a knowledge-to-action culture in your discussion post.

 

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  1. Application of the EbM Steps Presentation

Description

  • Describe your chosen business management issue.

o    Globalization and Technological Advancement

  • Explain the goal(s) organizational leadership would like to achieve with regard to the issue.
  • Describe any successes in solving the issue that have already been achieved and the improvements that are still needed.
  • Analyze the needs of the internal and external stakeholders with regard to the issue.

o    Identify the stakeholders.

o    Explain how and why they are affected by the issue.

o    Explain what they already know about the issue and what they still need to know.

o    Explain what the stakeholders will do with the information you are presenting.

Explaining Your Approach and Research

  • Provide the KPQs and/or KAQs you created for your chosen business management issue.
  • Describe the types of data you identified as needed to address the issue.
  • Explain the role of the organization’s IT department and professionals in the data collection process.
  • Describe the methodologies that could be used to analyze the data.  Be sure to include both quantitative and qualitative methods.
  • Summarize the example source of data that you researched.

o    Describe the source of the data.

o    Identify the methodology used to collect the data.

o    Share an example of actual data you have located.

o    Defend the validity and reliability of both the data and its source.

  • Share one of the articles from a year-to-date professional, peer-reviewed journal that you chose in support of your efforts to resolve the issue.

o    Analyze the value of the information found in the article in addressing the business issue.

o    What insights did you gain from the article?

o    How might the information be applied to the business issue?

Communicating to Stakeholders

  • Describe the potential types of graphs, graphics, dashboards, and narratives that would be most appropriate and effective to use when presenting and communicating this information to stakeholders.

o    Why do you believe your choices would be the best methods?

  • Explain how your choices support your KPQs and/or KAQs, while still being appropriate for the audience.

 

  1. Governor’s attempts

Description

Do you think that your Governor attempts to influence agencies to do or not do actions to protect the business climate in your state? Explain.

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  1. Screening and Interviewing External Candidates.

Description

In a 13-slide presentation deck, develop a variety of interview questions based on the KSAs and required experience for CapraTek’s regional sales representative positions.

The most common applicant screening process looks something like this:

* Review of resumes/applications for basic qualifications.
* A phone interview (generally with HR).
* A screening interview with HR that may involve some initial testing, reference checking, or background screening.
* A department interview with more in-depth testing and background checking.
* Additional interviews with other stakeholders.
* A decision process.
* Offer made to selected candidate.

To deepen your understanding, you are encouraged to consider the questions below and discuss them with a fellow learner, a work associate, an interested friend, or a member of your professional community.

* Based on your own employment experiences, what seems to be the best way to screen applicants so that only qualified applicants are actually invited to be interviewed in person?
* Are background checks and reference checks good business practices? Are they legal?
* Consider an ineffective employment interview that you, a family member, or a coworker experienced. What could the interviewer have done differently to make the interview effective?

Preparation

To prepare for this assessment, complete the following:

* Familiarize yourself with Chapters 5–14 of Arthur’s Recruiting, Interviewing, Selecting, and Orienting New Employees e-book, linked in the Resources.
* Read Baur, Buckley, Bagdasarov, and Dharmasiri’s 2014 article, “A Historical Approach to Realistic Job Previews: An Exploration Into Their Origins, Evolution, and Recommendations for the Future,” in Journal of Management History, volume 20, issue 2, pages 200–223. This article is linked in the Resources.
* Read the scenario below.

Scenario

In Assessment 4, you developed a job analysis for CapraTek’s regional sales representative positions. Based on that job analysis, you will interview candidates. Before you can do so, you must develop interview questions based on the required knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSAs) and required experience for the CapraTek position.

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Requirements

As a member of CapraTek’s human resources team, you believe the best way to develop the interview plan and select the best candidate is to include a variety of question types. Create a PowerPoint presentation deck containing the following elements, one question per slide. Ensure that your slides are uncrowded, visually appealing, and easy to read.

4 structured interview questions.
3 semi-structured interview questions.
2 behavioral interview questions.
2 situational interview questions.

In addition, include the following:

* Explain why the questions are appropriate for CapraTek’s position and do not request illegal information. Place your explanation in the slides’ notes area.
* Describe which question type(s) relates to the KSAs or required experience for CapraTek’s position.
* Include a title slide and (if needed) a resources slide.

Resources

* Arthur, D. (2012). Recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and orienting new employees (5th ed.). New York, NY: AMACOM.
Chapters 5–14.
* Baur, J. E., Buckley, M. R., Bagdasarov, Z., & Dharmasiri, A. S. (2014). A historical approach to realistic job previews: An exploration into their origins, evolution, and recommendations for the future. Journal of Management History, 20(2), 200–223. doi:http://dx.doi.org/10.1108/JMH-06-2012-0046

  1. Screening and Selecting Internal Candidates

Description

Write a 5–6 page report describing the process you used to select the best three candidates for CapraTek’s regional sales representative positions.

Recruiting candidates is only the first step in the hiring process. Evaluating candidates, selecting those to interview, conducting interviews and background screenings, presenting a job offer, and onboarding the new employee are subsequent tasks.

The Assessment 6 Context document provides additional information about these processes.

To deepen your understanding, you are encouraged to consider the questions below and discuss them with a fellow learner, a work associate, an interested friend, or a member of your professional community.

* Which employee development methods have you experienced in the workplace? How did these methods affect your retention and engagement? How could the manager have improved the strategies used to make them even more effective?
* What are the primary elements of an effective coaching style? How can a manager be a coach?
* How effective is a current or former manager’s coaching style and use of coaching strategies?
* What are the key steps you would include in a company’s internal recruiting and selection process manual?
* Why would an organization use a contract-to-hire approach to fill a job? How might an employee view this type of situation? Would you take a contract-to-hire job? Why or why not?

Preparation

To prepare for this assessment, complete the following:

* Read Chapter 15 in Arthur’s Recruiting, Interviewing, Selecting, and Orienting New Employees.
* Complete the Candidate Selection interactive media piece, linked in the Resources.
* Read the scenario below.

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Scenario

You have written a job description for CapraTek’s regional sales representative positions and determined job requirements. Now it is time to determine testing methods and choose the top three candidates to interview.

Requirements

After reviewing the CapraTek regional sales representative job description and requirements you developed for Assessment 5, use the Candidate Selection media piece to review the candidates’ resumes. In a 5–6 page report, include the following in your explanation of the candidate selection process:

* Explain why and when candidate background checks will be authorized.
– Identify pre-employment screening tests for the position being recruited.
– Articulate possible legal issues associated with candidate screenings.
* Select assessment methods to use based on the job being recruited and the budget available.
– Develop the sequence in which methods will be used to screen applicants.
– Explain how technology will impact choice of screening and selection methods.
* Design a final candidate selection process for the position being recruited.
– Describe the method you would use to make your final hiring decision (compensatory, hurdles, weighted, et cetera).
– Determine which candidates meet the basic job requirements.
– Identify the top three candidates to interview for the position.
– Explain your rationale for why the selected candidates should be interviewed.

Additional Requirements

* Times New Roman font, 12 point.
* Double-spaced, typed pages.

Resources

* Arthur, D. (2012). Recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and orienting new employees (5th ed.). New York, NY: AMACOM.
Chapter 15.

* Use the transcript attached to analyze and apply initial screening methods for selecting candidates at CapraTek.

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  1. Oversight of Executive Branch

Description

How does your state legislature maintain the review and oversight of the actions of the executive branch? What types of questions should be asked by legislators at committee hearings of agency heads, in your opinion?

 

  1. Performance Based Management.

Description

Progressive states have moved to performance-based management to create transparency and public accountability. They have also provided and encouraged easy access to information on how well the government is operating. Information for the public is often posted online. For a state website that does this, see www.vaperforms.virginia.gov/. What is the impact of posting agency performance and the role the state legislature plays in its oversight duties?

 

  1. Unit 3 Assignment

Description

Write a 3-4 page paper discussing the response of legislators to a proposed gubernatorial change in policy towards the state’s natural resources based on the following scenario:

Governor Goode E. Nuff was elected on a platform that promised greater protection for the state of her state’s natural resources, including a bay with diverse habitat supporting bountiful fish and shellfish.

Over the past decade, developers have been changing the shores of her state’ bay turning what was once the source of a vital and productive fishery into a haven for large homes and resorts that take advantage of the beautiful water view.

The Governor is dedicated to changing the bureaucracy and the state legislature, which have tended toward favoring developers in the past, with an eye to focusing their efforts on policies more in line with the views and priorities of those citizens who voted her into office.

To that end, she has decided to include in her legislative agenda a major push to accomplish the realignment, during the third year of her four-year term.

This agenda includes:

  1. A proposal to give citizen groups greater power to challenge new development based on evidence of it having an adverse impact on the environment
  2. A reorganization of the agency responsible for protecting her state’s bay with the creation of a new enforcement policy empowering the state to bring civil suits for money damages against industrial and developmental polluters
  3. Empowering citizen groups to intervene in county zoning decisions that would encroach upon naturally open space in environmentally sensitive areas
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  5. A substantial budget increase for the environmental enforcement agency to for the hiring of 100 additional inspectors to monitor for violations and ensure adherence to state standards for environmental protection. This legislative program requires a 14% budget increase for that agency, an amount 10% above the average 4% increase for all other state agencies.

Some members of the legislature feel that Governor Goode E. Nuff is “radical” in her approach and in her attempt to gear state policy toward protection and preservation of natural resources.

Your paper must address the following criteria:

  • What tactics can the Governor expect from these legislators and other interested parties as they attempt to “moderate” the Governor’s program?
  • On what specific points can the Governor expect direct conflict with the legislators and opposing interest groups?
  • Which parts of the Governor’s agenda are most vulnerable to attack by her opponents in the legislature, and therefore most likely to be modified or even defeated during the legislative process? What risks might the legislature be taking? What gains or losses might they face from the success or failure of such attacks, (in terms of political capital, voter opinion, etc.)?
  • What might be the best strategy for the administration to adopt in combating and countering those attacks? What gains or losses might she face from the success or failure of that strategy, (in terms of political capital, voter opinion, etc.)?
  • How might the legislative opponents attack this agenda?

In addition to fulfilling the specifics of the Assignment, a successful paper must also meet the following criteria:

  • Lengthshould be 3-4 pages, excluding cover page and references; in 10-12 point font (Arial, Courier, and Times New Roman are acceptable).
  • Assignment should follow the conventions of Standard American English(correct grammar, punctuation, etc.).
  • Writingshould be well orderedlogical and unified, as well as original and insightful
  • Your work should display superior content, organization, style,and mechanics
  • Appropriate citationstyle should be followed.
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  1. Healthcare

 

  1. Select and describe a specialty that has evolved in a different direction from that of advanced practice nursing (e.g., administration, nursing education, health policy, and/or forensic nursing).
  2. What key differences do you see in this evolution as compared with developed APN specialties?
  3. Describe the future vision and goals each role and relate to emerging healthcare trends and needs.

Directions

The paper must be between 3 to 4 pages in length, not including the title and reference list pages. The paper must use proper APA Publication Manual, 6th Edition formatting, including title page, running head, and reference list with properly formatted citations in the body of the paper.

 

  1. General Questions

 

For this assignment, read the case study, The 1920 Farrow’s Bank failure: a case of managerial hubris. This case is located in the ABI/Inform Complete Database found in the CSU Online Library (see reference below).

Hollow, M. (2014). The 1920 farrow’s bank failure: A case of managerial hubris? Journal of Management History, 20(2), 164-178.

Thomas Farrow had been evaluated as having been inflicted by managerial hubris at the time of the bank’s collapse in 1920. With this in mind, address the following questions, with thorough explanations and well-supported rationale.

 

  1. How did corporate culture, leadership, power and motivation affect Thomas’ level of managerial hubris?
  2. Relate managerial hubris to ethical decision making and the overall impact on the business environment.
  3. Explain the pressures associated with ethical decision making at Farrows Bank.
  4. Evaluate whether the level of managerial hubris would have been decreased if Farrow Bank had a truly ethical business culture. Could this have affected the final outcome of Farrow Bank? Explain your position.

 

Your response should be a minimum of three and half double- spaced pages (not including the refernce page and title page). References should include your required reading (attached) , case study (attached) reference plus a minimum of one additional credible reference. All sources used must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations, and cited per APA guidelines.

 

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  1. Business

For this assignment, you will take on the role of a Vice President of a major organization. The CEO has assigned you the responsibility of educating the leaders within the organization of the importance of maintaining an ethical culture. The tone of the presentation should be of a persuasive nature as you will also be asking these leaders to take this initiative to each of their areas. As you compile this presentation, include the following:

  1. Explain exactly what it means to maintain an ethical culture within the organization.
  2. Analyze the role that culture plays in global business ethics.
  3. Describe and persuade on the importance and rationale for maintaining an ethical culture within the entire organization. Think about methods that could be used to motivate towards ethical business practices.
  4. Recommend tactical methods that might be used within each of their areas.

Your PowerPoint presentation should be 14 slides, not including the title slide and reference slide. All sources used must be referenced and paraphrased. Directly quoted material must have accompanying citations and be cited per APA guidelines.

Use of speaker notes is required as well. In the speaker notes, you will provide what you would say if you were actually giving the presentation to an audience. Please write your notes in complete sentences and adhere to typical grammar and/or punctuation rules.

 

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  1. Business

Select a significant tragic event (either domestic or global) that has occurred during the last 50 years. The interactive PowerPoint in this unit provides some ideas of historical tragic events but understand that these are just ideas. After describing the event and the post-tragedy events, discuss the ethical aspects revolving around this incident. This may require some additional research to understand the ethical situations and the impact these had on affected people being able to move on with their lives.

  1. Describe the actions of people and organizational leaders directly and indirectly involved with the tragedy. Specifically, address the ethical issues they faced.
  2. What were some of the actions of local, state and federal personnel with respect to dealing with this tragedy?
  3. Explain the strategies of organizations that attempted to assist with the clean-up after the tragic event. Describe several of the pressures that influenced their strategies. Distinguish between social responsibility, integrity and simple business ethics.
  4. How has this event affected the ethical culture here in the United States? What other affect has it had on society as a whole?

Your response should be a minimum of three double-spaced pages. References should include, at minimum, one additional credible reference beyond the required reading (attached required reading). All sources used must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations, and cited per APA guidelines.

 

  1. Business

Within the realm of the Star Trek show, Mr. Spock seemed to present continuous questions about the ethics of space travels with his crew. Do you think character has any role in business ethics? Why or why not? How does character and personal integrity pertain to you in your profession or future profession?

Your journal entry must be at least 200 words.

 

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  1. Business

 

In the case of the Coyote and Road Runner (attached), one might question the ethics of the two characters’ behaviors on many fronts. Think of a company that you have worked for or that you know about that has not successfully implemented a culture of ethical business behavior. What would you suggest to that company in order for the leaders to improve their culture?

Your journal entry must be at least 250 words.

 

  1. Business

Hawkeye Pierce and BJ Hunnicutt built years of unethical situations on the popular show MASH. Through their comical depiction of these situations, the viewer might have been left with the impression that the unethical behavior was actually appropriate. Share your thoughts about what can happen to a business if ethical standards are not taken seriously.

Your journal entry must be at least 250 words. No references or citations are necessary.

 

  1. General Business

 

Batman and Commissioner Gordon constantly involved themselves with local, state, and federal regulations. Think about the regulations in your locality and specifically reflect on one regulation that could use some improvement. What could be improved regarding this regulation?

Your journal entry must be at least 250 words. No references or citations are necessary.

 

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  1. HIUS 221 National Park Essay

I have to turn in a report on a National Park or Museum in my area and I chose Serpent Mound Park in Peebles Ohio. See the directions below

 

Museum or National Park Assignment Instructions

 

Statement of Purpose or “Why Am I Doing This?”

There are many benefits to visiting historical museums or sites via walking tours. By actually witnessing a historical site, greater understanding of the events of past can be achieved. The visual learning dynamic as well as the tour guide learning scenario can all the more make “history come alive” and provide the student with a hands-on learning experience.

 

Completing This Assignment:

 

  • The student will visit one of three options related to U.S. historical events between the 1500s-1865: 1. A local museum. 2. A National Park. 3. A befitting video website walking video tour or suitable YouTube link of a Museum or National Park related to U.S. historical events between the 1500s-1865. Regardless of whether the student chooses to physically visit a location or view a site via a weblink route, it is required that they submit a request proposal (via the Mod. 4 DB assignment) to the course instructor seeking formal approval before taking the next steps in completing the Mod. 7 writing assignment.
  • Following the site visit, using the available assignment template, the student will then type a double space 12 font reflection (700-800 words) answering the following questions… How is this historical site relevant to events within the 1500s-1865 and the area now known as the United States? What historical information did you learn from this visit? What historical event or events were covered via this site? What (i.e.) artifacts and/or other displayed items were interesting to you and why? In other words, what stood out about this place and why? How did the site help you appreciate history?
  • The title page and reference page do not count towards the total page count.
  • When you are finished, your assignment must be:

o    In a Microsoft Word (or compatible) document

o    Formatted, including:

  • 12-point Times New Roman font
  • double-spaced
  • 1-inch margins
  • Page numbers placed at the bottom center of each page of text (not including the title page)

o    Proofread carefully to ensure it is written in scholarly language with no grammar, spelling, or punctuation errors and conforms to the standards of mechanics and style expected at the university level

  • You must use the template for the assignment provided in Assignment site.

 

Submit this assignment by 11:59 p.m. (ET) on Monday of Module/Week 7.

 

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  1. Accounting

What is periodicity assumption? Please explain this accounting concept and provide examples when possible. This discussion needs to be at least 300-400 words.

 

  1. History

 

Who is Vasco Núñez de Balboa? Please give a quick overview (around 3-5 paragraphs will do) of his early life, major contributions to explorations and history in general.

 

  1. Mathematics

 

A car is traveling at 60 mph and is tailgating another car at distance of only 30 ft. If the reaction time of the tailgater is 0.5 seconds (time between seeing the brake lights of the car ahead flash and hitting the brake), how far will his car travel during his reaction time?

Important note: Please discuss comprehensively how you got your answer.

  1. Psychology tests: What Is Reliability?

 

What are the types of Reliability considered in the field of Psychology? Explain each briefly. When possible, provide samples. Cite references please.

  1. History

Discuss the damage wrought by the Indian Ocean earthquake and tsunami. Include details on death tolls, total amount of damage, effect/impact on the cities affected, etc. Essay needs to be around 300-500 words.

 

  1. Question on GDP and national growth rate

How does a country’s GDP factor in determining a country’s growth rate? Explain and give an example of a country. Cite references.

 

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  1. Need help with Physics word problem

A man is 2,000 m from the base of a tower and is launching a rocket in the direction of the same tower. When the rocket takes off the change in the angle between the flight path and the land is represented by Φ(t) according to time. Knowing that Φ'(t) = Π/3, determine:

  1. The height of the rocket when Φ = Π/3 radians.

 

Please explain how you arrived at your answer.

  1. Modern treatments for pre-eclampsia

 

Explain what preeclampsia is, symptoms, diagnosis, and the most recent treatments being offered. Cite references.

 

  1. How Dialysis works as Kidney Treatment

How does the process of Dialysis work to resolve kidney problems? Please explain comprehensively how the process works and do cite medical references when possible.

  1. Which formula should be used to determine the total cost

The wedding photographer for the Smith/Jones wedding charges $1,000 for her preparation and first 60 prints. The cost is $2.00 per photo for photos beyond the first 60. Which formula should be used to determine the total cost, C, as a function of the number of photos, p, that are purchased, assuming at least 60 are purchased?

  1. C = 1000 p + 2
  2. C = 1000(2p – 60)
  3. C = 1000 + 2(p – 60)

Please explain your answer. Thanks!

  1. Essay on Cloning morality, and its pros and cons

Why is the morality of cloning being questioned? Does the act of cloning have benefits or disadvantages? What are they? Please answer with a 500 word essay. Cite references.

 

  1. Discuss the concept of Marxism

Please explain the concept of Marxism. Make sure to discuss its pros and cons in society. Give a detailed answer, cite references when possible. This has to be at least 500 words.

 

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  1. Short essay on Pablo Neruda’s work

What was Pablo Neruda’s most notable work? Which one do you prefer? Explain your answers in 300-500 words.

 

  1. Explain Hypothetical Syllogism

What does hypothetical syllogism mean in the field of Philosophy? Explain in 300 words, provide examples.

 

 

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  1. What is the ‘real story’ behind the animated film Pocahontas?

From what I know this film was based on a true story. Please discuss the factual turn of events in the Pocahontas – John Smith story and provide a brief comparison of those events and the characterization made on the film.

I just need a short, around 300-500 word essay on this. Thanks!

  1. Essay on Pearl Buck’s “The Good Earth”

Provide a brief summary of Pearl Buck’s “The Good Earth”. In addition to the book’s basic plot, discuss as well how this relate’s to society and what significant lessons can be learned from it.

Essay/answer has to be no less than 500 words. Thank you!

  1. Need help with Carbonic acid solution

How many milliliters of 60% carbonic acid must be mixed with how many milliliters of 15% carbonic acid to make 650 milliliters of a 38% carbonic acid solution?

Please explain how you arrived at your answer.

  1. Japan’s rise to power after World War 2

Please discuss Japan’s rise back to power as a first-world country after the Second World War. How did they do it? How far have they progressed after that time in history? This essay needs to be at least 500 words.

 

  1. Question on Caste culture in India

How does the caste culture in India work? Is it still being used? What is its good and bad sides? Please answer comprehensively and make sure to cite references. Answer must be no less than 300 words.

 

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  1. Question on Adam Smith and Capitalism

Discuss Adam Smith and His Invisible Hand of Capitalism. Discuss the merits of this theory. Please cite examples or situations whenever possible. Cite references.

 

  1. Discuss the story of the Yamashita’s treasure

What is the story behind the ‘controversial’ Yamashita treasure? Discuss this in no less than 300 words. Make sure to share interesting facts.

 

  1. Federal vs Republican Government – which is better?

What is the difference between a Federal and Republican government? Explain the good and bad sides of each, and please provide examples of countries where these two government systems are implemented. Answer needs to be at least 500 words. Cite references please.

 

  1. What is systems theory in management?

What is the systems theory used in the management setting? What is pros and cons? Give or cite a workplace situation where you think it is most effective and why?

 

  1. Need help factoring polynomials

Please help factor these polynomials. I would also appreciate if you can discuss briefly how you arrived at the answer, and provide tips on how to work on similar problems in the future. Thanks

1.)  x2 – 15x + 54

2.)   x2 – 8x – 9

3.) x2 – 10x – 11

4)    x2 – 6x – 16

  1. Describe the role of women in US politics

Describe the role of women in US politics in recent years. Give three names of women who have played a significant role in this field usually dominated by men. Give details on their contributions to the US legislation etc.

 

  1. What is your take on Donald Trump as a presidential candidate?

What is your take on Donald Trump as a presidential candidate? What do you think are his merits? What do you think are the cons of voting for him? Please present this in an essay form, college-level writing, and do include political science concepts that apply to your answer.

  1. Health & Medical

Give five examples of strength training exercises that runners can use in their daily training. Explain the steps for each, and how the athlete can benefit. Cite medical references when possible.

 

  1. Science

What is the free energy change if the ratio of the concentrations of the products to the concentrations of the reactants is 22.3, and the temperature is 37.0 °C? ΔG°\’ for the reaction is –16.7 kJ/mol. Please explain how you got your answer

 

  1. History

In a short essay, about 300-400 words please describe the French Renaissance era. Make sure to cite references.

 

  1. Mathematics

Please solve: Solve log ( 2x + 1 ) – log 6 = 2 for x. Please explain how you arrived at your answer.

 

  1. Philosophy

Can you please tell me a bit about Existential phenomenology? Just a brief explanation of what it’s all about will do.

 

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  1. What is the final temperature of the mixture?

An ice cube having a mass of 50 grams and an initial temperature of -10 degrees Celsius is placed in 400 grams of 40 degrees Celsius water. What is the final temperature of the mixture if the effects of the container can be neglected? Discuss your answer.

  1. Help find the mean and standard deviation values

Seven samples were obtained having the values 21, 22, 26, 29, 27, 26 and 24. The mean and standard deviation values are ____________?

  1. Economics international finance question.

Question

  1. Assume the exchange rate is fixed (and expected to remain fixed). Using numbers and the ‘money supply-money demand and interest rate parity diagram’, explain how an increase in the U.S. interest rate from 3% to 7% affects the Mexican interest rate, foreign exchange reserves, and the money supply in the very short run. Hold domestic credit fixed. Also include the diagram that shows the flows in money and bonds.
  2. The exchange rate is fixed. Using the two-sector model, explain how an exogenous increase in the marginal product of labour in the traded sector affects domestic prices, wages, and the price level in the long run. Hold all other exogenous variables fixed.
  3. Fill in the blanks. Do not explain; just fill in the blanks (put your answers in the booklet). (a) The exchange rate is fixed today. If, all of sudden, investors expect a devaluation of the domestic currency in the near future (there is an exogenous increase in the expected future exchange rate), the domestic interest rate ________ and foreign exchange reserves _________ in the very short run. (b) In the two-sector model with a fixed exchange rate, an exogenous increase in the marginal product of labour in the non-traded sector causes the price of the non-traded good to _______ and the wage rate to _________ (hold other exogenous variables fixed). (c) In the early 1960s, the inflation rate in Japan was ___________ the inflation rate in the U.S. The last time that Canada had a fixed exchange rate was between the years 1962 and ________. (d) In the intertemporal model with money under a flexible exchange rate, the exact equation for interest rate parity is ________________________. The approximate version of the Fisher equation is written as _____________________. (e) In the intertemporal model with money under a flexible exchange rate, a temporary increase in the money supply results in ________ in the nominal interest rate and _________ in net exports.
  4. (a) Draw the diagram for the intertemporal model with money under a flexible exchange rate (label the axes). Show the initial equilibrium as point A. Suppose there is a future increase in the money supply (the current-period money supply is unchanged). Show the shifts in the curves (or lines), if any, and denote the new equilibrium as point C. Just draw the diagram; do not explain. (b) Consider the three-sector model with a fixed exchange rate. Using equations, explain what determines the ‘terms of trade’ in the domestic eco
    nomy (suppose the domestic economy exports the resource good and imports the manufactured good).

 

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  1. Why was grassroots conservatism?

Question

1.Why was grassroots conservatism particularly strong in the Sun Belt in the 1970s and 1980s? I need this question answered in simple summary form using simple words.

  1. Using Richard Clarke’s Cyber War and his argument

Question

  1. Using Richard Clarke’s Cyber Warand his argument that our current Cybersecurity protection programs are inadequate, outline the sixsteps he recommends to improve America’s security as presented in his final chapter “The Agenda,” and provide your personal assessment and analysis of his recommendations.
  2. Discuss the unique cybersecurity issues as applicable to the TelecommunicationsCI.Specifically discuss the respective potential vulnerabilities and concerns, impact on other CIs, current government/industry activities, and present your recommendations regarding the future security of telecommunications.
  3. Discuss“Cyberpeace”as a concept. Include the possible applicability of international laws, treaties,  enforcement of law and possible punishments, and other aspects that would be leveraged for success such as those used for the Nuclear Non-Proliferation programs. Is this concept realistic and can the nations of the World come together and make it happen? Explain.
  4. Discuss the unique cybersecurity issues as applicable to the Transportation CI.Specifically discuss the respective potential vulnerabilities and concerns, current government/industry activities, and present your recommendations regarding enhanced Cybersecurity of these key national assets.

Answers must be thorough and in APA format with sources cited. Answers must be 2 pages per question.

  1. History 111

Question

  1. What specific gains did the civil rights movement achieve in the 1960s and how were those gains limited?
  2. Help

Question

Your best friends invite you over for pizza and a friendly game of cards. Describe how the following parts of the brain are involved during your evening of eating pizza, socializing, and playing cards: Broca’s area, hippocampus, hypothalamus, and occipital lobe.

  1. Targeting unhealthy foods and drinks to children

Question

Read the link below and answer the following questions

Is the FCC missing the mark on their inability to hold social media to the same standard as television and radio? Does this pose an even greater threat to our children in the long run?

https://www.azcentral.com/story/news/health/2019/03/04/instagram-social-media-may-cause-kids-eat-unhealthy-study/3052978002/

 

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  1. The normal healing of wounds can be modeled by an exponential function

 

Question

The normal healing of wounds can be modeled by an exponential function. If represents the original area of the wound and if A equals the area of the wound, then the formula describes the area of a wound after n days following an injury when no infection is present to retard the healing. Suppose that a wound initially had an area of 100 square millimeters.a) If healing is taking place, how large should the area of the wound be after 3 days?b) How large should it be after 10 days?c) How many days will it take before the wound is 11 square centimeters?

  1. Business stat

Question

Michael is running for president. The proportion of voters who favor Michael is 0.8. A simple random sample of 100 voters is taken. Round all probabilities to four decimal places.

What is the probability that the sample proportion will be between .70 and .90? Answer

What is the probability that the sample proportion will be less than .05 of the population proportion? 

 

 

The average starting salary for this year’s graduates at a large university (LU) is $20,000 with a standard deviation of $4,000. Furthermore, it is known that the starting salaries are normally distributed. All probabilities should be to four decimal places.

What is the probability that a randomly selected LU graduate will have a starting salary of at least $30,400? Answer

Individuals with starting salaries of less than $15,600 receive a low income tax break.  What percentage of the graduates will receive the tax break? (Round to two decimal places) Answer

What are the minimum and the maximum starting salaries of the middle 95% of the LU graduates? (Round to two decimal places) Minimum Answer, Maximum Answer

 

 

A department store has determined that 25% of all their sales are credit sales. A random sample of 75 sales is selected. Round all probabilities to four decimal places.

What is the probability that the sample proportion will be between 0.20 and 0.30? Answer

What is the probability that the sample proportion will be less than 0.15

 

  1. An alliance’s purpose can affect which governance

Question

An alliance’s purpose can affect which governance structure is optimal. Compare a pharmaceutical R&D alliance with a prescription-drug marketing agreement, and recommend a governing mechanism for each. Provide reasons for your selections.

  1. “Should We Require Labeling of Genetically Modified Food?”

Question

What do you think we can do to get our government to follow other country and require more disclosure on our food contents?

Why isn’t US requiring the same thing?  What do we, the consumers, have to do to get our government to look out for our health rather than the pockets of the food producers.

  1. Feasibility of CSR initiatives in SMEs – benefits and challenges

Question

Recognize and identify ethical issue(s) (i.e., competing viewpoints) present; identify the social responsibility complexities present and explain how they may impact resolution of the issues.

Select an issue of corporate social responsibility beyond the assigned readings and online discussions. The research paper should be 5 full pages of substantive content, and should rely on at least 3 credible sources. (Credible sources refer to books and published articles that are respected for academic purposes, and not web articles, blogs, or Wikipedia-type sources) The report will:  1) identify the issue; 2) describe any stakeholders involved in the issue and their role(s) in addressing it; 3) information/data pertaining to the issue from your researched source materials; 4) potential solutions to the issue; 5) any challenges or impediments in implementing the solution(s); and 6) Conclusion.  You should include a cover page, a reference page (Bibliography), and end-notes page; these pages are not included in the pages of content.

 

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  1. Online/offline Marketing Audit

Conduct an online and offline marketing audit for a brand of your choosing. Discuss the current use of online & offline marketing techniques they use to get their marketing message out.  Conduct a deep analysis of their website and the tools used to drive people to use their services and/or purchase their products.

 

Analyze an interactive marketing strategy for a company of your choosing.

3 full pages 

 

  1. Essay

Question

Summary:

Newspaper Article Assignment:

 

There are many critical international issues happening in the world today that are directly related to historical events or eras we’ve discussed in this class.  For this assignment, you must find a recent news article (from a credible source – email me if you are unsure of a source) about a current event and write a paper about how the article relates to an event or era discussed in this class.  This is not an informative paper, but rather you must use critical thinking to discuss how the current event is related to the history we’ve discussed and how it differs.  Compare and contrast the present with the past using course readings, lectures, and outside sources if necessary to supplement your paper.  Any supplemental sources should not be the main focus of your paper; your analysis of the newspaper article chosen is, and it should be obvious which is your main article.

 

Cite everything using footnotes (with full bibliographic information in them).

DO NOT PUT PARENTHESES IN YOUR TEXT.

 

*** Your answer must be about 5 pages (no more, no less), typed, DOUBLE SPACED, and 12-point Times New Roman font, one inch margins. You will be graded on content, grammar, punctuation, and following directions.  Remember, these papers add up to 20% of your final grade; they should be a well thought out responses with a beginning, middle, and end. ***

 

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Guidelines:

  • Find an article from a credible source – avoid 24-hour news channels (Fox News, CNN, MSNBC, etc.)… If you are unsure of your source, please email me.
  • Be specific. I want you to really think about this article and your response to it and how it fits into our course… You MUST cite course materials (lectures, readings, etc.)
  • Avoid replacing arguments with examples.  Use examples to illustrate a general claim, not as a replacement for them.  Examples by themselves tend toward selection bias and hasty generalizations.
  • I am interested in content, not clever rhetorical flourish.  Thus, avoid filler material… DO NOT USE BLOCK QUOTES FROM THE ARTICLES OR READINGS.  Direct quotes should be no longer than 2 sentences, MAXIMUM.
  • If you do not cite, even when you paraphrase, it will be considered plagiarism. PLAGIARIZED PAPERS WILL BE PENALIED EITHER BY AN F ON THE PAPER OR THE COURSE AND WILL BE REPORTED TO THE DEAN.
  • PROOFREAD YOUR PAPER.  You will be marked off for typos, punctuation errors, and/or major disorganization.
  • The heading of your paper should be your name ONLY.
  • 1-inch margins all around
  • The paper is to be at least 5 FULL pages long, not less (No cover page).

 

Topics to pick from:(Pick one that’s easy to for you)

-Fin de Siècle & The Dreyfus Affair “J’Accuse” (Emile Zola’s letter)
– Russo-Japanese War and the Antecedents to the Great War “The Serbs and the Hapsburgs”

– World War I “The Night the Angels Sang” essay

-The Armenian Genocide De Waal – Armenian Genocide
– The Bolshevik Revolution & Ukraine Famine Anthem by Ayn Rand & Jones chapter
– The Origins of the Nazi Party Excerpt from The Hitler Myth
– The Rise of the Nazis & Suppression of the Jews Excerpt from Between Dignity and Despair
-The Rape of Nanking Excerpt from The Rape of Nanking
– The Politics of World War II in Europe USHMM doc

 

  1. It is no secret that we have a large trade deficit

Question

Read the below link and answer the questions.

Word count 300

Arguments for protectionism would be to aide job creation or to keep wages up. This sounds great, but can all business sectors be protected or just few?

https://www.forbes.com/sites/patrickwwatson/2019/02/06/science-says-protectionism-wont-work/#3864e00873b4

 

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  1. Algebra 1

 

Instruction

Students need to complete one project and submit it before Friday of week 15. The official deadline for submission is Apr 12, 2019, before 9 PM. Format guidelines The project can be any topic in relation to algebra and its applications. However, it should NOT be on the material that is already covered in class. The students must select their own projects and articles. Important: No part of the project can be a copy and paste from anywhere, including the article under discussion (except the data and images, which need to be properly cited). If in doubt read https://ombud.msu.edu/academic-integrity/plagiarism-policy.html Turnitin has a built-in plagiarism tracker. Please use it to your advantage. The entire document should be written in APA format and should be between 4 to 10 pages in length not including images and the cover page. No extra wide margins are allowed. The margins should not be more than 1” in any direction. Choosing a topic Students must choose their own topics. Once the topic is chosen please post the topic in the following thread https://online.brooklinecollege.edu/mod/forum/view.php?id=539558 Start a new thread with the topic of your project as the subject line and post your topic in this thread. The same topic is not allowed for any two students. The student who posts a topic first gets it. Examples of viable projects: Mortgage rates Auto loan Compound interest Submission All papers should be submitted as a pdf file via the Turnitin module of Week 15. If any technical issues are encountered then contact your instructor asap. Rubric The following are the sections on which the project will be graded. A clear description of the objective of the article (20%) A clear description of the algebraic methods used (30%) Interpretation of the results (30%) Analysis of the conclusions of the article (20%) These 4 sections form the essential parts of any research article. The competence demonstrated in achieving the objective of each of these sections will be awarded accordingly. The rubric for each section and the article as a whole is 0 – Incoherent content, rambling on for pages, a clear indication of no work done, poorly chosen topic, a generic topic with no original content, copy paste from Wikipedia, a topic which is disallowed on grounds of being textbook material 1 – Some content, poorly researched, and hastily put together at the last minute 2 – Some research is done but the substance is still incoherent showing a lack of understanding 3 – Sufficient work is done, but the sections are not well-written and contain loose language and lack general cohesiveness 4 – Well researched and well-written. Minor typos, grammatical errors, lack of organization of the paper, too short a paper 5 – Excellent work, very well researched. Sections are clearly defined in terms of meaningful progress. The plan of the paper binds everything together in a cohesive manner This is applicable to each of the four sections and the whole article. So a total of 25 points possible. That will be scaled to 100 by multiplying by 4.

 

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  1. Performing Arts

The incredible true story of how boundary-shattering New England astronomer Henrietta Leavitt trades with comforts of her rural home for a job at the Harvard Observatory in Massachusetts. Her ambition leaves both her family and her new colleagues (women knows simply as “computers”) perplexed. But with a single discovery, their views of themselves, each other, and the universe itself will be upended for all time. An incredible story of bold love, boundless determination, and the vast grandeur of the cosmos – an unparalleled treat for the heart, mind, and senses. Please write a one page review to include your opinion of the play (text), the production (lights, set, costumes, etc.), the performance (acting), and your overall experience.

 

  1. Week 8 – Assignment: Interpret the Implications of Unethical Behavior

Instruction

Now is the time to compile all the concepts you have learned in this course into a comprehensive case study analysis. Assume you are an instructor presenting an unethical case study to your graduate students. Develop a PowerPoint presentation on a business of your choice. Be sure you include clear examples to support your findings. Please discuss unethical business actions that occurred from 2015 to present. Ensure to address the following key components for your student audience: Provide a brief historical summary of the organization. Identify and explain the unethical business practice examined. Reflect on ethical standards and why this practice was a violation of ethical behavior. Determine the influence of leadership in regards to this behavior. Explain any related cultural, environmental, and legal implications related to the behavior. Interpret the impact of the behavior on individuals, the organization, and society as a whole. Explain the outcome of the event, along with a comparison of the consequences (mention legal implications for the action). Determine the fairness of punishment. Explain your rationale using an ethical theory, as found in the recommended reading, to justify your rationale for the punishment’s fairness. Explain how organizational policies and procedures could be implemented to deter future occurrences like this from happening. Incorporate appropriate animations, transitions, and graphics as well as speaker notes for each slide. The speaker notes may be comprised of brief paragraphs or bulleted lists. Support your presentation with at least eight scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources may be included. Length: 15-20 slides (with a separate reference slide) Notes Length: 200-350 words for each slide Be sure to include citations for quotations and paraphrases with references in APA format and style where appropriate.

 

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  1. Week 7 – Assignment: Assess the Effectiveness of SOX Legislation

Instruction

This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions Prepare a paper in which you address the following: Identify and explain the key ethical components of SOX. Explain why financial fraud and abuse still occurs despite the passage of SOX. Recommend potential improvements of the SOX legislation based on your research. Recommend measures, beyond the scope of SOX, that organizations can implement to prevent financial statement fraud and abuse. Support your paper with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.

 

  1. Week 6 – Assignment: The Organization’s Influence on Unethical Behavior

Instruction

This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions The assigned reading articles provide a great deal of information regarding the impact that organizational systems have on unethical behavior. For example, in the article by Kilduff et al. (2016), the researchers note that rivalry can often increase unethical behaviors. This week, you will explain how an organization’s culture (e.g., systems and practices) can unknowingly/unintentionally increase unethical behavior among employees. Explain the importance of organizational culture and codes of conduct in encouraging ethical behavior. Assess three organizational policies or practices, as found in the reading and outside research, which can increase unethical behavior among employees. Propose informal and formal system solutions to reduce unethical behavior in organizations. Explain the benefits of these system solutions, as well as possible implications for these solutions. Support your paper with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic.

 

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  1. Week 5 – Assignment: Critique Ethical Issues Regarding Information Technology

Instruction

You have been hired as a consultant in the IT Department at Northcentral University. One of the University’s current goals is to minimize security threats and prevent breaches. To accomplish this, you have been asked to research last year’s “major hacks” to understand technology, information security measures, and issues in security management. Prepare a report for the IT supervisor that includes the following: Select one major incident to research regarding technological breaches. Identify the company that was affected, and then describe this incident and why you selected it. Explain the implications associated with this breach, specifically in terms of privacy laws and violations of the law. Analyze the impact that these technological breaches have on consumer safety and well-being. What recommendations would you make to this organization to further protect the privacy of clients? Support your report with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic.

 

  1. Week 4 – Assignment: Effects of Ethical/Unethical Behaviors

Instruction

This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions While Wal-Mart may employ a number of individuals (e.g., 2.1 million worldwide), throughout the years, the company received negative attention in terms of their business model and practices. Not only has Wal-Mart been accused of treating employees poorly, but they have also been the target of discrimination scandals. Begin by referring to the article in the resources for this week concerning Wal-Mart. Then, conduct a review of relevant research regarding Wal-Mart and its practices. In your paper, after thoroughly researching the Wal-Mart Corporation, address the following: Briefly summarize WalMart’s mission, vision, and values. Evaluate WalMart’s actions (e.g., unethical behaviors). Elaborate on whether the actions by WalMart are illegal. Justify your rationale. Determine how WalMart can improve its corporate culture and leadership. Then, suggest steps for improvement that could be taken to improve WalMart’s culture. In addition to conducting your own research regarding WalMart, you may find it advantageous, when developing your assignment, to watch the videos included in this week’s resources. Support your paper with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards

 

  1. Week 3 – Assignment: Evaluate the Price of Unethical Behavior

Instruction

This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions Prepare a paper in which you evaluate a recent business case of unethical behavior with which you are familiar. Be sure to address the following in your paper: Briefly summarize the historical scenario surrounding your selected case. Explain how and why you believe the unethical behaviors occurred for as long as they did. Evaluate the outcome of events, including relations with internal and external stakeholders. Determine and explain if the punishment was justified. Explain if and why it is difficult for us to identify ethical breaches that we personally commit. Support your paper with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.

 

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  1. Week 2 – Assignment: Examine Notions of Ethical Leadership

Instruction

This assignment will be submitted to Turnitin®. Instructions Assume you are an instructor of a graduate-level leadership and ethics course. In this course, your students are not convinced that the actions of leaders can truly impact individuals, the organization, and society. Therefore, you need to convey how ethical behaviors do in fact impact many individuals and further reiterate the need for ethical leadership. Explain how the authors in your readings and additional research define leadership. Specifically, focus your explanation on what it means to be an ethical leader. Interpret the manner in which leaders serve as role models (better or worse) for ethical behavior. Determine the impact the concept of trustworthiness has on the level of trust in organizational leadership. Based on your research, describe the impact that leadership behavior can have on individuals, organizations, and society. Then, explain which of the articles above convinced you of the benefits of ethical leadership, as well as the role of leaders. Identify any correlations that exist between leadership, trustworthiness, and ethics. Incorporate appropriate animations, transitions, and graphics as well as speaker notes for each slide. The speaker notes may be comprised of brief paragraphs or bulleted lists. Support your presentation with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 12-15 slides (with a separate reference slide) Notes Length: 150-250 words for each slide Be sure to include citations for quotations and paraphrases with references in APA format and style where appropriate. Save the file as PPT with the correct course code information. Upload your assignment using the Upload Assignment button below.

 

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  1. Week 1 – Assignment: Assessing Ethical Influences

Instruction

In 2009, an article was published by Kostigen, which highlighted the names of 10 unethical business people. While the names on similar lists change throughout the years, the names on this 2009 list often strike most recall among the business community. Examine this list, which can be found at http://www.marketwatch.com/story/the-10-most-unethical-people-in-business. Then, select one individual on this list to focus your paper on. Provide information regarding the individual’s unethical action/behavior. Based upon the research you conduct on this individual, utilize the articles by Bagdasarov et al. (2016) and Schwartz (2016) to analyze factors that might have contributed to this individual’s unethical behavior. Focus specifically on how diversity (e.g., cultural, gender, religious, etc. could have impacted/influenced the unethical behavior). Explain and justify the factors that may have influenced this individual to make the decision that he/she did. Explain how the decision made is reflective of Figure 1 (e.g., the integrated ethical decision-making model), in the research article by Schwartz (2016). Determine how this behavior could have been prevented if one or more of the factors mentioned above were removed. Support your paper with a minimum of five scholarly resources. In addition to these specified resources, other appropriate scholarly resources, including older articles, may be included. Length: 5-7 pages, not including title and reference pages Your paper should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your paper should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.

 

  1. Computer Science

Instruction

Hello, I’m looking for a professional in computer science majors only. I have 3 classes. I will make it very clear I’m not looking for writers. 1. Data Analysis and Reporting Class: / Is SQL database / ERDs so you will use Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio inside the VMware Horizon client. You also will use Visual Studio 2017. Also, there’s reading quizzes and assignment quizzes. These class 8 weeks work, which means 8 assignments in SQL database / ERDs. 24 quizzes “I will support you will old papers for all quizzes” 2. Data Analysis/Visualization Class: / Is an Excel database and you will use excel 2016. Also, there’s an assignment project om SAM project website. Every week assignment which means 8 assignments. 3. Predictive Data Analysis Class: / Is an Excel database and you will use excel 2016 and you will Using R programing language for Introductory Econometrics by Florian Hess. Every week assignment which means 8 assignments. I will put the syllabus here and please read it carefully and tell me if you can handle the whole classes or not. please note if you cannot take the responsibility or you’re not the right person I’m looking for please ignore this announcement. I don’t want to waste my time again! That’s all. Before you do anything READ the syllabus 1,2,3. These classes will end on May 6. So, it’s only 2 months’ work.

 

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  1. History

Instruction

Write an essay of 2 to 4 pages in length comparing the words used in the “U.S. Declaration of Sentiments of Seneca Fall (1848)” with “The Emancipation of Women and Resolutions of the International Congress of Women.

 

  1. Finance
  2. Convert the four financial statements by the selected company from the GAAP to IFRIS standard B. Write an analysis at the end of each financial statement that show the most important changes cause of converted. C. Answer the following question after you complete convert of all the financial statements:

 

  1. Healthcare

Instruction

There are seven components to this paper. They follow the EBP process. You will combine all the components into one project.

Research Methods & Evidence-Based Practice Project PICOT QUESTION: In the primary care setting, does clustering care during (acute visits) increase patient satisfaction (%) while decreasing office wait time?

 

  1. Article review and power point

Instruction

I need two Apply Behavior Analysis articles reviewed according to the Rubrics attached below. One article must come from the Association for Contextual Behavioral Science website, when you go to the website the article must come from the section drop down which states ACT. A PowerPoint presentation is needed with the article review. The power point must be well written to where I can read the presentation and it make sense to the reader and the listener. When a valid point is made, I would like a slide or two that ask the listener for questions. I like acceptance and commitment therapy so one of the article reviews could address that area but not necessarily. Another article must be written on any application of Applied Behavior Analysis to a clinical disorder and the above instruction must be followed. Both articles must follow APA Guidelines and be grammar and error free. This is doctorial level work, so it is my expectation that the writer has the knowledge and the expertise.

 

  1. Nursing Homework Help

 

What is the role of health care reform in shifting the focus from a disease-oriented health care system toward one of wellness and prevention, and how does nursing fit into this shift?

 

  1. Nursing Homework Help

What is the impact to the nursing profession and to the public related to the projected nursing shortage? Discuss at least one way that the nursing profession is working toward a resolution of this problem.

 

  1. SCI/220 Week 2 Food Intake

Record food intake and activities performed for three days. The iProfile® will be utilized to analyze the 3-day Food Intake Record. The Activities data will be analyzed during Week 4.

Enter your food intake for three full days using the food journal within iProfile®.

Follow the WileyPLUS® iProfile® instructions. Save this information.

Access the Intake Spreadsheet within the reports menu. Select start and end dates in the calendar at the top of the screen. The intake spreadsheet will calculate and display the average for the three days. Attach a screenshot of your report or export the report using Excel or PDF.

Write a paper of at least 750 words that addresses the following points about your 3-day food intake:

  • Recorded intake of protein, carbohydrates, and lipids
  • Which foods in your recorded daily intake provide protein? Which provide carbohydrates? Which provide lipids?
  • Review how your recorded protein, carbohydrate, and lipid intake compares with the recommendations of the dietary reference intake. If your recorded protein-carbohydrate-fat intake was too high or too low, which foods might you add or remove to achieve your goal and keep other nutrients in balance?
  • Is the protein in each food you ate complete or incomplete, combining to become complementary? Why is this important?
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  • How much of your daily recommended protein, carbohydrates, and lipid intake did you achieve? If your macronutrient intake is insufficient or excessive, what might you do to bring it into the recommended range? Provide specific recommendations.
  • Macronutrient intake ranges
    • Is macronutrient intake within the recommended range important? What are the effects of too much or too little of a macronutrient? What happens if you consistently eat too little protein? What happens if you eat too few carbohydrates? What happens if you eat too few lipids?
  • Fiber intake ranges
    • Does your fiber total meet 100% of the recommendation for you as calculated at iProfile®?
    • Does your diet meet the minimum number of servings of foods from each fiber-containing group? If not, which of the fiber-containing groups–fruits and vegetables–fell short of the recommended intake?
    • Which specific foods provide the most fiber in your meals? Which provide the least? Identify trends in your food choices that might affect your fiber intakes.
  • Dietary modifications
    • What changes might you make to increase the fiber in your diet?
    • How might insufficient or excessive amounts of proteins, carbohydrates, fats, or fiber contribute to health or illness? Provide examples.
    • What have you learned about your diet?

Cite three references other than the course text.

 

  1. 2 Discussion Question (Criminal Justice)

Questions:

  1. Which model do you think contemporary American society prefers? Explain why
  2. Are dangerous societal trends being captured in UCR/NIBRS or NCVS programs? Explain why or why not.
  3. Reflection Paper

You have learned a great deal this term! You can now bring so much more to the table and help contribute to the success of your team and the company.

  1. Reflect on what you have learned in this course and program.
  2. Share with us three (3) strengthsyou can now bring to the table

 

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  1. Law Homework Help

Key Assignment Draft

In those states with the three strikes laws, any person who has 2 felony strikes and commits another felony, whether it be violent or not, can be required to serve a sentence of 25 years to life.

Look at the case of Ewing v. California:

The defendant had his third strike when he committed grand theft at a golf course in Los Angeles County. This was not a violent crime but he was subject to the three strikes laws. He appealed this case up to the United States Supreme Court—and lost.

The public has always been worried about violent crime, but just how worried are citizens about nonviolent crime? With mandatory sentencing, society will have many older inmates within the prison system. In the criminal justice community, it is known that inmates “age out of crime.” Can you imagine a 68-year-old man climbing in a window or jumping an 8-foot fence? By keeping these older inmates incarcerated, is this a disservice to society?

State prosecutors have the discretion to lower the charge so that the third offense would not be considered a third strike. For this assignment, you are a policy maker in your state legislature. You are concerned about the heavy tax burden on your constituents. The cost of the actual running of the prison and costs of personnel will rise.

You are also up for re-election, and the feedback that you have received from your constituents has shown that they are dissatisfied with the law that now stands. They are afraid of violent crimes, not just felonies, and are very aware that the last crime committed by the perpetrator does not have to be a violent crime. They are also worried about the use of their tax dollars to incarcerate nonviolent offenders.

Assignment Guidelines

  • Address the following in 5–7 pages:
    • Develop a policy regarding the three strikes laws in the State of California. Address the following in your policy:
      • What alternatives would be placed in the law to give the state prosecutor more freedom to manipulate the third strike?
      • Many prosecutors “load up” charges against defendants to force a plea bargain. What can be done to limit or prevent this practice?
      • Will your policy allow multiple counts arising from the same incident to count as multiple strikes? (For instance, a man arrested for aggravated robbery because of the use of a weapon is charged with aggravated robbery and a felony gun possession charge. Should that count as 1 strike or 2?)
      • If one of the alternatives was supervised probation, how would you convince the public that it would be more cost-effective for the person to be supervised than incarcerated?
      • Show the public where you would be saving money by not incarcerating the perpetrator.
      • If brought up in the legislature to be an amendment to the law, could this be grandfathered in to help older inmates?
      • Could this have a backlash from the public, or would they approve? How? Why?
    • Once you are finished with the policy, draft an executive summary of the policy to be used for political decision making.
  • Use 6–10 scholarly resources to support the provisions of your policy. Dictionaries and encyclopedias are not scholarly sources. Look at federal and state legislation and court cases.
  • Be sure to reference all sources using APA style.
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  1. The Social Problems of Crime & Deviance Discussion Post

 

In about two paragraphs detail the relevance of Steffensmeier et al.’s findings. In other words, are there cases that you have read about that follow the sentencing trends documented in their study? Provide some details about the specific case or cases. Also, thinking about Burt et al., what are some possible solutions to the inequality in our criminal justice system?

Be sure to cite the course readings for full credit.

  1. Literary Analysis Paper

Your task is to write will write a literary analysis of no fewer than 750 words on your chosen given topic.

Choose the topic below that corresponds with the novel you read in the novel study. The introduction should include a clear thesis (not a restatement of the prompt), which should be the claim upon which your essay will be built. Each body paragraph should begin with a strong topic sentence (an assertion), and contain evidence from the novel, as well as your own commentary, which will connect your evidence with the claim. End your essay with a strong conclusion in which you again revisit your thesis statement and give your reader “food for thought”– what didn’t you say in your essay that is relevant to the overall essay and your assertion?

ESSAY PROMPTS

Frankenstein by Mary Shelley
Review the following themes of the novel:

  1. Parents must take responsibility for their children, and creators must take responsibility for their creations.
  2. Nature is a source of solace and inspiration.
  3. Manipulation of nature has devastating effects.
  4. Excessive pursuit of knowledge or ambition leads to destruction.
  5. Human beings need love and companionship; repeated rejection and alienation leads to antisocial behavior.

Choice #1: Choose one of the above themes, and analyze how Shelley expresses the theme in the novel.

Choice #2: Analyze a key scene from the novel, discussing how this scene in particular advances one of Shelley’s major themes. In the introduction, contextualize the scene (where in the novel it is located, what characters are present). Then have a clear thesis in which you make your assertion about the scene’s importance (to plot, character, and theme).

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  1. Unit 5 Individual Project Final Paper.

Key Assignment

You will use the new venture business plan from ENTR615 and your work from Week 4 for this assignment. The final draft should incorporate feedback provided by your instructor and peers during the course.

The new venture business plan from ENTR615 should include the following sections:

  • Table of Contents (TOC)
  • Mission Statement
  • Vision Statement
  • Product or Service
  • Market Opportunity
  • Competitive Environment

Part 1

Incorporate any new information generated during this course to the following sections of your new venture business plan from ENTR615:

  • Product or Service
  • Market Opportunity
  • Competitive Environment

Part 2

Generate the following new sections for your new venture business plan from ENTR615:

  • Facilities
  • Operating Plans
  • Legal Structure

Part 3

The main component of this part of the assignment is the inclusion of updated and detailed pro forma financial documents.

The financial documents should include the following:

  • Balance sheet
  • Income statement
  • Cash flow statement

Polish and strengthen your plan to improve the following:

  • Format
  • Flow
  • Ideas

Be sure to focus on the following:

  • The sections should be tightly written and professional in a business rather than academic style.
  • Present charts, graphs, and other visual aids as appropriate.
  • Changes made to any aspect of your plan should be reflected in your financial information.

Submit your business plan and financial statements in PDF format. Your most recent EZ Numbers file for the proposed new venture should be submitted in .xlsm format.

Please submit your assignment.

For assistance with your assignment, please use your text, Web resources, and all course materials.

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  1. Personal Narrative

Your task is to write a 750-1000 word essay about a memorable event in your life.

ESSAY PROMPT

Annie Dillard’s and Louise Erdrich’s essays are observations of animals that lead back to reflections on their own lives. Write your own personal essay, following these steps.

  • Write about a memorable event in your life.
  • Explain how this event led to an insight about your own life or about the human condition.
  • Organize your ideas into a unified essay.

Step Two: Prewrite

Brainstorm possible topics.

List memorable events or encounters with nature or other people that you remember. Ask yourself questions about ways in which each encounter might be emblematic of a general truth.

Your essay will progress from the personal to the universal and include specific details to help the reader understand the insights gained from the experience.

Get Organized

Decide on the structure of your narrative and create an outline or use a story map to reflect your ideas.

Look back at Living Like Weasels and Local Deer to help you. Ask yourself these questions about each one:

  • How does the story begin? What techniques are used to engage the audience?
  • How does the writer develop the narrative? What is the sequence of events? How are the main ideas organized?
  • How does the writer use setting, people or characters, conflict, and events to reveal a theme about experiencing the natural world?
  • How does the narrative end? Is there a final observation or reflection on nature?

Flesh out your narrative with descriptive details. Visualize the places and people in your narrative, and write down details about them. Be sure to include qualities and characteristics that make them unique.

Record some ideas for revealing the insight you gained from this experience.

Draft Your Essay

Use your outline to write your essay.

Remember to

  • Begin by introducing your readers to the setting, people, and experience that will be central to the narrative.
  • Describe a chronological sequence of events (opens in a new window).
  • Write from the first-person point of view (opens in a new window), and allow your own unique voice to shine through.
  • Provide a powerful conclusion. A personal narrative should end with reflections on the events and experiences that have been described.

Revise and Edit

Revise for Words that Wow (opens in a new window).

 

Scoring

Grading will be assigned on the attached rubric.

Ideas and Evidence (20)

  • 5 points – The introduction creates a vivid impression, clearly establishes the setting, and identifies the experience.
  • 5 points – The narrative provides informative background to help explain events.
  • 5 points – Descriptive details, realistic dialogue (if included), and reflection dramatically re-create the experience.
  • 5 points – The conclusion powerfully summarizes the importance of the experience and offers an insightful observation.
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Organization (10)

  • 4 points – The organization is effective; ideas are arranges logically and events are organized chronologically.
  • 2 points – The pace is effective.
  • 4 points – Well-chosen transitions clearly connect ideas and show the sequence of events.

Language (8)

  • 2 points – A consistent, first-person point of view creates a unique voice.
  • 2 points – Sensory language is used creatively to describe people, places, and events in vivid ways.
  • 2 points – Sentence beginnings, lengths, and structures vary and have a rhythmic flow.
  • 2 points – The writing demonstrates strong command of standard English writing, including spelling, capitalization, punctuation, grammar, and usage.

MLA Formatting (2)

  • 2 points – All MLA Guidelines have been followed— margins, paragraphs indented, double-spacing, 12″ Times New Roman font, heading and title included and formatted correctly, page numbers.

Total marks = 40 points

 

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  1. SCI/220 Week 2 Carbohydrate Pamphlet

Create a 2-page pamphlet/brochure using the Microsoft® Publisher, Microsoft® PowerPoint®, Brochure Builder, or another brochure building tool. Include the following details:

  • A title.
  • Define carbohydrates and outline the basic functions of sugars, starches and fiber in the body.
  • Describe the differences between simple and complex carbohydrates, stating healthy carbohydrate sources.
  • Describe how sugars are broken down and used in the body.
  • Explain the difference between soluble and insoluble fibers, stating how the difference can be applied to food selection and consumption so as to improve health.
  • Include information on one of the following disorders related to carbohydrates: lactose intolerance, diabetes, or hypoglycemia.

Include a definition, how it affects the body, and some courses of action used to treat and manage the disorder.

Include a reference with citations in APA format.

Include clip art and a background image.

 

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  1. American National Government Final Paper- Affordable Care Act

The Final Paper should utilize the POL201 Final Paper template and be at least six pages in length (not including title page and references) and based on your previously submitted assignments. It is important to utilize APA Style Elements (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. headings for major sections of your paper in order to ensure that the paper is easy to follow.

Scaffold your paper around the following outline:

The Final Paper Assignment

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  1. Discussion Post

Post an analysis of sources and methods of data collection in the context of your DBA doctoral research question. In your analysis, do the following:

  • Explain how the “Four Principles of Data Collection” from Yin (2018) support your ability to address your DBA doctoral research question.
  • Explain the importance of utilizing multiple sources of evidence and triangulation within the data collection process. Be sure to address the specific types of data triangulation (data, investigation, investigator, methodological) and their relationship to data quality. Be sure to provide a scholarly example to support your explanation.

Be sure to support your work with a minimum of two specific citations from this week’s Learning Resources and one or more additional scholarly sources.

 

To prepare for this Discussion, review this week’s Required Readings and consider why the different sources of evidence are important to the work of a DBA doctoral researcher, including the role of triangulation within the qualitative data collection process.

 

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  1. HR Director of A U.S. Based Medium-Sized Consumer Product Firm

For this written assignment you will focus on staffing.

Think about this scenario – you are the HR director of a U.S. based medium-sized consumer products firm. Your company is opening a sales office in [you choose the country]. Your job is to decide the best approach for staffing this new office.

For this assignment:

  • Decide what your product is.
  • Decide what country you will expand to.
  • Decide what Staffing Approach to use.
  • List Advantages and Disadvantages for the approach you chose.
  • What would be the Return on Investment for your choices?

Papers should be

  • 3-4 pages in length (not including title and reference pages)
  • Reflect APA guidelines
    • a title page
    • reference page
    • in-text citations
  • A minimum of two references are required
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1.HIUS 221 American History Opposing Viewpoints Research Project: Part III – Research Paper

The topic I chose for this was the Boston Massacre and the project needs to be on “Could the Boston Massacre Have Been Prevented?” 

American History Opposing Viewpoints Research Project: Part III Instructions

Statement of Purpose or “Why Am I Doing This?”

The ability to perform solid research is a key to success in academics and professional life, but communicating that research in a clear and concise manner is equally as important. This part of the assignment provides you with the opportunity to develop writing skills—specifically in the areas of organization and use of proper grammar, mechanics, and style—and to show your ability to use sources with integrity.

Completing This Assignment:

For the topic selected in Module/Week 2 of the course and utilized again in Module/Week 4, you will complete in the actual body content at least an 800 word 3-page paper that presents the research conducted during the term.

The paper must be well organized and developed and provide a concise examination of the subject.

Utilizing the sources from Module/Week 4 that were closely connected to your original topic choice from Module/Week 2 give an extended paper overview of the event? Discuss your own arguments. Include opposing viewpoints you discovered in your research. As a result, did your opinions change? How?

Citations must conform to current Turabian citation style with properly formatted footnotes and bibliography for the 3 or more scholarly sources you use.

The title page and reference page do not count towards the total page count.

When you are finished, your assignment must be:

In a Microsoft Word (or compatible) document

Formatted, including:

12-point Times New Roman font

double-spaced

1-inch margins

Page numbers placed at the bottom center of each page of text (not including the title page)

Proofread carefully to ensure it is written in scholarly language with no grammar, spelling, or punctuation errors and conforms to the standards of mechanics and style expected at the university level

You must use the template for the assignment provided in Assignment site.

2.Psychology


Instructions
Research the psychological state of active shooters who enter an active shooter location.
Research the psychological state of police officers who enter an active shooter location.

Discuss in detail (3-5 well-developed paragraphs) the psychological state of active shooters versus the police officers who enter an active shooter location to neutralize them.  

3. Classical v. Bureaucratic Modles

Description

Compare and contrast the classical and the bureaucratic models of an organization. What values do they both rely on and why is this important for understanding government processes?

 Does the class think that the bureaucratic model will continue to have support as, the number of agencies and services the state provides continue to grow? Explain  

4. Unit 2 Discussion question

Description

The following summarizes the advice of one governor to his cabinet members as guidelines to give to their agency heads concerning the decisions they make: (1) stay within the budget, (2) avoid negative press coverage, and (3) abstain from actions that would start conflict between agencies. What if any directives or direction has the governor of your state provided to his/he cabinet secretaries that are consistent with or inconsistent with the admonitions listed above? Cite the sources which support your response including any policy statements, press conferences, press releases, newspaper articles or legislative commentaries. Hint: Online videos of press conferences are particularly informative.

5. Examining the Legal Environment

Description

Overview

Write a 4–5 page report in which you analyze data concerning CapraTek’s hiring and promotion practices.


Many U.S. laws, ordinances, and guidelines directly impact the hiring and selection process. 

Context

Organizations use several methods to find job candidates. The Assessment 2 Context document contains information about the complexities involved in recruiting, hiring, retaining, and promoting employees.

Questions to Consider

To deepen your understanding, you are encouraged to consider the questions below and discuss them with a fellow learner, a work associate, an interested friend, or a member of your professional community.

* How should organizations respond to allegations of workplace discrimination?
* What are significant legal issues that you need to be cognizant of during the recruiting and selection process? How would these issues affect the recruiting process for CapraTek’s regional sales representatives?
* As social media becomes a growing hiring influence because of its reach and information prospective applicants freely share, how can organizations protect themselves against charges of invasion of privacy?

Preparation

To prepare for this assessment, complete the following:

Read Chapter 6 of Arthur’s Recruiting, Interviewing, Selecting, and Orienting New Employees e-book


Read the scenario below.
Scenario
While planning for expansion, CapraTek is also concerned about its hiring and promotion practices at existing facilities. Management has asked for an analysis of the workforce in its flagship manufacturing facility. As the Recruiting Director for CapraTek’s major manufacturing facility you are concerned about the company’s hiring posture relative to women and minorities. Your manufacturing plant in a nearby major city especially worries you. You recently checked the latest statistics for the SMSA the plant is in and found the following:

* Females in the labor force: 35%
* Blacks in the labor force: 10%
* Hispanics in the labor force: 5%
* All other groups are 0%


To address your concerns you first looked at the selection statistics for the past 12 months. Note: This plant hires mostly unskilled laborers and then trains them. Here is what you found:

Hiring Statistic

  Total Females Black Hispanic
Number Applied 80 20 10 5
Number Hired 20 6 3 1

Next you looked at your existing work force and found the following:

* Total: 450
* Females: 50
* Blacks: 22
* Hispanics: 20

Finally, you looked at how protected classes are being moved up in the plant. While workers are hired as unskilled laborers, that is not the whole story. There are two higher paying options open to them: they can become skilled machine operators (by passing an in-depth company run training program) and from there they can become line supervisors (this pays even more than the skilled jobs). You are concerned about how that program works also; the statistics are as follows:

Positions Within the Company

  Total Females Black Hispanic
Unskilled Workers 350 45 20 15
Skilled Operators 50 1 2 3
Line Supervisors 25 2 1 1

Note: The above totals do not add up to 450 or the work force totals because there are other jobs in the plant not used in this analysis.

Requirements

Using what you know about CapraTek’s hiring and promotion practices, prepare a report for top management addressing the following: 

* Analyze the data for evidence of adverse impact using the 4/5ths rule. Consider the applicant flow.
* Analyze the data for evidence of adverse impact of employee utilization based on the relevant labor market for the state you chose in Assessment 1.
* Analyze the data for evidence of adverse impact on any protected class concentrated in lower-paying jobs.
* Assess CapraTek’s hiring and promotion practices to support its growth strategy.

Additional Requirements

* Write 4–5 typed, double-spaced pages (not including title page or references).
* Use Times New Roman font, 12 point.
* Include a title page and, if needed, a reference page.

References

* Arthur, D. (2012). Recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and orienting new employees (5th ed.). New York, NY: AMACOM.
Chapter 6.

* Davison, H., Maraist, C., Hamilton, R., & Bing, M. (2012). To screen or not to screen? Using the Internet for selection decisions. Employee Responsibilities & Rights Journal, 24(1), 1–21.

* Houtenville, A., & Kalargyrou, V. (2012). People with disabilities: Employers’ perspectives on recruitment practices, strategies, and challenges in leisure and hospitality. Cornell Hospitality Quarterly, 53(1), 40–52.

6. Health Care Analytics

Description

Discussion Resources

The following resources are provided to help you complete this discussion and may be useful in completing your course assignments:

  • Marr, B. (2010). The intelligent company: Five steps to success with evidence-based management. Hoboken, NJ: Wiley.
    • Chapter 5, “Analyze the Data and Gain Insights,” pages 101–132.
    • The “Action Checklist” for Chapter 5, pages 202–204.
  • Bernard Marr & Co. (n.d.). The 6 best hadoop vendors for your big data project. Retrieved from https://www.bernardmarr.com/default.asp?contentID=1418
  • EHR Intelligence. (n.d.). Retrieved from https://ehrintelligence.com
    • Note: you may need to sign up with an e-mail address in order to have full access to this site.
  • Healthcare IT News. (2018). Analytics. Retrieved from https://www.healthcareitnews.com/category/resource-topic/analytics
  • Health Data Management. (n.d.). Retrieved from https://www.healthdatamanagement.com

Discussion Instructions

In 2010, Marr stated, “Most organizations are still more focused on simply collecting and distributing data than in doing any meaningful analysis” (p. 202). Since that time, technology has continued to rapidly advance. Support for health care leaders related to collection and analysis options for data and information has expanded as well.

Prepare for this discussion by researching the websites provided in the resources to increase your awareness of the current state of data collection and analysis in health care management. Then, locate and study a current article, blog, webcast, interview, or other source of information that addresses an issue, expert opinion, tool, new development, or future trend related to data analysis in the health care industry.

For your initial discussion post, address the following:

  • Provide the APA citation and URL (if applicable) of the source and summarize its content.
  • Explain how this information offers value to leaders managing in health care organizations.
    • Consider your investigation of the websites linked in the Resources.
  • Based on this research and examination of information, do you think Marr’s statement above is still valid today in the health care industry? Explain your position.

Support your ideas with references from the resources and your own research. Follow APA Style and Format guidelines for references and citations

7. Analyzing Researched Information

Description

Overview

For this assignment, you will use the same method for reading a scholarly, published article that was introduced and practiced in Unit 4, to help you analyze the information and discuss insights about its value in addressing the business management issue you have identified as a step in the EbM process.

My Business Management Issue is: Employee Job Satisfaction Problems.

Instructions

For this assignment:

  • Locate and read an article that reports on a research study related to the business management issue, key performance questions (KPQs), and key analytic questions (KAQs) you have discussed in previous units. Note: You may use one of the two articles in your annotated list from the Unit 7 assignment if it is applicable. 
  • Complete the Analyzing Researched Information Template, linked in the Resources. Follow the instructions in the template, save it, and then submit it to this assignment

8. Conducting a Job Analysis

Description

Overview

Write a 3–4 page memo outlining O*Net findings used to prepare a CapraTek regional sales representative job description.

Context

Job analysis can be seen as the foundation on which the entire staffing process is built. An effective job analysis informs which knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSAs) are needed to effectively perform the job.

Preparation

To prepare for this assessment, complete the following:

Read Chapters 5 and 7 and review Chapter 6 in Arthur’s Recruiting, Interviewing, Selecting, and Orienting New Employees e-book.

Read the scenario below.

Scenario
Alfred! will be produced in a new manufacturing facility. Groundbreaking on the new facility will begin this summer with full operations to be accomplished in three phases over the next two years. Distribution of the Alfred! device and components will be through existing distributors and retail outlets. While most of the new hires associated with this product line will be at the new manufacturing facility, four regional sales representatives will be hired to support the new product line.

Requirements

You have been asked to develop a job analysis, job specifications, and a job description for the four regional sales representative positions. To develop the initial information for this assessment, use O*Net OnLine, a U.S. Department of Labor-sponsored Web site of occupational information containing a database of both standardized and occupation-specific descriptors, linked in the Resources.

Hint: Begin your search by clicking Find Occupations. Then, under the Career Cluster heading, go to Marketing, Sales, and Service. From there, you can search for a sales representative in any of the technical fields.

Write a memo to your supervisor outlining your findings, and explain why a job analysis is required for any recruiting and selection process. In addition, address the following:

A tentative wage plan and the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed for this job.
The job duties, qualifications, education, work experience, and job competencies required.
Wage information and employment trends for this position in your chosen state.
Additional Requirements

Required length is 3–4 pages. Use Times New Roman font, 12 point.
Double space your memo.

Resources

Arthur, D. (2012). Recruiting, interviewing, selecting, and orienting new employees (5th ed.). New York, NY: AMACOM.
Chapters 5–7.

U.S. Department of Labor, Employment & Training Administration. (n.d.). O*NET online. Retrieved from http://www.onetonline.org/

9. Cloud Computing Security

Question

The topic I chose for my research paper is Cloud Computing Security. Cloud computing services have been provided by major vendors such as Google and Microsoft, until Apple announced iCloud for their customers. There were many issues with hackers gaining access private cloud storage of celebrities, particularly female. In my essay, I will use technology and information resources to research issues in information systems and technology. I will also focus on discussing the issues, vulnerabilities, problems, etc., and conduct an analysis, and provide recommendations.

10. Manipulating the Minitab Output

Question

Use the graphs and tables from W2 Assignment.

Create a brief Microsoft PowerPoint presentation describing your sample. Be sure to give an accurate and complete description, taking your instructor’s feedback from W2 Assignment into consideration.

11. Science Says that Protectionism wont Work

Question

Read the link below Answer the questions below 

https://www.forbes.com/sites/patrickwwatson/2019/02/06/science-says-protectionism-wont-work/#3864e00873b4

Do you all feel that we should use protectionism as a foreign trade policy? How do you see it harming or benefiting our trade deficit or economy?

12. Search the Internet for information regarding the interaction between web browser and web server using HTTPS

Question

Search the Internet for information regarding the interaction between web browser and web server using HTTPS from initial handshake to close of the session. Create a detailed drawing of the steps and also annotate each step with additional detail.

13. How to Integrate Climate Change Risks and Opportunities into Supply Chain Management

Question

Read the link above focusing on a news article discussing supply chain issues

https://www.supplychain247.com/article/how_to_integrate_climate_change_risks_and_opportunities_into_scm

14. Discussion Topic need 8 different answers for post

Question

Students need to contribute eight substantive posts in this discussion by the due date indicated. The substantive posts can be any combination of responses and replies. Here are our topics!

1. The visual system is very complex, as you can tell from this week’s reading! It would be great if you could discuss an element of the visual system that you find interesting and explain why (e.g., rods and cones, the retina, etc). 

2. We have a few sensory systems to discuss in this chapter! Please describe a phenomenon associated with the auditory (hearing), somatosensory (touch), or gustatory (taste) system. Why is the system you choose to discuss unique?  

3. As you will read, there are multiple brain regions that control sensorimotor function. What makes these regions important for how we move and balance our body?

15. In a lottery daily game, a player picks four num

Question

In a lottery daily game, a player picks four numbers from 0 to 9 without repetition. How many different does the player have

16. Creative Writing Poem

Question

ASSIGNMENT #3 DUE: Stanley Kunitz Imitation poem. Write another free-verse poem, but again with and focus on eliminating sentimentality and cliché. Try to write a poem that captures a moment, imitating Stanley Kunitz’s, “The Portrait”.  The idea is to NARROW your poem down to a focused moment, or a specific experience that illustrates an emotional moment withOUT naming that emotion. Work on SHOWING through detail and imagery. But remember to ZOOM IN. Use the moment the way Kunitz does in The Portrait. Using a “WE” or “I” speaker, write about a specific shared/experience that captures the nuances of everyday relationships of loved ones. Feel free to LIE! This poem should be written in FREE VERSE (no rhyming). Try to follow the line and stanza patterns of the Kunitz poem. 

17. Math question about combination safes

You are tasked with opening a safe without knowing the combination. Beginning with the dial at zero, the dial must be turned counterclockwise to the first combination number, then clockwise back to zero), and clockwise to the second combination number, (then counterclockwise back to zero), and counterclockwise again to the third and final combination number, whereupon the door will open immediately. There are 40 numbers of the dial, including the zero.

Without knowing the combination numbers, what is the maximum number of trials required to open the safe? (One trial means one attempt to dial a full three-number combination)

18. Coastline question math, hard concept

Suppose there’s a straight coastline and a lighthouse that is L=3 miles away from the coast. This light revolves at one revolution per minute. How fast is the beam of light travelling along the coastline? When the beam is 3L away from the coastal point closest to the light, how fast is the light travelling along the coast.

Explain how you got to the answer.

19. Career Planning and Management 300 words

Identify a possible entry-level or appropriate job for a career that might interest you. For example: Software Developer, Web designer, Web content writer, auto mechanic, or dental technician. Perform an Internet search for information about your career of interest.

  • Select several items from the search results list and go to their websites to see what you can learn about the career. Write down what you learn.
    • Do some research about the career including job qualifications, a typical workday, good versus challenging aspects of the job, technical skills required for the job, and the company background and culture. Summarize your findings in writing.
    • After your research, do you think this job is appropriate for you? Why do you think that is? 

      Do web research, and create a brief report showing:
  • Recent statistical data on identity theft
  • Type of identity theft
  • Steps than can be taken to protect yourself against identity theft

20. Defend or refute one of the following statements

1. Slavery of Africans had a greater impact in North America than it did in Central American, South America or the Caribbean.

2. Without question, the most important commodity during the era of European expansion was sliver.

3. The European Expansion was motivated purely by religious rivalries among the European power.


Choose one of the statements and defend or refute it in at least 300 words. Use MLA style and references.

21. Learning Strategies Psychology

Topic is : Human Rights

1. Define the topic

2. Why do you believe that topic is social problem in our society?

3. How are people in this group treated in our society?

4. How have government (local, state and / or federal) attempted to address this problem?

5. What can you as an individual do to have positive impact on this issue?

Paper needs to be the introduction paragraph, body paragraph, conclusion paragraph and the the reference page.

300 words or more

22. Pole and minimum number of moves

There are three poles in front of you. One pole is stacked with 64 rings ranging in weight from one ounce (at the top) to 64 ounces (at the bottom). Your task is to move all of the rings to one of the other to poles so that they end up in the same order. The rules are that you can only move one ring at a time, you can move a ring only from one pole to another, and you cannot even temporarily place a ring on top of a lighter ring.

What is the minimum number of moves you need to make to achieve the task?

Show a detailed proof and give a thorough explanation please.

23. Math help

You’re standing at the center of a circular field of radius R. The field has a low wire fence around it. Attached to the wire fence (and restricted to running around the perimeter) is a large, sharp-fanged, hungry dog who likes to eat any humans he can catch.

You can run at speed v. Unfortunately, the dog can run four times as fast, at 4v. The dog will do his best to catch you if you try to escape the field. What is your running strategy to escape the field without feeding yourself to the dog.

Please explain your solution.

24. Math Help

John is talking to Mary while working on a deal book at 2AM. Mary learns that John’s sister has three children. “How old are the children?” asks Mark. “Well,” replies John, “the product of their ages is 36.” “Hmmm, the sum of their ages is the same as this figure right here,” says John pointing at the spreadsheet. “Still not enough information,” says Mary after thinking for a minute. “The eldest is dyslexic,” says John. How old are the children?

25. Unemployment compensation

Please answer the following in connection with unemployment compensation and worker’s compensation:

  1. Evaluate: Everyone who loses his or her job is entitled to unemployment compensation.
  2. Analyze: It is important to know whether one is an employee or an independent contractor in case the person is injured at work.
  3. Evaluate this statement: Workers’ compensation legislation considers fault.
  4. Explain why someone might think this statement is true: The worker’s compensation system is not always beneficial to workers.

At least a 300 words response. APA

26. Mirror question

Please help me out with this confusing question!

Why are images in a mirror flipped horizontally and not vertically? For example, although I wear my wristwatch on my left wrist, and my reflection wears his on his right wrist, my reflection is not standing on his head.

Please explain in your own words, 200 words minimum.

27. Business question – 1 or 2 pages MLA

Question:

Don is an elderly man who lives with his nephew Evan. Don is dependent upon Evan for care. Evan advises Don to “invest” in Evan’s professional gambling venture. Evan tells Don that he will no longer provide care unless Don makes the investment. Don sells all of his stocks and bonds and signs a contract with Evan investing the proceeds of his sale of the stocks and bonds in Evan’s professional gambling venture. Can Don set aside the contract? If Don is successful in setting aside the contract, what remedy should he seek in addition to setting aside the contract?

28. Business question 4 – 1 or 2 pages MLA

Question # 4:

General Equity Corporation enters a contract with Nancy, a local artist, to create a mosaic of her famous painting “The Birth of Industry” to be set into the floor in the entrance hall of the new corporate headquarters. Nancy delays and then eventually refuses to perform the contract. In the meantime, General enters a contract with Ideal Investments, Inc. to sell the new building to Ideal. Before the sale of the building is complete, Jewel Funds, Inc. offers General a higher price for the new building and General refuses to honor the contract with Ideal Investments. General brings a lawsuit against Nancy for her breach of contract and seeks the remedy of specific performance. Ideal, after successfully enjoining the sale of the building to Jewel Funds, brings a lawsuit against General seeking a court order compelling General to complete the sale to Ideal. In your answer, discuss whether or not a court would grant the plaintiff’s request for the remedy of specific performance in each case. If you conclude that a court would not grant the remedy of specific performance in either case, discuss what the measure of damages might be available to the plaintiff in that action.

29. Business Question – 1 or 2 pages MLA

Question: Publix Supermarkets, Inc. is a Florida Corporation with its principle offices located in Lakeland, Polk County, Florida (“Publix”). Publix’s corporate offices are located in the Tenth (10th) Judicial Circuit of the State of Florida. Publix has retail supermarket locations though out the State of Florida as well as other locations in the Southeastern part of the United States. Publix has several retail supermarket locations in Hillsborough County Florida. Hillsborough Country is in the Thirteenth (13th) Judicial District for the State of Florida. The Tenth Judicial Circuit and the Thirteenth Judicial Circuit of the State of Florida are in the United States District Court for the Middle District of Florida. Cases arising in the Tenth Judicial Circuit and the Thirteenth Judicial Circuit of the State of Florida that may be brought in a federal court would be heard initially in the United States District Court for the Middle District of the State of Florida.

Some of the retail items sold to the public in the Publix stores located in Hillsborough County are delivered from a Publix distribution center located in Lakeland, Florida. The goods are delivered from the distribution center to the retail locations in Hillsborough County via a fleet of trucks owned by Publix and operated by Publix employees.

Sam Straight, a 30-year employee of Publix, is driving a Publix tractor trailer truck north bound on I-275 near downtown Tampa, Florida. Sam has the appropriate credentials to drive a tractor trailer truck in the State of Florida. He has been driving for Publix for 25 years of the 30 years he has been employed by Publix. Sam is driving under the posted speed limit and he is preparing to merge onto I-4 eastbound to return to the Publix distribution center in Lakeland.

Fred Fragile is a resident of the State of Georgia. His home is in DeKalb County Georgia, in the jurisdiction of the DeKalb County State Court. He is driving his motor home on the entrance ramp to northbound I-275 in downtown Tampa after a visit to the Florida Aquarium. Fred has the appropriate credentials to operate a motor home in the State of Georgia and Florida. He is driving under the posted speed limit. Fred wishes to merge onto I-275 and eventually travel northbound on I-275 to take I-75 northbound to return to his home in Georgia. When Fred merges onto I-275 northbound, he wants to move over one lane to his left to take I-275 North. When he enters I-275 North bound his vehicle is side by side with the Publix tractor trailer truck driven by Sam Straight. Sam wishes to merge one lane to his right to facilitate taking I-4 East to Lakeland. As the two vehicles negotiate the interchange, they come into contact with each other resulting in a multi-car accident closing I-275 North for several hours. Sam and Fred do not suffer any injuries because of the accident. Damage to Fred’s motor home totals $40,000. Damage to the Publix tractor trailer totals $25,000.

An extensive investigation by the Florida Highway Patrol has identified four people who were driving in the vicinity of the two vehicles at the time of the accident. One witness lives in Plant City, Florida. The second witness lives in Orlando, Florida. The third witness lives in Daytona Beach, Florida and the fourth witness lives in Toronto, Ontario.

Both Fred and Publix believe that there is evidence to suggest that either Fred or Sam is responsible for causing the accident. In answering the following questions, it is not necessary for you to discuss the potential for liability on the part of Publix and/or Fred.

A. If either Fred or Publix wishes to bring a claim to recover the damage to their respective vehicles, discuss the procedural steps that either party must take to initiate their claim. Discuss further the procedural steps the other party must take in response to a claim. Discuss what may occur in the event the defendant in the action fails to follow the required procedural steps if a claim is brought against them.

B. If Publix wishes to bring a claim against Fred for the damage to its tractor trailer, in addition to the steps discussed in your response to question 1 above, what elements must be present to bring the claim in a Florida court? What elements must be present to bring the claim in a Georgia court? Which state court, in your judgment, is mostly likely to hear the case?

C. If Fred wishes to bring a claim against Publix what elements must be present to hear the claim in a Georgia court? What elements must be present to hear the claim in a Florida Court?

D. The accident occurred in the Thirteenth Judicial District for the State of Florida. Publix’s corporate headquarters are in the Tenth Judicial District for the State of Florida. Assuming for the purpose of answering this question, that the litigation would be proper in either judicial district, what legal doctrine will be used to determine which district court will hear the case? If Fred’s claim is brought in the State of Florida, which district court, in your judgment, is most likely to hear the case?

E. Under what doctrine could Fred’s claim be brought in the United States District Court for the Middle District of the State of Florida? What requirements must be met in order for the claim to be brought in the United States District Court for the Middle District of Florida? Are those requirements satisfied in this case?

30. Business Development

 Please complete the following assignment.

You are the Business Development Manager for a microchip product manufactured by ABC Components Corporation. Please describe how your business development process and approach will change with each stage of the product life cycle. A five sentence paragraph should be sufficient to discuss your efforts in each of the stages: development, introduction, growth stage, maturity stage, decline stage (five paragraphs).

To get you started, think about the following…..in the development stage, who do you need to learn about, what kinds of information do you need marketing to generate, etc? Elaborate on this and provide more. This is relevant for the development stage. Each stage will be different, meaning, don’t just answer these questions for each stage. Think about each stage independently. There will be different approaches and considerations for each stage. Your responses should be based on concepts from the coursework, particularly the current chapter.

31. Business question 5 – 1 or 2 pages MLA

Question # 5:

Power Plus Battery Company (“PPBC”) has a production plant located in Tampa, Florida. PPBC manufactures batteries for motor vehicles. PPBC has 200 employees and sells its batteries to customers in twenty-five different states in the United States. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (“OHSA”) is a federal administrative agency that has the authority to establish safety standards, pursuant to the authority delegated to it by the United States Congress in the Occupational Safety and Health Act. These safety standards, also known as safety rules or regulations, apply to different industrial operations that have at least fifty (50) employees and are engaged in interstate commerce. OSHA proposes a new safety standard governing the handling of certain acids in the workplace. The proposed safety standard includes acids that PPBC uses in its production processes. After reviewing the proposed rule, PPBC concludes that compliance with the proposed rule will substantially increase its production costs and the proposed rule will not significantly increase worker safety. PPBC sends a letter to OSHA stating its objections and concerns to the new rule. Enclosed with the letter are independent research reports and other materials that support PPBC’s objections to the proposed rule. What procedures must OSHA follow when it adopts a new safety standard such as this one? What obligation does OSHA have to consider the objections and the materials submitted by PPBC? What options does OSHA have regarding the proposed rule? How does OSHA announce its final decision on the new rule? Once the new rule has been adopted, what source may interested parties use to find the final version of the new rule?

32. 2 Paragraphs question

Choose one article within the last 3 months about Marketing consumer behavior and write two paragraphs about it. It should include a link to the Article or the article on a different doc and give your thoughts on it. Examples and scenarios are more than welcome

MLA format.

33. Discussion Question – 2 Paragraphs

Discussion question: write 2 paragraphs with at least one reference

Now that you have completed a series of assignments that have led you into the active project planning and development stage for your project, briefly describe your proposed solution to address the problem, issue, suggestion, initiative, or educational need and how it has changed since you first envisioned it. What led to your current perspective and direction?

MLA format – 300 words minimum

34. Describe in 3 Paragraphs – Law Question

Anne is 10 years old and lives in a major metropolitan U.S. city and is currently in the 4th grade. Today, during gym class, Anne’s teacher notices several large bruises on all of Anne’s arms and legs and that her clothing is torn and dirty. When the teacher questions Anne about how she got the bruises, Anne replies “I fell on the playground.” The teacher reports the bruising to the school principal. The teacher and principal request Anne’s mother attend a conference after school.

During the conference, Anne’s mother is difficult to communicate with. She appears to be intoxicated, but denies having had anything to drink. She is also very defensive, states that Anne is a clumsy, lazy child and that Anne lies to get attention. The mother denies that anyone has physically hurt Anne. During the conference, Anne sits next to her mother but does not make eye contact with anyone in the room, nor does she speak. When questioned as to why Anne’s father could not attend the conference, Anne’s mother replies that he was too tired because he works two jobs and has to sleep during the day. Anne and her mother leave the conference and Anne is not in school the next day.

In 2-3 paragraphs, using your own words:

  • List 3 signs and/or symptoms of possible child abuse and neglect with respect to Anne.
  • List 3 risk factors present in Anne’s family that could contribute to abuse.
  • What do you think would be the best course of action for Anne regarding treatment, placement, and services?
  • When responding to peers, consider whether you agree with the course of action suggested by your peers. Why might that be the best course of action, or why might another action be more appropriate. Provide support for your choices.

35. Answer the following questions

The Swift Corporation has 5,000 sales representatives and employees in the United States who drive company cars. The company’s risk manager has recommended to the firm’s management that the company should implement a partial retention program for physical damage losses to company cars.

  1. Explain the advantages and disadvantages of a partial retention program to the Swift Corporation.
  2. Identify the factors that the Swift Corporation should consider before it adopts a partial retention program for physical damage losses to company cars.
  3. If a partial retention program is adopted, what are the various methods the Swift Corporation can use to pay for physical damage losses to company cars?
  4. Identify two risk-control measures that could be used in the company’s partial retention program for physical damage losses.

36. Business Questions

Chris and Karen are married and own a three-bedroom home in a large midwestern city. Their son, Christian, attends college away from home and lives in a fraternity house. Their daughter, Kelly, is a senior in high school. Chris is an accountant who works for a local accounting firm. Karen is a marketing analyst and is often away from home several days at a time. Kelly earns extra cash by babysitting on a regular basis.The family’s home contains household furniture, personal property, a computer that Chris uses to prepare business tax returns on weekends, and a laptop computer that Karen uses while traveling. The Swifts also own three cars. Christian drives a 2007 Ford; Chris drives a 2012 Pontiac for both business and personal use; and Karen drives a 2014 Toyota and a rental car when she is traveling. Although the Swifts have owned their home for several years, they are considering moving because of the recent increase in violent crime in their neighborhood.

  1. Describe briefly the steps in the personal risk management process.
  2. Identify the major pure risks or pure loss exposures to which Chris and Karen are exposed with respect to each of the following:
    1. Personal loss exposures
    1. Property loss exposures
    1. Liability loss exposures
  3. With respect to each of the loss exposures mentioned above, identify an appropriate personal risk management technique that could be used to treat the exposure.

37. Design and analysis of algorithms

Analysis & Design of Algorithms

Please answer the question in your own words, in less than 5 sentences.

Question

1. Explain the differences between java.util.Vector and java.util.ArrayList.

2. Explain the differences between java.util.ArrayList and java.util.LinkedList.

3. Explain the differences between java.util.TreeMap and java.util.TreeSet.

4. Explain the differences between java.util.SortedSet and java.util.SortedMap.

5. Explain the differences between java.util.HashMap and java.util.HashSet.

6. Explain the differences between java.util.TreeMap and java.util.HashMap.

7. Explain the differences between java.util.HashSet and java.util.TreeSet.

38. Web Development Exercise

Create a Movies class that determines the cost of a ticket to a cinema,

                   based on the moviegoer’s age. Assume that the cost of a full-price

                   ticket is $10. Assign the age to a private data member. Use a public

                   member function to determine the ticket price, based on the follow-

                   ing schedule:

                   Age            Price

                   Under 5        Free

                   5 to 17        Half price

                   18 to 55       Full price

                   Over 55        $2 off

39. Software design and construction quiz

Please answer correctly all the questions below and justify where applicable.

QUESTION 1

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QUESTION TEXT

You have been tasked with implementing an entreprise architecture strategy at VIU. Which framework would be the most useful?

Select one:

A. TOGAF

B. IEEE

C. MICROSOFT .NET

D. JAVA

QUESTION 2

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QUESTION TEXT

What does the MVC pattern do?

Select one:

A. IT MUST BE USED OR YOUR JAVA APPLICATION WILL NOT WORK.

B. SEPARATES TEXT FROM GRAPHICS.

C. IT DOES NOT REALLY DO ANYTHING.

D. SEPARATES USER INTERFACE FROM COMPUTATION AND COORDINATION.

QUESTION 3

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QUESTION TEXT

Was understanding the architecture of the ATM simulation that you did in your homework useful?

Select one:

A. NO, IT WAS A WASTE OF TIME.

B. YES, I UNDERSTOOD HOW THE SIMULATION WORKS AT A HIGH LEVEL.

C. YES, IT ENABLED ME TO DEBUG THE CODE IN DETAIL.

D. NO, THE CODE IS WHAT MATTERS.

QUESTION 4

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QUESTION TEXT

Is there a difference between the old mainframe architecture and the new cloud architecture?

Select one:

A. WHY ARE WE TALKING ABOUT MAINFRAMES NOW? THEY WERE BEFORE I WAS BORN.

B. YES, THE CLOUD USES THE INTERNET OR THE NETWORK IN GENERAL. MAINFRAMES DID NOT.

C. NO, THEY ARE EXACTLY THE SAME.

D. MAINFRAMES DID NOT HAVE AN ARCHITECTURE.

QUESTION 5

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QUESTION TEXT

Do you think that computer programs can solve Rubic Cube puzzles?

Select one:

A. YES, IT HAS BEEN DONE.

B. NO WAY, ONLY THE BAMBOZZLERS CAN.

C. NO. RUBIC IS SMARTER THAN ANY COMPUTER.

D. YES, BUT ONLY FAKE RUBIC CUBES.

QUESTION 6

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QUESTION TEXT

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Object Oriented Programming?

Select one:

A. WELL DEFINED INTERFACES

B. MODULARITY

C. AGILITY

D. INFORMATION HIDING

QUESTION 7

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QUESTION TEXT

Which of the following is not an architectural style?

Select one:

A. CONNECTOR.

B. LAYERED.

C. CLIENT-SERVER

D. PEER-TO-PEER.

QUESTION 8

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QUESTION TEXT

Can we simulate a client server architecture containing one server and three clients using one computer?

Select one:

A. YES, BUT THE COMPUTER MUST BE OPERATING A LINUX OR UNIX OPERATING SYSTEM.

B. YES, YOU CAN, IT’S DONE ALL THE TIME.

C. NO, YOU NEED 4 COMPUTERS.

D. NO, YOU NEED ONE COMPUTER.

QUESTION 9

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QUESTION TEXT

Do you think that software architecture can enhance software reliability?

Select one:

A. IN SOFTWARE ENGINEERING WE DON’T CARE ABOUT RELIABILITY.

B. I REALLY DON’T KNOW.

C. YES, A GOOD ARCHITECTURE CAN ENHANCE RELIABILITY.

D. NO. THEY ARE NOT RELATED.

QUESTION 10

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QUESTION TEXT

What is software efficiency?

Select one:

A. HIGHEST NUMBER OF LINES OF CODE.

B. LOW COST.

C. HIGH OCTANE.

D. BEST USE OF RESOURCES.

QUESTION 11

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QUESTION TEXT

Is user-friendliness a functional or non-functional property?

Select one:

A. NON-FUNCTIONAL.

B. NEITHER.

C. BOTH.

D. FUNCTIONAL.

QUESTION 12

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QUESTION TEXT

Does architecture-based design help meet non-functional properties?

Select one:

A. THERE IS NO RELATIONSHIP.

B. YES, IT DOES.

C. IS THIS A TRICK QUESTION?

D. NO, IT DOES NOT.

QUESTION 13

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QUESTION TEXT

What is a method for handling exceptions used in java applications?

Select one:

A. HIDE … POUNCE.

B. LISTEN … CORRECT.

C. WATCH …. GRAB.

D. TRY … CATCH.

QUESTION 14

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QUESTION TEXT

What is the role of connectors in software architecture.

Select one:

A. THEY CONNECT COMPUTER HARDWARE.

B. THEY HAVE NO ROLE.

C. THEY CONNECT DEVELOPERS AND CUSTOMERS.

D. THEY CONNECT THE COMPONENTS THAT PERFORM THE COMPUTATIONS.

QUESTION 15

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QUESTION TEXT

Which of the following is an example of a Connector?

Select one:

A. REMOTE PROCEDURE CALL.

B. BACKING UP FILES.

C. PARALLEL COMPUTATIONS.

D. GRAPHICS PROCESSING.

QUESTION 16

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QUESTION TEXT

What are the basic elements of software architecture that you studied in this course?

Select one:

A. COMPONENTS, CONTROLLERS, VIEWERS

B. COMPONENTS, PACKAGES, SUB-PACKAGES, AND MODULES.

C. COMPONENTS, CONNECTORS, INTERFACES AND CONFIGURATION.

D. PROJECTS, PACKAGES, COMPONENTS, AND CLASSES.

QUESTION 17

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QUESTION TEXT

What was the contribution of Roy Fielding to the World Wide Web architecture?

Select one:

A. HE INVENTED THE WEB.

B. HE DEVELOPED THE REST ARCHITECTURAL FRAMEWORK.

C. WHO IS ROY FIELDING ANYWAY?

D. HE DID NOT MAKE ANY CONTRIBUTIONS.

QUESTION 18

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QUESTION TEXT

What was the contribution of Roy Fielding to software architecture?

Select one:

A. HE INTRODUCED AN ARCHITECTURE SUGGESTING HOW THE WEB SHOULD FUNCTION.

B. HE DEFINED RULES FOR HOW THE UNIVERSE SHOULD FUNCTION.

C. HE CREATED THE AGILE APPROACH TO SOFTWARE DEVELOPMENT.

D. HE INVENTED MICROSOFT EXPLORER BROWSER.

QUESTION 19

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QUESTION TEXT

Can you generate code from architecture in Object-Oriented Programming?

Select one:

A. ME? NO WAY.

B. NO, THAT IS IMPOSSIBLE.

C. YES, BUT ONLY IF THE PROGRAM HAS ONE CLASS.

D. YES, THERE ARE TOOLS THAT HELP WITH THAT.

QUESTION 20

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QUESTION TEXT

How do you think software developers view the UML 2.0 standard?

Select one:

A. THEY ALL HATE IT AND NEVER USE IT.

B. SOFTWARE DEVELOPERS DON’T CARE ABOUT UML. THEY JUST WRITE CODE.

C. THEY ALL LOVE IT.

D. MANY THINK THAT IT’S TOO COMPLICATED AND USE A SIMPLIFIED SUBSET OF IT.

40. Create a small GUI application

Create a GUI application that displays 4 text fields, and 4 label fields and two buttons. The layout is up to you, but must be logical. A number is entered into each text field. When the “Calculate” button is pressed the application will calculate the following and display the results in each of the four label fields.

Sum of the four values

Product of the four values

The smallest value

The largest of the values

The exit button will exit the application.

41. Sport Management and Drugs

Sports Management:

  • Describe your current knowledge regarding drugs and alcohol. Elaborate as much as possible on specific drugs.
  • What influences you to use or not use drugs and/or alcohol? Describe your beliefs, ideas, and situations that influence this decision. How did your parents and/or older siblings influence this decision? Why do these things have such an impact on your decision?
  • Describe these thoughts in detailed paragraphs. Please be honest in your responses. (These will only be read by me.)

Your paper should be at least 2 pages in length (double spaced, font size of <14). Be sure you answer each question!

42. Budget Assignment

Instruction

For this exercise we are going to create a simple budget, and track our budget compliance over the course of a 12 month period. Although it is possible (and common) to track budget compliance on a month to month basis, to keep things simple for this exercise we are going to only examine the year end result. Start by creating a budget in Excel in the following format. The Budget Spreadsheet Image is attached… For the starting budget $ amounts you use the following logic. Determine the yearly values and enter them into your budget. Don’t forget to add the totals, and to determine the amount you are short/extra. Salary = $4,000 a month Rent = $1200 a month Car payment = $650 a month Phone = $95 a month Health Insurance = $250 a month Food = $500 a month We are now going to add the following data for the monthly amounts in out spreadsheet Salary: Your starting salary for the year is $4,000 a month. In June you get a 3% pay increase. Additionally you get a one-time bonus payout of $500 in October. Rent: Your monthly rent per your lease is $1,200 a month, with a 5% increase in November. Car: Your car is under lease at a rate of $650 a month. Phone: Your month rate for your phone is $95 a month, but you incurred overage charges of $25 each in the months of April, August, and December. Health Insurance: Your monthly installments for health insurance are $250 a month. Food: Food expense tends to be more varied than the other expenses be captured. Use the follow table to enter your food expenses. Food Expenses Spreadsheet is attached… Other: In the month of March you have a car repair bill of $750 and in August you took a $125 flight to visit your parents. Brief Write-up: Now review your actual income/expenses versus the budget that you established. Discuss in what areas you exceeded your budgetary amounts? What options do you have, and what actions would you take if your goal is to maintain your budget in all categories? Discuss how miscellaneous unexpected items can impact your budget.

43.History Assignment

Instruction

Choose an event or theme evident in U. S. History from the end of the Civil War to the near present and write a brilliant 3-5 pp. double-spaced paper based on one academic book, three scholarly journal articles, and at least two primary sources. The book must be published by a university press and the scholarly journal articles must be found on the JSTOR or America History and Life databases. The publication dates of the book and the articles must be between 1970 and 2015.

44.Healthcare

Instruction

• Name: Prevention of Pediatric Obesity Teaching Tool • Description: For this assignment, you will develop a Prevention of Pediatric Obesity Teaching Tool flyer for parents of children 5 years of age and less regarding the prevention of pediatric obesity. Pediatric obesity is a growing problem in the USA and is a major contributor to morbidity (hypertension, cardiovascular disease, diabetes, osteoarthritis) and mortality later in life. The tool should be developed according to the criteria established in the attached rubric. You are strongly urged to use the Center for Disease Control and Prevention as one reference (at least 3 references are required). References for the tool should be submitted in APA format and should be research based. Remember to use layman’s terms. Please review this rubric prior to completing this assignment

45. General Assignment

Instruction

Discussion #3: Communication & Motivation Select two of the three main topics to respond to and provide your mid-semester feedback. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tdmyoMe4iHM (Miracle, 4 min) Main Topic 3.1: Motivation Questions (2 parts) Question1) What motivates people? (See Module 6: Basic Motivation Model). Do you think it is money, Process Theory, or Content Theory? Question 2) Do you remember any particular motivational speech (graduation, sports, church, etc.) that inspired you to exceed what you thought were your capabilities? Main Topic 3.2: Path-Goal Does the Path-Goal Leadership concept fall under Content Theory or Process Theory of Motivation? Main Topic 3.3~Motivation What motivates employees to work hard and be more productive? The classic answer is — money! However, management texts tell us that motivation is not something you do to someone; motivation starts from within an individual with an unsatisfied need. Managers motivate employees by providing a means for them to satisfy that need. This is particularly challenging today as the Gen Y’ers (aka the Millenials) enter the workplace. For this discussion, in addition to the readings, visit the following three websites and address the question: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=owwM6FpWWoQ 60 minutes; Jason Dorsey; “Generation Y,” ( 3+ minutes) http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=h7SnQPBC6yM Twixters; 60 minutes; “Generation Y” Jason Dorsey (4:42 min) http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=erFRZimAJ0Y&feature=related Jason Dorsey~Keynote Speaker (10 min) ● Question: Do you agree with the portrayal of Gen Y, a.k.a. The Millennials? Do you fit in this category, or have children who do? Main Topic 3.4~Mid Semester Feedback If you have any comments, suggestions, complaints (compliments?) about the course to this point, please post them here. If you don’t want to go public, feel free to send me an e-mail.

46. Math Assignment

Instruction

Respond to the Main Topics, but prior to doing so, you might check out these clips: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=6x0l_vkjozc (Civil Rights 3 min) https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=JENCxjbARFM (Sowell, 2 min) Main Topic 2.1: Affirmative Action or Diversity Management? Culture is generally defined as “the learned beliefs, values, norms, symbols, and traditions common to a group of people.” Ethnocentrism: the tendency for individuals to place their own group (ethnic, racial, or cultural) at the center of their observations of others and the world. → A tendency to think our own cultural values and ways of doing things are right and natural. [pg. 384] The ethnic mix in the U.S. has been changing since Columbus arrived in 1492. “Census projections suggest America may become a minority-majority country by the middle of the century,” according to Kenneth Johnson, a sociology professor at the University of New Hampshire. In other words, whites will make up less that 50% of the population. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act (1964) prohibits discrimination by covered employers on the basis of race, color, religion, sex or national origin. In the United States, Affirmative Action refers to equal opportunity employment measures that Federal contractors and subcontractors are legally required to adopt. These measures are intended to prevent discrimination against employees or applicants for employment, on the basis of “color, religion, sex, or national origin.” (Source = Wikipedia. Yes, I know it’s a double standard that students are not allowed to use Wikipedia, but I, as a faculty, am citing it. However, this is not a democracy; it is a benevolent dictatorship) Question: One train of thought is that “enlightened management” may be leaning toward Diversity Management, a concept which may make Affirmative Action superfluous, redundant, or obsolete. What are your thoughts on this? Main Topic 2.2: Dimensions of Difference Hofstede found that national culture explained more of the differences in work-related values and attitudes than did position within the organization, profession, age or gender. In summarizing the most important differences, Hofstede initially found that managers and employees varied on four primary dimensions:” Individualism and Collectivism; Power Distance; Uncertainty Avoidance; Career Success and Quality of Life. Later, Hofstede and his colleagues identified a fifth dimension: Confucian Dynamism. Question: Where is your culture located on Hofstede’s original four dimensions?

47. Science

1. Explain the competencies important for the role of nurse leader. 2. Report on the correlation from the text book theories. Did the nurse leader practice what was outlined in the text? Why or why not? 3. Reflect on at least four (4) insights gained from your interview and observation -There are 3 questions that need to be answered, each question requires a minimum of one paragraph.

48. Business

Instruction

The purpose of this assignment is for students to evaluate the lean techniques applied to business in today’s workforce. Assignment Steps Select a business you are familiar with which incorporates lean manufacturing or lean supply chains. Evaluate how this firm uses lean strategies and how much lean techniques has improved the firm’s efficiency. Evaluate ways the firm can go even further to make improvements using lean techniques. Use the results you obtained from evaluating this firm to apply to your own business or a business you are interested in which currently does not use lean. Develop a 1,050-word report in which you describe your lean evaluation project. Format your assignment consistent with APA guidelines.

49. Security Regulation Compliance This assignment consists of two (2) sections: a written paper and a PowerPoint presentation. You must submit both sections as separate files for the completion of this assignment. Label each file name according to the section of the assignment it is written for.

Instruction

In the day-to-day operations of information security, security professionals often focus the majority of their time dealing with employee access issues, implementing security methods and measures, and other day-to-day tasks. They often neglect legal issues that affect information security. As a result, organizations often violate security-related regulations and often have to pay heavy fines for their non-compliance. Thus, as a Chief Information Officer in a government agency, you realize the need to educate for senior leadership on some of the primary regulatory requirements, and you realize the need to ensure that the employees in the agency are aware of these regulatory requirements as well. Section 1: Written Paper 1. Write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you: a. Provide an overview that will be delivered to senior management of regulatory requirements the agency needs to be aware of, including: i. FISMA ii. Sarbanes-Oxley Act iii. Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act iv. PCI DSS v. HIPAA vi. Intellectual Property Law b. Describe the security methods and controls that need to be implemented in order to ensure compliance with these standards and regulatory requirements. c. Describe the guidance provided by the Department of Health and Human Services, the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), and other agencies for ensuring compliance with these standards and regulatory requirements. d. Use at least five (5) quality resources in this assignment. Note: Wikipedia and similar Websites do not qualify as quality resources.

50. Math help

A road divides the neighborhood park into two parts. Calvin plots one part in a coordinate plane. The part of the park shown is a reflection over the x-axis of the other part. 8.g.3

Instruction

Part A: Draw the other part of the park. Part B: Write the coordinate of the vertices of the part that you drew. Then describe the effects of a reflection across the x-axis on the coordinates.

51. Psychology week 2

Instruction

Sensations Write a 1-2 page essay explaining how our sensations, thoughts, feelings, motives, actions, memories, and all other human capacities are associated with nervous system activities and structures; and discuss the types of damage that often affect the nervous system. Proper APA formatting is a requirement for all essay assignments. Cite at least three educational sources (one source may include the course textbook) in the essay.

52. Cultures in conflict week 2

Instruction

Theoretical Approach Summarize and explain the three major theoretical approaches that were introduced in this chapter – Durkheim and human consciousness, Benedict and Patterns of Culture, and Bourdieu and the principles of culture. (750-1250 words) · Which theoretical position seems clearest to you? · What evidence do you have for this theory in your own society? · Where have you potentially seen this exhibited?

53. Website Assignment

Instruction

Assignment Instructions Learning objective: To develop and design a professional webpage. Prompt: This week you are working on creating a webpage. Instructions: Build a website. Submit as Article #4 for your portfolio. Supporting Materials: https://websitesetup.org/ https://www.wix.com/ https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=M5ZG7-BlG6Q

54. Attn: GreatContentCreator Nursing Capstone Wk7

Instruction

Summary paper of program not of each term From Novice to Beginning Professional Nurse: Your nursing evolution reflects ways you have evolved in nursing school. Reflect on at least 10 BSN courses, in which you write a detailed paragraph. Provide evidence of growth in each course. Describe growth and development in becoming a professional nurse after each nursing core course. Reflect on ways courses, especially concurrent running classes, support one another. Synthesize theories and concepts into clinical settings applied to human experiences. Apply multicultural literacy. Reflect on holistic patient care. Format each course as major text headings per the APA manual. Review the rubric for more information on how your paper will be graded.

55.History

Instruction

Write a paper based of the Netflix series “Prohibition” , cite everything NO OUTSIDE SOURCES NO PLAGIARISM. Chicago format , 2 pages.

56. Science

Instruction

1. What are the functions of the nose? 2. What are the functions of the paranasal sinuses? Look up sinusitis on the Internet and tell me more about why it is such a large problem today (cite your URL). 3. What important functions are lost when you take out your tonsils?

4. What are the effects of smoking on cilia lining the trachea? Why is this unhealthy?

 5. What is the Heimlich maneuver and how is it done?

6. Where are the pleura and what is their function? How does their function differ from the pericardium (in the heart)?

7. What is surfactant and what is its function? How are premature newborns that don’t have it treated?

8. What is one cause of pulmonary edema and what changes does it bring to gas exchange? From the section on pulmonary ventilation there is some interesting information regarding how we breathe and what interferes with that process. You just need to know that during inspiration in the lungs more space (volume) is created in the intrapleural space. This causes a decrease in pressure that is translated to the lungs and the decrease in pressure in them leads to air rushing in from a place of higher pressure (outside the lung) to a place of lower pressure (inside the lung). Expiration is the reverse.

9. Explain pneumothorax – use the information about pressure to explain what happens.

10. Look up asthma on the Internet. What happens during an attack? Why? What drugs widen the airway (decrease resistance) and what drugs narrow the airway (increase resistance)?

 11. What types of different sounds can be heard by listening to your lungs with a stethescope? Why is this simple test useful?

12. What is meant by the term partial pressure and what do you have to do mathematically to get one (hint: multiply what times what) (from the outline given to you in lab and attached here)? Give an example of the partial pressure of oxygen in outside air at sea level.

13. What is the percent concentration of oxygen in the outside air at sea level, 10,000 feet and 30,000 feet? What happens to the partial pressure of oxygen as you go higher? At what altitude are the partial pressures of oxygen in the aveoli equal to those of the venous blood approaching the lungs (from the outline)? What problem does this cause?

14. What happens to partial pressure as you go below sea level? What problems can that cause (outline and Internet)?

15. What happens in carbon monoxide poisoning? Why does it happen? (in the book or on the Internet).

16. In what ways are carbon dioxide molecules carried? When does the CO2 content of the blood increase? Why does it need to be buffered?

17. What are other factors besides acidity that influence the rate and depth of respiration?

18. What are two examples of chronic obstructive lung disease and what are the symptoms for each?

19. Why is lung cancer so deadly? What is the effect of smoking on the lungs? Does it cause lung cancer? Why or why not?

57. Psychology

Instruction

Social Workers walk a fine line between assisting persons diagnosed with disabilities and empowering persons to think of their abilities. It is not unusual in health and mental health work for a social worker to have the task of establishing /assembling proof of disability for a client seeking financial resources and at the same time to be engaged in interventions designed to help a client seek rehabilitation/recovery. That rehabilitation/recovery may well endanger a client’s financial stability and eligibility for medical coverage. This week, write about the role of social workers in medical settings (clinical primary care, hospitals, skilled nursing homes for example) as they work with persons identified as disabled by chronic disease processes. Specifically, talk about how the biology of disorders may assist or interfere with the common advocacy role of social work staff. Also, you may wish to comment on your thoughts around the concept of “permanent disability”, educating other medical team professionals on the strengths perspective of social work, or the special concerns of social workers who may identify as disabled, themselves. You may have thoughts about client self-determination and diseases where lifestyle choices are thought to further or even initiate the disease process (diabetes, cardiac disease) as this relates to disability determinations. An excellent example is the AMA statement last year regarding obesity as a disability.

58. Other

You are going to create a one-minute dramatic script. The following is the beginning “setup,” or the start of the story, of the script: “There are six snakes trapped in a pit.” Your assignment is to create a one-minute dramatic script from this statement. First, tell me what genre you will be using. Then, create action, conflict, characters, and dialogue. Type up your “play” in dialogue format and submit. Have fun with it. Be creative!

59. Healthcare

Research Methods & Evidence-Based Practice Project PICOT QUESTION: In the primary care setting, does clustering care during (acute visits) increase patient satisfaction (%) while decreasing office wait time ?

60. Article review and power point

Instruction

I need two Apply Behavior Analysis articles reviewed according to the Rubrics attached below. One article must come from the Association for Contextual Behavioral Science website, when you go to the website the article must come from the section drop down which states ACT. A PowerPoint presentation is needed with the article review. The power point must be well written to where I can read the presentation and it make sense to the reader and the listener. When a valid point is made, I would like a slide or two that ask the listener for questions. I like acceptance and commitment therapy so one of the article reviews could address that area but not necessarily. Another article must be written on any application of Applied Behavior Analysis to a clinical disorder and the above instruction must be followed. Both articles must follow APA Guidelines and be grammar and error free. This is doctorial level work, so it is my expectation that the writer has the knowledge and the expertise

61. Business

Instruction

Strategic Plan: Part 2 In this second part of the final strategic plan development assignment, you will follow up on the introductory activities that you completed during the first portion in order to further develop your strategic plan. Please be sure to make adjustments as necessary based on some of your own desired adjustments and the professor’s comments as you work through the second part. During this portion of the process, your submission, which should be at least two pages in length not including any figures/graphics and the updated first portion, should include the following components: the results of a SWOT (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats) analysis or similar analysis assessing current internal and external areas of concern, strengths, and opportunities as the strategic plan progresses This cannot be the same SWOT analysis that you used for the Unit IV assignment identification of organizational stakeholders, internal and external, and how their needs and participation will likely influence and contribute to the plan’s development. Be sure that you are remaining consistent with your organization. Also, please include Part 1 with updates based on feedback from your professor and Part 2 of your plan in one document. Please include only one title page and one reference page with this assignment. References: Use these references also along with the other ones on the first part of the assignment Hull, A. (1996). Strategic Plan-making in Europe: institutional innovation. Planning Practice & Research, 11(3), 253–264. https://doi-org.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/10.1080/02697459616834 Patel, M. S., Phillips, C. B., Pearce, C., Kljakovic, M., Dugdale, P., & Glasgow, N. (2008). General Practice and Pandemic Influenza: A Framework for Planning and Comparison of Plans in Five Countries. PLoS ONE, 3(5), 1–9. https://doi-org.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/10.1371/journal.pone.0002269 Schulze, R. N., & Post, T. (2010). Individual Annuity Demand Under Aggregate Mortality Risk. Journal of Risk & Insurance, 77(2), 423–449. https://doi-org.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/10.1111/j.1539-6975.2009.01340.x Yoon, Y.-R. (2017). Strategic disclosure of meaningful information to rival. Economic Inquiry, (2). https://doi-org.libraryresources.columbiasouthern.edu/10.1111/ecin.12372

62. General

This assignment will give you the opportunity to explore what you believe, and based on the course readings, are necessary (requisite) knowledge, skills, abilities, (KSAs) experiences, and techniques needed to effectively lead either a human resources department or one functional area of Human Resources Management (HRM) within a public organization.  By “functional area” I mean one of the segments in the ‘Life-Cycle’ of an employee as noted in the chapters in Section II of our text (e.g., recruiting, performance management, compensation, benefits, training and development, etc.).  This assignment also provides opportunities to link theory with practice, apply what has been learned and/or how the necessary KSAs could be acquired to effectively lead an organization’s human resources department.I suggest the foll

I suggest the following process:

  1. Decide if you will focus on the HRM department as a whole, or on an HRM functional area. If focusing on an HRM functional area, decide which area.
  2. Read, and if necessary, re-read the text chapter corresponding to your chosen functional area.
  3. Narrowly focus your selection to avoid the pitfalls of inadequate detail.
  4. Locate at least 5 published references that are no more than 10 years old that pertain to the specific HRM function you have chosen to investigate. You must not use any of the sources used in the Research paper in this course.
  5. OPTIONAL: Conduct an Interview. You may wish to conduct a brief an interview with a manager or HR professional who has extensive experience HRM or the functional area you have selected.  I am not requiring you do this; however, if you are able to find someone who is willing to speak with you, this often can be a helpful learning experience.

Paper Format:

  • Your paper should be at least five (5) pages longnot including the Title Page and Reference/Bibliography  
  • Title Page: must contain the Assignment Number, a Topic, your Name and Student ID Number
  • Use 12-point font, double-spaced, and one-inch margins on all 4 sides.
  • Use in-text citations so I can decipher where exactly in your paper you drew upon others’ work.
  • Provide complete reference information (author, date, title, publication, volume and page numbers; providing a URL only is insufficient) on a separate sheet.
    • Create a WORD document that contains complete citation information of all your print and/or electronic source material. To be considered “complete,” citation information must include author(s), title, date, and publisher plus, if a journal or magazine article, the name of the journal or magazine, volume and issue numbers, and page numbers.  A reference citation containing only a URL is insufficient

63.Healthcare

Instruction

Find a media article that reports the findings of an original empirical study on some psychology or health-related topic that is published in a newspaper, magazine, or other periodical, or on an Internet news website (CNN, Reuters, BBC, Vox, WebMD, Huffington Post, etc.). The media article should have been published in the last year. Thoroughly address the following questions (in ~ 2-3 double-spaced pages): What observation about human behavior/health is being reported? ~1-2 sentences (2.5 points) Describe the study sample (e.g., size, gender, age range, marital status, racial/ethnic group, SES). (If not discussed, what would be the most appropriate sample to use for this research question?) ~3-4 sentences (5 points) What is the independent variable(s)? ~1 sentence (2.5 points) What is the dependent variable(s)? ~1 sentence (2.5 points) Are any other relevant variables discussed (e.g., moderators, mediators, covariates)? (If not discussed, what other variables do you think should be included in this study?) ~ 2 sentences (2.5 points) What type of study is being discussed: experimental vs. non-experimental, etc.? (If not discussed, what would be the most appropriate type of study to use for this research question?) ~2 sentences (2.5 points) What are some limitations of the study? (e.g., methods used, conclusions drawn; you must discuss at least 2 limitations) ~4 sentences (5 points; 2.5 points per limitation) What are the implications of the study for research, practice, and/or policy? (If not discussed, what do you think the implications of the study are?) Discuss at least 2 implications (~3-4 sentences) (5 points; 2.5 points per implication) NOTES: Your assignment should be typed, 12-point font, double spaced, 1” margins. Assignments that contain grammatical, spelling, or punctuation errors will lose points. If you present in class, you will receive the full 2.5 points. The remainder of your grade is based on the extent to which you sufficiently address the above questions in writing (feedback presented in class does not reflect the grade on your assignment). Late assignments will lose 3 points per day – no exceptions. must have link to article to print out.

64. Psychology

Providing only a summary of an experience or observed phenomenon will NOT meet the requirements for the reflection paper; instead, each student MUST demonstrate that he/she can explain the chosen phenomenon using theoretical perspectives discussed in the course material to receive partial/full points for this portion of the course grade. Examples of theoretical perspectives you may choose include: behaviorism (classical and/or operant conditioning), Freud’s psychoanalytic theory, Piaget’s cognitive d

Instruction

Each student will be required to submit one reflection paper. For this paper, you will choose any phenomenon and explain its development from the perspective of at least 2 theories that have been presented in class powerpoint notes or in assigned reading from the text. For example, if you have noticed that a small child you know seems to always want to be near his or her mother, you could attempt to explain why this may be based on the behavioral and cognitive developmental perspectives.

65. Compare and Contrast- having two jobs

Essay 2 Directions

Choose one of the topics below and compose a 750 – 1250 word compare or contrast essay:

1. Two jobs you have had 2. Two towns, cities, or vacation spots 3. Two hobbies or activities you enjoy 4. High school and college 5. A big campus and a small college campus 6. Public school and private school 7. Playing video games and doing outdoor activities 8. Reading a book and watching television/movies 9. The Academic Success Center and the Library 10. A fast food restaurant and the Titan’s Café on Warner Robins campus 11. Two social media websites (Facebook, Twitter, Instagram, Snapchat, etc.) 12. Online classes and on campus classes 13. Two movies, two television shows 14. Two characters, actors, or entertainers 15. Two cellphones 16. Smartphones and smartwatches  17. GIFs and memes/ emoji’s

You will follow the Five Steps of the Writing Process, once you have chosen a topic

66.Economics

Instruction

You must have access to the MSExcel and R to complete the course assignments. Course Description: Students will apply analytical techniques informed by economic theory and probability theory to solve real-life practical problems taken from a diverse set of applications such as anticipating behavioral outcomes and estimating worst-case scenarios. • How will a change in price affect quantity demanded for a given product? • How many citizens will participate in a government program (e.g. health care reform)? • What is the likely range of financial outcomes for a specific firm or industry? • How many customers will call a support service during a given period? These questions and more will be addressed. Business students interested in any quantitative discipline will find this course useful. Course Objectives: After successfully completing the course, the student will be able to: • Apply the fundamental theories of probability in a business context • Use mathematical and statistical tools to value, summarize, and analyze various outcomes • Forecast the timing and level of various outcomes using advanced regression techniques and time series models (ARIMA). • Use Quantile Regression to look at distributional outcomes • Evaluate, critique, and comment on the assumptions made and the mathematical techniques used to analyze various problems. • Develop significant computer spreadsheet skills by implementing the theory discussed in class. • Conduct advanced data analysis using a script-based analysis tool (R).

67.General

Epidemiology Paper (160 pts. total)

 This paper is intended for you to demonstrate your analytical mind. A detailed rubric is shown below. This project

will be due in parts. Paper should be double spaced in no less than 11 pt TimesRoman.

 – Each student will choose a disease or health-related condition as an epidemiology study

 – Review the current descriptive and analytical data information sources for that condition,

 – Write a paper (5-8 pages with references) that presents that information in a logical sequence,

 – Organization of your paper should include:

 I. Your title should succinct and be descriptive enough to the reader

 II. Introduction:

 – Introduce the topic (brief definition or description) and present it’s importance to human health status

 – Explain why this condition should be studied (increasing trend, affects a large number of people, socio-

 economic burden among those affected, etc)

 – You might include some prevalence information here to indicate the impact

 III. Descriptive Epidemiology:

 – Describe and/or define the disease or condition using descriptive epidemiology references

 – who tends to get this condition, where do they usually live, and at what age

 IV. Rates:

 – Present the most current national and local prevalence and incidence rates (when available)

 V. Causes and Risk Factors

 – Discuss the (presumed, known or theoretical) causes of this disease (if there are any)

 – Provide the currently established risk factors associated with the disease

 VI. Conclusion

 – Summarize this condition and indicate any public health methods that may limit its impact

 VII. Bibliography

 – Reference all statements of fact.

 – All citations should be referenced in the text and in a bibliography at the end of the paper

 – Use the American Medical Association (AMA) 10th edition (2007) Manual of Style in your bibliography.

For examples: AMA style.

 – Use of graphs or charts to explain relationships and describe the condition is strongly encouraged

 – Entire paper should be submitted onto SHSU Blackboard turnitin . No exception, please.

68. Computer Science

Instruction

– Resetting the software package, i.e. only one instance of the tool is allowed to be open. – Creating geometric objects, more specifically boxes (of user input dimensions and locations) and spheres (of user input radii and locations). – Creating an appropriate interface to allow a user to interact with the created objects. This should be shown by demonstrating the application of geometric transformations, more specifically translations by user input (along with the x, y, and z-axes) and rotations by a user input angle (around the x, y, and z-axes). – Exiting the tool. The attached file is an example of what it should look like.

69. Computer Science

Instruction

I’m looking for specialized in business information systems, business analysis, and Computer science majors. I have 3 classes which are, Data Analysis and Reporting, Data Analysis/Visualization and Predictive Data Analysis. Data Analysis and Reporting Class / Is SQL database / ERDs so you will use Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio inside the Vmware Horizon client. Data Analysis/Visualization Class / Is excel database and you will use excel 2016 inside the Vmware Horizon client. I will put the syllabus here and please read it carefully and tell me if you can handle the classes. please note if you cannot take the responsibility or you’re not the right person I’m looking for please ignore this announcement. I don’t want to waste my time again! I’m looking for someone and never give me good work. That’s all. Before you do anything READ the syllabus.

70. History of Psychology

Discussion Questions
 

All assignments MUST be typed, double-spaced, in APA style and must be written at graduate level English. You must integrate the material presented in the text to support your discussion, citing in APA format. Outside sources may be used to support the text information, but not replace the text.
 

Your response to each question should be approx. 1 page per question.
 

Assignment should be 16 pages total plus a title and reference page
 1.   There are many reasons why the history of psychology is important.  Pick two reasons and explain why they are important.
 2.  Socrates, Plato and Aristotle were important figures in Philosophy leading up to Psychology.  Discuss how these three paved the way for Psychology.
 

3.  Discuss how Augustine changed the locus of control human behavior, from forces outside the person to forces inside the person.
 

4.  Discuss the mind-Body interaction as seen by Descartes.  How did Descartes theories contribute to the beginning of Psychology?
 

5.  Compare the roles of Locke, Berkeley, and Hume, and their importance in early Psychology.
 

6.   Herbert was an important transitional figure between philosophy and psychology.  How do his theories bring these two disciplines together?
 

7.  Discus the commonalities and the differences between existentialism and romanticism.
 

8.  What were Fechner’s contributions to the development of psychology as a science?

9.  Compare and contrast Wundt’s view of Psychology with Titchener’s views.  Which one do you agree with more?
 10.  There were many controversies over intelligence testing.  Discuss the importance of Cattell, Binet, Spearman, Goddard, Terman and Yerkes in testing history.  Briefly discuss the Bell Curve theory (without pictures), as it applies to testing IQ.
 11.  Discuss the difference between Structuralism and Functionalism.  How were the two schools (Chicago and Columbia) similar and different?
 12.  Pavlov and Watson are major behaviorists.   Explain William McDougall’s outlook and theories and why he is not as well known.
 13.  Skinner was known as the leading neobehavorist.  Why were Tolman, Hull and Gutherie not as well known?  Be sure to include Tolman, Hull and Gutherie’s theories.
14.  Discuss the founding of Gestalt theory.  What impact did it have on psychology and therapy?
 15.  Summarize the medical, psychological and supernatural models of mental illness and give examples of each.
 16.  Sigmund Freud is credited with being the Father of Psychoanalysis.  Compare and contrast how Anna Freud, Carl Jung, Alfred Adler and Karen Horney morphed Freud’s original theories into working theories that we still use today.

71.Writing Essay

Prompt. In the documentary Catfish, we saw an individual create an imaginary identity as a way of dealing with her depressing offline reality. Eventually, the relationship turned into something more than a friendship although it was actually based on an elaborate lie. The articles”Love the One You’re Near” and “There Is Now Evidence That “There’s Now Evidence That Online Dating Causes Stronger, More Diverse Marriages” also address the issue of online romance. What do you think? Is the Internet a useful place to find a partner?​ Make an argument for or against online dating. Take a position and support it with reasons and evidence. Include  a counterargument and rebuttal.  You can use logical reasoning, personal examples, examples from the documentary and the articles, expert opinions, facts, and/or statistics. Also include  at least one direct quote and a paraphrase with in-text citations. ​

72. Extra Credit: Researching Library Databases

Answer each question, the following questions for an extra Writer’s Notebook grade (this is extra credit).

  1. Find the source that discusses police wearing body cameras by Kelly Freund. List the title of the article and summarize it (you can summarize the abstract).
  2. Find the source that discusses transgender students’ bathroom rights from the Harvard Journal on Legislation. List the title of the article, the author, and the subject terms used to categorize it.
  3. Find the source that discusses the sale of organs from Boston College Law Review. List the correct Works Cited entry.
  4. Find a source that discusses raising the federal minimum wage. List the article title and author. Then describe how you searched for it and found it.

YouTube URL: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Z3y_2wzCS0c

Please watch the video below over accessing the online databases. Then complete the database activity in your next Writer’s Notebook below. You will be finding sources for your annotated bibliography and your argument research paper. You will use  Academic Search Complete to find them.  You need to find four sources that support your claim and one that is a counterargument.

You can access the online databases from the Richland College Library homepage (there is a link on the left sidebar). Click on Databases (in the left column) and then click on Academic Search Complete at the top of the page. You will have to login with your student ID email provided by DCCCD. Your email starts with a lowercase E followed by your student ID. Here’s an example:

Login: e1234567@student.dcccd.edu

Password: eConnect password

If you do not know your eCannect password, you can try logging in on the eConnect webpage. There is a box you can check to get your password hint as well.

Whenever you search a database, always look for the “Advanced Search” feature, which allows you to combine key terms. Using key terms selectively is also important. Also, when searching for authors in a database, always place the last name first, since items in a database are alphabetized. You can also use the drop down arrow to search specific things like authors, titles, journal names, or even ISBN numbers.

73. Project Management Discussion 5

1.Using expected value, is it economically better to make or buy the component?

Cost of buying 10,000 components = 10,000 * 72 = $720,000

2.    Strategically thinking, why might management opt for other than the most economical choice?

response for Naresh Erlapalli

  1. Using expected value, is it economically better to make or buy the component?

Estimated cost of purchase = 10000 * 72 = 72000

cost for production = setup cost + defective repair cost + total raw material cost

Given:

Cost of raw material per component = $40

Setup cost = $100,000

cost of defective repair per component = $120

Percent defective  0 10 20 30   40 

Probability of 10 20 30 25 15 

occurrence

No. Of defective units as probability = sum of ((percent defective/100) * (probability of occurrence/100) )* (total units) )

= (((0/100) * (10/100) ) +  ((10/100) * (20/100) ) + ((20/100) * (30/100))  +  ((30/100) * (25/100)  + ((40/100) * (15/100) ) * (10000)  

= 0.215 *10000

= 2150 Units

Total estimated repairing cost =  total defective units * cost per repair = 2150*120 = $258,000

Total cost of raw materials =  total units * cost per unit

=  10000 * 40

=  $400,000

total cost of production for 10,000 units =  $258,000 + $400,000 + 100,000 

 =  $758,000

Estimated cost of purchasing = 10,000 *72 = $720,000

Therefore, comparing the prices for purchasing and manufacturing, it is economically better to manufacture the products.

2. Strategically thinking, why might management opt for other than the most economical choice?

The management may opt for manufacturing the product even though its costlier than purchasing the product because strategically thinking it gives them an opportunity to establish themselves in the market. By manufacturing the products in house they can look for long term solutions for future orders and they can also reduce the defective components by improving themselves and also it removes the dependency on external vendors which will make them more productive.

response for Tharun Varikoti

1.  Using the expected value, is it economically better to make or buy the component?

Cost estimate with new high cost component:

$72×10,000=720,000

Another approach the management tried to take up was to build the component internally & setup:

Cost estimate if Teloxy builds it:

100,000+400,000= $500,000

Calculation after the defect:

0x10+0.1×20+0.2×30+0.3×25+0.4×15= 21.5 = 0.215

Total number of defective components for 10000 units=2150

Cost for defective component=$120

2150×120= $258,000

Thus, total cost If Teloxy builds it with the predicted defects= = 258,000 + 500,000 = $758,000

Coming to the difference if Teloxy builds it or buys it= 758,000-720,000 = $38,000.

Concluding to this calculation, economically it’s better for Teloxy to purchase it from the third-party vendor than building it.

2.  Strategically thinking, why might the management opt for other than the most economical choice?

Utilizing the normal esteem, we see that it is financially savvy for the organization to make a segment than to get it. Be that as it may, now and again, the organization might opt to purchase the part

Despite the fact that it is increasingly costly as the organization is new to the assembling procedure and that there is an immense danger of disappointment or the harmed market esteem and the notoriety if there emerges a sudden hazard. Utilizing the normal esteem and the determined numbers above, we can see that last expense per unit is $75.8 if there should be an occurrence of make option and $77 in the event of purchasing the segment which is a less expense to the organization than the expense of building the market esteem and the notoriety once it is down a direct result of any looked for of disappointment. On the off chance that the organization thinks toward this path, then the organization might opt for purchasing the part despite the fact that it isn’t practical.

References:

1.  Kerzner, H. (2017). Project management: A Systems Approach to Planning, Scheduling, and Controlling (12 ed.). Hoboken, NJ, USA: John Wiley & Sons, Inc.

74. Assignment: Journaling

When you have a strong grasp of the basic tenets, strengths, and weaknesses of key theories of psychology, you can make an informed decision as to which theory or theories best apply in understanding a particular set of behaviors. By keeping a journal of sorts, you can document the characteristics of each theory as you learn about it. Your journaling will be a useful reference for you long after you complete this course. The Psychology Theories Template provides a matrix where you can record what you have learned about each theory.

For this Assignment, you will explore key concepts found in psychodynamic theories and begin your journaling of this week’s theories.

To complete

Begin populating the Psychology Theories Template related to this week’s theories—psychodynamic theories. As you begin populating your template, consider the following:

  1. Identify who or what contributed to the development of the theory. Were there key researchers or seminal research that led to the theory?
  2. Record whether the theory emphasizes nature (biology), nurture (environment), or both.
  3. List the primary characteristics or features of the theory (its key tenets and concepts). Be sure to include if a particular period of life is emphasized.
  4. List the noteworthy strengths and weaknesses of the theory.
  5. (Optional) Include any notes that you find helpful in understanding and applying the theory, such as potential contemporary themes or fields of research in which the theory could be applied.

75. Term Paper

Upload your Term Project Paper here. You may write on any topic related to technology security.

You must produce a minimum of a 10 pages paper. You must use a minimum of 5 references.

– Assure you are citing in APA format

-You must use a minimum of one graphics (may use a table)

– Doublespace the paper

– You must use APA formatting (6th Edition)

76. Discussion

Cushing filed an application with the office of the Adjutant General of the State of New Hampshire for the use of the Portsmouth Armory to hold a dance on the evening of April 29. The application, made on behalf of the Portsmouth Area Clamshell Alliance, was received by the Adjutant General’s office on or about March 30. On March 31 the Adjutant General mailed a signed contract after agreeing to rent the armory for the evening requested. The agreement required acceptance by the renter affixing his signature to the agreement and then returning the copy to the Adjutant General within five days after receipt. Cushing received the contract offer, signed it on behalf of the Alliance, and placed it in the outbox for mailing on April 3. At 6:30 on the evening of April 4, Cushing received a telephone call from the Adjutant General revoking the rental offer. Cushing stated during the conversation that he had already signed and mailed the contract. The Adjutant General sent a written confirmation of the withdrawal on April 5. On April 6 the Adjutant General’s office received by mail from Cushing the signed contract dated April 3 and postmarked April 5.

a.  What are the arguments that a binding contract exists?

b.  What are the arguments that the contract does not exist or should not exist?

3 paragraphs with 3 references

77. Week 8- Discussion

Discussion Assignment:

Watch the following video:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=1gHbwT_R9t0

Was the news segment compelling enough to convince you that the Earth could be flat? Whether we realize it or not, we are inundated with causal claims and arguments. The Flat Earth Wiki page explains that the evidence for a flat earth is derived from many different facets of science and philosophy. The world looks flat, the bottoms of clouds are flat, the movement of the Sun; these are all examples of your senses telling you that we do not live on a spherical heliocentric world. This is using what’s called an empirical approach, or an approach that relies on information from your senses.

The causes of the following events and phenomena are well known and frequently discussed. But do you understand these causes well enough to spell them out to someone else? See how well (and in how much detail) you can explain one of these events or phenomena. Post your explanation to the discussion thread. Is your explanation relatively clear, or does it seem more open to debate? earthquakes/tsunamis
swelling caused by a bee sting
sharp rises in reported cases of autism or asthma
fake news
climate change
popularity of the Netflix series 13 Reasons Why
increasing post-graduation debt for college students
outcome of the

2016 presidential election
controversies in schools and online over free speech

 

78. Computer Science

Question 1

Calculate the slope and intercept of the first order equation y=mx+b  ->  deg_c = m * deg_f + b

Here is the spreadsheet  https://github.com/ml1150258/2019_Spring_CIS_CSC_17c/tree/master/Hmwk/CurveFitLab (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. 

Write a program/project in Netbeans using the same concepts as the  spreadsheet.  You can copy the degrees Fahrenheit column and place in a  file.  Then copy the column with error values included for degree  Celsius.  Calculate the slope and intercept for the data using the  formulas in the spreadsheet.

Question 2

Create abstract classes to inherit, show polymorphic behavior and  operator overloading.  I have written the .h and main.cpp files for  you.  Complete by writing the .cpp class files.

https://github.com/ml1150258/2019_Spring_CIS_CSC_17c/tree/master/Hmwk/Review2_CIS17c_Object_Array

79. English Homework

Readings Required:

“Analyzing a Visual: Texting while Driving”, 473 

Answer each question in 150-300 words:

  1. How does the ad’s caption “Get the Message” have a double meaning? Do you find the caption effective? Why or why not?
  2. Briefly argue how a visual argument about texting and driving (like this one) might be more or less effective than an essay on the same subject.

80. Education Homework

Story Plot      

Section 4.2 of the text discusses in detail the importance and the various types of plot we see in the stories we read.  Successful stories are those that have an identifiable plot or sequence of events (Coats, 2013).  Our understanding of the types of plot will help us to better identify the kinds of stories our future students gravitate towards.  For this post, you will complete “The Seven Basic Plots” chart, which is available in your online course.  You will choose at least two children’s books that fit into each plot category.  A title may fit into more than one category, but you must choose at least two books for each plot type.  Then, briefly discuss how knowing this information will help you choose literature for your classroom.

81. Education homework

Picturebooks      

The introduction for Chapter 3 of the text discusses picturebooks and the important role this type of literature can have in helping children develop in their visual, spatial, and gestural literacies (Coats, 2013).  Our ability as teachers to understand the basics of picturebook design will assist us in our choosing of books.  For this post, you will create a picturebook of your own, implementing and discussing those elements addressed in Chapter 3.  Go to Storybird (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. and design a picturebook to share with your classmates. If you need assistance with how to use Storybird, it is recommended you view the Storyboard Tutorial for Students (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site..  In your post, include a description of the elements of an effective picturebook design, and explain how your picturebook aligns with these elements.  Include one picture and description for each of the following:

  • Color
  • Shape, line, and texture
  • Characters and icons
  • Composition and point of view

In your post, be sure to include a discussion of these elements, why you feel your students would enjoy this book, and a working link to your picturebook.

Storyboard Tutorial for Students (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site..  In your post, include a description of the elements of an effective picturebook design, and explain how your picturebook aligns with these elements.  Include one picture and description for each of the following:

  • Color
  • Shape, line, and texture
  • Characters and icons
  • Composition and point of view

In your post, be sure to include a discussion of these elements, why you feel your students would enjoy this book, and a working link to your picturebook.

 82. Human Resource Management

Internet Search

Access the Internet and locate a health insurance company’s (e.g. UnitedHealth, Aetna, etc.) website. Write a three- to five-page double-spaced paper (excluding title and reference pages), addressing the following:

  • Describe member services and incentives.
  • Discuss new/current/upcoming technology.
  • Examine provider network and outreach.
  • Explain the insurance company’s commitment to excellence and quality.
  • List its accreditation and/or certification.
  • Generate two recommendations for improving the company’s member services and/or website.

The Internet Search assignment

Carefully review the Grading Rubric (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. for the criteria that will be used to evaluate your assignmen

83.Human Resource Management

 Information Systems Functionalities

In preparing for this discussion, read Chapter 23 of the course text. For your initial post, address the following in the discussion forum:

  • Describe information systems functionalities in claims management and member services maintained by Managed Care Organizations (MCOs).
  • Identify the significance of information systems in maintaining provider network operated by MCOs.
  • Discuss the changes in information systems to support consumerism that can be recognized in MCOs.

84. Human Resource Management.

Employer-Sponsored Health Insurance

In preparing for this discussion, read Chapters 16 and 22 of the course text. For your initial post, address the following in the discussion forum:

  • Describe the sales process in the employer-sponsored model.
  • Compare the differences between rating and underwriting.
  • Discuss the influence of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act on ONE of the four areas: (a) marketing, (b) sales, (c) rating, and (d) underwriting.

Your initial post should be at least 300 words. Support your response with a minimum of two scholarly sources (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site. that were published in the last five years.

85. Political Science

Question 1: What are the major approaches to political development? Analyze critically different approaches to political development as well as the relationship between development and post-colonialism. (300 words)

Question 2: What is the relationship between political development and democracy? What is the relationship between political development and civil rights? Are they the same? Which one constitutes a prerequisite for the other?(300 words)

86. Accounting

Describe the organizations and rules that govern accounting.

87. Writing Essay

Need to write a paper with references for implementing new stores and what are cybersecurity plans and Risks. Please go through the screen shots for more details and how to write the paper,


88.Discussion

While some similarities between management and leadership exist, there are notable differences.

  • In your own words, explain what you believe the difference is between management and leadership.
  • Conduct research on the differences between management and leadership, and post your findings. References and citations are to be formatted according to APA style and formatting guidelines.

89. Entrepreneurship Case Analysis Essay

CASE ANALYSIS GRADING

Case analysis assignments are designed to demonstrate your analytical abilities and your critical thinking skills. They are NOT summaries of the case.

For each assignment, you need to show:

– The top issues which you think prompted the case to be written

– Your consideration of each issue, including any action that must be taken to address the issue and the pros/cons of that action

THEN

– Roll the electronic die.

– Assume the perspective of the company officer indicated by the die.

– Describe your reaction to the case from that officer’s perspective

You receive no points for summarizing the case.

You can receive a maximum of 5 points for issue identification.
You can receive a maximum of 15 points for your analysis of those issues.
You can receive a maximum of 5 points for the company officer perspective.

In exceptional cases, the point allocation may change.

Since we will identify key issues in the case class discussion, late analysis submissions will be discounted by 50%, unless significant new ideas are presented.  

90. Information Systems

Instructions

Paper D: Reflective paper on class learning.

Consider this assignment as a reflective piece on class learning as it applies to Ethics in Information Technology. It describes your Ah-ha or Eureka moments. It is hoped that this course made you think about the ethical issues that occur in your personal and work lives and how to go about making ethical choices. Please use the ideas you learned from this course; how you will synthesize what you learned from your research about your topic including – over-arching issues, readings, discussion from class, and conclusions from other assignments that apply to your research.

Please address the following elements:

  • From a class learning perspective, what were some of your “take-aways?”
  • How has this impacted your understanding of the ethical issues?
  • What will you do differently?
  • How has what you have learned in this course influenced your career?
  • As we continue to move toward a global community, what new challenges might we see relating to ethics in IT?

You are to prepare a reflective piece of not more than 2-3 pages, double-spaced and submit it to your Assignment Folder as an attached Microsoft Word file. This paper may be subjective in nature!

(This assignment is for the ethics in technology class)

91. English homework Help

Student Newspaper Article Summary Template

Student name: _______________________________________

Author(s): _____________________________________________________

Date Published: _________________________________________________

Title: _________________________________________________________

Newspaper: ____________________________________________________

Website: _______________________________________________________

Date Accessed: __________________________________________________

APA Citation: __________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________

Paragraph 1: Introduction: Who are the actors in this story? What happened? How did it happen? When did it happen? Is it still happening? Where did it happen?

Paragraph 2: What are the natural elements introduced in this story? What are the key points about these natural elements that the author(s) make?

Paragraph 3: What are the social elements introduced in this story? What are the key points about these social elements that the author(s) makes? Are people of all genders and races represented? Whose voices are not heard that might be important to this story?

Paragraph: 4: What are the major findings of this story? What are the implications of this story?

92. Identify Variable Types And Values

In this assignment, you will be required to use the Heart Rate Dataset to complete the following:

  • Identify the types of data represented by variables
  • The range or types of values for each variable
  • Give a brief written description of the variables, and how they are used in the data set.

Steps

1. Open the Heart Rate Dataset in Excel

2. Identify each of the variables contained in the dataset by type

3. Identify the type of data each variable represents (e.g., qualitative or quantitative) and the possible values for each

4. Briefly describe how the variable is used in the dataset, (e.g., to identify a class, or to give a specific numeric value for an individual).

Additional Instructions:

Your assignment should be typed into a Word or other word processing document, formatted in APA style. The assignments must include

Correctly identifies all variable types

Correctly gives the range of values for each variable

Correctly describes each variable

Submitted assignment is well written and well organized demonstrating excellence in scholarly writing. Mechanics (spelling and punctuation) and grammar are excellent.

93. Applied sciences

Submit a Discussion post in which you respond to the following five questions. Be sure to support your responses with information you learned from the week’s Learning Resources.

  1. Start your post with a brief description of a current or historical public health effort from your interactive courseware (e.g., water fluoridation) that is new or surprising.
  2. Considering your daily activities, describe two specific instances where public health efforts such as those identified in your learning resources (e.g., immunization) may have an impact on individuals you know.
  3. Explain how your examples might impact the burden of disease addressed in your Learning Resources this week.
  4. How would (or do) your examples of public health affect people in other less developed countries? Provide an example to illustrate your point.

94. BYOD Is A Growing Trend In Corporate Environments


BYOD is a growing trend in corporate environments, where employees bring their own devices to work. Factors  that have led to the growing popularity of BYOD include the benefits of work flexibility, increased productivity,          and efficiency of employees. Despite these benefits, there are concerns over information security and privacy. Since BYOD allows employees to access organizational data anytime anywhere, it is necessary to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of organizational information resources and assets.

Discussion Questions

 1. What are the advantages and disadvantages of allowing employees to use their personal smart phones for work?

2. What people, organization, and technology factors should be addressed when deciding whether to allow employees to use their personal smart phones for work?

Provide support for your statements and references, APA formatted.

95. Literature Analysis Research

Format: This assignment must be printed out for submission, following the standard MLA format.

Details: 2 Page (600-650 words) comparison/contrast of Masque of the Red death and The Tell-Tale Heart by Edgar Allen Poe ! Include the following:

  • Compare/contrast three (3) literary and poetic devices between literary works ,Define the literary and poetic      devices.
  • Answer: how does each work use them differently or the same?
  • Answer: what affect do the literary devices have on the reader in terms of interpretation if some or all of the literary devices are NOT included?  How would their absence change the literary work?
  • Answer: what other devices would YOU choose if you had the power to edit the literary work?  Name at least two (2) and why.

For your title, you will need to list the following choice as how you would like this grade to be counted 

  • A: Replacement grade for one (1) discussion board

96. Emerging-Threats-And-Countermeasures_ Discretion

How basic discretion steps can help in countermeasures?

3 references with minimum of 300 words

97. Discussion Question

From the perspective of a general manager in your field, which of the organizational control methods outlined in Chapter 19 of the Management textbook do you think would be the most universal? What does organizational control look like in your sphere of influence? The book is   

Daft, R. (2014). Management (11th ed.). Vanderbilt University: South-Western Cengage learning. I need at least 2 refs. 1-2 pages can do the job.

98. Monologue

Write an monologue of “mama bear from the fairy tail- goldilocks and three bear”

99. Enterprise Risk Management_ Mars And California Health System

1)Approach Mars, Incorporated used to implement ERM

2)University of California Health System’s ERM development.

Do some research on above two topics and explain In what ways are the two organization’s approaches to ERM(Enterprise Risk Management) similar? How do they differ? Choose one aspect of each ERM implementation from which the other organization would benefit and explain why.  

Minimum of 300 words with three references

100. Three 550-600 Word Research Papers. APA Format.3-4 Peer Reviewed References.No Plagiarism

Three 550-600 word research papers. APA format. APA format in paragraph citations. 3-4 Peer reviewed references. No plagiarism

Topics:

Question 1) Business Bluffing

Question 2) Stakeholder theory

Question 3)Organizational Integrity

Please follow below instructions, each paper should have,

DEFINITION: a brief definition of the key term followed by the APA reference for the term; 

SUMMARY: Summarize the article in your own words- this should be in the 150-200 word range. Be sure to note the article’s author, note their credentials and why we should put any weight behind his/her opinions, research or findings regarding the key term.

DISCUSSION: Using 300-350 words, write a brief discussion, in your own words of how the article relates to the selected chapter Key Term. A discussion is not rehashing what was already stated in the article, but the opportunity for you to add value by sharing your experiences, thoughts and opinions. This is the most important part of the assignment.

REFERENCES: All references must be listed at the bottom of the submission in APA format.

101.Nursing

What are some factors that make some people healthy and others ill? Healthy People 2020 identifies five determinants of health that influence the health of individuals and populations. Healthy People 2020 describes them as “a range of personal, social, economic, and environmental factors that influence health status” (U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, 2018, About Determinants of Health, para. 1). Determinants fall into five categories, including (a) policy making, (b) social factors, (c) health services, (d) individual behavior, and (e) biology and genetics.

U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Office of Disease Prevention and Health Promotion. (2018). Healthy People 2020: About Determinants of Health. Retrieved from https://www.healthypeople.gov/2020/about/foundation-health-measures/Determinants-of-Health

102. Company Name Apple Inc:

The aim of this assignment is to provide students the opportunity to perform a thorough case analysis. Select your company and get approval from your course professor before working on it. The case analysis should include the following elements:

Title Page

Executive Summary

Background 

  • Introduce      the company and provide the reader with background information about the      company.

Situation Analysis 

  • The Environment – PESTLE Analysis
    1. Political environment
    2. Economic environment
    3. Social environment
    4. Technological environment
    5. Legal/Regulatory environment
    6. Environmental environment
  • The Industry – Porter’s Five Forces Analysis
    1. Bargaining power of suppliers
    2. Threat of new entrant
    3. Rivalry among existing competitors
    4. Bargaining power of competitors
    5. Threat of substitutes
  • The Firm 
    1. What is the mission and vision of the firm?
    2. What are the strengths of the firm?
    3. What is the firm’s financial condition?
    4. What are       the constraints and weaknesses of the firm (i.e. financial condition,       organizational conflict)?
    5. What is the       management philosophy? 
    6. What does       the organizational structure tell you about how decisions are made?
  • The Product
    1. What good       and/or service does the organization offer? 
    2. What       consumer need does the product solve?
    3. What       promotional mix, channels of distribution, and pricing strategies are being       used by the organization?
    4. What competitive advantage does the       marketing strategy offer?

SWOT Analysis 

  • Strengths 
    • Identify strengths of the organization and       answer the following questions:
      • How does        this strength affect the operations of the organization?
      • How does this strength assist the company        in meeting the needs of its target market(s)?
  • Weaknesses 
    • Identify weaknesses of the organization and       answer the following questions:
      • How does this weakness affect the        operations of the organization?
      • How does        knowledge of this weakness assist the organization in meeting the needs        of its target market(s)?
  • Opportunities 
    • Identify       opportunities in the industry (and/or external environment) and answer       the following questions:
      • How is        this opportunity related to serving the needs of our target market?
      • What        actions must the organization take to capitalize on this opportunity?
  • Threats 
    • Identify       threats in the industry (and/or external environment) and answer the       following questions:
      • How is this threat related to serving the        needs of our target market?
      • What        actions must the organization take to prevent this threat from limiting        the capabilities of the organization?

Problem Statement 

  • What is the      primary problem in the case? Secondary problems? What are the ramifications of these problems in      the long run? Short run? Include quantitative and qualitative      analysis in your response.

Strategic Plan

  • Based on the problem      identified, develop a 5-year strategic plan for the company. This plan should include:

1. Clear vision, mission statement and core values

2. SMART objectives to solve the problem

3. Corresponding strategies for the objectives identified

4. Implementation plan

5. Key Performance Indicators to monitor progress

Summary

  • Conclude the paper      with a summary of the major points.

References

As groups prepare the project, please attend to the following additional guidelines:

· Length: 30 pages (double-spaced)

· Sources: 15 scholarly sources and 15 sources of business data

· Format: APA 

Proofread the document carefully before submission at the end of the bi-term

 

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